*S1041309I3*

S1041309I3

S104/A

Module Examination 2013

EXPLORING SCIENCE

Tuesday, 17 September 2013 10 am – 1 pm

Time allowed: 3 hours

This examination consists of THREE Parts (A, B and C), all of which
should be attempted. For each Part, the following table indicates the
type of question, the choice of question (if any), the recommended
allocation of your time and the proportion of marks awarded.

Part Nature of Choice of question Time Proportion

question allocation of marks / %
A Computer Answer ALL questions 1 hour 45
marked 20 minutes
B Scientific Answer all sections of the 20 minutes 15
skills ONE question
C Long Answer TWO questions 1 hour 40
questions 20 minutes
You are provided with a computer marked examination (CME) form for
Part A, graph paper and an answer book. Answer the Part B question
and each of your chosen two Part C questions in the answer book
together with graph paper where required. Additional answer books and
graph paper are available from the invigilator if required.
A list of standard equations and constants is provided with this
examination paper as a separate insert.

At the end of the examination

Check that you have completed Part 1 of the CME form and written your
personal identifier and examination number on each answer book used.
Failure to do so will mean that your work cannot be identified.
Attach the graph paper you use for Part B to the answer book you use
for Part B. Put all your used answer books together with your signed
desk record on top. Fasten them together in the top left hand corner
with the paper fastener provided. Attach the CME form, equations list
and this question paper to the back of the answer books with the flat
paper clip.

Copyright © 2013 The Open University

 Instructions for completing the CME form

(1) You will find one CME form provided with this paper. The invigilator has a
supply of spare forms if you should need any.
(2) You should use an HB pencil to make entries on the CME form. If you make
any smudges or other spurious marks on the form which you cannot cancel
out clearly, you should ask the invigilator for a new form, and transfer your
entries to it.
(3) If you do not wish to answer a question, pencil across the ‘don’t know’ cell
(‘?’).
(4) If you think that the question is unsound in any way, pencil across the
‘unsound’ cell (‘U’), in addition to pencilling across either an answer cell or
the ‘don’t know’ cell.
(5) For each question you must pencil across either a single answer cell or the
‘don’t know’ cell.
(6) We suggest that in the first instance, you answer by pencilling across the
facsimile CME rows reproduced opposite. Check your answers before
transferring them to your CME form.
(7) You should note that NO ADDITIONAL TIME will be allowed at the end of
the three-hour period for transferring your marks to the CME form. Time for
this is included in the 1 hour 20 minutes for Part A.
(8) On Part 1 of the CME form you must write in your personal identifier (NOT
the examination number) and the ‘assignment number’ for this examination
(S104 81). You should also pencil across the cells in the two blocks in Part 1
of the CME form corresponding to your personal identifier and assignment
number given above. We suggest that you check that Part 1 of the CME
form has been completed correctly before moving on to Part B of the
examination paper.
(9) Failure to follow the above instructions may mean that we shall not be able
to award you a mark for this Part of the examination.

Note
You may use a page at the back of any of your answer books for any rough work
required in Part A. Please note that this rough work will not be considered by the
examiners.

2 S104 September 2013

S104 September 2013 TURN OVER 3
PART A Computer-marked questions
Attempt ALL of the questions in Part A.
Part A carries 45% of the total marks.
Questions 1–5 in this Part carry 1 mark each.
Questions 6–25 in this Part carry 2 marks each.
You are advised to spend about 1 hour and 20 minutes on Part A.
Pencil your answers on the CME form provided.
Each question requires ONE answer for which you should pencil across
ONE cell in the corresponding row on the CME form.
No marks will be given for questions where more than one of the answers
has been selected from the key.
There are no penalty marks for incorrect answers.

Question 1 Table 1 shows the July rainfall as measured each year at a location in Corsley,
England (UK), over a 6-year period.
Table 1 For use with Q1.
Year 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Rainfall in July / mm 44.9 69.3 119.8 95.6 111.0 27.8

Which one of the following statements about the data is incorrect?

KEY for Q1
A The lowest rainfall occurred in 2010.
B The ratio of rainfall in 2008 compared with 2010 is approximately 3.4:1.
C Over the six years a total of 468.4 mm of rain fell.
D The mean monthly rainfall over the period is 81.5 mm.
E The rainfall in 2010 represents a 75% drop for July rainfall from the previous
year.

4 S104 September 2013

Question 2 Table 2 shows how water on the Earth is distributed among some of the major
reservoirs.
Table 2 For use with Q2.
Reservoir Mass of water / kg
Ocean 1.40 × 1021
Ice and snow 4.30 × 1019
Underground water 1.50 × 1019
Lakes 3.60 × 1017
Other 9.80 × 1016

What proportion of total water resides in lakes?

KEY for Q2
A 0.025%
B 2.0%
C 0.50%
D 0.020%
E 2.5%

Question 3 Figure 1 shows five archery targets indicating the groupings of 11 shots at each
target.

A B C

D E

Figure 1 For use with Q3.

Which one of the grouping of 11 shots as shown in A–E could be correctly
described as ‘precise but inaccurate’?
KEY for Q3
A A
B B
C C
D D
E E

S104 September 2013 TURN OVER 5

Question 4 The following equations can be combined to give a single equation for a

Fg  m1 a
m1 m2
Fg  G
r2
Which one of the following represents the correct equation for a?
KEY for Q4
m2
A aG
r2
m
B aG 2
r
C a  Fg m2 Gr
Fg 2m12m2
D a
Gr
m2m
E aG 1 2
r

Question 5 In the equation a = bc2 the units of quantity b are kg and the units of quantity c
are m s−1. What are the units of a?
KEY for Q5
A kg m−2
B kg m−1 s−2
C kg2 m2
D m s−2
E kg m2 s−2

Question 6 On 14 October 2012, Felix Baumgartner jumped from a balloon when about
39 000 m above the Earth’s surface. What speed did he reach after he had fallen
the first 3 000 m? (His parachute had not opened at that point and you can ignore
any effect of air resistance.)
Take g = 9.8 m s−2 over this altitude range.
KEY for Q6
A 170 m s−1
B 171 m s−1
C 240 m s−1
D 241 m s−1
E 340 m s−1

6 S104 September 2013

Question 7 A light is shone on the surface of a metal, which then emits photoelectrons.
Which statement below is incorrect?
KEY for Q7
A As the intensity of the light is increased, more photoelectrons are emitted.
B As the frequency of the light is increased, photoelectrons are emitted with
more kinetic energy.
C As the frequency of the light is reduced, below a certain frequency no
photoelectrons are emitted.
D As the frequency of the light is increased, more photoelectrons are emitted.
E If the same light is shone on different metals, some may and some may not
emit photoelectrons.

Question 8 E∞ = 0 eV
continuum
E7 = −0.28 eV
E6 = −0.38 eV
E5 = −0.54 eV
excited E4 = −0.85 eV
states E3 = −1.51 eV

E2 = −3.40 eV
ionisation energy

ground state E1 = −13.60 eV

Figure 2 For use with Q8.

The energy diagram of a hydrogen atom is shown in Figure 2. Between which
two energy levels will the electron make a transition when it absorbs a photon of
energy 0.97 eV?
KEY for Q8
A 5 to 3
B 7 to 3
C 3 to 5
D 3 to 7
E 5 to 7

S104 September 2013 TURN OVER 7

Question 9 A mountain climber heats 0.75 kg of snow at 0 °C in a 2.0 kW kettle in order to
melt it. How long would it take for the snow to turn to water? The specific latent
heat of melting of water is 3.3 × 105 J kg−1.
KEY for Q9
A 2.0 minutes
B 2.1 minutes
C 2.7 minutes
D 2.8 minutes
E 3.7 minutes

Question 10 Which one of the following represents the electronic configuration for the calcium
ion, Ca2+?
KEY for Q10
A 1s22s22p63s23p64s2
B 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
C 1s22s22p6
D 1s22s22p63s23p6
E 1s22s22p63s2

Question 11 Which one of the following, to the nearest whole number, is the relative molecular
mass for trinitrotoluene (TNT), which has a chemical formula of C7H5N3O6.

KEY for Q11

A 116
B 229
C 227
D 239
E 106

Question 12 Aqueous nitric acid (HNO3) will react with solid magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2)
to form an aqueous product. Which one of the following chemical equations best
represents this reaction?
KEY for Q12
A HNO3(aq) + Mg(OH)2(s) = Mg(NO3)2(aq) + H2O(l)
B 2HNO3 + Mg(OH)2 = Mg(NO3)2 + 2H2O
C 2HNO3(aq) + Mg(OH)2 (s) = Mg(NO3)2(aq) + 2H2O(l)
D 2HNO3(aq) + Mg(OH)2 = Mg(NO3)2(aq) + 2H2(g) + O2(g)
E HNO3(aq) + Mg(OH)2(s) = MgNO3(aq) + H2O(l)

8 S104 September 2013

Question 13 Which one of the following statements related to pH is incorrect?
KEY for Q13
A The pH scale is commonly measured between pH 1 and pH 14.
B An acidic solution can be defined as one in which the hydrogen ion
concentration is more than 1.0 × 10−7 mol dm−3 at 25 °C.
C An acidic solution can be defined as one in which the hydrogen ion
concentration is less than 1.0 × 10−7 mol dm−3 at 25 °C.
D pH is a logarithmic scale.
E At pH 7 a solution is considered neutral.

Question 14 Which one of the following statements about photosynthesis is incorrect?

KEY for Q14
A Light energy is used to split water to release oxygen and protons and
electrons.
B The protons are passed along a sequence of carriers in the thylakoid
membrane.
C ATP and NADP.2H are products of the light reaction.
D There is a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane.
E The dark reaction is dependent on products of the light reaction.

Question 15 Which one of the following statements about respiration is incorrect?

KEY for Q15
A Glycolysis takes place in the cytosol.
B The link reaction converts each molecule of pyruvate, the end-product of
glycolysis, into a 2C intermediate.
C Electron transport is coupled to oxidative phosphorylation.
D Most ATP is produced during the link reaction.
E Electron transport follows the oxidation of NAD.2H.

Question 16 Which one of the following statements about meiosis is incorrect?

KEY for Q16
A The pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs only in meiosis.
B Meiosis I separates the two chromatids of each chromosome.
C The combination of gene variants on a particular chromosome can remain
linked.
D Meiosis I reduces the number of chromosomes.
E Cells are haploid at the start of meiosis II.

S104 September 2013 TURN OVER 9

Question 17 Figure 3 shows the structure of a biological molecule. Which one of the following
features of biological molecules is shown in the figure?

OH
H CH2 O H O
N C C N C C
H H CH2 OH
SH

Figure 3 For use with Q17.

KEY for Q17
A Ionic bond between adjacent monomers
B Hydrogen bond between complementary DNA bases
C Glycosidic linkage between two monomers
D Ester link between fatty acid and glycerol
E Peptide bond between two amino acids

Question 18 Which one of the following statements is incorrect in relation to metamorphic

rocks associated with mountain belts such as the Himalayas?
KEY for Q18
A The rocks of progressively higher grade are exposed towards the centre of a
mountain belt.
B Young mountain belts have deeper roots compared with older and eroded
mountain belts.
C Compression during mountain building results in crustal thickening.
D Generally, slates and schists tend to be found in the cores of mountain belts
whereas gneisses are more abundant at the edges.
E Mountain building is generally associated with convergent plate-boundary
settings.

10 S104 September 2013

Question 19 Which one of the following grain size distribution diagrams corresponds to a
well-sorted mudstone?
KEY for Q19
90 90
A B
80 80

70 70

60 60
mass/%

mass/%
50 50

40 40

30 30

20 20

10 10

0 0
64 32 16 8 4 2 4 2 1 0.50 0.25 0.12
grain size/mm grain size/mm

90 90
C D
80 80

70 70

60 60
mass/%

mass/%

50 50

40 40

30 30

20 20

10 10

0 0
0.064 0.032 0.016 0.008 0.004 0.002 4 2 1 0.50 0.25 0.12
grain size/mm grain size/mm

90
E
80

70

60
mass/%

50

40

30

20

10

0
4 2 1 0.50 0.25 0.12
grain size/mm

S104 September 2013 TURN OVER 11

Question 20 Figure 4 is a schematic diagram of the rock cycle.
extrusive
igneous rock weathering
and erosion
C

uplift sea
eruptions
burial deposition
of sediments
sedimentary rock
D
magma intrusive
igneous rock
E
recrystallisation

B metamorphic rock A
partial
partial melting
melting

mantle

Figure 4 For use with Q20.

Which one of the following is an incorrect statement about the processes

occurring within the rock cycle labelled A-E on Figure 4?
KEY for Q20
A A shale is heated to form a gneiss.
B A gneiss partially melts to form a basaltic magma.
C A granite weathers to form grains of quartz, feldspar and mica.
D Clay minerals and silt accumulate to form shale.
E Mafic magma cools slowly to form a pluton composed of gabbro.

12 S104 September 2013

Question 21 Figure 5 shows the variation in mineral content of common igneous rocks.

100
S mica
AL

proportion of minerals
pyroxene R
NE amphibole
75 MI

by volume/%
C
FI
MA
50
olivine alkali
plagioclase FELS feldspar
feldspar IC MIN
ERA
25 LS
quartz
0

Figure 5 For use with Q21.

A fine-grained igneous rock contains the following proportion of minerals by

volume: amphibole (13%), pyroxene (37%), plagioclase feldspar (50%). What
would this rock be classified as?
KEY for Q21
A Mafic
B Felsic
C Granite
D Diorite
E Intermediate

S104 September 2013 TURN OVER 13

Question 22 Figure 6 shows how the Earth’s surface temperature was thought to vary during
the Hadean.

3000

2000

1000
temperature/K

700

500
400 runaway greenhouse
300 atmosphere

200

rock
vapour magma ocean CO2 liquid water
100
102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109
time since Earth formation/years

Figure 6 For use with Q22.

Which one of the following statements about the Earth’s surface temperature in
the Hadean is incorrect?
KEY for Q22
A Around 1000 years after the Earth’s formation, the Earth’s rock vapour
atmosphere condensed to form an ocean of molten silicate.
B After the impact that formed the Moon, the Earth was so hot that it was
surrounded by clouds of rock vapour.
C The magma ocean that formed around 1000 years after the Earth’s formation
lasted for around 2 million years before it solidified to give the Earth a rocky
crust.
D Liquid water appeared on the surface of the Earth around 1 million years after
the Earth’s formation.
E As the Earth’s rock vapour atmosphere cooled after the Moon formed,
silicates rained out to leave an atmosphere of mainly CO2, CO, H2O and H2.

14 S104 September 2013

Question 23 Figure 7 shows the radial speed (the magnitude of the radial velocity) of a star, as
calculated from Doppler shifts over a period of time. The data indicate that there
might be a planet orbiting the star because the radial speed seems to be varying
periodically. What is the orbital period of the planet?

24.12

24.10

24.08
Vr/km s−1

24.06

24.04

24.02

24.00
0 20 40 60 80 100 120
time/days

Figure 7 For use with Q23.

KEY for Q23
A 30 days
B 60 days
C 90 days
D 100 days
E 120 days

S104 September 2013 TURN OVER 15

Question 24 A planet is in orbit around a star that has a mass 1.5 times that of the Sun
(1.9891 × 1030 kg). It has been established that, as measured from the centre of
mass of the system, the radius of the star’s orbit is 2.7 × 106 km, and the radius
of the planet’s orbit is 4.7 × 108 km. Calculate the mass of the planet.
KEY for Q24
A 5.2 × 1032 kg
B 1.7 × 1028 kg
C 1.1 × 1028 kg
D 4.3 × 1016 kg
E 9.6 × 1016 kg

Question 25 Table 3 gives the mass (relative to the mass of the Earth), orbital radii and
orientation of five extrasolar planets orbiting similar stars in five different systems
at similar distances from the Earth. Which one of the planets is most likely to be
detected using the planetary transit technique?

Table 3 For use with Q25.

Planet Mass /ME Orbit radius /AU Orientation of

system
A 500 0.04 face-on
B 300 40 edge-on
C 10 −2 0.02 edge-on
D 300 0.02 edge-on
E 10 12 face-on

KEY for Q25

A Planet A
B Planet B
C Planet C
D Planet D
E Planet E

16 S104 September 2013

PART B Scientific skills
There is ONE question in Part B and you should attempt all sections.
Part B carries 15% of the total marks.
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Part B.
You must plot your graph on the graph paper provided.
Write your answer in the answer book provided.
Additional answer books are available from the invigilator if required.

Question 26 Often in science, one quantity is plotted against another to reveal an

approximately linear relationship. Table 4 gives the data for two quantities (A and
B) where this is the case.
Table 4 For use with Q26.
Quantity A /s Quantity B /km
0.5 80
1.0 160
1.5 240
2.0 310
2.5 370
3.0 430

(a) Plot these data on a graph, plotting Quantity A on the x-axis. You should
label the axes of your graph and give your graph an appropriate title.
(4 marks)
(b) Draw a best-fit straight line through your plotted data (you may use a ruler).
(1 mark)
(c) From your completed graph, determine the values for the gradient and
intercept of your best-fit straight line, remembering to include the units for
your gradient. You should give your answers in scientific notation and to two
significant figures. Indicate on your graph how you have determined the
gradient and intercept values but give any calculations in the exam
answer book.
(5 marks)
(d) Give the equation for your straight-line graph using the values for the
gradient and intercept you determined in (c).
(1 mark)
(e) Rearrange this equation to make Quantity A the subject and hence
determine, using the rearranged equation, the value of Quantity A when
Quantity B = 600 km, assuming a continued linear relationship. You should
show all of your working, giving your answer to two significant figures.
(3 marks)
(f) State the value of the gradient you determined in (c) in SI base units.
(1 mark)

S104 September 2013 TURN OVER 17

PART C Long questions
Attempt TWO of the four questions in Part C.
Part C carries 40% of the total marks.
All questions in this Part carry equal marks.
You should use the distribution of marks within a question as an indication of how
to apportion your time to each part of the question.
You are advised to spend about 1 hour and 20 minutes on Part C.

Question 27 (a) State, using appropriate scientific terms, the major energy transfers and
conversions that take place in the following scenario.
A child playing with a catapult:
(i) pulls the elastic in the catapult back before
(ii) letting go and launching a stone from it, which
(iii) flies through the air before embedding itself in the ground.
(Guideline: 180 words)
(8 marks)
(b) (i) The most commonly occurring isotope of radon ( 222
86 Rn) decays, with a

half-life of almost four days, to polonium (symbol Po), with the emission
of an alpha particle. Write down an equation for this reaction, indicating
the atomic number and mass number of each of the products in the
usual way.
(3 marks)
(ii) The products of this reaction have a combined mass which is
9.9 × 10−30 kg less than that of 222
86 Rn . How much energy is released?
(Give your answer in MeV, remembering that 1 eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J.)
(3 marks)
(c) A motorist tells a judge that he was driving so fast that the resultant Doppler
shift caused a red traffic light to appear green to him. Assuming typical
values for the wavelengths of red and green light of 700 nm and 500 nm,
respectively, explain, in quantitative terms, whether this is feasible. Take the
speed of light to be 3 × 108 m s−1.
(6 marks)

18 S104 September 2013

Question 28 (a) Figure 8 shows the structures of an organic compound.

H Cl H H O
N C C C C C H H
H H H H O C C H
H H

Figure 8 Compound A.

(i) Sketch a copy of Compound A and highlight the chiral carbon with an
asterisk (*). Explain your selection. (Guideline: one or two sentences.)
(ii) Compound A can undergo a reaction with chlorine gas (Cl2). Draw the
expected product of this reaction and state the type of reaction.
(iii) Compound A can also undergo a reaction with water (H2O). Draw the
expected products of this reaction and state the type of reaction. What
functional groups are produced as a result of this reaction?
(7 marks)
(b) Magnesium metal reacts with fluorine gas to produce a solid magnesium
fluoride as shown in the equation below.
Mg(s) + F2(g) = MgF2(s) ΔH = −1123.0 kJ mol−1
(i) 2.50 g of magnesium is used in this reaction. How many moles of
magnesium is this? Give your answer to three significant figures.
(ii) How much energy in the form of heat will be released in this reaction?
Give your answer to three significant figures.
(iii) What type of bonding is observed in the product? Give a brief
description of how this bonding occurs. (Guideline: one or two
sentences.)
(iv) Has the magnesium been reduced or oxidised? Explain your reasoning.
(Guideline: one or two sentences.)
(8 marks)
(c) Nitrosyl chloride gas (NOCl) can be produced by the following reaction.

N2 (g) +O2 (g) + Cl2 (g)  2NOCl (g)

(i) Draw the full structural formula and the Lewis structure of the product.
(ii) Assuming this reaction was carried out in a sealed vessel at a constant
temperature, what would be the effect of increasing the pressure in the
system? Explain your reasoning. (Guideline: three or four sentences.)
(5 marks)

S104 September 2013 TURN OVER 19

Question 29 (a) Table 5 shows the results of an experiment to investigate bacterial growth
under three conditions. In each case 0.1 µg of bacteria was added to a
sterile container of nutrient broth in a sterile laboratory environment to
ensure there were no other live microorganisms present. The mass of
bacterial growth was monitored over 10 hours (h). The three conditions were
as follows:
1 37 C for 10 hours
2 4 C for 10 hours
3 After adding the bacteria the container of nutrient broth was sterilised
before being kept at 37 C for 10 hours.

Time/h 0 2 4 6 8 10
Mass of 37 °C 0.1 1 3 8 10 11
bacterial
4 °C 0.1 0.1 0.3 0.8 1.2 1.8
growth/
µg 37 °C after 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1
sterilisation

Table 5 Results of an experiment to investigate bacterial growth under three

conditions.

(i) Briefly describe the relationship between mass of bacterial growth and
time in each of the three conditions.
(ii) Explain the differences in the mass of bacterial growth after 10 hours
between the 37 °C sample, the 4 °C sample and the sample that had
been sterilised.
The experiment was repeated at a higher temperature without
sterilisation of the sample and there was no increase in the mass of
bacterial growth over time because the enzymes in the bacteria were
denatured.
(iii) Describe the effect of thermal denaturation of proteins and explain how
this relates to a loss of enzyme function.
(10 marks)
(b) (i) Some bacteria are heterotrophs whereas others can be classed as
autotrophs. Briefly explain what heterotrophic and autotrophic mean in
terms of metabolism. (Guideline: 2 sentences.)
(ii) Bacterial cells are prokaryotic whereas animal and plant cells are
eukaryotic. Briefly describe two features that can be used to distinguish
between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. (Guideline: 2 sentences.)
(iii) Describe one feature of bacterial genomes / DNA that differs from that
of eukaryotic DNA. (Guideline: 1 sentence.)
(5 marks)

20 S104 September 2013

 (c) Haemophilia is a human blood clotting disorder that is associated with an
allele found on the X chromosome. The defective allele Xh is recessive
whereas the allele that produces healthy clotting factors is dominant XH.
State the genotypes that would be present in:
(i) a male with haemophilia
(ii) a female without haemophilia who is a carrier of the defective allele.
(2 marks)
(iii) List all of the possible outcomes in terms of sex and presence of
haemophilia in the children of a man without haemophilia and a woman
who is a carrier. Include a genetic cross diagram to support your
answer.
(3 marks)

S104 September 2013 TURN OVER 21

Question 30 (a) Figure 9 is a simplified geological cross-section through the upper 35 m of
the Earth’s crust of a well-studied area. Brief descriptions of the rock units in
Figure 9 (designated by letters) are given in Table 6.

F granite

E sandstone

D limestone
M
J coal
C
E
B sandstone
D C
A schist
F B
A
10m

x I y 1km

Figure 9 For use with Q30.

Table 6 For use with Q30.

Rock Unit Description

Sedimentary and metamorphic rocks
E Sandstone composed of well-sorted, well-rounded and frosted grains of
red colour
D Limestone containing well-preserved fossils of crinoids, echinoids and
corals
C Coal bed containing woody plant fossils
B Sandstone, devoid of fossils, and composed of poorly-sorted angular
grains
Highly-deformed and folded schist
A
Igneous rocks
F Coarse-grained granite

(i) Using the principle of superposition, draw a stratigraphic column to

depict the sequence of rock types that would be observed by drilling a
borehole at location M, remembering to label the different strata.
(ii) Sedimentary rocks are useful indicators of the environments in which
they were deposited. Suggest the most likely environments for the
formation of sedimentary beds from B to E stating clearly the main
evidence for each environment. (Guideline: up to 100 words.)
(iii) Describe the geological evidence that supported the interpretation of
I–J as a fault and state whether the faulting was a result of
compressional or extensional forces citing suitable evidence.
(Guideline: two or three sentences.)
(iv) In the laboratory small zircon crystals were separated from granite (F).
These zircon crystals have a 207Pb/235U ratio corresponding to 0.41 half
lives for 235U. Given the half life of 235U (7.04 × 108 years), estimate the
age of the granite in Ma to two significant figures (show all your
workings).
(10 marks)
22 S104 September 2013
 (b) (i) Io, a satellite of Jupiter, has a mass of 8.918 × 1022 kg and a radius of
1821 km. Calculate the density of Io. You should give your answer in SI
base units and to an appropriate number of significant figures.
(ii) Ganymede (radius = 2634 km), another satellite of Jupiter, has a
density of 1.94 × 103 kg m−3. Comparing the density of Ganymede with
the density of Io you calculated above, suggest which body contains
higher proportion of rocky material in its interior. (Guideline: one
sentence.)
(4 marks)
(c) (i) Describe what is meant by the terms regional and contact
metamorphism. (Guideline: two or three sentences.)
(ii) Describe the effect of highest-grade regional metamorphism on a
mudstone in terms of (1) the textures of the resulting rocks and (2) their
typical minerals. (Guideline: about 50 words.)
(6 marks)

[END OF QUESTION PAPER]

S104 September 2013 23

S104 Exploring science

Standard equations and

constants
This list of constants, mathematical formulae and equations is included for
reference. It may be useful as an aid to your memory but please bear in mind that
many of the entries will not be needed in this examination.

Useful constants
magnitude of the acceleration due to g = 9.8 m s−2
gravity on Earth
Newton’s universal gravitational G = 6.7 × 10−11 N m2 kg−2
constant
Coulomb’s law, constant of ke = 9.0 × 109 N m2 C−2
proportionality
Avogadro constant = 6.02 × 1023 mol−1
Hubble constant = 70 km s−1 Mpc−1
Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10−34 J s

charge of proton +e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

charge of electron −e = −1.6 × 10−19 C
mass of proton = 1.7 × 10−27 kg
mass of neutron = 1.7 × 10−27 kg
mass of electron = 9.3 × 10−31 kg
radius of the Earth = 6.378 × 106 m
mass of the Earth = 5.977 × 1024 kg
mass of the Moon = 7.35 × 1022 kg
mass of the Sun = 1.99 × 1030 kg

Mathematical formulae

4 3
volume of a sphere = πr
3
area of a circle = πr 2
y = mx + c

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Useful equations
1
Ek = mv 2
2

ΔEg = mgΔh

m
ρ=
V
F = ma
ΔV = RI
P = IΔV
E
P=
t
Δλ
z=
λ0
v = z×c
v
H0 =
r
[H + (aq)] = 10− pH mol dm −3

⎛ [H + (aq)] ⎞
pH = −1og ⎜ −3 ⎟
⎝ mol dm ⎠
E = mc 2
-13.60
En = Z 2 × eV
n2
separation distance
speed of separation =
elapsed time

rstar m
= planet
rplanet mstar
rise
gradient =
run
Eph = hf

L
F=
4πr 2
Q1Q2
Fe = − ke
r2
m1m2
Fg = G
r2
 mass of substance
number of moles of a substance =
molar mass of substance
[A] × [B]
K=
[C]
[H + (aq)] × [X − (aq)]
Ka =
[HX(aq)]
Periodic Table of the Elements

1.01
23.0

6.94
85.5

39.1
223

133

Na
Rb
Fr

Cs

19
87

55

11
37

Li

H
K

1
francium caesium rubidium potassium sodium lithium hydrogen

87.6

24.3
40.1

9.01
137
226

Mg
Ra

Ba

Be
Ca
Sr
88

56

38

12
20

4
227

139
Ac

La
89

57
radium barium strontium calcium magnesium beryllium
actinium lanthanum

88.9

45.0
Ce
232

140

262

103

175
Th

Sc
Lu
Lr
90

58

71

39

21
Y
thorium cerium lawrencium lutetium yttrium scandium

91.2

47.9
231

141
Pa

104

178
Pr

Hf
91

59

Zr
72

40

22
Ti
protactinium praseodymium hafnium zirconium titanium

92.9

50.9
Nd

Nb
238

144

105

181
Ta
92

60

73

41

23
U

V
uranium neodymium tantalum niobium vanadium
Pm

52.0
Np
237

145

95.9
106

184

Mo

Cr
W
93

61

74

24
42
neptunium promethium tungsten molybdenum chromium
Sm
244

150

98.9

54.9
Mn
Pu

Re
107

186
94

62

Tc
75

43

25
plutonium samarium rhenium technetium manganese
55.8
Am

152

108

190

101
Os

Ru
243

Eu

Fe
95

63

76

44

26
americium europium osmium ruthenium iron
Cm

58.9
Gd

Rh

Co
247

157

109

192

103
96

64

77

45

27
Ir

curium gadolinium iridium rhodium cobalt

58.7
195

106
Pd
159
247

Tb
Bk

Pt
78

46
65

Ni
97

28

berkelium terbium platinum palladium nickel

63.5
197

108
Au

Ag
251

163
Dy

Cu
Cf

79

47
98

66

29

californium dysprosium gold silver copper

65.4
254

165
Ho

Cd
112
Es

Zn
Hg
201
99

67

30
48
80

einsteinium holmium mercury cadmium zinc

10.8
69.7

27.0
Fm

204

Ga
167

115
257

100

Er

81

49

Al
68

Tl

In

31

13

B
5

fermium erbium thallium indium gallium aluminium boron

12.0
Tm
Md

72.6

28.1
169

207

119
258

101

Ge
Pb

Sn
82

50

Si
69

32

14

C
6

mendelevium thulium lead tin germanium silicon carbon

14.0
74.9

31.0
173

122
No

209
Yb

Sb
259

102

As
70

51
Bi
83

33

15

N
P

nobelium ytterbium bismuth antimony arsenic phosphorus nitrogen

79.0

16.0
32.1
128
209
Po

Se
Te
84

52

34

16

O
S

polonium tellurium selenium sulfur oxygen

19.0
79.9

35.5
127
210

53

Br
At

Cl
85

35

17

F
I

astatine iodine bromine chlorine fluorine

4.00
83.8

39.9

20.2
222

131
Rn

He
Xe

Ne
Kr

Ar
86

54

36

18

10

radon xenon krypton argon neon helium