NAME:__________________________ easily or seems to be having difficulty

SECTION:_______________________ D. All of the above

DATE:__________________________
6. The most appropriate definition of
SIMULATION QUIZ Vital Signs:
A. Signs and symptoms of a disease
John, a 78-year-old man with Dementia B. An indication of basic body
has been assigned to you. He fell out of functioning
his bed and sprained his wrist. He is C. A part of human composition
diabetic and suffers from left-sided D. Physiology and anatomy
weakness due to a stroke. He requires
total care and assistance with 7. An adult blood pressure reading of
everything he does. He has dentures. 120/80 mm Hg is:
He can no longer walk alone, feed A. Prehypertension
himself, bathe or dress himself, and he B. Hypotensive
is incontinent of urine and stool. His vital C. Normal
signs are to be monitored q 4 hrs. D. Hypertensive

1. The taking of John’s vital signs 8. Regulator of body temperature:

includes A. Medulla
A. Temperature, blood pressure, B. Sebaceous glands
respirations. and pulse C. Hypothalamus
B. blood pressure, respirations, pulse D. Wernicke's area
and ROM
C. temperature, I&O, respirations, pulse 9. Surface and Core:
and blood pressure A. Pulse
D. All of the above B. Temperature
C. Blood pressure
2. When taking John’s blood pressure, D. Pain
you should make certain that
A. The cuff is the correct size 10. Constant, remittent and intermittent
B. John is lying on his left side are classifications of:
C. The cuff is positioned dependent to A. Pain
his elbow B. Fever
D. The cuff is pumped to at least 20 mm C. Headache
above his baseline BP D. Anxiety

3. When counting the pulse rate, you 11. A sudden drop in blood pressure
may use the pulse at what points? because of positional changes is called
A. The carotid artery ____________ ____________
B. The radial artery
C. The apical area of the heart via the 12. The most appropriate position in
chest using a stethoscope obtaining a rectal temperature for an
D. All of the above adult would be:
A. Supine
4. You can count respirations while B. Fowler's
A. Taking John’s b/p C. Sim's
B. Counting John’s pulse D. Lateral
C. Taking his temperature
D. None of the above 13. Considered the 5th vital sign:
A. Height and weight
5. When assessing John’s respirations, B. Respiration
you should C. Body mass index
A. Count the number of times his chest D. Pain
rises and falls in one minute
B. Auscultate his chest 14. A student nurse taking care of a
C. Observe whether John is breathing patient with an abnormal body
temperature needs more training when B. APGAR 10
he/she does what? C. APGAR 8
A. Monitor patient's temperature at least D. APGAR 5
every 4 hours or PRN
B. Discourages a patient from drinking 21. You’re assessing the one minute
fluids to avoid excessive activity APGAR score of a newborn baby. On
C. Cover patient with more blankets, assessment, you note the following
close room doors or windows about your newborn patient: heart rate
D. Further assess for possible site of 101, cyanotic body and extremities, no
localized infection response to stimulation, no flexion of
extremities, and strong cry. What is your
15. This condition may produce a patient’s APGAR score?
subnormal temperature: A. APGAR 4
A. Cerebral palsy B. APGAR 6
B. Infection C. APGAR 3
C. Hypothyroidism D. APGAR 2
D. Fever
23. You’re assessing the one minute
16. Considered the least accurate APGAR score of a newborn baby. On
method of measuring temperature: assessment, you note the following
A. Axillary about your newborn patient: weak cry,
B. Tympanic some flexion of the arm and legs, active
C. Rectal movement and cries to stimulation,
D. Oral heart rate 145, and pallor all over the
body and extremities. What is your
17. An instrument placed against a patient’s APGAR score?
patient's chest to hear both lung and A. APGAR 5
heart sounds. B. APGAR 9
A. Stethoscope C. APGAR 12
B. Sphygmomanometer D. APGAR 6
C. Otoscope
D. Telescope 24. A newborn’s five minute APGAR
score is 5. Which of the following
18. Pulse rate faster than 100 beats per nursing interventions will you provide to
minute: this newborn?
A. Bradycardia A. Routine post-delivery care
B. CVA B. Continue to monitor and reassess the
C. Tachycardia APGAR score in 10 minutes.
D. Orthopnea C. Some resuscitation assistance such
as oxygen and rubbing baby’s back and
19. Pulse Rate slower than 60 beats per reassess APGAR score.
minute: D. Full resuscitation assistance is
A. Bradycardia needed and reassess APGAR score.
B. CVA
C. Tachycardia 25. Regarding the scenario in the
D. Orthopnea question above, when would you
reassess the APGAR score?
20. You’re assessing the one minute A. 2 minutes
APGAR score of a newborn baby. On B. 10 minutes
assessment, you note the following C. 5 minutes
about your newborn patient: heart rate D. No reassessment of the APGAR
130, pink body and hands with cyanotic score is needed.
feet, weak cry, flexion of the arms and
legs, active movement and crying when 26. You’re assessing the five minute
stimulated. What is your patient’s APGAR score of a newborn baby. On
APGAR score? assessment, you note the following
A. APGAR 9 about your newborn patient: pink body
and hand with cyanotic feet, heart rate
109, grimace to stimulation, flaccid, and
irregular cry. What is your patient’s
APGAR score?
A. APGAR 2
B. APGAR 5
C. APGAR 4
D. APGAR 8
27. You’re assessing the five minute
APGAR score of a newborn baby. On
assessment, you note the following
about your newborn patient: heart rate
97, no response to stimulation, flaccid,
absent respirations, cyanotic
throughout. What is your patient’s
APGAR score?
A. APGAR 2
B. APGAR 3
C. APGAR 0
D. APGAR 1
28. A newborn’s one minute APGAR
score is 8. Which of the following
nursing interventions will you provide to
this newborn?
A. Routine post-delivery care
B. Full resuscitation assistance is
needed and reassess APGAR score
C. Continue to monitor and reassess the
APGAR score in 10 minutes
D. Some resuscitation assistance such
as oxygen
The nurse would document the GTPAL
for this client as:
29. May is 6weeks pregnant. Her
previous two pregnancies ended in a
live birth at 41 weeks. 
 D. July 12, 2008
G-
T-
P-
A-
L-
30.Susan is experiencing her fourth
pregnancy. Her first pregnancy ended in
a spontaneous abortion at 8 weeks, the
second resulted in the live birth of twin
boys at 38 weeks, and the third resulted
in the live birth of a daughter at 34
weeks. 
 35. Dawn has regular 32-day cycles.
G-
T-
P-
A-
L-
31. A pregnant woman comes to the
clinic for a visit. This is her third
pregnancy. She had a miscarriage at 12
weeks and gave birth to a son, now 3
years old, at 32 weeks. Using the
GTPAL system, the nurse would
document this woman’s obstetric history
as:
A. 31021
B. 30111
C. 21212
D. 20111
32. A woman is 20 weeks pregnant. The
nurse would expect to palpate the
fundus at which of the following
locations?
A. Symphysis pubis

B. Between the symphysis and
umbilicus
C. At the umbilicus

D. Just below the ensiform cartilage
33. A client arrives at the prenatal clinic
for the first prenatal assessment. The
client tells the nurse that the first day of
her last menstrual period was
September 19, 2007. Using Naegele’s
rule, the nurse determines the estimated
date of confinement as:
A. July 26, 2008 

B. June 12, 2008 

C. June 26, 2008 



34. Susan had intercourse on February
12, 2006. She has not had a menstrual
period since the one that began on
January 24, 2006, and ended 5 days
later.
Her last period began September 4,
2006 and ended September 8, 2006.