Appendix C

CERTIFIED
PROTECTION
PROFESSIONAL
EXAM

Locksmith and Security Professionals’ Exam Study Guide

166 Locksmith and Security Professionals’ Exam Study Guide

1. When a security officer has been commissioned with special police or peace officer powers,
this is usually unlikely to hold up in court.
A. True B. False

2. When a security officer has been commissioned with special police or peace officer powers,
this is usually limited to the grounds and buildings of the officer’s employer.
A. True B. False

3. When a security officer has been commissioned with special police or peace officer powers, it
usually applies statewide, but only for a limited amount of time.
A. True B. False

4. In a large security firm, the role of an ombudsman is to coordinate financial policy.

A. True B. False

5. In a large security firm, the role of an ombudsman is to handle employee grievances and eth-
ical problems.
A. True B. False

6. The three types of evidence are photographed, taped, and spoken.

A. True B. False

7. The three types of evidence are sworn, eyewitness, and hearsay.

A. True B. False

8. The three types of evidence are narrative, testimonial, and circumstantial.

A. True B. False

9. The three types of evidence are testimonial, documentary, and real.

A. True B. False

10. Ecstasy is the most widely used illegal drug.

A. True B. False
Certified Protection Professional Exam 167

11. Marijuana is the most widely used illegal drug.

A. True B. False

12. Methamphetamine is the most widely used illegal drug.

A. True B. False

13. Cocaine is the most widely used illegal drug.

A. True B. False

14. Regardless of whether a business is product- or service-oriented, the initial requirement in cre-
ating a loss-prevention program is to identify the business purpose.
A. True B. False

15. Regardless of whether a business is product- or service-oriented, the initial requirement in cre-
ating a loss-prevention program is to define protection activities.
A. True B. False

16. Regardless of whether a business is product- or service-oriented, the initial requirement in cre-
ating a loss-prevention program is to identify specific vulnerabilities.
A. True B. False

17. Regardless of whether a business is product- or service-oriented, the initial requirement in cre-
ating a loss-prevention program is to define protection objectives.
A. True B. False

18. At most government agencies, if an Executive Director suddenly becomes absent, the Program
Director automatically steps into the role of Acting Executive Director.
A. True B. False

19. At most government agencies, if an Executive Director suddenly becomes absent, the Deputy
Director automatically steps into the role of Acting Executive Director.
A. True B. False

20. At most government agencies, if an Executive Director suddenly becomes absent, the
Ombudsman automatically steps into the role of Acting Executive Director.
A. True B. False
168 Locksmith and Security Professionals’ Exam Study Guide

21. At most government agencies, if an Executive Director suddenly becomes absent, the Chief
Financial Officer automatically steps into the role of Acting Executive Director.
A. True B. False

22. In criminal investigations, physical specimens are known as artifacts.

A. True B. False

23. In criminal investigations, physical specimens are known as testimonials.

A. True B. False

24. In criminal investigations, physical specimens are known as examplars.

A. True B. False

25. In addition to solid, ethical work, an officer’s best defense against a lawsuit is a testimonial from
a trusted character witness.
A. True B. False

26. In addition to solid, ethical work, an officer’s best defense against a lawsuit is clear, detailed
records and reports.
A. True B. False

27. In most burglaries, the most likely suspects are employees.

A. True B. False

28. In most burglaries, the most likely suspects are family members.
A. True B. False

29. In most burglaries, the most likely suspects are friends.

A. True B. False

30. In most burglaries, the most likely suspects are one-time visitors.
A. True B. False

31. After a crime is committed, a security officer’s role is usually apprehension and detention.
A. True B. False
Certified Protection Professional Exam 169

32. After a crime is committed, a security officer’s role is usually observing and reporting.
A. True B. False

33. Most commercial break-ins are done through adjacent buildings.

A. True B. False

34. Most commercial break-ins are done through doors and windows.
A. True B. False

35. In most statement reports, the final component is the attestation.

A. True B. False

36. In most statements reports, the final component is the notary seal.
A. True B. False

37. The typical holding force of an electromagnet lock is about 4,000 lbs.
A. True B. False

38. The typical holding force of an electromagnet lock is about 750 pounds.
A. True B. False

39. The typical holding force of an electromagnet lock is about 1,500 pounds.
A. True B. False

40. If a private security officer comes across a crime scene, they should collect and bag physical
evidence.
A. True B. False

41. If a private security officer comes across a crime scene, they should begin canvassing for wit-
nesses.
A. True B. False

42. If a private security officer comes across a crime scene, they should call the police.
A. True B. False
170 Locksmith and Security Professionals’ Exam Study Guide

43. A change key is made to fit only one lock.

A. True B. False

44. Often, when a criminal act causes a loss for a business, judges require only the full replace-
ment value of the tangible property to be associated with prosecution.
A. True B. False

45. Often when a criminal act causes a loss for a business, judges require only the retail value of
the tangible property to be associated with prosecution.
A. True B. False

46. Often, when a criminal act causes a loss for a business, judges require only the cost value of
the tangible property to be associated with prosecution.
A. True B. False

47. Security consoles in a large installation shouldn’t be conveniently located.

A. True B. False

48. Logic bombs are a type of computer virus frequently used for embezzlement.
A. True B. False

49. Trojan horses are a type of computer virus frequently used for embezzlement.
A. True B. False

50. The “Standard Checklist Criteria for Business Recovery,” published by the Federal Emergency
Management Agency (FEMA), recommends that a company’s business recovery plan be
updated every year.
A. True B. False

51. The financial planning process at a security organization typically doesn’t include budgeting.
A. True B. False

52. If a suspect perspired a lot during questioning, they will be described by a forensic technolo-
gist as a “secretor.”
A. True B. False
Certified Protection Professional Exam 171

53. In a management scheme that follows Hertzberg’s motivational model, a sense of responsibil-
ity would serve as the strongest motivating factor for an employee.
A. True B. False

54. Negative reinforcement occurs when an employee’s behavior is accompanied by the removal
of an unfavorable consequence.
A. True B. False

55. The main disadvantage of most wireless alarm systems is they are harder to install than hard-
wired systems.
A. True B. False

56. Before a crime is committed, a security officer’s role is prevention.

A. True B. False

57. Heroin is the most widely used synthetic opiate.

A. True B. False

58. Management implications inherent in MacGregor’s Theory Y of management don’t include

decentralization.
A. True B. False

59. When writing an investigative report, a security officer shouldn’t compose the report in chrono-
logical order.
A. True B. False

60. A night latch has a spring latch bolt and provides extra strength to a door’s primary lock.
A. True B. False

61. When investigating a crime, an officer should return to reinterview a witness who could be
described as talkative.
A. True B. False

62. The most appropriate process for conducting a crime scene over a large area is the spiral
method.
A. True B. False
172 Locksmith and Security Professionals’ Exam Study Guide

63. In most jurisdictions, a security officer has the same power to arrest as a private citizen.
A. True B. False

64. When a hardwired alarm system is experiencing many false alarms, the cause is often a bro-
ken wire or a loose connection.
A. True B. False

65. If the security manager is working in a proprietary system, they are most likely to report to the
Chief Executive Officer.
A. True B. False

66. According to the Hallcrest Report on private security and investigation, employee theft accounts
for about 90 percent of a company’s losses.
A. True B. False

67. Within a large security organization, tactical or operational problems are primarily the respon-
sibility of a mid-level manager.
A. True B. False

68. Many private computer-system breaches can be prevented by installing correct software patches
and security upgrades.
A. True B. False

69. When taken from an automobile as evidence, paint chips can often be used to identify the
vehicle’s year of manufacturer.
A. True B. False

70. The most common type of security lighting system is the standby system.
A. True B. False

71. A security manager who adopts a “custodial” leadership style bases their decisions on leader-
ship.
A. True B. False

72. When a security officer is helping in the investigation of a crime scene that may contain rele-
vant fingerprints, the officer should dust the item for prints.
A. True B. False
Certified Protection Professional Exam 173

73. “Avoidance” is a term for a risk response that involves eliminating a threat.
A. True B. False

74. “Mitigation” is a term for a risk response that involves eliminating a threat.
A. True B. False

75. An organization is practicing “active risk acceptance” when it develops a plan to minimize
probability.
A. True B. False

76. Most narcotics are derived from opium.

A. True B. False

77. Most narcotics are derived from hemp.

A. True B. False

78. The normal risk of doing business that carries opportunities for both gain and loss is called
favorable risk.
A. True B. False

79. The normal risk of doing business that carries opportunities for both gain and loss is called
opportunity risk.
A. True B. False

80. A security manager who adopts an “autocratic” leadership style bases their decisions on formal
lines of authority.
A. True B. False

81. A security manager who adopts an “autocratic” leadership style bases their decisions on team-
work.
A. True B. False

82. Window location is classified as a “natural” security strategy.

A. True B. False
174 Locksmith and Security Professionals’ Exam Study Guide

83. Most coding systems for master key combinations are based on differences in tumbler depth.
A. True B. False

84. Most coding systems for master key combinations are based on differences in key blade width.
A. True B. False

85. The diversion of resources and assets to lower loss exposure is called transfer.
A. True B. False

86. The diversion of resources and assets to lower loss exposure is called abatement.
A. True B. False

87. Usually a good place to get a sample of a person’s signature is from records at the department
of motor vehicles.
A. True B. False

88. An evidentiary item’s chain of custody is usually considered to have been initiated by either the
recovering officer or the reporting officer.
A. True B. False

89. An evidentiary item’s chain of custody is usually considered to have been initiated by the wit-
ness who first found it.
A. True B. False

90. An evidentiary item’s chain of custody is usually considered to have been initiated by the prop-
erty or evidence specialist.
A. True B. False

91. One of the biggest advantages associated with the use of firewalls in a computer network secu-
rity is the entire network presents only one IP address to the outside world.
A. True B. False

92. The bottom-up method of budgeting works best when competitive pressures require a quick
response.
A. True B. False
Certified Protection Professional Exam 175

93. The bottom-up method of budgeting works best when first-line management is excluded from
the process.
A. True B. False

94. A dead-latch locking bolt is protected by a device that automatically blocks spring action after
the door has been shut, preventing jimmying of the bolt.
A. True B. False

95. A night-latch locking bolt is protected by a device that automatically blocks spring action after
the door has been shut, preventing jimmying of the bolt.
A. True B. False

96. The most important classifying characteristic of fiber evidence is its density.
A. True B. False

97. The most important classifying characteristic of fiber evidence is its volume.
A. True B. False

98. The most important classifying characteristic of fiber evidence is its mass.
A. True B. False

99. “High-security” combination padlocks operate on a 4-3-2-1 rotation.

A. True B. False

100. “High-security” combination padlocks operate on a 1-2-3-4 rotation.

A. True B. False

101. “High-security” combination padlocks operate on a 4-4-3-2 rotation.

A. True B. False