Final Exam Review

____ 1. Which of the following describes tissues?

a. A group of cells in the same area of the body.
b. A group of associated cells with similar structure and function.
c. A group of organs with similar structure and function
d. Sheets of cells in a box.
____ 2. Which of the following statements is NOT a function of the skeletal system?
a. Produce red blood cells c. create movement
b. store minerals d. protect underlying tissues or organs.
____ 3. The bone in the forearm that attaches to the thumb side of the wrist is the
a. radius c. humerus
b. ulna d. fibula
____ 4. The most proximal bone of the leg would be the
a. humerus c. coxal
b. tibia d. femur
____ 5. Which lower leg bone is found on the lateral side of the leg?
a. femur c. fibula
b. humerus d. tibia
____ 6. The vertebrae in the region of the neck are called the
a. lumbar vertebrae c. thoriac vertebrae
b. cervical vertebrae d. v-neck vertebrae
____ 7. The ribs all emerge from the
a. lumbar vertebrae c. thoracic vertebrae
b. cervical vertebrae d. v-neck vertebrae
____ 8. The ribs, except for the floating ribs, are attached on the anterior side ofthe body to the
a. clavicle c. sacrum
b. scapula d. sternum
____ 9. The bone on the posterior surface of the head is the
a. frontal c. occipital
b. parietal d. temporal
____ 10. The field of forensic anthropology would NOT analyze skeletal remains to determine
a. height c. ethnicity
b. sex d. All of the above can be determined
____ 11. Which of the following bone features would be used to collect data for determining height?
a. length of the tibia c. length of the humerus
b. length of the femur d. all the above
____ 12. The tool used for many of the bone measurements is the
a. ruler c. protractor
b. compass d. caliper
____ 13. Which change occurring in our population, would impact forensic anthropology?
a. people are getting shorter c. the metrosexual trend
b. races are blending d. people are living longer

____ 14. Enzymes that cut DNA are called

a. scissor enzymes c. incision enzymes
b. restriction enzymes d. dissection enzymes
____ 15. Enzymes that cut DNA are derived from:
a. special government lab c. bacteria
b. viruses d. our own human cells
____ 16. Because of the charge of DNA, the wells should be placed by:
a. upside down in the chamber c. closest to the negative end
b. closest to the positive end d. sideways in the chamber
______17. Gel electrophoresis separates nucleic acids by
 a. shape
b. size
____ 18. The axial skeleton contains
a. the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis
b. arms, legs, hands and feet
____ 19. The orbicularis oris
a. closes, purses, and protrudes the lips
b. pulls the lower lip down and back
____ 20. The temporalis
a. raises the corners of the mouth
b. closes the jaw
c. both A and B
d. neither A or B
c. the skull, vertbral column, and rib cage
d. shoulder and pelvic girdles
c. draws the eyebrows together
d. allows blinking and squinting
c. pulls corners of mouth inferiorly
d. compresses the cheek

Match the following tissues with the choices below. They may be used once, more than once or not at
all.
a. epithelial tissue c. muscular tissue
b. connective tissue d. neural tissue
____ 21. abundance of protein fibers in matrix
____ 22. create movement
____ 23. binding and support
____ 24. regulate permeability through absorption, secretion, and diffusion
____ 25. conduct stimulus-repsonse activity
____ 26. attach bone to bone

Match the following descriptions with the terms below. Some of the description may not be used.
a. Located inward from the surface h. head region
b. Located at or near the surface i. chest region
c. loin, posterior to the groin j. lies below a reference point
d. back of elbow k. lies above a reference point
e. toward the midline of the body l. neck region
f. of or relating to the side m. between the hips
g. eye region n. base of skull
____ 27. cephalic
____ 28. medial
____ 29. sacral
____ 30. occipital
____ 31. lumbar
____ 32. superior
____ 33. inferior
____ 34. lateral
____ 35. Cervical

____ 1. Nerves carry impulses toward the brain are

a. sensory neurons c. motor neurons
b. efferent neurons d. interneurons
____ 2. A simple spinal reflex goes along which of the following reflex arcs?
a. efferent neuron, interneuron, afferent neuron
b. afferent neuron, efferent neuron, interneuron
c. afferent neuron, interneuron, efferent neuron
d. efferent neuron, afferent neuron, interneuron
____ 3. An automatic response to a stimulus that often does not pass through the brain is called
a. synapse c. reflex
b. reaction d. action potential
____ 4. Brain disorder in which a person looses neurons that release acetylcholine.
a. ALS - Lou Gehrig’s disease c. Parkinson’s disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease d. Epilepsy
____ 5. Brain disease/disorder that progressively destroys the myelin sheaths of the neurons of the central nervous
system is called
a. Parkinson’s disease c. Multiple sclerosis
b. Lou Gehrig’s disease d. Huntington’s disease
____ 6. Which membrane protein is responsible for restoring the original concentration of ions during the action
potential?
a. Na channel c. Ca channel
b. K channel d. Na/K pump
____ 7. __________ secretes hormones of the posterior pituitary and releasing factors, which regulate the anterior
pituitary.
a. hippocampus c. endocrine gland
b. thalamus d. hypothalamus
____ 8. Which protein hormone is produced by the pancreas to promote the increase in the sugar content of the blood
by breaking down glycogen in the liver?
a. glucose c. thyroxine
b. glucagon d. insulin
____ 9. An endocrine gland that stores and releases two hormones produced by the hypothalamus is called the
a. pancreas c. pituitary
b. hippocampus d. thyroid
____ 10. Visual condition in which the eye focuses an image behind the retina. Vision is better for a distance than for
close up.
a. Glaucoma c. Myopia
b. Hyperopia d. Astigmatism
____ 11. The difference between a rod and a cone is
a. cone sense color and rods sense faint light
b. rods sense color and cones sense faint light
c. rods sense faint light and color, cones only sense faint light
d. cones sense color and faint light, rods only sense color.

____ 12. What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?
a. aqueous humor c. cornea
b. lens d. iris
____ 13. Light passes through the following structures in which order?
a. vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea
b. cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
c. cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor
d. aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor
____ 14. Eye disorder where the loss of vision is caused by damage to the optic nerve because of increased intraocular
pressure.
a. Myopia c. Cataracts
b. Glaucoma d. Conjunctivitis
Matching

a. Frontal Lobe e. Cerebellum

b. Parietal lobe f. Brain Stem
c. Temporal Lobe g. Sensory Cortex
d. Occipital Lobe
____ 15. inferior lobe of the cerebrum; specific activities include hearing and short term memory
____ 16. sides of the superior part of the brain
____ 17. controls manners and reasoning
____ 18. dorsal projection of the brain; controls muscle coordination
____ 19. controls touch
____ 20. regulates breathing and involuntary actions
____ 21. controls sight and vision.

a. Hypothalamus d. Medulla Oblongata

b. Amygdala e. gyrus
c. Pons f. sulcus
____ 22. convoluted ridge between anatomical grooves
____ 23. shallow furrow on the surface of the brain
____ 24. Anger and sadness is found here
____ 25. controls hunger and thirst
____ 26. acts as the relay station for sensory information
____ 27. inferior portion of the brain stem.

a. blind spot e. optic nerve

b. cone f. pupil
c. cornea g. retina
d. iris h. rod
____ 28. conical photosensitive receptor cells of the retina.
____ 29. small circular area in the retina where the optic nerve enters the eye with no rods or cones.
____ 30. colored anterior surface which determines color of the eyes
____ 31. sensory membrane that lines the posterior chamber of the eye
____ 32. conduct visual stimuli to the brain.
____ 33. transparent part of the coat of the eyeball that covers the iris and pupil
____ 34. long photosensitive receptor cells of the retina
____ 35. opening in the iris.
1. Which of the following is NOT necessary for survival? [A] food [B] oxygen [C] vitamins
[D] water

2. Which of these necessary components is broken down to provide energy? [A] food [B]
oxygen
[C] vitamins [D] water

3. What system is responsible for the break down of macromolecules to monomers for
absorption?
[A] respiratory [B] cardiovascular [C] digestive [D] urinary

4. What system is responsible for balancing the body tissue fluid levels? [A] respiratory
[B] cardiovascular [C] digestive [D] urinary

5. What system plays a vital role in the activity of each of the others? [A] respiratory [B]
cardiovascular [C] digestive [D] urinary
6. What term describes the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment despite the
constantly
changing external environment? [A] macrostasis [B] metabolism [C] homeotaxis [D]
homeostasis

7. Which organ in the digestive system is responsible for helping maintain the water balance in
the body?
[A] colon [B] stomach [C] duodenum [D] jejunum/ileum

8. Which of the following is NOT an example of mechanical action in the digestive system?
[A] mastication [B] peristalsis [C] mass movement [D] vasoconstriction

9. What is produced by the digestive system & its associated organs to cause chemical break
downs?
[A] hormones [B] precursors [C] enzymes [D] mucus

10. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the: [A] oral cavity [B] stomach [C] duodenum [D]
jejunum

11. Lipid digestion begins after emulsification in the: [A] oral cavity [B] stomach [C]
duodenum
[D] jejunum

12. Protein digestion begins in the: [A] oral cavity [B] stomach [C] duodenum [D] jejunum

13. The sum of all chemical activity in an organism is: [A] macrostasis [B] metabolism
[C] homeotaxis [D] homeostasis

14. The rate of heat release while at complete rest is called: [A] BMR [B] BMI [C] BMW [D]
BMV

15. The measure of body fat that is determined by a ratio of body weight to the square of height
is:
[A] BMR [B] BMI [C] BMW [D] BMV

16. What is the primary energy molecule used in endergonic reactions in the body? [A] ADP
[B] GTP
[C] AMP [D] ATP

17. The complete break down of glucose to get energy in the cell is by: [A] aerobic respiration
[B] anaerobic respiration [C] respiratory therapy [D] spirometer

18. Since every cell has a limited supply of ATP, the only way they drive cellular activity
efficiently is to:
[A] recycle [B] have a constant supply delivered [C] use alternative energy sources [D]
none of these
19. Moving air into the lungs requires: [A] raising the air pressure in the lungs above
atmospheric pressure
[B] lowing the air pressure in the lungs below atmospheric pressure [C] opening the air
passageways [D] moving the epiglottis

20. Which of the following is the correct sequence of air movement during inhalation?
1. bronchioles 3. trachea
2. alveoli 4. bronchi
[A] 3,2,4,1 [B] 4,3,1,2 [C] 3,4,1,2 [D] 1,3,4,2

21. What lung structure is responsible for the exchange of gasses with blood? [A] bronchi [B]
lobes of lung
[C] alveoli [D] trachea

22. What is the tool that is commonly used to measure lung capacity? [A] spirometer [B]
oxygen mask
[C] iron lung [D] sphygmomanometer

23. The volume of air breathed in & out without conscious effort is called: [A] vital capacity
[B] residual
volume [C] tidal volume [D] minute volume

24. Which of the following is NOT a respiratory condition? [A] asthma [B] pneumonia [C]
bronchitis
[D] anorexia

25. The function of the cilia that line the respiratory pathways is to: [A] maintain air movement
[B] catch
bacteria [C] move debris clogged mucus to the pharynx [D] cause the tickle in your
throat

26. The amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation is called: [A] vital
capacity
[B] residual volume [C] tidal volume [D] minute volume

27. Which of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system? [A] filter blood/form urine
to remove
wastes [B] regulate volume/composition of blood [C] regulate body tissue fluid levels [D]
regulate
heart rate

28. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of urine movement through the system?
1. renal pelvis 4. urethra
2. ureter 5. major calyx
3. minor calyx 6. bladder
[A] 3,1,5,2,4,6 [B] 3,5,4,1,2,6 [C] 3,5,1,4,6,2 [D] 3,5,1,2,6,4

29. What is the functional structure of the kidney? [A] glomerulus [B] cortex [C] nephron [D]
renal pelvis

30. What process involves moving substances from the blood capillaries to the renal tubules?
[A] reabsorption [B] secretion [C] filtration [D] absorption
31. What process involves moving substances from the renal tubules to the blood capillaries?
[A] reabsorption [B] secretion [C] filtration [D] absorption

32. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of urine movement through the kidney?
1. collecting duct 4. distal tubule
2. Bowman’s capsule 5. loop of Henle
3. minor calyx 6. proximal tubule
[A] 2,4,5,6,1,3 [B] 2,3,4,5,6,1 [C] 2,6,5,4,1,3 [D] 5,4,6,2,1,3

33. What is the outer layer of the kidney that seals & separates the toxic contents of urine from
the rest of
the body? [A] adipose capsule [B] renal capsule [C] renal corpuscle [D] renal cortex

34. What is the outer layer of the kidney that helps protect the kidney from physical blows &
helps hold the
kidney in position so the ureter is not compromised? [A] adipose capsule [B] renal capsule
[C] renal
corpuscle [D] renal medulla

35. What hormone is most effective at regulating water balance in the body? [A] ACTH [B]
ADH
[C] angiotensin I [D] aldosterone

36. What hormone is most effective at regulating electrolytes in the body? [A] ACTH [B] ADH
[C] angiotensin I [D] aldosterone

37. Where are the osmoreceptors located for the ADH trigger? [A] anterior pituitary [B]
posterior pituritary
[C] hypothalamus [D] thalamus

38. Both aldosterone & ADH target cells in the walls of the: [A] peritubular capillaries [B]
proximal
tubules & loop of Henle [C] glomerulus [D] distal tubules & collecting ducts

39. Both aldosterone & ADH cause the urine volume to: [A] decrease as the blood volume
decreases
[B] increase as the blood volume increases [C] decrease as the blood volume increases
[D] increase as
the blood volume decreases

40. ADH is released from the: [A] hypothalamus [B] thalamus [C] anterior pituitary [D]
posterior
pituitary

41. The trigger for aldosterone release is: [A] ACTH [B] angiotensin II [C] high blood levels of
potassium
[D] all of these

42. What enzyme is released when the blood pressure in the afferent arteriole is too low? [A]
renin
 [B] angiotensinogen [C] angiotensin I [D] angiotensin II

43. Alcohol: [A] stimulates the release of ADH [B] inhibits the release of ADH [C] acts like a
diuretic
[D] both B & C

44. In response to alcohol, the body tissue fluid levels: [A] increase [B] decrease [C] stay the
same

45. Urinalysis includes: [A] chemical analysis [B] microscopic examination [C] macroscopic
examination
[D] all of these
____ 1. Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to
a. attach tendons
b. produce red blood cells
c. provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
d. form the synovial membrane
____ 2. Which of these joints have multiaxial movement?
a. gliding c. ball and socket
b. hinge d. pivot
____ 3. The gliding motion of the wrist is accomplished because of the ____ joint
a. hinge c. pivot
b. plane d. condyloid
____ 4. When one is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane, it is called
a. abduction c. inversion
b. adduction d. dorsiflexion
____ 5. The hip joint, like the should joint, is a ________ joint
a. pivot c. saddle
b. hinge d. ball and socket
____ 6. A sacromere is
a. a nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscle
b. repeating structural unit of skeletal muscle
c. the area between two intercalated discs
d. the wavy lines on the muscle seen in the microscope.
____ 7. Which of the following are composed of myosin?
a. thick filaments c. all myofilaments
b. thin filaments d. Z discs
____ 8. Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
a. perimysium c. epimysium
b. endomysium d. fascicle
____ 9. Rigor mortis occurs because
a. the cells are dead
b. sodium ions leak out of the muscle
c. ATP is required to release the attached actin and myosin molecules
d. proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing the flow of calcium ions.
____ 10. The contractile unit of skeletal muscles are
a. microtubules c. troponin
b. myofibrils d. tropomyosin
____ 11. The sliding filament model of contraction involves
a. actin and myosin sliding past each other
b. the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past
c. actin and myosin shortening, but no moving past each other
d. the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments
_
___ 12. When term biceps, triceps or quadriceps forms part of a muscles name, you can assume that
a. the muscle has two, three or four origins respectively
b. the muscle is able to change direction twice, three time or four times respectively.
c. the muscle has two, three or four functions, repsectively.
d. the muscle has two, three or four insertions, respectively
____ 13. Which of the following is not a member of the chest muscle you built on your Manniken?
a. Intercoastals c. pectoralis minor
b. Serratus anterior d. semitendinous

____ 14. Which of the following is not a way to classify muscles?

a. muscle location c. the type of muscle action
b. the type of muscle fiber d. muscle shape
____ 15. The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n)
a. fascicle c. ligament
b. tendon d. myofibril
____ 16. What are the bundles of muscle fibers within the skeletal muscle called?
a. myofilaments c. sacromeres
b. fascicles d. myofibrils
____ 17. Which of the following muscle type is not striated?
a. skeletal muscle c. cardiac muscle
b. smooth muscle d. none of the above
____ 18. Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the
a. right atrium c. right ventricle
b. left atrium d. left ventricle
____ 19. Blood is carried by the capillaries in the myocardium by way of
a. the coronary sinus c. coronary arteries
b. the fossa ovalis d. coronary veins
____ 20. Cardiac output is about _________ L/min
a. 6.5-7.5 c. 4.5-5.5
b. 5.5-6.5 d. 3.5-4.5
____ 21. The stroke volume for a normal resting heart rate is _________ mL/beat
a. 30 c. 75
b. 55 d. 95
____ 22. Which of the following is NOT part of the conduction system of the heart?
a. AV node c. AV valve
b. bundle of His d. SA node
____ 23. Cardiac output is equal to stroke volume multipled by
a. heart rate c. bradycardia
b. blood pressure d. systole
____ 24. Which statement best describes arteries?
a. All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.
b. All carry blood away from the heart.
c. All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood
d. Only large arteries are lined with enothelium.
____ 25. Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of
a. arterioles c. veins
b. arteries d. capillaries
____ 26. The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called
a. muscular arteries c. arterioles
b. elastic arteries d. venules
____ 27. A disease characterized by abnormal thickening and hardening of the artierial walls is called
a. arteriosclerosis c. atriumsclerosis
 b. atherosclerosis d. multiple sclerosis

____ 28. Striated muscle that form the wall of the heart is called
a. cardiac muscle c. skeletal muscle
b. smooth muscle d. muscle
____ 29. Which chamber of the heart receives blood from the veins?
a. right atrium c. right ventricle
b. left atrium d. left ventricle
____ 30. Which of the following carries blood from the heart to be distrubuted throughout the body?
a. aorta c. pulmonary artery
b. coronary artery d. subclavian artery

____ 31. What does ABI help diagnose?

a. conorary disease c. ateriosclerosis
b. peripheral artery disease d. atherosclerosis
____ 32. What feature in veins helps move blood back to the heart?
a. venule c. muscluar and elastic walls
b. smooth muscle d. valves
____ 33. The subclavian artery is located
a. on the clavicle c. on top scapula
b. under the humerus d. under the cervical region
____ 34. The cephalic vein is located
a. on the upper leg c. on the upper arm
b. on the head d. on the lower leg

____ 1. Which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goose bumps?
a. arrector integument c. levator folliculi
b. arrector pili d. arrector folliculi
____ 2. The epidermis is responsible for protecting the body against invasion of bacteria and other foreign agents
primarily because it is composed of
a. stratified columnar epithelium
b. three layers of keratinized cells only
c. four different cell shapes found in five distinct layers.
d. a tough layer of connective tissue.
____ 3. The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superior
surface has structures called
a. dermal papillae c. ceruminous glands
b. hair follicles d. reticular papillae
____ 4. Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body’s natural defenses protect the skin
from the effects of UV damage?
a. The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin’s color.
b. Carotene is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight.
c. The skin is protected by activating an immune system response
d. Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which acts as a natural
sunscreen.
____ 5. What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?
a. infection c. unbearable pain
b. dehydration d. loss of immune function
____ 6. The structure of bones suits the function. Which of the following bones is adapted to hold up against stress?
a. spongy bone c. compact bone
b. irregular bone d. trabecular bone
____ 7. The cell responsible for forming new bone is the
a. osteocyte c. osteoclast
 b. osteoblast d. chondrocyte

____ 8. A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the

a. epiphysis c. disphysis
b. metaphysis d. articular cartilage
____ 9. Which of the following is (are) NOT the function(s) of the skeletal systems?
a. support c. production of blood cells
b. storage of minerals d. strength
____ 10. Bones are covered and lined by by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner layer consists primarily of
a. cartilage and compact bone c. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
b. marrow and osteons d. chondrocytes
____ 11. Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
a. calcitonin c. parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b. thyroxine d. estrogen

____ 12. Which blood type is called the universal donor?

a. A c. AB
b. B d. O
____ 13. An individual who is blood type AB
a. can receive any blood type.
b. can donate to all blood types.
c. can recieve A, B and AB, but not type O.
d. can donate types A, B, and AB, but not type O
____ 14. Select the correct statement about lymphocytes
a. The two main types are T-cells and macrophages
b. B-cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.
c. T-cells are the precursors of B-cells.
d. T-cells are theonly form of lymphocyte.
____ 15. Which of the following is NOT a component of lymph?
a. water c. red blood cells
b. plasma proteins d. ions
____ 16. B-cells develop in the
a. thymus c. bone marrow
b. spleen d. lymph nodes
____ 17. The system the recognizes foreign molecules and acts to immoblize, neutralize, or destroy the is the
a. integumentary system c. immune system
b. renal system d. lymphatic system
____ 18. What of the following choices is the correct order of healing of a bone fracture?
a. hematoma formation, fibrocartilage callus fromation, bony callus formation, bone
remodeling
b. firborcartilage callus formation, bony callus formation, hematoma formation, bone
remodeling
c. hematoma formation, bony callus formation, fibrocartilage callus formation, bone
remodeling
d. fibrocartilage callus formation, hematoma formation, bony callus formation, bone
remodeling
Matching

Match the following types of fractures with the descriptions below. Not all choices will be used.
a. open vs. closed e. depression
b. transverse f. spiral
c. compression g. oblique
d. comminuted h. greenstick
____ 19. fracture that breaks on an angle across a bone.
____ 20. fracture where the bone in crushed
____ 21. fracture where the bone breaks into pieces
____ 22. fracture where bone portion is pressed inward
____ 23. fracture that breaks at a right angle to the bones axis.
____ 24. fracture where bone breaks incompletely.

Match the following with the descriptions below.

a. Anitbody d. Macrophage
b. B-cell e. memory cell
c. Lymphocyte f. T-cell
____ 25. cells that originate in the stem cells; form of white blood cells.
____ 26. develops in bone marrow; produces antibodies
____ 27. is the effector of immune repsonse
____ 28. engulfs bacteria and dead cells by phagocytosis
____ 29. responsible for cell-mediated immunity under the influence of the thymus
____ 30. carries the antibody or receptor for a specific anitgen after a first exporsure to an antigen.