CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE EXAMINATION

QUESTIONS COMPILATION
WITH RATIONALIZATION
Case Situation: declared hold-up while poking the said gun upon Allan. Lenie
demanded for their wallet and gave the same to him for fear of
Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of Esco. their lives. Lenie with intent to gain, employed intimidation in
Not knowing that Esco was inside the house, he burned the taking the personal property of Allan and Grace.
house that resulted also to the death of Esco. 8. What crime committed by Lenie?
a. Theft b. snatching
1. Bong is liable of what crime? c. Robbery d. Grave Threat
a. Arson b. Murder
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder Case Situation:
2. However if Bong knew that Esco was inside the house and Manuel entered the house of Lenie by
his purpose of burning is to kill Esco.What crime breaking the main door. Once inside, Manuel with
committed by Bong? intent to gain took the LCD Television.
a. Arson b. Murder 9. Manuel is liable of what crime?
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder a. Robbery b. Theft
Case Situation: c. Malicious mischief d. snatchig
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They 10. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main
mutually helped one another in abducting Llanes. Before they door without breaking it since it was left unlocked and
shoot Llanes, Marcos intentionally cut off his right ear. thereafter took the LCD Television of Lenie. Manuel is
liable of a crime of.
3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit? a. Robbery b. Theft
a. Homicide b. Murder c. Malicious mischief d. snatching
c. Homicide with Mutilation 11. What if Manuel entered the house through the main door
d. Murder with serious physical injur without breaking it since it was left opened and thereafter
4. What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear, took the LCD Television, however, when he is supposed
instead they soak Llanes into a boiling water. What are did to leave, Lenie arrived, thus Manuel was forced to pass at
they commit? the back door which was locked by breaking it. Manuel is
a. Homicide b. Murder liable of what crime?
c. Homicide with Mutilation a. Robbery b. Theft
d. Murder with serious c. Malicious mischief d. snatching
5. What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill Llanes 12. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main
but they just saw the latter while walking and intentionally door by opening it with the use of an ATM card to open the
they shoot which resulted to the death of Llanes. What door lock without breaking it. Upon entry he took the LCD
crime did they commit? Television. Manuel is liable of a crime of?
a. Homicide b. Murder a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Frustrated homicide d. Attempted murder c. Malicious mischief d. Robbery with Theft
Case Situation:
Case Situation: The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the farm
of Manuel and destroyed the mongo crop of the latter.
Grace and Jomar begot a child named Manuel without As a consequence, Mang Rodrigo got furious, thus,
being married. Grace and Jomar parted their ways. Grace got he hacked the pig with a bolo. The pig dies as a
married to Bong, however, they were not blessed to have a result.
child of their own, and thus, they had legally adopted Manuel. 13. What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo?
One afternoon, Manuel killed Jomar while the latter was a. theft
sleeping. b. property damaged
6. What crime committed by Manuel? c. malicious mischief
a. Parricide b. Homicide d. robbery
c. Murder d. Infanticide 14. Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo makes
use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked
7. What if Manuel killed Grace? some. What crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. Parricide b. Homicide a. theft
c. Murder d. Infanticide b. property damaged
c. malicious mischief
Case Situation: d. robbery
15. Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the mongo
Allan and Grace while walking towards home were crops of Manuel. What crime committed by Manuel?
approached by Lenie. The latter who is armed with a gun a. theft
 b. malicious mischief 29. What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served as
c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law look-out??
d. robbery a. principal by inducement
16. Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo makes b.principal by direct participation
use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked c. principal by indispensable cooperation
some, what crime committed by Mang Rodrigo? d.principal
a. theft
b. malicious mischief Case Situation:
c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill
d. robbery Aldub who is living on an island far from the town, in
17. Validity of Search Warrant consideration of the amount of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te
a. when the judge sign owner of the only boat in the place agreed to transport Yaya
b. upon serve Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually transported them in a
c. from the date indicated therein place in consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora agreed despite
d. from the date receive by officer knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya Dub,Pastillas and Vice.
18. Quantum of proof required whether to file an information Upon reaching the place, Yaya Dub held the hands of Aldub
or complaint in court? while Pastillas stabs Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies.
a. probable cause Viceremains as look-out.
b. personal knowledge
c. substancial 30. Alden is liable for a crime as?
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt a. principal by inducement
19. If the search is illegal the things seized is? b.principal by direct participation
a. competent c. principal by indispensable cooperation
b. irrelevant d.principal
c. inadmissible 31. Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as?
d. admissible a. principal by inducement
20. t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. b.principal by direct participation
It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of c. principal by indispensable cooperation
action? d.principal
a. Factum probandum 32. Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as?
b. Evidence a. principal by inducement
c. factum probans b.principal by direct participation
d. factum prubans c. principal by indispensable cooperation
Case Situation: d.principal
Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years 33. Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a crime
from of being husband and wife, they were not blessed with a as?
child. Alden had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang a a. principal by inducement
neighbor), who gave birth to child (C). Maine learned about b.principal by direct participation
Alden’s relation with Ms. Pastillas. To cover their illicit relation, c. principal by indispensable cooperation
Alden intentionally killed his illegitimate infant at its 72 hours d.principal
age. 34. What if there are several boats available to transport, Lola
Dora is liable of a crime as?
21. For what crime Alden can be charged? a. principal
a. homicide b. parricide b.accessories
c. murder d. infanticide c. accomplice
22. What if it is Maine who killed the infant? d.principal by indispensable cooperation
a. homicide b. parricide
c. murder d. infanticide 35. What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and he has
23. What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant? knowledge about the crime Pastillas is liable of a crime
a. homicide b. parricide as?
c. murder d. infanticide a. principal
24. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is b.accessories
committed by Alden, Maine or the father of Alden? c. accomplice
a. homicide b. parricide d.principal by indispensable cooperation
c. murder d. infanticide 26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a
result of the frustration and anger people experience
Case Situation: over their inability to achieve legitimate social and
Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A and financial success.
B entered the bank and took all the money from the teller while a. strain theory
Lola C remains outside the bank and served as look-out. b. psychological theories
c. differential association theory
25. Lola A is liable for a crime as? d. labeling theory
a. principal by inducement
b.principal by direct participation 36. A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane day, A
c. principal by indispensable cooperation persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In the study of criminal
d.principal law what is the term used for it?
26. Lola B is liable for a crime as? a. Conspiracy
a. principal by inducement b. Proposal
b.principal by direct participation c. Entrapment
c. principal by indispensable cooperation d. Instigation
d.principal
27. Lola C is liable for a crime as? 37. In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC how
a. principal by inducement person may are included?
b.principal by direct participation a. 3
c. principal by indispensable cooperation b. 8
d.principal c. 4
28. What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and took all d. 6
the money from the teller?
a. principal by inducement 38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case?
b.principal by direct participation a. Preponderance of evidence
c. principal by indispensable cooperation b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
d.principal c. Probable cause
d. Substantial Evidence
39. In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious d. Yes
destruction of property by means of fire is called. 49. What is the function responsibility of prison guards?
a. Arson a. Inmates health
b. Combustion b. Prison security
c. Disposition c. Prison's Interpersonal relations
d. Murder d. Prison industry
40. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among 50. A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and look
citizens of for the latter. However, B was on vacation in the province. In
a. Good repute and probity his spite, he destroyed the door of B. Later on, he noticed that
b. High educational level the door could be useful. So, he brought it to his house. What
c. Good religious background crime was committed?
d. High social standing a. Robbery
41. Which of the following procedures should be observed in b. Maliscious Mischief
handling drug addicts who are incarcerated? c. Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling
1.They should be segrageted especially during the d. Theft
withdrawal period 51. What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of
2.They should be closely supervised to prevent Appeals?
attempts to commit suicide or a. Sandiganbayan
self-mutilation b. Court of first instance
3.They should not be administered c. Supreme court
sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a physician d. Tanodbayan
4.They should be transferred to mental institution of 52. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of
proper psychiatric treatment the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner?
a. 2, 3 and 4 a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate
b. 3, 4 and 1 sentence
c. 4, 1 and 2 b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate
d. 1, 2 and 3 sentence
42. Which of the following is not an element of malicious c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his
mischief? indeterminate sentence
d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate
a. The damage was caused inadvertently sentence
b. The damage caused does not fall with the provisions 53. Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to conceal
of arson another crime? 2 CRIMES
c. The offender has caused damage to the property of a. It depends
another b. No
d. The damage was caused deliberately c. Partially
43. In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to seven d. Yes
years. Applying the indeterminate sentence law, how many 54. What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence investigation?
years? a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate
a. 1 sentence of the offender
b. 2 b. To exonerate the offender
c. 7 c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend himself
d. 8 d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
44. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was 55. The following are rights of a witness under the rules of court
arrested at the NAIA arrival lounge and found positive for EXCEPT:
opium, a dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of a. To be examine only as to matters pertinent to the
cocaine were found in his bagpack. What offense would issue
you charge George under R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive b. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him
Dangerous Drug Act)? to a penaly of an offense
a. Importation of dangerous drugs. c. To remain silent
b. Possession of dangerous drugs. d. To be protected from irrelevant questions
c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs 56. What is meant by the concept of probation which is from the
d. Use of dangerous drugs latin word "probitio" and had historical roots in the pratice of
45. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the judicial repreive?
appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly a. Live with integrity
a. Accepted b. Testing period
b. Determinate c. Walk with faith
c. Sensitive d. Out of the institution
d. Unreliable 57. In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any, between a
46. In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to the felony and a crime?
presiding judge in the lower court is the Branch Clerk of Court. a. Crime and felony are the same
In the absence of the judge, the branch clerk of court may hear b. Crime covers felonies
simple case of unjust vexation.
a. Possible c. No distinction whatsoever
b. No d. The source of felony is a RPC
c. It depends 58. Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached the two
d. Yes and identified himself as a mayor and attempted to pacify them
47. Who among the following can apply for release under the Law whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a bystander came to aid of
on Recognizance? the Mayor. Upon seeing C helping the mayor, A attacked C.
a. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is What crime was committed by the one who attacked C?
three (3) years and above a. Direct assault
b. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is b. Indirect assault
Twelve (12) months and above c. None
c. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is d. Physical injury
not morethan Six (6) months 59. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a thick
d. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in every corner,
Six (6) months and above a tower post is manned by heavily armed guards:
48. A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not favorable to a. Maximum security facility
the cause of the party who called him as a witness. Can b. Medium security facility
leading question be asked? c. Super maximum security facility
a. It depends d. Minimum security facility
b. No 60. Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he refuses to
c. Partially testify for fear of his life despite a subpoena being served on
 him. Can the court punish him for contempt? within_________.
a. No, since no person can be compelled to be a a. 10-day period
witness against another. b. 30-day period
b. No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not testifying. c. 15-day period
c. Yes , since litigants need help in presenting their d. 60-day period
case. 71. Within how many days after the expiration of the period to
d. Yes, since public interest in justice requires his execute the warrant of arrest that the officer to whom it was
testimony. assigned for the execution shall make a report to the judge
61. What documents are attached to the Release Document of the who issued the warrant?
Parolee? a. 10
Prison record b. 15
Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer c. 20
Location of the Prison or Confinement d. 30
Order of Court 72. Which of the following is a crime against the Fundamental Law
a. 4 and 1 of the State?
b. 1 and 2 a. Espionage
c. 3 and 4 b. Piracy
d. 2 and 3 c. Treason
62. We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was brutally d. Violation of Domicile; if private person- Qualified
crucified in the Middle East some 2100 years ago. According trespass to dwelling
to our criminal/ penal law, What aggravating circumstance will 73. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of
you use to those who consfired in the killing? concubinage. Pending appeal, they applied for bail, claiming
a. Abused of Superior Strength they are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their claim correct?
b. Conspiracy a. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight.
c. Intimidation b. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction.
d. Treachery c. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not invloving
63. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides moral turpitude.
undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer. d. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan Trial
However, control over the probationer and probation program Court before and after conviction.
is exercised by 74. X went to the United States. While he was there,
encountered Y an American. They eventually got married.
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides When X returned to the Philippines, his wife Z filed an
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator action against him for violating their marriage. What is X
c. The Secretary of Justice liable to?
d. The Court who place him on probation a. Adultery
64. According to the control theory, crime and delinquency result b. Bigamy
with an individuals bond to _____________ is weak and c. Concubinage
broken. d. Polygamy
a. Behavior 75. Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or
b. Police information before arraignment if the
c. Law amendment_______________.
d. Society a. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a
65. Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by a higher to a lower offense or excludes any
persons other than (not) the offended party? accused
a. Abduction b. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a
b. Act of lasciviousness higher to a lower offense and adds another
c. Seduction accused
d. Falsification c. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower
66. What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a witness to a higher offense and excludes any of the
who is unwilling to testify? accused
a. Intelligent d. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower
b. Leading to a higher offense and adds another accused
c. Misleading 76. In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two acts-
d. Unresponsive internal and external act. Which of the two acts is
67. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is indispensable for the act to be punishable as a crime?
imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its anger a. External act
toward and exact vengeance upon the criminal? b. Intentional act
a. Retribution c. Internal act
b. Restoration d. Unintentional act
c. Rehabilitation 77. In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct
d. Deterrence examination?
68. The following are the elements of maliscious mischief: a. Opponent
I. The offender deliberately caused damage to property b. PAO lawyer
II. Such act does not constitute arson or other crimes c. Proponent
involving destruction d. Prosecution
III. Such acts also constitute other crimes involving 78. The system of key control in a jail includes:
destruction a. An updated system of monitoring and control of
IV. The act of damaging anothers property was committed keys
merely for the sake of damaging it b. A documented inventory of security personnel
b. I, III, IV c. A collector of all padlocks and keys
c. I, II, IV d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting them
d. I, II, III 79. The following are classified as crimes against chastity,
e. II, III, IV EXCEPT:
a. Simple Seduction
69. Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon? b. Adultery
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government c. White Slave Trade
physician d. Sexual Harassment
b. A prisoner who served as "bastonero" 80. The following are considered minor offenses of an inmate,
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above EXCEPT:
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
d.A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his b. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect
probation conditions when confronted by or reporting to any officer or
70. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to court member of the custodial force
 c. Willful watse of food c. Serious Physical Injuries
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and d. No crime
orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings 92. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of
81. The following are classified as crimes against honor, probation in the United States?
EXCEPT: a. Sir Walter crofton
a. Premature Marriage b. Alexander Maconochie
b. libel c. John murry spear
c. Incriminating innocent person d. John Augustus
d. Slander 93. A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional pardon shall
82. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT: be favorably endorsed to the Board by the________ if the
a. Offender crime committed by the petitioner is against national security.
b. The offender party a. Secretary of foreign Affairs
c. Other public officers b. Secretary of Justice
d. Any peace officers c. Secretary of National Defense
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government
94. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be
83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from treated__________.
criminal liability/ a. Comprehensively
a. It depends b. Appopriately
b. No c. Confidentially
c. Sometimes d. Judiciously
d. Yes 95. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of
84. X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put sugar on residents with crimes which are not usually reported to the
the food of Y thinking that it was arsenic. Instead of dying, police. What are these studies called?
Y suffered diabetes. In this case, the crime is not a. Population Surveys
committed because the material he mixed on the foods is b. Police surveys
a. Impossible c. Victimization surveys
b. Inadequate d. Information surveys
c. Ineffectual 96. What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an appellate
d. Intentional court sends a case back to lower court for new trial?
85. The president grants absolute/conditional pardon based a. Trial by publicity
on the recommendation of: b. Trial by jury
a. Board of Pardon and Parole c. Trial by default
b. Bureau of Correction d. Trial de novo
c. Parole and Probation Administration 97. Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by reason
d. Office of the Executive Secretary of their office and of which they may properly take and act
86. What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the without proof re called matters of:
philippines? a. Priveleged communication
a. R.A 7659 b. Judicial notice
b. R.A 7965
c. R.A 8177 c. Pleadings
d. R.A 9346 d. Judgment
87. For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, it 98. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of prison
must be made at the place where the: sentence?
a. Contraband was found a. Commutation of sentence
b. Police station is located b. Parole
c. Arrest was effected c. Absolute pardon
d. Crime was forced d. Conditional pardon
88. Bearing in mind the distinction between private and public 99. Which among the following is a requisite before an accused
document, which of the folowing is admissible in evidence may be discharged to become a state witness?
without further proof of due execution or genuiness?
a. Baptismal Certificates. a. The accused does not appear to be guilty.
b. Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public in b. The accused has not at any time been convicted of
Hongkong any offense.
c. Official record of the Philippines Embassy in c. The testimony of the accused sought to be
Singapore certified by the Vice-consul with official discharged can be substantially
seal corroborated on all points.
d. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the
d. Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985 accused hose discharge is requested.
signed by the promise, showing payment of a loan, 100. Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held
found among the well-kept file of the promissor. liable for rape:
89. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to a. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the
serve his sentence by the court if he victims drink to enable her husband to have
a. Becomes unruly and undicipline intercourse with the victim's.
b. Commits another offense b. When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it
c. He is 21 years old in the mouth of the victim's.
d. Violates any of the conditions of the probation c. When the rape is committed by two or more person's.
d. With the use of force or intimidation.
101. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision correccional.
90. Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a written Will he qualify for probation?
agreement, there is the application of a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
the____________evidence rule. b. No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and One
a. Documentary (1) day
b. Best c. Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and One
c. Written (1) day
d. Parol d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
91. X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When she eat 102. There are four (4) acknowledged goals of ___________ as
the food, moments later, she suffered excruciating pain in the follows: retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, and
stomach. Seeing his in agony, X got pity on his wife and rehabilitation.
administered an antidote. Thus, the wife did not die. What a. Criminal intent
crime was committed by X? b. Criminal mind
a. Attempted Parricide c. Criminal sanction
b. Frustrated Parricide d. Criminal action
103. The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious physical injuries undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the
for stabbing terence. He was tried and convicted as charged. maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged
A few days later, Terence died due to severe infection of his with?
stab wounds. Can the prosecution file another information a. Batas Pambansa 95
against Ben for homicide? b. Batas Pambansa 85
c. Batas Pambansa 105
a. No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had already d. Batas Pambansa 965
been convicted of the first offense. 114. An advantageous result in the integration of correctional
b. No, there is double jeopardy since serious physical agencies is:
injuries is necessarily included in the charged of a. More physical facilities to maintain
homicide. b. More prisoners to supervise
c. Yes, since supervening event altered the kind of c. Divided resources such as manpower and finances
crime the accused committed. d. Better coordination of services and increased cost-
d. Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in the efficiency
filing of the earlier charge against him. 115. It is the system or criminal procedure which is
104. Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately released characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of
provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been previously the defense and prosecution to appeal.
convicted 3 or more times of any crime? a. Inquisatorial
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the maximum b. mixed
penalty for the offense he may be found guilty of is c. accusatorial
destierro d. fixed
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum
penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is 116. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted
prision correccional either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the
c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the
penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is defense and the accused presumed innocent.
reclusion perpetua a. inquisitorial
d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or morethan b. mixed
the possible maximum term of punishment of the c. accusatorial
offense he maybe found guilty of. d. fixed
105. A science involving technical knowledge about the traces of 117. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC,
crime is known as: MCTC.
a. Forensic medicine a. R.A. 7691
b. Physical science b. R.A. 8493
c. Forensic science c. BP 129
d. Criminalistic Technology d. R.A. 1379
106. To be considered an accessory, the author of the crime must 118. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court,
be guilty of any of the following, EXCEPT: EXCEPT:
a. Murder a. Extent of penalty
b. Treason b. Person accused
c. Parricide c. territory
d. Infanticide d. subject matter
107. The following are crimes against national security and the law 119. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any
of nations EXCEPT one: peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of
a. Violation of neutrality the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
b. Rebellion the prosecutor.
c. Treason a. Complaint
d. Espionage b. Pleadings
108. Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime committed c. Information
by public officers? d. Affidavit
a. Forgery 120. Prescription of offense commence to run:
b. Official breaking seal a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
c. Malversation party or peace officers or their agent.
d. Refusal of assistance b. Upon filing of cases in court.
c. Upon escape of the accused.
109. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
more care than the other inmates. Which of the following
should NOT be done by a jail officer? 121. The following are cases covered by rules on summary
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff procedure, EXCEPT:
regularly a. Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his prescribed b. Violation of traffic laws
diet c. Violation of rental laws
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6)
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient inmate months imprisonment
110. The following are aggravating circumstances EXCEPT: 122. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central
a. Movement of the offender is restricted nervous system and are commonly referred to as
b. Cruelty “uppers”?
c. Adding ignominy a. Amphetamines
d. Taking advantage of superior strength b. Naptha
111. When taking up arms against the government was undertaken c. Barbiturates
by members of the military, what law was violated? Republic d. Diazepam
Act________.
a. 9165 123. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio
b. 7610 without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
c. 6506 EXCEPT:
d. 6968 a. Rape
112. The following properties may be taken by the officer effecting b. Abduction
the arrest, EXCEPT those: c. Seduction
a. That may be used for escaping d. Adultery and Concubinage
b. Used in the commission of a crime 124. Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense.
c. That are within the immediate vicinity This is the rule on:
d. Which are means of committing violence a. Duplicity of offense
113. Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has b. Complex crime
 c. compound crime c. jurisdiction
d. continuing crime d. Seizure
125. In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates 135. Validity of the warrant of arrest?
an arresting officer should inform the person to be a. no fixed duration
arrested of his rights? b. 30 days
a. Art. III Sec. 12 c. 20 days
b. b.Miranda Doctrine d. 10 days
c. R.A. 7438 136. Lifetime of search warrant?
d. Rule 115 a. 10 days
126. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous b. 20 days
Drugs Act of 2002, providing Funds Therefore and for c. 5 days
Other Purposes. d. No fixed duration
a. RA 9165 137. Within how many days upon the date of execution of a
b. RA 1956 warrant of arrest the person charged with its execution
c. RA 9156 shall report to the court which issue such warrant when
d. RA 1965 arrest was not been made?
127. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug a. 10 days
incidents? b. 30 days
a. Reclusion Perpetua c. 20 days
b. Life Imprisonment d. 5 days
c. Death 138. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing
d. Fine the law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan.
109. Complaint and information can be amended to ____ a. instigation
after plea and during the trial with leave of court and without b. investigation
causing prejudice to the rights of the accused. c. entrapment
a. form d. Entertainment
b. substance and form 139. In flagrante delicto means _____?
c. substance a. caught in the act
d. none of these b. instigation
128. A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the c. caught after commission
pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil action may be d. entrapment
filed: 140. When arrest may be made?
a. before the prosecution rests a. At any time of the day and night
b. before arraignment b. At day time
c. before preliminary investigation c. At night time
d. before plea d. from sun dust till dawn

129. Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical 141. When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the
antecedent of the issue involved therein, and the warrant of arrest in his possession?
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal. a. Need not have
a. Prejudicial question b. Should always have
b. inquest proceeding c. may sometime have
c. preliminary investigation d. need to have
d. custodial investigation 142. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement
130. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is officer after a person has been taken into custody.
sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a a. custodial investigation
crime has been committed and the respondent is probably b. inquest
guilty thereof, and should be held for trial. c. interview
d. interrogation
a. preliminary investigation 143. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even
b. inquest proceeding without a warrant?
c. prejudicial question
d. custodial investigation a. When the crime was committed in the presence
of the arresting officer.
131. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases b. When the crime was in fact been committed and
punishable by: there is personal knowledge based on probable
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one cause that the person to be arrested has
(1) day committed it.
b. more than four years, two months and one day c. When the person to be arrested is an escapees.
c. less than four years, two months and one day d. All of the choices
d. six years, one day and above 144. It is a security given for the temporary release of a person
in custody of the law.
132. The following persons are authorized to conduct a. Bail
preliminary investigation, EXCEPT: b. parole
a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court c. fine
b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their d. conditional pardon
assistants
c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and Municipal 145. Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person
Circuit Trial Courts failed to appear at the trial without justification and despite
d. National and Regional state prosecutors; due notice.
e. a and c a. In absentia
133. After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court b. in flagrante de licto
without a preliminary investigation within how many days c. on the merits
an accused person upon knowing the filing of said d. none of these
complaint may ask for preliminary investigation? 146. When Bail is a matter of right?
a. 5 days a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan,
b. 15 days Municipal or Municipal Circuit trial court.
c. 10 days b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court
d. 30 days c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court
134. Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may d. upon preliminary investigation
be bound to answer for the commission of an offense. 147. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT:
a. Arrest a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death
b. Warrant b. crime punishable by life imprisonment
 c. crimes punishable by death
d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life
imprisonment when evidence of guilt is strong
148. When bail is a discretionary?
a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment.
b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years
but not more than 20 years who is a recidivist.
c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years
but not more than 20 years when there is undue
risk that he may commit another crime during the
pendency of the appeal.
d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years
but not more than 20 years who has previously
escaped from legal confinement.
158. When reception of evidence is necessary under the
following circumstances:
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
b. plea of guilty to capital offense
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
d. all of these
159. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a
motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint
or information and the details desired in order to enable
him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is
known as:
a. motion for bill of particular
b. motion for clarification
c. motion to dismiss
d. motion for postponement

149. Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of 160. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be
its commission and at the time of the application for suspended on the following grounds:
admission to bail may be punished with death. a. The accused appears to be suffering from
a. capital offense unsound mental condition.
b. less grave b. There exist a prejudicial question.
c. heinous crime c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the
d. grave felony prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office
150. The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT: of the President .
a. Property Bond d. All of the choices
b. Cash Bond 161. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by
c. Corporate surety bond an accused is:
d. Recognizance a. Motion to quash
e. None of the choices b. nolleprosequi
151. When the maximum penalty to which the accused may be c. Motion to dismiss
sentenced is destierro, he shall be released after ____ of d. bill of particulars
preventive imprisonment. 162. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and
a. 30 days punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or
b. 20 days punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite
c. 15 days period from the commission of the offense.
d. 60 days a. Prescription of crime
152. Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon: b. acquisitive
a. acquittal of the accused c. prescription of penalty
b. execution of the judgment of conviction d. extinctive
c. dismissal of the case 163. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the
d. all of the choices danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the
153. It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and second time.
circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation,
one which is consistent with the innocence of the accused a. double jeopardy
and the other consistent with his guilt, or they are evenly b. double trial
balanced. The constitutional presumption of innocence c. double trouble
should tilt the scale in favor of the accused and he must d. double counter
be acquitted. 164. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by
a. Equipoise rule imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any
b. Presumption of guilt amount or both shall become permanent after ____.
c. Hornbook doctrine a. one year
d. due process of law b. 2 years
154. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to c. 5 years
assist destitute litigant? d. d. 4 years
a. Counsel de officio 165. Within how many days after arraignment and from the
b. counsel de parte date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
c. Public Attorney’s Office accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
d. National Prosecution Office a. 30 days
155. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend b. 15 days
and to testify or to bring with him any books or documents c. 20 days
under his control at the trial of an action. d. d. 60 days
a. subpoena
b. subpoena ducestecum 166. How many days are given to an accused person to
prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
c. subpoena ad testificandum a. 15 days
d. d. warrant of arrest b. 20 days
156. Unless shorter period is provided by special law or c. 30 days
Supreme Court Circular, the arraignment shall be held d. 180 days
within ___ days from the date the court acquires 167. The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from
jurisdiction over the person of the accused. receipt of the pre-trial order?
a. 30 days a. 30 days
b. 10 days b. 15 days
c. 15 days c. 20 days
d. 5 days d. 60 days
157. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ 168. The trial court have how many days from the first day of
shall be entered. trial to terminate the same?
a. Not guilty a. 60 days
b. admission by silence b. 365 days
c. guilty c. 180 days
d. none d. 150 days
169. The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the b. Motion for reconsideration
following circumstances: c. Motion to dismiss
a. at the arraignment and plea d. All of these
b. during the trial whenever necessary for 181. Who represents the State in an action for appeal?
identification purposes a. prosecutor
c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a light b. Secretary of DOJ
offense c. appellant
d. all of the choices d. Solicitor General
170. The order of trial is: 182. The party appealing the case shall be called?
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal a. appellant
b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross b. accused
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct c. Appellee
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal d. Defendant
171. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, 183. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit
mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative where the power of the court is exercised and which is
device to assist him in testimony. jurisdictional in criminal case.
a. Testimonial aids a. Venue
b. Emotional security items b. Jurisprudence
c. support c. jurisdiction
d. none of these d. court
172. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages 184. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first
of examination of a child, if the same will further the instance.
interest of justice. a. Original jurisdiction
a. leading questions b. Exclusive jurisdiction
b. relevant c. concurrent jurisdiction
c. misleading d. appellate jurisdiction
d. Narrative 185. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of
173. Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an the others.
accused to be state witness: a. Original jurisdiction
a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony of b. Exclusive jurisdiction
the accused. c. appellate jurisdiction
b. said accused does not appear to be the most d. concurrent jurisdiction
guilty 186. It is the system or criminal procedure which is
c. said accused has not been convicted of a crime characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of
involving moral turpitude/ the defense and prosecution to appeal.
d. all of the choices a. Inquisitorial
174. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person b. mixed
may move for the dismissal of the case on: c. accusatorial
a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution d. fixed
an opportunity to be heard. 187. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted
b. Demurrer to evidence either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the
c. motion for reconsideration offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the
d. motion for new trial defense and the accused is innocent.
175. It is the judicial examination and determination of the a. inquisitorial
issue in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal. b. mixed
a. pre-trial c. accusatorial
b. trial d. fixed
c. plea bargaining 188. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court,
d. Judgment EXCEPT:
176. Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or a. Extent of penalty
not guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of the b. Person accused
proper penalty and civil liability. c. territory
a. judgment d. subject matter
b. rendition of judgment 189. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any
c. promulgation of judgment peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of
d. conviction the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
the prosecutor.
177. It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the a. Complaint
possibility of error, produces absolute certain. Moral b. Pleadings Section
certainty only is required. c. Information
a. acquittal d. Affidavit
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. clear and convincing 190. Prescription of offense commences to run:
d. preponderance of evidence a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
178. It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the party or peace officers or their agent.
evidence does not show that his guilt is proof beyond b. Upon filing of cases in court.
reasonable doubt. c. Upon escape of the accused.
a. dismissal d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
b. conviction
c. acquittal 191. When an appeal shall be taken?
d. judgment a. within 10 days
179. Judgment becomes final when? b. within 30 days
a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse. c. within 15 days
b. when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied d. within 5 days
or served. 192. Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT?
c. when the accused waived in writing his right to a. Subject of the offense
appeal. b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits
d. when he appealed for probation of the offense
e. all of the choices c. Used or intended to be used as the means of
committing an offense
180. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of d. Firearm
conviction becomes final. 193. When search must be made?
a. Motion for new trial a. in the day time
 b. only during sunrise c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the case
c. any time of the day and night shall be dismissed without prejudice to any civil
d. in the presence of two witnesses action the offended party may file against the
estate of the deceased.
194. In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the d. all of the choices
____? 204. Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee
a. Plaintiff may be released on bail in the following manner, except:
b. offended party a. property bond
c. defendant b. performance bond
d. Respondent c. corporate surety
195. A complaint or information have the same legal content, d. recognized
however, they differ as to who subscribe to it, who 205. Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case
subscribe an information? a. after arraignment
a. Accused b. after the defense has rested its case
b. Prosecutor c. after trial
c. Witness d. after the prosecution had rested its case
d. victim 206. The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___
196. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, otherwise the said accused could no longer questioned
the following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary the same and that the arrest is presumed by the court as
investigation except? valid.
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor a. before arraignment
b. Judge MTC/MCTC b. before conviction
c. Regional State Prosecutor c. before preliminary investigation
d. Public Attorney’s office d. before trial
e. b and d 207. The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial
197. An Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, conference except:
detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties a. examination of witnesses
of the arresting detailing and investigation officer. b. marking of evidence
a. R.A. 7438 c. plea bargaining
b. R.A. 7348 d. stipulation & simplification of issues
c. R.A. 7834 208. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action
d. d. R.A. 3478 shall be made:
a. before arraignment
198. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused b. before the pre-trial conference
cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This c. before the prosecution rest its case
principle also known as: d. before the prosecution presents evidence
a. rights against illegal arrest 209. Amendment without leave of court before the accused
b. the right to presume innocent pleads is allowed by the Rules of Court under the following
c. rights against self- incrimination instances EXCEPT:
d. right to live a. amendment as to substance
199. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following b. amendment as to form
pleading are prohibited except: c. amendment that reflect typographical error
a. motion to quash d. amendments to downgrades the nature of the
b. bill of particular crime
c. answer
d. demurred to evidence 210. One of the requisites in order that one of the accused may
200. The following cases committed by public official with be discharged in order to be state witness is that
salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive a. Said accused does not appear to be the most
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except: guilty
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. b. Said accused does not appear to be least guilty
1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty
of the RPC d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as char
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in 211. P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of
connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and 1991. Under the said code, the Lupon of each barangay
14-A. shall have authority to bring together the parties actually
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to residing in the same city or municipality for amicable
their office. settlement where the offense committed is punishable by
d. None of the choices imprisonment exceeding one (1) year. This statement is:
201. It is the law which classifies rape from crime against
chastity to crimes against person, making crime a. absolutely true
prosecutable even without a complaint filed the offender b. partly true
party? c. absolutely false
a. R.A. 8353 d. partly false
b. R.A. 9283 212. In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the:
c. R.A. 8493 a. Office of the President
d. d. R.A. 7055 b. Office of the Clerk of Court
202. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed c. Office of the Prosecutor
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as d. Office of the Ombudsman
provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances
can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be 213. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or
separated? information are the following, EXCEPT:
a. When the offended party waives the civil action; a. It must be in writing
b. When the offended party reserves his right to b. It must be in the name of the People of the
institute the civil action; Philippines.
c. When the institution of the civil action is made c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
prior to the criminal action. d. It must be filed in court
d. all of the choices 214. Z as husband dies before he could institute the criminal
203. What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions? action for adultery against his wife and the paramour. The
a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from delict. case may:
b. Independent civil action instituted may be a. No longer be prosecuted
continued against the estate or legal b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
representative of the accused. c. Still be prosecuted
d. Be prosecuted by the State
 b. Delays the service of the notice of such order to
215. The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of said prisoner.
incapacitated individual with no known parents, c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for the
grandparents or guardian is known as: liberation of such person.
a. Doctrine of parens patriae d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense against the
b. Doctrine of non-suability detainee to the proper judicial authority.
c. police power e. All of these
d. habeas corpus
226. Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of firearms
216. The modes of making an arrest are: which is considered a low power gun. Considering that the
a. by an actual restraint of the person to be arrested crime is punishable by correctional penalty, within how
b. by the submission to the custody of the person many hours should that a case be filed to the proper
making the arrest judicial authority?
c. by using unreasonable force a. 12 hours
d. a and b only b. 18 hours
e. a and c only c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
217. The following are crimes Against National Security and 227. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a
Law of Nations, EXCEPT. person to change his resident or otherwise expels him
a. Treason from the Philippines.
b. Piracy and mutiny a. violation of domicile
c. Espionage b. arbitrary detention
d. Rebellion c. trespass to dwelling
218. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a d. expulsion
person who owes allegiance to it.
a. treason 228. The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.
b. espionage a. Any public officer or employee who enters any
c. adherence to the enemy dwelling against the will of the owner thereof.
d. rebellion b. Any public officer or employee who searches any
219. The degree of proof required to convict a person accused papers or other effects found therein without the
of treason. previous consent of the owner.
a. substantial evidence c. Any public officer or employee who refuses to
b. proof beyond reasonable doubt leave the premises, after having surreptitiously
c. two witness rule entered said dwelling and after having been
d. preponderance of evidence required to leave the premises.
d. Any public officer or employee who searches
220. The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT: domicile without witnesses.
a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine e. All of the choices
waters;
b. The offenders are not members of its 229. SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant,
complement or passengers of the vessel; search the house of Mr. Mando N. Ducot. After having
c. That the offender resist to a superior officer; discovered the item specified in the warrant, SPO1
d. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel or Masinop took the same and includes the jewelry box filled
seize the whole or part of the cargo of said with jewelry which is not included in the list of the item to
vessel, its equipment or personal belonging of its be seized. SPO1 Masinop is:
complement or passengers. a. Liable for the crime of violation of
221. Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of domicile
Piracy: b. Not liable for the crime of violation of domicile
a. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on c. May not be liable for violation of
the high seas or in Philippine waters domicile
b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by d. Liable for a crime but not on
boarding or firing upon the same. violation of domicile
c. c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their 230. The following are crimes against the fundamental law of
victims without means of saving themselves. the States. Which one can be committed by private
d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, person?
homicide, physical injuries, or rape. a. Arbitrary detention
222. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway b. Violation of Domicile
Robbery Law of 1974. c. Interruption of religious worship
a. Comm. Act No. 616 d. Offending religious feelings
b. P.D. 532 e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of peaceful
c. P.D. 533 meetings
d. R.A. 6235 231. The law which provides Human Security
223. PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested and a. R.A. 9208
detained Mr. Tamad and deprived said person of his b. R.A. 9745
liberty is liable for: c. R.A. 9372
a. illegal detention d. R.A. 7438
b. arbitrary detention
c. unlawful arrest 232. Angelo Vergara not only confessed his membership with
d. kidnapping the Sparrow unit but also his participation and that of his
224. The following are legal grounds for the detention of any Group in the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was
person, EXCEPT: manning the traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila. Under
a. commission of a crime the facts given, what crime was committed by the former
b. escape from prison / penal institution and that of his Group?
c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring the a. murder
compulsory confinement b. sedition
d. a and c only c. rebellion
e. a, b and c d. homicide

225. The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying
release, EXCEPT:
a. Delays the performance of a judicial or executive
order for the release of a prisoner.
233. This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking
arms against government to completely overthrow and
supersede said existing government.
a. treason
b. rebellion
 c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
234. A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation,
stealth, directed against duly constituted authorities, public
utilities, military camps and installation with or without
civilian support for the purpose of diminishing state power.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
235. It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of
communications or disturbances in the state outside of the
legal method.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
236. A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while
going to attend a senate session for a traffic violation is
liable for:
a. crime against popular representation
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the
National Assembly
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
d. all of the foregoing
237. The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid (KHUP) was
organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for protecting the poor
laborer, where in fact it was organized to form a group that
would rise against the rich businessmen of their city. For
what crime can they be charged?
a. Illegal assembly
b. Illegal association
c. coup d’etat
d. rebellion
238. Any association, organization, political party or group of
persons organized for the purpose of overthrowing the
Government of the Republic of the Philippines or for the
purpose of removing the allegiance to said government or
its law, the territory of the Phils. or any part thereof, with
the open or covert assistance or support of a foreign
power by force violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is a
crime of:
a. Rebellion
b. Illegal Association
c. Subversive Association or Organization
d. Illegal Assembly
239. Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer
Pandac and Councilor Panot were surveying the land
occupied by informal settlers for government projects and
for their relocation. The residents oppose with the plan.
Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of
Mayor Ditas when the latter came near. One of the close
escorts of the Mayor defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also
slapped him and punched as well. For what crime Mrs.
Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor Grace?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
d. Rebellion
240. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
a. The assault is committed with a weapon
b. The offender is a public officer or employee
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in
authority
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a
person in authority
241. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an
individual or as a member of some court or government
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
b. Judicial authority
c. person in authority
d. Public employee
242. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously
disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such
person, while engaged in the performance of official
functions.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect Assault
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National
Assembly
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in
authority or the agents of such person
243. The following are crimes classified as public disorders,
EXCEPT.
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful
utterances
c. Alarms and scandals
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
e. None of the choices
244. Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a gun
in the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating
his birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
a. illegal discharge of firearm
b. alarm & scandals
c. disturbances
d. outcry
245. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion
of service of sentence.
a. By means of unlawful entry By breaking doors,
windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
b. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit,
violence or intimidation.
c. Through connivance with other convicts or
employees of the penal institution.
d. All of the choices
246. Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before
serving his sentence or while serving the same he
committed a crime of murder. What condition is said to
have occurred?
a. recidivism
b. reiteration
c. quasi-recidivism
d. habitual delinquency
247. It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or any
instrument payable to bearer or to order the appearance of
a true and genuine document. It is likewise committed by
falsification through erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or
altering by any means, the figures, letters, words or signs
contained therein (Art. 169)
a. Falsification of public document
b. Forgery
c. Falsification
d. d.Fasification by public officer, employee or
notary or ecclesiastical minister
248. A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police sticker
and sell the same shall be liable for a crime of:
a. Estafa through falsification of a public document
b. Theft through falsification of a public document
c. Falsification of public document
d. Forgeries
249. This crime is committed by any person without any
distinction, by falsely representing himself as an officer
and performing under pretense of official position any act
pertaining to such person.
a. usurpation of authority
b. estafa
c. usurpation of official functions
d. a & c
250. Any other name a person which publicly applies to himself
without authority of the law.
a. alias
b. A.K.A.
c. fictitious names
d. true name
251. It is committed by a person, who being under oath are
required to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a
hearing before a competent authority, shall deny the truth
or say something contrary to it.
a. forgery
b. perjury
c. falsification
d. false testimony
252. Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good
customs, which having been committed publicly, have
given rise to public scandal to persons who have witness
the same.
a. immoral doctrines
b. obscene publication and exhibition
c. grave scandal
d. libel
253. Refers to persons having no apparent means of b. Sadism
subsistence but has the physical ability to work and c. Maltreament of prisoners
neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling. d. Physical injures
a. bum
b. vagrant 263. This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or
c. prostitute make immoral advances to a woman under his custody or
d. destitute to other women like the wife, daughter, sister or relative
254. It is the improper performance of some acts which should within the same degree by affinity of any person in the
have been lawfully be done. custody of a warden or officer.
a. malfeasance
b. misfeasance a. Sexual harassment
c. nonfeasance b. Abuses against chastity
d. dereliction of duty c. Acts of Lasciviousness
255. It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an d. Abuse of authority
unjust order which decides some point or matter but which 264. Takes place whenever a person is killed during a
however, is not a final decisions of the matter in issue: confusion attendant to quarrel among the several persons
a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment not continuing a group and the perpetrators cannot be
b. Judgment rendered through negligence ascertained.
c. Unjust interlocutory order a. homicide
d. Malicious delay in the administration of justice b. murder
e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor – c. death caused by tumultuous affray
revelation of secrets d. riots

256. This one is committed by public officers or employees 265. Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing
who, in dereliction of the duties of his office, shall the death of their unborn child is guilty of:
maliciously refrain from instituting prosecution for the a. parricide
punishment of violators of law, or shall tolerate the b. abortion
commission of offenses. c. intentional abortion
a. Direct bribery d. unintentional abortion
b. Indirect bribery 266. A formal and regular combat previously concerted
c. Qualified bribery between two parties in the presence of two or more
d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in seconds of lawful age on each side, who make the
prosecution of offenses selection of arms and fix all other conditions.
a. riot
257. What crime is committed by any public officer or employee b. duel
who shall agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in c. tumultuous affray
connection with the performance of his official duties, in d. mutilation
consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present 267. It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g. a
received by such officer, personally or through the woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive of the
mediation of another. latter of its true.
a. Direct bribery a. physical injury
b. Qualified bribery b. duel
c. Indirect bribery c. tumultuous affray
d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in d. mutilation
prosecution 268. What crime is committed by person who assaulted
258. Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement another, causing the latter to be absent from work for two
who refrain from arresting or prosecuting an offender who weeks?
has committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua a. mutilation
and/or death in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or b. serious physical injury
present. c. less serious physical injury
a. bribery d. slight physical injury
b. direct bribery 269. Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a
c. qualified bribery child less than 12 years old.
d. indirect bribery a. rape
259. It is a crime committed by any appointed public official b. acts of lasciviousness
who shall become interested in any transaction within his c. seduction
territory, subject to his jurisdiction during his incumbency. d. abduction
a. Prohibited transaction 270. A private individual who detains another for the purpose of
b. Possession of prohibited interest by a public depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three days
officer is guilty of:
c. Fraud against public treasury a. illegal detention
d. Prevarication b. arbitrary detention
260. This is committed by an accountable public officer who, c. serious illegal detention
shall appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall consent, d. slight illegal detention
or through abandonment or negligence shall permit 271. A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted
another person to take public funds or property. the latter for the purpose of delivering his victims to the
a. Direct bribery jailer is guilty of what crime?
b. Technical malversation a. illegal detention
c. Malversation of public funds b. illegal arrest
d. Embezzelment c. unlawful arrest
261. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or d. physical injuries
public officers: 272. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens
a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners another with the infliction upon the person, honor or
b. Infidelity in the custody of documents property of the latter or of his family of any wrong
c. Revelation of secrets amounting to a crime.
d. all of these a. grave threat
b. light threat
262. This is committed by any public officer or employee who c. grave coercion
shall overdo himself in the correction or handling of a d. light coercion
prisoner or detention prisoner under his charge by the 273. When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime is
imposition of punishment not authorize by the regulations made by another, what crime is committed?
or inflicting punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner. a. grave threat
a. Police brutality
 b. light threat d. seduction
c. graver coercion 285. A married man who allows his paramour to live in their
d. light coercion conjugal dwelling is liable of what crime?
274. Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything a. adultery
belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the b. concubinage
same to the payment of a debt, is committing. c. acts of lasciviousness
a. grave threat b. light threat d. seduction
c. light coercion d. graver coercion 286. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not
275. It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means amounting to rape by using force or intimidation.
of force, violence or intimidation to do something against a. adultery
his will, whether right or wrong. b. concubinage
c. acts of lasciviousness
a. grave threat d. seduction
b. light threat 287. A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed his
c. grave coercion penis over the woman’s genital organ is liable for what
d. light coercion crime?
276. It includes human conduct, which although not productive
of some physical or material harm would annoy any a. rape
innocent person b. seduction
a. light threat c. forcible seduction
b. light coercion d. acts of lasciviousness
c. unjust vexation 288. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his
d. grave coercion girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage, what crime
277. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with was committed?
intent to gain by means of violence against, or a. seduction
intimidations upon things of any person, or using force b. acts of lasciviousness
upon anything. c. abduction
a. robbery d. none of the foregoing
b. theft 289. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several pieces
c. brigandage of jewelries to his Mother whom he had misunderstanding.
d. estafa The latter however, pawned the said jewelries and
278. A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the misappropriated the same. What would be the proper
owner, what crime was committed? offense committed by Luz?
a. a theft a. swindling
b. robbery b. theft
c. possession of pick locks c. robbery
d. possession of false key d. malicious mischief
290. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an
absolutory cause which could serves as an exemption
279. A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors against members of the family from criminal ability in
who form a band for the purpose of committing robbery in crimes against properties.
the highway or kidnapping persons for the purpose of a. Robbery
extortion or to obtain ransom, or for any other purpose to b. theft
be attained by means of force & violence. c. malicious mischief
a. Robbery d. estafa
b. kidnapping 291. It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and
c. brigandage prosecution of person alleged to have committed a crime.
d. d. theft a. Criminal procedure
280. Committed by any person who with intent to gain but b. Criminal jurisprudence
without violence or intimidation of persons nor force upon c. rules of court
things shall take personal property of another without d. rules of procedure
latter’s consent. 292. It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided
a. robbery cases.
b. kidnapping a. Jurisdiction
c. brigandage b. b. Jurisprudence
d. theft c. Venue
281. A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away d. territory
the furniture of her employer would be charged of what 293. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit
crime? where the power of the court is exercised and which is
a. theft jurisdictional in criminal case.
b. robbery a. Venue
c. qualified theft b. Jurisprudence
d. estafa c. jurisdiction
282. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the d. court
property would be large when surveyed is a crime of: 294. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
a. estafa a. Original jurisdiction
b. chattel mortgage b. Exclusive jurisdiction
c. usurpation c. concurrent
d. altering boundaries or landmarks d. appellate jurisdiction
295. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the
others.
283. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake a. Original jurisdiction
of causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil b. Exclusive jurisdiction
motive. c. appellate jurisdiction
a. swindling d. concurrent jurisdiction
b. destruction of property
c. malicious mischief 296. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines
d. chattel mortgage crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their
284. What crime was committed by a married woman having punishment?
carnal knowledge with a man not her husband? a. civil law
a. adultery b. procedural law
b. concubinage c. criminal law
c. acts of lasciviousness d. substantive law
297. The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT: a. Ex post facto law
a. Act 3815 b. Bill of attainder
b. City and municipal ordinance c. Retroactive law
c. Special penal laws d. Prospective
d. constitution 308. The following persons are exempt from criminal liability
298. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of under the principle of public international law, EXCEPT:
criminal laws in the Philippines. It took effect on? a. Heads of states
a. January 1, 1923 b. ambassador
b. January 1, 1932 c. ministers of plenipotentiary
c. December 8, 1930 d. charges d affaires
d. January 1, 1933 e. None of the choices
299. The following are characteristics of classical theory of 309. Crimes committed within the territorial water of another
criminal law, EXCEPT: country can either be triable in that country or in the
a. the basis of criminal liability is human free will country where the vessel is registered. What rule provides
and the purpose of the penalty is retribution. that a crime committed on board vessel shall be NOT
b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an tried in the court of the country having territorial
absolutely free will to choose between good and jurisdiction, unless their commission affects the peace and
evil, thereby placing more stress upon the effect security of the territory or the safety of the state is
or result of the felonious act than the man. endangered.
c. there is scant regard to the human element. a. French rule
d. That man is subdued occasionally by strange and b. American Rule
morbid phenomenon which constrains him to do c. Spanish Rule
wrong, in spite of or contrary to his violation. d. English Rule
300. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What are 310. Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in
acts committed or omitted in violations of special laws? the external world.
a. felony a. act
b. offense b. Omission
c. misdemeanor c. Dolo
d. in fractional law d. Culpa
311. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____.
301. Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of a. Deceit
criminal law. What characteristics of criminal law states b. Fault
that criminal law is binding on all persons who live or c. Culpa
sojourn in the Philippines? d. Intent
a. Generality
b. Territoriality 312. Things which are wrongful in their nature.
c. Prospective a. evil
d. Retroactive b. mala in ce
c. mala in se
302. The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality, d. mala prohibita
EXCEPT: 313. The moving power which impels one to action for a
a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation definite result.
b. Those who are immune under the law of a. intent
preferential application b. motive
c. Those who are exempted under Public c. deceit
International law d. fault
d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador
314. The following are crime committed by mistakes which
303. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan does not operate as an Exemption/justification, EXCEPT:
Recto on January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city a. Aberratio Ictus
ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the b. Error in Personae
vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of c. PreaterIntentionem
loitering? d. Mistake in fact
315. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous
a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause,
b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of produces the injury without which the result would not
criminal law have occurred.
c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of a. Proximate cause
the law b. Intervening cause
d. No, for a did not loiter again c. Immediate cause
304. Under what characteristics of criminal law the above d. Probable cause
circumstance falls? 316. Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of
a. Generality physical injuries inflicted in the following; EXCEPT
b. Territoriality a. The victim at the time the physical injuries were
c. Prospective inflicted was in normal heath.
d. Retroactive b. The death may be expected from the physical
305. What legal maxims support the above scenario? injuries inflicted.
c. Death ensued within a reasonable time.
a. Pro reo Principle d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional act of
b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege the victim.
c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea 317. The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT:
d. Actus me invitusfactus non a. That the act performed would be an offense
against persons or property.
306. Which of the following legal maxim means “the act cannot b. That the act was done with evil intent
be criminal unless the mind is criminal”. c. That its accomplishment is inherently impossible,
a. Pro reo or that the means employed is either inadequate
b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege or ineffectual.
c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea d. That the act does not constitute a crime of
d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus negligence or imprudence.

307. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its 318. X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which he
essence being the substitution of a legislative flat for a thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact it was just a
judicial determination of guilt.
 sugar. Y was not killed as a consequence. What X did he
commit?
a. Mistake in the blow
b. No crime committed
c. preaterintentionem
d. impossible crime
319. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may
deem proper to repress and which is not punishable by
law, it shall:
a. Render the proper decision, and shall report to
the Chief Executive, through the Department of
Justice
b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
Executive, through the Department of Justice.
c. Render the proper decision, and shall report to
the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
Justice of the Supreme Court.
320. This takes place when the offender commences that
commission of a felony by overt acts, and does not
perform all the acts of execution which should produce the
felony by reason of some cause or accident other than his
own spontaneous desistance.
a. Consummated
b. Frustrated
c. Attempted
d. Impossible crime
321. A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his
shoulder. B was able to run away and survived the injury,
what crime is committed by A?
a. Physical Injury
b. Frustrated Homicide
c. Attempted Homicide
d. Less serious physical injury
322. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious,
EXCEPT:
a. The offender performs all the acts of execution
b. All the acts performed would produce the felony
as a consequence but the felony is not produced.
c. By reason of causes independent of the will of
the perpetrator.
d. Due to some cause or accident other than his
own spontaneous desistance.
323. Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of
her husband Mr. William Herschel, when Mr. was at the
stage of convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart and
administer an antidote causing Mr. William to survive but
left in comatose. What was committed by Mrs. Lucila?
a. Frustrated parricide
b. b.attempted parricide
c. serious physical injury
d. less serious physical injury
324. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting
from the point where the offender begins the commission
of the crime to that point where he has still control over his
acts including their (acts) natural course.
a. Subjective Phase
b. Objective Phase
c. Internal Act
d. Act of Execution
325. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining
stage of execution of felony?
a. Nature of the offense
b. Elements constituting the felony;
c. Manner of committing the felony
d. Intent in committing the crime
326. A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the
Banco de Oro. While having their meeting at their safe-
house, a group of PNP personnel arrested them. What
crime was committed by A,B, and C?
a. Illegal Assembly
b. Conspiracy to commit robbery
c. Attempted Robbery
d. No crime
327. A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank in
their secret safe house. While they are planning how to
commit the crime, operatives of the NBI barged in and
arrested the group.
a. What crime was committed by A,B and C?
b. No crime was committed
c. Under the facts no crime was committed as mere
conspiracy to commit a crime is not punishable
d. Attempted robbery
e. Frustrated robbery
328. Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the
capital punishment or penalties which in any of their
periods are:
a. light
b. correctional
c. afflictive
d. reflective
329. In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal
laws, what rule of interpretation shall be applied?
a. The RPC shall be observed
b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
c. The RPC will be supplementary to special law
d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the
RPC
330. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a
person as its author or owner. It implies that the act
committed has been freely and consciously done and may
therefore be put down to the doer as his very own.
a. Guilt
b. Liability
c. Responsibility
d. Imputability
331. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with
the law, so that such person is deemed not to have
transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and
civil liability.
a. justifying circumstances
b. mitigating circumstances
c. exempting circumstances
d. aggravating circumstance
332. The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT
a. Unlawful aggression.
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to
prevent or repel it.
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the
person defending himself.
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person defending
himself.
333. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for
the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the
crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or
negligent.
a. Justifying
b. Mitigating
c. Exempting
d. Aggravating
334. Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of
Ms. IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___.
a. Liable for the crime of theft
b. Liable for the crime of robbery
c. Not liable for the crime of theft
d. Not liable for the crime of robbery
335. The following circumstances exempt a person from
criminal liability though there is civil liability considering
that there is crime committed, EXCEPT:
a. Minority
b. Accident
c. Imbecility/Insanity
d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force
e. Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable
fear of an equal or greater injury.
336. The following are exempted from criminal liability,
EXCEPT:
a. Children 15 years of age below
b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without
discernment
c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
discernment.
337. Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon
commission of a crime?
a. Those 15 years of age and below
b. Those who are 18 years of age and above
 c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of age d. instigators
d. Those who are 18 years of age 348. A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is
regarded as:
338. Are those where the act committed is a crime but for a. principal by direct participation
reasons of public policy and sentiment, there is no penalty b. principal by indispensable cooperation
imposed. c. principal by induction
a. Justifying circumstances d. instigators
b. Mitigating circumstances 349. The desire or wish in common thing
c. Absolutory cause a. intent
d. Exempting circumstances b. motive
339. X was charged before the court. During the pendency of c. conspire
his trial he died. What would be the effect of his death on d. cooperate
the case involved and on his criminal liability? 350. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the
a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his murder of another person is liable as:
criminal liability is extinguished. a. principal
b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal b. accessory
liability is not extinguished. c. accomplice
c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his d. conspirator
resurrection. 351. Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no
d. Actually there will be no effect at all because his property to meet the fine.
relatives will be the one to face trial and punished a. subsidiary penalty
in case of his conviction. b. suspension
340. Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause. c. penalty
d. d.civil interdiction
a. Spontaneous desistance
b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal 352. In cases where in the commission of an offense is
liability by reason of relationship necessary in the commission of another it is said the crime
c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight physical is:
injuries under exceptional circumstances a. formal crime
d. Person exempt from criminal liability for theft b. informal crime
swindling and malicious mischief by relationship c. compound crime
to the offended party d. complex crime
e. All of the choices 353. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of
341. An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all penalties.
crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism. a. degree
a. generic b. period
b. specific c. prescription
c. qualifying d. duration
d. Inherent 354. A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period
342. C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing defined by law subject to the termination by the parole
her using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is board at any time after service of the sentence.
committed aggravated by what circumstances? a. Suspension
a. ignominy
b. passion b. indeterminate sentence
c. cruelty c. prescription
d. Craft d. period of penalty
343. Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for 355. The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall
past offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a single prescribe in how many years?
individual and is usually granted to certain classes of a. 15 years
persons usually political offenders, who are subject to trial b. 1year
but not yet convicted. c. 10 years
d. 5 years
a. Pardon 356. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and
b. Commutation reclusion temporal shall prescribe in:
c. Parole a. 20 years
d. Amnesty b. 15 years
344. The law which prohibits the imposition of the death c. 10 years
penalty? d. 5 years
a. RA 6981 357. Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe
b. P.D. 968 in how many years?
c. R.A. 9346 a. 20 years
d. R.A. 4103 b. 15 years
345. How do you call an offender who within a period of ten c. 10 years
(10) years from the date of his release or last conviction of d. 5 years
the crimes of Serious Physical Injuries, robbery (robo), 358. Light offenses prescribe in:
Theft (hurto), Estafa or falsification is found guilty of any of a. 12 months
the said crimes a third time or offener? b. 6 months
a. Recidivist c. 4 months
b. Quasi recidivist d. 2 months
c. Reiteration
d. habitual delinquent 359. A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this
346. The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms week”. A bought a firearms. On Friday, he waited for B
of alternative circumstances, except: and shot him but killed C instead. In so far as B is
a. Low degree education concerned, the crime committed by A is:
b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not a. Attempted murder
intended it or not a habitual drunkard. b. frustrated murder
c. Relationship in crimes against property c. illegal discharge of firearm
d. Relationship in crimes against persons d. all of these
347. Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution of 360. In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is:
a crime. a. frustrated homicide
a. principals b. murder
b. accessories c. consummated homicide
c. accomplice d. none of the above
361. X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide
(consummated) which is punishable by Reclusion 371. The following are exempted from criminal liability,
Perpetua. EXCEPT:
a. Children 15 years of age below
b. Insane persons or Imbecile persons
He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment. c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
Determine his penalty. discernment
a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without
Reclusion temporal (minimum period) as the discernment
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty. 372. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for
b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the
Reclusion temporal (any period) as the maximum crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or
period of the indeterminate penalty negligent.
c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to a. Justifying
reclusion perpetua as maximum b. Exempting
d. Prision mayor c. Mitigating
362. X (as principal) committed grave coercion (consummated) d. Aggravating
punishable by prision correctional. There was one 373. When a public officer convinces a person to commit a
aggravating circumstances in the commission of the crime felony and would arrest him or her after its commission he
let us say “with the aid of armed men”. Fix his penalty. is committing.
a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to a. instigation
Prision correctional (maximum period) as b. entrapment
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty. c. conspiracy
b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to d. proposal
Prision correctional (any period) as maximum 374. It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES
period of the indeterminate penalty depending upon what the law provides and cannot be
c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as offset by any aggravating circumstances.
maximum period a. Mitigating Circumstances
d. None of the above b. Exempting circumstances
c. Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances
363. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a d. Privilege Mitigating circumstances
crime. 375. Crimes are classified in various categories. What
a.15-18 years old classifications of crime is when a single act results to or
b.18-70 years old more serious or less serious offenses.
c.9 years old and below a. Continuing Crime
d.between 9 and 15 years old b. Complex crime or delito complejo
364. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the c. Special complex crime
execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. d. Compound crime or delito compuesto
a.Accomplices
b.Suspects
c.principal actors 376. Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a rifle
d.accessories from Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr.
365. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to Goddard sold the gun. Since Mr. Pitts is in an Island for
execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time vacation and the only way to reach the island is to ride a
fixed by law. boat, Mr. Dellinger rented the boat of Mr. F. Galton, the
a.prescription of crime owner of the only boat that can be rented to reach the
b.prescription of prosecution island. Also knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. F. Galton
c.prescription of judgment allowed the boat to be rented for a much higher price. Mr.
d.prescription of penalty Dellinger successfully reached the island and killed Mr. R.
Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts requested the
366. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to bury Mr’s
penalty is suspended. Pitts Body in exchange for thousand of pesos. What was
a.Pardon the crime committed by Mr. Dellinger?
b.commutation
c.amnesty a. Homicide
d.reprieve b. Murder
c. Parricide
367. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to d. Manslaughter
secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the 377. What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton?
society. a. Principal by direct participation
a.mala prohibita b. Principal by induction
b.mala in se c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
c.private crimes d. Accomplice
d.public crimes 378. What about Mr. C. Goddard?
368. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have a. Principal
acted together in the commission of a crime. b. Accomplice
a.gang c. Accessory
b.conspiracy d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
c.band
d.piracy 379. What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?
369. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound a. Principal
to. b. Accomplice
a.Negligence c. Accessory
b.imprudence d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
c.omission 380. The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT?
d.act a. Obedience to a lawful order
370. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of b. Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or
trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of performance of duty
his criminal plan. c. A person who acts under compulsion of an
a.Misfeasance irresistible force
b.entrapment d. Avoidance of greater evil or injury
c.inducement 381. The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio
d.instigation without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
 EXCEPT:
a. Seduction
b. Rape
c. Abduction
d. Acts of Lasciviousness
382. What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of personal
property belonging to another is committed with grave
abuse of confidence?
a. Robbery
b. Qualified Theft
c. Theft
d. Burglary
383. What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of
murder with the use of unlicensed firearm?
a. Murder
b. Illegal Possession of firearm
c. Qualified Illegal possession of firearm
d. Murder with illegal possession of f/a.
384. If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a
person in a manner that is determined and constant until
the lawful purpose is realize, the crime committed is:
a. Threat
b. Grave threat
c. Coercions
d. Light threat
385. When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the
offended party does not amount to a crime the designation
of the offense is called
a. Threats
b. Grave threats
c. Light Threats
d. Coercion
386. A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit or
interrupt the holding of a peaceful meeting or dissolved the
same is liable for:
a. Prohibition of a peaceful meeting
b. dissolution of peaceful meeting
c. Interruption of peaceful meeting
d. all of the choices.
387. If a private person removes a person confined in jail or
penal institution or helps in the escape of such person by
means of violence, intimidation, bribery or any other
means, the crime committed is:
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. corruption of public official
388. Light offenses prescribe in:
a. 12 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 2 months
389. X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing
her, using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is
committed aggravated by what circumstances?
a. ignominy
b. passion
c. cruelty
d. obstruction
390. Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information
relative to national defense with intent to be used to the
injury of the Republic of the Philippines.
a. treason
b. conspiracy to commit treason
c. espionage
d. misprision to treason
391. To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of
persons to proper judicial authorities, a person caught in
the act of committing a felony punishable by penalties
which are correctional in nature must be delivered to said
authorities within how many hours?
a. 12
b. 36
c. 18
d. 48
392. Amendments with leave of court after the accused pleads
are allowed under the following circumstance.
a. Amendments as to substance
b. Amendments as to form
c. Amendments that change the nature of the
offense
d. None of these
393. The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil
liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
instituted with the criminal action. This rule does not apply
in the following instances, EXCEPT.
a. When the offended party waives the civil action
b. When the offended party reserves the right to
institute separate civil action
c. When the offended party institute the criminal
action
d. When the offended party institute the civil action
prior to the criminal action.
394. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action
shall be made:
a. Before the arraignment
b. During the pre-trial conference
c. Before the prosecution rest
d. Before the prosecution present evidence
395. The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in the
criminal case, EXCEPT:
a. Motion for postponement
b. Counter affidavit
c. Counterclaim
d. Third party complaint
396. The petition for suspension of the criminal action based
upon the pendency of prejudicial question in a civil action
may be filed with the following, EXCEPT one:
a. The court where the civil action is pending
b. The court where the criminal action is pending
c. Office of the prosecutor
d. None of these
397. Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required
before the filing of a complaint or information where the
penalty for the offense is:
a. At least 6 years and 1 day
b. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
d. Exceeding 6 years and one day
398. The following may be submitted by the respondent in a
preliminary investigation, EXEPT:
a. Counter-affidavit
b. Motion to dismiss
c. Witness counter affidavit
d. supporting documents
399. The following officers are authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation on cases falling within their
jurisdiction, EXCEPT:
a. Provincial prosecutor
b. City prosecutor
c. Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman
d. Judges of Municipal trial court
400. An offense which under the law existing at the time of its
commission and of the application for admission to bail
may be punish with death is called:
a. Capital punishment
b. Heinous crime
c. Capital Offense
d. Grave offense
401. The court may dismiss the case on the ground of
insufficiency of evidence:
a. On the motion of the accused filed with prior
leave of court
b. By its own initiative after giving the prosecution
an opportunity to be heard
c. On motion of the accused thru counsel
d. A and B only
402. Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben
which was snatched from him three days ago. He
confronted the latter and force to get back said cell phone
against his will. For what crime or crimes may Manuel be
liable for, if he will go to force to get back the same?
a. Coercion
b. Robbery
c. Threats
d. Theft
403. The following statement are false, EXCEPT:
 a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel 414. Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible
b. The accused must personally enter his plea hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except:
c. The accused must excused/waived arraignment a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other establish the probability or improbability of the
than where the case is assigned. fact in issue.
b. When it is competent
c. When it is credible
404. Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue
and the evidence of guilt is strong. based on other related evidence.
a. Absolutely true 415. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of
b. Absolutely false a person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored
c. Partly true on what requisites of admissibility?
d. Partly false a. materiality
405. Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed under b. competency
the custody of the law. It should be made at: c. relevancy
a. Anytime of the day d. credibility
b. anytime of the day and night 416. It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the
c. Anytime of the morning trier of facts because of its logical connection with the
d. d. anytime of the night issue. Evidence which has an effective influence or
406. It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with bearing to the question?
kettles, his horns, etc, designated to deride or annoy: a. material
a. Charivari b. relevant
b. Grave scandal c. competent
c. Alarm and Scandal d. credible
d. Harana 417. The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by
407. The application for search warrant may be filed with the imprisonment of more than 6 years shall become
following, EXCEPT: permanent ________ after issuance of the order without
a. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a the case having been revived.
crime was committed. a. One year
b. Any court within the judicial region where the b. six months
crime was committed c. Two years
c. Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines d. three years
d. Any Court Within judicial region where the 418. Within how many days after arraignment and from the
warrant shall be enforced date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
408. An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
level court shall be by: a. 30 days
a. Notice of appeal b. 20 days
b. by Petition for review c. 15 days
c. Petition for review on certiorari d. 60 days
d. Petition for certiorari 419. How many days is given to an accused person to prepare
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
409. After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be a. 15 days
dismiss due to insufficiency of evidence by: b. 30 days
a. The courts own initiative c. 20 days
b. By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer d. 180 days
to evidence 420. The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial
c. By the prosecution on its own initiative Court is called?
d. a and b only a. R.A. 7691
410. Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the b. R.A. 3019
escape of his brother Chan. The Warden ordered his jail c. R.A. 8493
guard to leave the door unlocked so as to facilitate the d. B.P. 129
escape of Mr. Chan. The guard leaves the door unlocked 421. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any
and tells Mr. Chan to escape at mid-night. What crime was peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of
committed by the Warden? the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
a. Evasion of service of sentence the prosecutor.
b. Direct Bribery a. Complaint
c. Delivery of prison from jail b. Information
d. corruption of public official c. Pleadings
411. What Crime can be charged against the guard who d. Affidavit
connives with the prisoner? 422. Prescription of offense commence to run:
a. Conniving with or consenting to evasion a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners party or peace officers or their agent.
c. Delivering prisoner from jail b. Upon filing of cases in court
d. A and B c. Upon escape of the accused
d. Upon re-appearance of the accuse
412. A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes immoral
or indecent advances to a woman who is under his 423. The following are cases covered by rules on summary
custody or wife or daughter of the person under his procedure EXCEPT:
custody shall be liable for: a. Where the penalty is six months imprisonment.
a. Acts of lasciviousness b. Violation of traffic laws
b. Abuses against Chastity c. Violation of rental laws
c. Indirect Bribery d. Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6)
d. infidelity in the custody of prisoners months imprisonment
424. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
413. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of assist destitute litigant?
evidence which means that evidence must have such a. Counsel de officio
relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its b. counsel de parte
existence or non-existence. The other requisite is c. Public Attorney’s Office
____________? d. National Prosecution Office
a. That is should not be excluded for by law.
b. That it is material to the facts in issue 425. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend
c. That it is credible and to testify or to bring with him any books or documents
d. That it is the best evidence under his control at the trial of an action.
 a. subpoena can make known of their perception to others can be
b. subpoena duces tecum witness and the following shall not be a ground for
c. subpoena ad testificandum disqualification.
d. warrant of arrest a. Religious and political belief
426. The order of trial is: b. Interest in the outcome of the case
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided
b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross by law
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct d. All of the choices
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal. 437. An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and
Benefit program and for other purposes.
a. R.A. 6981
427. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, b. R.A. 6646
mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative c. P.D.749
device to assist him in testimony. d. R.A. 6770
a. Testimonial aids 438. No person may be compelled to testify against his
b. Emotional security items parents, other direct ascendants, children or other direct
c. support item descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
d. none of these a. Parental and filial privilege.
428. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages b. declaration against pedigree
of examination of a child, if the same will further the c. declaration against common reputation
interest of justice. d. res inter alois acta rule
a. leading questions e.
b. misleading 439. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of
c. relevant any liability and is not admissible in evidence against the
d. narrative offeror on the following case, EXCEPT.
429. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of a. In civil cases
evidence of the following, EXCEPT: b. Those arising from criminal negligence
a. Matters of Public Knowledge c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical,
b. The measure of time hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
c. Law of nations injury.
d. Law of nature d. In criminal cases
430. Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise
of its discretion, EXCEPT.
a. The geographical divisions 440. A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of
b. Matter which are of public knowledge; a plea of guilty to a lesser offense is_____?
c. Matters capable of unquestionable a. not admissible in evidence against the accused
demonstration; or who made the plea of offer.
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of b. admissible in evidence against the accused who
their judicial functions. made the plea of offer
431. Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites. c. shall not be considered an plea
These requisites are: d. will be considered a plea of not guilty
a. The matter must be one of common and general 441. The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act,
knowledge. declaration, or omission of another, except as provided by
b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and not the rules of court.
doubtful or uncertain a. Res inter alios acta rule
c. It must be known to be within the limits of the b. admission by co-partner
jurisdiction of the court. c. admission by co-conspirator
d. All of the choices d. admission by silence of a person for not doing or
432. Self incriminatory statement falling short of an saying anything when an act or declaration is
acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in the course of said against him in his presence.
the proceeding in the same case which does not require 442. The following are the requirements in determining child’s
proof. competency as a witness EXCEPT:
a. Admission a. capacity of Observation
b. self serving statement b. capacity of Recollection
c. declaration against interest c. capacity of Communication
d. confession d. capacity to Comprehend
433. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document
no evidence shall be admissible other than the original 443. Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made
documents itself. This refers to the _____. by several person charged with the same offense and
a. Best Evidence Rule without the possibility of collision among them, the fact
b. Secondary Evidence Rule that the statements are in all respects identical is
c. Parol Evidence Rule confirmatory of the confessions of the co-defendants and
d. Best Evidence are admissible against the other persons implicated
therein.
a. interlocking confessions
434. What are secondary evidence? b. res inter alios acta rule
a. Certified true COPY of a c. admission by privies
document d. confession by co-defendant
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic 444. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the
document hearing or observation of a party who does or says
c. Testimony of witnesses nothing when the act or declaration is such as to call for
d. All of the choices action or comment if not true, and when proper and
435. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed against him.
upon and there can be, as between the parties and their a. admission by silence
successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other b. confession
than the contents of the agreement. c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by privies
a. Parol evidence Rule 445. Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule?
b. b. parol evidence a. That a witness can testify only to those facts
c. Best Evidence Rule which he knows of his personal knowledge; that
d. Secondary Evidence ism which are derived from his own perception.
436. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving,
 b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence b. Error in personae
in court c. Dura Lex Sed lex
c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the d. Praeter Intentionem
authority of another person. 457. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___
d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to shall be entered.
facts of which the witness has no personal a. Not guilty
knowledge because it is derived from the b. admission by silence
knowledge or perception of others who are not c. guilty
called to testify. d. none
458. When reception of evidence is necessary under the
446. The declaration of a dying person, made under the following circumstances:
consciousness of an impending death, may be received in a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as b. plea of guilty to capital offense
evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
such death. d. all of these
a. Dying declaration
b. res gestae 459. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a
c. declaration against interest motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint
d. declaration about pedigree or information and the details desired in order to enable
447. Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts in him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is
issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by the known as:
amount of evidence required by law. a. motion for bill of particular
a. burden of evidence b. motion for clarification
b. burden of proof c. motion to dismiss
c. proof of evidence d. motion for postponement
d. cause of action 460. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be
448. A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia suspended on the following grounds:
anchored at Manila Bay wherein an Australian national a. The accused appears to be suffering from
was caught in possession of Cocaine. What rule provides unsound mental condition.
that a crime committed while on board of the vessel. b. There exist a prejudicial question.
a. French rule c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the
b. American Rule prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office
c. Spanish Rule of the President .
d. English Rule d. All of the choices
449. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or
guardianship. 461. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by
a. subsidiary penalty an accused is:
b. penalty a. Motion to quash
c. suspension b. Nolle pro sequi
d. civil interdiction c. Motion to dismiss
d. bill of particulars
450. It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual 462. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and
relationship to a married man. This statement is? punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or
a. True punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite
b. false period from the commission of the offense.
c. It depends a. Prescription of crime
d. Partly false b. acquisitive
451. The following are considered afflictive penalties, except: c. prescription of penalty
a. death by lethal injection d. extinctive
b. reclusion perpetua 463. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the
c. reclusion temporal danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the
d. prison mayor second time.
452. It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual a. double jeopardy
relationship to a married woman. b. double trial
This statement is? c. double trouble
a. True d. double counter
b. false 464. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by
c. It depends imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any
e. Partly false amount or both shall become permanent after ____.
a. one year
453. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or b. 2 years
derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by c. 5 years
which ideas are represented on material substances. d. 4 years
a.documentary evidence 465. Within how many days after arraignment and from the
b.testimonial evidence date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
c.material evidence accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
d.real evidence a. 30 days
454. When the witness states that he did not see or know the b. 15 days
occurrence of a fact. c. 20 days
a.positive evidence d. 60 days
b.corroborative evidence
c.secondary evidence 466. How many days are given to an accused person to
d.negative evidence prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
455. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry a. 15 days
and render judgment after a fair trial. b. 20 days
a.ex post facto law c. 30 days
b.equal protection of the law d. 180 days
c.rule of law 467. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court,
d.due process of law the following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary
investigation except?
456. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
which is intended. b. Judge MTC/MCTC
a. Aberratio ictus c. Regional State Prosecutor
 d. Public Attorney’s office person, while engaged in the performance of official
e. b and d functions.
468. A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, a. Direct assault
detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties b. Indirect Assault
of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
a. R.A. 7438
b. R.A. 7348 c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National
c. R.A. 7834 Assembly
d. R.A. 3478 d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in
authority or the agents of such person
477. The following are crimes classified as public disorders,
EXCEPT.
469. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful
principle also known as: utterances
a. rights against illegal arrest c. Alarms and scandals
b. the right to presume innocent d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
c. rights against self- incrimination e. None of the choices
d. right to live 478. Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a gun
470. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following in the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating
pleading are prohibited except: his birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
a. motion to quash a. illegal discharge of firearm
b. bill of particular b. alarm & scandals
c. answer c. disturbances
d. demurred to evidence d. outcry
471. The following cases committed by public official with 479. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced
salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive prisoner), gave 20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or allow
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except: the escape of her brother is guilty of what crime?
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. a. Evasion of service of sentence
1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two b. delivering prisoners from jail
of the RPC c. Bribery
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in d. Corruption of public official
connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and
14-A. 480. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to of service of sentence.
their office. a. By means of unlawful entry
d. None of the choices b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs
472. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed or floors.
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit,
provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances violence or intimidation.
can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be
separated? d. Through connivance with other convicts or
a. When the offended party waives the civil action; employees of the penal institution.
b. When the offended party reserves his right to e. All of the choices
institute the civil action; 481. Within how many days after arraignment and from the
c. When the institution of the civil action is made date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
prior to the criminal action. accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
d. all of the choices a. 30 days
b. 20 days
473. Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with c. 15 days
engineer Maine Mendoza and Councilor Sipag were d. 60 days
surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for
government projects and for their relocation. The residents 482. How many days is given to an accused person to prepare
oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
slapped the face of Mayor Alden when the latter came a. 15 days
near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor defends her b. 30 days
but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. c. 20 days
For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation d. 180 days
to Mayor Alden? 483. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be
a. Sedition prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
b. Slander by Deeds a.Parents
c. Direct Assault b.Offended Spouse
d. Rebellion c.Guardians
d.God father
474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT: 484. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons
a. The assault is committed with a weapon of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty
imposed.
b. The offender is a public officer or employee a.impossible crimes
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in b.aggravating circumstances
authority c.absolutory causes
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a d.complex crimes
person in authority
e. It should be noted that the assault should be mad 485. An act which would be an offense against persons or
without public uprising. property if it was not for the inherent impossibility of its
475. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an accomplishment.
individual or as a member of some court or government a.compound crime
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____? b.impossible crime
a. Agent of a person in authority c.complex crime
b. Judicial authority d.accidental crime
c. person in authority 486. The law which re-imposed the death penalty.
d. Public employee a.RA 5425
476. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously b.RA 8553
disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such c.RA 7659
 d.RA 9346 c. Dura Lex Sed lex
487. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a d. Praeter Intentionem
person as its owner or author
a.responsibility 498. It means mistake in the blow.
b.duty a. Aberratio Ictus
c.guilt b. Error in Personae
d.imputability c. Dura lex sed lex
488. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and d. Praeter Intentionem
although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies 499. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for
beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable its execution and accomplishment are present.
consequences. a. Attempted
a.fortuitous event b. Frustrated
b.fate c. Consummated
c.accident d. Accomplished
d.destiny 500. An act or omission which is the result of a
489. Known in other countries as the body of principles, misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
practices, usages and rules of action which are not intentional.
recognized in our country. a. Absolutory Cause
a.penal laws b. Mistake of facts
b.special laws c. Conspiracy
c.common laws d. Felony
d.statutory laws 501. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining
490. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of
of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an fact?
act. Voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal a. Evidence
liability there is civil liability b. Facts
a.Exempting c. Proof
b.alternative d. Burden of proof
c.justifying
d.aggravating 502. It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved.
491. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of
accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal action?
and civil liability. a. Factum probandum
a.exempting b. Evidence
b.alternative c. factum probans
c.justifying d. proof
d.aggravating 503. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as
492. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his otherwise provided by law or these rules.
victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him a. the same in all courts and in all trials and
unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the hearings
criminal act. b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and
a.Ignominy hearings
b.cruelty c. dependent on the type of case involved
c.treachery d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials
d.masochism and hearings
493. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have 504. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of
been previously convicted by final judgment of another evidence which means that evidence must have such
crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its
Code. existence or non-existence. The other requisite is ____?
a.Recidivism a. That it should not be excluded for by law
b.habitual delinquency b. That it is material to the facts in issue
c.reiteracion c. That it is credible
d.quasi-recidivism d. That it is the best evidence
505. Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible
494. Alevosia means hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except:
a. Craft a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to
b. treachery establish the probability or improbability of the
c. evident premeditation fact in issue.
d. cruelty b. When it is competent
c. When it is credible
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue
495. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry based on other related evidence
and render judgment after a fair trial. 506. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of
a. ex post facto law a person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored
b. equal protection of the law on what requisites of admissibility?
c. rule of law a. a. materiality
d. due process of law b. relevancy
c. competency
496. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his d. credibility
release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less 507. Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or
serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or know of the factual occurrences what kind of evidence?
falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a a. negative
third time or oftener. b. affirmative
a. Recidivist c. positive
b. quasi-recidivist d. Alibi
508. An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove
the same facts in issue. Evidence which are
c. habitual delinquent supplementary to that already given and tending to
d. hardened criminal strengthen or confirm it.
497. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which a. Corroborative
is intended. b. Associative
a. Aberratio ictus c. Commulative
b. Error in personae d. Credible
509. Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to the
logical and inevitable result of the evidence on record,
exclusive of any other consideration, of the moral certainty
of the guilt of the accused or that degree of proof which
produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind.
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. Clear and Convincing Evidence
c. Preponderance of evidence
d. Substantial evidence
510. It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, is
sufficient to sustain the proposition it supports or to
establish the facts or to counterbalance the presumptions
of innocence to warrant a conviction.
a. Prima-facie evidence
b. Preponderance of evidence
c. Rebuttal evidence
d. Sur-rebuttal evidence
511. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of
evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Matters of Public Knowledge
b. Law of nation
c. The measure of time
d. Law of nature
512. Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise of
its discretion, EXCEPT:
a. The geographical divisions
b. Matter which are of public knowledge
c. Matters capable of unquestionable
demonstration; or
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of
their judicial functions.
513. When can proper court, on its own initiative or on request
of a party, may take judicial notice of any matter and allow
the parties to be heard thereon if such matter is decisive of
a material issue in the case?
a. after the trial
b. before judgment
c. on appeal
d. all of the choices
514. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an
acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in the course of
the proceeding in the same case which does not require
proof.
a. Admission
b. declaration against interest
c. self-serving statement
515. Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the
court.
a. Real or Object
b. Testimonial
c. Documentary
d. Direct
516. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document
no evidence shall be admissible other than the original
documents itself. This refers to the ___.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parole Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
517. What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule:
a. When the original has been lost or destroyed
orunder cannot be produced in court, without bad
faith on the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is in the custody or under the
control of the party against whom the evidence is
offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts
or other documents which cannot be examined in
court without great loss of time and the fact
sought to be established from them is only the
general result of the whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the
custody of the public officer or is recorded in a
public office.
e. All of the choices
518. When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or
cannot be reproduced in court, the offeror, upon proof of
its execution or existence and the cause of its
unavailability without bad faith on his part, may prove its
contents by a copy, or by a recital of its contents in some
authentic document or by the testimony of witnesses in the
order stated.
a. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Secondary Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
519. When secondary evidence is allowed?
a. When the original has been lost, destroyed or
cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on
the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is under the custody or under
the control of the party against whom the
evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce
it after reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts
or other documents which cannot be examined in
court without great loss of time and the fact
sought to be established from them is only the
general result of the whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the
custody of a public officer or is recorded in a
public office
e. All of the choices
520. What are secondary evidence?
a. A Certified True COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
document
c. Testimony of witnesses
d. All of the choices
521. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed
upon and there can be, as between the parties and their
successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other
than the contents of the agreement.
a. Parol Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence
d. Secondary Evidence
522. It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a
party presented as evidence to modify, explain or add to
the terms of the written agreement.
a. Parol Evidence
b. Secondary Evidence
c. Best Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
523. On which of the following circumstances parol evidence
can be accepted?
a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or
imperfection in the written agreement;
b. The fulfillment of the written agreement to
express the true intent and agreement of the
parties thereto;
c. The validity of the written agreement;
d. The existence of other terms agreed to by the
parties or their successors in interest after the
execution of the written agreement.
524. The following are qualifications for discharged of a person
to be state witness.
a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of
the accused whose discharge is requested;
b. There is no other direct evidence available for the
proper prosecution for the offense committed
except the testimony of said accused;
c. The testimony of said accused can be
substantially corroborated in its material points;
d. Said accused appear to be the most guilty;
e. Said accused has not at any time been convicted
of an offense involving moral turpitude;
525. R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or
examination of bank deposits. As a general rule bank
deposits are absolutely confidential in nature and may not
examined or inquired or looked into by any person or
government officials, EXCEPT:
a. upon written permission of the depositor
b. in cases of impeachment
c. upon order of competent court in cases of briber,
dereliction of duty of public officials
d. in case where the money deposited or invested is
the subject matter of litigation
 e. in cases of well explained wealth 537. By Principles of Public International law, the following
enjoin immunity from the application of the Philippine
526. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, Criminal law, EXCEPT:
other direct ascendants, children or other direct a. Consul
descendants. This is embodied under what principle? b. Heads of State
a. Parental and filial privilege c. Ambassador
b. declaration against pedigree d. d. Minister de affaires
c. declaration against common reputation 538. Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding or
d. declaration against Parental relationship forbidding it:
a. Crimes
b. Felonies
527. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of c. Offense
any liability and is not admissible in evidence against the d. Infractions of law
offeror on the following case, EXCEPT:
a. In civil cases 539. Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal
b. Those arising from criminal negligence liability is human free will, the purpose of punishment is
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, retribution and is generally exemplified in the Revised
hospital or other expenses occasioned by an Penal Code.
injury a. Eclectic
d. In criminal cases b. Classical Theory
528. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of c. Positivist Theory
facts. d. Neo-Classical Theory
a. secondary evidence
b. prima facie evidence 540. The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign territorial
c.corroborative evidence jurisdiction which generally follows the Nationality Principle
d. Cumulative evidence and not the Domiciliary Principle except when the crime
committed on board vessels affects the national security of
529. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or the Country where such vessel is located.
uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition a. French Rule
affirmed. b. English Rule
a.secondary evidence c. Spanish Rule
b.prima facie evidence d. Greek Rule
c.corroborative evidence 541. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its
d.best evidence essence being the substitution of legislative fiat for a
530. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or judicial determination of guilt.
derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by a. Ex post facto law
which ideas are represented on material substances. b. Retroactivity
a.documentary evidence c. Bill of attainder
b.testimonial evidence d. Prospective
c.material evidence 542. Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of
d.real evidence Dolo or Deceit?
a. Intent
531. When the witness states that he did not see or know the b. Freedom
occurrence of a fact. c. Intelligence
a. positive evidence d. Negligence
b. corroborative evidence 543. These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself
c. secondary evidence but the doer is found to have transgress the law for act
d. negative evidence which it prohibits.
a. Crime
532. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry b. Felonies
and render judgment after a fair trial. c. Mala in se
a.ex post facto law d. Mala Prohibita
b.equal protection of the law 544. Is that act performed which would be an offense against
c.rule of law persons or property where it not for the inherent or legal
d.due process of law impossibility of its accomplishment.
533. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of a. Mala in se
criminal laws in the Philippines. It approved on? b. mala prohibita
a. January 1, 1923 c. Impossible crime
b. January 1, 1932 d. Formal crimes
c. December 8, 1930 545. It is the moving power or which impels a person to act and
d. January 1, 1933 not an essential element of a crime but would tend to
establish the identity of the perpetrator.
534. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which a. Intent
is intended. b. Motive
a. Aberratio ictus c. Negligence
b. Error in personae d. ignorance
c. Dura Lex Sed lex 546. The following are causes which would produce criminal
d. Praeter Intentionem liability though the result be different from what is
535. Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes, intended, EXCEPT:
treats of their nature and provides for their punishment? a.Abberatio ictus
a. Act 3815 b.Error in Personae
b. Criminal Law c.Preater intentionem
c. Revised Penal Code d.Ignorantia Facti
d. Criminal Procedure
547. The offender performs all the acts of execution that would
536. Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn produce the felony as a consequence but the felony is not
in Philippine territory regardless of sex, race or religious produced by reason of causes independent of the will of
affiliation. EXCEPT matters covered by: the perpetrator.
a. Treaty Stipulation a. Attempted
b. Public International Law b. Consummated
c. Law of Preferential Application c. Frustrated
d. All of the choices d. Formal Crimes
548. Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a c. The accused
single act. d. The People of the Philippines
a.formal crimes 560. If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide by the
b.formal felonies same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted prisoners,
c.informal crimes the credited preventive imprisonment is
d.material crimes a. Fulltime credit
549. It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement b. 4/5 credit
to commit a felony and decide to commit it. c. 2/3 credit
a. Proposal d. 1/5 credit
b. Conspiracy 561. Period of detention undergone by an accused where the
c. A & B crime with which he is charged is non‐bailable or, even if
d. Cuadrilla bailable, he is unable to post the requisite bail. (Art. 39)
550. A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence shall a. Solitary confinement
be granted to any prisoner who, having evaded the service b. Preventive imprisonment
of his sentence during calamity, gives himself up to the c. Inmate incarceration
authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a d. Suppressive Detention
proclamation announcing the passing away of the 562. A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) rights of
calamity. parental authority, or guardianship;(2) Marital authority; (3)
a. Good Conduct Time Allowance The right to manage his property; and (4) The right to
b. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty dispose of such property by any act or any conveyance
c. Executive Clemency inter vivos.
d. Indeterminate Sentence a. Absolute disqualification
b. Temporary disqualification
551. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to c. Bond to keep the peace
execute the final sentence after the lapse of certain time. d. Civil interdiction
a. Prescription of Crime 563. It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a
b. Prescription of Penalty certain place and is prohibited from entering or coming
c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime near that place designated in the sentence, not less than
d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the 25 kilometers but not to extend beyond 250 kilometers.
commission of crime a. Transportation
552. The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to prosecute b. Deportation
the offender after the lapse of certain time. c. Destierro
a. Prescription of Crime d. Extradition
b. Prescription of Penalty
c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime 564. Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except:
d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the a. Capital
commission of crime b. Afflictive
553. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction c. Correctional
and sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed d. Slight
by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer. e. Light
a. Parole 565. Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the
b. Pardon imposition of penalty:
c. Probation a. Retribution or expiation
d. Amnesty b. Correction or reformation
554. Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or the Parole c. Social defense
Law. d. Public Rataliation
a. Act No. 4103 as amended
b. RA No. 4103 as amended 566. The punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a
c. RA No. 4225 as amended person who commits a deliberate or negligent act which is
d. PD No. 968 as amended against the law.
555. What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art. 59) a. Penalty
a. Arresto Menor b. Ordeal
b. Arresto Mayor c. Fine
c. Prision Correctional d. Imprisonment
d. Prision Mayor
556. It provides that the maximum duration of convict’s 567. Article 20 provides for the exemption as accessories from
sentence shall not be more than 3 times the length of the criminal liability, EXCEPT:
most severe of the penalties imposed upon him but in no a. Natural brother/ sister
case to exceed 40 years. b. Legitimate brother/ sister
c. Adopted brother/ sister
a. Three-fold rule d. Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law
b. Three-fold liability rule e. Brother in a fraternity
c. Four-fold rule 568. One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design of the
d. Four-fold liability rule principals by direct participation; (b) cooperates in the
557. In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he shall serve the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts,
same in prison and shall be credited ___ for each day of with the intention of supplying material or moral aid in the
subsidiary imprisonment. execution of the crime in an efficacious way.
a. Principal by indispensable cooperation
b. Principal by inducement
a. Php 8.00 c. Accomplice
b. Php 12.00 d. Accessory
c. Php 35. 00 569. Principal who materially execute the crime. He appears at
d. Highest minimum wage existing in the country the crime scene and performs acts necessary in the
558. It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the Rules of commission of the crime.
Court to be assessed against or to be recovered by a a. Principal by inducement/ induction
party in litigation. b. Principal by indispensable cooperation
a. Costs c. Principal by direct participation
b. Fine d. Principal by conspiracy
c. Damages
d. Civil liability 570. Who are criminally liable?
559. Who may grant pardon? a. Principals
a. The President b. Accomplices
b. The private offended party c. Accessories
 d. All of the choices b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
571. Those which must be taken into consideration as proper authorities
aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and c. Delaying release
effects of the crime and the other conditions attending its d. Illegal Detention
commission. e. No crime
a. Extenuating 582. A crime committed by a private individual who detains a
b. Mitigating person without legal ground.
c. Alternative a. Arbitrary detention
d. Aggravating b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
572. It pertains to the moral order, which adds disgrace to the proper authorities
material injury caused by the crime. It adds insult to injury c. Delaying release
or adds shame to the natural effects of the crime. It shocks d. Illegal Detention
the moral conscience of man. 583. Committed by a public officer who detains a person for
a. Cruelty some legal ground but fails to deliver such person to the
b. Ignominy proper authority w/n the prescribed time.
c. Outraging a. Arbitrary detention
d. Scoffing b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
573. Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a sex proper authorities
object, also forcing to watch obscene indecent shows .Is A c. Delaying release
committed crime of Violence Against Women and Their d. Illegal Detention
Children?
a. Maybe NO 584. A crime committed by a public officer who unduly delays
b. Yes the release of a person in his custody in spite of a judicial/
c. No executive order to release him.
d. Maybe YES a. Arbitrary detention
574. The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
information respecting the national defense with intent, or proper authorities
there is reason to believe that information is to be used to c. Delaying release
the injury of the Republic of the Philippines or to the d. Illegal Detention
advantage of any foreign nation. 585. A public officer who without authority compels a person to
a. Treason change his residence is guilty of
b. Rebellion a. Grave Coercion
c. Espionage b. Grave Threat
d. Mutiny c. Expulsion
575. Other acts constituting the crime of espionage are d. Violation of Domicile
punishable under 586. A public officer who procures a search warrant without just
a. BP No. 616 cause is liable of
b. PD No. 616 a. Abuse in the service of search warrant
c. CA No. 616 b. Warrant maliciously obtained
d. RA No. 616 c. Searching domicile without witnesses
d. Violation of Domicile
576. Committed when two countries are at war of which the 587. An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of the
Philippines is not involved and the offender violates the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace
regulation issued by the government enforcing neutrality. officer, commanding him to SEARCH for personal property
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal described therein and bring it before the court.
b. Violation of neutrality a. Warrant of Arrest
c. Correspondence with hostile country b. Search Warrant
d. Flight to enemy’s country c. Subpoena
577. A person who wrote a letter to an official of an enemy d. Summons
country despite government prohibition is liable of this 588. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
crime. appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal a. Accepted
b. Violation of neutrality b. Determinate
c. Correspondence with hostile country c. Sensitive
d. Flight to enemy’s country d. Unreliable
578. Robbery or depredation in the high seas, without lawful 589. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of
authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit and the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner?
intention of universal hostility. a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate
a. Mutiny sentence
b. Piracy b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate
c. Sea-jacking sentence
d. Hi-jacking c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his
indeterminate sentence
579. The axe gang are raping women in all the places they go d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate
from Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow and created a sentence
widespread and extra-ordinary fear and panic among the 590. What is the oldest written penal law of the Philippines?
populace. They demanded from the government to a. Codigo Penal
release all prisoners entire the country for them to stop b. Code of Kalantiao
raping. Are they liable for terrorism? c. Code of Hammurabi
a. Yes d. Maragtas Code
b. No 591. How penal laws are construed when the law is vague?
c. Doubtful a. Liberally in favor of the government
d. No answer b. Liberally in favor of the offended party
580. Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary detention? c. Liberally in favor of the accused
a. Detaining a person without legal ground d. Liberally in favor of the innocent
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the 592. Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their nature thus
proper authorities requires the highest condemnation of the society.
c. Delaying release a. Crimes mala prohibita
d. Illegal Detention b. Crimes mala in se
581. A crime committed by a public officer/ employee who c. Crimes supersedeas
detains a person without legal ground. d. Crimes flagrante delicto
a. Arbitrary detention
593. This rule recognizes that the host country has jurisdiction a. mercenary
over crimes committed on board the vessel unless they b. none
involve the internal management of the vessel. c. penetration
d. assassin
a. American Rule 605. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
b. English Rule a. trumpet
c. French Rule b. siren
d. Filipino Rule c. horn
d. radio
594. Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced and 606. The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is
impartial attorneys that may be invited by the court to called?
appear as amicus curiae’ a. tear down
a. Champertous contract b. eviction
b. Amicus curiae c. squadron
c. Amicus curiea d. demolition
d. Champertuos contract 607. H refers to the importance of the establishment with
595. A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the expenses reference to the national economy and security?
of litigation in return for the agreement of the client to pay a. risk analysis
the lawyer a portion of the thing or property that might be b. relative critically
won or recovered in the trial or litigation. This is unethical c. risk assessment
for the lawyer and hence illegal. d. relative vulnerability
a. Champertous contract
b. Amicus curiae 608. There were 750 rape cases in 2010, as against 928 in
c. Amicus curiea 2011. What was the percent increase?
d. Champertuos contract a. +27.3%
596. The practice of filing multiple suits on different courts b. +23.7%
based on the same cause of action. This is not allowed c. +37.2%
and is a ground for dismissal of the case filed by the guilty d. +32.7%
party. 609. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
a. contempt a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. forum shipping b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. forum shopping c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. direct contempt d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
597. It is a small ceremonial mallet commonly made of hardwood, 610. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to
and a symbol of the authority and right to act officially in the the national economy or security:
capacity of a chair or presiding officer. a. Relative security
a. Gavel b. Relative necessity
b. Hammer c. Relative criticality
c. Wood hammer d. Relative vulnerability
611. These are the major courses of action that the
598. The constitution provides for the prescribed dress code of organization plans to take in order to achieve its
all judges and it is called as. objectives.
a. Black robes
b. Black toga a. Procedures
c. Black dress b. Strategies
d.White robes c. Plans
599. It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be heard on a d. Objectives
particular day usually placed or posted outside the 612. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but
courtroom. they offer advice. Frequently this advice is based on the
a. Court calendar high level of expertise, but the advice carries no formal
b. Supreme Court calendar requirement of acceptance.
c. School calendar a. Democracy
d. Schedule calendar b. Functional authority
600. Contempt committed in the presence of or so near a court c. Line authority
or judge as to obstruct or interrupt proceedings before it. d. Staff authority
a. contempt 613. The __________ means controlling the direction and flow
b. direct contempt of decisions through unity of command from top to bottom
c. indirect contempt organization.
d. disobedience a. Audit
b. Coordination
601. A-2 in Intelligence report means? c. Monitoring
a. usually reliable source and is confirmed by d. Authority
other sources 614. PO III Peter Factor is assigned to collect available
b. completely reliable source and is information concerning the activities of the Red Scorpion
Probably true Group (RSG). He is with what unit of the police?
c. completely reliable source and is a. anti – juvenile delinquency
Usually reliable b. criminal investigation
d. completely reliable source and is confirmed by c. intelligence operations
other sources d. patrol activities
602. Seeing ahead and making sound assumption? 615. Intelligence can and should do nothing more than.
a. prioritizing a. promote better police-citizen interaction
b. foretelling b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report
c. forecasting writing
d. documenting c. improve administration efficiency particularly in
recruitment and selection
603. This Police Station activity increases the number of arrest a. increase the number of arrests of criminal
of criminal syndicate member? syndicate members
a. investigation 616. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report
b. intelligence evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
c. crime search a. information is usually from a reliable source and
d. patrol is possibly true
604. Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get b. information is usually from a reliable source and
information and would be managed to get back? is improbable
 c. information is usually from a reliable source and 627. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding
is probably true citizens feeling of security but the reaction of fear for the
d. information is usually from a reliable source and would be violators.
is doubtfully true a. double-officer patrol
617. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report b. single-officer patrol
evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean? c. low visibility patrol
a. information is usually from a reliable source and d. high visibility patrol
is possibly true 628. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct
b. information is usually from a reliable source and contact is called _______?
is improbable a. oxidation
c. information is usually from a reliable source and b. convection
is probably true c. conduction
d. information is usually from a reliable source and d. radiation
is doubtfully true
629. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
618. Who may be automatically granted height waiver, as irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little
provided under Section 15 of Republic Act No. 8551? chance of detection?
a. Police retirables requesting for extension of a. systematic pilferer
service. b. ordinary pilferer
b. Member of the cultural minorities duly certified c. casual pilferer
by the appropriate government agency. d. unusual pilferer
c.Government employees wishing to transfer to 630. An appeal filed with the Napolcom Regional Appellate
the PNP Board shall be decided within ______ days from receipt of
d.Graduates of Criminology the nation appeal.
619. Plans which require action or assistance from persons or a. fifty
agencies outside the police organization. b. twenty
a. management plans c. thirty
b. operational plans d. sixty
c. tactical plans 631. In the intelligence functions, the black list includes
d. extra-department plan ________ forces.
620. Protection of classified document concerning their a. unwanted
preparation, classification, reproduction, handling, b. friendly
transmission, disposal and destruction. c .neutral
a. document security d. unfriendly
b. operational security 632. The first step in the planning process is to recognize the
c. physical security need to plan. Which of the following is NOT a way to
d. organizational security discovering the need to plan?
621. What is the system of natural or man-made barriers a. conduct of research
placed between the potential intruder and the objects, b. conduct of training
persons and matters being protected? c. conduct of inspection
d. conduct of management audit
a. document security 633. The special formations used in crowd control include the
b. communications security wedge, diagonal and deployed line. When a crowd is small
c. physical security enough not to require a squad, then the formation is:
d. personnel security
622. Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of a. diagonal
operation used in the planning and objects, persons and b. wedge
matters being protected? c. deployed line
a. military intelligence d. clockwise
b. strategic intelligence 634. 634. Under this principle, the chief executive directly
c. combat intelligence controls two to ten subordinates, who then control two to
d. counter-intelligence ten subordinates each and so on until the bottom of the
623. The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol function can organization is reached.
be enhanced if there is detailed and up-to date information a. scalar principle
about crime and criminals. This calls for the establishment b. exception principle
of: c. unity of command
a. patrol base headquarters d. span of control
b. crime information center 635. What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
c. management information center a. information comes from an unreliable source
d. public information office and is probably true
624. Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to b. information comes from a fairly reliable source
________ on the entire police organization, community, and is confirmed by other sources
crime, equipment inventories, personal data, etc. c. information comes from an unreliable source
a. costs and is improbable
b. data d.information comes from an unreliable source
c. plans and is doubtfully true
d. statement 636. Under physical security, what should be placed between
the prospective intruder and target installation?
a. Hazard
625. New employees should be briefed on security rules and b. Net
regulations of the organization and the importance of c. Risk
observing them. This process is called: d. Barrier
a. security information 637. Mr. Jun de las Alas was born on June 1, 1975. Does he
b. security reminders meet the age requirement for entry to the police service in
c. security orientation June 1999?
d. security investigation a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
626. What plans require action or assistance from persons or b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the
agencies outside the police organization? age requirement
a. tactical plan c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
b. extra department plan d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
c. management plan requirement
d. all of these 638. A police officer who manages a police station must use all
of the following skills, EXCEPT.
 a. conceptual
b. technical 649. PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of
c. interpersonal amusement and entertainment known to be habitually
d. communication visited by his subject and his subject’s associates. PO III
639. The planning process generally consists of five (5) steps in Alta’s undercover assignment is called.
sequential order. (Which is the first step?) a. multiple assignment
a. formulation of details of the plan b. social assignment
b. recognition of the need to plan c. work assignment
c. setting up planning objectives d. dwelling assignment
d. gathering and analysis of data 650. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
640. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA: a. classified information must not be discussed by
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance one friends and members of the family
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance b. classified information should be known only by
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance one person
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance c. cabinets with classified documents must be
secured with padlocks and security measures at
641. These are barbed wires placed above a vertical fence in all time
order to increase physical protection of establishment or d. all classified documents must be safeguarded
installations. 651. Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is
a. top tower usually known as:
b. top guard a. force field analysis
c. cellar guard b. Delphi technique
d. tower guard house c. simulation model
642. What is the next planning step after the need to plan is d. forecasting
recognized? 652. These regulations establish the specifications of uniform
a. evaluate alternatives and the manner in which they are to be worn:
b. formulate the objective a. personnel transaction regulations
c. execute the plan b. firearms regulations
d. analyze the data c. uniform regulations
643. This type of patrol performs certain specific, d. equipment regulations
predetermined preventive strategies in a regular and 653.
systematic basis. 653. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas
a. apprehension-oriented patrol projects ________ thus, an effective crime prevention
b. low visibility patrol strategy.
c. split-force patrol a. police omnipresence
d. directed deterrent patrol b. police effectiveness
644. Among the following applicants for appointment to the c. police discretion
police service, who may be automatically granted height d. police authority
waiver? 654. Which of the following trait or ability is most important for a
a. government employees wishing to transfer to police officer?
the PNP a. personnel integrity and honesty
b. members of cultural minorities duly certified by b. physical stamina and bearing
the appropriate government agency c. courageous
c. police retirables requesting for extension of d .high intelligence
service 655. In 2001, there were 200, 450 crimes reported to the Police
d. graduate of criminology Station of Municipality A. If the population of Municipality is
645. The following changes must be made in police operating 5 Million, what is the crime rate?
procedures if the investigative skills of patrol personnel are
to be employed to their fullest advantage EXCEPT. a. 3509
a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol b. 4010
officers simply make a brief report and return to c. 4250
patrol duties rather than complete their d. 4009
investigations 656. If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of as a
b. patrol officers should be better trained and result of the first investigation, a _________ report should
equipped to conduct routine investigations be submitted.
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to devote a. investigation report
more time to the investigation of crimes to which b. case disposition report
they respond c. follow-up report
d. the patrol supervision should be able to d. crime report
provide the patrol officer with assistance in 657. The advantages of a strong patrol are more than make up
determining whether a case has sufficient merit for slightly inferior performance. More patrolmen are then
to warrant immediate follow-up investigation by made available for emergency and the more active and
the patrol officer widespread the patrol, the more apparent is their
646. The more complex the organization, the more highly presence, thus, promoting the impression of -
specialized the division of work, the greater the need for: a. suspensions
a. cleaner delineation of functions b. effectiveness
b. coordinating authority c. omnipresence
c. strictly line discipline d. efficiency
d. finer division of supervision 658. What is the importance of a firm or installation in the
647. The ________ differs from routine patrol methods in that relation to national security referred to?
patrol officers perform certain specific, predetermined a. relative security
preventive strategies on a regular and systematic basis. b. relative necessity
a. low-visibility patrol c. relative criticality
b. directed deterrent patrol d. relative vulnerability
c. split force patrol 659. When heat is transmitted by a circulating medium, the
d. apprehension-oriented patrol method is called ____________.
648. PO II Carlo Y. Alba and PO I Anglelo S. Suba report only a. radiation
to one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of b. oxidation
_______________. c. convection
a. unity of command d. conduction
b. delegation of authority 660. The __________ includes citizens who are cleared to
c. span of control attend meeting in Malacañang.
d. report to immediate superior a. white list
 b. black list investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a
c. target list certain location.
d. access list a. stake out
661. The attestation function over police appointment is vested b. cops and robbers game
in the: c. follow up
a. Civil Service Commission d. surveillance
b. National Police Commission 673. How is the crew complement of a Mobile Patrol Division
c. Professional Regulations Commission organized into shifts for each duty?
d. Department of Interior and Local Government a. daily four-shift
662. Selling security within the organization sets and maintains b .daily five-shift
a climate of _______ to the appreciation of the c. one shift-daily
department’s objectives. d. daily three-shift
a. participation 674. The formulation of conclusions from the theory developed,
b. clear tested and considered valid as a result of interpretation is
c. understanding called.
d. collaboration a. collection
663. Mr. Jaime del S. Rio was born on May 1, 1975, does he b. integration
meet the age requirement for entry to the police service in c. evaluation
June 2002? d. deduction
a. No, he has exceeded the maximum age 675. In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index crimes. If
requirement the total index crimes were 25,000, how many were
b. Yes, he is only 27 years old and is within the murder incidents?
age requirement a. 250
c. No, but he can apply for age waiver b. 2,500
d. Yes, he meets the maximum education c. 500
requirement d. 5,000
664. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is 676. The more complex the organization, the more highly
“the information comes from a completely reliable source specialized the division of work, the greater the need for:
and is probably true”? a. cleaner delineation of functions
a. B-2 b. coordinating authority
b. A-2 c. strictly line discipline
c. A-3 d. finer division of supervision
d. A 1 677. The following questions are tests for accuracy of
665. In 2001, physical injuries numbered 12,500 out of a total information, EXCEPT:
crime volume of 60,500. What percent of the total crime a. Does the report agree or disagree with available
volume is attributed to physical injuries? and related intelligence?
a. 18.7% b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance
b. 20.7% c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus
c. 25.7% operandi?
d. 4.8% d. Is the information about the target or area of the
666. SPO I Edna E. Castro evaluated the information gathered operation?
as “completely reliable, source probably true”. What is the 678. Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or
type of evaluation? lahar cannot be prevented from occurring. To minimize the
a. A-5 disastrous effects of these phenomena, the security officer
b. A-1 must prepare a:
c. A-4 a. guard deployment plan
d. A-2 b. security education plan
667. It is ongoing process which ensures that new risks are c. civil defense plan
recognized and that established deterrents remain d. disaster or emergency plan
necessary and cost effective. 679. It involves segregation of deviants into isolated geographic
a. inspection areas so that they can easily be controlled.
b. interrogation a. Coercion
c. risk analysis b. Quarantine
d. evaluation c. Conversion
668. What type of patrol performs certain specific, d. Containment
predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and 680. What management principle provides that only one officer
systematic basis? be in direct command or supervision of each officer.
a. split-force patrol a. span control
b. low visibility patrol b. unity of command
c. apprehension-oriented c. chain of command
d. directed deterrent patrol d. line of authority
669. A patrol beat refers to a: 681. What is referred to as total number of police officers
a. Number of crimes to be solved assigned to patrol duties?
b. Number of residents to be protected a. effective strength
c. Location of police headquarters b. mandatory strength
d. Geographical area to be patrolled c. actual strength
670. It is importance of installation in relation to national d. authorized strength
security. 682. When police patrols are increased beyond normal levels,
a. relative criticality this is called ________?
b. relative indispensability a. reactive patrol
c. relative security b. directed deterrent patrol
d. relative vulnerability c. citizen patrol
671. It is the formal process of choosing the organization d. proactive patrol
mission and overall objective both the short and long term 683. What is the method of collection of information wherein the
as well as the divisional and individual objectives based on investigator tails or shadows the persons or vehicles?
the organizational objectives. a. Research
a. planning b. Surveillance
b. organizing c. Casing
c. directing d. Photography
d. managerial decision-making 684. Before a security expert can recommend what type of
672. A _________ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the security will needed by an industrial establishment, there
anticipated arrival of a suspect who is either wanted for is a need for him to undertake a :
a. security training
 b. security check 696. 696.This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and
c. security survey lying in wait rather that upon high visibility patrol
d. security education techniques?
685. When one procures information about subject secretly; he a. decoy patrol
is performing _______ collection method. b. high visibility patrol
a. routine c. directed patrol
b. overt d. low visibility patrol
c. active 697. What police plans refer to actions to be taken at a
d. covert designated location and under specific circumstances?
686. Under this principle, each group reports to an individual a. management plans
who is part of a supervisory group that answers to a higher b. tactical plans
supervisor and so on until a group of administrators report c. operating plans
to the chief executive. d. procedural plans
a. unity of command 698. What type of organization consciously coordinates the
b. span of control activities of two or more persons towards a given
c. scalar principle objective?
d. aggregation a. flexible organization
687. Which of the following is NOT patrol pattern? b. formal organization
a. clockwise c. informal organization
b. zigzag d. non-flexible organization
c. criss-cross 699. Who among the following meets the age qualification for
d. stationary appointment to the police service?
688. To what unit do policeman in plain clothes belong when a. Rey who is 20 years old
they infiltrate and gather information about criminal b. Dennis who is 17 years old
syndicates? c. John who is 22 years old
a. Budget d. Santi who is 35 years old
b. Planning 700. The covert observation of an area, a building or stationary
c. Intelligence object in order to gain information is called:
d. Patrol a. undercover works
689. Which of the following statement is TRUE? b. penetration
a. Performance evaluation measures credibility c. casing
of the police personnel. d. surveillance
b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for 701. If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels of
salary increases of promotion. bleaching powder, the greatest danger would be from:
c. Performance evaluation is done once a year a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be
among police personnel. controlled
d. Performance evaluation is implemented to b. an explosion
determine the quality of work performance of c. the impossibility of using water on the fire
personnel. d. a toxic and irritant gas
690. Line units such as the patrol section or investigation 702. Which of the following is not included in the patrol
section in police stations prepare their work programs in function?
which areas are called ___. a. Response to citizen calls
a. Budget b. Investigation of crimes
b. Management c. Routine preventive patrol
c. Operational plans d. Inspection of identified hazards
d. Tactical plan 703. Disaster preparedness and control plans should include
691. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to _______ so that people who are directly involved know the
capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of actions extent of the incident.
of foreign nations? a. evacuation services
a. combat intelligence b. identification services
b. national intelligence c. counseling services
c. police intelligence d. public information services
d. strategic intelligence 704. An intelligence report classified as A-2
692. How are coded messages converted to intelligible means__________.
language? a.the information comes from a completely
a. Encoding reliable source and is doubtfully true
b. Processing b.the information comes from a completely
c. Labeling reliable source and is probably true
d. Decoding c.the information comes from a usually reliable
693. The type of undercover operation wherein techniques are source and is and is probably true.
applied for a longer time and are considered as the most d.the information comes from a usually reliable
different (difficult) investigate activity, yet the most source and is possibly true
rewarding. 705. It ensures the question “what is to be accomplish by the
a. casing plan?”
b. undercover operation a. objectives
c. penetration b. planning assumptions
d. surveillance c. problems
694. As Security Director of Company B, you should know how d. planning environment
many beds, are normally available in a multiple injury 706. The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the following
situation and how many ________ patients can be organizational features, EXCEPT:
processed at a single time. a. Unified delivery of services
a. Wounded b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making
b. Emergency c. Combined investigation and patrol functions
c. Female d. Unity of direction
d. Male 707. Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they are
695. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is properly trained in criminal investigation. Which of the
determined through a process called _________. following cannot be undertaken by them?
a. security training a. He can locate and question the suspect if he
apprehends him.
b. security education b. He can identify available evidences.
c. security promotion c. He can take note of statements of the suspect.
d. security investigation d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow
policemen.
708. It is a physical security applied to business groups b. tower guards
engaged in industries, like manufacturing, assembling, c. guard house
research and development, processing, warehousing and d. guard post
even agriculture. 721. . A conference or dialogue between the survey team and
a. operational security management officials before security survey is conducted.
b. industrial security a. pre- security survey
c. physical security b. post- security survey
d. special types c. entrance conference
709. It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned d. exit conference
with the physical measures to prevent unauthorized 722. . It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy
access. and deficiency in all aspects of security.
a. operational security a. security inspections
b. industrial security b. security survey
c. physical security c. special survey
d. special types d. supplemental survey
710. Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of 723. . It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security
the facility caused by human action, accidental or and its relevance to their work.
intentional. a. security education
a. security hazards b. security indoctrination
b. man-made hazard c. security training
c. natural hazard d. security awareness
d. all of the above 724. . It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security
711. Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused allowing entry to a compound or installation thereof.
damage, disturbance and problems of the normal a. controlling
functioning of human activities, including security. b. access list
a. security hazards c. exclusion area
b. man-made hazard d. controlled area
c. natural hazard 725. . Any area, access to which is subject to special restriction
d. all of the above control.
712. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the a. restricted area
national economy and security. b. exclusion area
a. relative criticality c. controlled area
b. relative vulnerability d. coverage factor
c. all of the above 726. . A restricted area containing materials or operation of
d. non of the above security interest.
713. One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away a. restricted area
any of all types of items or supplies for economic gain. b. exclusion area
a. pilferer c. controlled area
b. casual pilferer d. coverage factor
c. systematic pilferer 727. It is the key elements in the security survey system of a
d. intruder plant or installation.
714. . A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of a. security guard
an installation to restrict or impede access thereto. b. human guard
a. natural barrier c. company guard
b. man-made barrier d. agency guard
c. perimeter barrier 728. . It is a term used in England for lock pickers,
d. physical security safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or
715. . It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link with areas.
mesh openings not larger that two inches square, and a. doppler effect
made or #9 gauge wire or heavier. b. duress code
a. clear zone c. peterman
b. bodies of water d. fail safe
c. building wall 729. . A term applied to a device or system that in the event of
d. wire fence failure or a component, the incapacity will be signaled.
716. . It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and if the a. doppler effect
height is less than the prescribed, additional topping is b. duress code
placed to attain the minimum height requirement. c. peterman
a. clear zone d. fail safe
b. bodies of water 730. . It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its
c. building wall validity, it is also an operational readiness exercise.
d. wire fence a. dry run
717. . An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the b. run through
perimeter barrier. c. controlling
a. clear zone d. fire drill
b. bodies of water 731. . It is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to
c. building wall damage, loss or disruption of operation due to various
d. wire fence hazard.
718. . He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security a. relative criticality
guards. b. relative vulnerability
a. Chief, PNP c. all of the above
b. Mayor d. non of the above
c. Governor 732. . It includes records that are irreplaceable, reproduction of
d. Secretary, DILG which does not have the same value as the original
719. . It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on records.
vertical perimeter fences facing upward and outward with a. useful records
a 45 degree angle with three to four strand of barbed wire. b. vital records
a. topping c. important records
b. top guard d. non-essential records
c. all of the above 733. . How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
d. non of the above irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity?
720. . Are house like structure above the perimeter barriers, it a. casual pilferer
give psychological effect to violators. b. ordinary pilferer
a. guard towers c. systematic
 d. unusual pilferer 747. It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may be
734. . The extinguishment of fire by using water solution, and allowed to use high powered firearms; except one.
the temperature is lowered below the burning point. a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality
a. smothering b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery
b. starving c. transporting big amount of money
c. cooling d. providing security to VIPs
d. all of the above 748. . The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed how
735. . It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by the many percent of the total number of guards employed.
increase of room temperature, and which automatically a.5%
operates the system to put out the fire. b.10%
a. wet pipe system c.15%
b. automatic sprinklers d.20%
c. dry pipe system 749. . These are the qualifications of a licensed watchman or
d. stand pipe system security guard, EXCEPT:
736. . These fire results from the burning of wood, paper, a. high school graduate
textiles and other carbonaceous materials. b. physically & mentally fit
a. Class “A” Fires c. 18 to 50 years of age
b. Class “B” Fires d. without pre-licensing training
c. Class “C” Fires 750. . There are two different ways in which security guards are
d. Class “D” Fires hired or employed, the company guard and the other one
737. . Private Security Agencies must be registered at what is:
government agency. a. government guards
a. DTI b. private security agency
b. PNP c .propriety guards
c. CSC d. in-house guards
d. LGU 751. . This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and
Operation of PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs.
738. It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance of a. PD 603
temporary license. b. EO 292
a.100 c. RA 5487
b.1,000 d. PD 968
c.50 752. . They are any person who offers or renders personal
d.200 service to watch or secure either residential or business
739. . The regular security guard license is good for how many establishment or both.
years? a. private detective
a. 1 year b. security guards
b. 2 years c. propriety guards
c. 6 months d. company guards
d. 3 years 753. . Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or PNP,
740. . It is the minimum capitalization for PSA. but involved in detective work.
a. P1,000,000.00 a. private detective
b. P500,000.00 b. security guards
c. P100,000.00 c. propriety guards
d. non of the above d. company guards
741. . It is the required minimum number of guards to operate 754. . It is any person who for hire or reward or on commission,
company security forces. conducts or carries on or holds himself out in carrying
a. 30 detective works.
b. 200 a. PDA
c. 50 b. PSA
d.100 c. GSU
742. . A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much d. CSF
amount of surety bond to a reputable insurance company. 755. . It is any person, association, partnership, firm or private
a. P50,000.00 corporation that employs any watchman or guards.
b. P100,000.00 a. PDA
c. P150,000.00 b. PSA
d. P200,000.00 c. GSU
743. . PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at least how d. CSF
many firearms for use of its security guards. 756. . It is a security force maintained and operated by the
a. 10 private company/corporation for its own protection and
b. 20 security requirements
c. 30 a. PDA
d. 70 b. PSA
744. . PSAs who have been applying for regular license to c. GSU
operate must have at least ___ pieces of licensed d. CSF
firearms. 757. . It is a security unit maintained and operated by any
a. 10 government entity other than military or police.
b. 20 a. PDA
c. 30 b. PSA
d. 70 b. GSU
745. . The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not exceed a c. CSF
basic load of how many rounds per unit of duly licensed d.PAD
firearms. 758. . It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA.
a. 20 a. PADPAO, Inc.
b. 12 b. SAGSD
c. 50 c. SEC
d. 25 d. PNP
746. . This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to individual 759. . It is a government agency involved in the supervision of
security guards. the internal affairs of the PSAs, PDAs, CSFs and GSUs.
a. 20 a. PADPAO, Inc.
b. 12 b. SAGSD
c. 50 c. SEC
d. 25 d. PNP
760. . It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of 773. . Moribund but previously licensed security agency,
PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU. means:
a. 25 years a. dying PSA
b. 30 years b. viable PSA
c. 35 years c. new PSA
d. 20 years d. renewing PSA
761. . It is the initial number of guard requirements that must be 774. .It refers to the requirements for application for licenses as
contracted for the 1st year of operation of PSA. security officers, guards, and operators.
a. 100 a. physical & mental examination
b. 200 b. medical & dental examination
c. 1,000 c. physical agility test examination
d. 50 d. drug test examination
762. . What is the minimum number of guard requirements in 775. . Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom?
the operation of branch offices of PSA. a. DILG
a. 20 b. C, PNP
b. 30 c. PD, PPO
c. 10 d. RD, PRO 3
d. 40 776. . Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by whom?
763. . __________ are included in the category of in-house a. PSAs Operators
guards. b. CSF Managers
a. government guards c. all of the above
b. private security agency d. non of the above
c. propriety guards 777. . It shall be submitted immediately after graduation to the
d. all of the above C, PNP.
764. . It is charge with the directing the work and observing the a. closing reports
behavior performance of the men under his unit. b. opening reports
a. security guard c. participants
b. security supervisor d. name of course
c. watchman 778. . It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs.
c. security officer a. displayed
765. . The following items must be stipulated in the security b. carried
service contract, EXCEPT: c. registered
a. money consideration d. all of the above
b. number of hours of security service 779. . Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as ______ in
c. salary of the security guard the industrial security management.
d. commission of the operator a. Kabit System
766. . It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed to any b. Illegal Operation
applicant who failed to submit the complete requirements c. Merger of Security
in the renewal of license. d. Moribund Security
a. cancellation 780. . It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing
b. revocation temporary license to operate.
c. nullification a. pre-inspection
d. suspension b. post-inspection
767. . It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs throughout c. inspection
the Philippines. d. continuing inspection
a. Private Scty. Law 781. . It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is conducted
b. RA 5487 to the applicant agency.
c .IRR of RA 5487 a. regular license
d.all of the above b. temporary license
768. . It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP as c. license to operate
provided by R.A. 5487. d. permit to operate
a. suspension of license 782. . These are the classifications of offenses as prescribed by
b. cancellation of license the IRR of R.A. 5487, EXCEPT:
c. all of the above a. serious offense
d. non of the above b. light offense
c. grave offense
d. less grave offense
769. . It is the established rules and regulations in the operation 783. . They have the authority to conduct inspection to
of GSUs, EXCEPT: PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT:
a. registration at SAGSD a. C, SAGSD
b. registration at CSG b. C, ROPD
c. both A & B c. PD, PPO
d. registration at SEC d. SAGSD Officer
770. . Any member of the GSUs shall be required to secure a 784. . These are authorized to conduct investigation on all
__________ to exercise profession at SAGSD. complaints against securities of PSAs or detective of
a. permit PDAs.
b. authority a. C, ROPD
c. registration b. Inves. Comm., CSG
d. license c. all of the above
771. . How many days prior expiry month of license shall d. none of the above
require PSL holders to undergo NP examinations. 785. . It must be avoided by the private security personnel,
a. 60 days either physically or otherwise with the strikers.
b. 30 days a. direct contact
c. 45 days b. indirect contact
d. 15 days c. confrontation
772. . Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the d. carrying of firearms
accredited testing centers within how many days after the 786. . The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster or
date of examination. _________ the members of the agency in case of
a. 60 days emergency or in times of disasters or calamity.
b. 30 days
c .45 days a. organize
d.15 days b. incorporate
c. utilize
 d. deputize 801. . The directorate who is in charge of supplies and
787. . The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is- equipments of PNP is-
a. Intelligence a. logistics
b. Police Community Relation b. comptrollership
c. Civil Security Group c. intelligence
d. Investigation and Detective Mngt. d. plans
788. . Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM? 802. . What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional
a. Chief of Staff, AFP Director?
b. Secretary of the DILG a. 4 years
c. Secretary of National Defense b .5 years
d. Chief of the PNP c. 6 years
789. . It is the minimum educational attainment for promotion in d. 9 years
the PNP. 803. . The period of time in the present rank in permanent
a. MNSA status is called-
b. Master’s Degree a. Time-In-Grade
c. OSEC b. Length of Service
d. BS Degree c. Seniority in rank
790. . Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr. 8551 d. Plantilla position
to remove from the PNP, police officers who are- 804. . The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and
a. inefficient “deodorant” of the PNP is called-
b. ineffective a. Personnel Records Mgt.
c. unproductive
d. all of the choices b. Research Development
791. . The nature of which, the police officer is free from c. Police Community Relation
specific routine duty is the definition of - d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt.
a. “on duty” 805. . The National Capital Region Police Office is divided into
b. “special duty” how many districts?
c. “leave of absence” a. four
d. “off duty” b. six
792. . An area containing two or more beats, routes or post is c. five
called- d. seven
a. post 806. . A functional group within a section is called-
b. unit a. division
c. sector b. route
d. section c. unit
793. . The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation Rating in d. sector
the PNP is- 807. . The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
a. Very Satisfactory a. Intelligence
b. Fair b. Police Community Relation
c. Outstanding c. Comptrollership
d. Poor d.Investigation and Detective Mgt.
794. . The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and 808. . Which of the following is not an administrative support
receive a Base Pay of 25,000 pesos a month. How much unit?
will be his Longevity Pay? a. Special Action Force
a. 5,000 pesos b. Civil Security Group
b. 7,500 pesos c. Police Security and Protection Office
c. 10,000 pesos d. all of the choices
d. 12,500 pesos 809. . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP
795. . SPO4 Masipag receives a base pay of Php14, 000. He members who want to be promoted to-
had been in the service for 27 years. How much is his a. SPO4
longevity pay? b. SPO3
a.Php4, 200 c. SP01
b. Php5, 000 d. PO3
c. Php6, 500 810. Under the general qualifications for appointment in the
d. Php7, 000 PNP, male applicant must be with a height of at least-
796. . A primary subdivision of a bureau is called- a. 1.62 m
a. division b. 1.64 m
b. unit c. 1.57 m
c. section d. 1.54
d. department 811. . The mandatory training course of SPO4 before they can
797. . The mandatory training course for PO1 for them to be be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector is-
promoted to PO2 or PO3. a. Officers Basic Course
a. PSJLC b. Officers Candidate Course
b. PSOBC c. Officers Advance Course
c. PSOOC d. Senior Leadership Course
d. PSBRC 812. . What is the nature of appointment of PNP personnel
798. . Time-In-Grade needed by a Senior Inspector before he under the waiver program?
could be promoted to Chief Inspector is- a. permanent
a. 1 year b. contractual
b. 3 years c. temporary
c. 2 years d. probationary
d. 5 years 813. .The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila is-
799. . An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol purposes is
called- a. Western Police District
a. beat b. NCRPO
b. sector c. Southern Police District
c. route d. Central Police District
d. post 814. . The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP is-
800. . The system used in PNP promotions is called- a. Director General
a. Performance b. Chief Superintendent
b. Seniority c. Deputy Director General
c. Palakasan d. Director
d. Merit 815. . The number 2 man in the PNP organization in-
 a. TCDS 830. . It is the number of year of non-promotion before a PNP
b. DDG for Administration Member can be attrited.
c. DDG for Operations a. 5 years
d. none of them b. 15 years
816. .The national headquarters of the PNP is- c. 10 years
a. Camp Dangwa d. 20 years
b. Camp Crame 831. . It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits (MRB).
c. Camp Aguinaldo a. lump sum
d. Fort Bonifacio b. pension
817. . The purpose of promotion in the PNP is- c. gratuity
a. recognition of good work d. allowance
b. gives officers high morale
c. gives higher pay 832. Insubordination is an administrative infraction referred to
d. all of the choices as-
818. . Waiver system in the PNP will apply if- a. citizens complaint
a. recruitment falls on summer b. grave misconduct
b. qualified applicant falls below quota c. breach of internal discipline
c. ordered by the President d. none of them
d. none of them 833. PLEB is composed of how many person?
819. . Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is verified thru- a. 3
a. medical examination b. 5
b. neuro-psychiatric examination c. 4
c. physical fitness examination d. 6
d. drug test 834. . How many years is maximum tenure in officer of the
820. . Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is- Chief, PNP?
a. 20 to 36 years old a. four years
b. 19 to 36 years old b. six years
c. 21 to 35 years old c. five years
d. 20 to 35 years old d. nine years
821. . What is the minimum rank for a police officer to be 835. . How long will be the extension of tenure of the Chief,
qualified a the C, PNP? PNP if extended?
a. Director a. not more than 1 year
b. Superintendent b. not less than 2 years
c. Chief Superintendent c. more than 1 year
d. Director General d. none of them
822. . The law that grants automatic eligibility for those who 836. . The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board Exam
passed any licensure examination administered by the passers is-
Professional Regulations Commission is- a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506 b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080 c. Republic Act Nr. 8551
c. Republic Act Nr. 6975 d. Republic Act Nr. 6975
d. Republic Act Nr. 8551 837. . The agency that administers all the mandatory training
823. . The highest award given to a PNP member is- for police officers is
a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan a. PPSC
b. Medalya ng Kagitingan b. PNP
c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting c. DHRDD
d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan d. NAPOLCOM
824. . What is the duration of the PNP Field Training Program? 838. . Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP?
a. 10 months a. President
b. 18 months b. Chief, PNP
c. 12 months c. Sec. of DILG
d. 24 months d. NAPOLCOM
825. . When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform and 839. . Which of the following administer the PNP Entrance and
Reorganization Act? Promotional Exam for policemen as provided for under
a. 1992 Republic Act Nr. 8551?
b. 1996 a. NAPOLCOM
c. 1994 b. Civil Service Commission
d. 1998 c. Congress
826. . What law was amended by RA 8551? d. PNP
a. RA 7659 840. . What is the basis for promotion that includes the length
b. RA 6425 of service in the present rank?
c. RA 6975 a. Merit
d. RA 9165 b. Superiority
827. . Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a total c. Time-In-Grade
manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB d. Age
must be established? 841. . In availing of early retirement, one must have rendered
a. two continuous service of-
b. four a. 10 years
c. three c. 15 years
d. five b. 20 years
828. . What is the lowest administrative penalty? d. 25 years
a. Forfeiture of Pay 842. . What is the length of service before a PNP member
b. Restricted to Specified limits would be qualified for optional retirement?
c. Witholding of Privilege a. 5 years
d. Admonition b. 10 years
829. . It is the period given for a PNP member admitted under c. 15 years
the educational attainment waiver to finish his B.S. Degree d. 20 years
according to RA 8551? 843. . A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage and
a. 4 years extra-ordinary gallantry beyond the call of duty is called-
b. 6 years a. Regular
c. 5 years b. Permanent
d. 7 years c. Temporary
d. Meritorious
844. . Refers to a location where the search, which is duly a. Police organization
authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the b. Law enforcement group
commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other c. Non-government organization
legitimate purposes. d. Organization
a. Clear Zone
b. Public Place 858. . Who is the Father of Modern Policing System?
c. Police Checkpoint a. Edwin Sutherland
d. Pre-Determined Area b. Emile Durkhiem
845. . It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or c. Sir Robert Peel
in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable d. Leonard Keeler
cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s 859. .Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila?
identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning a. Capt. George Curry
criminal activity. b. Capt. Henry Allen
a. Frisking c. Capt. Columbus Piatt
b. Search d. Capt. Howard Taft
c. Spot Check 860. . Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____.
d. Pat-down Search a. chastity
846. . A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies while in b. passion
the performance of duty is called- c. person
a. Regular d. mankind
b. Posthumous 861. . What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years of
c. Temporary satisfactory service rendered?
d. None of them a. promotion
847. . Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a b. longevity pay
criminologist who applied and selected will have the initial c. additional allowance
rank of - d. retirement benefits
a. Senior Inspector 862. . What is the lowest administrative penalty?
b. Inspector a. reprimand
c. SPO4 b. admonition
d. Chief of Inspector c. restriction
848. . The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police d. forfeiture of pay
Superintendent is vested in the- 863. .Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the Chief of
a. Chief, PNP Police, City or Municipal Mayors and _______.
b. President a. Chief, PNP
c. Civil Service Commission b. Provincial Director
d. NAPOLCOM c. Regional Director
849. . When can the President extend the tenure of service of d. PLEB
the Chief, PNP? 864. . Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where
a. after 4 years the penalty is dismissal, demotion and forced resignation
b. there is no successor may be appealed before this body.
c. during martial law a. Regional Appellate Board
d. national emergencies b. Office of the President
850. . What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer qualified for c. National Appellate Board
early retirement? d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
a. two ranks higher 865. . Which of the following composed the PNP?
b. one rank higher a. members of the INP
c. his present rank b. members of the PC
d. one year gratuity c. members of the PNP
851. . Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers? d. all of the choices
a. Civil Service Commission 866. .What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff?
b. Congress a. Deputy Director General
c. Commission of Appointment b. Police Director
d. NAPOLCOM c. Police Chief Superintendent
852. . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP d. Police Senior Superintendent
members who want to be promoted to- 867. . The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who meets
a. SPO4 all the basic qualification for promotion is termed-
b. SPO1 a. special
c. SPO3 b. meritorious
d. PO3 c. regular
853. . The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the State d. ordinary
shall establish and maintain one police for which shall be- 868. . It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 before they
a. national in scope can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector.
b. civilian in scope a. Officer’s Basic Course
c. national in character b. Officer’s Advance Course
d. military in character c. Officer’s Candidate Course
854. . What is the meaning of PPSC? d. Senior Leadership Course
a. Phil. Public Safety Course 869. . How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP
b. Phil. Private Safety College National Office (NHQ-PNP)?
c. Phil. Public Safety College a. eleven
d. Phil. Private Safety Course b. ten
855. .The mandatory training required for promotion to the rank c. nine
of Police Superintendent is called- d. twelve
a. MNSA 870. . Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the
b. OSEC confirmation of the:
c. MPSA a. Civil Service Commission
d. Master’s Degree b. NAPOLCOM
856. . He is the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary? c. Commission on Appointment
a. Capt. Henry T. Allen d. President of the Phil.
b. Gen. Rafael Crame 871. . The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the -
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm
857. .It is an association or group of individuals with a common c. The Chief Directorial Staff
goal. d. Regional Director of the NCR
872. . The National Appellate Board Office of the NAPOLCOM a. Rafael Palma
is located in what city? b. Cesar Nazareno
a. Quezon City c. Rafael Crame
b. City Of Manila d. Emilio Aguinaldo
c. Mandaluyong City 887. . Richard Aldenjoined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 years
d. Makati City old then. What year can Alden retire?
873. . Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by- a. 2017
a. Chief, PNP b. 2031
b. Secretary, DILG c. 2032
c. President of the Phil. d. 2022
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM 888. . The Role of the PNP on matters involving the
874. . The law that merges the police and Philippine suppression of insurgency and serious treats to national
Constabulary into the PC-INP is- security?
a. R.A. 7659 a. The AFP operating through the area
b. R.A. 6975 commander is the one primarily responsible
c. R.A. 8551 on matters involving insurgency and other
d. P.D. 765 serious treats to national security.
875. . How many deputies do the PNP consist? b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role
a. one towards insurgency and other serious treats
b. three to national security.
c. two c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the
d. four AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
876. . How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there in the d. All of the choices
PNP Organization? 889. . The procedure which is intended to be used in situations
a. fourteen of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men in the field
b. sixteen operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest
c. Fifteen and investigation refers to
d. Seventeen a. Field Procedure
877. . The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is done b. Time Specific plan
how many times per year? c. Problem oriented plan
a. once d. Headquarters procedure
b. thrice 890. . The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period
c. twice ______?
d. four a. Not exceeding four years.
878. . MNSA or Master’s in National Security Administration is b. Not exceeding five years.
offered and administered by an institution known as- c. Not exceeding six years.
a. PPSC d. Not exceeding three years.
b. NAPOLCOM 891. . The law that empowered the police commission to
c. National Defense Office conduct entrance and promotional examination for police
d. National Defense College members refers to:
879. . The mandatory training course needed to be promoted to a. RA 6040
SPO1 and SPO2 is called- b. RA 157
a. Police Basic Course c. RA 5487
b. Junior Leadership Course d. PD 765
c. Senior Leadership Course 892. . The theory of police service which states those police
d. Officers Candidate Course officers are servants of the people or the community refers
880. . The administrative support unit in charge of delivering the to:
necessary supplies and materials to all PNP units in the a. Old
field is called- b. Home rule
a.Finance Service c. Modern
b.Logistics Support Service d. Continental
c.Computer Service 893. . Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the
d.Communications & Electronics Svc Philippine National Police. What would be his initial rank
881. . The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned Officer is- upon entry?
a. SPO2 a. Senior Inspector
b. SPO4 b. Chief Inspector
c. SPO3 c. Inspector
d. Inspector d. none of the choices
882. . How many stars are there in the rank of Police Director? 894. . The following are functions in a police organization,
a. one EXCEPT:
b. three a. primary functions
c. two b. administrative functions
d. four c. secondary functions
883. . The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG Act of d. auxiliary functions
1990 that established the PNP under the DILG is- 895. . If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to
a. Republic Act Nr. 6975 disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
b. Republic Act Nr. 7659 Patrol officer is:
c. Republic Act 8551 a. Conduct a complete search.
d. Presidential Decree 765 b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
884. . In the history of our police force, who was the first c. No further search may be made.
Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)? d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno supervisor.
b. Gen. Raul Imperial 896. . He is known as the father of modern policing system?
c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez a. August Vollmer
d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento b. Robert Peel
885. . The primary objective of Philippine National Police: c. Oliver Cromwell
a. Law Enforcement d. Cesare Lombroso
b. Peace and Order 897. . When responding to call for police assistance due to
c. Protect and Serve planted or found explosives, what immediate actions
d. Crime Prevention should the patrol officer will do?
886. . The national headquarters of the PNP is located in a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
Quezon City. It was named after the 1st Filipino Chief of b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further
the Philippine Constabulary. injury to happen.
 c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive a. Director General
Ordinance Disposal Team. b. Solicitor General
d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper c. Inspector General
procedure to be followed, after investigating the item. d. IAS General
898. . Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed 911. . As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be
Forces of the Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel?
the PNP? a. one (1)
a. Inspector b. more than one
b. Chief Inspector c. at least one
c. Senior Inspector d. less than one
d. Superintendent 912. . If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the
899. . How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in immediate things to do when accident occur?
the PNP? a. Cordon the area
b. Go away and call your superior
a. 1 c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
b. 3 d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
c. 2 913. . Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses
d. 4 of the PNP in reinventing the field of investigation. Who is
900. . The highest rank in the BJMP is __________. the NCRPO Chief who introduces this DBS?
a. Four star general a. Dir. Alma Jose
b. Director b. Dir. Romeo Pena
c. Chief Superintendent c. Dir. Sonny Razon
d. Director General (PNP) d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
901. . What is the minimum police-to-population ratio? 914. . All of the following are members of the People’s Law
a. 1:1000 Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
b. 1:1500 a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace
c. 1:500 and Order Council from among the
d. 1:7 respected members of the community
902. . The fourth man in command of the PNP is the b. Any barangay captain of the
__________. city/municipality concerned chosen by the
a. DDG for operation association of barangay captains
b. Chief, Directorial Staff c. Any member of the Sangguniang
c. DDG for administration Panglunsod
d. Chief, PNP d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated
903. . Which of the following is NOT included in the powers and Bar of the Philippines
function of the PNP? 915. . Two or more persons forming an organization must
a. enforce all laws and ordinances identify first the reason for establishing such organization.
b. maintain peace and order They must identify the organization’s _________:
c. investigate and prevent crimes a. strategy
d. prosecute criminal offenders b.mission
904. . The word “police” was derived from the Greek word c.vision
_______, which means government of the city. d. objective
a. politia 916. . To improve delegation, the following must be done,
b. Polis EXCEPT:
c. politeia a. establish objectives and standards
d. Policy b. count the number of supervisors
905. . It is defined as the determination in advance of how the c. require completed work
objectives of the organization will be attained. d. define authority and responsibility
a. planning 917. . The number of subordinates that can be supervised
b. Advancement directly by one person tends to:
c. police planning a. Increase as the physical distance between
d. Development supervisor and subordinate as well as
906. . It is the premier educational institution for the training, between individual subordinate increases
human resource development and continuing education of b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge
all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP. and experience of the subordinate
a. PPSC c. Increase as the level of supervision
b. RTS progresses for the first line supervisory level
c. PNPA to the management level
d. NPC d. All of the above
907. . It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint 918. . This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions
against the police officers. through unity of command from top to bottom of
a. IAS organization:
b. PNP a. Audit
c. PLEB b. Coordination
d. NAPOLCOM c. Monitoring
d. Authority
908. . The provincial governor shall choose the provincial 919. . Which of the following statements is true:
director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended by the a.Performance evaluation measures credibility
PNP regional director: of the police
a. six b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for
b. Five salary increases or promotion
c. Three c.Performance evaluation is done once a year
d. four among police personnel
909. . The deployment of officers in a given community, area or d.Performance evaluation is implemented to
locality to prevent and deter criminal activity and to provide determine the quality of work performance of
day-to-day services to the community. personnel
a. Patrol 920. . The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for
b. Beat Patrol _______:
c. Line Patrol a. Administrative control
d. Area Patrol b. Operational supervision
c. Administration and control
910. . The head of the IAS shall have a designation of d. Policy and program coordination
____________?
921. . SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same
supervisor. This is the principle of __________:
a. delegation of authority
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. chain of command
922. . The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the
Director General of the PNP is;
a. 4 years
b. 56 years
c. 5 years
d. 21 years
923. . In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
a. standard operation procedures
b. special operation procedures
c. standard operating procedures
d. special operating procedures
924. . The following are the characteristics of a good plan,
except:
a. Flexibility
b. specific
c. Clear
d. expensive
925. . If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many
of the annual quota is allocated for women?
a.10%
b.120
c.100
d.200
926. . Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived
in the following order:
a. age, height, weight & education
b. age, weight, height & education
c. height, education, weight & age
d. in any order
927. . It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis
provided by law.
a. attrition
b. separation
c. romotion
d. Retirement
928. . The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not
be less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The Maximum
age requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral entry
program is ____.
a. 35 years old
b. 25 years old
c. 30 years old
d. 31 years old
929. . A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members
is required for permanency of their appointment. Who
among the following is exempted to undergo the Field
Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
a. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed
Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
Inspector via Lateral entry.
c. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed
Inspector after graduation.
d. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist
and First Place in the Examination.
930. . Planning as a management function is to
be done in the various levels of PNP
Organization. Broad policy based from laws
directives, policies and needs in general is the
responsibility of:
a. Directorate for Plans
b. President of the Philippines
c. Chief, PNP
d. Dep. Dir. For Administration
931. . What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy
Director General in the Armed Forces of the
Philippines?
a. Lt. General
b. Major General
c. Brigade General
d. General
932. . The Philippine National Police will recruit
500 new policemen on April 2013 to fill up its
quota. Who among the following applicants is
qualified to apply?
a. Alden who was born on April 24, 1978
b. Maine who was born on November 22, 1980
c. Vice who was born on March 17, 1993
d. Plastillas who was born on August 10, 1991
933. . Police Inspector Katunggali joined the
Philippine National Police on October 1,
1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as
embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement so
that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP
which he served with extreme commitment and
loyalty. When does Mark Espinosa can retire?
a. October 5, 1998
b. October 6, 1999
c. September 5, 2010
d. September 5, 2008
934. . Which of the following administrative
penalties is immediately executory?
a. Dismissal
b. Forfeiture of pay
c. Suspension
d. Death penalty
935. . It is the third in command in the Philippine National
Police:
a. Regional Director
b. Chief Directorial Staff
c. DeputyChief for Administrationd.
d. Deputy Chief for Operation
936. . The head of the National Capital Regional
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR
director with the rank of:
a. Chief Superintendent
b. Director
c. Superintendent
d. General
937. . Under the waiver program, who among the following
PNP applicants is the least priority for appointment?
a. maine who just earned 72 units in college b.
Paloma who is under height
c. Jauquinwho is underweight
d. Alden who is overage
938. . Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
as____________.
a.Department of Interior and Local Government Act of
1990
b.Department of the Interior and Local Government
Act of 1990
c.Department of Interior and the Local Government
Act of 1990
d.Department of the Interior and the Local
Government Act of 1990
939. . SPO3 Manny Weather receives 27, 690.00
base pay since he was promoted. After five years
from promotion, what would be his monthly base pay
after adding his longevity pay?
a. 32, 690.00
b. 37, 690.00
c. 30, 459.00
d. 31, 549.00
940. . Decisions rendered by the national IAS
shall be appealed to the__________:
a. Regional Appellate Board
b. National Appellate Board
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board d.
National Police Commission
941. . It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.
a. R.A. 4864
b. R.A. 8551
c. Act 175
d. PD 765
942. .__________ is given to any PNP member who has
exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his
life above and beyond the call of duty.
A. Meritorious Promotion B.
Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
943. .PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed
for failure to comply with the requirements can re-apply to
the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes
B.Maybe No
C..Absolutely Yes
D.Absolutely No
944. .The reason why police officer appears in court as a 955. .If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding
witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his 30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s complaint
respect to the court and to his: against erring PNP member shall be filed at the
A.Position/Rank A.Office of the chief of police
B.Superior B.PLEB
C.Profession C.Mayor’s Office
D.Comrades D. any of the choices
945. .Which among the following is NOT subjected to field 956. .Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the
Operational Plans? base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of
A.Patrol 20 years active service
B.Records A.50%
C.Investigation B.10%
D. Traffic C.2.5%
946. . Which of the following statement is not true about patrol? D.55%
A.It is the backbone of the police department
B.It is the essence of police operation 957. .This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as
C.It is the single largest unit in the police department drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or
that can be eliminated neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the
D.It is the nucleus of the police department objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
E.It is the operational heart of the police department A.Strategic plan
947. .The performance evaluation system in the PNP is B.Time Specific plan
conducted: C.Problem oriented plan
A.thrice a year D.time bound operational plan
B. Every 6 months 958. .This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on
C.Every 2 years routine and field operations and some special operations
D. Quarterly A.Strategic plan
948. . A PNP member who acquired permanent physical B.Time Specific plan
disability in the performance of his dutyand unable to C.Problem oriented plan
further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime D. policy or procedural plan
pension equivalent to: 959. .The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____?
A50% of his last salary A.Superintendent B.
B. 70% of his last salary Director
C.60% of his last salary C.Senior Superintendent D. Chief
D. 80% of his last salary Superintendent
949. . How many successive annual ratingperiods before a 960. . The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a
police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor police officer is
performance? A.A ground for dismissal
A.2 B.Not qualified for promotion
B.4 C.Automatically dismiss D.Not a
C.3 bar to promotion
D.1 961. .Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the
PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties,
950. . How many cumulative annual ratingperiods before a enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the
performance? offenders to justice
A.2 A.Deployment
B.4 B.Reinforcement
C.3 C.Reintegration
D.1 D.Employment
951. .In this theory, management assumes employees may be 962. . What is the first step in making a plan?
ambitious and self-motivated and exercise self-control. It is A.Frame of reference
believed that employees enjoy their mental and physical B.Analyzing the Facts
work duties. C.Collecting all pertinent data
A.Hawthorne Effect D.Identification of the problems
B.Stockholm Syndrome
C.X theory 963. .It identify the role of police in the community and future
D.Y theory condition in state
952. .The theory X and Y is a human motivation created by? A.Visionary Plans
A.Edward H. Sutherland B.Strategic Plans
B.C. Edwin Hawthorne C.Synoptic Planning
C.Henry A. Landsberger D.Incremental Planning
D.Douglas McGregor 964. .Is that field of management which involves planning, and
953. In this theory, which has been proven counter-effective in controlling the efforts of a group of individuals toward
most modern practice, management assumes employees achieving a common goal with maximum dispatch and
are inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can and that minimum use of administrative resources.
they inherently dislike work. As a result of this, A.Human Resources
management believes that workers need to be closely B.Personnel Management
supervised and comprehensive systems of controls C.Human Management
developed. D.Personnel Administration
A.Hawthorne Effect
B.Stockholm Syndrome 965. . Is the process of developing methods or procedure or an
C.X theory arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the
D.Y theory accomplishment of a definite objective.
954. .This kind of organizational structure classifies people A.Management
according to the function they perform in their professional B.Functioning
life or according to the functions performed by them in the C.Budgeting
organization. D.Planning
A.Functional Structure 966. . Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific
B.Line and Staff Structure circumstances and details with the following procedures.
C.Line Structure A.Field Procedures
D.Divisional Structure B.Procedural plan
C.Operational Plans
D.Functional plan
967. . Which of the following is not a function of police 978. .Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction,
personnel unit? domination, or excessive use of authority:
A.Preparing policy statements and standard A.Misconduct
operating Procedures relating to all areas of the B. Dishonesty
administration of human resources C.Incompetency
B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other D. Oppression
line officials regarding personnel matters 979. .The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as
C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning a mobile strike force or reaction unit to augment police
officers to identify, and subsequently correct, forces for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency,
unsatisfactory working conditions hostage taking, rescue operations and other special
D. Establish criteria for promotion to the operations:
exclusive ranks
A.NARCOM
968. .It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating B. SAF
undesirable applicants that do not meet the organization’s C.SWAT
selection criteria D. SOCO
980. .The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.
A. Promotion Recruitment A.Line
B.Transfer Selection B. functional
C.Recruitment C.staff
D.Selection D. line and staff
969. .It is recognized as the best method of filing 981. . As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not
A.Pigeon Hole allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of
B.retrieval operation lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper
C.Records Management authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total number
D.chain of custody of security guards.
970. .It is considered to be the heart of any identification A.50%
system; it provides positive identification of the criminal B. 20%
A.Arrest and booking report C.30%
B.Miscellaneous Records D. 10%
C.Identification record 982. . The vault door should be made of steel at least
D.Fingerprint Records __________ in thickness?
971. .The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly A.7 inches
salary and allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of B. 9 inches
how many year? C.6 inches
A.1 year B. 2 D. 20 feet or more
months 983. . An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive
C. 4 years to a breach of the protection system, or that, could result
D.2 years to loss.
972. .In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of A.Hazards
hours of classroom training should be required for newly B. Environmental Hazards
promoted supervisory personnel C.Natural Hazards
A.72 hours D. Security Hazards
B.80 hours 984. .An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion,
C.75 hours integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to
D.85 hours determines person suitability for appointment or access to
973. .It should be proactive, people oriented, based on classified matter.
individual need, and delivered in such a way as to
motivate the experienced officer Higher dgreee of A.Character Investigation
professionalism/ B.Physical Investigation
Professionalization. C.Background Investigation
A.Recruit Training D. Personnel Security Investigation
B.Specialized training 985. .The importance of the firm or installation with reference to
C.In Service the national economy security
D.Field Training A.Relative vulnerability
974. . When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing B. Relative program
the entire mandatory and other consideration in promotion, C.Relative criticality
is what kind of promotion? D. Relative security
A.Promotion by Virtue of Position B. 986. .Private security agencies have to be registered with the:
Regular Promotion A.SEC
C.Meritorious Promotion D. B.DTI
Promotion C.PADPAO
D. PNP, SAGSD
975. .It involves assistance and action by non police agencies
such as Local Safety Council for Traffic Division, DSWD 987. .To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility
for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness what must be constructed.
plans and Civil defense plans A.Full view fence
A.Management Plans B. Chain link fence
B.Procedural plan C. Solid fence
C.Tactical Plans D. Multiple fences
D. Extra departmental plan 988. . A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of
976. . Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be
ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an award: issued with a-
A.Medal A.Firearms
B. Awards B. Mission Order
C.Decorations C.Duty Detail Order
D.Ribbons D. None of These
977. .For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya 989. .What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP member: A. 150 Hours
A.Six B. 72 Hours
B. Four C. 48 Hours
C.Five D. 300 Hours
D. Three 990. .All except one are the line leadership staff:
 A.Detachment Commander B. Regular Pilferer
B.Post-in-Charge C. Casual Pilferer
C.Chief Inspector D. Systematic pilferer
D.Security Supervisor 1
1002. . The metallic container used for securing documents
991. . Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double or small items in an office or installation refers to:
strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an A. Safe
equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than B. Vault
___ high excluding the top guard. C. File room
A.8 feet D. None of these
B.7 feet 1003. .Chain link fences must be constructed in______
C.9 feet material excluding the top guard?
D. 6 feet a. Seven feet
992. . Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license b. Six feet
issued to security guards. c. Four feet
A. Any of the choices d. Five feet
B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
C. Secretary, DILG 1004. .The following things are used as barrier, which
D. C/PNP serves as a deterrent to the possible intruder in an
Industrial Complex, EXCEPT:
993. .What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows? a. Human
A. Photoelectric b. Fences
B. Metallic foil c. Doors
C. Audio detection d. Concertina
D. Microwave Detection 1005. .Vaults are storage devices which are usually
994. .Is the process of conducting physical examination to designed to be at least _______fire resistant.
determine compliance with establishment security policies
and procedures? a. 3 hours
A. Security Education b. 24hours
B. Security Survey c. 6hours
C. Security Planning d. 12 hours
D. Security Inspection
1006. . A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit
995. . Is a corporate and executive responsibility, involving the boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by
knowledge of the objectives of the security and the means utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
and the method to reach these objective or goal must then a. Lever locks
involve. b. Combination lock
A. Security Inspection c. Padlock
B. Security Hazards d. Code operated locks
C. Security Planning 1007. . The maximum number of firearms allowed to
D. Security Survey possess by a PSA should not exceed by___ units.
996. . A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device a. 30
designed to prevent entry into a building, room container, b. 70
or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items c. 500
without the consent of the owner d. 1000
A .Padlocks 1008. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue-
B. Locks C. Code green color?
Operated a. Sodium vapor lamp
D. Lever Locks b. Incandescent lamp
997. . A type of protective alarm system where the central c. Mercury vapor lamp
station located outside the installation. When the alarm is d. Quartz lamp
sounded, it will notifies the police and other agency 1009. .What type of security deals with the industrial plants
and business enterprises where personnel, processes,
A. Local Alarm system properties and operations are safeguarded?
B. Auxiliary System a. Personnel security
C. Central Station System b. industrial security
D. Proprietary c. Physical security
d. bank security
998. . It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may 1010. .The following are principles of Physical Security,
activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot to EXCEPT:
engage the activation bar a. There is impenetrable Barrier.
A. Bill traps b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
B. Foot Rail Activator c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons d.Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
D. Foot buttons
999. These are wide beam units, used to extend the 1011. . The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the damage, loss or disruption of operations due to various
approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow, hazards.
horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane a. Relative vulnerability
A. Fresnel Lights b. Relative criticality
B. Street Lights c. Relative susceptibility
C. Floodlights d. Relative security
D.Search lights
1000. . What is the required capital investment for 1012. . Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible
organization of private security agency? authority that the person described is cleared to access
A. P 500,000 and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim
B. B. P 100,000 clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the
C. P 1,000,000 date of issuance.
D. P 50,000 a. 1 year
1001. . One who steals with preconceived plans and takes b. 4 years
away any or all types of items or supplies for economic c. 2 years
gain? d. 5 years
A. Normal Pilferer
1013. . The tenure of a security guard is: 1023. it is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC
a. Six Months & LAC since it includes thorough and complete
b. Co-terminus with the service contract investigation of all or some of the circumstances or
c. Two years aspects of a person’s life is conducted?
d. Contractual a. Personnel Security Investigation
b. Partial Background Investigation
1014. . Which among the following is not an advantage of a c. Background Investigation
full-view fence, except: d. Complete Background Investigation

a.It allows visual access to the installation which aids 1024. 1024.The unobstructed area maintained on both sides
the intruder in planning. of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel
b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with area to afford better observation of the installation refers
.the movements of persons in the installation to:
c.It creates shadows which could prevent a. Clear zone
concealment of the intruder. b. Complimentary zone
d.None of these c. Open zone
d. Free zone
1015. .Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety
bond which shall answer for any valid and legal claims 1025. The extension period for a license to operate issued
against such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of
is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards. guards is:
a. 50, 000 a. 1 month
b. 100, 000 b. 6 months
c. 150, 000 c. 2 years
d. 200,00 d. 1 year

1016. . What type of investigation involves all aspect and 1026. .Which of the following types of lock is generally used
details about the circumstances of a person? in car doors?
a. partial background investigation a. Warded lock
b. completebackground investigation b. Lever lock
c. personnel security investigation c. Disc tumbler lock
d. national agency check d. Combination lock

1017. . The exposure and the teaching of employees on 1027. PADPAO stands for:
security and its relevance to their work is:
a.Security Inspection a. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective
b.Security Education Agency Operators, Inc.
c.Security Orientation b. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective
d.Security Survey Agency Operators, Inc.
1018. .A type of security which provides sufficient c. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector
illumination to areas during hours of darkness Agency Operators, Inc.
a. Protective Lighting d. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective
b. Fresnel Lights Associations Operators, Inc.
c. Search Lights
d. Street Lights 1028. 1 It refers to a protection against any type of crime to
safeguard life and assets by various methods and device.
1019. . Type of alarm system which is usually activated by a. Physical Security
the interruption of the light beam is known as: b. Perimeter Security
a. Metallic foil c. Operational Security
b. Electric eye device d. Security
c. Audio alarm
d. Microwave alarm 1029. . All except are the qualifications of a security officer.
a. Has graduated from a Security Officer
1023.What is the ratio of the security guard to their b. Training Course.
licensed firearm is needed after operating for six c. Holder of Masters Degree.
months. d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
a. 1:3 e. Physically or mentally fit.
b. 1:5
c. 1:2 1030. .These provides access within the perimeter barrier
d. 1:1 and should be locked and guarded.
1020. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in a. Gates and Doors
areas where insects predominate? b. Side-Walk Elevator
a. Mercury vapor lamp c. Utilities Opening
b. Quartz lamp d. Clear Zones
c. Sodium vapor Lamp
d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp 1031. .A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy
and deficiency in all aspects of security, with the
1021. . What is an act governing the organization and corresponding recommendation is:
management of private security agency, company guard a. security inspection
force and government security forces? b. security education
a. RA 8574 c. security training
b. RA 5478 d. security survey
c. RA 4587
d. RA 5487 1032. . What unit of PNP handles the processing and
issuances of license for private security personnel?
1022. .Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or a. PNP SOSIA
concertina. Chain link are for ______. b. PNP FED
a. Solid structure c. PADPAO
b. Least permanent structure d. PNP SAGSD
c. Permanent structure 1033. . What is the most common type of human hazard?
d. Semi- permanent structure a. Sabotage
b. Pilferage
c. Theft
 d. Subversion 1044. .A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance
container usually a part of the building structure use to
1034. . What is the security force maintained and operated keep, and protect cash, documents and valuables
by any private company/ corporation for its own security materials.
requirements? a. Vault
a. GSU b. Safe
b. CSF c. File Room
c. PSA d. None of these
d. PD
1045. . Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of
1035. . What type of controlled area requires highest degree Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm?
of security?
a. Limited a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the
b. Restricted company’s Vault.
c. Special b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
d. Exclusive c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the
1036. . What lock requires manipulation of parts according guards table.
to a predetermined combination code of numbers?
a. Card- operated lock 1046. . Any physical structure whether natural or man-made
b. Combination lock capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or
c. Electromagnetic lock unauthorized access.
d. Card Operated a. Perimeter Fences
b. Wire Fences
c. Moveable Barrier
1037. .What type of lamp emits bright white light? d. Barrier
a. Sodium vapor lamp 1047. . A company owned protective alarm with unit in a
b. Mercury vapor lamp nearest police station of fire department.
c. Incandescent lamp a. A. Proprietary Alarm
d. Quartz lamp b. Auxiliary Alarm
1038. . What type of security lighting is focused to the c. Central Alarm
intruder while the guard remains in the comparative d. Security Alarm
darkness? 1048. . It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused
a. Controlled lighting light rather than direction beam. They are widely used in
b. Fresnel light parking areas
c. Emergency lighting a. Street Lights
d. Glare- projection b. Search Lights
c. Flood Lights
1039. . What is the system of natural or man- made barriers d. Fresnel Lights
placed between the potential intruder and the object,
person and matter being protected?
a. Communication security 1049. . A portable and detachable lock having or sliding
b. Document security hasp which passes through a staple ring or the like and is
c. Physical security then made fast or secured.
d. Barrier a. Lock
b. Padlock
1040. .The following are the purposes of Security Survey, c. Code Operated
EXCEPT: d. Card Operated
a. To ascertain the present economic status
b. To determine the protection needed 1050. . It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in
c. To make recommendations to improve the overall temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the safe
security can withstand 2000
0F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it
d. None of these
has passed the test.
1041. . License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate a. Fire Endurance Test
document which is issued by ____________ authorizing a b. Fire and Impact Test
person to engage in employing security guard or detective, c. Burning Test
or a juridical person to establish, engage, direct, manage d. Explain Hazard Test
or operate a private detective agency.
a. Secretary of DILG 1051. . The following are phases of Security Education,
b. Security and Exchange Commission EXCEPT:
a. Special Interview
c. Chief, PNP b. Security Seminar
d. President c. Security Promotion
d. Training Conference
1042. . One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is
that the distances between strands will not exceed
_______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and 1052. . How is one classified if he steals primarily because
midway between posts. of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little
a. 3 inches chance of detection?
b. 6 inches a. Systematic pilferer
c. 4 inches b. Ordinary pilferer
d. 7 inches c. Casual pilferer
d. Unusual pilferer
1043. .Clear Zone of _______ must be established between
the perimeter barrier and structure within the protected 1053. Psychology of Omnipresence means______.
areas. a. Low Visibility
a. 20 feet or more b. High Visibility
b. 40 feet or more c. Reactive
c. 30 feet or more d. Proactive
d. 50 feet or more
1054. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
 toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP c. Reactive
investigational capability. d. High Visibility
a. Detective Beat Patrol
b. Integrated Patrol System 1065. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of
c. Community Oriented Policing System ________________ since they can be operated very
d. Team Policing quietly and without attracting attention.
1055. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching a. Mobility and wide area coverage.
the end of the line beat, and before returning to the point b. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
of origin. c. Shorter travel time and faster response.
a. Patrol Report d. Mobility and stealth
b.Situation Report
c.Investigation Report 1066. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San
d.Incident Report Juanico Bridge?
a. Foot Patrol
1056. The ideal police response time is: b. K-9 Patrol
a. 3 minutes c. Automobile Patrol
b. 5 minutes d. Bicycle Patrol
c. 7 minutes
d. 10 minutes
1067. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the
1057. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau
possessing a high potential for criminal attack or for the of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
creation of problem necessitating a demand for immediate a. May 7, 1954
police service: b. May 17, 1954
a. Hazard c. May 14, 1957
b. Opportunity d. March 10, 1917
c. Perception of Hazard
d. Police Hazard 1068. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious
persons, places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles
1058. The most expensive patrol method and gives the especially during night-time, be prepared to use your
greatest opportunity to develop sources of information is: service firearm and Flashlight should be-
a. Foot Patrol
b. Marine Patrol a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a
c. Mobile Patrol possible target.
d. Helicopter Patrol b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a
1059. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in possible target.
patrol which makes the policemen less visible during the c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible
night. The primary purpose is: adversary.
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a a. None of these
crime
b. To have sufficient cover 1069. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when
c. To attract less attention responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
d. For safety of the Patrol officer a. Arrest criminals
b. Securing the area
1060. The following are included in the cause and effect of c. Aiding the injured
team policing. d. Extort Money
a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate; 1070. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon,
c. Facilitate career development; except when its occupants pose imminent danger of
d. Diminish police morale; and causing death or injury to the police officer or any other
e. Improve police community relation. person, and that the use of firearm does not create a
danger to the public and outweighs the likely benefits of its
a. a, b, e non-use. In firing upon a moving vehicle, the following
b. c. a, b, d, e parameters should be considered EXCEPT:
c.a, c, d, e
d. d. a, b, c, e a. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing
1061. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol suspect/s with the police officer and other persons.
methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform b. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
specific predetermined preventive functions on a planned harm in certainty the police officer or other
systematic basis: persons
a. Target Oriented Patrol c. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
b. High-Visibility Patrol the police officer or other persons.
c. Low-Visibility Patrol d. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s
d. Directed deterrent Patrol to avoid traffic accident.
1062. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be
best penetrated by the police through. 1071. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during
a. Foot patrol pat-down search, a more secure search position may be:
b. Bicycle patrol a. Standing position
c. Mobile patrol b. Lying Face down Position
d. Helicopter patrol c. Hands placed against a stationary object,
1063. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to and feet spread apart.
accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP. The d. All of these
Police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24
hours duty with prescribed divisions of: 1096. The following are types of specialized patrol
a. 2 shifts method except:
b. 4 shifts a. Marine Patrol
c. 3 shifts b. Air Patrol
d. every other day shift. c. Canine Patrol
d. Foot Patrol
1064. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally 1072. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged
prevent the desire of human being to commit crime. by his-
a. Preventive a. Knowledge of all problems in the community
b. Proactive b. Residents developed good public relations
 c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor
offenses 1083. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in
d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his terms of number of:
area a. Superiors to whom he reports
b. Superiors from whom he takes orders
1073. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies? c. Subordinates directly reporting to him
a. True d. Any of these
b. False
c. Absolutely Yes d. 1084. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from
Absolutely No becoming _______ with people, hazards, and facilities on
his beat.
1074. This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number a. Well Acquainted
of apprehension of law violator to engage in certain types b. Sluggish
of crimes: c. Energetic
a. Preventive Patrol d. Unfamiliar
b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol 1085. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise
d. Proactive Patrol and before the counter-clockwise?
a. Straightway
1075. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol? b. Crisscross
a. It is the backbone of the police department c. Sector
b. It is the essence of police operation d. Zigzag
c. It is the nucleus of the police department
d.It is the single largest unit in the police Department 1086. The two-man patrol became_________ due to
that can be eliminated increase attack of police officer by militant, dangerous
section to be patrolled and many riots demonstration in the
1076. It is an immediate response to block the escape of street.
lawless elements from a crime scene, and is also a. Unnecessary
established when nearby checkpoints are ignored or b. Necessary
during hot pursuit operations. It is set up by police c. Voluntary
personnel conducting mobile patrol on board a marked d. Redundant
police vehicle, or those conducting ISO and foot patrol
operations within the vicinity/periphery of the national or 1087. A police strategy which aims to directly involve
provincial highways. members of the community in the maintenance of peace
a. Dragnet Operation and order by police officers.
b. Hasty Checkpoint a. Integrated Police System
c. High-Risk Arrest b. Comparative Police System
d. High Risk Stop c. Detective Beat System
d. Community Oriented Policing System
1077. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Arrest of alleged criminals 1088. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the
B. Responding to emergency calls least likely to become completely a function of automobile
C. Inspection services patrol is the checking of-
D. Preparation of investigation reports a. Security of business establishment.
b. Street light outrages.
1078. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
with the members of the community ideal in gaining the D.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement.
trust and confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol 1089. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen
B. Bicycle Patrol in areas where police hazards are serious is that, it
C. Automobile Patrol usually-
D. Foot Patrol a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
1079. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last c. Wasteful of manpower.
hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when
area of responsibility of the patrol officer is: quick mobilization is needed.
A. Clockwise pattern 1090. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-
B. Zigzag pattern a. Opportunity for graft.
C. Counter clockwise pattern b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the
D. Crisscross pattern law.
c. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
1080. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized
EXCEPT: squads.
a. It involves larger number of personnel
b. It develops greater contact with the public 1091. Team Policing is said to be originated in________:
c. It insures familiarization of area a. Aberdeen, Scotland
d. It promotes easier detection of crime b. Lyons, France
c. Vienna. Austria
1081. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as d. London, England
well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you call 1092. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for
the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and patrolling:
keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking a. Egyptians
purposes? b. English
a. German shepherd c. Chinese
b. Bloodhounds d. American
c. Doberman pinscher
d. Black Labrador Retrievers 1093. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to
in order to catch criminals is known as:
1082. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is: a. High visibility patrol
a. Foot b. Blending patrol
b. Automobile c. Low visibility patrol
c. Bicycle d. Decoy patrol
d. Helicopter
1094. A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14 h floor 1104. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and
building. Which of the following should be the first thing to assemble at the police unit
do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the scene? headquarters at least _______ before the start of their
a. Urge no to jump shift for accounting-
b. Call nearest relative a. 10 minutes
c. Clear the area b. hour
d. Report immediately to Station c. 30 minutes
d. 15 minutes
1095. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle
patrol over the other patrol methods? 1105. The police must make an effort to ascertain and
A. Low cost amaze upon the law abiding citizens and would be
B.Visibility criminals alike that the police are always existing to
C. Speed respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will
D. Security just around the corner at all times. This statement refers
1096. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively to:
implemented by police activity which- a. Police Omnipresence
b. Police Patrol
a. Provides for many types of specialized c. Police Discretion
patrol, with less emphasis on routine. d. Integrated Patrol
b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker 1106. The patrol method characterized by speed and
aspiration to commit crime. mobility and considered as lest expensive as it utilizes
c.Influences favorable individual and group lesser number of men and covers a wider area in a short
attitudes in routine daily associations with the police. period of time, while protection to patrol officers:
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s a. Foot patrol
expectation of apprehension. b. Motorcycle Patrol
1097. What is the new concept, police strategy which c. Automobile Patrol
integrates the police and community interests into a d. Helicopter patrol
working relationship so as to produce the desired
organizational objectives of peacemaking? 1107. Team members of the decoy may dress themselves
in a manner designed to help them blend the
a. Preventive patrol neighborhood where they are deployed.
b. Directed Patrol a. Absolutely False
c. Community Relation b. Absolutely True
d. Team policing c. Absolutely Yes
1098. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most d. Absolutely No
ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue
operations? 1108. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of:
a. Motorcycle a. One Man Patrol Car
b. Automobile b. Two Man Patrol Car
c. Helicopter c. Foot Patrol
d. Horse d. Canine Patrol

1099. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to 1109. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of
disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the activities:
Patrol officer is: a. Afternoon Shift
a.Conduct a complete search. b. Morning Shift
b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect. c. Night Shift
c. No further search may be made. d. None of these
d.Turnover the suspect to the immediate
supervisor. 1110. It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards specific
persons or places:
1100. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when a. Target Oriented Patrol
demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing b. High-Visibility Patrol
troops to fall back to their secondary positions? c. Reactive Patrol
a. Tear Gas d. Directed deterrent Patrol
b. Water Cannon 1111. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol
c. Truncheon methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform
d. Shield specific predetermined preventive functions on a planned
1101. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every systematic basis:
intersection until reaching the point of origin is following a. Target Oriented Patrol
what pattern? b. High-Visibility Patrol
a. Clockwise c. Low-Visibility Patrol
b. Zigzag d. Directed deterrent Patrol
c. Counter clockwise
d. Crisscross 1112. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed
and dangerous person or persons, aboard a vehicle or on
1102. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol: foot, including the power to use all necessary and legal
a. Can report regularly to the command center. means to accomplish such end.
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention. a. Dragnet Operation
c. It is inexpensive to operate . b. Hasty Checkpoint
d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by c. High-Risk Arrest
patrol cars. d. High Risk Stop

1103. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and 1113. Which among the following activities during post-
operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms patrol or post-deployment phase is not included?
toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP a. Formation & Accounting
investigational capability. b. Debriefing/Report Submission
a. Detective Beat Patrol c. Inspection & recall of Equipment
b. Integrated Patrol System d. Briefing
c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System
d. Team Policing 1114. Police Patrols were restricted only to answering calls
of service.
a. Reactive
 b. High Visibility 1125. What should be accomplished by Patrol officers
c. Proactive during Post-Deployment Phase?
d. Low Visibility a. Situation Report
b. Citation Report
1115. The first organized patrol for policing purposes was c. Daily Patrol Report
formed in London. This patrol pattern is usually done at d. Hourly Patrol Report
the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in
the area of responsibility of the patrol? 1126. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of
a. Straight police omnipresence:
b. Crisscross a. Target Oriented Patrol
c. Clockwise b. High-Visibility Patrol
d. counter clockwise c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
1116. Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments
of an individual for weapons only. 1127. It is the most prevalent and economical method of
a. Frisking patrol used in patrol force:
b. Search a. Foot Patrol
c. Spot Check b. Air Patrol
d. Pat-down Search c. Automobile Patrol
d. Motorcycle Patrol
1117. It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter 1128. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times
of the beat not at random but with definite target location more sensitive than human’s sense of smell?
where he knows his presence is necessary. a. One thousand times
a. Target Oriented b. One hundred times
b. Zigzag c. Ten thousand times
c. Clockwise d. Ten million times
d. Criss-Cross
1129. Transfer of knowledge from one person to another
1118. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following through common medium and channel.
are the advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT: a. Information
b. Communication
a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action c. Police Communication
taken. d. Radio
b. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable
area 1130. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
c. Inspire more Public confidence. authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
d. The officer can actually get to know the physical commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
layout of his beat better. legitimate purposes.
a. Clear Zone
1119. The word Patrol was derived from the French word b. Public Place
________which means to go through paddles. c. Police Checkpoint
a. Patroulier d. Pre-Determined Area
b. Patroul
c. Politeia 1131. It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, primarily
d. Politia to prevent the commission of crimes and maintain the
peace and order situation in a particular area:
1120. The concept of Unity of command is: a. Police Patrol
a. No one should have more than one boss. b. Preventive Patrol
b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom. c. Foot Patrol
c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can d. Patrol
effectively supervise.
d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities 1132. It is the primary objective of police patrol operations:
to subordinates. A.Crime Prevention
B.Protect and Serve
1121. Which among the following Patrol Method is C.Law enforcement
appropriate when responding to quick emergency call? D. All of the choices
a. Motorcycle Patrol
b. Air Patrol 1133. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a a. patrol
c. Automobile Patrol strategy called:
d. Foot Patrol a. Reactive Patrol
b. Directed Patrol
1122. This patrol strategy is focused more on called for c. Preventive Patrol
services d. Proactive Patrol
a. Reactive patrol
b. Directed deterrent patrol 1134. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident
c. Proactive patrol faster but undetected, then the best patrol method that he
d. Blending patrol should employ is:
a. Bicycle patrol
1123. Before policemen become a dispatcher he must b. Automobile patrol
be_______. c. Motorcycle patrol
a. Voice Radio Operator d. Foot patrol
b. Trained Formally
c. Licensed Dispatcher 1135. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a
d. Coordinator person that enables another to victimize him:
a. Instrumentality
1124. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was b. Opportunity
initiated on: c. Motive
a. August 10, 1917 d. Capability
b. August 7, 1901 1136. The factors to be considered in determining the
c. November 22, 1901 number of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are the
d. March 17, 1901 following, except:
a. Size of the area
b. Possible problems to be encountered
 c. Topography 1148. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly
d. none of the choices prohibited but it can be done at the commander’s
1137. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the discretion since it tends to collect intelligence information.
people together in a cooperative manner in order to a. Partly True
prevent crime: b. Partly False
a. Integrated Patrol c. Wholly True
b. Team policing d. Wholly False
c. Reactive patrol 1149. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful
d. Proactive patrol accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
acceptance?
a. Maybe Yes
1138. The theory in patrol which states that police officers b. Yes
should conduct overt police operations in order to c. No
discourage people from committing crime refers to: d. Maybe No
a. Theory of police omnipresence 1150. In selection and recruitment of informers the best
b. Low police visibility theory factor to be considered is:
c. Low profile theory A.Age
d. Maximum deterrence theory B.Access
C.Educational Attainment D.Body
1139. The principle of patrol force organization which states built
that patrol officers should be under the command of only 1151. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act”
one man refers to: which prohibits wiretapping in our country.
a. Span of control a. RA 1700
b. Unity of command b. RA 4200
c. Chain of command c. RA 7877
d. Command responsibility d. RA 7160
1152. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible
1140. The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit authority that the person described is cleared to access
crime as a result of patrol. and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim
a. Crime prevention clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the
b. Crime intervention date of issuance.
c. Crime suppression a. 1 year
d. Crime deterrence b. 5 years
c. 2 years
1141. The Greek word which means “government of a city” d. 4 years
or “civil organization and the state”, which is claimed as
the origin of the word police refers to: 1153. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of Agent
a. Politia Mariano with an evaluation rating of D2?
b. Policia
c. Politeia a. Completely reliable source doubtfully true
d. Polis information
1142. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary b. Unreliable source – probably true information
objective of patrol activity is: c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
a. To prevent commission of crime. d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true
b. Integrate the police and the community information
c. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
d. Visibility and Omniprescence. 1154. It is a process or method of obtaining information from
1143. What law provides for the creation of the National a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
Intelligence Coordinating Agency? a. Interview
a. RA 157 b. Interrogation
b. B. EO 213 c. Forceful Interrogation
c. RA 6040 d. Tactical Interrogation
d. EO 246
1144. A person who breaks intercepted codes. 1155. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record
a. Crypto Analyst discreetly conversations of other people.
b. Cryptographer a. Eavesdropping
c. Cryptograph b. Bugging
d. Code breaker c. None of these
d. Wiretapping
1145. Agent who is a member of paramilitary group
organized to harass the enemy in a hot war situation. 1156. The process of extracting information from a person
a. Guerilla believes to be in possession of vital information without his
b. Propagandist knowledge or suspicion.
c. Provocateur a. Elicitation
d. Strong Arm b. Surveillance
1146. It is a type of Cover which alters the background that c. Roping
will correspond to the operation. d. Undercover Operations
a. Multiple
b. Natural 1157. It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who
c. Artificial leaks false information to the enemy.
d. Unusual a. Double Agent
1147. Which of the following statements is TRUE? b. Expendable Agent
c. Agent of Influence
A.Intelligence Officer can submit his information d. Penetration Agent
report any time since it is to processes.
b. All intelligence information’s are collected by 1158. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
clandestine method. Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
medium size police station. prosecution of criminal offenders.
d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence a. Internal Security Intelligence
information by initiating good public relations. b. Public Safety Intelligence
c. Criminal Intelligence
d. Preventive Intelligence
 c.Change of seating arrangement within the
1159. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the surveillance vehicle
collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and d.Keep the cars behind the subject car.
interpretation of all available information. What is
considered as the core of intelligence operations? 1170. A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the
a.Dissemination anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either wanted for
b. Analysis investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a
c. Mission certain location.
d. Planning a. Stake out
b. Rough Shadowing
1160. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military c. Shadowing
Espionage". d. Surveillance
a. Alexander the Great
b. Frederick the Great 1171. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes
c. Karl Schulmeister ________ forces.
d. Arthur Wellesley a. Unwanted
b. Friendly
1161. There are four categories of classified matters; top c. Neutral
secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To distinguish, d. Unfriendly
their folder consists of different colors. What will be the
color of the document which requires the highest degree 1172. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United
of protection? Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 because of its
a. Red old post office box number.
b. Black a. Security Service
c. Blue b. Secret Intelligence Service
d. Green c. Government Communication Headquarters
1162. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical d. Defense Intelligence Staff
indication of the beginning of Intelligence? 1173. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as
a. Number 13:17 minister of police he studied the use of propaganda and
b. Number 3:17 censorship as well as utilizing statistical intelligence
c. Number 17:13 accounting.
d. Number 17:3 a. Herbert Yadley
1163. A certain locality is identified to be a major source of b. Wilhem Steiber
illicit drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer was c. Admiral Yamamoto
deployed to live in the area for a considerable amount of d. Joseph Fouche
time to find out the authenticity of such reports.
a. Social assignments 1174. If the information or documents are procured openly
b. Work assignments without regard as to whether the subject of the
c. Organizational assignments investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or
d. Residential assignments purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Overt Operation
1164. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with b. Surveillance
defending the organization against its criminal enemies? c. Covert Operation
a. Line Intelligence d. Analysis
b. Counter-Intelligence
c. Strategic Intelligence
d. Tactical Intelligence 1175. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in
the area and residence of the individual being
1165. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which investigated.
is “usually from a reliable source and improbable a. CBI
information”? b. NAC
a. C-5 c. PBI
b. B-5 d. LAC
c. B-3
d. C-3 1176. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature
1166. It is a form of investigation in which the operative and necessary for more effective police planning.
assumes a cover in order to obtain information a. Line Intelligence
a. Overt operation b. Strategic Intelligence
b. Undercover assignment c. Police Intelligence
c. Covert operation d. Departmental Intelligence
d. clandestine operation
1177. It is considered as the most secured method of
1167. It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting disseminating the information to the user of classified
message from clear to unintelligible forms by use of codes matters is by means of:
and cipher. a. Debriefing
a. Cryptographer b. Conference
b. Crypto Analyst c. Cryptographic method
c. Cryptography d. Seminar
d. Cryptechnician

1168. What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered 1178. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to
by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and form a logical picture or theory.
doubtfully true information? a. Integration
a. D-4 b. Evaluation
b. C-4 c. Deduction
c. C-5 d. Interpretation
d. D-5
1179. In intelligence functions, a black list means:
1169. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the a. Neutral
appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT: b. Unwanted
a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle c. Friendly
b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and d. Unfriendly
sunglasses
1180. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from
conspicuous sources and 1% of information is obtained a.National Clandestine Service
from clandestine sources. Clandestine means. b.Directorate of Support
a. Observable c. Directorate of Intelligence
b. Overt d. Directorate of Science and Technology
c. Visible
d. Covert 1192. The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a
certain establishment or building.
1181. An E-3 intelligence report means: a. Access list
b. Black List
a. The information comes from completely reliable c. Blue Print
sources and Improbable true. d. Silver list
b. The information comes from Unreliable sources
and probably true. 1193. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of
c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent or
and doubtfully true. dissatisfied employees.
d. The information comes from Unreliable sources a. Subversion
and possibly true. b. Sabotage
1182. Refers to the observations of person’s movements is c. Espionage
generally refers to as? d. None of these
a. Plant
b. Stakeout 1194. The combination of the elements isolated analysis
c. None with other known information related to the operation.
d. Tailing or Shadowing a. Recording
1183. The classification “Top secret”, have the security color b. Analysis
folderof? c. Integration
a. Red d. Interpretation
b. Black
c. Blue 1195. It deals with the demographic and psychological
d. Green aspects of groups of people.
a. Sociological Intelligence
1184. The process of assigning higher category of b. Economic Intelligence
document or information according to the degree of c. Biographical Intelligence
security needed. d. Political Intelligence
a. Degrading
b. Classification 1196. Which among the following principles of intelligence
c. Upgrading deemed to be the most important?
d. Advancement
a.intelligence requires continuous security measures
1185. It is a process or method of obtaining information from b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information. c. Intelligence must be available on time
a. Interview d. Intelligence must be flexible
b. Forceful Interrogation
c. Interrogation 1197. It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its
d. Tactical Interrogation suitability for a particular operational purpose.
a. Casing
1186. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to b. Loose Tail
determine if the information is true and- c. Rough Shadowing
a. Reliable d. Stakeout
b. Accurate
c. Correct 1198. It refers to the determination of the pertinence of the
d. Probably true information to the operation, reliability of the source of or
agency and the accuracy of the information.
1187. This kind of intelligence is long range in nature: a. Evaluation
a. Line Intelligence b. Recording
b. Operational Intelligence c. Credibility
c. Strategic Intelligence d. Appraisal
d. Counter Intelligence

1188. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where

police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting 1199. It refers to the most dangerous type of informant.
purposes. a. Women
a. Safe house b. Double Crosser
b. Log c. False
c. Live Drop d. Anonymous
d. Decoy
1200. It is the transforming of coded message into plain text.
1189. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which a. Coding
includes some or all of the circumstances. b. Encrypting
a. National Agency Check c. Decoding
b. Background Investigation d. Reclassify
c. Complete Background Investigation
d. Personnel Security Investigation 1201. After the planning on how intelligence is to be
collected, the intelligence officer must have thorough
1190. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all time: knowledge of the __________.
a. Frederick the Great
b. Alexander the Great a. The strength of the area where the information will
c. Arthur Wellesley be gathered
d. Joseph Hernandez b. Where they will be collecting the information
c. Available sources of information
1191. What specialist group of CIA that was established to d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
research, create and manage technical collection
discipline and equipment.
1202. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of 1212. The intelligence required by department or agencies
Rome to gather first hand information, he is considered as of the government to execute its mission and discharge its
the greatest military strategist. responsibilities.
a. Alexander the Great a. Counter
b. Hannibal b. Departmental
c. Frederick the Great c. Line
d. Genghis Khan d. National

1203. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful 1213. Is the reduction of information into writing or some
accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused other form of graphical representation and the arranging of
acceptance? this information into groups related items.
a. Yes a. Recording
b. True b. Integration
c. No c. Analysis
d. False d. Demonstration

1204. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police 1214. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and
Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the Possibly true?
prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and a. -2
prosecution of criminal offenders. b. E-2
a. Internal Security Intelligence c. E-3
b. Criminal Intelligence d. C-3
c. Public Safety Intelligence
d. Preventive Intelligence 1215. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in
destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign activities
1205. If the information or documents are procured openly and the protection of information against espionage,
without regard as to whether the subject of the subversion and sabotage.
investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or a. Passive Intelligence
purposes for which it is being regarded. b. Counter Intelligence
a. Overt Operation c. Line Intelligence
b. Clandestine d. Demographic Intelligence
c. Surveillance
d. Covert Operation 1216. Refers to the knowledge essential to the maintenance
of peace and order.
1206. Which of the following is the most common reason a. CRIMINT
why an informer gives information to the police? b. SIGINT
a. Monetary Reward c. PUSINT
Popularity d. INSINT
Revenge
As a good citizen
1217. Who directs the organization conducting the
1207. A method of collecting information thru interception of clandestine activity?
telephone conversation. a. Manager
a. Bugging b. Superior
b. Wire Tapping c. Sponsor
c. Code name d. Agent
d. NONE
1218. Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and actions
1208. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the of an individual group or nation.
enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the criminal a. Propagandist
groups susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by the b. Support Agent
police organization. c. Principal Agent
a.Conclusion d. Action Agent
b.Capabilities
c. Vulnerabilities 1219. Refers to a place where agents or informants leave
d.Evaluation their messages to the other Agents.
a. Live Drop
1209. It is the general statement describing the current b. Safe House
police internal defense, internal development, c. Decoy
psychological operation and responsibilities of the d. Bait
organization
a. Area of operation 1220. All except one are interrelated to one another.
b. Capabilities of organized crime a. Fixed Surveillance
c. the crime situation b. Stakeout Surveillance
d. the mission c. Stationary Surveillance
d. Active Surveillance
1210. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information
concerning organized crime and other major police 1221. The agent will gain access to the subject by going to
problems. the different hang out places of the subject.
A.Military Intelligence a. Social Assignment
b.Military Information b. Residential Assignment
c.Police Intelligence c. Work Assignment
d.Police Investigation d. None of these

1211. The term appropriate for someone who gives 1222. A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other
information in exchange for a reward is: material gain he is to receive.
a. Informer a. Gratitude
b. Informant b. Repentance
c. Special informer c. Remuneration
d. Confidential Informant d. Vanity
1223. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a-
a. Director
b. General
 c. President 1235. Documents which are classified as Secret should be
d. Director-General placed on-
a. Blue Folder
1224. Integrated product of intelligence developed by all b. Black folder
government departments concerning the broad aspect of c. Green Folder
national policy and national Security. d. Red Folder
a National Intelligence
b.Departmental Intelligence 1236. It is a certification by a responsible authority that the
c. International Intelligence person described is cleared to access and classify matters
d. Social Intelligence at appropriate levels.
a. Security Clearance
1225. .The process of categorizing a document or b. Document Clearance
information according to the degree of security needed. c. Interim Clearance
a. Classification d. Nome of these
b. Upgrading
c. Reclassification 1237. Extreme precautions are taken against losing the
d. None of these subject is employed where constant surveillance is
necessary.
1226. Final clearance will remain valid for a period of____ a. Close tail
from the date of issuance. b. Loose tail
a. 2 years c. Rough Shadowing
b. 5 years d. Surveillance
c. 4 years
d. 1 year 1238. M evaluates the information as usually reliable and
probably true.
1227. It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance. a. C-4
a.Surveillant b. B-3
b Subject c. B-2
c. Interrogator d. C-5
d. Interviewee

1228. The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan 1239. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of
employed more than 4,000 agents for the sole purpose of _____________.
bringing him the truth that his throne might rest upon it. a. Russia
a. Joseph Petrosino b. Germany
b. Edgar Hoover c. Israel
c. Napoleon Bonaparte d. Pakistan
d. Akbar 1240. Law enforcement in China was carried out by
_______ which developed in both chu and jin kingdom of
1229. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to the Spring and Autumn period.
determine if the information is true and- a. Watch man
a Reliable b. Prefect
b. Correct c. Gendemarie
c. Probably true d. Constabulary
d. Accurate
1230. It refers to those measures, which seek actively to 1241. She is the first Filipino commissionedofficer in a UN
block the enemies’ effort to gain information or engage in integral mission.
espionage, subversion, and sabotage. a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
a. Counter Intelligence b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
b. Passive Counter Intelligence c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
c. Active Counter Intelligence d. None of these
d. Intelligence
1242. New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited
1231. Chronological records of activities that took place in jurisdiction on _______:
the establishment under surveillance. a. USA
a. Memory b. New York
b. records c. None of these
c. Log d. Los Angeles
d. Report
1243. The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce Act:
1232. It is defined as an art and science of codes and a. RA 5678
ciphers. b. RA 9165
a. Cryptography c. RA 1298
b. Cryptanalysis d. RA 8792
c. Decipher
d. Coding 1244. In the etymology of the word police the ancient word
“Polisoos” referred to a person who_____?
1233. The protection resulting from the application of a. Enforcing Law
various measures which prevent or delay the enemy or b. Civil Policy
unauthorized person in gaining information through c. Guarding a City
communication. d. Citizenship
a. Communication Security
b. Physical Security 1245. During the middle ages, there were two guard officer
c. Document Security of the kingdom of France with police responsibilities those
d. Internal Security are the Marshal of France and ________:
a. Constable of France
1234. Those documents place on a Blue Folder are b. Queens Royal Guard
considered as: c. Scotland Yard
a. Top Secret d. Constabulary
b. Secret 1246. Peace officers are treated as state servants and
c. Restricted people have minimal share in their duties or any direct
d. Confidential connection with them. This reflected the:
a. Continental Theory
 b. Home rule Theory c. Japan Police Department
c. Old Concept d. National Police Agency
d. Modern concept
1247. The typical number of Detectives are roughly 1258. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police
________ of a police service personnel: Force:
a. 75% a. Commissioner General
b. 5 to 10% b. Director General
c. 15 to 25% c. Commissioner
d. 7 to 10% d. Director

1248. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes 1259. The code of secrecy of Mafia:
or those with an interstate components. The statement is: a. Omerta
a. Correct b. Morse
b. Partially Correct c. Nostra Compra
c. False d. Cosa Nostra
d. partly False
1260. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is
1249. This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in the:
some sense transgress national borders: a. Executive Assembly
a. International Policing b. Major Assembly
b. Global Policing c. National Assembly
c. National Policing d. General Assembly
d. Transnational Policing
1261. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run
by the:
1250. In US, he introduced police reforms to include a. Director General
educational requirement for police officer: b. Supervisor
a. James Q. Wilson c. Inspector General
b. Sir Henry Peel d. Secretary General
c. August Volmer
d. O.W. Wilson 1262. In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption and
introduced professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and
1251. The motto of Hongkong Police force: Chicago Police Department:
a. Law and Order a. August Volmer
b. Safer Communities together b. Margaret Adams
c. Serve and Protect c. William Stewart
d. We serve with pride and Care d. O.W. Wilson
1263. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:
1252. Where do you can find the so called Police a. Policeman
Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization for police b. Chief Superintendent
officer whose are changed of committing any form of c. Superintendent
misconduct: d. Senior Superintendent
a. Northern Ireland
b. England 1264. It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in
c. China Japan:
d. Japan a. Keishi
b. Koban
1253. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured c. Omerta
of police force is identical up to the rank of? d. Keiban
a. Chief Constable
b. Chief Inspector 1265. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the
c. Chief Superintendent highest position in Japan Police Organization:
d. Inspector
a. Commissioner Secretariat
1254. In USA, what state are among the first to hire women b. Commissioner
and minorities as police officer. c. Chairman
a. Massachusetts d. Commissioner General
b. California 1266. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a
c. New York Commissioner General who is appointed by:
d. Washington a. Japans Emperor
b. Prime Minister
1255. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank c. National Public Safety Commission
to inspector or sub-lieutenant? d. Japan Commission
a. Police Rank 4
b. Police Supervisor Rank 4 1267. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
c. Police Officer Rank 1 a. Junsa
d. Police Supervisor Rank 1 b. Constable
c. Sergeant
1256. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest d. Police Officer
possible rank of its police personnel?
a. Police Rank 1 1268. Irish Police are called:
b. Police Officer Rank 1 a. Militsiya
c. Investigator 1 b. Constable
d. Constable c. Police Force
d. Garda Socha
1257. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau
Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest” 1269. In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral
police force and in having, set up the foundation for the Mission in Timor-Leste, he is the first Filipino police
social stability of Hong Kong and has won a good commissioner of a United Nation Operation.
reputation as one of the safety cities in the world. a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra
a. Philippine National Polic c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
b. Hong Kong Police Force d. None of these
 a. KEISHI SOKAN
1270. It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies b. KEISHI SO
on the absence of crime. c. KEISHI KAN
a. Home rule d. KEIBU-HO
b. Continental
c. Old police service 1282. The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to be
d. Modern police service the “Father of Texas”.
a. Stephen Austin
1271. The first secretary general of the Interpol. b. Vernon Knell
a. Oskar Dressler c. Dave Batista
b. Ronald K. Noble d. Johann Schober
c. Johann Schober
d. Aberdeen Scotland 1283. An order strengthening the operational, administrative
and information support system of the PCTC. Under this
1272. The first president of the Interpol. EO, the centre shall
a. Oskar Dressler exercise general supervision and control over
b. Ronald K. Noble NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
c. Johann Schober a. EO 100
d. Aberdeen Scotland b. EO 465
c. EO 465
1273. Group of highly specialized a armed man who inflicts d. EO 789
fear and uses violence to accomplish
their objectives with a usual international scope of 1284. Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29
activity. years old then. What year will Amado will retire?
a. Organized Crime a. 2016
b. Transnational Crime b. 2023
c. Transnational Organized crime c. 2012
d. Terrorist d. 2031

1274. Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama 1285. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP
Bin Laden in 1980? commissioned and non-commissioned officer may retire
a. Al Qaeda and be paid separation benefits corresponding to a
b. Jihad position two ranks higher than his/her rank:
c. Mafia a. Retirement in the next higher grad
d. Nuestra Costra b. Compulsory retirement
c. Early retirement program
1275. Is the term which refers to the holy war waged by d. Optional Retirement
members of the Islamic religion against the Jews?
a. Al Qaeda 1286. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence
b. Jihad from the PNP. It has an investigative and adjudicatory
c. Mafia power over PNP members.
d. Nuestra Costra a. Internal Affairs Service
b. National Police Commission
1276. It is the category of terrorist organization which is c. People’s Law Enforcement Board
aimed in achieving political autonomy or religious freedom. d. National Appellate Board
a. Revolutionary
b. Separalist 1287. In police operational planning the use of the wedge,
c. Ethnocentric squad diagonal or deployed line would be probable used
d. Political for:
a. Arm confrontation
1277. It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes b. Relief Operation
committed via the internet: c. Civil Disturbance
a. Dynamic IP Address d. VIP Security
b. Internet Protocol Address
c. Static IP Address 1288. What is the appropriate training course for POIII to
d. Email Address SPOI?
a. Officers Senior Executive Course
1278. It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system b. Officer Basic Course
or network of an individual, group or business enterprise c. Senior Leadership Course
without the consent of the party’s system: d. Junior Leadership Course
a. Computer Fraud
b. Hacking 1289. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation
c. Cracking of local chief executives as representative of the
d. Theft NAPOLCOM:
Repeated unauthorized absences;
1279. It refers to a Code written with the intention of
replicating itself. .II. Abuse of authority;
a. Trojan Horse III. Habitual tardiness;
b. Worm IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
c. Virus V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
d. None of these

1280. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to A. I, II, III, V

establish a shared database among concerned agencies B. II, V, IV, I
for information on criminals, C.I, II, IV, III
methodologies, arrests and convictions on D. I, II, III, IV, V
transnational crime 1290. Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at
known locations.
a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC) a. Functional Plan
b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH) b. Time Specific Plans
c. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO) c. Tactical Plans
d. Philippine National Police (PNP) d. Operational Plans
1281. What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan?
1291. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump d. 100 meter
sum of his retirement benefits for the period of the first
_____. 1302. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported by a
a. 10 years patrol jeep, the subject must be-
b. 5 years
c. 6 years a. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall
d. 2 years sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject
b. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort
1292. Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age, shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject
Height, Weight and Education, only when the number of c. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall
qualified applicants falls below the minimum annual quota. sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject
Appointment status under a waiver program is ________. d. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort
a. Temporary shall sit at the rear on the Right side facing the
b. Probationary subject
c. Permanent
d. Regular 1303. Female detainees shall not be transported in
handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and proper
1293. __________ is given to any PNP member who has escort, preferably aided by a police woman. The statement
exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his is-
life above and beyond the call of duty. a. Partially True
a. Meritorious Promotion b. Wholly True
b. Special Promotion c. Partially False
c. Regular Promotion d. Wholly False
d. On-the-Spot Promotion
1304. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public
1294. Which among the following has no promotional assemblies, employment of tear gas and water cannons
authority over the members of the PNP? shall be made under the control and supervision of the-
a. Deputy Director General a. Ground Commander
b. Director General b. Incident Commander
c. President of the Philippines c. Immediate Commander d.
d. Regional Director Superior Officer
1295. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately
from the service after due notice and summary hearings if 1305. What should be the action of patrol officers, when
it was proven that he went on AWOL for a continuous responding to Calls for Police Assistance, except?
period of: a. Stop the car at some distance away from the
a. 30 days or more scene.
b. 15 days or more b. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
c. 20 days or more c. Determine the crime committed.
d. 60 days or more d. None of these
1296. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons
following a high-risk stop. 1306. Where should the patrol officer turnover the
b. Dragnet Operation information and pieces of evidence gathered at the crime
scene?
b. Hasty Checkpoint a. SOCO team
c. High-Risk Arrest b. Immediate Supervisor
d. High Risk Stop c. Responding unit
d. Medico Legal Officer
1297. PO3Maine Mendoza, receives 19, 870.00 base pay
since he was promoted. After five years from promotion, 1307. Request for police assistance in the implementation of
what would be his monthly base pay after adding his final decisions or orders of the court in civil cases and of
longevity pay? administrative bodies on controversies within their
a. 21, 857.00 jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the appropriate police
b. 19, 970.00 office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to the actual
c. 24, 870.00 implementation.
d. 31, 549.00 a. 3 days
1298. It refers to those situations or conditions that may b. 10 days
induce incidents for some kind of police action: c. 5 days
a. Police Accident d. 15 days
b. Police Brutality
c. Police Hazard 1308. It may be utilized to break up formations or groupings
d. Police Operation of demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and
refused to disperse despite earlier efforts.
1299. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means- c. Tear Gas
a. The Sword Bearer d. Water Cannon
b. The Base e. Truncheon
c. Islamic Congregation f. Shield
d. Ayman Al Zawahiri 1309. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on
foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable
1300. What kind of force is needed during armed suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of determining
confrontation? the individual’s identity and resolving the officer’s
a. Reasonable force suspicion concerning criminal activity.
b. Logical Force g. Frisking
c. Rational Force h. Search
d. Evenhanded Force i. Spot Check
1301. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the j. Pat-down Search
picket line (or confrontation line) but should be stationed in 1310. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
such manner that their presence may deter the authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
commission of criminal acts or any untoward incident from commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
either side. The members of the peace-keeping detail shall legitimate purposes.
stay outside a _______ radius from the picket line. k. Clear Zone
a. 50 feet l. Public Place
b. 50 meter m. Police Checkpoint
c. 100 feet n. Pre-Determined Area
1311. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which c. Barrier
was accepted by the courts, prosecutors’ office and the d .Energy Barrier
public in general. What police office is using this kind of
blotter? 1322. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to
o. Makati secure areas located out of doors, and manned by guards
p. Cebu on a full time basis.
q. Baguio a. Guard Control Stations
r. Davao b. Tower
1312. It refers to the venue or place established or c. Tower Guard
designated by local government units within their d. Top Guard
respective jurisdictions where a public assembly could be 1323. This lamps have the advantage of providing instant
held without securing any permit for such purpose from illumination when the switch is open and most commonly
the local government unit concerned. used protective lighting system.
s. Secured Area a. Incandescent Lamp
t. Wide Space b.Gaseous Discharge Lamp
u. Freedom Park c. Mercury Vapor Lamp
v. Clear Zone d. Quarts Lamp
1313. The police function in which patrol belong is:
w. Line function 1324. The following are the areas to be lighted:
x. Administrative function A.Parking Areas;
y. Staff function b.Thoroughfare;
z. Auxiliary function c. Pedestrian Gates;
1314. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of d. Vehicular Gates; and
Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing near E.Susceptible Areas.
Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by existence a. a, c, e
of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for successful robbery is b. a, b, c, d
prevented. c. a, c, d, e
aa. Ambition d. a, b, c, d, e
bb. Intention
cc. Motive 1325. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction
dd. Opportunity of this record does not have the same value as the
1315. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his original.
retirement is Superintendent shall retire with the rank of a. Vital Documents
__________: b. Important Documents
ee. Superintendent c. Useful Documents
ff. C/Superintendent d. Non- Essential Documents
gg. Sr. Superintendent
hh. C/Inspector 1326. It is the importance of firm with reference to the
1316. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-up natural economy and security.
without material interval for the purpose of taking into a.. Relative Operation
custody any person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or one b Relative Security
suspected to have committed a recent offense while c. Relative Vulnerability
fleeing from one police jurisdictional boundary to another d. Relative Criticality of Operation
that will normally require prior official inter-unit
coordination but which the pursuing unit cannot, at that 1327. A new Private security agency that has been issued a
moment, comply due to the urgency of the situation. temporary license to operate is good for how many years?
ii. Hot Pursuit a. One
jj. Hasty Checkpoint b. Two
c.Three
kk. Dragnet Operation d.Four
ll. High Risk Stop
1317. Which among the following terms is not related to 1328. The removal of the security classification from the
each other? classified matter.
mm. Hot Pursuit a.Segregation
nn. Fresh Pursuit b. Declassify
oo. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit c. Reclassify
pp. Bright Pursuit d. Exclusion
1318. Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the
police, military and other peace keeping authorities shall 1329. The form of security that employs cryptography to
observe during a public assembly or in the dispersal of the protect information refers to:
same. A. Document and information security
qq. Reasonable Force b. Operational security
rr. Greatest Lenience c. Communication security
ss. Maximum Tolerance d. Industrial security
tt. Utmost Patience
1319. Which among the following aspects of a. Security is 1330. The type of fence that is primarily designed to allow
the weakest of them all? complete visual access between two areas is:
a. Physical security a. Solid fence
b. Personnel security b. Semi-solid fence
c. Document and information security c. Full-view fence
d. Personal Security d. Masonry Fence

1320. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is- 1331. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager
a. Partially Correct or Operator of a security agency is:
b. Partially Wrong a. 40 yrs. Old
c. Absolutely Correct b. 25 yrs. Old
d. Absolutely Wrong c. 30 yrs. Old
d. 35 yrs. Old
1321. It refers to any structure or physical device capable of
restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an 1332. The following are the categories of automatic alarm
installation. system, except:
a. Hazard a. Photoelectric
b. Perimeter Barrier b. Electric Eye Device
 c. Audio detection D. Neither
d. Bill Traps 1346. Writing was written by one person when there is a
1333. Which of the following is not a false key? sufficient number of identical writing habits and the
a. A picklock or similar tool . absence of divergent characteristics. This is in
b. A duplicate key of the owner. consonance with;
c. A genuine key stolen from the owner. A. Identification
d.Any key other than those intended by the owner. B. Non-identification
1334. The Normal weight of a safe is at least: C. Either
a. 500 lbs. D. Niether
b. 750 lbs. 1347. Embellishment is an example of
c. 1000 lbs. A. Individual Characteristics
d. 600 lbs. B. Class Characteristics
C. Both
1335. The minimum number of guards required for a D. Neither
company security force is: 1348. Hiatus is a gap between strokes due to
a. 1000 A. Speed in writing
b. 30 B. Defective writing instrument
c. 100 C. Unevenness of writing materials
d. 200 D. All of the choices
1349. Among the following, which is not an element of
1336. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby movement?
keys can open a group of locks. A. Line Quality
a. Key Control B. Rhythm
b. Master Keying C. Speed Freedom
c. Change Key D. emphasis
d. Great Grand Master Key 1350. Writing, done rapidly, will exhibit no pen lift, except
those at the
1337. What is called as devices and contrivance installed A. Middle of the words/strokes
inside and outside a facility to compliment and provide B. End of the stroke
additional security measures and operates to advertise C. Beginning of strokes
entry into sensitive and protected area? D. B and C
a. Protective locks
b. Protective cabinet 1351. The orientation of the writing instrument is referred to
c. Protective barrier as
d. Protective Lighting A. Pen position
B. Pen hold
1338. A fixed point or location to which an officer is C. Pen emphasis
assigned for duty: D. Pen orientation
a. Post 1352. The relation between the tall and short letters is
b. Beat referred to as
c. Area A. Ratio
d. Route B. Proportion
C. Line quality
1339. The thickness of paper is expressed in thousands of D. All
inch. 1353. In questioned document examination, it is referred to
A. Measurement as the flourishing succession of motion which are recorded
B. Caliper in a written record.
C. Buffer A. Line quality
D. Calibre B. Rhythm
1340. Chemical used to whiten paper pulp. C. Speed in writing
A. Bleach D. Movement
B. Alum 1354. Slant is the angle or inclination of the axis of the
C. Sufite letters relative to the
D. Pulp A. Baseline
1341. A form of printing to produce a raised impression or B. Slope
pattern on the surface of a sheet of paper. C. Alignment
A. Lithograph printing D. Staff
B. Embossing 1355. Uncommon and well fixed characteristic that serve as
C. Edge chains a fundamental point of identification.
D. Reprographing A. Slant
1342. The original inventor of Fourdrinier paper machine. B. Habit
A. Fourdrinier Brothers C. Movement
B. Bryan Donkin D. All
C. Nicholas-Louis Robert 1356. Baseline is the ruled or imaginary line upon which the
D. Milton Reynolds writing ______
1343. Quality of a paper related to the amount of light that A. Holds
can be transmitted through its surface. B. Rests
A. Thickness C. Stays
B. Opacity D. Slants
C. Translucent 1357. Among the following, which is a common defect of
D. Texture forgery?
1344. Fundamentally, the grand mission and objective of
document examiner is to determine and conclude with A. Patching
scientific basis and technique who is the B. Retracing
A. Beneficiaries C. A and B
B. Writer or signatory D. None
C. Master mind 1358. Letters that extend a distance vertically above the
D. Conspirator linear letters.
1345. In questioned document, it is where all characteristics A. Infra-linear
are grouped. B. Supra-linear
A. Class characteristics C. Linear
B. Individual characteristics D. None
C. Both A and B
1359. The only question to tackle in this kind of signature 1373. What is gustatory sensation?
forgery is the determination of the probable writer of the A. Smell
forgery. B. Taste
A. Simple forgery C. Skin
B. Simulated forgery D. Hearing
C. Traced forgery 43. The Bible (Genesis 1:3-5) God created the earth and
D. A and B there should be light and darkness which is daylight and
1360. A kind of signature forgery where the resemblance of night. Among these, what is the basic component of
the questioned signature and genuine is apparent. photography?
A. Fraudulent A. All of these
B. Simulated B. Film
C. Simple C. Camera
D. Traced D. Light
1361. To identify whether simple forgery was committed, 1374. Positive result of photography is called –
which of the following should be retrieved? A. Picture
A. Standard signature from the forger B. Photograph
B. Standard of the genuine signature C. Positive
C. Standard of the person who made the D. Negative
forgery 1375. Other term for lie detector is –
D. Identity of the forger A. GSR
1362. One of the following statements best describe what a B. Pneumograph
collected standard is. C. Cardiograph
A. It has the advantage of easily finding it. D. Polygraph
B. Attempt to disguise is removed. 1376. In key classification, is it placed on the leftmost corner
C. The accused is aware that the specimen will on the numerator?
be used against him. A. Yes
D. None B. Maybe
1363. Authenticity of private documents is not necessary C. No
when D. Sometimes
A. It is 30 years old 1377. Flash bulb and electronic flash are two examples of
B. More than 30 years old light of short duration. Which among of these is popular
C. Less than 30 years old today?
D. More or less 30 years old A. Flash bulb
1364. During paper manufacture, the following are included B. Electronic bulb
except C. Lamp
A. Security fiber D. Flash light
B. Watermarks 1378. Can a strong acid destroy the fingerprint
C. Iridescent band permanently?
D. Serial number A. Yes
1365. Which of the following is not a crime called forgery? B. No
A. Forging the seal of the government C. Maybe
B. Counterfeiting of coins D. This time
C. Mutilation of coins 1379. In forensic ballistic, the firearm examiner examines
D. Using forged signature or counterfeit seal or the firearm usually involved in a crime or the case_____?
stamp A. In court
1366. The imitation of a legal or genuine coin. B. In progress
A. Counterfeit C. Controversy
B. Mutilation D. Handled
C. Utter 1380. In polygraph, it is the process of detecting false
D. Import statement or signs of -
1367. When a spurious coin is made, there is A. Detection
A. Counterfeiting B. Deception
B. Uttering C. Lie
C. Mutilation D. Untrue statement
D. Importing 1381. In typewriting examination which of the following first
1368. Mutilation of coins without the intent to defraud is to be conducted?
A. Not punishable under the revised penal code A. Examination of the questioned specimen
B. Not punishable by any law B. Collecting of typewriting standards
C. Punishable under the revised penal code C. Locate the type writer used
D. Punishable under Art. 164 of the RPC. D. Examination of the exemplar
1369. To make false instrument intended to be passed for 1382. Aside from fingerprint, what is the other identification
the genuine one is a form of in securing NBI clearance?
A. Falsification A. Thumb mark
B. Forgery B. Pending case
C. Tracing C. Picture
D. Fraud D. Signature
1370. Which of the following method should be used in 1383. Which of the following is a must to be considered in a
order for the naked eye to see a charred document? sketch?
A. X-ray A. Compass direction
B. Spectrograph B. Name of placed
C. Ultra violet C. Time
D. Infra red D. Location
1371. Which of the following security features of a paper bill 1384. In addition to medicine, as prober, how can you
does not react to ultra-violet light? preserve perishable evidence like injuries, contusions,
A. Serial Number hematoma and the like?
B. Watermark A. Recording
C. Fluorescent printing B. Sketching
D. Invisible security fibers C. Photography
1372. Paper is for china while papyrus is for D. Note taking
A. Sumer 1385. In questioned document examination, it refers to a
B. Turkey stroke which goes back to writing stroke.
C. Sumeria A. Patching
D. Egypt B. Retouching
 C. Retracing D. 3-6 hours
D. Restroking 1400. The one who creates his own systolic in polygraph
1386. In photography probe, when murder occurred examination?
showing disarray of cabinets, photography is essential to A. James MacKenzie
show defense of the - B. Angelo Mosso
A. Suspect C. William Marston
B. Witness D. John Larson
C. Victim 1401. What is the color of blood in post mortem lividity?
D. Kibitzers
1387. In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the A. Blue
energy coming from the muzzle point is called - B. Violet
A. Armor-piercing C. Pink
B. Velocity D. Bright red
C. Lead bullet 1402. In crime laboratory concerning the study of types,
D. Muzzle energy model of firearm and its bullets is done by -
1388. What are the two types of firearms according to the A. Ballistician
construction of the interior of the barrel? B. Ballistic engineer
A. Short and long barreled firearms C. Forensic engineer
B. Small arms and artilleries D. Firearm prober
C. Lands and grooves 1403. What is the type of document which is notarized by a
D. Smoothbore and rifled bore RTC judge?
1389. What is the symbol of tented arch? A. Public
A. Dash B. Official
B. T C. Private
C. Te D. None of these
D. A and/or B 1404. Going back to a defective portion of a writing stroke
1390. It is the centermost part of the fingerprint pattern. is called -
A. Inner terminus A. Slicing
B. Delta B. Embracing
C. Inner shoulder C. Retouching
D. Core D. Patching
1391. Fingerprint patterns like loop and whorl are found in 1405. What is the part of firearm that extract cartridge from
the - the chamber?
A. Pattern area A. Breech
B. Delta B. Firing pin
C. Core C. Extractor
D. Type lines D. Ejector
1392. What is the test in examination of blood if belong to 1406. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm is measured by
human or animal? -
A. Takayama A. Gauge
B. Benzidine B. Caliber
C. Kestle Meyer C. Caliper
D. Precipitin D. Hundredth of an inch
1393. How many standards in questioned documents is 1407. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is
needed to prove? involved in a crime the examiner should report it to the -
A. 5 standards A. Victim
B. 10 signatures B. Investigator
C. Sufficient amount C. Object relative
D. 5 pages D. Prosecutor
1394. In USA, what year photography was used for court 1408. In fingerprint, which of the following is the pattern
presentation? which refers to the rolled fingers onto the rolling
A. 1909 impression columns?
B. 1859 A. Rolled impression
C. 1890 B. Indexing impression
D. 1903 C. Palm impression
1395. What is the official purpose of conducting post D. Little finger impression
mortem examination? 1409. A complete rotation of a fired bullet in the rifling of a
A. To determine the duration of death gun is also termed as –
B. To determine the manner of death A. Twist of rifling
C. To determine the deadly weapon B. Gyroscopic action
D. To determine the cause of death. C. Rotating motion
1396. What part of the polygraph machine is responsible in D. Pitch of rifling
detecting pulse rate and heart beat? 1410. In photography, it is an exhibit shown in court for
A. Kymograph scrutiny by litigants and others.
B. Pneumograph A. Police photography
C. Polygraph B. Photograph
D. Cardiograph C. Forensic photography
1397. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with polydactyl, D. Crime scene photography
he or she has - 1411. In what way to determine the date of a paper was
A. Extra fingerprint made?
B. Extra hand A. Wiremark
C. Extra finger B. Trademark
D. Added finger C. Copyright
1398. What year did the colored photography was accepted D. Watermark
in US court? 1412. Tripod has how many feet?
A. 1956 A. It depends
B. 1978 B. Two
C. 1946 C. Three
D. 1960 D. Four
1399. Blood stays liquid for how many hours? 1413. In robbery case involving force upon things, which
A. 6-8 hours should be closely photographed?
B. 9-10 hours A. Weapons used
C. 8-12 hours B. Victims wounds
 C. Entrance and exit 1428. What is being affected in intracranial hemorrhage?
D. Things stolen a. brain
1414. What is the advantage of other agencies with other b. stomach
agencies when it comes to authenticity? c. lung
A. Signature and photograph 1429. A firearm which has a size of less than 1 inch
B. Thumb mark and photograph a. small firearm
C. Thumb mark and signature b. handgun
D. Signature only c. revolver
1415. What is the best test in determining the presence of d. shotgun
blood? 1430. What is the measure of the rubber tube in the
A. Benzedine pneumograph?
B. Marquis a. 20 inches
C. Takayama b. 10 inches
D. Teichman c. 7 inches
1416. Is taking a tranquilizer and medicine for colds affects d. 8 inches
the result of polygraph examination? 1431. An industrial complex must establish its first line of
A. Yes physical defense. It must have:
B. No a. the building itself
C. Depends b. communication barrier
D. Maybe c. perimeter barrier
1417. It is where handwriting rest? d. window barrier
A. Feet 1432. If the dead person is laying, where will the blood go
B. Vase line during livor mortis?
C. Baseline A. Back
D. Alignment B. Neck
1418. Medically speaking, it is the sudden stoppage of the C. Head
heart that results to death. D. Legs
A. Instantaneous rigor 1433. If there are 6 grooves, is it also the same in lands?
B. Heart attack A. Yes
C. Myocardial infarction B. No
D. Death C. Partly Yes
1419. In polygraph test, it indicates air in system, and is D. Partly No
measured in millimeter by the - 1434. What is the other term for dot?
A. Kymograph A. Islet
B. Sphygmomanometer B. Core
C. Pneumograph C. Delta
D. Galvanograph D. Bifurcation
1420. In Dactyloscopy, the primary purpose and importance 1435. In writing, what is being used?
of fingerprint is for - A. Finger
A. Indemnification B. Forearm
B. Comparison C. Hands
C. Identification D. All of the choices
D. Collection 1436. There are three types of fingerprint pattern; arch,
1421. Photography at the crime scene taken at the crime whorl and _____.
scene which will be used for court presentation is called - A. Ulnar loop
A. Crime scene photography B. Radial loop
B. Forensic photography C. Loop
C. Crime photography D. Arch
D. Police photography 1437. Is your name Eric? What kind of question is this?
1422. The study of projectiles the moment the bullet leaves A. Irrelevant
the muzzle of the gun is a kind of – B. Relevant
A. Interior ballistics C. Control
B. Terminal ballistics D. Evidence
C. Forensic ballistics 1438. In polygraph examination, what is being detected?
D. Exterior ballistics A. Lying
1423. A magistrate and law professor in Austria who is B. Dying
known for introducing the word “Criminalistics.” C. Truth
A. Hans Gross D. Response
B. Alphonse Bertillon 1439. In pubic hair, what is the best examination to be
C. Prof. R.A. Riess conducted in the crime laboratory?
D. Edmond Locard A. DNA
1424. In dactyloscopy, is plain whorl always with two deltas? B. Microscope examination
a. No C. Chemical examination
b. Never D. Serology examination
c. Yes 1440. If you didn’t clean the fingerprint slab, what will be the
d. Maybe effect to the fingerprint?
1425. A light proof box with a means of forming an image, A. Blurred
with a means of holding sensitized material and with a B. Sticky
means of regulating the amount of light that enters the C. Classified
camera at a given time. a. camera D. Clear
b. light 1441. What is found on the left white portion of the portrait?
c. film A. Vignette
d. lens B. Watermark
1426. The location of the blood pressure in the chart paper C. Security fiber
a. Side D. Fiber
b. Middle 1442. In Henry System how many clasifications of
c. Lower fingerprints are there?
d. Upper A. 2
1427. What is the most common death caused by asphyxia? B. 3
a. strangulation C. 8
b. drowning D. 7
c. throttling 1443. Indication of tremor due to old age, illiteracy and
d. Hanging sickness is what kind of signature?
 A. Genuine a. Extractor
B. Spurious b. Breechface
C. Forged c. Head space
D. Simulated d. Breechblock
1444. If in the CS, you found semen and blood, can you 1458. The firearms that propelled projectiles more than one
consider it as rape on minor? inch in diameter is called.
A. Yes a. Machine gun
B. No b. Musket
C. Partly Yes c. Artillery
D. Partly No d. Single-shot firearm
1445. In polarization film, how long is the developing? 1459. A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a class
A. 5 minutes characteristics of:
B. 7 min a. Four lands, four grooves right twist
C. 3 min b. Six lands, six grooves left twist
D. 8 minutes c. Seven lands, seven grooves right twist
1446. What do you call the outer cover of the bullet? d. Five lands, five grooves right twist
A. Jacketed
B. Metallic
C. Silver 1460. To impact a motion of rotation to a bullet during its
D. Ogive passage inside the barrel to insure gyroscopic stability in
1447. In snake, the two snake venum is neorotoxic and its flight is called:
_____. a. Range
A. Hemotoxic b. Gauge
B. Viral c. Rifling
C. Surgical d. Center-fire
D. B or C 1461. Most commonly these marks are found on bullets
fired from a Revolver due to a poor alignment of the
cylinder with the bore:
1448. Why is polygraphy in the Philippines not admissible? a. Shaving marks
A. Under experimental stage b. Skid marks
B. Under analysis c. Pivot marks
C. Based on opinion d. landmarks
D. Unskill 1461. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to:
a. James Forsythe
1449. Phos means light, graphia means _____. b. Philip O. Gravelle
A. Write c. Van Amberg
B. Study d. Berthold Scwartz
C. Technology 1462. That science dealing with the motion of projectile
D. Record from the time the firer squeezes the trigger up to the time it
1450. In major classification, the right thumb is the reaches the muzzle of the barrel is called:
numerator while the left is the denominator? a. Posterior ballistics
A. Yes b. Interior ballistics
B. No c. Exterior ballistics
C. It depends d. Terminal ballistics
1451. If you are a patrol officer, what type of CS will you 1463. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different
photograph even though there is no SOCO photographer? from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most
A. Vehicular accident scene useful in directly identifying the:
B. Infanticide scene a. Person who fired the particular gun
C. Homicide scene b. Direction form which a shot was fired
D. Parricide scene c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
1452. What is the most common symptom of coma? d.Bullet which caused a fatal wound
A. Unconsciousness
B. Blackening of lips 1464. A patrolman should fire his pistol:
C. Dilated eyes a. At no time
D. consciousness b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
1453. The dead person is dehydrated. What is lacking? c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
A. H2O d. Only as a last resort
B. Blood 1465. . Which of the following, the best method to use in
C. Air firing a revolver is to keep:
D. Anesthesia a. Both eyes closed
1454. In police laboratory, the one examined by biologist is b. Both eyes open
not limited to ____. c. Only the right eye is open
A. Semen d. Only the left eye is open
B. Blood 1466. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on
C. Riverstone the differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling
D. None of these which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the
1455. These bullets when fired emit bright red flame from following statement the one which can most accurately be
their base, thereby showing the gunner the path as well as inferred is that:
the striking point of the bullet. a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves
a. Jacketed bullet b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right
b. Armor-piercing c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either
c. Semi-wed cutter bullet left or right
d. Tracer bullet d. All of the above
1456. The caliber of the firearms can be determined by the 1467. The secret of good shooting form is:
bore diameter measured from: a. Proper sighting of the target
a. Land to firearm b. Firing slowly and carefully
b. Land to land c. A relaxed and natural position
c. Land to groves d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
d. Groves to land
1457. The breech end of the chamber of the firearm is 1468. The term muzzle velocity refers most
sealed by a solid flat block of metal against which the accurately to the:
barrel comes into position when the weapon is closed for a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight
firing, which is termed as: b. Average speed of the bullet in flight
 c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver b. Average speed of the bullet in flight
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
1469. Discharged bullet are initiated at: d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
a. On base or nose 1481. Discharged bullet are initiated at:
b. Left side a. On base or nose
c. Right side b. Left side
d. The end of the bullet c. Right side
1470. Discharged shell are initiated at: d. The end of the bullet
a. Inside or outside of a case near open end
b. Where firing pin strikes 1482. Discharged shell are initiated at:
c. On any part of the shell a. Inside or outside of a case near open end
d. None of the above b. Where firing pin strikes
1471. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to: c. On any part of the shell
a. Increase the speed of the bullet d. None of the above
b. Decrease the amount of recoil 1483. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification a. Increase the speed of the bullet
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the air b. Decrease the amount of recoil
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in
1472. The caliber of the gun is: the air
a. Its barrel length 1484. The caliber of the gun is:
b. The circumference of its barrel a. Its barrel length
c. The size of the ammunition used b. The circumference of its barrel
d. Diameter of the bore c. The size of the ammunition used
1473. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of d. Diameter of the bore
the exploded shell have been recovered by the 1485. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of
investigator of the crime. In order to identify the shell with the exploded shell have been recovered by the
the gun that fired, the laboratory should be given: investigator of the crime. In order to identify the shell with
a. The cap, the weds and the pellets the gun that fired, the laboratory should be given:
b. The cap and the wads a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
c. The cap and the pellets b. The cap and the wads
d. The shot shell only c. The cap and the pellets
1474. Which of the following, the most accurate statement d. The shot shell only
concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by
means of the ballistics is that:
a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight 1486. Which of the following, the most accurate statement
lands concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined means of the ballistics is that:
by the angle of lead a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least
c. Pistols with the same number of land can be eight lands
differentiated by the direction of the lead b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from the determined by the angle of lead
width of the groove c. Pistols with the same number of land can be
differentiated by the direction of the lead
1475. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from
from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most the width of the groove
useful in directly identifying the: 1487. Paraffin test is used to:
a. Person who fired the particular gun a. Detect whether a witness is telling the truth
b. Direction form which a shot was fired b. Discover whether the deceased person was
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired poisoned
d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound c. Estimate the approximate time of death of the
1476. A patrolman should fire his pistol: deceased
a. At no time d. Determine whether a suspect has fired a gun
b. Primarily to stop a quarrel recently
c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
d. Only as a last resort 1488. The term double action with reference to revolver
means most nearly that:
a. The revolver has both safely and automatic firing
1477. Which of the following, the best method to use in firing action
a revolver is to keep: b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released
a. Both eyes closed the hammer
b. Both eyes open c. The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell
c. Only the right eye is open ejection
d. Only the left eye is open d. The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge
1478. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on is pushed from the magazine at the same time
the differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling 1489. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a Pistol or
which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the Rifle barrels is called:
following statement the one which can most accurately be a. Land
inferred is that: b. Groove
a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves c. Lead
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and d. One complete revolution inside the bore
right 1490. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be shell by the:
either left or right a. Firing
d. All of the above b. Ejector
1479. The secret of good shooting form is: c. Extractor
a. Proper sighting of the target d. Hammer
b. Firing slowly and carefully 1491. It is the part of the mechanism in a firearm that
c. A relaxed and natural position withdrawn the shell or cartridge from the chamber is called
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver the:
1480. The term muzzle velocity refers most a. Ejector
accurately to the: b. Primer
 c. Striker a. Gauge
d. extractor b. Breech End
c. Pitch of rifling
1492. A revolver to be tested and used in d. Velocity
evidence should be picked up by: 1505. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger releases
a. Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel the hammer that must be manually cocked is called:
b. Placing a piece of wire or string through the trigger a. Automatic
guard b. Repeating arms
c. Grasping the handle with the handkerchief c. Single action
d. Grasping the barrel with clean cloth d. Ejector
1493. The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol found 1506. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both
at the scene of the crime is normally not individual marked cocks and releases the hammer:
for identification in the: a. Single action
a. Trigger b. Trigger
b. Ejector c. Hammer
c. Slide d. Double action
d. barrel 1507. When a barrel of a game guns are almost invariability
1494. The type of bore found on sewed-off shotgun is bored with a slightly constriction near the muzzle end is
usually a: known as:
a. Rifled bore a. Shotgun
b. Choke bore b. Choke
c. Full choke bore c. Gauge
d. Smooth bore d. Chamber
1495. The maximum distance form the muzzle at which a 1508. The only sure method of determining the velocity is
firearm discharge will usually produce detectable powder by the use of:
pattern on a target is about: a. Micrometer
a. 6 to 10 inches b. Taper Gauge
b. 6 to 10 feet c. Caliber
c. 6 to 10 yards d. Chronograph
d. 6 to 10 meters 1509. One of the most important single case in Firearms
1496. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a Identification History was that involving two men who were
criminal: supposed to have their employer and his housekeeper in
a. The empty shell remain within the chamber upper New York State:
b. The empty in most cases will be found at the scene of a. Castelo Case
firing b. Timbol Case
c. The shell is rarely found at the crime scene c. The Stielow Case
d. The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator d. Castaneda case
1497. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the
index finger should: 1510. During the seven years of radical agitation that
a. Grasp the stock followed the arrest of these men , It was apparently
b. Be straight along the barrel forgotten that they had been seized on specific charge of
c. Touch the outside of the trigger guard murdering one Parameter, a paymaster and his guard
d. Be inside of the trigger guard Berrdelli. Forensic Ballistics sprange into national
1498. A member of the police force may properly used his prominence during this last phrase of:
pistol: a. Brownell Case
a. To disperse a disorder group of people b. Sacco-Vanzetti Case
b. To subdue a maniac c. Mitchell Case
c. To prevent the escape of a pelon d. Weber Case
d. To stop a man suspected of having committed a 1511. He is doctor of medicine in Medical corps in the First
crime World War who had transferred to the ordinance corps
1499. A policeman arriving at the scene of a crime found a and considered the Father of modern Ballistics:
revolver, in reference to this he should be most careful: a. Lieutenant Van Amberg
a. To see that it is not loaded b. Maj. Calvin Goddard
b. To put on the safety lock c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman
c. Not to handle it unnecessarily d. Philip O. Gravelle
d. To mark it readily on the barrel 1512. The most important single process in barrel
manufacture from the standpoint of the identification
1500. The term “MAGNUM” originated in: expert is:
a. United States a. Reaming operation
b. France b. Rifling operation
c. England c. Boring operation
d. Italy d. Grinding or machining
1501. The chemical eating away of the bore of an arm due
to rusting or the action of salts deposited from the cap or 1513. That part of the mechanism in a firearm which
gunpowder is: causes empty shells or cartridge cases to be thrown from
a. Pressure the gun is called:
b. Extractor a. Extractor
c. Corrosion b. Ejector
d. Priming Composition c. Hammer
1502. The mechanical wear and fear of the bore of an arm d. trigger
due to sliding friction when the bullet passes through is: 1514. This process of combustion results in the solid
a. Ejector powder being converted into gases rapidly, and at a high
b. Single action temperature, and it is the expansion of these gases which
c. Erosion causes the explosive force which propels the bullet or shot
d. Potassium nitrate charge along the barrel. This force is known as:
1503. When the mechanism is so arranged that it will fire a. Energy
continuously while the trigger is depressed is called: b. Pressure
a. Double action c. Velocity
b. Caliber d. High Intensity
c. Automatic 1515. A type of firearm having six lands, six grooves with
d. Trigger the right hand twist is:
1504. The distance that the rifling advances to make one a. Smith & Wesson
complete turn inside the gun barrel is called: b. Browning type
 c. Colt type men and which have random distribution. Their existence
d. Webley type in a firearm is brought about through the failure of the tool
1516. An instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by in its normal operation through wear and tear, abuse,
the expansive force of gases coming from burning powder mutilation, corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous causes:
a: a. Forensic ballistics
a. Helixometer b. Class characteristics
b. Firearm c. Riflings
c. Stereoscopic d. Individual characteristics
d. Comparison microscope 1529. The steel block which closes the rear of the bore
1517. A knurled ring or serrated groove around the body of against the force of the charge is:
the bullet which contains lubricant in order to minimize a. Breechface
friction during the passage of the bullet inside the bore is: b. Breechblock
a. Jacketed bullet c. Chamber
b. Wad cutter bullet d. bore
c. Cannelure 1530. Firearms which propel projectile of less than one inch
d. Plated bullet in diameter are generally classified as:
1518. The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its a. Artillery
original trajectory is: b. Small arms
a. Range c. Cannons
b. Fouling d. Recoilless rifle
c. Key hole shot 1531. It is the study of firearms Identification by means of
d. ricochet the ammunition fired through them:
1519. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or a. Ballistics
there is a delayed in explosion due to faulty functioning of b. Forensic Ballistics
the primer or faulty ignition of the propellant is: c. Terminal ballistics
a. Misfire d. Interior ballistics
b. Recoil 1532. The class characteristics of a Smith & Wesson,
c. Hang-fire revolver caliber .38 is:
d. velocity a. Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist
1520. type of bullet that contains a mixture, such as b. Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist
phosphorus or other material, that can set fire upon impact c. Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist
is called: d. Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist
a. Boat tail bullet 1533. Velocity of the bullet is being measure in:
b. Tracer bullet a. Foot pound
c. Incendiary bullet b. Lbs./sq. inch
d. Ball type c. Feet per second
1521. A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not longer than 22”. d. millimeter
a. Gatling guns 1534. How many types of problem are there in Forensic
b. Pistolized shotgun Ballistics?
c. Carbine a. 8
d. muskets b. 7
1522. A type of weapon designed to propel projectile by c. 6
means of compressed air is: d. 5
a. Springfield armory 1535. What is that part in a cartridge cases where in the
b. Marlin rifle flame coming from the priming composition passes?
c. Carbine a. Shell head
d. Air rifle b. Vent
1523. The class characteristics of a 9 mm Browning Pistol c. Primer pocket
is: d. anvil
a. 5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist 1536. What is the most powerful handgun in the world?
b. 4 lands, 4 grooves, right hand twist a. Magnum .357
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves, right hand twist b. Magnum .44
d. 7 lands, 7 grooves, right hand twist c. Magnum .50
1524. A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to: d. Magnum .41
a. Caliber .32 1537. What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 in millimeter?
b. Caliber .25 a. 7.65mm
c. Caliber .45 b. 6.35 mm
d. Caliber .22 c. 9 mm
1525. How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge 00 bunch d. 7.63 mm
shot shotgun cartridges contains: 1538. When a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed
a. 12 gauge in explosion;
b. 24 pellets a. Misfired cartridge
c. 6 pellets b. Hang-fire
d. 9 pellets c. Tapered cartridge
1526. Here is a case, when two specimens are examined d. Rebated cartridge
under the comparison microscopic and was erroneously 1539. What is the equipment in measuring the velocity of
drawn a conclusion and actually no identity exist, this the bullet?
matching is called: a. Omoscope
a. Photomicrograph b. Helixometer
b. Pseudomatch c. Chronograph
c. Microphotograph d. micrometer
d. striagraph 1540. Riflings located inside the barrel of a gun is a
1527. When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a combination of:
stationary position and is forced abruptly into the rifling, its a. Pitch grifling
natural tendency is to go straight forward before b. Twist
encountering the regular rifling twist is called: c. Lands & grooves
a. Shaving marks d. cannelures
b. Skidmarks
c. Individual characteristics 1541. The sound created at the muzzle of the firearm after
d. Slippage marks explosion is called:
1528. Those characteristics which are determinable only a. Suppressor
after the manufacture of the firearm. They are b. Muzzle blast
characteristics whose existence is beyond the control of c. Compensation
 d. choke a. feet/second
1542. What are muzzle loading firearms? b. Lbs./sq. inch
a. Muskets c. Foot pound
b. Shotgun d. Millimetre
c. Single sot firearms
d. Rifled arms 1556. Used in cases such as for sending signals and
1543. In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. What do you enabling to see enemies in the dark.
mean by 51? a. Harpoon guns
a. The diameter of the cartridge case b. Gas guns
b. The shoulder of the cartridge case c. Flare guns
c. The diameter of the cartridge d. Care guns
d. The length of the cartridge case 1557. In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean by the second
1544. A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent 30?
a. Caliber .32 a. Refers to the caliber
b. Caliber .30 b. Refers to the weight of gunpowder
c. Caliber .308 c. Refers to the weight of the cartridge case
d. Caliber 30.06 d. Refers to the weight of the bullet
1545. How many pellets are there in a 00 buckshot shotgun 1558. In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers to the.
cartridge 12 gauge? a. Muzzle energy
a. 12 pellets b. Diameter of the cartridge
b. 9 pellets c. Muzzle velocity of the bullet
c. 10 pellets d. Pressure developed
d. 16 pellets 1559. In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective when more
1546. . A firearm which features a movable firearm which is than one bullets will come out of the barrel in one press of
manually actuated in motion parallel to the barrel by the the trigger?
shooter; a. Slide
a. Slide action type b. Main spring
b. Lower action type c. Disconnector
c. Bolt action type d. Magazine catch
d. Single shot firearm 1560. The amount of force which must be applied to the
1547. A device primarily designed for another purposes that trigger of a firearm to cause sear to be released.
have a gun mechanism in corporated in them. a. Velocity
a. Gas gun b. Muzzle energy
b. Liberator c. Trigger pull
c. Freakish device d. Shocking power
d. Flare guns 1561. Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in
1548. The numerals, letters and symbols stamped into the police photography?
head of the cartridge case to shotshell to identify the a. Single, glossy, white
manufacturer, caliber or gauge. b. Single, matte, cream
a. Headspace c. Double, glossy, white
b. Headstamp d. Double matte, cream
c. Proof mark 1562. When a photograph was developed, the objects in
d. ratchet open space casts a deep and uniform shadow, what was
1549. The distance from the face of the closed breech of a the lighting condition when the shot was taken?
firearm to the surface in the chamber on which the a. Bright
cartridge seats. b. Dull
a. Keyhole c. Hazy
b. Headspace d. Cloudy
c. Gas operator
d. Silencer
1550. The most important single process in barrel 1563. Refers to the response of film to different wavelength
manufacture from the standpoint of the identification of light source.
expert. a. Spectral sensitivity
a. Reaming operation b. Color sensitivity
b. Rifling operation c. Light sensitivity
c. Boring operation d. Film sensitivity
d. Grinding operation 1564. A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color only.
1551. The tumbling of the bullet in flight and hitting the a. Blue sensitive
target sideways; b. Orthochromatic
a. Ricochet c. Panchromatic
b. Hang-fire d. Infra red
c. Key hole shot 1565. Lighting condition when objects in open space casts
d. misfired no shadow.
1552. An obsolete barrel designed in which the major a. Bright
length of the barrel in smooth and the few inches are b. Dull
rifled. c. Hazy
a. Gas operated d. Cloudy
b. Damascus barrel
c. Paradox gun 1566. Lens corrected for astigmatism.
d. Cape gun a. Aprochomat lens
1553. A notched wheel on the rear of a revolver cylinder to b. Anastigmat lens
rotate when force is applied by a level called a hand. c. Achromatic lens
a. Headspace d. Rapid rectilinear lens
b. Ratchet 1567. A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with
c. Trigger pull focal length that is:
d. Cylinder stop a. Wide angle lens
1554. A rigid loop which partially surrounds the trigger to b. Normal lens
prevent accident discharge or damage to it. c. Telephoto lens
a. Trigger pull d. Narrow angle lens
b. Trigger guard 1568. When a material does not allow light to pass its
c. Trailing edge medium it is said to be:
d. Thumb rest a. Transparent
1555. Pressure developed after explosion is measured in: b. Translucent
 c. Opaque 1583. Which among the following comprises the essential
d. All of the above parts of a camera?
1569. To separate colors, this homogenous medium a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized
absorbs and transmits light rays passing through it. material, View finder
a. Filter b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized
b. Stop bath material, View finder
c. Developer c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized
d. Fixer material, Shutter
1570. In crime scene photography what is the sufficient lens d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens, holder
type for interior photograph? of sensitized material
a. Wide angle lens 1584. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of
b. Normal lens its negative material.
c. Telephoto lens a. Wide angle lens
d. Narrow angle lens b. Normal lens
1571. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a c. Long lens
predetermined time interval. d. Telephoto lens
a. View finder 1585. Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of
b. Shutter convergence of light coming from a subject as seen from
c. Light tight box two apertures.
d. Holder of sensitized material a. Focusing scale
1572. Its primary use in photography is focus the light to the b. Scale bed
subject. c. View finder
a. Light tight box d. Range finder
b. Shutter
c. Lens 1586. It is a magnified picture of a small object produced by
d. View finder connecting the lens of a camera with the ocular of a
1573. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is compound microscope.
focused with a given particular diaphragm opening. a. Microphotograph
a. Depth of field b. Photomicrograph
b. Hyper-focal distance c. Photomacrograph
c. Focal distance d. Macrophotograph
d. Scale bed 1587. Attributed as the person who first discovered first true
1574. It is the distance measured from the nearest to the photography.
farthest object. a. William Henry Fox Talbot
a. Depth field b. Thomas Wedgewood
b. Hyper-focal distance c. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre
c. Scale bed d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
d. Focal distance 1588. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at
1575. Which among the following is not a primary color? bright sunlight with normal subject.
a. Red a. 1/30 f-8
b. Blue b. 1/125 f-11
c. Yellow c. 1/60 f-4
d. Green d. 1/250 f 2-8
1576. It is a microscopically small photograph. 1589. In police photography, to obtain a general view of the
a. Microphotograph scene we use a camera at what particular level?
b. Photomicrograph a. Elevated
c. Photomacrograph b. Eye level
d. Macrophotograph c. Bird’s eye view
1577. The normal developing time of a paper or film. d. Worm’s eye view
a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes 1590. The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in
b. 5 to 10 minutes reference to visible light is:
c. 20 to 30 minutes a. 001 to 100
d. 30 to 60 minutes b. 300 to 400
1578. In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal c. 400 to 700
paper for printing? d. 700 to 1000
a. Chloride paper 1591. Photography is defined as drawing with what
b. Bromide paper particular element?
c. Contact paper a. Light
d. Chloro-bromide paper b. Camera
1579. This refers to the absence of all colors. c. Film
a. White d. Developer
b. Red 1592. It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the
c. Blue thicker center and thinner sides.
d. Black a. Positive lens
1580. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space b. Negative lens
casts a transparent shadow. c. Concave lens
a. Hazy d. Convex lens
b. Cloudy Dull 1593. It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the
c. Cloudy bright various energies of the electromagnetic spectrum.
d. Bright a. Infra-red
1581. To view watermarks in disputed documents, what b. X-ray
particular method of photography is utilized? c. Orthochromatic
a. Bounce light d. Panchromatic
b. Side light 1594. The first use of photography in police work is in what
c. Transmitted light particular field?
d. Reflected light a. Crime prevention
1582. Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of b. Identification files
two chemical solution in chemical processing in c. Surveillance work
photography. d. Crime scene investigation
a. Development 1595. The chemical processing step wherein the latent
b. Stop-bath image recorded on the paper or film becomes visible.
c. Fixation a. Fixer
d. Bleaching b. Bleacher
 c. Stop bath d. Excessive
d. Developer 1610. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is:
a. Temporary
b. Permanent
1596. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use c. Lasting
of microscope. d. Stable
a. Microphotography 1611. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.
b. Photomicrography a. Porelon
c. Macrophotography b. Special pad
d. Photomacrography c. Inkless pad
1597. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of d. None of the foregoing
image refers to: 1612. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the
a. Hyper-focal distance impression are arbitrarily classified as.
b. Focal distance a. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
c. Focusing b. Loops with ridge count
d. Focal length c. Arches
1598. Infrared radiation is also referred to as: d. Dependent on ridge tracings
a. Laser light 1613. Referred to as outer terminus:
b. Coherent light a. Delta
c. Black light b. Dots
d. Heat rays c. Bifurcation
1599. The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in d. None of the foregoing
logarithmic values refers to: 1614. Failure to clean the slab after using it produces:
a. ISO rating a. Impression of false markings
b. ASA rating b. Accentuation of patterns
c. DIN rating c. Pattern reversals
d. BSI rating d. Difficulty in photographing
1600. Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing 1615. In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled away from the
solution. body of the subject.
a. Hypo or silver halide a. All fingers
b. Potassium Alum b. All fingers except the thumbs
c. Sodium Sulfate c. Both thumbs
d. Acetic Acid d. Both little fingers
1601. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer 1616. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the
solution. fingerprint card are referred to as:
a. Hydroquinone a. Rolled impressions
b. Sodium sulfite b. Plain impressions
c. Sodium carbonate c. Fragmentary impressions
d. Potassium bromide d. Visible impressions
1602. Refers to the product of illumination and time. 1617. Known for his rule which states that “No two
a. Exposure individuals in the world are exactly the same size and that
b. Development human skeleton does not change after 20 years.
c. Sensitized material a. Darwin
d. Photograph b. Mendel
1603. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging. c. Galton
a. Potassium Bromide d. Bertillon
b. Sodium Sulfite 1618. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint, is
c. Sodium Carbonate to view the area:
d. Boric Acid a. Obliquely
1604. A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits b. About half an inch distance
differentially light rays passing through it. c. Directly
a. Stop bath d. About one inch distance
b. Fixer 1619. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of
c. Filter pattern are represented:
d. Dektol a. Accidental Whorl
1605. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at: b. Central pocket loop
a. Fingers c. Double loop
b. Palms d. Whorl
c. Soles of the feet 1620. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops,
d. All of the choices with its respective shoulder and deltas.
1606. The fingerprint classification which is used in the US a. Double loop
and other English speaking country. b. Accidental loop
a. Henry System c. Central pocket loop
b. Batley System d. Whorl
c. Bertillion System 1621. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but it has two
d. Galton System deltas.
1607. Which among the following is considered as a basic a. Accidental loop
type of ridge characteristics? b. Double loop
a. Ridge endings c. Whorl
b. Bifurcation d. Central pocket loop
c. Dots 1622. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from
d. All of the choices the thumb toward the little finger?
1608. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of a. Tented Arch
papillary ridges as means of identification. b. Radial loop
a. Edgeoscopy c. Ulnar loop
b. Poroscopy d. Loop
c. Podoscopy 1623. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter
d. Chiroscopy on either side of the impression by a recurve, and
1609. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the terminate on the same side where the ridge has entered.
subject’s hand is: a. Tented arch
a. Necessary b. Radial loop
b. Unnecessary c. Ulnar loop
c. Optional d. Loop
1624. It is a triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation d. 3 months after birth
of a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern. 1638. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble
a. Latent prints a loop, spiral or rod.
b. Ridge a. Delta
c. Core b. Core
d. Delta c. Ridge
d. Whorl
1625. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are: 1639. Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify the
a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts identity between two points.
b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and spurs a. Nine
c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations b. Twelve
d. Type lines, converging ridges and recurving c. Fifteen
ridges d. Eighteen
1626. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form 1640. Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical
a single ridge is called: and chemical properties, physiological action, treatment
a. Enclosure ridge and method of detection.
b. Dot ridges a. Forensic Chemistry
c. Short ridges b. Toxicology
d. Resembling a loop c. Posology
d. Forensic Medicine
1641. A substance which when introduced into the body is
1627. Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges. absorbed in the blood stream and acting chemically is
a. Soles of the foot capable of producing noxious effect.
b. Palm a. Drugs
c. Finger b. Dangerous drugs
d. Elbow c. Poison
1628. Points often missed in rolling impression. d. Antidotes
a. Bifurcation 1642. Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of the
b. Core mucus membrane and characterized by vomiting, pain in
c. Delta the abdomen and purging.
d. Ridge a. Corrosives
1629. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an b. Irritants
impression or imprint. c. Narcotics
a. Latent print d. Tetanics
b. Pattern 1643. When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord
c. Loop producing immobility or stiffness to the parts to which they
d. Arch are attached, it is classified as:
1630. Which among the following is not considered as a a. Corrosives
basic fingerprint pattern? b. Irritants
a. Loop c. Narcotics
b. Arch d. Tetanics
c. Whorl 1644. In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an important
d. Accidental application in:
1631. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a a. Counterfeit coins
sequence of spirals around core axes. b. Theft and Robbery
a. Whorl c. Bombs and Explosives
b. Central pocket loop d. Restoration of tampered serial numbers
c. Double loop 1645. Agents which depress or retard the physiological
d. Accidental action of an organ.
1632. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on a. Corrosives
papillary ridges as a means of identification. b. Sedatives
a. Poroscopy c. Tetanics
b. Edgeoscopy d. Narcotics
c. Podoscopy
d. Dactyloscopy 1646. According to the methods of isolation, what poison is
1633. A ridge which forks out into two ridges. isolated by means of distillation.
a. Delta a. Volatile poisons
b. Bifurcation b. Non volatile poisons
c. Core c. Metallic poisons
d. Pores d. Tetanic poisons
1634. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or 1647. When the effect of a poison is marked by disturbance
ridges from the little finger toward the thumb. of function or death within a short time, the poisoning is
a. Ulnar loop classified as:
b. Radial loop a. Acute poisoning
c. Arch b. Sub-acute poisoning
d. Whorl c. Chronic poisoning
1635. Basis of fingerprint identification. d. Suicidal poisoning
a. Pores 1648. When the action of the poison is marked by
b. Ridges disturbance produced in distant part from the site of
c. Friction ridges application, it is classified as:
d. Latent print a. Local
1636. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable b. Remote
method of identification due to following reason; except: c. Combined
a. Fingerprints are not changeable d. Acute
b. There are no two identical fingerprints
c. Wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear 1649. Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body.
d. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy a. Semen
b. Blood
1637. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are c. Cells
formed and developed? d. Muscles
a. 3rd month of fetus life 1650. A man of average built would normally have how
b. 6th month of infancy many quarts of blood?
c. At birth a. 6 quarts
 b. 7 quarts a. Emetics
c. 8 quarts b. Antidotes
d. 9 quarts c. Alkaloids
1651. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about d. Tetanics
65% of the blood. 1665. Which among the following exhibits bluish
a. Platelets fluorescence when exposed to u.v. light?
b. Fibrin a. Blood
c. Leucocytes b. Semen
d. Plasma c. Saliva
1652. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood. d. Urine
a. Plasma 1666. Oldest known explosive.
b. Hemoglobin a. Black powder
c. Erythrocytes b. Smoke powder
d. Fibrin c. Dynalite
1653. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is d. TNT
decomposed and stained with contamination. 1667. Deals with the study and identification by means of
a. Benzidine test body fluids.
b. Van Deen’s Test a. Immunology
c. Phenolphthalein test b. Serology
d. Precipitin test c. Posology
1654. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof d. Pharmacology
that subject is definitely blood. 1668. The process in reproducing physical evidence by
a. Preliminary test plaster moulds.
b. Confirmatory test a. Casting
c. Precipitin test b. Cementing
d. Blood typing and grouping c. Moulage
1655. Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or d. Pickling
not. 1669. Major component of a glass.
a. Preliminary test a. Lime
b. Confirmatory test b. Silica
c. Precipitin test c. Soda
d. Blood typing and grouping d. Lime
1670. Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of
1656. Positive result in the preliminary examination for tissues and causes nausea.
semen in Barberio’s test. a. Corrosives
a. Picric acid b. Irritants
b. Spermine picrate c. Tetanics
c. Napthol diazonium d. Asthenics
d. Anthraquinous chloride
1657. Animal fiber may be best described by: 1671. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity
a. It is composed of protein and rigidity.
b. Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra violet light a. Lime
c. It burns fast b. Soda
d. It has acid like odor when burned c. Glass
1658. When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the d. Gel
approximate time of firing the gun? 1672. An organic bacterial poison.
a. Soot a. Strychnine
b. Nitrates and nitrites b. Ptomaine
c. Gases c. Brucine
d. Metallic fragments d. Chloroform
1659. In determining whether the hair is of human or animal 1673. This test is used to detect the presence of semen
origin what should the chemist examine under the particularly in stained clothing.
microscope? a. Microscopic test
a. Parts of the shaft b. Barberio’s test
b. Parts of the tip c. Florence test
c. Parts of the hair d. Ultraviolet test
d. Parts of the root 1674. The best method in comparative soil analysis.
1660. A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue a. Chemical examination
litmus to red, it is: b. Density gradient test
a. Cotton c. Ultra-violet light examination
b. Silk d. Microscopic test
c. Fiber glass 1675. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test
d. Steel wool is utilized?
1661. It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race a. Accelerated aging test
determinant? b. Bursting strength test
a. Cortex c. Opacity examination
b. Cuticle d. Microscopic examination
c. Medulla 1676. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by
d. Shaft decaying body.
1662. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of a. Chloride
human or animal origin b. Ammonia
a. Ignition test or burning c. Carbon dioxide
b. Fluorescence analysis d. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Chemical analysis 1677. The application of chemical principles in the
d. Microscopic analysis examination of evidence.
1663. Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is a. Forensics
ineffective. b. Criminalistics
a. Carbon c. Instrumentation
b. Logwood d. Forensic Chemistry
c. Nigrosine 1678. To positively determine the presence of blood in
d. Gallotanic stained material, what test is used?
1664. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its a. Takayama Test
effects. b. Phenolphtalien test
 c. Baberio’s test c. 21
d. Florence test d. 28
1679. According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons 1692. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm
may be isolated by means of what process? countries within how many days from death?
a. Extraction a. 1
b. Dilution b. 2
c. Distillation c. 3
d. Dialysis d. 4
1680. Which of the following is not an accurate test for the 1693. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the
presence of alcohol in the human body? bone, loss of alignment of the affected bones and
a. Saliva test separation of fragment bones.
b. Harger breath test a. Simple fracture
c. Fecal test b. Compound fracture
d. Drug test c. Comminuted fracture
1681. A disturbance produced by poison on that part with d. None of the foregoing
which the poison came into contact. 1694. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.
a. Acute a. Internal hemorrhage
b. Local b. Hematoma
c. Remote c. Contusion
d. Combined d. Internal wound
1682. A material which is used to which is used to improve 1695. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.
the quality of the paper. a. Imprint abrasion
a. Sizing material b. Pressure abrasion
b. Rosin c. Friction abrasion
c. Gelatin d. Graze
d. Starch 1696. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and
1683. By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be with accompanying movement over the skin.
formed if it is pesent. a. Pressure abrasion
a. Rosin b. Imprint abrasion
b. Starch c. Impact abrasion
c. Casein d. Graze
d. Gelatin 1697. A nervous disease marked by seizures with
1684. Oldest ink material known to man. convulsion and loss of consciousness.
a. Logwood a. Epilepsy
b. Nigrosine b. Apoplexy
c. Carbon c. Catalepsy
d. Gallotanic d. Uremia
1685. Only type of ink wherein age may be determined. 1698. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily
a. Logwood eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic condition seen
b. Nigrosine in urinary suppression, marked by nausea, vertigo,
c. Carbon vomiting, coma and convulsion.
d. Gallotanic
1686. It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing a. Epilepsy
ink, pencil or other marking material. b. Apoplexy
a. Erasure c. Catalepsy
b. Obliterated writing d. Uremia
c. Indented writing 1699. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in
d. Contact writing how many hours when the blood has already clotted or
1687. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with diffused to different parts of the body wherein the
male pelvis. discoloration is permanent and darker in color?
a. Greater a. 12 hours
b. Equal b. 24 hours
c. Lesser c. 36 hours
d. Less significant d. 48 hours
1700. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination
1688. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation with either group A or B what would be the particular blood
in respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to group of the sample.
declare a person clinically dead? a. Group A
a. 10-15 minutes b. Group B
b. 15-30 minutes c. Group AB
c. 30-45 minutes d. Group O
d. 45-60 minutes 1701. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit
changes.
1689. A simple test used to determine cessation of a. 10 years
respiration by placing water or mercury in a container on b. 20 years
top of the chest of a person and no visible movement is c. 30 years
noticed. d. 40 years
a. Winslov test 1702. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white
b. Florence test greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.
c. Barberio test a. Saponification
d. Castle Meyer test b. Rigor mortis
1690. A muscular change characterized by the softness of c. Mummification
the muscles and in which it no longer responds to d. Maceration
mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution of 1703. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood
proteins. tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent
a. Stage of primary flaccidity portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity death and is completed by 12 hours.
c. Rigor mortis a. Rigor mortis
d. Livor mortis b. Primary flaccidity
1691. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from c. Maceration
a dead body in how many days? d. Livor mortis
a. 7 1704. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents
b. 14 after meals.
 a. 2 to 3 hours 1718. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.
b. 3 to 4 hours a. Punctured wound
c. 4 to 5 hours b. Hack wound
d. 5 to 6 hours c. Lacerated wound
1705. Rate of growth of human hair. d. Incised wound
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day 1719. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day ACGT, A stands for what?
c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day a. Adenine
d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day b. Adenide
1706. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body c. Adenum
temperature is about: d. Adenoid
a. 10 to 15 deg. F 1720. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what
b. 15 to 20 deg. F sample should be obtained for DNA testing?
c. 20 to 25 deg. F a. Fingerprints
d. 25 to 30 deg. F b. Hair
1707. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin. c. Skeleton
a. Wound d. Teeth
b. Trauma 1721. It is inherited from the mother found in the
c. Bruise mitochondria which is in the cell body
d. Scratch a. Nuclear DNA
1708. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so b. Helix
serious that it will endanger one’s life. c. Mitochondrial DNA
a. Non-mortal wound d. DNA nucleus
b. Mortal wound 1722. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit
c. Trauma changes.
d. Coup injury a. 10 years
1709. A collection of blood underneath the skin. b. 20 years
a. Contusion c. 30 years
b. Bruise d. 40 years
c. Petechiae 1723. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of
d. Hematoma respiration, circulation and almost all brain function of an
1710. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and organism.
muscles causing skin discoloration and extreme pain. a. Somatic death
a. Sprain b. Cellular death
b. Contusion c. Molecular death
c. Fracture d. Apparent death
d. Dislocation 1724. Manner of walking of a person which may be natural
1711. It is fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is a. Mannerism
evident. b. Tic
a. Simple c. Gait
b. Compound d. Body language
c. Comminuted 1725. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to
d. Dislocation 30 minutes and is characterized by the relaxation of the
1712. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone muscles and loss of their natural tone.
without external wounds. a. Stage of primary flaccidity
a. Sprain b. Post mortem rigidity
b. Fracture c. Cadaveric spasm
c. Hematoma d. Secondary flaccidity
d. Dislocation
1713. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of
tissue and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained 1726. Approximate time for the completion of one case for
that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of DNA testing.
the body to the gun is approximately. a. Minimum of 2 weeks
a. 6 inches b. Minimum of 4 weeks
b. 12 inches c. Minimum of six weeks
c. 18 inches d. Minimum of eight weeks
d. 24 inches
1714. A physical injury which is found at the site and also 1727. Period of time wherein there body would be
the opposite site of the application of force. skeletonized, under normal conditions in tropical countries.
a. Extensive injury a. 1 month
b. Coup injury b. 3 months
c. Contre coup injury c. 6 months
d. Coup and contre coup injury d. 12 months
1715. A physical injury found at the site of the application of 1728. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable
force. muscular change.
a. Extensive injury a. Cold stiffening
b. Coup injury b. Heat stiffening
c. Contre coup injury c. Instantaneous rigor
d. Coup and contre coup injury d. Putrefaction
1729. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the
1716. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
and stone. a. Diffusion lividity
a. Punctured wound b. Clotting of the blood
b. Hack wound c. Rigor mortis
c. Lacerated wound d. Hypostatic lividity
d. Incised wound 1730. Approximate average amount of semen per
ejaculation under normal conditions.
1717. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what a. 2 to 2.5 cc
wound would be exhibited? b. 2.5 to 5 cc
a. Punctured wound c. 5 to 10 cc
b. Hack wound d. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
c. Lacerated wound 1731. DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is
d. Incised wound regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for?
 a. Deonatural acid a. Heat cramp
b. Dynamic natural anti-body b. Heat exhaustion
c. Deoxyribonucleic acid c. Heat stroke
d. Deoxyribunucliec acid d. Burning
1732. A powerful tool in identification which points to the 1746. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton,
source of biological evidence by matching it with samples which part is not used?
from the victims, suspects and their relatives. a. Skull
a. DNA profiling b. Pelvis
b. Serology c. Sternum
c. Instrumentation d. Tibia
d. Forensics 1747. A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and
1733. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good bones, considered as the most severe burn causing death
sources of cells. due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and
a. Saliva and tears massive infection.
b. Semen and saliva a. Sunburn
c. Urine and semen b. 1st degree burn
d. Semen and blood c. 2nd degree burn
1734. Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may d. 3rd degree burn
undergo DNA testing. 1748. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5
a. Hair minutes would die, the case of death would be?
b. Bone a. Stupor
c. Skin b. Stroke
d. Fingernails c. Asphyxia
1735. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive d. Exhaustion
action of its bacteria and enzyme. 1749. Most effective method in determining sex of an
a. Primary flaccidity individual.
b. Post mortem rigidity a. Gonodal test
c. Cadaveric spasm b. Social test
d. Putrefaction c. Genital test
1736. Conclusive evidence that subject person is a female. d. Chromosomal test
a. Possession of vagina 1750. Its medical-legal importance is to approximate the
b. Possession of ovaries time of death.
c. Possession of estrogen a. Cadaveric spasm
d. Possession of progesterone b. Putrefaction
c. Mascular contraction
1737. A person with big face and prominent cheek bones. d. Rigor mortis
a. Hippocratic facie 1751. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:
b. Mongolian facie a. Masturbation
c. Myxedema facie b. Fingering
d. Facies lionine c. Sodomy
1738. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male. d. Sexual intercourse
a. Presence of testis 1752. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell
b. Presence of androsterone occurs in:
c. Possession of penis a. 20 to 30 minutes
d. Possession of testosterone b. 3 to 6 hours
1739. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to c. 12 to 24 hours
mucous secretion of the respiratory track after death. d. 24 to 36 hours
a. “Cutis anserina” 1753. Most noticeable sign of death.
b. Washerwoman a. Cessation of respiration
c. “Champignon d’ ocume” b. Progressive fall of body temperature
d. Cadaveric spasm c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to move
1740. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body. d. Cessation of heart action and circulation
a. Natural death 1754. Most common and scientific method of detecting
b. Molecular death deception.
c. Somatic death a. Polygraphy
d. Apparent death b. Polygraph
1741. A type of burn produced as a result of the body c. Truth serum
coming into contact with a moving object. d. Interrogation
a. Thermal burn 1755. Devised an instrument capable of continuously
b. Friction burn recording pulse rate, respiration and blood pressure.
c. Radiation burn a. William Marston
d. Electrical burn b. Angelo Mosso
1742. A condition of a woman who have had one or more c. John Larson
sexual experience but not had conceived a child. d. Sticker
a. Moral virginity
b. Demi-virginity
c. Physical virginity 1756. Psychological response to any demand.
d. Virgo intact a. Reaction
1743. Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body. b. Stress
a. Flaccidity c. Pressure
b. Rigidity d. All of the above
c. Lividity 1757. For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure
d. Putrefaction is to be utilized in the system of cardio or vent.
1744. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain a. 30 mm
parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of b. 60 mm
cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and c. 90 mm
diminished body temperature. d. 120 mm
a. Gangrene 1758. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep
b. Frostbite considered fit for polygraph examination.
c. Trench foot a. 5
d. Immersion foot b. 6
1745. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the c. 7
breakdown of sweating mechanism. d. 8
 d. 90 to 120 minutes
1759. Type of question related to the facts of the case and 1773. The primary objective of post test interview.
is answerable by NO. a. To thank the subject
a. Relevant question b. To obtain confession
b. Irrelevant question c. To make the subject calm
c. General question d. To explain polygraph test procedures
d. Immaterial question
1760. Question known to the subject and is answerable by YES. 1774. The purpose of pretest interview.
a. Relevant question a. To prepare subject for polygraph test
b. Irrelevant question b. To obtain confession
c. General question c. To make the subject calm
d. Immaterial question d. To explain polygraph test procedures
1761. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that 1775. Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal
something is hidden or obscure. pattern of response.
a. Fear a. Relevant questions
b. Deception b. Irrelevant questions
c. Detection c. Supplementary questions
d. Reaction d. Control questions
1762. An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ 1776. The number of basic tracings in the modern polygraph.
or organism as a result of stimulation. a. 3
a. Response b. 4
b. Deception c. 5
c. Detection d. 6
d. Reaction 1777. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for
1763. Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, detecting deception.
which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power. a. William Marston
a. Response b. Harold Burtt
b. Reaction c. John Larson
c. Stimuli d. Leonarde Keeler
d. Fear
1764. This component drives the chart paper under the 1778. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure
recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches changes were signs of deception.
per minute. a. William Marston
a. Cardiosphygmograph b. Harold Burtt
b. Kymograph c. Leonard Keeler
c. Galvanograph d. John Larson
d. Pneumograph 1779. Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph
1765. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of procedure for accused persons.
the subject. a. Angelo Mosso
a. Finger electrode plate b. Veraguth
b. Diacritic notch c. Lombroso
c. Rubber convoluted tube d. Vittorio Benussi
d. Kymograph 1780. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin
1766. This component record changes of the subject blood reflex.
pressure and pulse rate. a. Angelo Mosso
a. Cardiosphygmograph b. Veraguth
b. Sphygmomanometer c. Lombroso
c. Galvanograph d. Vittorio Benussi
d. Pneumograph 1781. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with
1767. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small measurement, respiration component and blood pressure.
amount of electricity. a. Harold Burtt
a. Cardisphygmograph b. Hans Gross
b. Sphygmomanometer c. Leonarde Keeler
c. Galvanograph d. John Larson
d. Pneumograph 1782. Refers to any specimen or writing executed normally
1768. This component records the changes in the breathing without any attempt to change or control its identifying
of the subject. habits and its usual quality of execution.
a. Cardisphygmograph a. Natural writing
b. Sphygmomanometer b. Disguised writing
c. Galvanograph c. Cursive writing
d. Pneumograph d. System of writing
1769. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity 1783. Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own signature to hide
to deceive others. his identity is using:
a. Black lie a. Natural writing
b. White lie b. Disguised writing
c. Red lie c. Cursive writing
d. Yellow lie d. System of writing
1770. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the 1784. Writing in which are for most part joined together.
relevant question. a. Natural writing
a. Reaction b. Disguised writing
b. Normal response c. Cursive writing
c. Specific response d. System of writing
d. Positive response 1785. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen
1771. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions of any individual handwriting or in the product of any
were answered. typewriter.
a. Reaction a. Normal variation
b. Normal response b. Natural variation
c. Specific response c. Tremor
d. Positive response d. Wrong hand writing
1772. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
a. 20 to 30 minutes 1786. A person executing a signature while his arm is
b. 30 to 60 minutes steadied and assisted produces a:
c. 60 to 90 minutes a. Guided signature
 b. Normal signature 1800. A document which contains some changes either as
c. Scribble an addition or deletion.
d. Handwriting signature a. Altered documents
1787. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital b. Disputed document
letters. c. Obliterated document
a. Embellishment d. Inserted document
b. Beard 1801. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the
c. Buckle knot original undecipherable.
d. Diacritic a. Decipherment
1788. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal b. Restoration
strokes. c. Obliteration
a. Hook d. Interlineation
b. Spur 1802. A class of signature for routine document or day to
c. Loop day correspondence.
d. Staff a. Formal
1789. An oblong curve found in small letters f,g,h and l. b. Complete
a. Hook c. Cursory
b. Spur d. Careless scribble
c. Loop 1803. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge
d. Staff important documents.
1790. The introductory backward stroke added to the staff of a. Complete
many capital letters and which can also be seen b. Cursory
occasionally in introductory strokes of small letters. c. Informal
a. Embellishment d. Careless scribble
b. Beard 1804. A process by which a canal like outline is produced on
c. Buckle knot a fraudulent document underneath the genuine and
d. Hitch tracing it with the use of pointed instrument.
1791. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter. a. Carbon process
a. Embellishment b. Indention process
b. Beard c. Projection process
c. Buckle knot d. Transmitted light process
d. Diacritic 1805. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier
1792. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes. than the rest of its outline.
a. Embellishment a. Off its feet
b. Hump b. Twisted letter
c. Diacritic c. Clogged type face
d. Knot d. Rebound
1793. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious
recurrence of stress of impulse.
a. Line quality 1806. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is
b. Rhythm almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits
c. Baseline reacting from fixed mental impressions.
d. Writing pressure a. Handwriting
1794. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or b. Writing
intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface c. Typewriting
with increase pressure. d. Writing movement
a. Writing pressure 1807. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation
b. Shading and pen-lifts difficult.
c. Pen emphasis a. Ball point pen
d. Natural variation b. Fountain pen
1795. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests. c. Iron nutgall ink
a. Line quality d. Markers
b. Baseline 1808. Disconnection between letters or letter combination
c. Foot due to lack of movement control.
d. Hitch a. Pen lift
1796. A signature written by the forger in his own style of b. Retouching
handwriting without attempting to copy to form of the c. Patching
genuine signature. d. Retracing
a. Traced forgery 1809. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on
b. Disguised forgery the paper during manufacture.
c. Simulated forgery a. Water marks
d. Simple forgery b. Fiber marks
1797. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful c. Paper design
type of forgery. d. Wire marks
a. Traced forgery 1810. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what
b. Disguised forgery particular condition is manifested?
c. Simulated forgery a. Grainy image
d. Simple forgery b. Two image
c. Overlapping image
1798. Which among the following is an indication of d. Three dimensional image
genuineness of handwriting? 1811. An element which is added to complete another letter.
a. Continuity a. Spur
b. Smoothness b. Slant
c. Skillful writing c. Diacritics
d. Tremor d. Arc
1812. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place,
1799. Document which is completely written and signed by purpose and normal writing conditions.
the testator. a. Complete signature
a. Genuine document b. Standard signature
b. Disputed document c. Evidential signature
c. Holographic document d. Model signature
d. Authentic document 1813. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by
widening of the ink stroke.
 a. Shading c. Infrared examination
b. Pen emphasis d. Ultraviolet examination
c. Pen lift 1827. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a
d. Pen pressure person from his handwriting.
1814. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity a. Questioned Document Examination
of paper money. b. Polygraphy
a. Quality of the engraving c. Graphology
b. Color of the seal d. Psychology
c. Wet strength of the paper 1828. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.
d. Watermarks a. Projectile
1815. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but b. Ball
made inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the c. Shell
genuine coin. d. Missile
a. Priceless coin 1829. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles
b. Mutilated coin at the same time it leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the
c. False coin time it hits the target.
d. All of the choices a. Interior ballistics
1816. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal b. Exterior ballistics
strokes made by the momentum of the hand. c. Terminal ballistics
a. Tremor d. Posterior ballistics
b. Tremors of fraud 1830. The science which deals with the effect of the impact
c. Genuine tremor of the projectile on the target.
d. Deterioration a. Interior ballistics
1817. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters. b. Exterior ballistics
a. Staff c. Terminal ballistics
b. Slant d. Posterior ballistics
c. Diacritics 1831. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
d. Humps a. Trigger
b. Hammer
1818. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the c. Sear
horizontal inch. d. Main spring
a. Pica
b. Elite 1832. Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore diameter is
c. Proportional spacing machine equal to the diameter of the lead ball whose weight in
d. Adding machine pound equal to reciprocal gauge index.
1819. Developed the system of handwriting classification a. Caliber
utilized by most police departments. b. Gauge
a. Lee and Abbey c. Shot
b. Rolando Wilson d. Charge
c. Levine 1833. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a
d. Landsteiner single round lead ball.
1820. A kind of document executed by a person in authority a. Shotgun
and by private parties but notarized by competent officials. b. Rifle
a. Official document c. Musket
b. Public document d. Pistol
c. Commercial document 1834. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number
d. Private document of lead pellets in one charge.
1821. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine a. Shotgun
coin. b. Rile
a. False coin c. Musket
b. Counterfeit coin d. Pistol
c. Priceless coin 1835. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore
d. Mutilation of coin against the force of the charge.
1822. It refers to the printing surface of a type block. a. Breechblock
a. Character b. Breechface
b. Design c. Ejector
c. Pitch d. Extractor
d. Type face 1836. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be
1823. Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the withdrawn from the chamber.
writing rests. a. Breechblock
a. Base b. Breechface
b. Baseline c. Ejector
c. Foot d. Extractor
d. Staff 1837. Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.
1824. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what a. Rifling
has been effaced. b. Land
a. Decipherment c. Groove
b. Collation d. Cannelure
c. Obliteration 1838. Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.
d. Comparison a. Recoil
1825. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their b. Force
identifying characteristics. c. Backfire
a. Comparison d. Shot force
b. Collation 1839. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due
c. Conclusion to sliding friction when the bullet passes through it.
d. Examination a. Erosion
b. Rusting
c. Corrosion
1826. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed d. Decomposition
with the source of illumination behind it and the light 1840. Distance that the rifling advances to make one
passing through the paper. compete turn.
a. Transmitted light examination a. Pitch of rifling
b. Oblique photography examination b. Choke
 c. Trajectory b. Trajectory
d. Recoil c. Velocity
1841. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a d. Yaw
complete unfired unit 1856. Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on
a. Bullet fire when it is projected.
b. Primer a. Incendiary bullet
c. Gunpowder b. Ball bullet
d. All of the choices c. Tracer bullet
1842. Most common individual characteristic that are visible d. Explosive bullet
on the base portion of then fired cartridge. 1857. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from
a. Firing pin impression what particular part?
b. Ejector marks a. From land to land
c. Extractor marks b. From land to groove
d. Chamber marks c. From groove to groove
1843. Failure of cartridge to discharge. d. From groove to land
a. Misfire
b. Hang fire
c. Ricochet 1858. Revolver is distinguished from pistol by:
d. Key hole shot a. Frame
1844. Invented the gunpowder. b. Barrel
a. Chinese c. Slide assembly
b. James Forsythe d. Rotating cylinder
c. Van Amberg 1859. The term double action in a firearm means.
d. Berthold Schwartz a. Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously
1845. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition b. Manually cocks the hammer
placed into gun chamber. c. Autoloads before firing
a. Cartridge d. Double pressing of trigger
b. Primer 1860. Regarded as the father of ballistics,
c. Bullet a. Albert Osborne
d. Shell b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
1846. The measurement of the bore diameter from land to c. Hans Gross
land. d. Charles Waite
a. Gauge 1861. Raised portion between the groove found inside the
b. Mean diameter barrel.
c. Caliber a. Land
d. Riflings b. Caliber
1847. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the c. Gauge
firing of the cartridge. d. Rifling
a. Hammer 1862. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
b. Ejector a. Yaw
c. Trigger b. Trajectory
d. Firing pin c. Velocity
1848. Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet. d. Gyroscopic action
a. Breech 1863. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular
b. Ogive firearm?
c. Rim a. Rifle
d. Pitch b. Revolver
1849. A smooth bore military firearm which has no riflings. c. Pistol
a. Shotgun d. Sub-machine gun
b. Rifle 1864. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior
c. Pistol surface of the bore.
d. Revolver a. Rifling
1850. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to b. Breaching
prevent leading. c. Ogive
a. Jacketed bullet d. Swaging
b. Metal cased bullet 1865. A primer with two vents or flash holes.
c. Metal point bullet a. Bordan primer
d. Plated bullet b. Berdan primer
1851. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting c. Boxer primer
the target sideways. d. Battery primer
a. Key hole shot 1866. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are
b. Ricochet usually classified as:
c. Hang fire a. Flare guns
d. Misfire b. Zip guns
1852. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification. c. Matchlock
a. Interior d. Freakish device
b. Exterior 1867. The most reliable of all individual characteristics,
c. Terminal when fired cartridges are concerned.
d. Forensic a. Extractor marks
1853. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in b. Ejector marks
forensic ballistics. c. Chamber marks
a. 3 test bullets/shell d. Breech face marks
b. 4 test bullets 1868. It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s
c. 5 test bullets/shell failure to explode on time.
d. 6 test bullets/shell a. Misfire
1854. It refers to the placement of the right and left b. Hang fire
specimen in side by side position. c. Ricochet
a. Drag marks d. Key hole shot
b. Positively matched 1869. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily
c. Juxtaposition barrel or its lands have been worn down would produce
d. Pseudomatch what kind of markings?
1855. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight. a. Slippage marks
a. Range b. Skid marks
 c. Rifling marks c. Alphonse Bertillion
d. Shearing marks d. Dr. Hans Gross
1870. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of 1883. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges
projectiles. and pores of the hand and feet which was read before the
a. Caliper Royal Society of London.
b. Chronograph a. Nehemiah Grew
c. Test bullet b. G. Bidloo
d. Bullet recovery box c. Hintze
1871. Refers to the means of recognizing the characteristics d. Albinus
of persons so as to differentiate him from others 1884. A system of Identification best used in case of burned
a. Dactyloscopy body.
c. Identification a. Fingerprint
b. Personal b. Skeletal Identification
d. Comparison c. Odontology
1872. Considered to be first scientific method of d. Photography
Identification in person done by measuring various bony
structure of the human body.
a. Portrait-Parle 1885. The following are characteristics of man which can
b. Photography easily be changed EXCEPT?
c. Antropometry a. Hair Growth
d. Anthropometry b. Body Ornamentation
1873. 547. The following are principles in personal c. Speech
Identification, except. d. Clothing
a. Law of individuality 1886. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence recognition to the science of fingerprint?
b. Law of infallibility a. People vs. Medina
d. Law of constancy b. US vs. Jennings
1874. Which of the following personal Identification is not c. Miranda vs. Arizona
easy to change? d. West Case
a. Hair 1887. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first
b. Speech individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using
c. Dress his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering
d. personal pharapernalia with the pay order he issued.
1875. Considered to be one of the most infallible means of a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
Identification. b. Gilbert Thompson
a. DNA fingerprinting c. Capt James Parke
b. Dactyloscopy d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores
c. Fingerprint Identification 1888. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive
d. Photography examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New York
1876. Identification of person can be done either by Police Dept. and FBI.
Comparison or by____? a. Generoso Reyes
a. Exclusion b. Isabela Bernales
b. Examination c. Patricio Agustin
c. Experimentation d. Marcelo Bonifacio
d. Inclusion 1889. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is
1877. The person credited for the discovery of the two possibility for two prints to be the same it is
main layers of the friction skin. 1:63,000,000,000.
a. Alphonse Bertillion a. Francis Bacon
b. Marcelo Malpighe b. Francis Galton
c. Herman Welcker c. J.C.A. Mayer
d. J.C.A. Mayer d. Herman Welker
1878. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved 1890. The person who used the system of identification
from white jade containing the name and the thumb print which was accepted by Spanish countries.
of the owner. a. Juan Vucetich
a. Tien Chi b. Henry Faulds
b. Tein Chi c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
c. Tein Shi d. William Herschel
d. Tien Shi 1891. Is the law which states that the greater the number of
1879. He is known to be the father of personal Identification the similarity or differences the more probability for the
having devised the first scientific method of personal conclusion to be correct.
Identification. a. Law of Infallability
a. John Dellinger b. Law of Multiplicity of evidence
b. Cesare Lombroso c. Law of Permenancy
c. John F. W. Herschel d. Law of Barcelinity
d. Alphonse Bertillion 1892. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
1880. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of a. Greek word
forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change, b. French word
except for some scratches due to old age. c. Latin word
a. Herman Welcker d. English word
b. Marcelo Malpighi 1893. If screw driver is for mechanic. What is used by a
c. J.C.A. Mayer photographer?
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji A. Filter
1881. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for B. Camera
signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native. C. Firearm
a. William Herschel D. Handcuff
b. Dr. Henry Faulds 1894. Can exptert in Ballistics testify witout photograph or
c. Dr. Francis Galton demonstration?.
d. Sir Edward Henry a. Yes
1882. Is person considered to be the father of modern b. Partly Yes
fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in c. No
almost all English speaking country. d. Partly No
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry 1895. Burned document or charred document is best
b. Juan Vucetich examined by.
 a. Infrared Photography b. Photography
b. Ultraviolet Photography c. Antropometry
c. Macro Photography d. Anthropometry
d. Micro Photography 1909. The person credited for the discovery of the two main
1896. The average age of menopausal period of women to layers of the friction skin.
take place. a. Alphonse Bertillion
a. 50 yrs old b. Marcelo Malpighe
b. 45 yrs old c. Herman Welcker
c. 35 yrs old d. J.C.A. Mayer
d. 42 yrs old
1897. Mustache and beard begin to appear in male at the 1910. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved
age of. from white jade containing the name and the thumb print
a. 14-16 of the owner.
b. 13-15 a. Tien Chi
c. 16 to 18 b. Tein Chi
d. 12-14 c. Tein Shi
1898. Menstruation usually commences at the age of? d. Tien Shi
a. 14 1911. He is known to be the father of personal Identification
b. 13 having devised the first scientific method of personal
c. 16 Identification.
d. 12 a. John Dellinger
1899. In a robbery case, close up photographs must be b. Cesare Lombroso
taken to show: c. John F. W. Herschel
a. Entrance d. Alphonse Bertillion
b. Entrance and Exit 1912. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of
c. Exit forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change,
d. Either a or b except for some scratches due to old age.
1900. The development of breast in female commences at a. Herman Welcker
the age of. b. Marcelo Malpighi
a. 13 to 14 c. J.C.A. Mayer
b. 12 to 13 d. Johnnes E. Purkenji
c. 10-11 1913. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for
d. 11 to 12 signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native.
a. William Herschel
1901. In photography, when we say tripod, how many b. Dr. Henry Faulds
stands are there? c. Dr. Francis Galton
a. 2 d. Sir Edward Henry
b. 3.5 1914. He is considered to be the father of modern
c. 4 fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in
d. 5 almost all English speaking country.
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry
1902. The first police surgeon or forensic pathologist who b. Juan Vucetich
performed the autopsy of Julius Cesar. c. Alphonse Bertillion
a. Landsteinir d. Dr. Hans Gross
b. Zacchias 1915. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges
c. Antistus and pores of the hand and feet which was read before the
d. Hippocrates Royal Society of London.
1903. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a a. Nehemiah Grew
normal light. b. G. Bidloo
a. Ultra Violet Photography c. Hintze
b. Infra red photograhpy d. Albinus
c. Macro Photography 1916. A system of Identification best used in case of burned
d. Micro photography body.
1904. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the a. Fingerprint
amount of light reaching the film by varying the length of b. Skeletal Identification
time, and it is considered as the door of the camera. c. Odontology
a. Shutter d. Photography
b. lens 1917. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first
c. obscura individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using
d. view finder his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering
1905. It covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-like with the pay order he issued.
formation. a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
a. dermis b. Gilbert Thompson
b. Dermal papillae c. Capt James Parke
c. papillae d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores
d. dermal 1918. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive
1906. The morphological constituents of human hair are examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New York
cuticle, cortex and medulla, is the statement correct? Police Dept. and FBI.
a. Partly Yes a. Generoso Reyes
b. Partly No b. Isabela Bernales
c. Yes c. Patricio Agustin
d. No d. Marcelo Bonifacio
1907. It is the sensitized material that has the primary 1919. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is
function of recording the image that is focused upon it by possibility for two prints to be the same it is
the lens of the camera. 1:63,000,000,000.
E. Filter a. Francis Bacon
F. Film b. Francis Galton
G. Firearm c. J.C.A. Mayer
H. Handcuff d. Herman Welker
1908. Considered to be first scientific method of 1920. The person who used the system of identification
Identification in person done by measuring various bony which was accepted by Spanish countries.
structure of the human body. a. Juan Vucetich
a. Portrait-Parle b. Henry Faulds
 c. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. sweat duct
d. William Herschel 1934. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of
1921. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word? the friction skin (found between ridges).
a. Greek word a. Pores
b. French word b. indentions
c. Latin word c. furrows
d. English word d. duct
1922. Is the science of fingerprint study, which deals with 1935. What is the tiny openings on the skin from where
the interpretation of one’s personality? sweat is excreted?
a. Dactyloscopy a. duct
b. Dactylomancy b. furrows
c. Dactylography c. pores
d. Dactylo-analysis d. sweat glands
1923. Is an impression designed by the ridges on the inside 1936. That part of the friction skin between the epidermis
of the last joint of the fingers and thumb on some smooth and dermis layer which responsible for the ridge formation
surface with the aid of sweet or ink? a. Generating layer
a. Dactyloscopy b. Dermal papillae
b. Dactyloanalysis c. Sweat glands
c. Latent Print d. Dermis Papillary
d. Fingerprint 1937. Is the principle in the study of fingerprint which states
1924. Which of the following serves the importance of that fingerprint is a reliable and positive means of
Poroscopy? Identification?
a. For determination of whether the prints belong to a. Principle of Individuality
a young or adult person. b. Principle of Infallibility
b. For Identification of person c. Principle of Constancy
c. For determination of whether the prints was taken d. Principle of Permanency
during the lifetime or after death of a person 1938. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one
d. B and C only side of the pattern and flow to the other side with a rise or
1925. Is that parts of the friction skin which if damage will wave in the center?
constitute a permanent scar. a. Loop
a. Epidermis b. tented arch
b. Stratum corneum c. plain arch
c. Dermis d. exceptional arch
d. Stratum mucosum 1939. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it
1926. He is considered as the Father of Poroscopy. should have _______ridge count.
a. Francis Galton a. 1
b. Marcelo Malpighe b. 2
c. John Herschel c. at least 1
d. Edmond Locard d. 3
1940. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an
1927. Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across the uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the
ridges. loop?
a. Podoscopy a. Plain arch
b. Poroscopy b. central pocket loop
c. Chiroscopy c. tented arch
d. Edgeoscopy d. accidental whorl
1928. Up to what deep a cut or injury will constitute a 1941. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or
permanent scar in a normal friction skin? slanting ridges flows towards the little finger?
a. less than 1cm a. loop
b. less than 1 mm b. radial loop
c. more than 1cm c. ulnar loop
d. more than 1mm d. tented arc
1929. Considered to be one of the most notorious criminal in
U.S who attempt to destroy his friction skin with the use of 1942. A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta,
corrosive acid. recurving ridge and a ridge count of at least one.
a. John Derenger a. radial loop
b. John Dillenger b. ulnar loop
c. Robert James Pitts c. loop
d. Robert Joworski d. tented arch
1930. Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment and 1943. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more
without hair found on the palm of the hand and soles of deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry and
the feet? when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right
a. Epidermal skin delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered
b. Papillary skin as the most common type of whorl.
c. Friction a. plain whorl
d. All of the choices b. central pocket loop whorl
1931. Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer which covers c. double loop whorl
the skin? d. accidental whorl
a. Epidermis 1944. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is
b. Stratum corneum excluded in the combination?
c. Stratum Sangum a. ulnar loop
d. Stratum musocum b. plain whorl
1932. Is the scientific study of the prints of the palm of the c. tented arch
hands? d. plain arch
a. Podoscopy 1945. The core and delta are also termed as _____?
b. Chiroscopy a. inner terminus
c. Poroscopy b. outer terminus
d. Chairoscopy c. focal point
1933. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots d. pattern area
(called pores) in an inked finger impression? 1946. A point on a ridge formation, in front or near the
a. sweat pores center of the diverging typelines.
b. furrows a. Core
c. ridges b. island ridge
 c. delta b. ridge counting
d. convergence c. ridge tracking
1947. What is the rule where there are two or more possible d. ridge summing
bifurcation deltas which conform to the definition of delta? 1960. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the
a. the one nearest the core should be chosen fingerprint ink to the slab?
b. the one away from the core should be counted a. Fingerprint brush
c. the one which does not open towards the core is b. Fingerprint lifting tapes
counted c. Fingerprint roller
d. the one towards the core should be counted d. fingerprint card
1948. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously 1961. The fingerprint card used in recording the subject print
running side by side? has a size of:
a. Bifurcation a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
b. convergence b. 8” x 8”
c. divergence c. 9” x 9”
d. enclosure d. 8” x 10”
1949. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a 1962. The fingerprint card used in court exhibit the card has
period? a size of:
a. Lake a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
b. ending ridge b. 8” x 8”
c. island ridge c. 9” x 9”
d. incipient ridge d. 8” x 10”
1950. What ridge divides itself into or more branches that 1963. Is a piece of plane glass or metal where the
meets to form the original figure? fingerprint ink is distributed for fingerprinting?
a. bifurcation a. Card Holder
b. island ridge b. Fingerprint roller
c. lake ridge c. Fingerprint transfer card
d. convergence d. ink slab
1951. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the 1964. A chemical compound used in conventional
direction from which it started? developing of latent prints being one of the best methods
a. diverging ridge that can be utilized by a fingerprint technician.
b. recurving ridge a. Fingerprint powder
c. converging ridge b. Fingerprint Brush
d. bifurcation c. Fingerprint Fuming Device
1952. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge d. Inkless Inking Device
curves inward? 1965. Is an instrument used for clipping the fingerprint card
a. sufficient recurve to avoid movement of the card during printing?
b. appendage a. Card Holder
c. obstruction ridge b. Forceps
d. shoulder of loop c. Carrying Case
1953. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving d. Fingerprint card clip
ridge which has spoiled the inner line of flow from the 1966. Is a card used in recording and preserving developed
inner delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found latent print?
in the second type of central pocket loop. a. Fingerprint lifting tapes
a. bar b. Fingerprint transfer card
b. appendage c. Evidence Identification tags
c. uptrust d. Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment
d. obstruction 1967. Is the type of an impression made or printed on the
1954. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the card by individually rolling the ten fingers of the subject.
line flow above the right delta and there are three a. Latent Prints
intervening ridges. b. Rolled Impression
a. meeting whorl c. Plain Impression
b. outer whorl d. Molded Impression
c. inner whorl 1968. Is the type of impression taken simultaneously and
d. central pocket loop whorl serves as a guide in checking the proper rolling of the
1955. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular finger in the card?
ridge which is not included as a ridge count even if it has a. Rolled Impression
been cross by the imaginary line. b. Plain Impression
a. ending ridge c. Contaminated with colored substance
b. incipient ridge d. Molded Prints
c. intervening ridge
d. enclosure 1969. In taking prints of the subject the technician always
1956. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and instruct the subject to:
which resembles a fork structure a. Stand straight
a. divergence b. Cooperate
b. convergence c. Relax
c. bifurcation d. Help the technician rolling
d. enclosure 1970. One of the cardinal rule in taking of fingerprints of the
1957. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its subject is that fingers must be:
infants stage which usually starts: a. Healthy
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life b. Dry
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life c. Moisten
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life d. Oily
d. 5th to 6th months before birth 1971. In taking prints of the subject what fingers are rolled
1958. Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch. away from the body of the subjects
a. T a. Both thumbs
b. A b. All eight fingers
c. P c. All fingers including thumbs
d. W d. All fingers except the thumbs
1972. An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint cards
in taking fingerprint of a dead person
1959. It is the process of counting the ridges which a. Card holder
intervene between the delta and core of a loop? b. Spatula
a. ridge tracing c. Strip holder
 d. Forceps b. upper line of the bifurcation
1973. When taking fingers for the purpose of taking rolled c. Lower limb
impression the fingers must be inked from______ to base d. next ridge just below
of the first joint. 1986. It refers to the number of ridges that appears between
a. a. Base the tracing ridge and the right delta of a whorl pattern.
b. Tip a. Ridge Count
c. second joint b. Intervening Ridge
d. third joint c. Incipient ridge
1974. Occupational problems such as acid works, plasters, d. Ridge tracing
cement mixer usually causes weak friction skin and such 1987. A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the right is interpreted
is known as: as ____, if the left thumb has 17 ridge count.
a. Permanent Disabilities a. Small
b. Temporary Deformities b. Medium
c. Permanent Destructions c. Large
d. Deformities d. Exceptional
1975. Is the term applied to a person whose fingers are 1988. A ridge count of 17 in the left thumb is interpreted as
more than the usual number in both hands? ____ when the right thumb reaches 17.
a. Polyfinger a. Small
b. Deformities b. Large
c. Polydactyl c. Medium
d. Bidactyl d. Exceptional
1976. Is the process of placing under each pattern the letter 1989. What do you call a loop in the left thumb having a
symbols as a result of the interpretation? ridge count of 17 or more.
a. Checking a. Small
b. Identification b. Medium
c. Classification c. Large
d. Blocking d. Exceptional
1977. Three blocks after finger number 4 is what finger. 1990. What division in the fingerprint classification is derived
a. left thumb by ridge counting a loop and tracing a whorl on the thumb.
b. index finger a. Key Division
c. left index b. Final Division
d. left middle c. Major Division
1978. It is the division in the fingerprint classification which d. Secondary Division
is always represented by a numerical value depending 1991. What division in the classification is place at extreme
upon a whorl pattern appearing on each finger. right of the fingerprint card represented by a numerical
a. key division value.
b. major division a. key
c. primary division b. final
d. final division c. Major
1979. In getting the Secondary Division of a given fingerprint d. Primary
from what finger does the Capital letter is derived. 1992. Final Division is derived by getting the ridge count of a
a. thumb loop or a whorl appearing on the;
b. index a. Little Finger
c. little finger b. Thumb Finger
d. middle finger c. Index Finger
1980. The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the d. Middle Finger
numerator and the denominator in the primary division is 1993. The key Division is derived by getting the ridge count
____. of the
a. so that there will be an equal value a. ulnar Loop
b. to complete the primary div. b. Radial Loop
c. to have a complete 32 numerical value c. First Loop
d. for formality d. First Radial Loop
1981. What patterns are included in the small letter 1994. What Fingers are not included in looking for a loop in
classification under the secondary division. the key division?
a. Radial loop, plain arch and Tented arch a. Both Index
b. Rdial loop, Unar loop and Arch b. Both little
c. Radial loop, Plain Arch and Ulnar loop c. Both thumb
d. Radial Loop, Arch, and Tented Arch d. Both middle
1995. In the case of a missing one digit in the fingerprint
1982. In ridge counting a loop on the middle finger what is card of a subject, said missing finger will be interpreted as.
the classification of 14 ridge count. a. Amputated finger
a. Inner Loop b. Same as the corresponding digit of the other
b. Outer Loop hand
c. Medium c. Meeting whorl
d. Small d. Outer loop
1983. What patterns are almost always represented by a 1996. If in case that there were no loop on all fingers, how
dash in the classification formula except in the secondary will the key be obtained.
division. a. Ridge count of the first plain whorl
a. Ulnar loop and Plain Arch b. Ridge count of the first whorl
b. Whorl and Arch c. No key division to derived
c. Plain and Tented Arch d. Just indicate Dash
d. Ulnar and Whorl 1997. In the event that same fingers of both hand is missing
1984. It is a type of a whorl pattern in which when the what will be the pattern interpretation of the two missing
tracing ridge flows below the right delta and there are five fingers.
intervening ridges. a. Plain Whorl
a. Outer Whorl b. Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing
b. Meeting Whorl c. Dash
c. Inner Whorl d. Same as the pattern of the next fingers
d. Accidental Whorl
1985. In the course of tracing a whorl pattern, once the
tracing splits into two branches the tracing will proceed on 1998. It is the term applied to cases of missing or cut finger?
the: a. Mutilated finger
a. next ridge counting below the bifurcation ridge b. Amputated finger
 c. Fragmentary finger d. cacography
d. Deformities 2012. In Q.D it is the term used by some document
1999. What will be the primary Division if all fingers are examiners and attorneys to characterize known material.
amputated. a. exemplar
a. 1/1 b. evidence
b. 31/31 c. questioned
c. 32/32 d. disputed
d. 16/16 2013. In Q.D it is the term used when a person having the
2000. What division will be left blank in the classification ability to write with both left and right.
formula if all fingers are missing? a. cacography
a. Major and Final Division b. calligraphy
b. Key and Major Division c. calcography
c. Major and sub-secondary d. ambidextrous
d. key and final Division 2014. Which of the following are NOT considered as the
2001. Menstruation usually commences at the age of? secondary colors, EXCEPT.
a. 14 a. yellow
b. 13 b. Blue
c. 16 c. Green
d. 12 d. Red
2002. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an 2015. An interruption in a stroke caused by removing the
uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the writing instrument from the paper is called..
loop? a. pen emphasis
a. Plain arch b. pen pressure
b. tented arch c. pen jump
c. central pocket loop d. pen lift
d. accidental whorl 2016. The term document came from latin word
2003. Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene “documentum”, which means.
between the delta and core of a loop? a. write
a. ridge tracing b. to teach
b. ridge counting c. lesson
c. ridge tracking d. paper
d. ridge summing
2004. In assigning the numerical value of whorl pattern, 2017. It is the extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal
what finger should be given a value of 4 when a whorl stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the pen from the
pattern appears therein: paper ( usually applicable to the fountain pen). a.
a. left little finger and right thumb whirl
b. right thumb and left little finger b. knob
c. right little finger and left thumb c. sour
d. left thumb and right d. loop
2005. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all
the fingers of the left hand are loops, what will be the 2018. The portrait printed in the 20 peso-bill is
primary division? a. Manuel Quezon
a. 25/29 b. Emilio Aguinaldo
c. 24/28 c. Segio Osmena
b. 29/25 d. Apolinario Mabini
d. 28/24
2006. What would be the secondary division if all the fingers 2019. The only security features that the BSP was portrait in
at right hand are plain arches while all the left hand fingers the new 500 and 1,000 peso bill is.
are tented arches? a. optically variable ink
b. optical device
a. aA3a/tT3T c. optical ink
c. A2a/tT2t d. optically variable device
b. aT3a/aA3t
d. tT3t/aA3a 2020. It is Embossed “1000” denominated value at the lower
2007. What division in the formula classification is left blank right corner of the face of the note changes color from
if all fingers are amputated? green to blue when viewed at different angles
a. Major and key a. optically variable ink
b. key and final b. optical device
c. Key and primary c. optical ink
d. final and major d. optically variable device
2008. The word Photography was coined by _____? 2021. What changes of color of the parrot in 500 peso bill
a. John F. W. Herschel and the clam in 1000 peso when the note is rotated at 90
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre degrees?
c. Henry Fox Talbot a. blue to green
d. Leonardo Da Venci b. green to blue
2009. What color will produced if r RED and BLUE colors c. red to green
are combined each other? d. green to red
a. magenta 2022. The new banknote of the BSP is made of what kind of
c. yellow paper.
b. cyan a. abaca-cotton
d. Green b. plastic-polymer
c. abaca
2010. Which of the following are NOT considered as the d. cotton
primary colors, EXCEPT. 2023. The portrait printed in the 200 peso-bill is
a. yellow a. Diosdado P Macapagal
b. Blue b. Emilio Aguinaldo
c. Green c. Segio Osmena
d. Red d. Apolinario Mabini
2011. The act of attempting to interpret the character or 2024. How many security features are there in the new 500
personality of an individual from his handwriting. peso bill?
a. paleography a. 8
b. collation b. 9
c. graphology c. 7
 d. 6 a. Owner of the firearm
2025. How many security features are there in the new 1000 b. Model of the firearm
peso bill? c. Caliber and types of the firearm
a. 8 d. Manufacture
b. 9 2039. . That science which deals with the motion of the
c. 7 projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to
d. 6 the time it hits the target is known as:
2026. The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that measures a. Terminal ballistics
the pitch of rifling is: b. Interior ballistics
a. Chronograph c. Exterior ballistics
b. Helixometer d. Forensic ballistics
c. Micrometer 2040. That science dealing with the effect of the impact of
d. Taper gauge the projectile on target is called:
2027. A magnified photograph of a small object produced by a. Exterior ballistics
connecting a camera with the ocular of a compound b. Interior ballistics
microscope is: c. Anterior ballistics
a. Photomacrograph d. Terminal ballistics
b. Microphotograph
c. Photomicrograph 2041. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal
d. Photography drugs?
2028. A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is a. Lot Lizards
smaller than the diameter of the body of the case: b. Hookers
a. Rimmed cartridge c. Skeezers
b. Rebated cartridge d. Hustler
c. Tapered cartridge 2042. It is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She
d. Rimless cartridge is usually a newcomer in the business?
2029. . If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the a. Door knocker
lands have been worn down or through a bore is slightly b. Street walker
oversize or oily, the marks are called: c. Call girl
a. Skid marks d. skeezers
b. Slippage marks 2043. are the real professional type of prostitutes. She
c. Rifling marks works in regular houses of prostitution or brothels?
d. Shearing marks a. Door knocker
2030. When two specimens are compared under the b. Street walker
comparison microscope at the same direction, the same c. Call Girl
level, the same magnification and the same image, they d. Factory Girl
are called: 2044. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their
a. Positively match own legitimate work or profession but works as a
b. Pseudo match prostitutes to supplement their income?
c. Juxtaposition a. Door knocker
d. Drag marks b. Street walker
2031. In the United States, crimes are committed by c. Call Girl
juveniles using home-made weapons generally referred to d. Factory Girl
as: 2045. The following countries which comprises the Golden
a. Freakish device Triangle, EXCEPT.
b. Zip guns a. Vietnam
c. Matchlock b. Thailand
d. Flare guns c. Myanmar
2032. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from: d. Laos
a. Revolver 2046. Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or long
b. Pistol term partner repeatedly?
c. Rifle
d. Pistol & Revolver a. philander
2033. . A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of: b. prostitution
a. 730” c. philandering
b. 728” d. prostitute
c. 729” 2047. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to
d. 724” female customers?
2034. A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted into a. gigolo
the chamber of firearm for firing is referred to as: b. pimps
a. Bullet c. callboy
b. Shell d. Johns
c. Primer 2048. A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag
d. Cartridge factor of 0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6 meters, what is
2035. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a the approximate speed of the said vehicle when involved
combination of: in accident. .
a. Pitch a. 64 kms./hour
b. Twist b. 54 kms./hour
c. Lands & grooves c. 46 km.s/hour
d. Cannelures d. 45 kms./hour
2036. Class characteristics are determinable 2049. This method of identification depends on the ability of
even: the witness to describe the person seen committing the
a. During crime.
b. After a. Verbal description
c. Before b. Photographic files
d. Never the manufactures of the firearm c. Police line up
2037. The caliber is determined with the aid of: d. General photograph
a. Combined microscope
b. Micrometer
c. Macrometer
d. Manufacturer of the firearm 2050. Criminals whose identity may be established
2038. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the background identification.
crime scene will request the ballistician to determine: a. Known criminals
 b. Unknown criminals d. Investigation
c. Convicted criminals 2064. Special crime investigation is more concerned on:
d. Unidentified criminals a. Physical evidence
2051. Compilation of known criminals available from police b. Tracing evidence
files and records. c. Testimonial evidence
a. Rouge gallery d. Associative evidence
b. General photograph 2065. Is a person who provides an investigator with
c. Police blotter confidential information concerning a past or
d. Modus operandi files projected crime and does not wish to be known as
2052. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is a source of information.
necessary. a. Informants
a. Loose tail b. Witness
b. Rough shadowing c. Informers
c. Close tail d. Confidential informants
d. None of the foregoing 2066. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to
2053. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence divulge information.
is: a. Interview
a. Place it in a pill box and label it b. Interrogation
b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining c. Investigation
c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it d. All of the foregoing
d. Tag it with a label 2067. A compilation of photographs of known criminals,
2054. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an utilized in investigation for identifying suspects in a crime.
interrogation room must be: a. Photographic file
a. With no windows or views b. 201 file
b. There should only be one door c. Rogue gallery
c. It must be sound proof d. Cartographic sketch
d. All of the choices 2068. This is an element of crime commission wherein one
2055. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have is induced to commit the crime.
great knowledge of the case and is preferable when the a. Motive
subject is not the talkative type. b. Intent
a. Narrative type c. Opportunity
b. Question and answer type d. Deceit
c. Stern type 2069. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate
d. Simple interrogation the power of suggestion as a factor in identification as a
2056. What should the investigator do to protect while in procedure how many persons is needed in such a line-up?
transport those collected evidence from the crime scene? a. 3 to 5
a. Seal it b. 5 to 7
b. Mark it c. 7 to 10
c. Pack it properly d. 10 to 15
d. Label it 2070. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could
2057. Shadowing has the following purposes, except: have committed the crime.
a. To detect evidences of criminal activities a. Motive
b. To establish association of a suspect b. Intent
c. To locate wanted persons c. Opportunity
d. None of the foregoing d. Deceit
2058. “A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to the 2071. Motive in giving information wherein the
latter, as “A” pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and “B” informant delights in giving information to gain
managed to escape. This is an example of: favorable attention from the police.
a. Attempted felony a. Competition
b. Frustrated felony b. Repentance
c. Consummated felony c. Vanity
d. Consummated felony d. Jealousy
2059. Kind of recognition whereby the description and 2072. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s
characteristics maybe vague that identification is difficult. habits and associate are required.
a. Known fugitives a. Surveillance
b. Professional criminals b. Loose tail shadowing
c. Ordinary criminals c. Rough shadowing
d. Unknown fugitives d. Close tail shadowing
2073. More advantageous because it permits immediate
2060. The methods of determining and finding the changes of men and less likely to be recognized.
best way to remedy the specific cause or causes a. One man shadow
of the complaint or grievance refers to: b. Two man shadow
a. Cross examination c. Three man shadow
b. Grievance procedures d. ABC method
c. Investigative procedure 2074. In this method of search, the searchers proceed
d. Criminal procedures slowly at the same pace along the path parallel to one side
2061. A type of informant reveals information usually of no of the rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the searcher
consequence of stuff produced from thin air. turns and proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to
a. False informant the first movement.
b. Double-crosser informant a. Zone method
c. Mercenary informant b. Strip method
d. Frightened informant c. Spiral method
2062. Clandestine operation in police parlance. d. Wheel method
a. Covert intelligence 2075. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into
b. Secret activity quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each quadrant.
c. Over intelligence a. Zone method
d. Surveillance b. Strip method
2063. It is an art which deals with the identity and c. Spiral method
location of the offender and provides evidence of d. Wheel method
his guilt through criminal proceeding. 2076. The surroundings of the crime scene must be
a. Information photograph to show the relative location and distances.
b. Interrogation a. Environmental photograph
c. Instrumentation b. Physical reconstruction
 c. Overview a. Dashboard
d. Over-all photograph b. Door handles
2077. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No c. Steering wheel
scale, proportion ignored and everything is approximate. d. Rear view mirror
a. Sketch 2091. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to
b. Draft the law enforcers in order to get more information from them
c. Rough sketch than he gives.
d. Finished sketch a. Double-crosser informants
2078. Most common reason in discharging informants b. Mercenary informants
a. Burn out c. False informants
b. Too expensive to maintain d. Self-aggrandizing informants
c. Lack of loyalty 2092. That profession and scientific discipline directed to the
d. Reprehensible behavior recognition, identification, individualization and evaluation of
2079. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects. physical science by application of natural sciences in matters
a. Stylus of law and science.
b. Pen a. Chemist
c. Ink b. Scientist
d. Chalk c. Criminalistics
2080. A form of investigation in which an investigator d. Toxicologist
assumes a different and unofficial identity. 2093. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are
a. Tailing committed in one place.
b. Shadowing a. Local crimes
c. Surveillance b. Local action
d. Roping c. Transitory crimes
2081. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk. d. Transitory action
a. Narrative type 2094. The number of persons who handle the pieces of
b. Interrogation type evidence from the scene of the crime and between the times
c. Question and answer type of the commission up to final disposition of cases.
d. Stern type
2082. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty a. Time custody
of a person taken into custody. b. Time disposition
a. Protective custody c. Time disposal
b. Detaining for questioning d. Chain of custody
c. Police restraint
d. All of the choices 2095. A declaration made under the consciousness of an
2083. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime impending death.
scene as well as the objects, what naturally occurred and a. Part of res gestate
what were the circumstances of the crime. b. Dying Declaration
a. Crime scene c. Confession
b. Physical reconstruction d. admission
c. Mental reconstruction 2096. Principles of science applied to law enforcement.
d. Reconstruction of the crime a. Instrumentation
b. Forensic
2084. Paid informants c. Legal medicines
a. Anonymous informants d. Criminology
b. Rival elimination informants 2097. Evidence which offers least resistance to
c. False informants decomposition
d. Mercenary informants a. Blood
2085. Most common type of shadowing. b. Semen
a. One man shadow c. Saliva
b. Two man shadow d. Hair
c. Three man shadow 2098. The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest
d. Rough shadow physical surroundings.
2086. Ar a. Finished sketch
ticles and materials which are found in connection with the b. Sketch of details
investigation and which aid in establishing the identity of the c. Sketch of locality
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was d. Sketch of grounds
committed or which, in general assist in the prosecution of 2099. The explanation of any symbols used to identify
the criminal. objects in a sketch.
a. Tracing evidence a. Compass direction
b. Corpus delicti b. Title
c. Associative evidence c. Legend
d. Physical or material evidence d. Scale
2087. Instrumental detection of deception 2100. Such articles and evidences which assists the
a. Ballistic test investigator in locating the suspect.
b. Fingerprint test a. Physical evidence
c. Questioned document test b. Material evidence
d. Polygraph testing c. Associative evidence
2088. When the subject is in prone position what type of d. Tracing evidence
search should be implemented. 2101. Objects or substances which are essential part of the
a. Kneeling search body of the crime.
b. Standing search a. Corpus delicti
c. Floor search b. Physical evidences
d. Wall search c. Material evidences
2089. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the d. Associative evidences
arrest. To discover weapons or evidences and determine the 2102. The primary consideration in transporting evidences.
identity of the suspects. a. Markings should be placed
a. Preliminary search of a person b. Proper turnover must be observed
b. Wall search c. Avoid altering contents
c. Standing search d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in
d. Floor search transit
2090. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an 2103. General rule in handling pieces of evidence
automobile, which has been stolen and abandoned. a. MAC rule
 b. Right of way rule 2116. Taking into custody property described in the search
c. Last clear chance rule warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence
d. None of the choices in a case.
2104. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained a. Seizure
areas are usually encircled. What is the primary b. Detention
objective? c. Safekeeping
a. To show points of interest d. Confiscation
b. To have proper marking 2117. A method of criminal identification whereby
c. To avoid contamination the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals
d. To prevent alterations are identified by depiction.
2105. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve a. Verbal description
the specimen? b. General photographs
a. Formaldehyde c. Police line up
b. Saline solution d. Rouge gallery
c. Alcohol 2118. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
d. Distilled water a. Sprinkler
2106. It is the surprise invasion of building or an area. b. Fire pump
a. Assault c. Fire hose
b. Attack d. Hydrant key
c. Raid
d. Surveillance
2107. Primary requisite for conducting raids. 2119. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a
a. Search warrant result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid
b. Raiding team drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.
c. Firearms a. Dust
d. Back-up personnel b. Oxidizing material
2108. A public officer when not being authorized by c. Pyrolysis
judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the will d. Cryogenic
of the owner thereof is committing: 2120. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at
a. Legal entry which vapors are evolved fast enough to support
b. Violation of domicile continuous combustion.
c. Trespassing a. Ignition temperature
d. Illegal entry b. Kindling temperature
2109. A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his c. Fire point
constitutional rights namely: d. Flash point
a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on him. 2121. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a
b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty vapor-air mixture that ignites.
c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and the right a. Ignition temperature
to be informed of such rights. b. Kindling temperature
d. The right to face his accuser in public trial c. Fire point
d. Flash point
2110. A type of informant reveals information usually of no 2122. Minimum temperature in which the substance
consequences of stuff concocted of thin air. in the air must be heated in order to initiate or
a. False informant cause a self-contained combustion without the
b. Mercenary informant addition of heat from outside sources.
c. Double crosser informant a. Boiling point
d. Self-aggrandizing informant b. Ignition temperature
2111. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are c. Fire point
committed in many places. d. Flash point
a. Local crime 2123. An exothermic chemical change in which a
b. Local action combustible material react with an oxidizing agent.
c. Transitory crime a. Thermal balance
d. Transitory action b. Thermal imbalance
c. Combustion
2112. The primary job of an investigator is to determine d. Oxidation
whether a crime has been committed, in order to 2124. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
determine such, he must have knowledge of the so-called a. Pyrolysis
cardinal questions of investigation. How many cardinal b. Combustion
questions are there? c. Detonation
a. Three d. All of the foregoing
b. Four 2125. A chemical decomposition of matter through the
c. Five action of heat.
d. Six a. Pyrolysis
2113. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of b. Combustion
transportation by stealing the vehicle and providing plate on c. Detonation
it. d. Oxidation
a. Drivers 2126. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area
b. Ripper of the material with unit temperature gradient.
c. Wheelman a. Conduction
d. Rover b. Thermal conductivity
2114. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to c. Radiation
facilitate proper sketch orientation. d. Fission
a. Proper north 2127. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through
b. True north space or materials as waves.
c. Legend a. Conduction
d. Compass direction b. Convection
2115. A search method in which the searchers follow each c. Radiation
other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside d. Fission
proceeding toward the center. 2128. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose
a. Zone method with a motive.
b. Wheel method a. Providential fire
c. Spiral method b. Accidental fire
d. Strip method c. Intentional fire
 d. None of the foregoing d. Gas
2129. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in 2143. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating
the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788. medium either gas or a liquid.
a. Arson a. Conduction
b. Providential fire b. Convection
c. Accidental fire c. Radiation
d. None of the foregoing d. Fission
2130. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, 2144. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire. a. Specific heat
a. Nitrogen b. Latent heat
b. Hydrogen c. Heat of Combustion
c. Oxygen d. Heat of fusion
d. Neon 2145. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or
2131. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
start a fire. a. Carbon black
a. Fuel b. Lamp black
b. Oxygen c. Soot
c. Heat d. Black bone
d. None of the choices 2146. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed
2132. Refers to gases liberated by heat. vapor as a result of combustion.
a. Free radicals a. Fire
b. Flash point b. Flame
c. Thermal balance c. Heat
d. Thermal imbalance d. Smoke
2133. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke 2147. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.
and fire gases within a building or structure under natural a. Fire
conditions. b. Flame
a. Free radicals c. Heat
b. Pyrolysis d. Smoke
c. Thermal balance 2148. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been
d. Thermal imbalance contained.
2134. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its a. Backdraft
destructive capabilities is developed. b. Flashover
a. Initial phase c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
b. Incipient phase d. Falling debris
c. Free burning phase 2149. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames
d. Smoldering phase indicates the burning of what material?
2135. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates. a. Rubber
a. The fire triangle b. Nitrogen products
b. The fingerprint of the fire c. Asphalt singles
c. Flashover d. Chlorine
d. Incipient phase of the fire 2150. Which among the following is commonly used in fire
2136. An occurrence when the heat has brought the resistant materials?
combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition a. Asbestos
temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or b. Diamond
shooting forth light and flames. c. Asphalt
a. Flashover d. Cotton
b. Backdraft 2151. A form of static electricity of great magnitude
c. Thermal balance producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the
d. Thermal imbalance most common cause of providential fires.
2137. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, a. Rays of the sun
it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen. b. Spontaneous heating
a. Flashover c. Arcing
b. Backdraft d. Lighting
c. Thermal balance 2152. Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
d. Thermal imbalance a. Smoking
2138. Which among the following is the primary objective in b. Arcing
investigating fires? c. Sparkling
a. To determine its cause d. Overloading
b. To prevent recurrence 2153. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within
c. To determine liable persons the room or throughout the structure.
d. All of the foregoing a. Accelerant
2139. Reason why fire investigation is unique. b. Plants
a. It does not conform with regular investigative c. Trailer
procedure d. Wick
b. Unavailability of witnesses 2154. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a
c. Fire destroys evidence contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
d. All of the foregoing a. Accelerant
2140. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God. b. Plants
a. Providential c. Trailer
b. Accidental d. Wick
c. Intentional 2155. Most common reason of arson cases.
d. Incendiarism a. Revenge
2141. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat b. Profit
and oxygen. c. Competition
a. Fire d. All of the foregoing
b. Origin of fire 2156. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
c. Fire triangle a. Spontaneous heating
d. All of the foregoing b. Combustible gases
2142. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns. c. Combustible dust
a. Fuel d. None of the choices
b. Heat 2157. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials
c. Oxygen to start a fire.
 a. Plants d. All of the foregoing
b. Trailers 2171. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance
c. Accelerants when it changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
d. Wick a. Calorie
2158. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard. b. Latent heat
a. Abatement c. Thermal heat
b. Combustion d. Specific heat
c. Allotment 2172. Refers to gases that remain when the products of
d. Distillation combustion are cooled to normal temperature.
2159. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry a. Fire gases
materials with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly b. Combustion gases
known as: c. Oxidation gases
a. Black bone d. Flame
b. Used petroleum 2173. Fires caused by human error and negligence.
c. Soot a. Providential fires
d. Black iron b. Intentional fires
2160. The use of more electrical devices which draw or c. Accidental fires
consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of d. Incendiarism
the existing electrical system. 2174. Primary component of wood
a. Overloading a. Fiber
b. Jumper b. Cellulose
c. Wire tapping c. Carbon
d. Arcing d. Pulp
2161. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% 2175. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern
of the assessed value of the building: or fingerprint of fire is developed.
a. Schools a. Incipient phase
b. Department stores b. Initial phase
c. Hospitals c. Free burning phase
d. Single family dwellings d. Smoldering phase
2162. Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to 2176. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the
floor, as well as from the base to top of the building. flame and carbon monoxide builds up in volume.
a. Standpipe system a. Incipient
b. Sprinkler system b. Initial phase
c. Vertical shaft c. Free burning phase
d. Flash point d. Smoldering phase
2163. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire 2177. Most effective way of regulating vices.
resistance rating of not less than four hours with structural a. Continued police action by relentless drives in
stability to remain standing even if the adjacent construction vice control
collapses under fire conditions: b. Sincere and honest law enforcement
a. Post wall c. Both a and b
b. Fire trap d. None of the choices
c. Fire wall 2178. Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive
d. Firewood intake of alcoholic beverages develops physical and
2164. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local psychological changes and dependence to alcohol.
government for any particular establishment. a. Alcoholics
a. Fire service b. Liquor addicts
b. Fire safety inspection c. Drunkard
c. Fire drill d. Chronic alcoholics
d. Fire protection assembly 2179. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which
2165. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to contains alcohol.
another. a. Liquor
a. Radiation b. Wine
b. Convection c. Booze
c. Conduction d. Vodka
d. Fission 2180. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of
2166. The active principle of burning characterized by the ill-refute whereby the business of prostitution is conducted.
heat and light of combustion. a. Operator
a. Oxidation b. Banker
b. Flash point c. Mama
c. Smoldering d. Pimp
d. Fire 2181. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse
2167. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the with another for hire.
reaction takes place. a. Prostitute
a. Endothermic reactions b. Whores
b. Exothermic reactions c. Knockers
c. Oxidation d. All of the foregoing
d. Combustion 2182. The procurement and transportation of women from
2168. Product of an incomplete combustion. far flung places for immoral purposes.
a. Soot a. White slavery
b. Charring b. Prostitution
c. Ashes c. Organized crimes
d. All of foregoing d. All of the foregoing
2169. Color of a luminous flame. 2183. This place usually lodges several number of factory girls
a. Orange-blue or professional prostitutes under the control of an organized
b. Blue crime ring.
c. Yellow a. Disorderly houses
d. Red b. Furnished room houses
2170. Refers to the amount of heat released during c. Call houses
complete oxidation whereby the organic fuel is converted d. Massage clinics
to water and carbon dioxide. 2184. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the
a. Heat of combustion means with which to carry on the gambling game.
b. Calorific value a. Maintainer
c. Fuel value b. Conductor
 c. Banker 2199. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical
d. Operator name is “Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”.
2185. Anti gambling law a. Chomper
a. PD 1869 b. Ecstacy
b. PD 1612 c. Shabu
c. PD 1602 d. Heroin
d. PD 1866 2200. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to
2186. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except circumvent legal restrictions.
a. Broken families a. Designer drugs
b. Poverty b. Hallucinogens
c. Anonymity of city life c. Amphetamines
d. All of the choices d. Methamphetamines
2187. Refers to a person having no apparent means of 2201. A law which prohibits government officials to enter
subsistence. and gamble in Philippine casinos.
a. Gambler a. PD 1602
b. Prostitute b. PD 1869
c. Vagrants c. PD 510
d. None of the foregoing d. PD 483
2188. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white 2202. Office that controls and regulates gambling.
slave trade. a. PAGCOR
a. Prision correctional b. PCGG
b. Prison mayor c. PACC
c. Reclusion temporal d. PNP
d. Reclusion perpetua 2203. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among
2189. A person who manages or carries a gambling game. persons who have paid or agreed to pay a valuable
a. Maintainer consideration for the chance to obtain a prize.
b. Conductor a. Gambling
c. Banker b. Sport
d. Operator c. Lottery
2190. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to d. All of the choices
maintain the same effect. 2204. A bet or consideration placed on gambling games.
a. Tolerance a. Wage
b. Physical dependence b. Wager
c. Poly drug abuse c. Prize
d. Drug experimenter d. Banker
2191. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of 2205. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much
potent Cannabis Sativa. as 25% of the substance:
a. Marijuana a. Hashish
b. Hashish b. Codeine
c. Opium c. Morphine
d. Morphine d. Heroin
2192. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning 2206. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of
sleep, what is the other term given to narcotics? stimulants known as:
a. Opium a. Crank
b. Opiates b. Pep pills
c. Morphine c. Knock-out drops
d. Heroin d. Stick
2193. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana. 2207. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol prohibited and regulated drugs.
b. Cannabis sativa a. DDB
c. Papaver somniferum b. NBI
d. Methamphetamine c. PACC
2194. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily d. PNP
used as: 2208. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor,
a. Pain killer melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions.
b. Cough reliever a. Narcotics
c. Stimulant b. Stimulants
d. Depressant c. Depressants
2195. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the d. Hallucinogens
DDB? 2209. Chemical substance which effects a person in such a
a. Secretary of Justice way as to bring out physiological, behavioral or emotional
b. Secretary of National Defense change.
c. Secretary of Education a. Alcohol
d. Secretary of Health b. Coca leaf
2196. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking c. Drug
drug, it was brought to the Philippines by a Japanese d. Marijuana
tourist. 2210. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying
a. Marijuana emotions, thought disruption and ego distortion.
b. Cocaine a. Depressants
c. Shabu b. Tranquilizers
d. Opium c. Hallucinogens
2197. The most potent derivative from opium. d. Stimulants
a. Codeine 2211. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which
b. Cocaine leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind
c. Morphine and body.
d. Heroin a. Abuse
2198. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in b. Vice
Bolivia and first used by the Incas of Peru. c. Addiction
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol d. Gambling
b. Papaver somniferum 2212. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock
c. Amphetamine owners and other bettors.
d. Erythroxylon coca a. Promoter
b. “Cristo”
 c. Banker A. interview
d. Gambler C. interrogation
2213. Most common problem encountered by the police in B. information
vice control measures: D. instrumentation
a. Unwillingness of government officials to work 2226. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be
against vices shown in order to obtain conviction?
b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices A. intent
c. Public apathy B.desire
d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts C. motive
2214. The process of undergoing or producing gradual D. opportunity
chemical change which later becomes sour or alcoholic. 2227. Information gathered upon initiative of the investigator
a. Distillation from informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and others.
b. Fermentation A. Grapevine Sources
c. Ionization B. Cultivated Sources
d. Purification C.Regular Sources
2215. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes D.Cognitive interview
argumentative and over confident. 2228. What interrogation techniques when the investigator
a. Slight inebration indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a
b. Moderate inebration grave offense.
c. Drunk A. Sympathetic Appeal
d. Coma B. Mutt and Jeff
2216. This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on C Extenuation
conversion and fellowship. D. Emotional Appeal
a. Aversion treatment 2229. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject
b. Psychotherapy method falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt.
c. Withdrawal method
d. Program of alcoholic anonymous a. Confession
2217. Oldest profession known to man which involves b. Extra-Judicial Confession
habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for money or c. Admission
profit. d. Judicial Confession
a. Gambling
b. Prostitution 2230. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known
c. Addiction criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places and names
d. All of the foregoing of associate criminals.
2218. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution a. Physical Line-up
to supplement their income. b. Physical Show-up
a. Call girls c. Geographic Sketch
b. Factory girls d. Rogues Gallery
c. Hustler 2231. It is the general questioning of all persons at the crime
d. Door knocker scene/ traffic accident, no need to recite the Miranda
doctrine
2219. Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent A. Custodial Investigation
legitimate roomers to maintain an appearance of B. Interview
responsibility. C. Field Inquiry
a. Disorderly houses D. Interrogation
b. Furnished room houses 2232. It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is committed and
c. Call houses is established by a series of crimes under one
d. Massage clinics classification.
2220. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the A. Modus Operandi
world originated is located specifically in: B. Modes of Operation
a. Thailand-Burma-China border C. Methods of Operation
b. Laos-Thailand-China border D. Pattern of Operation
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border 2233. It refers to a person who gives information relevant to
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border a criminal case about the activities of the criminals
2221. Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made voluntarily to the investigator and who may even be willing
from Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal to be a witness.
altering ingredient. Which among the following is A. Informant
not an immediate effect of weed? B. Informer
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate C. Mercenary
b. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration D. Women
c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external fear of 2234. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will
losing control proceed at the same place along the path parallel to one
d. Altered sense of time/disorientation side of the rectangle.
2222. A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South A. Wheel search method
American shrub. It is a central nervous system stimulant. B.Quadrant Search
a. Marijuana C. Spiral search method
b. Shabu D. Strip Search
c. Cocaine 2235. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence
d. Opiates in court; it should be taken from ____.
2223. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly A. General View
upon chance or hazard. C. Close-up view
a. Gambling B. Mid-range
b. Sports D. General to Specific
c. Tupada 2236. It is the simplest and most effective way of showing
d. All of the above actual measurements and of identifying significant items of
2224. Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is evidence in their location at the scene.
difficult to control is that: A. Sketch
a. The big demand B. Rough Sketch
b. The plant can be easily cultivated C. Final Sketch
c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country D. Finish Sketch
d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously 2237. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the
2225. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is crime and its environs, including neighboring buildings,
reluctant to divulge information? roads, etc.?
 a. Sketch of Locality where the evidence custodian receives the evidence
b. Sketch of Environs collected during crime scene investigation?
c. Sketch of the Ground A. crime scene
d. Sketch in Details C. fixed post
2238. Elements of the Sketch: B. command post
a. Measurement and compass direction D. reception area
b. Essential items and scale of proportion 2249. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team
c. Legend and title leader performs the following duties, EXCEPT:
d. All of the choices a. Takes down note to document important factors
2239. During a custodial investigation, Jayson was b. Makes a general assessment of the crime scene
subjected to physical harm by continuously kicking and c. Photograph the crime scene before walking
punching him in the stomach so that the same may through the crime scene
confess. d. Defines the extent of search area
A. Coercion 2250. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the
B. Physical torture crime scene?
C. Duress a. To determine whether or not the processing has
D. Verbal threats been completed.
2240. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled to b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police.
the benefits of Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code shall c. To check all evidence gathered from the crime
suffer the penalty of: scene.
A. Reclusion perpetua d. To determine whether there is a need to request
B. Death for additional personnel
C. Reclusion temporal 2251. After the conduct of final survey by the team leader to
D. Destierro whom will the crime scene be turned over?
2241. The Unit now charged with conducting field operation A. Chief of Police
and technical investigation at the crime scene is: B. PCP Commander
a. PNP Crime Laboratory C. Investigator-on-case
b. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group D. owner of the place
c. Scene of the Crime Operation 2252. Are all physical evidence found and collected at the
d. Crime Scene Investigation crime scene to be transported to the Crime Laboratory?
a. Yes, because they were collected for
2242. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive at the examination
scene of a shooting incident. he saw the victim lying on b. Yes, because the Investigator is not allowed to
the pavement sustaining multiple gun shot wounds, but take custody of evidence
still moving. What is the proper course of action he should c. No, because the SOCO Team has no authority to
take? bring the evidence to the Crime Laboratory if the
a. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO team to investigator did not request
arrive d. No, only those which require further laboratory
b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the examination will be transported.
crime scene and assist him with the 2253. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly
situation. documented and locations of evidence was noted, the
C. Call the investigator and inquire collection process begins and will usually start with –
about his decision concerning the victim. A. point of exit
D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the B. fragile evidence
nearest hospital. C. large objects
2243. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____ D. removal of cadaver
a. the property taken 2254. Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene?
b. the fact that the crime was committed A. Chief Investigator
c. anything of value B. Team Leader
d. Intent of the suspect C. Chief of Police
2244. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical D. Investigator-on-case
representation must indicate the ____ direction for proper 2255. This is produced by forcible contact on the body by
orientation of the scene. sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives, and broken
A. North glasses:
B. West A. Incised wound
C. East B. Punctured wound
D. South C. Stab wound
2245. The following are the rules to be observed when D. Lacerated wound
intervening a witness, EXCEPT: 2256. What is the means of identifying physical evidence in
a. allow implied answer which the investigator inscribe initial date and time
b. saving faces directly?
c. one question at a time A. marking
d. avoid leading questions B. labeling
2246. In case there is no other available means of C. tagging
establishing the age of the offender, what should be done D. none of these
if he claims that he is still a minor? 2257. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a
a. Do not listen to his claim because probably he is evidence should be marked where ____.
already of majority age. A. At the tip of the blade
b. Wait for the court to determine the age of the B. At the frame
offender C. At the base
c. Resolve the issued in favor of the declarant D. At the handle
d. Ask the social worker to determine the age of the 2258. What may be added to blood to preserve for a week?
offender A. Sodium Chloride
2247. 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident B. Sodium Fluoride
shall have the following duties, EXCEPT: C. Sodium Dioxide
a. Record the date and time the report was made D. NONE
b. Immediately respond to the crime scene 2259. What is the most important part of the hair?
c. Made a synopsis of the incident A. Follicle
d. Inform his superior officer or duty officer B. Medulla
regarding the report C. Root
2248. What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene D. All of these
where the briefing is to be conducted and also the place 2260. What is the minimum number of hair strands is
needed?
 A. 10 strands c. Information identifies witnesses that will lead to
B. 30 to 60 strands the suspect
C. 120 strands d. None of these
D. unlimited 2272. Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a hit-
2261. Mummification is a condition of arrested and-run may be particularly useful in the investigation
decomposition due to the absence of moisture. It is process because the year and make of the car involved
common in hot dry conditions, usually takes ___ to form. may be determinable. The paint chips evidence collected
A. 3 months should be ideally placed on?
B. 1 month a. Clear plastic envelope
C. 6 months b. Clear plastic container
D. 1 year c. Small plastic bag
2262. A dead body was found and there is already d. Cotton
presence of maggots, it indicates that the dead body was 2273. Which of the following is the primary source of
at least ___. evidence?
A. 2 days A. victim
B. 5 days B. crime scene
C. 3 days C. suspect
D. 1 week D. all of these
2263. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave 2274. Which among the following is an essential element of
for the conduct of medical examination: parricide?
A. Inhumation a. by means of treachery
B. Exhumation b. relationship of the offender with the victim
C. Autopsy c. relationship of the offender with the witness
D. Interment d. age of the victim
2264. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of 2275. In crime scene investigation, who determines its
the following entry/exit?
a. The actual cause of death of the victim A. the prober
b. The actual killer of the victim B. SOCO
c. The modus operandi involved C. COP
d. The motive behind killing D. First responded
2265. 41. The method used to support a likely sequence of 2276. After developing the latent print found at the crime
events by the observation and evaluation of physical scene, it is best to lift it first then take photographs as a
evidence, as well as statement made by those involved back record, is it a correct practice and do you agree with
with the incident: the prober?
A. yes
a. Crime Scene Reconstruction B. no
b. Physical reconstruction C. maybe
c. Mental reconstruction D. It depends
d. Any of the above 2277. What would be the best camera position in taking
2266. The purposes of a crime scene search are the photographs showing a view of what a witness might have
following, EXCEPT: seen?
a. To identify the method of operation a. at 6 foot distance from the camera man
b. To analyze physical evidence b. parallel to the subject witness
c. To reduce the number of suspects c. overhead
d. To obtain physical evidence d. at the eye level
2267. In the course of investigating the house where a 2278. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or
stabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains on engraved the initial on a collected hard object is called?
the front door, since the unknown perpetrator and the A. Collection
victim who may die were both cut their identities need to C. Scratcher
be established through the bloodstains. How will the police B. Luminous
collect the stains? D. Stylus
a. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a saline 2279. As regards to the suspect, what will be the purpose
solution and rub gently. of interrogation?
b. remove the door and submit it to the crime lab a. To extract illegally the confession of a suspect
c. scrap the stain into white paper using a clean b. To extract the information he possesses
razor blade c. To extract a confession of admission
d. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in d. All of the above
alcohol 2280. Before going to court, be sure to review the ___?
2268. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a a. Names of the suspect
rough sketch is for b. Names of the witness
A. scale and proportion c. Number of the cases
B. future use d. Facts of the cases
C. accuracy and clarity
D.courtroom presentation
2269. What is the court process requiring a person to bring
documents in his possession to the courts? 2281. In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene, prober
a. summon must keep in mind that before placing the specimen in a
b. subpoena ducestecum paper packet it must be allowed first to ____?
C.subpoena testificandum A. Refrigerate
D. bill of particulars B. Air dried
2270. What is the best method of collection evidence like C. Moist
footprints and tire prints? D. Freeze
A. Casting 2282. Why is it important for a perishable material to be
B. Dental Stone preserved by the way or the methods of preservation?
C. Plaster of Paris a. So that the evidence will not be destroyed
D. Photograph b. In order that this evidence will reach the court in
2271. Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise these are the the same physical condition as when they were
information, interview/interrogation and instrumentation. collected
Among of them information is deemed to be the most c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the
important because acquittal of the accused
a. Information involves the elements of the crime d. All of the above
b. Information identifies the perpetrator of the crime 2283. In police photography, when one say tripod, the stand
has how many legs or vertical support?
 A. two d. Any of these
B. four 2295. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____.
C. one A. 10 days
D. three B. No time Limit
2284. Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet and C. 15 days
empty shell for D. NONE
A. proper and lasting mark 2296. The taking of a person into custody in the manner
B. preservation authorized by law for the purpose of presenting that
C. marking it person before the court to answer for the commission of a
D. labeling crime.
2285. Which of the following is not the function of criminal
investigation?
a. Identify, locate and arrest the person who A. Search
commits crime B. Arrest
b. Prosecute and convict the criminal C. Initial Contact
c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence D. Warrant of Arrest
d. Bring the offender to justice 2297. Who shall issue a Search Warrant?
2286. Below are serious crimes which leave physical A. Judge
evidence, EXCEPT: B. Executive Branch
a. Homicide C. Investigator on Case
b. Carnapping and arson D. Prober
c. Sexual assault and robbery 2298. All but one are the instances you can execute a
d. Libel lawful warrantless arrest.
2287. There are two robbers who broke into a house and A. Flagrante Delicto
carried away some valuables. After they left such house B. Escaped prisoner
these two robbers decided to cut or divide the loot already C. Hot pursuit Principle
so that they can go of them . So while they are D. None of these
dividing the loot the other robber noticed that the one 2299. Physical evidence is generally given weight the
doing the division is trying to cheat him and so he courts because-
immediately boxed him. Now this robber who was boxed a. it speaks for itself
then pulled out his gun and fired at the other one killing the b. it cannot lie
latter. What crime is committed? c. not affected by emotion
a. Robbery and Murde d. all of the choices
b. Murder 2300. Physical or personal appearance is important when
c. Robbery w/ Homicide testifying in court because –
d. Homicide a. it will determine the quality of your testimony
b. it will determine the quantity of your testimony
c. it will affect the weight given to your testimony by
2288. If a person had an enemy and killed him and after the court
killing him, saw that he had a beautiful ring and took this, d. it will reduce the chances of the defense
the crime would be? 2301. What does DNA stand for?
a. Robbery and Murder a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid
b. Robbery and Theft b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid
c. Robbery w/ Homicide c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
d. Murder d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid
2289. A committed robbery but during the robbery he saw B 2302. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was
a beautiful woman which he raped it. But B. pardoned A, pioneered by Allan Pinkerton
and they get married. What crime is committed? a. Every contact leaves a Mark
A. Robbery b. modus operandi
B. Robbery w/ Rape c. shadowing
C. Robbery and Rape d. casing
D. NONE 2303. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the
2290. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The scene of the crime will most likely mean that –
wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At night, a. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived
a man entered through that opening without breaking the b. the suspect was professional
same and gets items there. What crime is committed? c. the suspect was juvenile
A. Robbery d. the police probably did not conduct a complete
B. Theft search for evidence.
C. Robbery w/ force upon things 2304. During an interview, planning is important and must
D. None follow the order of time and bring out facts orderly as they
2291. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998: happened, this technique is called –
A. RA 8484 a. chronological questioning
B. RA 7877 b. psychological questioning
C. RA 7080 c. physical questioning
D. RA 8353 d. None of these
2292. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones are 2305. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign
found in your house by the police, then it is ____. territory” such as the investigator room at the police station
a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing because the place –
b. Prima facie evidence of theft a. Is comfortable to the suspect
c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft b. Is familiar to the suspect
d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing c. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
2293. The following are the grounds to execute a Lawful d. Intimidates the suspect
warrantless arrest EXCEPT: 2306. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene,
A. Seized in “Plain view” he should first of all –
B. Customs search a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care
C. Search of a moving vehicle not to jar
D. None of the choices b. wait until the crime scene has been sketched,
2294. After serving the search warrant, deliver immediately photographed and measurements taken before
the things or property seized to the ____ together with an he collects the evidence
inventory duly verified under oath. c. immediately collects it and always sends it to the
a. Judge who issued the warrant Crime Laboratory for specific examination
b. Prosecution Counsel
c. Requesting Party
 d. Compare the following edge of the took with
impression to determine if this was the tool used
in crime
2307. All of the following are generally accepted rules of
behavior that should be followed by police officer first
arriving at the crime scene of a murder committed indoors,
EXCEPT –
a. Try to keep witnesses separated
b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
c. Discus the crime with persons who witness the
incident
d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible
but do not leave the scene unguarded while
doing so
2308. The primary reason for conducting a search in the
crime scene is to –
a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
c. Undercover hidden evidence
d. Determine the criminals method of operation
2309. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be
made on the item itself upon collection, in a place least
likely to affect the appearance of its -
A. Physical Integrity
B. Evidentiary
C. Legal Integrity
D. Integrity and Identity
2310. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the
pursuit is not possible, what should you not do?
a. Better use your time and efforts to alert another
unit
b. Forego the pursuit and keep on what you are
formerly doing
c. Inform the dispatched of the unit
d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in
coordination with other police units
2311. This situation takes place when a police officer
induced a person to commit a crime and arrest him after
the commission of the crime.
A. Instigation
B. Search
C. Recidivism
D. Entrapment
2312. The investigator who collects physical evidence
should take it to the laboratory by himself whenever this is
possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each
person to whom he gives or receives evidence. This
statement is applicable to –
a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Cardinal rules in investigation
c. Three tools in investigation
d. To establish the guilt of the accused
2313. It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at the
crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
2314. These are some of the investigative activities in a
homicide case, EXCEPT:
a. record the crime scene through notes,
photographs, and sketches
b. recognizes, collect, and preserves all physical
evidences and clue materials
c. establish the cause and the manner of death of
the victim
d. alleged suspicion as they initially appear to the
investigators
2315. Another set of the investigative activities in a homicide
case, are the following, EXCEPT:
a. determine the categories and modes of death
b. seek additional information by interviewing
witness
c. ascertaining the motive of the suspect
d. questioning the suspect after explaining his rights
2316. White-collar crimes are generally very difficult to
prevent and when detected or reported, they pose many
____.
a. investigative difficulties
b. investigative tasks
c. investigative problems
d. investigative burden
2317. To secure conviction of white-collar criminals, the
investigator must develop ___, eh must also remember
that the victim may suddenly lose interest in aiding
prosecution.
a. every phase of the case
b. contingency of case
c. friendly atmosphere
d. rapport with victim
2318. The following are characteristics of organized crime,
EXCEPT:
a. close-knit nature of its membership
b. their elaborate planning and lack of
impulsiveness
c. violence and intimidation are common tools
d. basically a street gang with criminal skills
2319. The following statements, answers the questions
“when” and “how” rape can be committed, EXCEPT:
a. sexual assault by inserting penis into another
person’s mouth
b. inserting any instrument or object into the genital
or anal orifice or another person
c. committed under all the elements enumerated by
Art. 324 of the Revised Penal Code
d. rape case is a crime against chastity
2320. Rape is committed under any of the following
circumstance, EXCEPT:
a. through the use of force, threat or intimidation
b. when the offended party is deprived of reasons or
otherwise unconscious
c. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave
abuse of authority
d. it is an exclusive offense committed by man to a
woman
2321. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is
divided into two different classifications, one is robbery by
the use of force upon things, and the other is:
a. robbery with violence, or intimidation of person
b. taking of personal property belonging to another
c. with intent, to gain and to possess the property
d. pre-conceived plans and unexpected opportunity
2322. The following are the elements of the crime robbery,
EXCEPT:
a. personal property belonging to another
b. the taking must be with intent to gain
c. there is violence or intimidation of any person
d. it engender fear and quality of life
2323. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the
thief in an automobile which has been stolen and
abandoned is on
A. Door handles
C. Steering wheel
B. Rear view mirror
D. Dashboard
2324. If criminal investigation is a process, after identifying
then collecting information and evidences, the next logical
step to do is
a. presents them in court
b. preserves their legal integrity
c. evaluate their strength in establishing proof
d. recognize their importance in the case
2325. During a quarrel on a crowded street of Avenida, one
man, stabs another and flees. PO1 Lim policeman arriving
at the scene a short time later finds the victim
unconscious, calls for an ambulance and orders the crowd
to leave. His action was
a. bad; there may have been witnesses to the
assault among the crowd
b. good; it is proper first aid procedure to give an
injured person room and air
c. bad; the assailant is probably among the crowd
d. good; a crowd may destroy needed evidence
e. bad; it is poor public relations for the police to
order people about needlessly.
2326. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:
a. sketch, search, photograph
b. search, sketch, photograph
c. photograph, search, sketch
d. photograph, sketch, search
2327. It is often important to know the time of death. The
reasons offered to this are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. to question individual who last talk with the victim
 b. to look for flaws on a witness’s account of 2339. 115. In an intersection not controlled by lights or
incident peace officers, pedestrian have the right of way the
c. protect the innocent from malicious allegations moment he starts to cross.
d. to know what was occur and how did it occur A. Absolutely true
2328. 1st Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a B. Partly true
privilege, 2nd Driver’s License is issued to a person, who C. Absolutely false
has all the qualification as provided by law, 3 rd Driver’s D. Partly false
License is a public document 2340. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect street level for free-flow traffic.
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct A. Expressway
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct B. Subway
d. All statements are correct C. Skyway
2329. Which of the following is not a function of warning D. Tunnel road
symbol? 2341. City roads inter-link between municipalities and within
a. To call the decrease of speed the city with a right of way of 15 meters; what is the
b. To seek carefulness on the part of motorist of the minimum width of sidewalk?
approaching danger A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters
c. To direct motorist along the establish direction B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
d. To notify traffic units an approaching hazardous C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters
circumstance either on or adjacent to road D. 2.0 meters
2330. 106. These are the functions of guide signs, EXCEPT: 2342. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of
a. To guide motorist along established routes taking a person into custody for the purpose of holding or
b. To inform proper routes detaining him to answer a charge of law violation before a
c. To help him along his way to the most simple and court.
direct method A. Arrest
d. To call the diminution of speed B. Traffic Arrest
2331. 107. A number of traffic regulations revolve around C. Traffic Citation
questions of right of way, for practically purposes, one of D. Traffic Warning
the following is the best definition of “Right of Way”. 2343. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of not
a. The personal right to move from one place to less than ___ can apply for non-professional driver’s
another license
b. The privilege of immediate use of particular A. 150 Days
section of highway B. 180 Days
c. The way or place open to the motorist and C. 60 Days
pedestrian D. 30 Days
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at 2344. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury other
the time is occupied by another vehicle than serious to one or more persons:
2332. It is intended to inform road user of special obligation, A. Property damage
instruction nor prohibitions which they must comply. B. Less Serious Injury
A. Traffic Signs C.Fatal Accident
B. Informative Signs D. Non-fatal Accident
C. Regulatory Signs 2345. When two vehicles approach an intersection at
D. Danger/warning signs approximately the same time, which shall give the right of
way:
2333. A kind of road according to political subdivision within a. The vehicle coming from the right
town proper Right of Way not less than 10 meters. b. Vehicle from the center
A. National Road c. The vehicle coming from the left
B. Municipal Road d. The vehicle that arrives first
C. Barangay Road 2346. Which of the following consideration does not act as
D. City Road a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
2334. It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of public A. Fear of fine and punishment
convenience or special permit issued by LTFRB B.Loss of driving privileged
A. Private C.Possibility involve in an accident
B. For Hire D.Increase of insurance premium
C. Government 2347. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is
D. Diplomatic best characterized by, EXCEPT:
2335. Professional and non-professional driver’s license is A.Poor legislation activities
valid for ___ from the date of issuance and renewable B.Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
every birth month. C.Effective and efficient traffic officers
A. 18 Months D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit
B.36 Months 2348. The following are NOT functions of Land
C. 24 Months Transportation Office, EXCEPT:
D.12 Months A.Reparation of vehicles
2336. It is any accident occurring on a public traffic way B.Registration and licensing
involving persons using vehicle or transportation, but not C.Rental and license
involving a motor vehicle in motion: D.Licensing operating
a. Vehicle Traffic Accident 2349. One of the following statements that best indicates
b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is:
c. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of traffic
d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident rules
2337. Which of the following law created the Metropolitan C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid
Manila Development Authority (MMDA)? bottlenecks
A. RA 8750 control the speed limited in densely
B .RA 7924 populated areas
C. RA 8749 D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow
D. PD 96 of traffic
2338. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program 2350. Most common defect attributed to the human element
is best measured by which of the following: in cases of traffic vehicular accidents:
a. A cutback of traffic accidents and interruption A. Intellectual
b. A amplify in traffic enforcement actions B. Perceptual
c. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to C. Decision
enforcement manner D. Attitudinal
d. None of these
2351. 2568. Statistically it is considered as the most 2362. Economic crime is known as:
common reason for public utility vehicular accidents. A.Blue Collar Crime
A.Not observing the proper distance and B.Wildlife Smuggling
following too close C.White Collar Crime
B.Unnecessary D.Wildlife trafficking
C.Recklessness 2363. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
D.Discussion regarding fare A. Terrorisme
2352. 2569. What is the general rule for the movement of B.Terrere
vehicular traffic in the Philippines? C. Rapere
A. “keep to the left” D. Vestigarre
B. Safety First 2364. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of
C. “keep to the right” silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades
D. “watch out” to the authorities:
2353. 2570. What would drivers do when an emergency A. Capo
vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red light B. Omerta
and sounding a siren? C. Jihad
A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly D. Ideology
B.continue driving slowly without regard of 2365. It was an event said to be the origin of conflict in
the emerging Mindanao and for the establishment of Moro National
C.yield at the right of way and wait for the Liberation Front (MNLF):
passage of the vehicle A.Rizal Day Bombing
D.disregard the red light and siren B.Ninoy assassination
2354. As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, you C.Black September
approach an intersection with the traffic light with a “green D.Jabbidah Massacre
color” on but a traffic policeman is standing at the center of 2366. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted
intersection conducting the flow normally. As a driver you terrorist in the world who issued a “fatwa” that calls all
will ignore the traffic man and follow the automatic traffic Muslims around the world to slay Americans and their
light- allies.
A. True A. Abu-Abbas
B. False B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef
C. Sometimes C. Ahmed Yassin
D. It depends D. Osama bin-Laden
2355. Term used for an operator or a vehicle which strikes 2367. This refers to an attribute of organized crime that their
another vehicle, object or person and left the scene memberships have limitations based on kinship, criminal
without stopping to identify himself or render aid record, or similar considerations:
A. hit and run A.No Political Goals
B. third party liability B.Hierarchical
C. reckless driving C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture
D. side sweeper D.Limited or Exclusive Membership
2356. A systematic examination of all the facts relating to 2368. Organized crime differs from terrorism in terms of
conditions, actions and physical features associated with their:
motor collision or accident – A. membership
A.traffic engineering B. motivation
B.traffic accident investigation C. leadership
C.reckless driving D. networking
D.hit and run 2369. This theory refers to those processes by which the
2357. A public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody community influences its members towards conformity
who are not a member of the organization who can helps with established norms and behavior.
the organization A. differential association
A. Enforcer B. social control
B. Capo C. anomie
C. Corrupter D. strain
D. Corruptee 2370. It is a form of modern day slavery.
2358. What type of OCG which is manned by semi- A. Human Trafficking
organized individual with the end view of attaining B. Prostitution
psychological gratification such as adolescent gangs. C. Drug Trafficking
A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime D. Sex tourism
B.Political Graft 2371. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified
C.Predatory Organized Crime when:
D.Syndicated Organized Crime A.the person trafficked is an elderly
2359. A continuing illegal activity of group of person which is B.the person trafficked is a special child
primarily concerned with the generation of profits, C.the person trafficked is a woman
irrespective of national boundaries as a result of D.the person trafficked is a child
globalization.
A.Transnational Organized Crime 2372. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 provides
B.Transnational Crime that an organized criminal group must have a membership
C.Organized Criminal Group of at least ___:
D.NONE A. 3 or More
2360. What category of terrorist group which is What B. 2 or More
category of terrorist group which is dedicated to overthrow C. 4 or More
an established order and replacing it with a new political or D. 5 or More
social structure? 2373. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is formerly
A. Ethnocentric included.
B. Revolutionary A. Al Qaeda
C. Separalist B. MILF
D. Political C. MNLF
2361. ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands for? D. JI
A.InformationConnection Technology 2374. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:
B.InformationCommunication A.Swords bearer
Technology B.Islamic Congregation
C.InternetCommunication C.Father of the Swordsman
Technology D.The Base
D.Internet Connection Technology
2375. These are the most frequent terrorist acts, accounting B. RA 8484
for as much as 80% of terrorist-related violence: C. RA 9160
A. Bombings D. RA 9165
B. Assassinations 2388. What is the name of the operation launched by US
C. Kidnapping Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden?
D. Prostitution A.Operation Geronimo
2376. This is also known as the Human Security Act of B.Operation Jabbidah
2007: C.Operation Neptune Spear
A. RA 9372 D.Operation Merdeka
B. RA 9160 2389. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT?
C. RA 9165 A. The Neopolitan Camera
D. RA 8294 B. Sinilian Mafia
2377. This is the country which believed to be the origin of C. Cali Cartel
Mafia and Cosa Nostra: D. Sacra Corona Unita
A. United States of America 2390. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to
B. Italy establish a shared database among concerned agencies
C. Japan for information on criminals, methodologies, arrests and
D. China conviction on transnational crime.
2378. An Asian organized crime that represents mystical A.Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes
symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle representing (PCTC)
the heaven, earth and man: B.National Commission on Anti Hijacking
A. Yakuza (NACAH)
B. Triad C.International Criminal Police Organization
C. Tongs (ICPO)
D. Born to Kill of Vietnam D.Philippine National Police (PNP)
2379. Chain of custody should be observed by the
investigating team of cybercrimes:
A.The Statement is wrong 2391. It is known as IP address that changes every time the
B.The statement is true internet accesses his ISP:
C.None of these A. ISP
D.All of these B. Dynamic IP address
2380. Internet pornography is punishable under E- C. Static IP Address
Commerce Act of 2000: D. IP Address
A.The Statement is correct 2392. It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or website
B.Statement is wrong pop-ups, to get victims to divulge sensitive financial
C.either of the above information such as credit card numbers or social security
D.neither of the above numbers.
2381. Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes and A. Phising
cyber cafes, where majority of cybercrimes are B. Hacking
perpetuated, are legally required to have permanent logs C. Cracking
and records of their clients: D. Identity Theft
A.The statement is true 2393. It refers to a computer program that can copy itself
B.The statement is false and infect a computer without permission or knowledge of
C.Neither of the above the user
D.Either of the above A. Virus
2382. The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides that B. Trojan Horse
telecommunication companies are legally bound to C. Logic Bomb
cooperate with the law enforcement agencies in the D. Worm
course of their investigation: 2394. What kind of hacker who breaks into computer
A.The statement is absolutely correct systems with malicious intent, usually for some criminal
B.The statement is absolutely wrong purpose.
C.The statement is partially correct A. Black Hat Hackers
D.The statement is partially wrong B. Gray Hat Hacker
C. White Hat Hackers
2383. It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of E- D. Any color
Commerce Act of 2000. 2395. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known
A. 20 years as “Back to Islam”.
B. 12 years A. Abu Sayyaf
C. 6 years B. MILF
D. 3 years C. Je naah Islamiya
2384. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
are transacted or attempted to be transacted, to make
them appear to have originated from legitimate sources: 2396. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with
A. Estafa the capacity to indiscriminately kill large numbers of
B.Money Laundering people.
C. Anti-Money Laundering A.Nuclear
D. Swindling B.Weapon of mass destruction
2385. This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic C.Anthrax
and/or sound in electronic form, representing the identity D.Chemical weapons
of a person and attached to or logically associated with the 2397. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal
electronic data message: organization in the world.
A. electronic key A. Al Qaeda
B. originator B. Jihad
C. electronic signature C. Chinese Mafia
D. electronic date message D. Nuestra Costra
2386. Only a computer forensic expert should search for
any evidence contained in a computer hardware. 2398. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor
A.The statement is absolutely correct pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric
B.The statement is absolutely wrong pressure?
C.The statement is partially correct A. vapor density
D.The statement is partially wrong B. fire point
2387. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998: B. boiling point
A. RA 8551 D. vapor pressure
 A. Arcing
2399. It is a combustion product and a manifestation of fire B. Induced Current
when it is in its gas-phased combustion. C. Over Heating
A. Flames D. sparkling
B. Exothermic reaction 2412. The most common motive for arson is
C. Endothermic reaction A. jealousy
D. NONE B. profit
2400. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the C. spite
bottom or a vessel being heated due to incomplete D. revenge
combustion and has a low temperature. 2413. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of
A. Luminous arson?
B. Non-luminous A.inflammable substance found in the
C. Laminar premises
D. Turbulent B.simultaneous fire in more than one part of
2401. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____. the building
A. Infection C.building insurance
C. shock D.any of the choices
B. burns 2414. What is the process of raising the temperature to
D. asphyxiation separate the on-volatile from the less volatile parts and
2402. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to
under pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature produce a nearly purified substance?
inside its container? A. combustion
A. cryogenic gas B. evaporation
B. liquefied gas C. distillation
C. compressed gas D. condensation
D. nuclear gas
2415. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire
2403. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the hydrant?
method is called ____. A. hydrant key
A. radiation B. key board
B. oxidation C. fire hose
C. convection D. jumper
D. conduction 2416. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam
2404. Which of the following does NOT fall under class A where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam
fires? forming ascent or descent?
A. none of the choices A. rope
B. burning nipa hut B. hydrant
C. exploding gas depot C. ladder
D. forest fire D. nozzle
2405. Which of the following best illustrate arson? 2417. What are the cross members between the beam and
A.simultaneous fire used in climbing the ladder called?
B.thick reddish smoke A. hangar
C.faulty electric wiring B. beams
D.unexplained explosion C. rungs
2406. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires? D. braces
A.water is not capable of extinguishing the 2418. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases
fire in our midst, which of the following facilities should you
B.there is the danger of electrocution check?
C.burning metals are too hot A.Gift-wrapped packages
D.explosion may occur B.Electric switch system
2407. Mechanical device strategically located in an C.Telephones
installation or street where fire hose is connected so that D.All of these
water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire. 2419. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the
A. fire hose box highest point of the roof is referred to as:
B. fire truck A. vertical ventilation
C. hose reel B. cross ventilation
D. fire hydrant C. forced ventilation
2408. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is D. horizontal ventilation
known as ___. 2420. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the
A. reducing agent most probable extinguishing method is:
B. oxidizing agent A. smothering
C. cooling agent B. fuel removal
D. chemical agent C. cooling
2409. 236. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a D. dilution
building: 2421. The most important element of Fire?
A.It only moves horizontally A.Fuel
B.It has a circular movement B.Chemical chain reaction
C.It moves sideways while moving vertically C.Heat
D.It has a circular movement while moving D.Oxygen
horizontally 2422. A complete and detailed checked of the structures
2410. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space and material involved in the fire to make sure that every
containing an oxygen-starved superheated product of spark and ember has been extinguished and to have
incomplete combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, assurance against
may result to an explosion, which is called: A. Overhaul
A. Spontaneous ignition B. Rescue
B. flashover C. Salvage
C. Backdraft D. None
D. Flash fire 2423. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose
they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most
2411. It refers to the increase or rising of amperage while likely reason for taking this position?
electric current is flowing in a transmission line resulting to A.The stream is projected farther
the damage or destruction of insulating materials, maybe B.The surrounding air is cool making the
gradual or rapid, internal or external. firemen comfortable
 C.A backward force is developed which must A.Kind and character of the building burned
be counter acted B.Location of the building
D.The firemen can see better when the C.Extent or value of the damage
stream strikes D.Whether inhabited or not
2424. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the E.None of the choices
crime that you have to file is: 2437. The amount of drug that produces untoward effect of
A. murder with arson symptoms of poisoning.
B. arson with murder A. Minimal Dose
C. murder B. Abusive Dose
D. arson C. Toxic Dose
2425. This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical D. Maximal Dose
powder intended to fight all classes of fires.
A. H20 2438. A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve almost
B. Liquefied entirely around the drug experience and securing supplies.
C. Dry Chemical A. Situational
D. Soda Acid B. Hard-core
2426. All except one are aggravating circumstances in C. Hippies
Arson. D. Spree
A.If committed with intent to gain: 2439. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly
B.If committed with the benefit of another: absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is probably the
C.If the offender is motivated by spite or second most commonly used route of drug administration,
hatred towards the owner or occupant of A. Snorting
the property burned: B. inhalation
D.If committed by a syndicate C. oral ingestion
E.None of the Above D. Injection
2427. What color of smoke is present when the materials 2440. Among the countries involved in the first important
burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay? drug traffic route, which is responsible for preparation for
A. Black distribution?
B. White A. Middle East
C. Yellow B. USA
D. Blue C. Turkey
2428. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been D. Europe
declared, what is the first thing that a fire prober must
determine?
A.look for survivors
B.search for debris
C.locate the point of origin 2441. Which among the following responsible for producing
D.established corpus delicti almost 60% of Opium in the world.
2429. Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C (1000F) A. Golden triangle
is a: B. Golden Crescent
A. Combustible liquid C. Silver Triangle
B. Corrosive liquid D. White Christmas
C. Flammable liquid 2442. What countries constitute the Golden Crescent?
D. Volatile liquid A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India
2430. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia
however examination of lungs and blood showed no C.Burma, Laos, Thailand
abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand
be your interpretation under such circumstance? 2443. It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in Europe”.
A.The person died because of asphyxia A. Philippines
B.The person died because of the burning B. Mexico
C.The person was killed before it was C. Spain
burned D. Lebanon
D.The person died not of fire but because of 2444. It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain and often
suffocation induce sleep.
2431. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting A. Sedatives
operation involving high-rise building? B. Stimulants
A. attic C. Hallucinogen
B. extension D. Narcotics.
C. aerial 2445. It is the most important alkaloids and constitutes
D. hook about 10% of the use raw opium.
2432. 257.What type of ground ladder which contains only A. Morphine
one section, it ranges between 12 to 16 feet. B. Heroin
A. Straight ladder C. Codeine
B. Attic ladder D. Opium
C. Extension ladder 2446. The drug taken from the cola bust plant Ertyroxylon
D. Wall ladder coca.
2433. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate A. Cocaine
flame propagation. B. Marijuana
A. Plant C. Papayer Somniferum
B. Trailer D. claviceps purpurea
C. Accelerant 2447. Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into ___
D. Gasoline specs.
2434. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober. A. Blue
A. Witness B. Orange
B. Society C. Violet
C. First responder D. Red
D. Owner 2448. PDEA is headed by Director General with the rank of
2435. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines. ___
A. RA 9514 A. Assistant Secretary
B. PD 1185 B. Secretary
C. RA 8294 C. Chairman
D. RA 8484 D. Undersecretary
2436. All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in Arson.
2449. What is the minimum age required to be able to
become a PDEA agent?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 21
D. s25
2450. The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with the
rank of Director. He/She shall be appointed by the ___.
A. Chairman/President
B. Secretary/PDEA DG
C. CSUPT/President
D. SUPT/PDEA DG
2451. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in
the planning and formulation of policies and programs on
drug prevention and control
A. PDES
B. DDB
C. PNP Narcotics
D. NBI Narcotics
2452. They serve as permanent consultant
Dangerous Drug Board:
A.NBI Director and PNP Director General
B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
C.PNP Director and PDEA Director
D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of
Justice
2453. If the clandestine laboratory is established in the
following circumstances such will serve as Aggravating
Circumstances:
A.Conducted in the presence or with the help
of minor/s
B.Established within one hundred (100)
meters of a residential, business, church
or school premises.
C.Secured or protected with booby traps
D.Concealed with legitimate business
operations
E.Employment of a practitioner, chemical
engineer, public official or foreigner
F.all of the choices
2454. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed of
how many Ex-officio Members?
A. 2
C. 2
B. 12
D. 17
2455. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
A.Its branches which occur at opposite
points on the stalk
B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets
whose edges are serrated in shape.
D.Its pungent scent when matured or fully
grown.
2456. What agency of the government supervises drug
rehabilitation centers and drug testing networks and
laboratories?
A.Department of Interior and Local
Government
B.Department of Health
C.Department of Justice
D.Department of Social Welfare and
Development
2457. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous
Drug Board:
A. 2 years
B. 6 years
C. 4 years
D. co-terminus
2458. The penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous
Drug Paraphernalia shall be:
A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of
50 to 200 thousand pesos.
B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine
of 10 to 50 thousand pesos.
C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40
thousand pesos.
D.6 months rehabilitation
2459. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into
the body of any person with or without his/her knowledge
either by injection inhalation, ingestion or other means.
A. Administer
B. Use
C. Dispense
D. Deliver
2460. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made
secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various
techniques were made by its operator in concealing their
activities.
A. Hide-out operation
B. Safe house
C. Clandestine Operation
D. Drug Syndicate
2461. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on:
A. June 7, 2002
B. July 4, 2002
of the C. July 30, 2002
D. June 18, 2003
2462. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing
according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT
A.Officers and Employee of public and
private offices.
B.Applicant for firearms license and for
permit to carry firearms outside residence
C.Officers and Members of the Military,
police and other law enforcement agencies
D.All candidates for public office whether
appointed or elected both in national or local
government units.
E.All persons charged before the
prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense
having an imposable penalty of not less
than six (6) years and one (1) day.
2463. Apprehending team having initial custody and control
of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall
immediately after seizure, physical inventory and
photograph the same in the presence of the following,
EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items were
confiscated or his representative or
counsel.
B.A representative from the media.
C.A representative from the DOJ.
D.Any elected public official.
E.None of the choices
2464. Apprehending team having initial custody and control
of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall
immediately after seizure, physical inventory and
photograph the same in the presence of the following,
EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items were
confiscated or his representative or counsel
B.A representative from the media
C.A representative from the DOJ
D.Any elected public official
E.None of the choices
2465. In what quantity of specimen should be taken by
forensic examiner of drugs for scientific analysis:
A.Not more than five (5) grams per
package/bag
B.Not more than three (3) tablets for
capsules or tables
C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid
solution
D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried
leaves and not more than 2 plants.
E.All of the choices
2466. The following shall not be subject to Mandatory Drug
Testing EXCEPT:
A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary
Schools
B.Persons apprehended or arrested for
violation of the Provision of Comprehensive
Dangerous Drug Act.
C.Officers and Employee of public and
private offices
D.A and C only
2467. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving C. Habitual
dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a period of: D. Coma
A. 180 days 2480. Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which leads
B. 45 days to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and
B. 30 days body.
D. 60 days A. Morality
2468. An analytical test using some tools or device design B. Vices
to validate or affirm the result of a preliminary or screening C. Prostitutions
test. D. Gambling
A. Screening test 2481. After filling of the criminal cases, the court shall
B. Confirmatory rest conduct ocular inspection of the confiscated, seized and/or
C. Physical test surrendered dangerous drugs, and controlled precursors
D. Chemical Test within:
2469. The ____ shall designate special courts from among A. 24 hours
the existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively try B. 30 days
and hear cases involving violation of RA 9165. C. 72 hours
A. DOJ D. 48 hours
B. Supreme Court 2482. That part of the body most affected to by heavy
C. DDB drinking are:
D. Sandiganbayan A.digestive system and nervous system
B.brain and veins of the body
2470. The law that penalized the use and possession or the C.the lungs and heart
unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile substances is: D.None of the above
A. P.D. 1519 2483. Can a high school student be compelled to undergo
B. P.D. 1916 drug test?
C. P.D. 1619 A. yes
D. P.D. 580 B. maybe
2471. A laboratory examination is only required to C. upon circumstances
apprehend offender within 24 hours if the person arrested D. No
has: 2484. SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to appear as a
A.Physical sign of drug abuse prosecution witness during trial of the case against the
B.Symptoms of Drug abuse alleged drug dealer caught in buy-bust operation. What
C.Visible manifestation that suspect was will be his penalty?
under the influence of drugs A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment
D.All of the choices B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
2472. Within how many minutes after intake of alcoholic C. Life imprisonment
beverage is the absorption is faster? D. Death penalty
A. 20 to 30 minutes
B. 30 to 60 minutes 2485. PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their
C. 10 to 20 minutes suspect and PO2 Tayson planted 1 gram of shabu. Is their
D. 50 to 60 minutes penalty the same?
2473. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates A. No
that the person is under the influence of the liquor B. False
(alcohol)? C. Yes
A. 0.05 D. True
B. 1.5 2486. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and
C. 0.15 subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct of
D. 0.50 investigation involving the violations of RA 9165.
2474. The person who manages houses of ill-refute where A. True
the business of prostitution is conducted. B. Partially True
A. Pimp C. False
B. prostitute D. Partially False
C. Knocker
D. Maintainer
2475. The person is argumentative and overconfident.
There is slight impairment of mental difficulties. 2487. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use
A. Slight inebriation as a veterinary anesthetic.
B. Moderate inebriation A. Ketamine
C. Drunk B. Codeine
D. Very drunk C. Anesthesia
D. Sleeping pills
2476. Persons who were found guilty under the Section 70 2488. What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its 2nd
of RA 9165 is ____: violation.
A.Qualified to apply for probation A.6 Months Rehabilitation
B.Disqualified to apply for probation B.12 Months Rehabilitation
C.Allowed to apply for probation C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years
D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years
more than 6 years and 1 day 2489. It refers to the willful act of any person of maliciously
2477. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”. and secretly inserting, placing, attaching, or adding directly
A. Marijuana or indirectly, through any overt or cover acts:
B. Ecstacy A. Entrapment
C. Shabu B. Planting of Evidence
D. None of these C. Instigation
2478. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as a D. Black mailing
cough reliever? 2490. It is the Agency of the government that will take
A. morphine charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs
B. cocaine confiscated:
C. opium A. Maritime Police
D. codeine B. Dangerous Drug Board
2479. When drunken person does not know the intoxicating C. PDEA
strength of the beverage he has taken. D. NBI
A. involuntary E. PNP
B. Intentional
2491. “A” was arrested for possessing seven (7) grams of B. grassland
Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. Up to what time C. weed
and date the arresting officers have to subject “A” to a D. leaf
drug test as required by the law? 2505. Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust operation
A.7:00 P.M., October 25 regarding drug operation.
B.7:00 P.M., October 24 A. information
C.8:00 A.M., October 26 B. abuses
D.8:00 A.M., October 25 C. integrity
2492. Which among the following data concerning D. reliability
photographs as evidence is LEAST essential? 2506. The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is:
A.date and hour which each photograph was A. RA 7438
taken B. RA 8353
B.identification of the police photographer C. RA 9160
C.proof of ownership of the camera D. RA 9165
D.focal length of the lens
2493. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a 2507. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source
rough sketch is for _____. of a prohibited drug?
A.scale and proportion A. Marijuana
B.future use B. Opium
C.accuracy and clarity C. Coca bush
D.courtroom presentation D. Peyote
2494. All except are object evidence that should be taken 2508. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-
photograph individually, EXCEPT? awareness and emotion?
A. Knife A. Narcotics
B. Semen B. Stimulants
C. stone C. Depressants
D. Gun D. Hallucinogens
2495. All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT? 2509. What is that state arising from repeated administration
A. Police car on call of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis?
B. Ambulance on call A. Habituation
C. Fire Truck on call B. Drug dependence
D. Physician’s car C. Drug Addiction
2496. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the front D. Physical dependence
seat of any running motor vehicle: 2510. What classification would solvents, paints and
A.Seven years old gasoline which are examples of substances that are
B.six years and old and under sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
C.under six years old A. Depressants
D.seven years old and under B. energizers
2497. Marijuana is also known as? C. inhalants
A. Coke D. tranquilizers
B. Poppers
C. Cannabis 2511. What is the act of injecting or that means of
D. Morphine introducing the dangerous drug into the physiological
2498. Who will be punished of life imprisonment in illegal system of the body?
drug cases? A. Consumption
A. User B. Use
B. Pusher C. Administration
C. Possessor D. Abuse
D. Coddler
2499. Most abuse drugs in the Philippines? 2512. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in
A. Marijuana obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it and
B. Shabu using it to meet his problems and to escape from reality,
C. Cocaine he is –
D. AMorphine A. Socially dependent on drugs
B. Mentally dependent on drugs
2500. Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal C. Psychologically dependent on drugs
behavior? D. Physically dependent on drugs
A. Yes 2513. A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than
B. No morphine.
C. Sometimes A. amphetamines
D. It depends B. cocaine
C. heroin
2501. It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict D. iodine
to?
A. Reintegrate him to society 2514. The most important constituent of opium is the drug:
B. Punish him A. cocaine
C. Give him a lesson B. codeine
D. Incapacitate him C. heroin
D. morphine
2502. In investigation, “corpus delicti” means body of the 2515. The number of persons who handle the evidence from
crime scene. Legally, it means the scene of the crime and between the times of the
A. proof in the commission of crime commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the
B. body of the victim case.
C. wrongful act A. chain of custody
D. none of these B. time of custody
2503. Deals with the study of major crimes based on the C. time of disposal
application of special investigative technique. D. time of disposition
A. background investigation 2516. The substance known as the “miracle drug” refers to:
B. criminal investigation A. morphine
C. preliminary investigation B. cocaine
D. special investigation C. heroin
2504. What is the other name for marijuana? D. codeine
A. rope
2517. The word hashish is derived from the name of
Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to: 2528. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?
A. female marijuana plant A. Heroin
B. male marijuana plant B. Marijuana
C. marijuana leaves C. Cocaine
D. the marijuana resin D. Shabu
2518. What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid
obtainable by the action of acetic anhydride or morphine in 2529. 2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of
which the alkaloid base may be made by treating withdrawal of drugs that causes serious physical illness?
morphine with acetyl chloride, washing the product with a A. Psychological dependence
dilute alkaline solution and crystallizing from alcoholic B. Physical dependence
solution? C. Addiction
A. cocaine D. Withdrawal syndrome
B. codeine 2530. 2748. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from
C. heroin injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to
D. paregoric A. liquid amphetamine
2519. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as B. Shabu
A. cocaine C. Heroin
B. marijuana D. freebase cocaine
C. opium
D. shabu 2531. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and
2520. Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more it
counteracts poison or its effect tends to
A. alkaloid A. reduce the need for the drug
B. antidote B. satisfy more than one motive or need
C. emetic C. increase the satisfaction of use
D. titanic D. give sense of well being

2521. “Shabu” is chemically known as: 2532. Which of the following drugs produces the effect of
A. methamphetamine mood elevation, heightened alertness, and increase
B. methamphetamine HCL energy?
C. methyl amphetamine A. Solvents
D. methyleneamine B. LSD
C. Shabu
2522. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of D. Narcotics
potent Cannabis Sativa.
A. hashish 2533. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs
B. marijuana are known as “downers”?
C. morphine A. Hallucinogens
D. opium B. Barbiturates
C. solvents
2523. Scientific name for cocaine. D. cocaine
A. cannabis sativa
B. erythroxylon coca
C. methamphetamine hydrochloride 2534. Who has committed an act which is punishable under
D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine RA 6425, as amended, with a penalty range of reclusion
perpetua to death and a fine of P500,000 to
Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses vital body P10,000,000.00?
functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and breathing A. Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana
rate. The regular administration of narcotics will produce plants in a plantation in the Cordillera.
physical dependence. B. Julio who was caught for illegal possession
A. depressants of opium pipes and other paraphernalia.
B. hallucinogens C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful
C. narcotic medical prescription
D. stimulants D. Pablo who maintains a den for the illegal use
2524. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the of volatile substances.
deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric 2535. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central
current? nervous system and are commonly referred to as
A. Topical method “uppers”?
B. Injection method A. Amphetamines
C. Iontophoresis B. Naptha
D. Oral method C. Barbiturates
D. Diazepam
2525. What part of the globe is the principal source of all 2536. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
forms of cocaine? A. opiates
A. South East Asia B. Track
B. South America C. Shabu
C. Middle East D. coke
D. South West Asia 2537. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-
awareness and emotion?
2526. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in A. Narcotics
A. Columbia B. Stimulants
B. India C. Depressants
C. Mexico D. Hallucinogens
D. France 2538. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous
Drugs Act of 2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for
2527. What is the group of drugs that are considered to be Other Purposes.
mind altering and gives the general effect of mood
distortion? A. RA 9165
A. Sedatives B. RA 1956
B. Hallucinogens C. RA 9156
C. Hypnotic D. RA 1965
D. Tranquillizers
2539. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug 2552. It is correct to say that the world’s first traffic light
incidents? came into being before the automobile was in use?
A. Reclusion Perpetua A. No
B. Life Imprisonment B. It depends
C. Death C. Sometimes
D. Fine D. Yes
2553. In planning for a traffic control program, which of the
2540. Who is the primary author of RA 9165? following is NOT a factor to consider
A. Sen. Ramon Revilla A.model of cars and vehicles
B. Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago B.existing road /highway system
C. Sen. Joker Arroyo C.incidence of traffic accidents
D. Sen. Tito Sotto D.traffic congestion hazards

2541. These are the requirements during the conduct of 2554. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident
actual buy-bust operations. what is the primary consideration to be taken by the police
A. poseur buyer investigator.
B. marked money A.Conduct each interview separately
C. all of the choices B.Listen only to witnesses because they are
D. none of these not biased
2542. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money C.Listen to both sides
for, or underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by D.Conduct the interview jointly
RA 9165. 2555. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection
A. employee at the same time who shall yield the right of way as a
B. caretaker general rule
C. financier D. A. The driver on the left
lookout B.The faster vehicle
C.The driver on the right
2543. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to D. The slower vehicle
female customers? 2556. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow
a. Johns moving vehicles should use the:
b. Gigolo A.lanes 2 and 3
c. Pimps B.outer lanes
d. Rentboys C.inner lanes
2544. What is the theory of organized crime wherein the D.either the inner or outer lanes
penalty of crimes must be severe in order to deter the
commission of crimes? 2557. As a general rule, you should overtake on the left
a. Anomie side, except when-
b. Deterrence theory A.the oncoming traffic is free from an
c. Rational choice theory obstruction
d. None of the above B.the opposite traffic is free from oncoming
2545. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal motor vehicles
drugs? C.traversing on a two-way two-lane highway
A. Lot lizards D.cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic
C. Hookers way
B. Skeezers 2558. The double solid white line:
D. Punters A.doesn’t allow lane changing
2546. Globalization refers to the rapid growth and B.allows overtaking
development of what culture? C.allows lane changing
a. Northern D.allows parking
b. Eastern 2559. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking
c. Western for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian,
d. Southern vehicles and roadway condition.
A. Apprehension
2547. Crimes consummated by the use of computers and B. Adjudication
other highly modern devices. C. Defection
a. Transnational crimes D. Prosecution
b. white collar crimes 2560. Traffic arrest can be made when the following are
c. modern crimes present, EXCEPT:
d. cyber crimes A to avoid continues violation
2548. The following are transnational crimes, except B. offense committed is serious
a. drug trafficking C. the violator will not attend in court
b. gun smuggling D. involved in vehicular accident
c. money laundering 2561. The following are the good ways of searching the
d. illegal recruitment scene of hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT:
2549. The following countries comprises the Golden A.look over the grounds at what seems to be
Triangle, except the point of collision
a. Thailand B.follow the path that the vehicle took in
b. Laos leaving the scene
c. Myanmar C.study the objects the vehicle has struck
d. Vietnam D.established the identity of the vehicles
2550. A term used to describe a place where trafficked 2562. These are the basic steps in traffic accident-
person are brought and forced to become prostitutes. investigation, EXCEPT
a. sweat shops A.goes to scene as quickly as possible
b. hotels B.Gassesses the situation and call for
c. brothels assistance
d. motels C.care to the injured and protect their
2551. Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group? property
a. Khaddafy Janjalani 2462
b. Hashim Salamay 2563. A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is
c. Abdurajack Janjalani to:
d. Nur Misuari A.Look for the key event that causes the
accident
 B.Regard any unfavorable factor, existing b. it one culture of the Japanese to put tattoos on
immediately prior to the accident, as a cause their bodies.
C.Consider violations as primary causes and c. they delight in showing theother members their
any factors as secondary causes tattoos.
D.Consider road conditions as limiting d. anybody without tattoos are expelled from the
conditions rather as causes group.
2564. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% 2577. The initiation of the Chinese Triad consists of
of the assessed value of a building. a. placing a drop of blood of the recruit on a
A. single family dwellings photograph of a saint and then let it burn on his
B. department store palm while reciting his oath to the organization.
C. hospitals b. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed
D. schools animal mixed with his blood and pass beneath an
2565. This marking on the roadway indicates that the lane is arch of swords while reciting his oath to the
for right turn only: organization.
A.Two headed arrow c. the recruit will put body tattoos and lift three
B.Arrow pointing to left fingers while reciting his oath.
C.Straight arrow on the pavement d. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed
D.The arrow is pointing to the right animal mixed with his blood and a picture of a
2566. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the saint will be burned on his palm while reciting his
flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by oath.
keeping in full view of traffic: 2578. What do the Yakuza do with their tattoos?
A. Stationary a. Cover them as they are sacred.
B. Visible b. They undress to show everybody their tattoos.
C.Conspicuous c. They undress only inside their house.
D. Inconspicuous d. They only undress during oicho kabu.
2567. Licensed person allowing limited number of
passengers, freight or cargo in public utility truck or buses 2579. What OPLAN was created by the PNP as their
A. Operator campaign against most wanted persons and other
B. Driver fugitives?
C.Conductor a. Oplan Cleansweep
D. Pedestrian b. Oplan Criminal
2568. It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an c. Oplan Pagtugis
object with which it has collided; the force between the d. Oplan Batas
object ceases at this time. 2580. 31. It is a type of anomie wherein a person who
A. Stopping accepts the cultural goals to become rich but failed to
B. Disengagement accept the institutional means of achieving it.
C. Maximum Engagement a. Rebellion
D. Initial Contact b. Retreatism
2569. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire that is c. Conformity
sliding without rotation. Sliding of wheels may be due to d. Innovation
braking to collision damage, or rarely, to other 2581. It is a type of anomie wherein an individual does not
circumstances. accept the cultural goal but accepted the institutional
A. Skid Mark means of achieving it?
B.Scuff Marks a. Innovation
C.Skip skid b. Retreatism
D. Gas Skid c. Rebellion
2570. The place and time after or beyond which accident d. Ritualism
cannot be prevented by a particular traffic unit. 2582. It is referred to as oldest and biggest criminal
A.point of no escape organization in the world.
B.point of Possible Perception a. Mafia
C.Perception Delay b. Yakuza
D.Any of the above c. Chinese Triad
2571. Main cause of human trafficking. d. Cali Cartel
a. lack of employment opportunities 2583. The name given to a person afflicted with a mental
b. poverty illness wherein he is sexually aroused by young children.
c. corruption in government a. Pedophile
d. organized crimes b. pervert
2572. Meaning of the phrase Abu Sayyaf c. Maniac
a. Holder of the sword d. Pedophilia
b. Founder of the sword
c. Bearer of the sword 2584. The former and original name of the Mafia
d. Keeper of the sword a. Sicilian Clan
2573. The other name given to the UN Convention Against b. Code of Omerta
Transnational Crimes c. Mafiosi
a. Palerna Convention d. La Cosa Nostra
b. Paterno Convention 2585. Moslem who participated in the Afghan war are
c. Palermo Convention referred to as
d. Paderno Convention a. Jihadis
2574. A prostitute who solicits customers in public places is b. Fundamentalists
called c. Mujaheddins
a. street walker d. Holy warriors
b. Johns. 2586. Founder of the New People’s Army of NPA
c. call boy. a. Jose Mari Chan
d. whore. b. Jose Maria Sison
2575. Placement is also called as c. Jose Marie Gonzales
a. heavy soaping d. Jose Maria Sioson
b. banking 2587. A member of the Bar refers to this profession
c. immersion a. judges
d. spin dry. b. investigators
2576. The Yakuza has the ritual of putting tattoos in almost c. lawyers
all parts of their bodies. The reason is d. prosecutors
a. their white bodies are very good materials to 2588. The year the UN Convention Against Transnational
make drawings. Crimes was held.
 a. 2000 2603. Terrorist group that operates within a single state or
b. 2002 country.
c. 2001 a. Transnational
d. 2003 b. national
2589. The founder of the Moro Islamic Liberation Front c. international
a. Nur Misuari d. none of them
b. Khadaffy Janjalani 2604. The most wanted terrorist in the world.
c. Hashim Salamat a. Yasser Arafat
d. Abdurajack Janjalani b. Abu Nidal
c. Osama Bin Laden
2590. The founder of the Moro National Liberation Front d. Mohammad Alzawari
a. Nur Misuari 2605. It is entitled as, ”An Act to Secure the State and
b. Khadaffy Janjalani Protect the People from Terrorism,”
c. Hashim Salamat a. RA 9372
d. Abdurajack Janjaalani b. RA 9732
2591. In the strategy of terrorist, what is used for the c. RA 9273
people, government and the world to know their aims? d. RA 9237
a. Television 2606. It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of
b. Newspaper force to achieve a political end.
c. Radio I. terrorism
d. All of the choices II. violence
2592. Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers of God”. III. felony
a. Abu Sayaff IV. criminal act
b. Hezbollah 2607. Who formally organized the Kuratong Baleleng?
c. Fatah I. Francisco Manuel
d. Hamas II. Franco Calanog
2593. The most notorious and sought after terrorist group III. Fidel Ramos
responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA. IV. Fajardo Sebastian
a. Hezbollah
b. Al Qaeda
c. Fatah 2608. An organized crime in the Philippines which is made
d. Hamas up of former MNLF and MILF rebels.
2594. South America country principal source of cocaine. I. A.Lexus Group
a. Brazil II. B.Pentagon Group
b. Spain III. C.Abu Sayyaf
c. Columbia IV. D.Ilonggo KFR Group
d. Chile 2609. The largest and most powerful triad.
2595. Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah I. A.Su Yee On
a. Israel II. B.14K
b. Gaza Strip III. C.Wo Shing Wo
c. Lebanon IV. Sham Shui Po
d. West bank 2610. What numeric code refer to the Dragon head of the
2596. The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy. chinese triads?
a. organization I. A.438
b. faction II. B.49
c. cell III. C.489
d. station IV. D.426
2597. Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US 2611. What do you call the act of lending money in
destroyer USS Cole in Yemen exchange of exorbitant interest?
a. Hezbollah I. Tax evasion
b. Hamas II. Revolutionary tax
c. Al Qaeda III. Sokaiya
d. Fatah IV. Loansharking
2612. What kind of vices are Lotto and casino?
a. common
2598. One of the most important components of terrorist- b. prohibited
related investigations is the collection and preservation of c. regulated
what? d. unusual
a. physical evidence 2613. What is the penalty of a person using a diplomatic
b. witnesses passport in importing prohibited drugs inside the country?
c. information I. A.8-12 years
d. all of these II. B.life imprisonment to death
2599. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wire Tapping Law.” III. C.40 years to life imprisonment
I. RA 4200 IV. all of the above
II. RA 4002 2614. What are the two divisions of Criminalistics?
C. RA 2004 a. Physiacl and metallurgical
D. RA 4020 b. Scientific and technological
2600. Meaning of the term “Jihad”. c. Biological and physiological
a. Holy War d. Biblical and Astrological
b. Holy Mass 2615. What is secreted by the endocrine glands which
c. Holy Cow trigger and control many kinds of bodily activities and
d. Holy Ghost behavior?
2601. Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda a. A.Tears
a. Yasser Arafart b. B.Hormone
b. Osama Bin Laden c. C.Blood
c. Abdurajack Janjalani d. Sweat
d. Abu Nidal 2616. Who among the following has the authority to conduct
2602. Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries examination of a deceased person?
a. M16 a. A.Medico Legal prober
b. AK47 b. B.Medical Justice
c. M14 c. C.Medico Legal Officer
d. Galil d. Medical Scientist
 2629. In the PNP what campaign was created to fight
2617. These are the three fold aims of the criminal against drug trafficking.
investigator, EXCEPT: a. Oplan lambat sibat
I. to identify the guilty party b. operation private eye
II. to provide evidence of his guilt c. operation public eye
III. to locate the guilty party d. oplan cleansweep
IV. to file charges at the proper court
2618. It is a type of search wherein one searcher is 2630. A fire just started only a very small or insignificant
assigned to each subdivision of a quadrant. Tax evasion portion of house was being damaged.
a. zone method a. Consummated arson
b. spiral method b. Attempted arson
c. wheel method c. Frustrated arson
d. strip method d. No crime
2619. It is the simplest way to locate points on sketch to 2631. When a person sets fire to his own property under
give the distances from two mutually perpendicular lines. what circumstances which expose to danger of life or
common property of another.
a. surveying methods a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
b. cross projection property
c. rectangular coordinates b. Arson
d. polar coordinate c. malicious mischief
2620. It is existing between the investigator and the subject, d. no crime
and it is usually determines the success of the 2632. Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of
investigation. his prayer.
a. rapport a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
b. personality property
c. breadth of interest b. Arson
d. the approach c. malicious mischief
2621. Usually, the conduct of investigation must start with d. no crime
this, purposely to develop rapport with the subject, either
the victim or suspect. 2633. It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in
I. opening statement combating organized crime and terrorism.
II. inquiry of subject a. family
III. narration b. school
IV. sympathetic approach c. NGO
d. Community
2622. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase mental 2634. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China
and physical function wherein the pro-democracy protesters was killed
a. stimulants a. Tiananmen square massacre
b. Depressants b. Beijing square massacre
c. Hallucinogens c. Tienanmen massacre
d. Narcotics/ Opiates d. Tienanmen square massacre
2623. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and medically 2635. A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City,
potent pain killers/ cough suppressants the offender is a resident from Manila while the victim from
a. stimulants Quezon City. Where the case should be filed?
b. Depressants a. Quezon City
c. Hallucinogens b. Pasig City
d. Narcotics/ Opiates c. Manila
2624. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing functional d. either of the above choices
nervous activity. 2636. It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous
a. stimulants drugs to implicate person to drug related crime.
b. Depressants a. Buy bust operation
c. Hallucinogens b. Instigation
d. Narcotics/ Opiates c. entrapment
d. planting evidence
2637. September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as
Intelligence_______.
2625. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that causes a. Invalidate
hallucinations and changes our perception, thought, b. unsolved
emotion and consciousness and physical function c. success
a. stimulants d. failure
b. Depressants 2638. In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be
c. Hallucinogens suicidal or accidental it should be treated as?
d. Narcotics/ Opiates a. Homicide case
2626. The following countries which considered as b. Suicide case
GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as world’s top c. Murder case
supplier for opium. Which of the choices does not belong. d. Any of the choices
a. Vietnam 2639. What is the penalty when a person bringing into
b. Iran country of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or
c. Afghanistan passport.
d. Pakistan a. Life imprisonment
2627. According to PDEA goal that Philippines’ will be a b. Life imprisonment-death
Drug Free Country in year___? c. death
a. 2035 d. no penalty because of immunity
b. 2025
c. 2030
d. 2020 2640. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to
2628. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and
participation of the community. communication system
a. Oplan lambat sibat a. hacking
b. operation private eye b. Trojan
c. operation public eye c. virus
d. oplan galugad d. intellectual property
 cause a self-contained combustion without the
2641. The vehicles should not parked at these area. addition of heat from outside sources.
a. Private driveway a. Boiling point
b. intersection b. Ignition temperature
c. pedestrian lane c. Fire point
d. fire hydrant d. Flash point
e. all the choices 2654. An exothermic chemical change in which a
combustible material react with an oxidizing agent.
2642. What is the penalty when a police officer failed to a. Thermal balance
appear in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable b. Thermal imbalance
reason? c. Combustion
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment d. Oxidation
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment 2655. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
c. Life imprisonment a. Pyrolysis
d. Death b. Combustion
2643. Most important equipment in traffic accident c. Detonation
investigation? d. All of the foregoing
a. cellphone 2656. A chemical decomposition of matter through the
b. camera action of heat.
c. Manila a. Pyrolysis
d. All of the choices b. Combustion
2644. What is the penalty when less than 5 grams c. Detonation
shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated. d. Oxidation
a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k 2657. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area
b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k of the material with unit temperature gradient.
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k a. Conduction
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to b. Thermal conductivity
400k c. Radiation
2645. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to d. Fission
facilitate proper sketch orientation. 2658. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through
a. Proper north space or materials as waves.
b. True north a. Conduction
c. Legend b. Convection
d. Compass direction c. Radiation
2646. A search method in which the searchers follow each d. Fission
other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside 2659. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose
proceeding toward the center. with a motive.
a. Zone method a. Providential fire
b. Wheel method b. Accidental fire
c. Spiral method c. Intentional fire
d. Strip method d. None of the foregoing
2647. Taking into custody property described in the search 2660. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in
warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
in a case. a. Arson
a. Seizure b. Providential fire
b. Detention c. Accidental fire
c. Safekeeping d. None of the foregoing
d. Confiscation 2661. First element known to man by experience, a colorless,
2648. A method of criminal identification whereby tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals a. Nitrogen
are identified by depiction. b. Hydrogen
a. Verbal description c. Oxygen
b. General photographs d. Neon
c. Police line up 2662. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to
d. Rouge gallery start a fire.
2649. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants. a. Fuel
a. Sprinkler b. Oxygen
b. Fire pump c. Heat
c. Fire hose d. None of the choices
d. Hydrant key 2663. Refers to gases liberated by heat.
2650. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a a. Free radicals
result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid b. Flash point
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings. c. Thermal balance
a. Dust d. Thermal imbalance
b. Oxidizing material 2664. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke
c. Pyrolysis and fire gases within a building or structure under natural
d. Cryogenic conditions.
2651. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at a. Free radicals
which vapors are evolved fast enough to support b. Pyrolysis
continuous combustion. c. Thermal balance
a. Ignition temperature d. Thermal imbalance
b. Kindling temperature 2665. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its
c. Fire point destructive capabilities is developed.
d. Flash point a. Initial phase
2652. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a b. Incipient phase
vapor-air mixture that ignites. c. Free burning phase
a. Ignition temperature d. Smoldering phase
b. Kindling temperature 2666. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
c. Fire point a. The fire triangle
d. Flash point b. The fingerprint of the fire
2653. Minimum temperature in which the substance c. Flashover
in the air must be heated in order to initiate or d. Incipient phase of the fire
 c. Asphalt singles
d. Chlorine
2667. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combus- 2681. Which among the following is commonly used in fire
tible portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is resistant materials?
characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and a. Asbestos
flames. b. Diamond
a. Flashover c. Asphalt
b. Backdraft d. Cotton
c. Thermal balance 2682. A form of static electricity of great magnitude
d. Thermal imbalance producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the
2668. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, most common cause of providential fires.
it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen. a. Rays of the sun
a. Flashover b. Spontaneous heating
b. Backdraft c. Arcing
c. Thermal balance d. Lighting
d. Thermal imbalance 2683. Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
2669. Which among the following is the primary objective in a. Smoking
investigating fires? b. Arcing
a. To determine its cause c. Sparkling
b. To prevent recurrence d. Overloading
c. To determine liable persons 2684. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within
d. All of the foregoing the room or throughout the structure.
2670. Reason why fire investigation is unique. a. Accelerant
a. It does not conform with regular investigative b. Plants
procedure c. Trailer
b. Unavailability of witnesses d. Wick
c. Fire destroys evidence 2685. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a
d. All of the foregoing contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
2671. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God. a. Accelerant
a. Providential b. Plants
b. Accidental c. Trailer
c. Intentional d. Wick
d. Incendiarism
2672. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat 2686. Most common reason of arson cases.
and oxygen. a. Revenge
a. Fire b. Profit
b. Origin of fire c. Competition
c. Fire triangle d. All of the foregoing
d. All of the foregoing 2687. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
2673. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns. a. Spontaneous heating
a. Fuel b. Combustible gases
b. Heat c. Combustible dust
c. Oxygen d. None of the choices
d. Gas 2688. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials
2674. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating to start a fire.
medium either gas or a liquid. a. Plants
a. Conduction b. Trailers
b. Convection c. Accelerants
c. Radiation d. Wick
d. Fission 2689. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
2675. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid. a. Abatement
a. Specific heat b. Combustion
b. Latent heat c. Allotment
c. Heat of Combustion d. Distillation
d. Heat of fusion
2676. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or 2690. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase mental
natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air. and physical function
a. Carbon black a. stimulants
b. Lamp black b. Depressants
c. Soot c. Hallucinogens
d. Black bone d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2677. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed 2691. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and medically
vapor as a result of combustion. potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
a. Fire a. stimulants
b. Flame b. Depressants
c. Heat c. Hallucinogens
d. Smoke d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2678. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation. 2692. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing functional
a. Fire nervous activity.
b. Flame a. stimulants
c. Heat b. Depressants
d. Smoke c. Hallucinogens
2679. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been d. Narcotics/ Opiates
contained.
a. Backdraft 2693. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that causes
b. Flashover hallucinations and changes our perception, thought,
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning emotion and consciousness and physical function
d. Falling debris a. stimulants
b. Depressants
2680. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames c. Hallucinogens
indicates the burning of what material? d. Narcotics/ Opiates
a. Rubber
b. Nitrogen products
2694. The following countries which considered as 2706. In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be
GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as world’s top suicidal or accidental it should be treated as?
supplier for opium. Which of the choices does not belong. a. Homicide case
a. Vietnam b. Suicide case
b. Iran c. Murder case
c. Afghanistan d. Any of the choices
d. Pakistan 2707. What is the penalty when a person bringing into
2695. According to PDEA goal that Philippines’ will be a country of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or
Drug Free Country in year___? passport.
a. 2035 a. Life imprisonment
b. 2025 b. Life imprisonment-death
c. 2030 c. death
d. 2020 d. no penalty because of immunity
2696. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the 2708. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to
participation of the community. corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and
a. Oplan lambat sibat communication system
b. operation private eye a. hacking
c. operation public eye b. Trojan
d. oplan galugad c. virus
2697. In the PNP what campaign was created to fight d. intellectual property
against drug trafficking. 2709. The vehicles should not parked at these area.
a. Oplan lambat sibat a. Private driveway
b. operation private eye b. intersection
c. operation public eye c. pedestrian lane
d. oplan cleansweep d. fire hydrant
e. all the choices
2698. A fire just started only a very small or insignificant 2710. What is the penalty when a police officer failed to
portion of house was being damaged. appear in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable
a. Consummated arson reason?
b. Attempted arson a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
c. Frustrated arson b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
d. No crime c. Life imprisonment
d. Death
2699. When a person sets fire to his own property under 2711. Most important equipment in traffic accident
what circumstances which expose to danger of life or investigation?
property of another. a. cellphone
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of b. camera
property c. Manila
b. Arson d. All of the choices
c. malicious mischief 2712. What is the penalty when less than 5 grams of
d. no crime shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
2700. Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
his prayer. b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
property d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to
b. Arson 400k
c. malicious mischief e.
d. no crime 2713. Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers of God”.
2701. It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in a. Abu Sayaff
combating organized crime and terrorism. b. Hezbollah
a. family c. Fatah
b. school d. Hamas
c. NGO 2714. The most notorious and sought after terrorist group
d. Community responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA.
a. Hezbollah
2702. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China b. Al Qaeda
wherein the pro-democracy protesters was killed c. Fatah
a. Tiananmen square massacre d. Hamas
b. Beijing square massacre 2715. South America country principal source of cocaine.
c. Tienanmen massacre a. Brazil
d. Tienanmen square massacre b. Spain
c. Columbia
2703. A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City, d. Chile
the offender is a resident from Manila while the victim from 2716. Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah
Quezon City. Where the case should be filed? a. Israel
a. Quezon City b. Gaza Strip
b. Pasig City c. Lebanon
c. Manila d. West bank
d. either of the above choices 2717. The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy.
2704. It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous a. organization
drugs to implicate person to drug related crime. b. faction
a. Buy bust operation c. cell
b. Instigation d. station
c. entrapment 2718. Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US
d. planting evidence destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
a. Hezbollah
2705. September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as b. Hamas
Intelligence_______. c. Al Qaeda
a. Invalidate d. Fatah
b. unsolved 2719. One of the most important components of terrorist-
c. success related investigations is the collection and preservation of
d. failure what?
a. physical evidence
 b. witnesses 2733. Children shall be given priority during_____ as result
c. information of armed conflict.?
d. all of these a. war
b. treatment
c. evacuation
d. education
2734. Science concerned with improving the quality of
2720. Meaning of the term “Jihad”. offspring.
a. Holy War a. criminology
b. Holy Mass b. eugenics
c. Holy Cow c. genetics
d. Holy Ghost d. heredity
2721. Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda
a. Yasser Arafart
b. Osama Bin Laden
c. Abdurajack Janjalani 2735. Commonly known as victimless crime:
d. Abu Nidal A.occassional crime
2722. Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries B.political crime
a. M16 C.public order crime
b. AK47 D. conventional crime
c. M14 2736. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately
d. Galil unattended.
2723. Terrorist group that operates within a single state or a. abandoned child
country. b. dependent child
a. Transnational c. abusive child
b. national d. neglected child
c. international 2737. The principle that events including criminal behavior
d. none of them that has sufficient causes..
2724. The most wanted terrorist in the world. a. atavism
a. Yasser Arafat b. narassism
b. Abu Nidal c. determinism
c. Osama Bin Laden d. positivism
d. Mohammad Alzawari 2738. An established and generally accepted moral values
2725. It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of refer to.
force to achieve a political end. a. integrity
I. terrorism b. morality
II. violence c. ethical standard
III. felony d. authority
IV. criminal act 2739. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.
2726. The largest and most powerful triad. a. split mind
I. Su Yee On b. psychosis
II. 14K c. neurosis
III. Wo Shing Wo d. schizoprenia
IV. Sham Shui Po
2740. What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate
2727. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in events?
conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private A.mass murder
citizens is termed as: B. serial killer
C.homicidal
A.Arrest D. spree killer
B.Initialcontact 2741. A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank,
C.Childcustody flees with hostages, and kills a number of people while in
D. All of the above flight diving a chase would be an example of:

2728. It is the study of human society, its origin structure, A. Serial Murder
functions and direction. B. Spree Murder
a. criminology C. Mass Murder
b. sociology D. Multiple Murder
c. psychology 2742. What is the legal term for nighttime?
d. anthropology A. sanctuary
2729. The science of classifying the physical characteristics. B.absurdity
a. free will C. ephitomy
b. positivism D. nocturnity
c. atavism 2743. These are the rights of an accused that are derived
d. somatology from special laws enacted by Congress.
2730. The approach that is using the perspective of heredity A. Constitutional rights
in explaining the cause of crime. B. Civil rights
a. geographical approach C.Statutoryrights
b. biological approach D. Natural rights
c. psychiatric application 2744. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total
d. psychological application crime volume of 84, 875, How many crimes were reported
2731. The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of to the police?
criminology. a. 22, 868
a. retribution b. 22, 068
b. rejection c. 20, 250
c. reformation d. 32, 644
d. restoration 2745. What is the antonyms of the word arrest?
2732. It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the A. Apprehend
behavior of the criminal. B. Search
a. entomology C. Set free
b. penology D. Renounce
c. phrenology 2746. How many members composed the “Pangkat?”
d. criminology A. 1 member C. 2 members
 C. Restorative Justice
B. 3 members D. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
D. 4 members 2759. This crimes are those that the lower class commit
2747. Murder cases numbered 180 in 2010 and 220 in against the upper class of society in a capitalist system
2011. What was the percent increase? A. Crimes of Passion
a. + 22.2% B. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
b. + 20.2% C. Crimes of domination and Repression
c. + 22.0% D. Crimes of Lower class group
d. + 20.1% 2760. The ruling class in a capitalist system is the
2748. If the population in municipality A is 195, 000 and the A. Proletariat
crime volume is 2, 540, what is the crime rate? B. Bourgeois
a. 1230.6 C. Capitalist
b. 1465.2 D. Ruling class
c. 1302.6 2761. Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked
d. 1203.5 communism as a remedy?
2749. In 2011 there were 90,345 crimes reported to the A. George Vold
police. If the 2011 population was 63 million what was the B. Karl Marx
crime rate? C. Emile Durkheim
a. 147.5 b. 145.7 D. Max Weber
c. 143.4 2762. This theory believes that society is divided into two
d. 154.7 groups with competing values the upper class and lower
2750. In 2000 the police recorded a total of 84,875 crimes class.
committed. If the population was 62 million what was the A. Class Theory
crime rate? B. Differential Opportunity
a. 139.6 b. 193.6 C. Conflict Theory
c. 136.9 D. Consensus Theory
d. 163.9 2763. A problem that occurs when offenders who have been
2751. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total released from the system are placed in a program simply
crime volume of 84, 875, how many crimes were reported because the program exist.
to the police? A. Diversion Movement
a. 20, 250 B. Intervention
b. 32, 644 C. Net widening
c. 22, 068 D. Primary Deviance
d. 22, 858 2764. The term criminology was originally derived from
2752. If the 128 murder cases in City B represent 40% of Italian word:
the total murder cases in the province, what is the total a. crimen
value for murder cases province wide? b. criminologo
a. 120 c. criminologia
b. 420 d. criminologie
c. 430 2765. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the
d. 340 society to prevent and repressed them?
2753. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result a. Crime
of the frustration and anger people experience over their b. Criminology
inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success. c. Victimology
a. strain theory d. Criminal justice
b. psychological theories 2766. The study of Criminology involves the use of
c. differential association theory knowledge and concept of other sciences and field of
d. labeling theory study which makes the study of criminology:
a. Dynamic
2754. This theory suggest that stability and changes in b. Nationalistic
criminal and deviant behavior through time and different c. Social science
stages in life. d. An applied science
A. Self Derogation Theory 2767. Criminal ________ refers to the study of the
B. Anomie Theory relationship between criminality and the inhabitants of a
C. Life Course Theory certain locality:
D. Routine Activities Theory a.Ecology
2755. This theory suggest that females and males are b) Demography
becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and c) Epidiomology
education d) Physical anthropology
A. Feminist Theory 2768. It is the study of human society, Its origin, structure,
B. Paternalism functions and direction.
C. Liberation Theory a. Sociology
D. Life Course Theory b. Criminology
2756. In the power control theory by Hagan, which father c. Psychology
and mother share similar roles in the workplace and power d. Anthropology
in the family 2769. It deals primarily with the study of crime causation.
A. Feminist theory a. Criminology
B. Egalitarian family b. Criminal Etiology
C. Patriarchal family c. Victimology
D. Matriarchal family d. Criminal Sociology
2757. These views suggest that males such as judges, 2770. An act or omission in violation of the public law
police officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional commanding or forbidding it.
views on women thus, they are more lenient to them as a. Crime
compared to their male counterparts. b. Felony
A. Paternalism c. Offense
B. Chivalry Hypothesis d. Infraction of law
C. Masculinity 2771. Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by
D. Power Control Theory _____________.
2758. This new branch in criminology opposes the a. Culpa
theoretical perspective and proposes the involvement of b. intent
all stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions c. Fault
A. Peacemaking Criminology d. both a and c
B. Sociology of Law
2772. The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit, to distinguish between what is right and wrong and fully
EXCEPT: understands the consequences of his actions:
a. Intelligence a. intelligence
c. Freedom b. imprudence
b. Intent c. intent
d. Negligence d. freedom
2773. Perla, a victim of rape, was able to identify her 2784. A psychological disorder in which a child shows
assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on her way to the developmentally inappropriate impulsivity, hyperactivity
hospital where she was declared dead on arrival, This and lack of attention.
crime is called, a. psychotism
a. complex crime b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
b. simple crime c. neuroticism
c) instant crime d. KSP disorder
d) situational crime 2785. The commission of criminal acts using the
2774. Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman in making instruments of modern technology such as computers or
deception through verbal communication. She had the internet.
committed estafa to several persons through illegal a. cyber sex
recruitment. What crime according to result did she b. cyber crime
committed? c. computer crimes
a. acquisitive crime d. computer hacking
b. extinctive crime 2786. An act in violation of the criminal law that is designed
c) instant crime to bring financial gain to the offender.
d) situational crime a. organized crime
2775. It refers to the study of the role of the victim in the b. economic crime
commission of a crime. c. cyber crime
a. criminal victim d. profit crime
b. criminal psychiatry 2787. This term literally means “little war”. Today, the term
c. victimless crime is used interchangeably with the term “terrorism”.
d. victimology a. violence
2776. It is the scientific study of human behavior or man’s b. revolution
external manifestation in relation to criminality. c. guerilla
a) Epidiomology d. rebel
b) Criminal Psychiatry 2788. The killing of a large number of people over time by
c) Criminal psychology an offender who seeks to escape detection.
d) Physical anthropology a. road rage
2777. A crime can be classified according to its stages of b. hate crime
commission. What crime is committed when the offender c. mass murder
merely commences the execution of an offense by overt d. serial murder
act but which nevertheless did not perform all acts of 2789. Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.
execution which would produce the felony by reason of a. Margaret Juke b. Ada
some cause other than his own spontaneous desistance? Kallikak
a. Attempted crime c. Ada Juke
b. Consummated crime d. Ada Edwards
c. Frustrated crime 2790. It refers to an study showing the relationship between
d. Complex crime the physical built of a person to his personality structure
2778. It is the process by which individual reduce the and the type of offense he is most prone to commit
frequency of their offending behavior as the age a. physiognomy b)
increases. somatotype
a. doing gender c. phrenology
b. aging out d) psychology
c. criminal reduction 2791. It is a proposal of a double male or super male
d. active precipitation syndrome. This theory held that the possession of an extra
2779. Crimes are classified under the Revised Penal Code Y-chromosome causes males to be violent and
according to their gravity. What crime to which the law aggressive.
attaches the capital punishment or afflictive penalties. a. XYY syndrome b XXY
a. grave felonies syndrome
b. less grave felonies c. YYX syndrome d. YXX
c. light felonies syndrome
d. complex felonies 2792. A phenomenon that refers to the handling down of
2780. What crimes according to the time or period of the delinquent behaviors as socially learned and transferred
commission are those which are committed only when the from one generation to the next taking place mostly
circumstances or situation is conducive to its commission among disorganized urban areas.
like for instance, committing theft in a crowded place. a. Cultural Transmission b) Social
a. seasonal crimes Phenomenon
b. instant crimes c. Crime
c. situational crimes d) Delinquent behavior
d. continuing crimes 2793. In this theory of crime causation, mankind is viewed
2781. There are crimes that are committed within a certain as manifestations of basically evil human nature reflecting
length of time. What crime is committed by a series of acts either with the prince of darkness or an expression of
in a lengthy space of time? divine wrath.
a. static crime a. Classical theory
b. instant crime b. positivist theory
c. situational crime c. Demonological theory
d. episoidal crime d. neo-classical theory
2782. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and others which 2794. An attempt to determine intelligence and personality
are committed to maintain one’s livelihood or as a means on the basis of the size and shape of the skull.
for living are what crimes? a. Physiognomy
a. Rational crimes b. palmistry
b. Irrational crimes c. Craniology
c. Blue-collar crimes d. Somatotype
d. White collar crimes 2795. It involves the measurement of facial and other body
2783. It is that element of intentional felony which means characteristics as indicative of human personality.
that the person who committed the felony has the capacity a. Physiology
 b. somatotype a. Cesare Beccaria
c. Physiognomy b. Cesare Lombroso
d. Palmistry c. Emile Durkheim
2796. According to Sheldon, the three “somatotypes” or d. Enrico Ferri
body built which have relationships to personality
characteristics are the following, EXCEPT: 2808. This theory contested the findings of Beccaria’s Free
a. Ectomorph Will Study, stating that its absence among mentally
b. extomorph retardate persons or those with some psychological
c. Endomorph imbalances and personality disorders or physical
d. Mesomorph disabilities, could likewise lead to violation of laws thereby
2797. A type of violent offender who uses violence as a citing said theory as one of crime causation.
means of perpetrating the criminal act: a. Classical Criminology
a. Culturally violent offender b. Positivist Criminology
b. pathologically violent offender c. Neoclassical Criminology
c. Criminally violent offender d. Social Structure Theory
d. d. situationally violent offender 2809. This refers to the act of killing a large number of
2798. One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of people in a single violent outburst.
etiology. What kind of criminal is that whose action arises a. Road rage
from the intra-psychic conflict between the social and anti- b. serial killing
social components of his personality? c. Mass murder
a. Acute d. mass destruction
c. Chronic 2810. A type of sexual deviancy where the person achieves
b. neurotic sexual gratification by cruelty, psychotic desire to often
d. normal torment torture or otherwise abuse his victim.
2799. Criminals can also be classified according to this a. Masochism
behavioral system. What are those criminals who have b. bestiality
high degree of organization that enables them to commit c. Sadism
crime without being detected and usually operates in a d. Incest
large scale? 2811. A sexual relationship between persons closely related
a. ordinary criminals by blood.
b. professional criminals a. Incest
c. situational criminals b. sadism
d. organized criminals c. Masochism
2800. A forcible sex in which the offender and the victim are d. rape
acquainted with each other. 2812. These are violent acts directed toward a particular
a. statutory rape person or members of group merely because the targets
b. date rape share discernible racial, ethnic, religious or gender
c. marital rape characteristics.
d. acquaintance rape a. Violent crimes
2801. According to Lombroso, these are physical b. hate crimes
characteristics that distinguish born criminals from the c. Copy-cat crimes
general population and are throwbacks to animals or d. victimless crimes
primitive people. 2813. A term to denote a premeditated, politically motivated
a. physical deviations violence perpetrated against non-combatant targets by
b. distinguishable traits subnational groups or clandestine agents, usually
c. atavistic stigmata intended to influence an audience.
d. ape-like appearance a. Rebellion
2802. It is the most essential part of the definition of the b. piracy
criminal law: c. Terrorism
a. elements d. little war
b. penalty 2814. It conceded that certain factors such as insanity might
c. degree of evidence inhibit the exercise of free will.
d. motive a. Classical theory
b. neo-classical
2803. The concept that conduct norms are passed down c. Sociological
from one generation to the next so that they become d. positivist
stable within the boundaries of a culture. 2815. These are crimes committed by a person of
a. heredity respectability and high social status in the course of
b. inheritance occupation.
c. cultural transmission a. Blue collar crimes
d. DNA b. crime of the upper world
2804. Group of urban sociologists who studies the c. White collar crimes
relationship between environmental conditions and crime. d. crime of the underworld
a. classical school 2816. Public order crime is otherwise known as:
b. chicago school a. Violent crimes
c. neo-classical school b. economic crimes
d. positive school c. Organized crimes
2805. He is recognized as the first codifier of laws: d. victimless crimes
a. Drakon 2817. The law that provides Board Examination for
b. the Hittites Criminologists in the Philippines.
c. Solon a. R.A. 6975
d. Hammurabi b. R.A. 8551
2806. He said that individuals are like human calculators. c. R.A. 6506
Before a person commits a crime, he first analyzes d. R.A. 8353
whether the satisfaction he would gain is greater than the 2818. Criminals who have a high degree of organization to
possible negative effect he would have to suffer if the gets enable them to commit crimes without being detected.
caught doing the crime: a. Professional criminals
a. Cesare Beccaria b. ordinary criminals
b. Cesare Lombroso c. Organized criminals
c. Edwin Sutherland d. expert criminals
d. Jeremy Bentham
2807. Who stated that crime is normal in a society? 2819. Who among the following are the “Holy Three in
Criminology”?
 a. Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria c. hypoglycemia
b. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri d. hypoglycomia
c. Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri 2830. This school on crime causation emphasized economic
d. Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso determinism and concentrated on the need for the quality
2820. Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____ among all citizens. They provided statistical data which
wherein he concluded that the main difference between a claimed to show that variations in crime rates are
criminal and a non-criminal is that each is responding to associated with variations in economic conditions.
different sets of conduct norms. a. Cartographic School
a) Emile Durkheim b. Socialist School
b) Andre Michael Guerry c. Psychiatric School
c) Thorsten Sellin d. Chicago School
d) Abraham Maslow 2831. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) This
was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing the
2821. This school of thought in criminology states that personality that is characterized by an inability to learn
although individuals have self-rule, there are other factors from experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt
that affect the exercise of their autonomy, which cause better known as:
them commit crimes: a. psychotic personality
a) neo-classical b. psychopathic personality
b) utilitarianism c. neurotic behavior
c) classical d. dementia praecox
d) positivist
2822. This theory reflects the way people react to a given
situation based on the social influences they acquired from 2832. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his
other people that practically determine their behaviors. ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law,
This theory likewise serves as the learning process of and as a private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as
delinquent behaviors and considered as one of the most pointed out in this particular theory.
important theory in crime causation.
a) Social Disorganization theory a. Disorganization Theory
b) Culture Conflict theory b. Culture Conflict Theory
c) Differential Association Theory C.Differential Association Theory
d) Social Reaction Theory d. Strain Theory
2823. It is the breakdown of social order as a result of the
loss of order in a society. 2833. Crimes which occur per 100,000 population per
a. synomie month. It is the theoretical basis which determines the
b) anarchy peace and order situation.
c) anomie a. index crimes
d) chaos b. crime rate
c. non-index crimes
d. crime statistics
2834. The Idea that low female crime and delinquency rates
2824. He introduced the “theory of imitation” which states are a reflection of the leniency which the police treat
that individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals, female offenders.
and that those with weaker personalities tend to get a. Doing gender
influenced easier by those with stronger personalities: b. masculinity hypothesis
a. Emile Durkheim b) c. Chivalry hypothesis
Adolphe Quetelet d. pre-menstrual syndrome
c) Gabriel Tarde 2835. A stage of development when girls begin to have
d) Enrico Ferri sexual feeling for their fathers.
2825. A term that used to describe motorists who assault a. Oedipus complex
each other. b. doing gender
a. road rage c. Electra complex
b. predation d. chivalry hypothsis
c. hate crime 2836. The legal principle by which the decision or holding in
d. serial murder an earlier case becomes the standard by which
2826. This theory argues that intelligence is largely subsequent similar cases are judged. It literally means “to
determined genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and, stand by decided cases”.
that low intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to a. jus desert
behavior including criminal behavior: b. stare decisis
a. Nature Theory c. story decisis
b) Psychological theory d. just stare
c) Strain Theory 2837. This is a theory by Robert Merton which assumes that
d) Labeling theory people are law abiding but under great pressure, they will
resort to crime.
2827. The theory which states that attachment, connection a. strain theory
and link to society will determine whether a person shall b. social learning
commit a crime or not: c. cultural deviance
a. social control d. anomie
b) social disorganization 2838. The first IQ test was developed by a French
c) social bond psychologist named:
d) social learning a. Rafael Garofalo
2828. The philosophy of justice that asserts that those who b. Albert Bandura
violate the rights of others deserve to be punished. The c. Walter Reckless
severity of the punishment should be commensurate with d. Alfred Binet
the seriousness of the crime. 2839. His study focused on the Kallikak family tree and he
a. restorative justice concluded that feeblemindedness is inherited and related
b. jus desert to deviant behavior and poverty. He was the first person to
c. utilitarianism d. use the term “moron”.
equality of punishment a. Robert Dugdale
2829. A condition in which the glucose in the blood falls b. Henry Goddard
below levels necessary for normal and efficient brain c. Eaenest Hooton
functioning. d. Charles Goring
a. hyperglycemia 2840. This theory focuses on the development of high crime
b. hyperglycomia areas associated with the disintegration of conventional
 values caused by rapid industrialization, increased 2851. It states that individuals are deviant mainly because
migration and urbanization. they have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and
a. Cultural Deviance Theory others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act
b. Differential Association Theory itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the
c. Social Disorganization Theory actor.
d. Strain Theory a. Containment Theory
b. Theory of Imitation
2841. A societal stage marked by normlessness in which c. Social Process Theory
disintegration and chaos have replaced social cohesion. d. Social Reaction theory
a. Social disorganization 2852. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with
b. Anomie five (5) or more atavistic stigmata.
c. Strain a. Born-criminal type
d. Synomie b. insane
2842. It is otherwise known as the decline in criminal c. Criminaloid
activities together with the time. d. pseudo-criminal
a. Birth cohort 2853. These are crimes which are wrong from their very
b. aging out phenomenon nature. Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other
c. Criminal aging violations of the Revised Penal Code.
d. crime rate a. Heinous crimes
2843. He invoked that only justified rationale for laws and b. mala in se
punishment is the principle of the greatest happiness c. Serious crimes
shared by the greatest number of people. d. mala prohibita
a. Utilitatrianism 2854. These are crimes which are wrong only because
b. Jeremy Bentham there are laws that prohibit them in order to regulate an
c. Felicific Calculus orderly society. Examples of these are the violations of
d. Cesare Beccaria special laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”.
a. Mala prohibita
2844. The beginning to have sexual feelings for the mother, b. less grave felonies
which occurs during the third year from birth is known as: c. Mala in se
a. Oedipus Complex d. light felonies
b. Inferiority Complex 2855. The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen
c. Electra Complex nulla poena sine lege” means:
d. Incest a. An act done by me against my will is not
2845. Serious illegal detention is a crime committed through my act
series of acts or episodes and in much longer time. This b. There is no crime where no law
crime is classified as: punishing it.
a. Instant crime c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
b. episoidal crime d. Mistake of fact is an excuse.
c. Situational crime 2856. He was the one who introduced the following
d. seasonal crime definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge
2846. The following are the characteristics of the Classical regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It includes
School of Criminology: within its scope the process of making laws, of breaking
I. The basis of criminal liability is human free laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
will and the purpose of penalty is retribution a) Raffaelle Garofalo
II. Man is essentially a moral creature with an b) Edwin Sutherland
absolute free will to choose between right c) Cesare Beccaria
and wrong. d) Paul Topinard
III. Criminals are distinguishable from non- 2857. Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill.
criminals because of their physical It is focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not
deviations. he will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical
IV. That every man is therefore responsible for Theory in giving punishment is________________.
his act. a) Restoration
b) Treatment
a. I, II, III are correct. c) Retribution
b. I, III, IV are correct. d) Deterrence
c. II, III, IV are correct.
d. I, II, IV are correct.
2847. It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the 2858. Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the
exercise of free will. commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty,
a. Classical theory without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty
b. positivist theory provided by law for the offense.
c. Neo-classical theory a. Justifying
d. radical theory b. Exempting
2848. His great contributions to criminology were the c. Mitigating
principle of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus. d. Aggravating
a. Cesare Beccaria 2859. Those wherein the acts of the person are in
b. Jeremy Bentham accordance with the law, hence he incurs no criminal
c. Cesare Lombroso liability.
d. Emile Durkheim a. Exempting
2849. He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired b. aggravating
the now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop c. Justifying
the theory of atavism. d. Mitigating
a. Cesare Lombroso 2860. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Manila
b. Charles Goring City Hall on January 14, 2011. June 14, 2011, a city
c. Cesare Beccaria ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the
d. Charles Darwin vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of
2850. According to him, people with criminal behavior, loitering?
should be prohibited from having children. a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
a. Robert Dugdale b. Yes under the principle of retroactive
b. Henry Goddard effect of criminal law
c. Charles Goring c. No, for the act was done prior to the
d. George Wilker effectivity of the law.
d. No, for A did not loiter again.
2861. His theory was that God did not make all the various a. abandoned child
species of animals in two days, as what the bible says but b. abused child
rather that the species had evolved through a process of c. neglected child
adoptive mutation and natural selection which led to his d. dependent child
conclusion that man was traced to have originated from 2872. In the absence of death of both parents of the child
the apes. who shall continue to exercise authority over the child?
a. Jeremy Bentham I. Surviving grand parents
b. Charles Darwin II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of
c. Prince Charles age
d)Charles de Gaulle III. Surviving parents of child
2862. Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21
of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works, years of age.
upon his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute a. I, II and IV only
of Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be further b. I and II only
studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern c. I, II, III only
and Empirical Criminology”. d. all of the above
a) Cesare Beccaria 2873. Is a self-association of peers, bound together by
b) Edwin Sutherland mental interest, who acted in concert in order to achieve a
c) Cesare Lombroso specific purpose which includes the conduct of illegal
d) Jeremy Bentham activities and control over a particular territory, facility or
2863. Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes type of enterprises.
of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works, a. Juvenile gang
upon his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute b. Organized criminal
of Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be further c. a bond
studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern d. street corner gang
and Empirical Criminology”.
a) Cesare Beccaria 2874. The court can suspend parental authority if it finds
b) Edwin Sutherland that the parent:
c) Cesare Lombroso I. Treats the child with excessive
d) Jeremy Bentham harshness of cruelty.
2864. Which of the following is NOT included in the II. Gives the child corrupting order, counsel
components of criminal justice system of the United or example
States? III. Compel the child to beg
a. Law enforcement IV. Imposed to child disciplinary actions.
b. Corrections a. I and II only
c. Prosecution c. I and III only
d. Courts b. I, II, III and IV
2865. The power of the state to give any form of charity of d. I, II and III only
public nature. It is the philosophy behind the view that 2875. Who among the following is considered as “Child in
youthful offender/child in conflict with the law is the victim Conflict with the Law”?
of improper care and that the state is duty bound to a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
provide protection. b. Yang who is 10 years old.
a. positivism c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old
b. loco parentis d. anyone of them
c. patria potestas d. 2876. Refers to the totality of the circumstances which are
parens patriae most beneficial for the child.
2866. Under the law, they are the one responsible for a. child as zone of peace b. nation
preventing the child from becoming addicted to building
intoxicating drinks, narcotic drugs, smoking, gambling or c. best interest of the child
any harmful practices. d. presumption of minority
a. DSWD 2877. Is the mass obligation which the parents have in
b. Parents relation to the persons and property of their an
c. state unemancipated child.
d. police a. Paretal authority
2867. The civil personality of the child is deemed to have b. Patria Potestas
been commenced upon: c. Parens’ Patriae
a. birth of the child d. Parental Responsibility
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday 2878. A person of such age is automatically exempted from
c. from the time of his conception criminal liability but should be taken to the custody and
d. upon reaching the age of majority care of his parents, DSWD representative or any
2868. Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as institution engage in child caring.
the legal guardian of the child even though the parents of a. 15 years and below
the child are still alive when the best interest of the said b. under 18 years of age
child so require. c. under 15 years of age
a. adopter d. under 21 years of age
b. loco parentis 2879. Refers to a child raise to the status of legitimate child
c. guardian ad litem by subsequent marriage of his/her parents.
d. temporary guardian a. illegitimate
2869. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is b. legitimated
exempt from criminal liability unless: c. legitimate
a. he is committed a henious crime d. adopted
b. he is the principal accused 2880. In case of separation between parents of the child, a
c. he acted without discernment child of such age is given by the court the preference to
d. he acted with discernment choose between either parents.
2870. The Child in Conflict with the law cannot be a. under 9 years of age
prosecuted for the commission of the following, EXCEPT: b. 7 years of age
a. mendicancy c. 10 years of age
b. sniffing of rugby d. 5 years of age
c. prostitution 2881. Refers to aggregate of persons working in
d. theft commercial, industrial and agricultural establishments or
2871. A child left by himself without provisions for his enterprises whether belonging to the labor or management
needs/or without proper supervision falls under what whose primary duty is to care for the welfare of the
special category of a child? working children.
 a. civic association of adult
b. community
c. Samahan
d. youth association
2882. Parental authority is deemed terminated upon:
a. death of the parents
b. emancipation of the child
c. death of the child
d. All of the choices
2883. Which of the following is the best way for the police to
win youth’s trust and confidence?
a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are strong
c. show to them that your bearing is good
and stand with pride
d. let them know that you are an agent of a
person in authority
2884. A child born inside a marriage where either party is
suffering from an impediments.
a. illegitimate child
b. legitimated child
c. legitimate child
d. adopted child
2885. This refers to the apprehension or taking into custody
of a child who committed an offense by the law
enforcement officer:
a. initial contact with the child
b. preliminary investigation
c. initial investigation
d. inquest proceedings
2886. This common procedure applied when arresting an
offender shall NOT be employed when the person who is
the subject of apprehension is a child.
a. informing the suspect is a child
b. stating the reason for the arrest
c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
2887. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and
conditions which are most congenial to the survival,
protection and feelings of security of the child and most
encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and
emotional development. It also means the least
detrimental available alternative for safeguarding the
growth and development of the child.
a. Child at risk
b. Best Interest of the Child
c. Full development.
d. Child welfare program
2888. In case of a child in conflict with the law his age shall
be determine in the absence of proof what principle shall
be observed?
a. He is presumed to be minor
b. He should prove his age
c. The Birth certificate should be produced
pending such issuance he should be hold.
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to
prove his age.
2889. It is the psychological, emotional and behavioral
reactions and deficits of women victims and their inability
to respond to repeated physical and psychological
violence?
A. Battered Woman Syndrome
B. Battered Wife
C. Abused Woman
D. Rape trauma syndrome
2890. Child in conflict with the law may undergo diversion
program without necessity of court intervention on the
following:
a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
committee is not more than six (6) years
imprisonment;
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment;
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
committed exceeds six (6) years but not more
than 12 years imprisonment;
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
committed does not exceeds 12 years
imprisonment.
2891. Once the court, after trial finds that a child in conflict
with the law is guilty of the crime charged, the court shall:
A. Pronounce its judgment;
B. Wait for the application for suspension of
sentence of the child and order his turn over to
DSWD.
C. Automatically place the child in conflict
with law under suspension of sentence.
D. Determine the civil liability and order the
final discharge of the child in conflict with the law.
2892. Once the child in conflict with the law reached the age
of 18 while under suspended sentence the court may:
A. Order the execution of sentence;
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with
the law;
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain
period or to its maximum age of 21.
D. Any of the above choices
2893. All records and proceedings involving children in
conflict with the law from initial contact until final
disposition of the case shall be:
a. placed in the dockets of court forms part
of the public record;
b. open to the public;
c. considered restricted;
d. considered privileged and confidential
2894. Mona was charged with vandalism on her 18 th
birthday when she painted her neighbor’s walls with
greeting to herself. How will you classify Mona as an
offender?
a. juvenile offender
b. habitual offender
c. adult offender
d. none
2895. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are correct:
a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile
delinquency when parents find it hard to balance their
jobs with their parental responsibilities
b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency
c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency
d. it is only within the family that a child must
learn his life values
2896. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, roams the street
24 hours a day with no place to go, surviving on foods
given by kind-hearted people with no one to supervise him
at his young age of six (6). How do you categorize Pedro
as a child?
a. neglected child b.
independent child
c. Abandoned child
d. dependent child
2897. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old mongoloid, was raped by
her addict neighbor, Mr. Go. How do you classify her as a
victim?
a. an adult
b. an insane
c. a child
d. an adolescent
2898. It is the act of buying and selling children:
a. exploitation
b. prostitution
c. abuse
d. trafficking
2899. This refers to the maltreatment of children, whether
habitual or not:
a. exploitation
b. abuse
c. prostitution
d. trafficking
2900. Children are declared as ____________ in situations
of armed conflict:
a. priorities for evacuation
b. exemptions
c. zones of peace
d. shields
2901. This refers to pledging by the debtor of his or her
personal services or those of a person under his or her
control as security or payment for a debt, when the length
and nature of services are not clearly defined:
a. debt bondage
b. involuntary servitude
c. abuse
d. slavery
2902. A working child below fifteen years old may be b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is
allowed to work for only _______ hours per day: incorrect.
a. eight c. The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2nd is
b. four correct.
c. five d. Both statements are incorrect.
d. six 2914. The “Anti-Violence Against Women and their Children
2903. Publication of photographs of persons or children in Act of 2004”:
various obscene or indecent poses meant to cause sexual a. R.A. 9262
excitement to those who will see them is a form of: b. R.A. 7610
a. adult entertainment c. R.A. 9208
b. illegal publication d. R.A. 9344
c. obscene material 2915. It refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the
d. pornography woman or her child resulting to the physical and
2904. Employers shall provide an opportunity for education psychological or emotional distress.
to all working children up to this level: a. stalking
a. elementary b. economic abuse
b. college c. battery
c.secondary d. vocational d. sexual violence
2905. In employing children, the employment contract must 2916. This includes the employment, use, inducement or
be signed: coercion of a child to engage in sexual intercourse or
a) by the Department of Labor and lascivious conduct; the molestation, prostitution and or
Employment incest with children.
b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer a. sexual abuse
c) by the child’s parent or guardian b. physical abuse
d) and notarized by a Notary Public b. psychological abuse
2906. In cases of working children, this has the duty of d. cruelty
securing the permit from the Department of Labor and
Employment: 2917. Refers to a program organized by travel
a. parents establishments and individuals which consist of packages
b. working child or activities, utilizing and offering escort and sexual
c. manager services as enticement for tourists.
d. employer a. prostitution
2907. This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to b. exploitation
cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as c. sex tourism
but not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and d. pornography
repeated verbal abuse: 2918. Refers to an intentional act committed by a person
a. battery who knowingly and without lawful justification follows the
b. psychological woman or her child or places the woman or her child
c. sexual under surveillance directly or indirectly.
d. physical a. stalking
2908. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified b. economic abuse
when: c. battery
a) the person trafficked is an elderly d. sexual violence
b) the person trafficked is a woman 2919. A working child over fifteen but under eighteen may
c) the person trafficked is a special child work but his work hours must not exceed ____ hours:
d) the person trafficked is a child a) eight
2909. This refers to any word or deed which debases, b) seven
degrades or demeans the intrinsic worth and dignity of the c) ten
child as human being. d) six
a. eglect 2920. A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen
b. psychological abuse years old may be allowed to work between the hours of:
c. sexual abuse a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven
d. cruelty to eight o’clock p
c) six to ten o’clock pm
2910. The following person are liable for child prostitution, d) seven to ten o’clock pm
EXCEPT: 2921. It means failure to provide, for reasons other than
a. those who act as procurer of child poverty, the basic needs of the child, such as food,
prostitute clothing, medical care, shelter and basic education
b. children recruited as prostitutes a. sexual abuse
c. managers or owners of the establishment b. physical abuse
where the prostitution takes place c. psychological abuse
d. clients of child prostitute d. neglect
2911. This refers to the use, hiring, employment and 2922. Refers to acts that make or attempt to make a woman
coercing of children as actors or models in printed financially dependent.
pornographic materials: a. stalking
a. indecent shows b. economic abuse
b. child prostitution c. battery
c. obscene publication d. sexual violence
d. child exploitation
2912. The legislative act that penalizes the acts, means and 2923. No child shall be employed as a model in any
purposes of human trafficking: advertisement directly or indirectly promoting the following:
a. R.A. 9344 I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks
b. R.A. 7610 II. pornographic materials
c. R.A. 9208 III. medicines for use of adults
d. R.A. 8043 IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling
a. I, II, III are correct
2913. 1st. The crime of trafficking in person is qualified when b. II, III, IV are correct
the trafficked person is a child. c. I, II, IV are correct
2nd. As a general rule, children below 15 d. I, III, IV are correct
years of age shall not be employed. 2924. The law that provides special protection of children
against child abuse, exploitation and discrimination.
a. Both statements are correct. a. R.A. 7610
b. R.A. 9208
 c. R.A. 9231 c) a city or municipal jail
d. P.D. 603 d) an agricultural camp
2925. The law prohibiting the worst forms of child labor. 2938. Preliminary investigation shall only be conducted
a. R.A. 9262 when the:
b. R.A. 7610 a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
c. R.A. 9231 b) CICL is disqualified for diversion
d. R.A. 9344 c) CICL acted with discernment
2926. This form of child abuse includes lacerations, d) victim filed the complaint
fractured bones, burns, internal injuries and serious bodily 2939. The law enforcement officer must ensure that all
harm suffered by a child: statements signed by the child during investigation are
a. psychological witnessed and signed by the following:
b. emotional a) his parents, lawyer and social worker
c. physical b) his parents or guardian
d. cruelty c) legal counsel
d) social worker
2927. This refers to offenses where there is no private 2940. The body search of the child in conflict with the law
offended party: must be done only by a law enforcement officer:
a. Victimology a) who has initial contact
b. public order crime b) assigned to the case
c. Victimless crime c) of the opposite sex
d. d. both a and c d) of the same gender
2941. The first important thing that a law enforcer must do
2928. This is the Latin term for parental authority: upon initial contact is to ____:
a) loco parentis a) know the age of the child
b) patria potestas b) notify the local DSWD
c) parens patriae c) call the parents
d) patria adorada d) make a report
2929. Before any petition for adoption may be approved, the
adopter and the adoptee must first undergo a supervised 2942. It is the best evidence to prove the age of the child in
trial custody for a period of: conflict with the law:
a) at least six months a) testimony of the parents of the child
b) not more than six months b) testimony of the child
c) at least one year c) certificate of birth
d) not less than one year d) school records
2930. This refers to the document issued by the court 2943. It is the holding in abeyance of the service of the
signifying the approval of the application for adoption: sentence imposed by the court upon a finding of guilt of
a) decree of adoption the child in conflict with the law, whereby the child
b) petition for adoption undergoes rehabilitation within a fixed period under such
c) annulment terms and conditions as may be ordered by the court:
d) rescission a) probation
2931. This is the legal age in the Philippines: b) suspension of sentence
a) twenty-one c) parole
b) seventeen d) pardon
c) eighteen 2944. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after
d) twelve conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions
2932. A child who has been voluntarily or involuntarily imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation
committed to the DSWD or to a duly licensed child officer:
placement agency and is free from parental authority: a) suspension of sentence
a) child legally available for adoption b) parole
b) legally-free child c) probation
c) emancipated child d) pardon
d) abandoned child 2945. A child in conflict with the law is exempted from
2933. This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to _____:
cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as a) both criminal and civil liability
but not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and b) neither criminal nor civil liability
repeated verbal abuse: c) criminal liability only
a) battery d) civil liability only
b) psychological 2946. If the penalty for the crime committed by the CICL is
c) sexual imprisonment of more than six years, diversion will be
d) physical within the jurisdiction of the ____________:
2934. A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen a) barangay
years old may be allowed to work between the hours of: b) DSWD
a) six to eight o’clock pm c) police
b) seven to eight o’clock p d) court
c) six to ten o’clock pm 2947. Discernment is the determining factor if the CICL is
d) seven to ten o’clock pm over fifteen years old. The decision as to whether the
2935. Emancipation takes place when: child acted with or without discernment is made initially by
a) the parents decide to emancipate him or the _______:
her a) social worker
b) the child becomes 18 years old c) law enforcer
c) the child is already married b) CICL
d) the child applies for it d) judge
d) games and gadgets 2948. The duty of determining the age of the child in conflict
2936. The CICL shall be entitled to the automatic with the law lies with the _______:
suspension of sentence until the maximum age of __: a) social worker
a) twenty-three b) law enforcer
b) eighteen c) CICL
c) twenty-one d) judge
d) twenty
2937. In case the child has been found guilty by the court, 2949. The age of full criminal responsibility is:
he shall be ordered to be transferred to _______: a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
a) a youth rehabilitation center b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old
b) a youth detention home c. Over 15 but under 18 years old
 d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years a. phobia
old b. anger
2950. It pertains to the document that must be signed by the b. frustration
parents of the child in conflict with the law as part of the d. regression
conditions of diversion: 2962. Defense mechanisms are used to shield one’s self
a) contract of diversion proceedings from _____.
b) certification of conciliation a. anger
c) memorandum of agreement b. fear
d) contract of diversion c. pleasure
2951. A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen d. pain
years of age shall be turned over to the 2963. Human behavior is man’s response to the
________________ by the police for the determination of interpretation of the ______ from within the person or from
appropriate program: his environment.
a) nearest police station a. stimulus
b) family b. action
c) local DSWSD c. perception (respose to sensation) d.
d) court inclination
2964. This personality system controls the gateway to
2952. The diversion proceedings must be completed within action.
____ days: a. alter ego
a) thirty b. Id
b) forty-five c. ego
c) sixty d. Superego
d) twenty 2965. What is the process of interpreting our behavior in
2953. If the court finds that the child in conflict with the law ways to make it more acceptable to the self usually with
is guilty of the crime he is accused of doing, the the use of good reasons and alibi to substitute for real
____________ of the sentence shall automatically be cause?
suspended: a. projection
a) imposition b. sublimation
b) determination c. rationalization
c) execution d. Compensation
d) discharge
2954. The ________________ has the right to refuse the 2966. Conflicts and their behavioral outcomes are classified
diversion program designed for the child: as follows, EXCEPT:
a) offended party a. avoidance-approach
b) parents of the child b. avoidance-avoidance
c) victim c. approach-avoidance
d) social worker d. approach-approach
2955. When the court decides to execute the suspended 2967. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree
sentence, the child must be transferred to a: manifests what particular defense mechanism?
a) youth rehabilitation center a. repression
b) youth detention home b. sublimation
c) agricultural farm c. displacement
d) prison d. projection
2956. It shall be the duty of the ______________________ 2968. An uncontrollable, morbid propensity to steal or
to make proper recommendation to the court regarding the pathological stealing.
disposition of the child who is undergoing rehabilitation a. kleptomania
while under suspension of sentence: b. pyromania
a) prosecutor c. phobia
b) social worker d. Dipsomania
c) lawyer 2969. This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction
d) judge to an object or state of affairs at the same time repulsion
2957. All records pertaining to the case of the child in towards something associated with it.
conflict with the law shall remain _______ and ______: a. avoidance-avoidance
a) privileged and confidential c. approach-approach
b) classified and confidential c. approach-avoidance
c) privileged and restricted d. multiple
d) secret and confidential 2970. This is the process of excluding from the
consciousness a thought or feeling that causes pain,
2958. The age of full criminal irresponsibility is: shame or guilt.
a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with a. identification
discernment b. regression
b. 18 to 70 years old c. repression
c. 15 years old and below d. fixation
d. Below 18 even if the act is committed with 2971. This is an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt
discernment deficiencies or undesirable traits by emphasizing a
2959. It refers to the sum total of man's reaction to his desirable type of behavior.
environment or the way human beings act. a. rationalization
a. Human Beings b. sublimation
b. Learning c. compensation
c. Human Behavior d. projection
d. Stimulus 2972. Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology student, after tasting
an unripe mango grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
2960. Refers to any behavioral reactions or reflexes a. olfactory
exhibited by people because of their inherited capabilities b. Auditory
or the process of natural selection. c. cutaneous
a. Inherited Behavior d. gustatory
b. Inborn Behavior 2973. This is a serious mental and emotional disorder that is
c. Learned Behavior a manifestation of withdrawal from reality.
d. both a and c a. Neurosis
2961. It is a behavior pattern where an individual return to a b. Depression
state of form adjustment and attempt to experience them c. Psychosis
again in memory. d. Anxiety
2974. This occurs when goal achievement is blocked. d. displacement
a. frustration 2987. Texting while driving is an example of what
b. conflict classification of human behavior?
c. anxiety a. Habitual
d. Depression b. symbolic
c. Instinctive
2975. The aggregate observable responses of an organism d. complex
to internal and external stimuli. 2988. It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given stimulus
a. human behavior which largely helps to determine the actual behavioral
b. behavior response in a given situation.
c. personality a. Perception
d. attribute b. awareness
2976. The process by which behavior changes as a result of c. Sensation
experience or practice. d. Learning
a. actualization
b. learning 2989. A person who is a balanced introvert and extrovert is
c. thinking said to be:
d. feeling a. Psychotic
2977. This type of conflict occurs when there are two b. ambivert
desirable but mutually exclusive goals. c. Neurotic
a. avoidance-avoidance d. angry bird
b. approach-approach 2990. He is known as the “Father of Psychoanalysis”.
c. approach-avoidance a. Tom Cruise
d. multiple b. Gina Ferrero-Lombroso
2978. This type of conflict when there are two courses of c. Sigmund Freud
action, each of which has both pleasant and unpleasant d. Cesare Lombroso
consequences. 2991. Coping mechanism is the way people react to
a. avoidance-avoidance __________.
b. approach-approach a. Fear
c. approach-avoidance b. anxiety
d. multiple c. Frustration
2979. This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear d. Anger
of a perfectly natural situation or object.
a. melancholia 2992. It can be seen among people who handle their
b. phobia problems in a very objective way.
c. exaltation a. Coping Mechanism
d. Mania b. Direct Approach
c. Detour
2980. It is characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia. d. Withdrawal
a. psychoses 2993. The most tolerated way of handling frustration.
b. neuroses a. Defense Mechanism
c. abnormality b. Direct Approach
d. Psychopathy c. Detour
d. Withdrawal
2981. Hydrophobia is fear of ________. 2994. A type of defense mechanism whereby a person
a. Water concentrates in area where he can excel.
b. darkness a. Displacement
c. Snakes b. compensation
d. deep water c. Rationalization
2982. A distortion in reality such as delusion, hallucination d. fantasy
and regression. 2995. What type of defense mechanism is manifested by
a. psychosis Pining Garcia when he joined the fraternity, Alpha Phi
b. neurosis Chupapi, because of low self-esteem?
c. abnormality a. Identification
d. psychopathy b. projection
2983. A transmission of physical characteristics, mental c. Fantasy
traits, tendency to disease, etc. from parents to offspring. d. regression
a. heredity 2996. This refers to an action-producing agent:
b. environment a. Motives
c. inheritance b. Drives
d. Introvert c. Stimulus
2984. Drug addicts and alcoholics may deny that they have d. sensation
problems. This is a manifestation of what type of defense 2997. Human actions in relation to events taking place
mechanism? inside the body such as the brain and the nervous system
a. Fantasy is known as:
b. sublimation a. Neurological
c. Denial b. psychological
d. displacement c. Cognitive
2985. Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology student in the d. Humanistic
evening session, blames his poor performance in the
preliminary examination to his professor rather than his 2998. A child who is always brushing his teeth after eating
lack of preparation. This is an example of what type of manifests what particular classification of human
defense mechanism? behavior?
a. Reaction formation a. Habitual
b. displacement b. complex
c. Sublimation c. Instinctive
d. rationalization d. symbolic
2986. Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her boyfriend when 2999. Displaying the diplomas and graduation awards
she saw the latter kissing another girl, cries. This is an signify one’s academic achievement. This classification of
example of what defense mechanism? human behavior is known as:
a. Regression a. Habitual
b. suppression b. complex
c. Repression c. Instinctive
 d. symbolic a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators
3000. Mathematical ability and English communication skills should not command
are examples of what type of human behavior? b. open the communication at once
a. Learned c. negotiate
b. inborn d. ask for demands
c. Operant 3013. When both hostage and hostage taker develop a
d. both a and c mutual feeling of sympathy, understanding, and other
3001. Eating when you are hungry is an example of shared stand on issues, leading them to become enemies
_______ behavior. of the State, this turn referred to as,
a. Habitual a. Stockholm Syndrome
b. complex b. Confrontation
c. Instinctive c. Negotiation
d. Symbolic d. familiarization
3002. It is the ability to withstand frustration without 3014. Motivation is classified under 28 needs. The need to
developing inadequate modes of response such as being assault or injure is:
emotionally depressed or irritated, becoming neurotic, or a. need deference
becoming aggressive. b. need aggression
a. Frustration Tolerance c. need recognition
b. Frustration Shield d. need order
c. Frustration Flexibility 3015. The need to influence or control others is:
d. all of the above a. need order
3003. Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP applicant, turned up b. need dominance
applying into the Armed Forces of the Philippines when he c. need achievement
failed in the initial height and weight measurement stage d. need exhibition
because he was under height. This is an example of: 3016. A person has _____ when he/she has painful
a. Sublimation memories associated with some shocking experience
b. repression which are repressed and cannot be
c. Substitution recalled.
d. withdrawal a. anxiety
3004. Which of the following items does not belong to the b. delusions
group? c. amnesia
a. prostitution d. phobia
b. assassination 3017. The first step in hostage taking crisis is:
c. sabotage a. crowd control
d. bombing c. negotiation
3005. It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack b. assault
of conscience, deficient feeling of affection to others and d. traffic control
aggression to environment and other people. 3018. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant takes place
a. schizophrenic personality pleasure in imagining having sexual relations with newly
b. psychopathic personality dead young female bodies who were victims of suicides or
c. compulsive neurosis vehicular accidents. What sexual deviant act did Antonio
d. neurotic personality commit?
3006. Which of the following is not a common tactic in a. necrophilia
terrorism? b. rape
a. robbery c. incest
c. bombing d. none
b. hijacking 3019. The most important person in a hostage situation:
d. kidnapping a. negotiator
3007. This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a b. hostage taker
person performs an act while sleeping. c. commander
a. somnambulism d. hostage
b. mesmerism 3020. A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside
c. somnolencia the bank together with their hostages; their demand is
d. delirium geared towards:
3008. Animals are used for the achievement of sexual a. revenge
excitation and gratification. b. economic gain
a. voyeurism c. escape
b. fetishism d. vindication
c. pedophilia 3021. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which
d. bestiality indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown
3009. A person suffers from _____ when he developed a by:
maladaptive behavior in his childhood as a result of an a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
external influence that later on becomes a part of his b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
lifestyle and which he uses to relate to the world around assurance
him. c. by not attempting to trick or lie
a. personality disorder d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that
b. abnormal behavior you are willing to negotiate
c. personality behavior 3022. It is referred to as sexual gratification by watching
d. abnormal personality nude woman or man.
3010. These are priorities in a hostage taking situation a. exhibitionism
EXCEPT, b. voyeurism
a. Preservation of life c. transvestitism
b. Arrest of hostage taker d. fetishism
c. recover and protect property
d. involve the media 3023. It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack
3011. Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to: of conscience deficient feeling of affection to others and
a. police handling of the situation aggression.
b. negotiation a. schizophrenic personality
c. contact b. psychopathic personality
d. control of area and people c. compulsive neurosis
3012. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking d. neurotic personality
situation is, 3024. This is a mentally disturbed person who is opposed to
the principles upon which society is based.
 a. Anti-social c. negotiate
b. Psychopath d. ask for demands
b. Schizophrenic 3036. In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense,
d. Sociopath when trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical
3025. A morbid insanity characterized by a deep and morbid and psychic energy, hence:
sense of religious feeling. a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for
a. mania the authorities
b. mania fanatica b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
b. delusion c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them
d. legal insanity down
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender.
3026. This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in 3037. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation.
the male or an inability to achieve it. a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
a. masturbation b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the
b. prostitution hostages
c. exhibitionism c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
d. frigidity d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
3027. This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual,
preferred, and compelling need for sexual gratification by 3038. They serve as stimuli-producing action that satisfies
any technique, other than willing coitus between man and a need:
woman and involving actions that are directly results in a. interest
genital excite. b. perception
a. crime against chastity b. acts c. motives
of lasciviousness d. drives
c. sexual deviation 3039. It is an effective planning, formulation of an effective
d. sexual offenses plan, policies, procedures and techniques in dealing with
3028. The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid sudden violent act of terrorist.
Schizophrenic hostage taker is: a. Crisis management
a. to accept their beliefs as being true b. stress mgt.
b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are c. hostage negotiation
wrong d. political analysis
c. to show them that they are just crazy 3040. Last option in hostage crisis:
d. to try to bluff or trick them a. crowd control b.
3029. The following are reasons, why common criminals are negotiation
easy to negotiate, except: c. traffic control d.
a. fears of police assault and punishment assault
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers 3041. It is any incident in which people are being held by
c. they are familiar with police operations and another person or persons against their will, usually by
tactics force or coercion, and demands are being made by the
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender perpetrator.
3030. In the field of terrorism, the most common tactic used a. kidnapping
is_____? b. crisis management
A. Kidnapping c. hostage incident
C. Bombing d. abduction
B. Assassination 3042. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take
D. Extortion hostages:
3031. A personality disorder characterized by a. by reason of mental illness
suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, envy, excessive self b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and
important, and argumentativeness, plus a tendency to problems
blame others for one’s own mistakes and failure and to c. for personal reason
ascribe evil motives to others. d. because of political and ideological belief
A. Paranoid Personality 3043. In psychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for
B. Dependent Personality death is called;
C. Schizoid Personality A. eros
D. Borderline Personality B. animus
3032. A personality disorder characterized by an inability to C. thanatos
form social relationships and can be classified as “loners”. D. lupus
A. Paranoid Personality 3044. In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but
B. Schizoid Personality “SALVARI VITAS” , which means:
C. Dependent Personality D. a. the truth will prevail
Borderline Personality b. kill the hostage-taker
c. to save lives
3033. A personality disorder characterized by instability, d. save the host
reflected in dramatic mood shifts and behavior problems. 3045. When a highly trained and motivated group of
Such individuals are frequently described as impulsive and hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands, they were
unpredictable. left with three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the
A. Borderline Personality B. hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a
Compulsive Personality more realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they
C. Passive-aggressive Personality D. Anti- choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
social Personality a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
3034. When the disorder is characterized by chronic mental c. give all their demands
and physical fatigue and by various aches and pains, it is d. let the hostages killed
considered as: 3046. In hostage negotiation, if the hostage taker demands
A. Anxiety Disorder an airplane/helicopter, what will you do?
B. Somatoform Disorder a. go to your ground commander
C. Dissociative Disorder b. give it with consent
D. Amnesia c. talk to him and delay the moment
3035. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking d. assault and kill him immediately
situation is,
a. commanders should not negotiate, 3047. Considered to be the oldest tactic in terrorism:
negotiators should not command a. Prostitution
b. open the communication at once b. Bombing
 c. Assassination 3059. the crime charged against a child in conflict with the
d. Kidnapping law is more than 12 years of imprisonment, which will
3048. These are important in a hostage taking situation, determine whether diversion is necessary?
EXCEPT: A. The Police
a. Presence of linguist negotiator B. The Prosecutor
b. Considerable screening of all members C. The Court
c. Dry run or constant practice D. The Barangay Chairman
d. Inclusion of the media people in the negotiation 3060. From the moment a child is taken into custody, the
3049. It is the position from which a unit commander and his law enforcement officer shall immediately but not later
staff exercise command over the hostage incident. than hours after apprehension, turnover custody
a. command post of the child to the Social Welfare and Development Office.
b. outer perimeter A. Nine
c. inner perimeter B. Eight
d. command headquarters C. Seven
3050. It is an assault team responsible in carrying out D. Six
assault operation whenever negotiation fails.
a. Negotiation Team 3061. An Act Strengthening the Juvenile Justice System in
b. Medical Team the Philippines.
c. Tactical Team A. RA 9344
d. Response Team B. RA 10630
3051. Pursuant to the PNP Police Operational Procedures C. RA 10627
Manual of 2010, this group should immediately be D. RA 8960
activated in case of hostage situation: 3062. It is one of the most important assets of the nation.
a. Hostage Negotiation Team Thus, every effort should be exerted to promote his
b. Civil Disturbance Management welfare and enhance his opportunities for a useful and
Team happy life.
c. Crisis Management Task Group A. Teenager
d. PNP Command Post B. Kid
3052. P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest ranking PNP officer C. Child
who first arrives in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he D. Youth
serves now as a ground commander on the said crisis. 3063. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under
Having decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the what agency of the government?
objectives are as follows, except one: A. Department of Justice
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed, B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
and set free. C. Department of Tourism
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding D. Department of Interior and Local Government
to the demands of the hostage takers. 3064. It refers to any form of detention or imprisonment, or
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats. to the placement of a child in conflict with the law in a
d. hostage takers come to the fold of the law by public or private custodial setting, from which the child in
surrendering or be incapable of causing harm conflict with the law is not permitted to leave at will by
3053. Which of the following is considered least among order of any judicial or administrative authority.
terroristic tactic? A. Apprehension
a.noise barrage B. Confinement
b.assassination C. Deprivation of Liberty
c.bombing D. Incarceration
d.kidnapping
3054. In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator 3065. It refers to any organization whose members are 21
should not: years or older which is directly or indirectly involved in
a.give his name carrying out child welfare activities and programs.
b. give his rank and designation A. NGO
c.give in to all demands B. Youth association
d.look friendly or accommodating C. Youth organization
3055. The highest ranking field commander should not also D. Civic organization
be the chief negotiator because:
3066. The taking of the statement of the child in conflict with
a. hostage takers will be afraid the law shall be conducted in the presence of the
b. he is not authorized to grant concessions following, EXCEPT.
c. of conflict of interest as mediator and A. Child’s counsel of choice
decision maker B. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer
d. hostage takers will not trust him C. Child’s relative
3056. What is known to be the oldest but commonly used D. Child’s parents
terrorist tactic where target are often police, military
officials or political figures? 3067. It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the
a.Hijacking Protection of Children in the formulation and
b. Ambush implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion
c.Assassination programs in the If community.
d. Kidnap for Ransom A. Women and Children Protection Desk
3057. The stage of advance planning, organization and B. Local Government Unit
coordination and control in response to an anticipated C. Sangguniang Kabataan
future crisis occurrence is called D. Local Social Welfare and Development
a. Proactive Crisis Management 3068. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence
b. Reactive Crisis Management social structures.
c. Performance Stage A. Biogenic approach
d. Reaction Phase B. Sociogenic approach
C. Psychogenic approach
3058. A comprehensive plan which delineates D. All of these
responsibilities and specific action to be taken when a 3069. It refers to a person whose behavior results with
bomb incident or bomb threat occurs is called repeated conflict with the law.
a. Floor plan A. Delinquent
b. Bomb threat plan B. Habitual delinquent
c. Drill C. Juvenile
d. Contingency plan D. Recidivist
3070. Failure to provide for the child’s support for this period C. Psychologically Neglected Child
shall be a presumptive evidence of the intent to abandon. D. Sexually Neglected Child
A. 3 Months 3081. The implementation of the comprehensive juvenile
B. 5 Months intervention program shall be reviewed and assessed
C. 4 Months annually by Local Government Unit and its result shall be
D. 6 Months submitted by the provincial and city governments to the
3071. These are undesirable conditions in the community Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council not later than of what
which are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT. date of every year?
A. Gambling Houses A. February 28
B. Recreational Facilities B. April 30
C. Vice Dens C. March 30
D. Attractive Nuisances D. May 30
3072. This view asserts that children who started delinquent 3082. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with
careers early and committed violent acts throughout their I.Q.s from about 75 to about 89. The members of this
adolescence would likely to continue as adults. classification are only slightly retarded and they can
A. Culture conflict usually get by in regular classes if they receive some extra
B. Persistence help, guidance and consideration.
C. Containment theory A. Trainable group
D. Reflective role taking B. Custodial group
3073. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18 C. Educable group
years of age at the time of the commission of the crime, he D. Borderline or low normal group
is often referred to as? 3083. It refers to any club, organization or association of
A. Socialized delinquent individuals below twenty-one years of age which is directly
B. Truant or indirectly involved in carrying out child or youth welfare
C. Criminal programs and activities.
D. Youth offender A. Samahan
3074. What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates B. Student organization
youthful offenders or other disturbed children who have C. Sanguniang Kabataan
behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the D. Youth association
appropriate care for them or recommending their 3084. A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns to
permanent treatment or rehabilitation in other child welfare childhood socialization and pro or anti social attachments
agencies? over the life course.
A. Rehabilitation Center A. Culture conflict
B. Reintegration Center B. Social development model
C. Reformation Center C. Differential opportunity
D. Restoration Center D. Containment theory
3075. Which among the following is not part of the rights of 3085. This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75,
a child in conflict with the law? and the intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾
A. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital of that expected of a normal child of the same
punishment or life imprisonment, without the chronological age.
possibility of release A. Trainable group
B. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel, B. Borderline or low normal group
inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment C. Educable group
C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily, D. Custodial group
of his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a 3086. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a
disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the result of factors such as personal problems, ignorance and
shortest appropriate period of time curiosity.
D. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate A. Predisposing factor
cases B. Environmental factor
3076. It refers to inherited propensities which cannot be C. Biologic factor
considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that D. Precipitating factor
a crime will be committed. 3087. This is where the molding of the character of the child
A. Precipitating factor starts and every member of the family should strive to
B. Environmental factor make it a wholesome and a harmonious place.
C. Biologic factor A. Family
D. Predisposing factor B. Home
3077. A person who learns the facts or circumstances that C. Church
give rise to the belief that a child has suffered abuse may D. School
report the same to what agency? 3088. The youth misdeed may be attributed to their learning
A. School process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts
B. Neighborhood Association with governmental and social control agencies and other
C. Barangay Council similar variables.
D. Church A. Biogenic approach
3078. Who are those with any behavioral disorder, whether B. Socio-genic approach
functional or organic, which of such a degree of severity C. Psychogenic approach
as to require professional help or hospitalization? D. None of the above
A. Mentally Ill Children 3089. What program is required for the child in conflict with
B. Physically Handicapped Children the law to undergo after he/she is found responsible for an
C. Emotional Disturbed Children offense without resorting to formal court proceedings?
D. Retarded at Maturity A. Diversion
3079. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and B. Community Service
becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a: C. Parole
A. Social delinquent D. Probation
B. Accidental delinquent 3090. It is the application of the criminal justice to minors
C. Asocial delinquent and youthful offender through the cooperation of the
D. Neurotic delinquent criminal justice system.
3080. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or A. Child Justice System
seduced; when children are exploited, over worried or B. Youth Justice System
made to beg in the streets or public places, or when C. Minor Justice System
children are in moral danger, or exposed to gambling, D. Juvenile Justice System
prostitution, or other vices. 3091. A category of delinquency which may be credited to
A. Physically Neglected Child peer pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young
B. Emotionally Neglected Child person.
 A. Social D. Trainable
B. Accidental 3103. It refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal
C. Neurotic pattern of rules and regulations.
D. Asocial A. Recidivism
3092. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in B. Juvenile delinquency
an activity. C. Quasi recidivism
A. Coercion D. Delinquency
B. Cruelty 3104. It refers to persons and individuals who are effective
C. Molestation deterrents to crime and delinquency such as police or
D. Abuse watchful and concerned neighbors.
3093. It is otherwise known as Special Protection of A. Clever guardians
Children Against Child Abuse, Exploitation and B. Proficient guardians
Discrimination Act of 1992. C. Capable guardians
A. RA 6809 D. Qualified guardians
B. RA 9344
C. RA 9262
D. RA 7610
3094. It asserts that lower class youths with limited 3105. It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad and
legitimate opportunity, join gangs and pursue a criminal without proper shelter. A child is unattended when left by
career to achieve alternate means universal success himself without provision for his needs and/or without
goals. proper supervision. What classification of neglected child
A. Culture conflict is this?
B. Social development model A. Physically Neglected Child
C. Containment theory B. Psychologically Neglected Child
D. Differential opportunity C. Emotionally Neglected Child
3095. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, D. Sexually Neglected Child
which among the following refers to a child who is alleged 3106. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and
as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an children in conflict with the law, which provides child-
offense under Philippine laws? appropriate proceedings, including programs and services
A. Juvenile Delinquent for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and
B. Child in Conflict with the Law aftercare to ensure their normal growth and development.
C. Minor Offender A. Child Justice and Welfare
D. Youth Criminal B. Youth Justice and Welfare
3096. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on C. Minor Justice and Welfare
delinquency through undertaking preventive programs, D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare
policies and activities. 3107. A phenomenon that occurs when youth who regard
A. Philippine National Police themselves as delinquents are giving an inner voice to
B. Department of National Defense their perception or view of how significant others feel
C. Local Government about them.
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology A. Reflective role taking
3097. An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below B. Culture conflict
15 Years of Age in Public and Private Undertakings. C. Persistence
A. RA 7610 D. Containment theory
B. RA 9262 3108. A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the
C. RA 7658 Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
D. RA 9231 duly licensed child placement agency or individual.
3098. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs A. Placement
and illicit experiences is stressed. B. Commitment
A. Conflict sub-culture C. Consignment
B. Criminal sub-culture D. Entrustment
C. Retreatist sub-culture 3109. Failure to provide the basic needs of a child.
D. All of these A. Abuse
3099. It refers to one with no proper parental care or B. Cruelty
guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of at C. Exploitation
least six months. D. Neglect
A. Neglected Child 3110. High moral principles should be instilled in the child by
B. Deserted Child the following, EXCEPT.
C. Unattended Child A. Government
D. Abandoned Child B. School
3100. It refers to the programs provided in a community C. Home
setting developed for purposes of intervention and D. Church
diversion, as well as rehabilitation of the child in conflict 3111. A child left by himself without provisions for his needs
with the law, for reintegration into his/her family and/or and / or without proper supervision.
community. A. Unattended Child
A. Community Juvenile Programs B. Neglected Child
B. Community Rehabilitation Programs C. Dependent Child
C. Community Outreach Programs D. Abandoned Child
D. Community - Based Programs 3112. It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of
3101. Who shall coordinate with the Local Councils for the determining the responsibility and treatment of a child in
Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation and conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural,
implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion economic, psychological or educational background
programs in the community? without resorting to formal court proceedings.
A. Sangguniang Kabataan A. Diversion
B. Kabataan Partylist B. Friendly Interview
C. Commission on Human Right C. Due Process
D. National Youth Commission D. Preliminary Investigation
3102. Their degree of success or accomplishment depends 3113. Family home type which provide temporary shelter
upon the quality and type of education they receive as well from 10 to 20 days for children under observation by the
as on the treatment at home and in the community, their DSWD.
I.Q range from about 50 to 75. A. Receiving homes
A. Educable B. Maternity homes
B. Custodial C. Nursery
C. Borderline D. Shelter care institution
3114. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality 3126. A term coined by Wolfgang to denote a delinquent
for which the youth feels no remorse. offender who is arrested more than four times before the
A. Asocial age of majority and stands a good chance of becoming an
B. Neurotic adult criminal.
C. Accidental A. Acute offender
D. Social B. Severe offender
3115. It is known as spontaneous remission, it is the C. Chronic offender
manner by which an individual reduce the rate of their D. Desperate offender
aberrant behavior as they age. 3127. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do
A. Aging-out so with a permit or clearance issued by:
B. Decadence A. The parents
C. Desistance B. The guardians
D. Reduction C. Department of Social Welfare and Development
3116. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that D. Any of the choices
the status, rights and interests of children are upheld in 3128. This refers to children who are unable to cope with
accordance with the Constitution and international their family life and chooses to leave the family home. This
instruments on human rights? is a direct result of feeble-mindedness, disagreeable home
A. National Youth Commission conditions, broken homes and misdirected fancy for
B. Kabataan Partylist adventures.
C. Commission on Human Rights A. Vagrancy
D. Sangguniang Kabataan B. Cheating
3117. Sellin’s study which asserts that it is a condition which C. Lying
results from rules and norms of an individual’s sub-cultural D. Stealing
affiliation disagreement with the role of demands of 3129. What is a child caring institution that provides care for
conformist society. six or more children below six years of age twenty-four
A. Differential opportunity hours a day, except those duly licensed to offer primarily
B. Culture conflict medical and educational services?
C. Containment theory A. Nursery
D. Social development model B. Detention Home
3118. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some C. Day Care
hereditary defect. D. Maternity
A. Psychogenic approach 3130. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and
B. Biologic approach conditions, which are most congenial to the survival,
C. Sociogenic approach protection and feelings of security of the child and most
D. Biogenic approach encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and
3119. It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience for emotional development.
authority. A. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure
A. Emotional Disorder B. Special Protection of Minor
B. Vagrancy C. Restorative Juvenile Justice
C. Truancy D. Best Interest of the Child
D. Anti Social Behavior 3131. A place of residence whose primary function is to give
3120. These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or otherwise shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
defective which restricts their means of action on A. Maternity home
communication with others. B. Hospital
A. Physically Handicapped Children C. Rehabilitation center
B. Mentally Subnormal D. Foster homes
C. Essentially Incurable 3132. This may be demonstrated by any of the following:
D. Retarded at Maturity severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal
3121. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon behavior.
any knowledge of a child who have been treated or A. Psychological injury
suffered from abuse. B. Mental injury
A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery C. Physical injury
of abuse D. Emotional injury
B. Report the incident to the family 3133. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to
C. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority address issues that caused the child to commit an offense.
D. File a case in court in behalf of the child It may take the form of an individualized treatment
3122. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against program, which may include counseling, skills training,
any violation of R.A. 7610? education, and other activities that will enhance his/her
A. Parents or guardians psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being.
B. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3rd degree A. Diversion
of consanguinity B. Rehabilitation
C. Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least any C. Probation
three responsible citizen D. Intervention
D. All of the choices 3134. If children, whether male or female, who for money,
3123. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or
of internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in
emotion and mood. sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as…
A. Neurotic A. Child Abuse
B. Social B. Child Trafficking
C. Accidental C. Child Prostitution
D. Asocial D. Child Exploitation
3124. Forcing an activity on the child without consent. 3135. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from
A. Coercion occurring
B. Abuse A. Control
C. Cruelty B. Recession
D. Molestation C. Repression
3125. View that youth can move in and out of delinquency D. Prevention
and that their lifestyle can adjust and embrace both 3136. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”,
deviant and conventional values. it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as
A. Swift defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code,
B. Drift including a barangay tanod.
C. Coast A. Police Officer
D. Waft B. Probation Officer
 C. Law Enforcement Officer committing similar acts. These shall include curfew
D. Public Officer violations; truancy, parental disobedience and the like.
3137. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately A. Delinquency
unattended or inadequately attended. B. Exclusive
A. Abandoned Child C. Status
B. Abused Child D. Grave
C. Neglected Child 3148. Children detained pending trial may be released on
D. Dependent Child bail or as provided for under Sections 34
3138. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years and 35 of RA 9344.
old. A. Probation
A. Adolescence B. Recognizance
B. Early adolescence C. Parole
C. Juvenile D. Bond
D. None of the above 3149. Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of a
3139. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which minor, whether habitual or not?
deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, A. Caress
custom and culture which society does not accept and B. Abuse
which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures C. Discrimination
in the public interest and it is being committed by minors? D. Exploitation
A. Juvenile Delinquency 3150. He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or
B. Minor Delinquency whose parents, guardian or other custodian for good
C. Child Delinquency cause desire to be relieved of his care and custody; and is
D. Youth Delinquency dependent upon the public of support.
3140. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in A. Abandoned Child
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is B. Neglected Child
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the C. Abused Child
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any D. Dependent Child
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but 3151. It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible
not later than hours after apprehension. persons from various sector of the community.
A. 8 A. Organization
B. 24 B. Association
C. 12 C. Club
D. 36 D. Samahan
3141. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by 3152. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short
aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any term resident care for youthful offenders.
person who tries to control his behavior. A. Bahay Pag-asa
A. Neurotic B. Nursery
B. Accidental C. Child caring institution
C. Asocial D. Foster home
D. Social
3142. If the parents, guardians or nearest relatives of the 3153. The parents of guardian of a working child is obligated
CICL refused to take custody, the child may be release to by law to set up a trust fund for the child which shall
any of the following, EXCEPT. constitute at least percent of the earning of the child.
A. Duly registered nongovernmental or religious A. 20
organization B. 40
B. A barangay official or a member of the Barangay C. 30
Council for the Protection of Children D. 50
C. A local social welfare and development officer 3154. The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council
D. Duly authorized Women and Children Protection Desk under the law is:
Officer A. The undersecretary of the DOJ
3143. It accounts for individual offender by reference to B. The undersecretary of DepEd
learning process, which goes on in youth gangs, C. The undersecretary of the DILG
stigmatizing contacts with social control agencies and D. The undersecretary of the DSWD
other variables of that time. 3155. It refers to a principle, which requires a process of
A. Biogenic resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the
B. Psychogenic victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to obtain
C. Phatogenic reparation for the victim; reconciliation of the offender, the
D. Sociogenic offended and the community; and reassurance to the
3144. It plays an active role in the promotion of child rights, offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society. It
and delinquency prevention by relaying consistent also enhances public safety by activating the offender, the
messages through a balanced approach. victim and the community in prevention strategies.
A. The mass media A. Restorative Justice
B. The family B. Rehabilitative Justice
C. The community C. Reformative Justice
D. The educational system D. Reintegrative Justice
3145. What approach towards delinquency views the 3156. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed
lawbreaker as a person whose misconduct is the result of by the Department of Social Welfare and Development
faulty biology? (DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs
A. Phatogenic monitored by the DSWD, which provides care, treatment
B. Biogenic and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the
C. Psychogenic law. Rehabilitation services are provided under the
D. Sociogenic guidance of a trained staff where residents are cared for
3146. In determining whether diversion is appropriate and under a structured therapeutic environment with the end
desirable, the following factors shall be taken into view of reintegrating them into their families and
consideration, EXCEPT. communities as socially functioning individuals. Physical
mobility of residents of said centers may be restricted
A. The safety of the child pending court disposition of the charges against them.
B. The nature and circumstances of the offense charged A. Youth Reformation Center
B. Youth Reintegration Center
C. The circumstances of the child C. Youth Rehabilitation Center
D. The best interest of the child D. Youth Restoration Center
3147. It refers to offenses, which discriminate only against a 3157. The child who is under 18-years of age at the time of
child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for the commission of the offense is found guilty of the
 offense charged, shall place the child under 3169. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether
. as an individual or as a member of some court,
A. Recognizance Government Corporation, board or commission.
B. Diversion a. Agent of person in authority
C. Bail b. Government employee
D. Suspended Sentence c. Government officer
d. person in authority
3158. Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in 3170. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in the
the Barangay Level where there is a diversion program? Philippine Criminal Justice System serving as the lawyer
A. Punong Barangay of the State or government in criminal cases.
B. BCPC Chairman a. law enforcement
C. LSWDO b. court
D. PNP member c. prosecution
d. correction
3159. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that 3171. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office
the most important function of the CJS is the protection of before it can entertain a complaint on a case covered by
the public and the repression of criminal conduct. the Barangay Court.
a. Crime prevention a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
b. Crime control b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
c. Law and order c. Certificate to file action
d. Due process d. complaint affidavit
3160. According to this criminal justice model, the rights of 3172. It refers to the study of the various agency of our
an individual must be co-equal with the concern for public government in charged of processing law violators to
safety. ensure the protection of the society and maintenance of
a. Crime prevention peace and order.
b. crime control a. Criminology
c. Law and order b. Criminal Justice
d. due process c. Victimlogy
3161. This concerns to the obligations of the community to d. Sociology
individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common 3173. Refers to the person who is being implicated to the
advantages and sharing of common burden. commission of a crime and subject of an investigation.
a. Prosecution a. Convict
b. justice b. respondent
c. equality c. Accused
d. trial d. suspect
3162. This function of the law enforcement is being done 3174. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules
through elimination of factors influencing the occurrence of of conduct necessary to protect life and property and to
crimes, good community relations, educating the citizens maintain peace and order?
about their role, introduction of delinquency prevention a. Criminal Justice System
programs, good parenting and others. b. Criminology
a. Maintenance of law and order c. Criminal law
b. Reduction of crime d. Criminal jurisprudence
c. crime prevention 3175. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case
d. crime control which would convince a reasonable mind based on moral
3163. This principal character of the criminal justice process certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the
links all components of the CJS. possibility of error.
a. Offender a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Victim b. Clear and convincing evidence
c. witness c. substantive evidence
d. Crime d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
3164. The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS.
a. Prosecution 3176. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the
b. Correction prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby the
c. Police prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a
d. Court lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering
3165. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the a guilty plea.
police have gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient a. arraignment
to warrant the filing of charge(s) against the alleged b. preliminary investigation
violator. c. pre-trial
a. Investigator d. plea bargaining
b. judge
c. prosecutor 3177. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the
d. solicitor genera country which is under the ________?
3166. He is an arbiter in court who ensues that the defense a. DOJ
and the prosecution adhere to the legal requirements of b. DILG
introducing evidences. c. NAPOLCOM
a. Clerk of court d. DSWD
b. judge 3178. A person who is under custodial investigation is
c. sheriff basically protected by a number of rights mandated under
d. jury the constitution and this was even expounded in the
3167. The pillar of the CJS which is not under the executive legislative act known as _______?
branch of the government. a. Miranda Doctrine
a. law enforcement (Excutive) b. R.A. 7438
b. court c. Bill of Rights
c. prosecution (Executive) d. R.A. 6975
d. correction (judiciary) 3179. A body officially assembled under authority of law in
3168. This is a governmental body that is charged with the which judicial power is vested or the administration of
responsibility of administering justice. justice is delegated.
a. Law enforcement a. court
b. correction b. corrections
c. Prosecution c. prosecution
d. court d. law enforcement
3180. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and c. PDEA
order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and property and d. NBI
ensure public safety. 3192. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any
a. police peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of
b. prosecution the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
c. court the prosecutor.
d. corrections a. Complaint
3181. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation b. Information
and treatment of persons convicted of committing crime. c. Pleadings
a. police d. Affidavit
b. prosecution
c. court 3193. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether
d. corrections there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief
3182. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”. that a crime has been committed and the respondent is
a. R.A. 8294 probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
b. R.A. 7080 a. preliminary investigation
c. R.A. 1379 b. Prejudicial question
d. R.A. 3019 c. inquest proceeding
d. custodial investigation

3183. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses 3194. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases
punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six years. punishable by:
a. Supreme Court a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1)
c. RTC day.
b. Court of Appeals b. more than four years, two months and one day
d. MTC c. less than four years, two months and one day
3184. It is otherwise known as the Department of the Interior d. six years, one day and above
and Local Government Act of 1990, enacted on December 3195. It is the actual restraint of a person into custody of the
13, 1990. Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the law in order for him to answer for the commission of an
PPSC. offense.
a. R.A. 6975 a. Arrest
b. P.D. 1184 b. investigation
c. R.A. 8551 c. invitation
d. R.A. 6040 d. seizure
3196. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and
3185. Refers to that sector of society composed of NGO’s, capturing the law breakers in the execution of their
cause oriented groups and advocacy groups that promote criminal plan.
the welfare of the people against all forms of abuse and a. Instigation
exploitation. b. Entrapment
a. crime control c. Investigation
b. political parties d. Raid
c. civil society 3197. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or
d. volunteer interdependent from any branch of government.
3186. It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the a. prosecution
existence of a cause from initially occurring, thus, lessen b. correction
the police work as suppressing the spread of criminality. c. court
a. Crime Prevention d. community
b. Crime control 3198. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who
c. Criminal apprehension d. law directs the prosecution of the offense and he/she did it on
enforcement the behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the
3187. Directly under the supervision of the Department of higher court such as Court of Appeals, who represents the
Justice, its most important function in the Criminal Justice State in the prosecution of the offense?
System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law a. Chief State Prosecutor
through the speedy d2elivery of services particularly in the b. Solicitor General
prosecution and investigation of all crimes. c. National or provincial prosecutor
a. National Prosecution Service d. Judge
b. PNP 3199. It refers to the questioning initiated by law
c. Ombudsman enforcement officer after a person has been taken into
d. Solicitor General custody.
3188. What do you call a court covering two (2) or more a. custodial investigation
municipalities? b. interview
a. MTC c. inquest
b. MeTC d. interrogation
c. MCTC 3200. In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade
d. MTC’s 27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art.
3189. What is that term which refers to the wise use of one’s 210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a complaint should
own judgment in a given situation without referring to your first be filed to the office of _______ for the conduct of the
superior due to the eminence of the situation? required preliminary investigation.
a. Police resourcefulness b. Police a. Ombudsman
discretion b. Solicitor General
c. Police integrity d. police c. Judge of MTC
prudence d. the President
3190. It refers to the art or science of identifying law 3201. In flagrante delicto means ______?
violators, locating and tracing them in order to affect their a. caught in the act
arrest and gather evidence to prove their guilt in court. b. caught after commission
a. Crime prevention c. instigation
b. criminal investigation d. entrapment
c. Crime control 3202. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or
d. Intelligence work try cases submitted to for adjudication. What term is use in
3191. An attached agency of the Office of the President referring to the authority or power to hear and decided
tasked to implement and undertake drug law enforcement. cases.
a. Narcotics Command a. Jurisdiction
b. AID-SOTF b. Venue
 c. Jurisprudence c. Trial
d. Territory d. Preliminary Investigation
3203. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the 3215. The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen to
first time to the exclusion of other courts. hear both sides and to come to a decision.
a. original jurisdiction a. Mediation
b. exclusive jurisdiction b. Settlement
c. appellate jurisdiction c. Arbitration
d. concurrent jurisdiction d. Agreement
3204. It is the formal reading of the charges against a 3216. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name
person accused of a crime and latter asking him whether of the government?
he pleads guilty or not to the crime charged. a. Public Prosecutor
a. arraignment b. Private Prosecutor
b. preliminary investigation c. Prosecution
c. plea d. Ombudsman
d. promulgation of judgment 3217. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
3205. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within a. RTC
Barangay level. b. Sandiganbayan
a. barangay tanod c. Supreme Court
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo d. MTC
c. barangay council 3218. This court was created under RA 1125, as amended,
d. lupon tagapamayapa which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review on
3206. It is the most common way by which the police appeal decisions of the Commissioner of the Internal
discovers or it informed that a crime has been committed: Revenue involving internal revenue taxes and decisions of
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the the Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties.
crime. a. Court of Justice
b. When the police discovers the crime b. Court of Appeals
c. When the victim reports the crime c. Sandiganbayan
d. When the suspect surrenders d. Court of Tax Appeals
3207. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the
Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy.
Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and other
members who shall be:
a. more than 10 but less than 20
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20
c. more than 10 3219. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by
d. less than 10 high-ranking public officials (with salary grade of 27
3208. When arrest may be made? above), which can only be committed because of their
a. At any time of the day and night position.
b. At day time a. Court of Justice
c. At night time b. Court of Appeals
d. from sun dust till dawn c. Sandiganbayan
3209. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even d. Court of Tax Appeals
without a warrant? 3220. It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the
a. All of the choices signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence.
the arresting officer. a. Commitment Order
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and b. Mittimus
there is personal knowledge based on probable cause c. warrant of arrest
that the person to be arrest has committed it. d. habeas corpus
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee
3210. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to
attend and to testify or to bring with him any books or 3221. Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged
documents under his control at the trial of an action. with the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of a
a. subpoena convicted offender.
b. subpoena ad testificandum a. Penology
c. subpoena duces tecum b. Probation
d. warrant of arrest c. Correction
d. Criminology
3211. The “anti-Plunder Act”. 3222. Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by
a. R.A. 7080 the president. Which of the following is not one of them?
c. R.A. 3019 a. Pardon
b. R.A. 1379 b. Amnesty
d. R.A. 6713 c. Commutation of Sentence
3212. This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to provide d. Parole
free legal assistance to poor members of society: 3223. Prison is a place for confinement of convicted
a. National Bureau of Investigation prisoners. What classification of prisoners is sentenced to
b. National Prosecution Service serve a prison term of one day to three (3) years or whose
c. Board of Pardons and Parole fine is less than 6,000 but more than 200 or both?
d. Public Attorney’s Office a. National prisoner
3213. This is the power to apply the law to contests or b. City prisoner
disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties c. provincial prisoner
between the state and private persons, or between d. municipal prisoner
individual litigants in cases properly brought before the
judicial tribunal. 3224. Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted
a. Judicial Power offenders sentenced to more than three (3) years of
b. Judicial Review imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-Roman word
c. Court _____?
d. Court of Justice a. Presinto
3214. This is the process or method whereby accusations b. Precindio
are brought before the court of justice to determine the c. presidio
innocence or guilt of the accused. d. precinto
a. Prosecutor 3225. There are how many members the composed the
b. Prosecution Lupon?
 a. 3 members neglect, abuse, cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due
b. 5 to 10 members to some physical defect or mental disability or condition.
c. 10 to 20 members a. child
d. 5 members b. wards
3226. It is granted to convicted offenders who have served a c. physically disabled
portion of their service granted by the Board of Pardons d. youth
and Parole. 3236. Act or omission which may not be punishable if
a. Pardon committed by an adult, but becomes unlawful when they
b. Probation are committed by a child or a person of tender year or one
c. Amnesty who is in need of supervision or assistance.
d. Parole a. crime
3227. It is a security facility, usually operated by the police b. status offense
stations, for the temporary detention of persons held for c. delinquency
investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation before d. felonies
the prosecutor. 3237. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the
a. Lock-up jail society to prevent and repressed them?
b. Ordinary jail a. Penology
c. workhouses b. Victimology
d. prison c. Criminology
3228. It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of d. Sociology of law
Prisons whereby a number of days are deducted from the
length of years that a prisoner have been sentenced to 3238. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which
serve for his good conduct. indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown
a. Commutation of sentence by:
b. Parole a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
c. GCTA b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
d. reprieve assurance
3229. Correctional institutions in the country is divided into c. by not attempting to trick or lie
National and Local institution. What Department of the d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are
Executive Branch is the one in charge of the National willing to negotiate
Penitentiary? 3239. These are priorities in a hostage taking situation
a. Bureau of Jail Management and EXCEPT,
Penology a. Preservation of life
b. Department of Justice b. Arrest of hostage taker
c.Department of Interior and Local c. recover and protect property
Government d. involve the media
d. Bureau of Correction 3240. A hostage taker is characteristically all of these,
EXCEPT
3230. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the a. mental derange
transgression of the law. b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration
a. penalty c. sociopath personality
b. self-defense d. mental balance
c. exemplarity
d. punishment 3241. These are not negotiable in a hostage taking
situation:
3231. City and Municipal is the division of our correctional a. guns and ammunition
institution which primarily in charge of those detention b. drinks
prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of their trial and c. foods
serving short sentences and under the Bureau of Jail d. all of the choices
Management and Penology. While it is true that even the
Provincials Jails like the City and Municipal Jails are under 3242. One of the following is not a terrorist tactics:
the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of the a. bombing
__________? b. assassination
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b. c. hostage-taking
Department of Justice d. media exposure
c. Bureau of Correction 3243. In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense
d. Provincial government when trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical
3232. This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving and psychic energy, hence:
his sentence, is released to be able to mingle with the a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for
community. the authorities
a. Reintegration b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
b. reincarnation c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them
c. Realization down
d. Rehabilitation d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender
3233. It refers to the examination of an individual’s person, 3244. When a highly trained and motivated group of
house, papers or effects, or other buildings and premises hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands , they were
to discover contraband or some evidence of guilt to be left with three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the
used in the prosecution of a criminal action: hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a
a. Search more realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they
b. seizure choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
c. Raid a. attack them swiftly with precision
d. entrapment b. withhold the media from the terrorist
c. give all their demands
3234. This court was established by virtue of PD1083, d. let the hostages killed
otherwise known as “Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the 3245. The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid
Philippines”. Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
a. Court of Tax Appeals a. to accept their beliefs as being true
b. Shari’a Court b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are
c. Sandiganbayan wrong
d. Family Court c. to show them that they are just crazy
3235. Refers to any person below 18 years of age or those d. to try to bluff or trick them
over but unable to fully take care of themselves from 3246. The following are reasons, why common criminals are
easy to negotiate, except:
 a. fears of police assault and punishment 3257. This asserts that strong self-image protects the youth
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers from the influence and pressure of criminogenic pulls in
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics his environment.
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender A. Rational theory
B. Conflict theory
3247. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation. C. Label theory
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker D. Containment theory
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the 3258. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in
hostages conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker citizens is termed as:
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
A.Arrest
3248. P/SSupt. is the highest ranking PNP officer who first B.Initialcontact
arrives in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he serves C.Childcustody
now as a ground commander on the said crisis. Having D. All of the above
decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the 3259. It is the study of human society, its origin structure,
objectives are as follows, except one: functions and direction.
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed a. criminology
and set free. b. sociology
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to c. psychology
the demands of the hostage takers. d. anthropology
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats. 3260. The science of classifying the physical characteristics.
d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by a. free will
surrendering or be incapable of causing harm b. positivism
3249. In a hostage negotiation and crisis management c. atavism
practice, it is a “cardinal rule”: d. somatology
a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker 3261. The approach that is using the perspective of heredity
face to face in explaining the cause of crime.
b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated a. geographical approach
agreement b. biological approach
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker c. psychiatric application
d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage d. psychological application
taker 3262. The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of
3250. In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but criminology.
“SALVARI VITAS”, which means: a. retribution
a. the truth will prevail b. rejection
b. kill the hostage-taker c. reformation
c. to save lives d. restoration
d. save the hostages 3263. It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the
behavior of the criminal.
3251. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a hostage negotiation. a. entomology
a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker b. penology
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the c. phrenology
hostages d. criminology
c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker 3264. Children shall be given priority during_____ as result
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker of armed conflict.?
a. war
3252. Last option in hostage crisis: b. treatment
a. crowd control c. evacuation
b. negotiation d. education
c. traffic control 3265. Science concerned with improving the quality of
d. assault offspring.
a. criminology
3253. It is any incident in which people are being held by b. eugenics
another person or persons against their will, usually by c. genetics
force or coercion, and demands are being made by the d. heredity
perpetrator. 3266. Commonly known as victimless crime:
a. kidnapping A.occassional crime
b. crisis management B.political crime
c. hostage incident C.public order crime
d. abduction D. conventional crime

3254. The following are the priorities in hostage taking 3267. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately
situation, except: unattended.
a. preservation of life a. abandoned child
b. arrest of the hostage-taker b. dependent child
c. inclusion of the media c. abusive child
d. successfully negotiate d. neglected child
3255. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take 3268. The principle that events including criminal behavior
hostages: that has sufficient causes..
a. by reason of mental illness a. atavism
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair b. narassism
and problems c. determinism
c. for personal reason d. positivism
d. because of political and ideological belief 3269. An established and generally accepted moral values
3256. This is an assault team responsible in carrying out refer to.
assault operation whenever negotiation fails. a. integrity
a. medical team b. morality
b. tactical team c. ethical standard
c. negotiation team d. authority
d. snipers 3270. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.
a. split mind
b. psychosis
 c. neurosis c. Counsel de officio
d. schizoprenia b. counsel de parte
3283. An office which Investigate and prosecute on its own
3271. What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate or on complaint by any person, any act or omission of any
events? public officer or employee, office or agency, when such
act or omission appears to be illegal, unjust, improper or
A.mass murder inefficient
B. serial killer
C.homicidal a. Solicitor General Office
D. spree killer b. Public Attorney’s Office
3272. A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank, c. Ombudsman
flees with hostages, and kills a number of people while in b. Sandiganbayan
flight diving a chase would be an example of: 3284. An office which shall independently discharge its
mandate to render, free of charge, legal representation,
A. Serial Murder assistance, and counselling to indigent persons in
B. Spree Murder criminal, civil, labor, administrative and other quasi-judicial
C. Mass Murder cases
D. Multiple Murder a. Solicitor General Office
3273. What is the legal term for nighttime? b. Public Attorney’s Office
A. sanctuary c. Ombudsman
B.absurdity b. Sandiganbayan
C. ephitomy 3285. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether
D. nocturnity there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded
3274. These are the rights of an accused that are derived belief that a crime has been committed and the
from special laws enacted by Congress. respondent is probably guilty thereof and should be held
A. Constitutional rights for trial
B. Civil rights a. custodial investigation
C.Statutoryrights b. inquest proceeding
D. Natural rights c. preliminary investigation
3275. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total b. arraignment
crime volume of 84, 875, How many crimes were reported 3286. Is an inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to
to the police? determine the legality of the arrest made especially those
a. 22, 868 arrests made without a warrant
b. 22, 068 a. custodial investigation
c. 20, 250 b. inquest proceeding
d. 32, 644 c. preliminary investigation
3276. What is the antonyms of the word arrest? b. arraignment
A. Apprehend 3287. It is the power to apply the laws to contests or
B. Search disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties of
C. Set free and between the state and the private persons or between
D. Renounce individual litigants in cases properly brought before the
3277. How many members composed the “Pangkat?” judicial tribunals.
A. 1 member
C. 2 members a. court power
B. 3 members b. legal power
D. 5 members c. judicial power
3278. He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods b. right power
in the study of society, which to him passes through 3288. It has original exclusive jurisdiction over public officers
stages divided on the basis of how people try to accused of committing crimes in relation to their official
understand it, leading them to adopt a rational scientific functions and whose salary grade is 27 and above.
understanding of the world. Comte called this the positive
stage and those who followed his writings were called, a. Solicitor General Office
a. August Comte b. Public Attorney’s Office
b. Positivists c. Ombudsman
c. Positivism b. Sandiganbayan
d. Sociologists
3279. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to 3289. It is said that the home is the cradle of human
assist destitute litigant? personality, for it where the child develops his fundamental
a. Counsel de officio attitudes and habits that last throughout his life
b. counsel de parte a. school
c. Public Attorney’s Office b. community
d. volunteer counsel c. barangay
3280. He represent the government’s position in a criminal b. family
case during court proceedings from the time of the 3290. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within
suspect’s arrest until the adjudication of his case. Barangay level.
a. Counsel de officio a. barangay tanod
b. counsel de parte b. barangay council
c. Public Attorney’s Office c. pangkat tagpagkasundo
d. prosecutor b. lupon tagapamayapa
3281. What is the highest rank in the national prosecution
service SERVICE? 3291. It refers the process whereby disputants are
a. Prosecutor V persuaded by the Punong Barangay or Pangkat to
b. Prosecutor IV amicably settle their disputes
c. Prosecutor VI a. agreement
d. Chief Prosecutor b. conciliation
c. conference
3282. The Office of the ____________represents the b. mediation
Government of the Philippines, its agencies and 3292. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result
instrumentalities and its officials and agents in any of the frustration and anger people experience over their
litigation, proceeding, investigation or matter requiring the inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
services of lawyers a. strain theory
a. Solicitor General b. psychological theories
b. Public Attorney’s Office c. differential association theory
 d. labeling theory 3305. He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired
the now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop
3293. This theory suggest that stability and changes in the theory of atavism.
criminal and deviant behavior through time and different a. Cesare Lombroso
stages in life. b. Charles Goring
a. Self Derogation Theory c. Cesare Beccaria
b. Anomie Theory d. Charles Darwin
c. Life Course Theory 3306. According to him, people with criminal behavior,
d. Routine Activities Theory should be prohibited from having children.
a. Robert Dugdale
3294. This theory suggest that females and males are b. Henry Goddard
becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and c. Charles Goring
education d. George Wilker
A.Feminist Theory
B. Paternalism 3307. It states that individuals are deviant mainly because
C.Liberation Theory they have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and
D. Life Course Theory others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act
3295. In the power control theory by Hagan, which father itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the
and mother share similar roles in the workplace and power actor.
in the family a. Containment Theory
a. Feminist theory b. Theory of Imitation
b. Egalitarian family c. Social Process Theory
c. Patriarchal family d. Social Reaction theory
d. Matriarchal family 3308. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with
3296. These views suggest that males such as judges, five (5) or more atavistic stigmata.
police officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional a. Born-criminal type
views on women thus, they are more lenient to them as b. insane
compared to their male counterparts. c. Criminaloid
a. Paternalism d. pseudo-criminal
b. Chivalry Hypothesis 3309. These are crimes which are wrong from their very
c. Masculinity nature. Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other
d. Power Control Theory violations of the Revised Penal Code.
3297. This new branch in criminology opposes the a. Heinous crimes
theoretical perspective and proposes the involvement of b. mala in se
all stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions c. Serious crimes
a. Peacemaking Criminology d. mala prohibita
b. Sociology of Law 3310. These are crimes which are wrong only because
c. Restorative Justice there are laws that prohibit them in order to regulate an
d. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis orderly society. Examples of these are the violations of
3298. This crimes are those that the lower class commit special laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”.
against the upper class of society in a capitalist system a. Mala prohibita
a. Crimes of Passion b. less grave felonies
b. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance c. Mala in se
c. Crimes of domination and. Repression d. light felonies
d. Crimes of Lower class group 3311. The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen
3299. The ruling class in a capitalist system is the nulla poena sine lege” means:
a. Proletariat a. An act done by me against my will is not my act
b. Bourgeois b. There is no crime where no law punishing it.
c. Capitalist c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
d. Ruling class d. Mistake of fact is an excuse.
3300. Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked 3312. He was the one who introduced the following
communism as a remedy? definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge
a. George Vold regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It includes
b. Karl Marx within its scope the process of making laws, of breaking
c. Emile Durkheim laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
d. Max Weber a) Raffaelle Garofalo
3301. This theory believes that society is divided into two b) Edwin Sutherland
groups with competing values the upper class and lower c) Cesare Beccaria
class. d) Paul Topinard
a. Class Theory 3313. Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill.
b. Differential Opportunity It is focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not
c. Conflict Theory he will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical
d. Consensus Theory Theory in giving punishment is________________.
3302. A problem that occurs when offenders who have been a) Restoration
released from the system are placed in a program simply b) Treatment
because the program exist. c) Retribution
a. Diversion Movement d) Deterrence
b. Intervention
c. Net widening 3314. Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the
d. Primary Deviance commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty,
3303. It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty
exercise of free will. provided by law for the offense.
a. Classical theory a. Justifying
b. positivist theory b. Exempting
c. Neo-classical theory c. Mitigating
d. radical theory d. Aggravating
3315. Those wherein the acts of the person are in
3304. His great contributions to criminology were the accordance with the law, hence he incurs no criminal
principle of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus. liability.
a. Cesare Beccaria a. Exempting
b. Jeremy Bentham b. aggravating
c. Cesare Lombroso c. Justifying
d. Emile Durkheim d. Mitigating
 b. justice
3316. A place of residence whose primary function is to give c. equality
shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants. d. trial
a. Maternity home 3327. A probationer is allowed to do the following except?
b. Hospital a. Stay away from bad associates
c. Rehabilitation center b. Work regularly to support his family
d. Foster homes c. Make periodic office report
3317. This may be demonstrated by any of the following: d. Go and play in a gambling den
severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal 3328. Which of the following are the major goals of
behavior. correction?
a. Psychological injury a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
b. Mental injury b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation,
c. Physical injury rehabilitation
d. Emotional injury c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
3318. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. 3329. A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the
It may take the form of an individualized treatment offender to remain in the community subject to conditions
program, which may include counseling, skills training, imposed by the court?
education, and other activities that will enhance his/her a. Reprieve
psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being. b. Probation
a. Diversion c. Commutation
b. Rehabilitation d. Parole
c. Probation 3330. Which of the following is an open correctional
d. Intervention institution known to be the best and prison without walls?
3319. If children, whether male or female, who for money, a. Davao penal farm
profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or b. Sablayan penal colony
influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as… d. Iwahig penal colony
a. Child Abuse 3331. Which is called the finest penal farm in the world?
b. Child Trafficking a. Davao penal farm
c. Child Prostitution b. Sablayan penal colony
d. Child Exploitation c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
d. Iwahig penal colony
3332. . Under the UN Standard Minimum Rules for
3320. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from treatment of Prisoners, which of the following are the two
occurring basic principles under rules of general application to
a. Control prisoners?
b. Recession 1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of
c. Repression race, color, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion,
d. Prevention national or social origin, birth or other status
3321. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, 2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief and
it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as moral rule of the group to which the prisoner belong
defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, 3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not
including a barangay tanod. their exclusion from the community, but their continuing part in
a. Police Officer it
b. Probation Officer 4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent
c. Law Enforcement Officer and shall be treated as such.
d. Public Officer a. 2 and 3
3322. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately b. 4 and 1
unattended or inadequately attended. c. 1 and 2
a. Abandoned Child d. 3 and 4
b. Abused Child 3333. What does classical theory provides?
c. Neglected Child a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could
d. Dependent Child be controlled by regulating the reproduction of
3323. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years families
old. b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with
a. Adolescence other persons in the process of communication
b. Early adolescence c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and
c. Juvenile penalty disorders
d. None of the above d. The basis for criminal liability is human free will and
3324. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which the purpose of penalty is retribution
deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, 3334. The theory in criminal causation focuses on the
custom and culture which society does not accept and criminal disorders, chromosomes irregularity, and
which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures abnormal brain activity?
in the public interest and it is being committed by minors? a. Biological
a. Juvenile Delinquency b. Psychological
b. Minor Delinquency c. Sociological
c. Child Delinquency d. Geological
d. Youth Delinquency 3335. Where Rene Boy shall be confined if his sentence is 6
3325. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in months or less?
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is a. National prison
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the b. Municipal jail
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any c. City jail
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but d. Provincial jail
not later than hours after apprehension. 3336. Crimes with no private offended party?
a. 8 a. Complex crime
b. 24 b. Status offense
c. 12 c. Simple crime
d. 36 d. Victimless crime
3326. This concerns to the obligations of the community to 3337. A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they were
individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common granted the time for their marital sexual obligation. What
advantages and sharing of common burden. do you call this affair?
a. Prosecution a. Sexual relation
 b. Conjugal partnership b. 1841
c. Conjugal privilege c. 1896
d. Conjugal visit d. 1932
3338. What institution conducts the training program for 3351. It is regarded as the most important program that aids
uniformed personnel of the BJMP? in the rehabilitation or prisoners
a. Fire Training Center a. Recreational program
b. Philippine National Jail Academy b. Religious program
c. PNP Training Center c. Educational program
d. Jail Management Training Institute d. Employment of prisoners
3339. Robin Padilla was convicted and ready to serve his 3352. Person who are deemed instrumental on the
sentence inside the prison. Why was he photographed at reformation of prisoners due to their daily contact with
the Reception and Diagnostic Center? inmates?
a. He is a actor and photogenic a. Chaplain
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph b. Warden
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor c. Psychologist
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the d. Prison guards
reception procedure 3353. Person who are deemed instrumental on the
3340. A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration reformation of prisoners due to their daily contact with
is referred to as inmates?
a. Determinate sentence a. Chaplain
b. Capital punishment b. Warden
c. Corporal punishment c. Psychologist
d. Indeterminate sentence d. Prison guards
3341. Which of the following executive clemency needs the 3354. It is given to prisoners who have returned to their
concurrence of the congress? places of confinement within 48 hours after a calamity.
a. Pardon a. Good conduct time allowance
b. Amnesty b. Special time allowance
c. Probation c. Visitation privileges
d. Parole d. Good treatment allowance
3342. It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted 3355. Juan Manalo was convicted by final judgment to serve
person should serve part of his sentence? the term of imprisonment for 20 years. While serving his
a. Pardon sixth year of imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the
b. Parole prison and several inmates escaped. Roberto returned the
c. Probation following day, how many years would be deducted from
d. Amnesty his sentence?
3343. What should the court do where the accused violated a. 4 years
the terms and conditions of his probation? b. 8 years
a. Court releases the probationer to the community c. 9 years
b. Revoked and let the probationer served his d. 11 years
sentence 3356. A person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole would be classified as what kind of prisoner?
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his a. Municipal prisoner
probation b. Insular prisoner
3344. Which of the following is a minor offense in jail? c. Provincial prisoner
a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate d. Detention prisoner
b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place 3357. It is one of the forerunners of modern correctional
c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in system wherein they confine the prisoners in single cell at
the jail where it is off- limits to inmates night but allow them to work during the day.
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official a. Auburn system
communication, transaction or investigation b. Pennsylvania system
3345. Failure to assist in putting out fires inside the jail is a c. Elmira reformatory
type of offense? d. None of the above
a. Grave offense 3358. It is an institution intended to detain or house political
b. Less grave offense offenders.
c. Not so grave offense a. Iwahig Penal farm
d. Minor offense b. Davao Penal Farm
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
3346. How many hours should the jail disciplinary board d. Sablayan Prison Farm
hear and decide the case brought before it? 3359. This forerunner whereby he introduced the theory of
a. 24 hours atavism?
b. 12 hours a. Lombroso
c. 48 hours b. Becarria
d. 72 hours c. Ferri
3347. Minimum number of time in counting the inmates on d. Garofalo
daily basis? 3360. It is the temporary suspension in the execution of
a. Three times sentence?
b. Two times a. Pardon
c. Four times b. Appeal
d. Five times c. Commutation
3348. What is the duration should the probation officer d. Reprieve
submit his post sentence investigation to the court? 3361. It is the deduction of the term of imprisonment due to
a. 60 days the convict’s good behavior while serving his sentence?
b. 30 days a. Special time allowance
c. within 60 days b. Parole
d. 15 days c. Good conduct time allowance
3349. A shoemaker and became the father of probation in d. Probation
the U.S 3362. A writ ordering the confinement of a person in penal
a. Mathew Davenport Hill institution.
b. Edward Savage a. Detention order
c. John Augustus b. Commitment order
d. Teodolo Natividad c. Warrant of arrest
3350. When does probation started? d. None of the above
a. 1938 3363. Who grants probation?
 a. Probation officer b. Control of prison operation and activities
b. Solicitor general c. Personnel program
c. Court d. Executive leadership
d. All of the above 3377. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed
3364. Where the application for probation should be filed? for at least a minimum period of 5 days to ten days for the
a. Board of Pardons and Parole conduct of medical examination, vaccination, x-rays to
b. Office of the Solicitor General prevent physical contamination
c. Trial court a. Reception diagnostic center
d. Appellate court b. Medical center
3365. The court shall resolve the application for probation c. Quarantine unit
for _. d. None of the above
a. Not later than 60 days 3378. A writ issued by the court to a correctional facility
b. Within 10 days indicating the basis of confinement of a prisoner
c. Within 5 days a. Mittimus
d. Within 15 days b. Detention order
3366. Pending the submission of the investigation report, c. Warrant of arrest
the defendant may be allowed on temporary liberty d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus
through_. 3379. A code which provides “an eye for an eye, a tooth for
a. Release on recognizance a tooth.”
b. Bail a. Code of Babylon
c. Manifestation b. Code of Kalantiaw
d. Cash bond c. Hammurabi code
3367. Probation shall be denied if the court finds that_. d. Bible
a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the 3380. A French word meaning “word of honor”
offense committed. a. Pardon
b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment b. Probation
c. There is undue risk that during the period of c. Parole
probation the offender will commit another crime d. Amnesty
d. All of the choices 3381. Refers to those who are confined in correctional
3368. The probationer and his probation program shall be facilities awaiting verdict in their cases
under the control and supervision of ___? a. Prisoner
a. Probation officer b. Detainees
b. Board of pardons and parole c. Probationer
c. Court d. Offender
d. All of the above 3382. It is said to be the alternative for jail confinement in
3369. Is the denial of probation appealable? modern penology.
a. It depends on the violation a. Amnesty
b. Yes b. Parole
c. No c. Probation
d. Partially No d. Pardon
3370. Who shall have the control over the probationer once 3383. He advocated the Irish system which is considered by
the latter is permitted to reside under the jurisdiction of many as one of the most famous contributor to the
another court? reformatory movement.
a. Regional Director a. Z.R. Brockway
b. Executive judge of the municipal court b. Alexander Macanochie
c. Executive Judge of the first instance c. Ceasar Lombroso
d. Appellate court d. Walter Crofton
3371. Pedro Juana was sentenced to serve an 3384. He is the father of probation in the Philippines
imprisonment of six months, how many years would be the a. Ferdinand Marcos
duration of his probation? b. Manuel Roxas
a. One year c. Teodulo Natividad
b. Two years d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.
c. Shall not exceed two years 3385. A Boston shoemaker who advocated in behalf of
d. Shall not be more than six years alcoholic and youthful offenders and known as the father
3372. In the hearing for the violation committed by the of probation.
probationer, the latter shall have the right to be informed of a. Mathew Davenport Hill
the violation charged and to adduce evidence in his favor. b. Edward Savage
This right is in pursuant to his right to ___? c. John Augustus
a. Equal protection d. Alexander Rice
b. Presumption of innocence 3386. He is the first appointed probation officer in the world.
c. Miranda rights a. Hans Gross
d. Due process of law b. Edward Savage
3373. What is the effect of the termination of probation? c. John Augustus
a. Erase criminal records d. Benjamin Franklin
b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as 3387. This case paved the way for the abolition of the first
a result of conviction probation law?
c. Both A and B a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164
d. None of the above b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164
3374. Probation aids shall have the term in office for ___? c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164
a. 3 years d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164
b. 1 year 3388. It serves as the basis in granting probation to qualified
c. 2 years applicants.
d. 4 years a. Post Investigation Report
3375. Ideal number of days for proper classification of newly b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
convicted offenders at the RDC? c. Admission report
a. 45 days d. Post Sentence Investigation
b. 30 days 3389. After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must
c. 60 days a judge decide whether to grant or deny the application for
d. 15 days probation.
3376. An inherent responsibility of a warden in seeing to it a. 5 days
that he continually motivates his staff and personnel to b. 15 days
perform at their best. c. 30 days
a. Decision making d. 60 days
3390. Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as a. Incapacitation
the chairman of the Board of Pardons and Parole? b. Deterrence
a. PNP Chief c. Penalization
b. DILG Secretary d. Rehabilitation
c. DOJ Secretary 3404. What code specified punishment according to the
d. Chief Executive social class of the offenders?
3391. Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner a. Greek Code of Draco
maybe checked at anytime. b. Justinian Code
a. Search and seizure c. Burgundian Code
b. Confiscation d. Akadian Code
c. Inspection 3405. The establishment of the usefulness and
d. Operation greyhound responsibility of the offender as a productive individual is a
3392. These are long, narrow, single decked ships propelled punishment justified by
by sails, usually rowed by criminals. a. Expiation
a. Hulks b. Rehabilitation
b. Ships of criminals c. Atonement
c. Galleys d. Retribution
d. none of the above 3406. The penalty of banishing a person from the place
3393. What is the standard ratio in escorting a non- bailable where he committed a crime refers to what contemporary
inmate? forms of punishment
a. One is to one security officer a. Atonement
b. One is to three security officers b. Destierro
c. One is to two plus one security officers c. Exile
d. One is to one plus one security officer d. Incapacitation
3394. Offenders who are committed to the jail or prison in 3407. The early Roman place of confinement which was
order to serve their sentence after final conviction of a built under the main sewer of Rome in 64 BC refers to
competent court is known as a. Town Gates
a. Detention prisoner b. Wulnut Street Jail
b. Sentenced prisoner c. Bridewell Workhouse
c. Provincial prisoner d. Mamertime Prison
d. National prisoner 3408. What was the most popular workhouse in London
3395. Penology came from the latin word “poena” which which was built for the employment of English prisoners?
means a. Borstal prison
a. Conviction b. Panoptican prison
b. Pain and suffering c. Elmira reformatory
c. Punishment d. None of the choices
d. Deterrence 3409. Which branch takes charge of the preparation of the
3396. It is the suffering inflicted by the state against an daily menu, prepares and cooks food and serve to
offending member of the society for the transgression of inmates?
the law a. General Service Branch
a. Penalty b. Mess Service Branch
b. Punishment c. Budget and Finance Brach
c. Suffering d. Property and Supply Branch
d. Any of the above 3410. The unit where the prisoner is given thorough physical
3397. When different crimes should be punished with examination including blood test, x-rays, vaccinations and
different penalties, punishment should therefore be immunity for the purpose of insuring that the prisoner is
a. Correctional not suffering from contagious disease?
b. Legal a. Rehabilitation Unit
c. Productive of suffering b. Quarantine Cell
d. Commensurate with the offense c. Medical and Health Center
3398. An institution for the imprisonment of persons d. RDC
convicted of major offenses refers to 3411. Who provides the security system of sound custody,
a. Jail security and control of inamtes and their movements and
b. Prison also responsible to enforce jail or prison discipline
c. Penitentiary a. Administrative Group
d. All of the above b. Security Group
3399. Imprisonment for a term of 6 years 1 day to 12 years c. Rehabilitation Group
a. Prision correccional d. Medical Group
b. Reclusion temporal
c. Arresto mayor
d. Prision mayor 3412. What law was passed during the Aquino
3400. A criminal can seek refuge in a church in order to administration that renamed the Bureau of Prisons to
avoid punishment in a period of ninety days. This refers to Bureau of Corrections?
a. Refuge a. E.O. 292
b. Securing sanctuary b. E.O. 229
c. Hidden church c. A.O 262
d. Claiming penitentiary d. E.O. 292
3401. This were the former warships used to house 3413. Who appoints the Director of Prisons who shall be the
prisoners in the 18th century and 19th century as means of Head of the Bureau?
relieving congestion of prisones refers to a. Chief BJMP
a. Galleys b. Sec. of DILG
b. Hulks c. Chief Executive
c. Gaols d. Sec. of DOJ
d. Warships 3414. What agency has supervision and control over all the
3402. In the ancient times, who were commonly subjected national prisons or penitentiaries?
to harsh punishments? a. Bureau of Prisons
a. Middle class b. Bureau of Correction
b. Black people c. Bureau of Jail
c. Slaves d. None of the above
d. Any of the above. 3415. Which of the following statements is not true?
3403. Offenders who were convicted should be kept away a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the
from the society for its protection. This is frequently called jurisdiction of the DOJ
as
 b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the 3427. One of the juridical conditions of Penalty, The
provincial government consequence must be in accordance with the law it is a
c. The jail bureau controls the administration and result of a judgment rendered by a court of justice.
supervision of all jails nationwide A. Equal
d. The BJMP is under the DILG B. Legal
3416. Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend? C. Commensurate w/ the offense
a. Chief Executive D. Personal
b. DILG Sec 3428. X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion
c. Chief BJMP Temporal who has the jurisdiction to detain him?
d. Chief of BUCOR A. BuCor
3417. Who appoints the Chief Inspector as warden? C. BJMP
a. DILG sec B. PNP
b. Chief Executive D. AFP
c. Chief BJMP 3429. Baby Ama was sentenced to serve Prison Correctional.
d. Chief of BuCor What is the duration of his penalty?
3418. Early forms of Prison Discipline by means of uttering A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y
insulting words or languages on the part of prison staff to C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y
the prisoners to degrade or break the confidence of B. 6M1D to 6 Y
prisoners. D. 1M&1D – 6 M
A. Degradation 3430. It is then known as Carcel y Presidio.
B. Corporal Punishment A. Old Bilibid Prison
C. Monotony B. Manila City Jail
D. Mass Movement C. NBP
3419. The public will be protected if the offender has being D. May Halique Estate
held in conditions where he cannot harm others especially 3431. Formerly known as the Luhit Penal Settlement.
the public. Punishment is effected by placing offenders A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
in prison so that society will be ensured from further B. San Ramon Prison
criminal depredations of criminals. C. Sablayan Prison
A. Deterrence D. New Bilibid Prison
B. Incapacitation & Protection 3432. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before
C. Retribution admission it meant
D. Atonement A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and
3420. Photograph H
e is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as B. Examination for Contraband
correctional treatment for major offenders also responsible C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record
for the abolition of death penalty and torture as a form of Clerk
punishment. D. All of These
A. John Howard 3433. ____ is the Chairman of the Classification Board in
B.Charles Montesquieu BJMP.
C. William Penn A. Assistant Warden
D. Jeremy Bentham B. Medical Officer
3421. Director of the Prisons of Valencia, Spain who divided C. Chief, Security Officer
prisoners into companies and appointed prisoners as petty D. Jail Chaplain
officer in charge. 3434. A general agreed principle that women prisoners
A. Domets of France should be placed in a special building on the same site
C. Manuel Montesimos with the men prison.
B. Zebulon Brockway A. Diversification by Sex
D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise B. Segregation
3422. What governing law of Aklan and Panay based on the C. Diversification by Age
beliefs, customs and practices, it is also reflects the level D. Diversification by Degree of Custody
of uprightness and morality of the people? 3435. What satellite of NBP does RDC is situated?
A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203 A. Camp Bukang Liwayway
B. Law of the Talion B. Camp Sampaguita
C. Kalantiaw Code C. Main building
D. Penitentiary Act of 1779 D. Chapel
3423. It refers to prison which is used to confine slaves 3436. What is the prescribed color of uniform for Minimum
where they were attached to workbenches and forced to Security Prisoners?
do hard labor in the period of their imprisonment. A. Blue
A. Underground Cistern B. Brown
B. Ergastalum C. Tangerine
C. Sing-Sing Prison D.Gray
D. Alcatraz Prison 3437. It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao Del Norte, General
3424. It is known as the “Age of Reason of Age of Paulino Santos led the first contingent which opened the
Enlightment” colony.
A. 1870 – 1880 A. Davao Penal Colony
B. 18th century B. Tagum
C. 19th century C. Panabo
D. 21st century D. Kapalong
3425. It refers to a Prison System whereby prisoners are E. Tanglaw
confined in their own cells during the night and congregate 3438. Gov. White E. Dwigth made the suggestion of the
work in shops during the day also known as “Congregate construction of this penal institution and it was established
System”. on 1904 through the orders of Gov. Forbes. It is
A. Auburn Prison System considered a one of the most open penal institutions in the
B. Custody Oriented Prison world.
C. Pennsylvania Prison System A. Iwahig
D. Treatment Oriented Prison B. Tagumpay
3426. The first juvenile reformatory which was opened in C. Sta. Lucia
January 1825 and located in New York City. D. Inagawan
A. Borstal Institution 3439. The following are the sub colonies of Sablayan Prison
B. Elmira Reformatory and Penal Farm.
C. New York House of Refuge I. Central III. Pusog
D. Panoptican Prison II. Pasugui IV. Yapang
V. Panabo VI. Kapalong
 VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan conditions and pose lesser danger than maximum-security
IX. Montible X. Central prisoners in case they escape.
A. I, II, III, IV A. Minimum Security Prisoners
B. V and VI B. Medium Security Prisoners
C. VII, VIII, IX & X C. Maximum Security Prisoners
D. Either of these D. Any of the Above
3440. Convicts committed to BUCOR are brought to RDC for 3452. What is the lowest authorized disciplinary punishment
a total period of ____ for classification and determination imposable to inmates?
of appropriate program. A. Close Confinement
A. 60 days B. Extra-Fatigue Duty
B. 55 days C. Reprimand
C. 5 days D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges
D. NONE 3453. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be between
___ in any calendar month provided that this punishment
3441. One of the components of RDC which is responsible in shall be imposed only in the case of an incorrigible
the examination of the prisoner’s mental and emotional prisoner when other disciplinary measured had been
make-up. proven ineffective.
A. Medical Center A. 30-60 days
B. Sociologist C. 1-7 Days
C. Psychologist B. 1 day
D.Psychiatrist D. NONE
3442. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology was 3454. All except one are instruments of restraints.
created thru ____ as one of the Tri Bureau under the A. Handcuffs
Department of Interior and Local Government . B. Whipping Rod
A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM C. Leg iron
B. Section 53, RA 6975 D. Strait Jackets
C. Section 23 of RA 6975 3455. Inmates ____ may be excused from mandatory prison
D. Section 60 of RA 6975 labor.
3443. X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion A. 60 years old
Temporal who has the jurisdiction to detain him? B. 56 years old
A. BuCor C. 50 years old
C. BJMP D. 21 years old
B. PNP 3456. The _____ may grant GCTA to an inmate for good
D. AFP behavior with no record of disciplinary infraction or
3444. All except one is included in the command group of violation of prison rules and regulation.
BJMP A. Director of BJMP
A. Chief of Staff B. Warden
B. Deputy C/BJMP C. President
C. Chief of BJMP D. Director of Corrections
D. Chief of Directorial staff 3457. Inmates earnings that may be used to buy his needs.
3445. One of the Administrative groups in BJMP responsible A. ½ of his earnings
for preparation of the daily menu, prepare and cook the B. ¼ if his earnings
food and serve it to inmates. C. ¾ of his earnings
A. Mess Service Branch D. Discretion of Warden
B. General Service Branch (maintenance)
C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial) 3458. GCTA is a kind of ___ that can only be denied if the
D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics) prisoner breaks the rules and only after due process is
3446. When the offender is in transit, the ratio of __ for observed.
every offender shall be observed. A. right
A. 1:1+1 B. Privileges
B. 1:2 C. Discretion
C. 1:7 D. liberty
D. 1:500 3459. A colonist when classified by the director of the
3447. When the offender is in transit, in case of ___ that Bureau of Corrections who is punished with reclusion
demands extra precaution additional guards shall be perpetua will have benefit from an automatic reduction
employed from maximum term of forty years to ___.
A. High Profile offender A. 20 Years
B. Female Offender B. 25 Years
C. High-risk offender C. 30 Years
D. Either of these D. 35 Years
3448. If the inmate agrees to abide by the same disciplinary 3460. Duration of viewing of privilege of a deceased relative
rules imposed upon convicted prisoners, he shall be asked is limited to ___ hours.
to, manifest his ___ in writing. A. 3
A. Certification B. 9
C. Agreement C. 6
B. Manifestation D. 12
D. Affidavit 3461. Who among the following inmates may not be allowed
3449. John was sentenced to serve Arresto Mayor, what to see the remains of a dead immediate family member?
classification of sentenced prisoner is John classified? A. Minimum Security
A. Municipal Prisoner B.Maximum Security
C. City Prisoner C. Medium Security
B. Provincial Prisoner D. None of these
D. Insular Prisoner 3462. Telephone calls are permitted for inmates for a period
3450. Ser Chief is a newly arrived inmate committed for the not exceeding 5 minutes every ___ days.
first time. He classified as a ____ among the classification A. 30
of inmates according to privileges. B. 90
A. 1st class inmate C. 60
B. 3rd class inmate D. 120
C. 2nd class inmate 3463. If escorting an inmate a guard shall keep distance of
D. Colonist not less than ____ paces from his charge.
3451. What classification of Prisoners according to Degree A. 10
of Security if the prisoner cannot be trusted in open B. 30
C. 15
 D. 45 3476. The following are the aims of diversification in prison
3464. In mess hall and dining area for purposes of or jail, except:
precaution, the prescribe utensil for inmates shall be made A. more effective execution of treatment programs
of: B. to prevent physical contamination of one group or
A. Wood another
B. Paper C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk
C. Plastic D. none of the above
D. Carton 3477. It provides some opportunities for inmates of a normal
3465. It is a continuing state of good order. sex life.
A. Discipline A. Maternal Visit
B. Communication B. Sodomy
C. Morale C. Masturbation
D. Loyalty D. Conjugal Visit
3466. Unload as method in searching the prisoner for 3478. An offender who surrenders from escaping because
possession of contraband’s inside the prison cell and of calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement
compound. of the passing away of calamity shall be granted
A. Frisking A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
B. Shakedown B. 1/2 reduction of sentence
C. Operation Greyhound C. 1/3 reduction of sentence
D. Body Frisking D. 4/5 reduction of sentence
3467. It is considered as the highest income earner among
the Philippine Correctional Institution. 3479. Which of these is known as the Release on
A. Iwahig Penal Colony Recognizance Law providers for the release of offender
B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm charged with an offense whose penalty is not more than
C. Davao Penal Colony six (6) months and /or a fine of P2,000.00 or both, to the
D. Sablayan Prison and Farm custody of a responsible person in the community, instead
3468. The most common problem for national penitentiaries. of a bail bond-
A. Excessive number of inmates A. RA 6036
B. Lack of funds B. PD 603
C. Sex problems C. Act 2489
D. Discipline D. RA 9262
3469. Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee 3480. If the Warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents
who has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to and purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the
the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is next in command or the ___ officer present shall assume
charged with? the command.
A. B.P 85 A. Veteran
B. RA 4200 B. most senior
C. B.P. 22 C. assistant
D. PD 968 D. custodian
3470. The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another 3481. In case of mass jailbreak, all member of the custodial
to change his religious beliefs sect or the like to another force shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to
while under confinement is referred to as critical posts to:
A. Proselytizing A. plug off the escape routes
B. Initiation B. protect the other inmates
C. Fraternization C. to shoot the escape
D. Inducement D. give warning shots
3471. Who composed of guards trained on proper handling 3482. When a jailbreak, escape or riot in progress or has
and use of firearms who shall be ready to fire when the just been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control
lives of the guards are in danger on orders of the Officer in centers shall immediately:
Command. A. sound the alarm
A. 1st group Anti-Riot B. notify the nearest police precinct
B. 4th Group Anti-Riot C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot D. call the warden or the director
D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot 3483. The following are the duties of the custodial force in
prison, except:
3472. Within the radius by road from the confinement facility A. Censor offender’s inmate
and the actual stay of the inmates to view the remains. B. Escort inmates
A. 20 kilometer C. Inspect security devices
B. 40 Kilometer D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
C. 30 Kilometer 3484. It served as the cornerstone or rehabilitation
D. 50 Kilometer A. Religion
3473. Under RA 9344, what happens to the sentence of a B. Education
Child in Conflict with the law after conviction of a trial C. Discipline
Court? D. Recreational
A. His sentence serve 3485. Maiming; Physical Torture; Electrocution; ____
B. His sentence is suspended A. Social degradation
C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his B. Exile
family C. Physical torture
D. His sentence is NOT suspended D. Death Penalty
3474. One-fifth of the sentence for Loyalty equivalent shall 3486. It refers to those items, though authorized, is already
be deducted from the inmates sentence if, after the inmate in excessive quantities to become a fire hazard, a threat to
abandoned prison due to disorder arising security or has become causative in making the place
A. STA unsanitary.
B. GCTA A. Contraband
C. Commutation B. Paraphernalia
D.Visitation Privilege C. Prohibited items
3475. It is a kind of court to settle tribunal and even D.Nuisance Contraband
individuals people conflicts: 3487. It refers to the entrusting for confinement of an inmate
A. Bodong to a jail by competent court or authority for investigation,
C. Capic trial and/or service of sentence
B. Korte Supremo A. Commitment
D. Hito B. Safekeeping
C. Entrustment
 D. Imprisonment A. Waiver of Liability
3488. This was the right in ecclesiastical court during the B. Waiver of Responsibility
middle ages particularly in England. C. Waiver of Acceptance
A. Inquisition D. Waiver of Agreement
B. Incapacitation 3501. Before the actual date of interview the media shall file
C. Benefit of Clergy request within ____
D. Retribution A. 1 day
3489. The inmates may request a review of the findings of B. 3 days
the Disciplinary Board and the propriety and the penalty to C. 2 days
the ____. D. 8 days
A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board 3502. Who should make an immediate preparation for the
B. BJMP issuance of the necessary anti-riot equipment and
C. Central office/BJMP firearms?
D. Warden A. the Warden
3490. If the inmate fails to claim his letter within ____ after it C. Director for operation
has been posted, the mail should be delivered to him. B. Director
A. 48 hours D. Desk Officer
B. 24 hours 3503. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a
C. 30 days rank of Director, and assisted by Deputy Chief with the
D. 60 days rank of Senior Superintendent. This sentence is
3491. All letters passed by censors should bear the censor’s A. partially true
stamp at the ____ of each page and on the envelope. The C. true
letter should be placed back in the same envelope and B. partially false
resealed. D. false
A. Back 3504. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment
B. Conspicuous Area of offenders prescribes that penal facilities should not
C. Side exceed _____ inmates.
D. Top A. 1000
3492. In case if jailbreaks, who will immediately sound the B. 1500
alarm? C. 1200
A. Desk Officer D. 2000
B. Armorer 3505. Who among the following inmates may not be allowed
C. Control Center to see the remains of a dead immediate family members?
D. Officer-in-Charge A. Minimum security
3493. It is designed to improve their communication and B. Maximum security
computation skills, such as the ability to read and write in C. Medium security
order to enhance their individual educational level. D. None of these
A. Skills Training 3506. Minimum number of times in counting the inmates on
B. Adult Education a daily basis.
C. Secondary Education A. Two
D. Non-Formal Education for Adults B. Four
3494. Detention Prisoners are allowed to smoke cigars and C. Three
cigarettes, except in prohibited cases. The statement is – D. Five
A. Partially true 3507. Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the
B. Partially false quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center .
C. Absolute False A. 55 days
D. Absolutely True B. 5 days
3495. All persons in custody shall before final conviction, be C. 60 days
entitled to bail as a matter of ____ D. 15 days
A. Right 3508. In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment
B. preference by claiming refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the
C. Privilege end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by
D. Discretion a road or path assigned to him.
3496. The visiting room officer shall be responsible for
compiling the regular visiting list for each inmate. A. 30 days
A. Special Visitor B. 50 days
B. Strange Visitor C. 40 days
C. Regular Visitor D. 60 days
D. Unusual visitor 3509. In Operation Greyhound, all orders concerning troop
3497. ____responsible for handling the keys in Women’s movements will emanate from him.
quarter and the keys shall be available all the time. A. Assistant team leader
A. Key Matron B. Team Leader
B. .Resident Matron C. Ground Commander
C. Matron D. Security Teams
D. Any of these 3510. Who among the following shall be responsible in the
3498. Ms. Malou Wang has duration of penalty of 6 years custody of all the properties seized from the detainee prior
and one day to 12 years. What correctional facility he to his detention?
should be incarcerated? A. Custodial Officer
A. Bureau of Correction B. Chief of Detention Center
B. Prision Correctional C. Evidence Custodian Officer
C. Prision Mayor D. Court
D. BJMP 3511. Female detainees shall not be transported in
3499. Mr. Abdul Salsalani was convicted of the crime handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and proper
murder. After 12 days from the promulgation of the escort preferably aided by a police woman. The statement
sentence he escaped from his place of confinement. Abdul is
Salsalani is: A. Yes
A. liable of evasion of service of sentence B. Wholly True
B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence C. Partially False
C. considered as an escaped prisoner D. Wholly False
D. Either of C 3512. Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner, learns that she is
3500. It should be executed by the interviewer, which will already overstaying in jail because her jail guard, Benny B.
exempt prison authorities from any liability arising from Rotcha, who happens to be a law student advised her that
death or injury sustained while in prison: there is no more legal ground for his continued
 imprisonment, and Benny told her that she can go. Ms. A. Agricultural
Malou Wang got out of jail and went home. Was there any B. Industrial
crime committed? C. Operational
A. Evasion of Service D. Administrative
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners 3526. The 2nd group shall not use riot control gases, except
C. Evasion through Negligence on orders of the –
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
3513. As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the jail guard who allowed A. Desk Officer
Ms. Malou Wang to go, is concerned, the crime committed B. Armorer
is: C. Control Center
A. Evasion of Service D. Officer-in-Charge
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner 3527. Detention Prisoners are NOT allowed to have a
C. Evasion through Negligence Conjugal Visit. The statement is –
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison A. True
3514. This refers to the one-in-charge of a Prison. B. Maybe True
A. Director C. Maybe False
C. Warden D. False
B. Superintendent 3528. If Jail Officer I Masunurin was appointed in 2013 at a
D. Wardress monthly salary of 19,000, how much is longevity pay in
3515. What correctional institution houses accused persons 2018?
awaiting investigation? A. 9000 pesos
A. BUCOR B. 1900 pesos
B. Jail C. 9500 pesos
C. Penitentiary D. NONE
D. Prison 3529. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center
3516. Who supervised and control the Provincial Jail. for adjustment process from life in prison to life is free
A. DILG community within –
B. Governor A. 60 days prior to release
C. DOJ B. 30 days prior to release
D. LGU C. 90 days before release
D. 15 days prior to release
3517. It is one of the earliest devices for softening brutal 3530. How many days are given to the disciplinary board of
severity of punishment through a compromise with the BJMP to resolve issue?
church. A. 5 working days
A. Benefit of Clergy B. 2 days
B. None C. 30 working days
C. Rehabilitation D. 24 hours
D. Retribution 3531. How long does an inmate mother who gave birth
3518. Richard Alden was convicted to serve a penalty of 6 inside the jail is allowed to be with his child?
years imprisonment for usurpation of a person in authority A. 6 months
due to his frequent introduction of himself as NBI agent, B. 1 year
what would be his classification under PD 29? C. 2 years
A. Detention prisoner D. 7 years
B. Municipal prisoner 3532. A colonist when classified by the director of the
C.Provincial prisoner Bureau of Corrections who is punished with reclusion
D. Insular prisoner perpetua will have benefit from an automatic reduction
3519. Theory which states that criminal behavior is learned from a maximum term of forty years to ____.
in interaction with other persons in the process of A. 20 years
communication. B. 25 years
A. Differential Association Theory C. 30 years
B. Social Disorganization Theory D. 35 years
C. Classical Theory
D. Strain Theory 3533. Close confinement in Prison shall not exceed –
3520. Having a pornographic materials inside jail is a? A. 45 days
A. Minor offense B. 30 to 60 days
B. Moral Turpitude C. 7 days
C. Grave Offense D. 15 days
D. Less grave offense 3534. Abdul Jackonini was sentenced to imprisonment on
3521. A chemical that is injected to a Death Convict that March 21, 2013. On March 25, 2013 the judge who
puts him into deep sleep in lethal injection. promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the
A. Potassium Chloride (stops heart beat) judge’s death to the service of Abdul’s sentence?
B. Hydrogen Peroxide (Paralyzes the muscles) C. A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
Sodium Thiopenthotal B. He will have to serve his sentence
D. Sodium chloride (salt) C. His sentence will be suspended
3522. If a regular convicted prisoner has 3 shifting guards, X D. His sentence will be reduced
which is a Death Convict should have___.
A. 2 Shifting Guards
B. 3 Shifting Guards
C. 4 Shifting Guards 3535. It is the national record of a prisoner at New Bilibid
D. 5. Shifting Guards Prison.
3523. How do inmates know that they have letters? A. Mittimus
A. A list of mails for inmates is posted B. Carpeta
B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally C. Commitment Order
C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the D. Prison Record
addressee 3536. How many days before election does inmate are
D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’ Office prohibited from going out?
3524. What is referred to as “hustling” inside the prison? A. 30 days
A. Reporting illegal activities B. 90 Days
B. Doing prison assignment C. 60 Days
C. Using prohibited drugs D. 120 Days
D. Selling illegal commodities 3537. Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has
3525. ____ program employs prisoner in various product or never been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor.
good-producing tasks. If you were the prison director, how many days for each
 month would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time disparity between goals and means provides that
allowance? pressure.
A. 5 days A. Differential Association Theory
B. 8 days B. Psychoanalytic Theory
C. 10 days D. Strain Theory
D. 12 days 3549. This is also known as “Youth Camps” and is being
3538. A powerful earthquake destroyed a prison where maintained by Bucor where youth offenders may serve
W,X,Y & Z are inmates. All, except Z, escaped. W their sentence in lieu of confinement in a prison.
surrendered after 24 hours, X b. surrendered after 24 A. AFP Stockade
hours, X surrendered after 2 days and Y surrendered after B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps
3 days. Who among them are not entitled to Special Time C. Social Camps
Allowance for Loyalty under Art. 98. D. A or C
A. X 3550. It was established in 1910 under the American
C. W Regime.
B. Y A. Philippine Prison System
D. Z B. Provincial Jail System
3539. Which of the following organizations donated the Half- C. Probation
way House inside the compound of the Bureau of D. Parole
Corrections? 3551. The following are the requisite of a valid Commitment
A. Office of the President Order EXCEPT:
B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office A. Signature of the Judge
C. United Nations Security Council B. Seal of the Court
D. Asia Crime Foundation C. Valid Identification of Prisoner
D. Signature of the Clerk
3540. Mail letters of a Death Convict should be documented 3552. A prisoner having the natural inclination or tendency
within ____ before the execution. to evade custody against the will of the custodian or from
A. 24 hours the place where he is held in lawful custody or
B. 72 hours confinement.
C. 48 hours A. Escape Prone Prisoner
D. NONE B. Mental Deranged Prisoner
3541. Involves the formulation of a tentative treatment C. Sex Deviate Prisoner
program best suited to the needs of the individual D. Alien Prisoner
prisoner, based on the findings. 3553. Where a person commits FELONY before beginning
A. treatment planning to serve or while serving his sentence on a previous
C. reclassification conviction
B. Execution of treatment Plan A. Quasi-recidivism
D. Diagnosis B. Reiteration
3542. An authorization that permits inmate to leave place of C. Habitual Delinquency
confinement for emergency reasons. D. Recidivism
A. Furlough
B. Prisonization 3554. If a prisoner who is serving sentence is found in
C. Diversification possession of dangerous drugs can be considered a
D. Counseling quasi-recidivist?
A. Yes, because he committed another crime while
serving his sentence
3543. A warden who limits his role to consider policy B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in
matters and major problems, his responsibility is centered prison
on: C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony
A. Decision Making D. A and B
B. Personnel Program
C. Public Relations 3555. What is the legal process that results in the removal
D. Executive Leadership of conviction from the official records?
3544. For minimum security institution, the purpose of A. Mitigation
fencing the surrounding is: B. Expungement
A. To keep away the civilian population from entering the C. Exoneration
institution. D. Restriction
B. It is designed to prevent escapes. 3556. Who advocated the principle that the basis of all
C. It is designed for agricultural purposes social actions must be the utilitarian conception of the
D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the greatest happiness for the greatest number?
surrounding. A. John Howard
3545. It is the primary objective of custodial and security B. Jeremy Bentham
division? C. Cesare Becaria
A. To prevent riots D. George Void
B. To implement discipline 3557. Prison work assignments are usually given to
C. To prevent escapes prisoners.
D. To help in the reformation of prisoners A. After recreational activities
3546. 230. When the death penalty was still enforced by B. At early morning hours
means of lethal injection, four guards keep a death watch, C. Before sleeping hours
the convict is confined in an individual cell ___ hours prior D. During middle hours of the day
to the scheduled time of execution which is usually 3:00 in 3558. Forced is used only by correctional to,
the afternoon. A. Exact respect
A. 6 B. Enforce discipline
B. 24 C. Show physical strength and power
C. 12 D. Perform assignments
D. 36 3559. One of the effects of social stigma maintained by an
3547. What is the population of a type A Jail? unforgiving society against criminals is ____.
A. More than 100 A. Worked out good relationship with the community
B. 20 or less B. Respond to a rehabilitation program
C. 21 to 99 C. Difficulties in securing employment
D. 101 to 150 D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner
3548. This theory assumes that people are law abiding but 3560. With respect to the UN Standard Minimum Rules for
under great pressure they will resort to crime and that the Treatment of Prisoners, which of the following should
NOT be done to the prisoners?
 A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of
convicted prisoners. liberty
B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from adult C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and
prisoners. economic usefulness
C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, without
from male prisoners. prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and
D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her children protecting social order
stay with her. 3573. Director of Prisons has the responsibility to forward
3561. Which of the following unusual offender should be the document to the board, ____ before the expiration of
under the close supervision of the jail physician? prisoner’s minimum sentence.
1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick A. 15 days
2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners B. 45 days
A. 1 and 2 C. 30 days
B. 3 and 4 D. 60 days
C. 1 and 3 3574. The board shall assess and determine whether the
D. 2 and 3 petitioner is qualified for Parole, the decision or action
3562. Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in command in BJMP? must be suspended by ____ of the members of the board.
A. Deputy for Administration A. 4 votes
B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command) B. Majority
C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command) C. 5 members of the Board
D. Any of these D. at least four (4) votes
3563. All original appointments of officers in the jail bureau 3575. If petition for Parole was granted, BOARD will issue a
shall commence with the rank of ___ ____ or specifically known as discharge on parole.
A. JO1 A. Release Document
B. Jail Inspector B. Final Release & Discharge
C. JO11 C. Discharge on Parole
D. Jail Senior Inspector D. Summary Report
3564. What is the minimum tank required to be appointed as 3576. One of the mandatory conditions attached to the
Chief Bureau of Jail Management and Penology? parolee is to report at least once a month for those
A. Superintendent residing outside Metro Manila/to report at least twice a
B. C/Superintendent month for those who are residing in Metro Manila.
C. Senior Superintendent A. True
D. Director B. Partially True
3565. It is a means correcting an offender by placing him to C. False
an institution where he can be treated well until he D. Partially False
becomes fully recovered and accepted by the community. 3577. The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if
A. Institutional Corrections parolee commits any violation of the terms and conditions
B. Non Institutional Correction stated in the release document.
C. BJMP A. Violation Report
D. Parole B. Progress Report
3566. This is the basic needs of a convicted person under C. Infraction Report
custody. D. Summary Report
a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes 3578. Upon receipt of the Report the BOARD may issue an
b. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks ____ against the parolee.
A. a,b,c,d A. Warrant of Arrest
B. a,c,d,e B. Search Warrant
C. c,d,e,f C. Order of Arrest
D. a,b,d,f D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR)
3567. It is a conditional release after the prisoner’s 3579. What is the effect of the recommitment of a Parolee?
conviction is final and executory and has already served A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence
the minimum period of the sentence imposed to him. B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
A. Parole C. Minimum sentence impose
B. Word of Hohor D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in
B. Parole d’ Honeur full
D.Probare 3580. As a general rule, a Parolee may not transfer
3568. He is the Governor/Superintendent in Norfolk Island, residence stated in the release document except if the
a penal colony in the East of Australia and initiated the petition for transfer of residence is approved by ____.
famous “Mark System”. A. Regional Director
A. Alexander Macanochie B. Probation & Parole Officer
B. Edward Savage C. BOARD
C. Walter Crofton D. Administration
D. Edward Savage 3581. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize
3569. Ex-officio Chairperson of board of Pardons and outside travel his area of jurisdiction for a period of NOT
Parole. more than ___.
A. Administrator A. 30 days
B. Sec. of DOJ B. 15 days
C. Sociologist C. 20 days
D. Clergyman D. 10 days
3570. It is known as the Indeterminate Sentence Law that 3582. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days shall be
creates the board of Indeterminate Sentence which took approved by the ____.
effect on December 5, 1933. A. Regional Director
A. EO 83 S. 1937 B. Probation & Parole Officer
B. EO 94 C. BOARD
C. Act 4103 D. Administration
D. EO 292 3583. A parolee may work or travel abroad if he has NO
3571. All except one are the requisites to be eligible for pending criminal case in any court. Application for travel
review of a Parole cases. and work abroad shall be approved by the Administration
A. Final conviction and confirmed by the ____.
B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one yr A. Regional Director
C. served the minimum period of said sentence C. BOARD
D. None of the above B. Probation and Parole Officer
3572. All except one are objectives of the Parole System. D. Administration
A. It standardize the penalty
3584. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of 3595. The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is
Parole grants it as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This limited to the following, EXCEPT:
is statement is: A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment
A. Partially true B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
C. True violation of any election law may be granted without
B. Partially false favourable recommendation of the Commission of
D. False Elections
3585. The following are disqualifications for Parole to be C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
granted. D. Pardon is administered by the Court
a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence; 3596. Pardon can be extended to any of the cases,
b. those who have pending criminal case; EXCEPT:
c. habitual delinquencies; A. Carnapping
d. suffering from any mental disorder; and B. Impeachment
e. conviction is on appeal B. Estafa
A. a,b,c, and e D. Parricide
B. a,b,c, and d 3597. Father of Philippine Probation.
C. b,c,d, and e A. John Augustus
D. a,b,c,d, and e B. Edward Savage
3586. It is exercise exclusively within the sound discretion of C. Matthew Davenport Hill
the President for the objective of preventing miscarriage D. Teodulo Natividad
of Justice or correcting manifests injustice. 3598. First juvenile court established in 1899
A. Parole A. Chicago
B. Pardon B. Massachusetts
C. Executive C. England
D. Reprieve D. Philippines
3587. Who has the authority to assist the Chief Executive in 3599. Federal Probation act signed by President Calvin
his exercise of the power to grant executive clemency? Coolidge became a Law on _____.
A. DOJ A. April 26, 1878
B. BOARD B. 1899
C. Administration C. 1887
D. Administrator D. March 4, 1925
3588. Kind of Executive Clemency which exempts an 3600. Probation in Philippines was first introduced by virtue
individual within certain limits or conditions from the of ___ also known as Philippine Probation Act of 1935
punishment that the law inflicts for the offense he has A. HB 393
committed resulting from the partial extinction of his B. PD 968
criminal liability. C. Act 4221
A. Absolute Pardon D. RA 4221
B. Reprieve 3601. Celebrated case which paved the way for declaring
C. Commutation of Sentence unconstitutional of the first probation law of November 16,
D. Conditional Pardon 1937
3589. Pardon by the President shall be extended ____. A. People vs. Vera
A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action B. People vs. De Vera
B. After Conviction of Final Judgment C. People vs. De Vega
C. After Filling of Complaint/Information D. People vs. Vega
D. Upon the discretion of the President 3602. How long is the period of probation of a defendant
3590. A pardon violator upon conviction will be liable for sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than one
imprisonment of “prision correctional”. (1) year?
A. Article 95 of RPC A. Not to exceed 6 years
B. Article 59 of RPC B. Not to exceed 8 years
C. Article 159 of RPC C. Not to exceed 10 years
D. A and C D. Not to exceed 2 years
3591. On Executive Clemency petition filed by prisoner 3603. The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is
should be addressed to ____. limited to the following, EXCEPT:
A. Board A. Pardon is administered by the court
B. Administrator B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment.
C. Chairman of BPP C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
D. President violation of any election law may granted without
3592. Who shall endorse to the Board the petition for favourable recommendation of the Commission of
absolute or conditional pardon if the crime committed is Elections.
against the national security? D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
A. DFA Secretary 3604. What court will you apply for Probation?
B. COMELEC A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above
C. DOJ Secretary B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below
D. DND Secretary C. Same court, where you had been convicted
3593. Any wilful or malicious concealing material information D. Any of these
made by the client either or after the grant of Conditional 3605. Waiting for the decision of the court on the application
Pardon or Parole is a ground for the BOARD to – for probation, the offender applying for probation –
A. Extend the period of Supervision A. Must stay in prison as a detainee
B. Modify the conditions appeared on released document B. Maybe set free without bail
C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance
Conditional Pardon D. all of these
D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good 3606. When will the court deny application for probation of a
behavior has shown by the client petitioner?
3594. All except one are the instances wherein supervision A. Petitioner is a foreigner
of parole and conditional pardon case deemed to B. Petitioner is a drug dependent
archive/close. C. Petitioner violates the condition
A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the Board D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution
against the client 3607. Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to serve a penalty of
B. Certificate of transfer of resident Prision Correctional. Is he qualified to apply for probation?
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and A. Yes
discharge of the client B. True
D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the C. No
deceased client D. False
3608. Violations of the following Special Laws shall C. Upon the application of the community
disqualify an offender to avail of the benefits of PD 968. D. Any of these
A. Omnibus Election Code
B. Robbery
C. Wage Rationalization Act
D. Videogram Law

3609. As a general rule Violation of Comprehensive 3621. If the Probationer did not comply with the conditions, if
Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 is disqualify to apply for the reasons for non-compliance is not meritorious the
Probation, EXCEPT: court will issue a ____.
A. Section 12 A. termination order
B. Section 14 B. Warrant of Arrest
C. Section 13 C. OAR
D. Section 17 D. Revocation Order
E. Section 70 3622. What is the effect of the recommitment of a
3610. This decree mandated the disqualification of the Probationer?
petitioner’s application for probation if an appeal is A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence
perfected. B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum
A. PD 1357 sentence
B. BP 76 C. Minimum sentence impose
C. PD 968 D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full
D.PD 1257 3623. Under rules and methods employed by probation,
3611. He is a convicted defendant whose application for what is the maximum number of minor violations that
probation has been given due course by the court but fails would result in the revocation of the probation order?
to report to the probation officer or cannot be located A. 5 Violations
within a reasonable period of time. B. 3 Violations
A. Absconding Petitioner C. 4 Violations
B. Absconding Probationer D. 2 Violations
C. Disobedient Petitioner 3624. Maximum number of probationers under supervision
D. Uncooperative Petitioner of a probation aide
3612. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and A. 3
qualified petitioners, when does it become a matter of B. 7
right? C. 5
A. After the submission of the PSIR D. 9
B. When the convict files a petition for probation 3625. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and
C. When the appeal was undertaken qualified petitioners, when does it become a matter of
D. When his probation is approved right?
3613. When shall probation order take effect? A. After submission of the PSIR
A. Three days after issuance B. When the convict files a petition for probation
B. Three days prior to issuance C. When the appeal was undertaken
C. Upon its issuance D. When the probation is approved
D. Upon reporting to the probation officer 3626. Who is the ultimate beneficiary of Probation Law?
3614. Which of the following cases is disqualified to apply A. Criminal
for probation? B. Society
A. Infanticide C. Family
C. Simple Theft D. Governor
B. Malicious Mischief 3627. It refers to those that handle the investigation of
D.Unjust Vexation petitioners for probation, and the supervision of
3615. Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional probationers, parolees and conditional pardonees.
Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers? A. Parole and Probation Administration
A. DILG Secretary B. Board of Pardons and Parole
B. President C. Secretary of Justice
C. DOJ Secretary D. Department of Justice
D. Administrator 3628. Post Sentence Investigation report must be submitted
3616. How many days are given to the court to act on by the probation officer to the court within
application for probation? A. 20 days
A. 15 days B. 60 days
B. 60 days C. 30 days
C. 10 days D. 90 days
D. 5 days 3629. Those that have been once on probation under the
3617. Probationer and his Probation Officer will prepare a Probation Law:
_____. A. are qualified to apply for probation
A. Associate Plan B. are disqualified to apply for probation
B. Supervision & Treatment Plan C. may be granted for another probation
C. Treatment Program D. should be confined in prison
D. Orientation Plan 3630. Maximum term of office for those appointed as
3618. One of the mandatory conditions to a probationer is to members of the Board of Pardon and Parole.
present himself to the probation officer designated to A. 3 years
undertake his supervision within ___ from receipt of said B. 5 years
order. C. 4 years
A. 24 hours D. 6 years
B. 72 hours 3631. When will you close a probation case?
C. 48 hours A. When the probationer absconds the place
D. 150 hours B. When he incurred violations
3619. When shall probation order take effect? C. When there is recommendation for revocation
A. Three days after issuance D. When the termination order is approved
B. Upon its issuance 3632. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from
C. Three Days Prior to Issuance among the citizen’s of ____
D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer A. Good religious background
3620. Modifications of conditions for probation is allowed B. High Educational Level
___. C. Good Repute and Probity
A. 15 days after granting it D. High Social Standing
B. At any time during supervision
3633. It refers to the manner or practice of managing or d. 6 years
controlling places of confinement as in jails or prisons. 3644. BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for
A. Penology Administration and Rehabilitation and one for:
B. Penal Management a. Health and Care services
C. Correctional Administration b. Prisons and Security
D. Correction c. Correction and Rehabilitation d. Custody and Security
3634. It refers to a long, low narrow, single decked ships
propelled by sails, usually rowed by criminals. A. type of
ship used for transportation of criminals in the 16th century. 3645. A representative of the news media may file a written
A. Gaols request with the head of prison for a personal interview of an
B. Galleys inmate that he/she shall file a written request at least:
C. Hulks a. One day
D. D. Mamertine Prison b. two days
c. Three days
3635. Represented the earliest codification of Roman Law d. four days
incorporated into the Justinian Code. It is also collection 3646. This is the process wherein prison officials try to convert
of legal principles engraved on metal tablets and set up inmates and be affiliated into their religion:
on . a. Conversions
A. Twelve Tablets b. agitation
B. Burgundian Code c. Proselytizing
C. Hammurabic Code d. Captivation
D. Greek code of Draco 3647. Prisoner who violated prison rules may be punished by
a confinement in a disciplinary cell from _ to _ months
3636. The most popular workhouse in London which was depending upon the gravity of the offense committed:
built for the employment and housing of English prisoners. a. One to two
A. Bridewell b. one to three
B. Hospicio de San Michelle c. One to four
C. Saint Bridget” Well d. one to five
D. Walnut Street Jail 3648. During the 11th and successive years of following years
of prisoners imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction
3637. Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional of __ days for each month of good behaviour:
Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers? a. Five
A. DILG Secretary b. eight
C. President c. Ten
B. DOJ Secretary d. fifteen
D. Administrator 3649. During the following years until the 10th year, inclusive,
of inmate’s imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction
of:
a. Five
b. eight
3638. It is the branch of criminology which deals with the c. Ten
management and administration of inmates: d. fifteen
a. Criminal justice 3650. During the first two years of inmates imprisonment, he
b. Penology shall be allowed a deduction of:
c. Victimology a. Five days
d. d. Jail Management b. ten days
c. Seven days
3639. Any article, thing, or item prohibited by law/ or forbidden d. twelve days
by jail rules is called: 3651. GCTA means:
a. Instrument of restraint a. Good conduct turning allowance
b. contraband b. . good conduct time allowance
c. Handcuff c. Good conduct training allotment
d. leg iron d. d. none of the foregoing
3640. It shall exercise supervision and control over all district,
city and municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and 3652. It is a form of bails that the court may release a person
sanitary and adequately equipped jail for the custody and in custody of a responsible person.
safekeeping of city, municipal prisoners, any fugitive from a. Property bond
justice or persons detained awaiting for investigation or trial b. Recognizance
and/or transfer to the National Penitentiary: c. Corporate surety
a. Bureau of Corrections d. Cash deposit
b. Dep’t of Social Welfare and Development 3653. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the
b. Jail Bureau Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the:
c. Department of Justice a. Department of Justice
3641. Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a day b. Chief Executive
or as often as necessary to ensure that all inmates are duly c. Judiciary
accounted for: d. Legislative
a. Two 338. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to
b. Four suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence
c. Three and extinguish criminal liability.
d. d. Five a. Parole
3642. The head of prison may establish _______ whenever c. Pardon
the frequency of requests for interviews reach a volume that b. Executive clemency
warrants limitations: d. none of the above
a. Media group 3654. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
b. news team a. DILG c. BUCor
c.Press pool b. PNP
d. public affairs d. DOJ
3643. An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in 3655. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier
CIW may be allowed to stay with the mother for a period not sentence to a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter
exceeding: term.
a. 1 month a. Amnesty
b. 1 year c. Reprieve
c. 6 months b. Commutation
 d. none of the foregoing a. Special pardon
3656. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear b. Absolute pardon
of punishment. c. Conditional pardon
a. Retribution d. General pardon
b. Punishment 3670. Which is not a form of bail?
c. Deterrence a. Cash deposit
d. Rehabilitation b. Corporate surety
3657. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called c. Recognizance
a. Reprieve d. Title bond
c. Amnesty 3671. An offender who surrenders from escaping because
b. Pardon of calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of
d. Communication the passing away of calamity shall be granted
a. 1/5 reduction of sentence
b. 1/2 reduction of sentence
c. 2/5 reduction of sentence
d. 2/6 reduction of sentence
3658. Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is accused 3672. He is considered as the father of probation in the
before a court or competent authority and is temporarily Philippines.
confined in jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation, trial a. Ferdinand Marcos
or final judgment. b. Teodulo Natividad
a. Prisoner c. Fidel Ramos
b. Bail d. Antonio Torres
c. Detainee 3673. The following are forms of executive clemency,
d. Arrest EXCEPT
3659. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be a. Commutation
prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom? b. Reform model
a. Parents c. Amnesty
b. Offended Spouse d. Pardon
c. Guardians 3674. An agency under the Department of Justice that is
d. Godfather charged with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders,
3660. He is considered as the American Pioneer of Probation that is, those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of
a. Matthew Davenport Hill more than three (3) years
b. John Augustus a. BJMP
c. Father Cook b. Bureau of Corrections
d. d. Edward Savage c. Provincial Government
3661. Which of the following is an executive clemency that d. Parole and Probation Administration
requires the concurrence of congress? 3675. Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of
a. probation what government agency
b. Amnesty a. Parole and Probation Administration
c. pardon b. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Parole c. Probation and Parole Administration
3662. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted d. Board of Parole and Pardons
by the probation officer to the court within 3676. It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of
a. 20 days 2006.
c. 60 days a. R.A. 7610
b. 30 days b. P.D. 603
d. none of the above c. R.A. 9262
3663. Parole is a matter of ___. d. R.A. 9344
a. privilege 3677. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the:
b. right a. Director
c. grace b. Secretary of the dnd
d. requirement c. Chief of executive
3664. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __. d. Prison inspector
a. punishment 3678. A term means a friend of a court
b. treatment a. Amicos curae
c. enjoyment b. Amigos curae
d. incarceration c. Amicus curiae
3665. PPA is headed by: d. None of the above
a. Director 3679. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he
b. Administrator or she may not commit another crime in the future.
c. Secretary a. Retribution
d. Superior b. Deterrence
3666. Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law tribunal c. Incapacitation
upon a person convicted of crime or misdemeanor. d. Rehabilitation
a. Remission
b. Forfeiture 3680. He is considered as the father of Probation in England.
c. Fine a. Matthew Davenport Hill
d. All of the above b. Father Cook
3667. Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays good c. John Augustus
behavior and no record of violation of prisons rules and d. Edward Savage
regulations 3681. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which
a. President provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders
b. Director of Prisons who are likely to respond to individualized community based
c. Warden treatment programs.
d. None of the above a. BJMP
3668. A person who is placed under probation. b. Bureau of Corrections
a. Petitioner c. Provincial Government
b. Probationer d. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Probationee 3682. Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual
d. None of the above for an ordinary crime.
a. General pardon
3669. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability b. Absolute pardon
of the individual to whom it is granted without any condition. c. Conditional pardon
d. Special pardon 3695. The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT
3683. Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite sum of one:
money as the consequence of violating the provisions of some a. those who escape from confinement or evaded sentence
statute or refusal to comply with some requirement of law. b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty,
a. Remission reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment
b. Forfeiture c. those who are habitual delinquents
c. Fine d. none of the above
d. All of the above
3684. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is 3696. During the 11th and successive years of imprisonment of
limited to the following, except: an inmate, he shall allowed a deduction of how many days
a. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment. for each month for displaying good behavior?
b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the a. 10 days
violation of any election law may be granted without favorable b. 15 days
recommendation of the Commission of Elections. c. 8 days
c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction d. 5 days
d. Pardon is administered by the court
3685. It refers to commission of another crime during service 3697. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of punishment
of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense. for a time after conviction and sentence.
a. Recidivism a. Reprieve
b. Delinquency b. Amnesty
c. Quasi-recidivism c. Probation
d. City prisoner d. Commutation
3686. It refers to leniency or mercy.
a. Power 3698. Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction.
b. Clemency a. Administrator
c. Grace b. Warden
d. Damages c. Director
3687. A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on a d. Commander
certain category.
a. Special pardon 3699. Among the following, which has the authority to grant
b. Absolute pardon parole?
c. Conditional pardon a. President
d. General pardon b. Board of Pardons and Parole
3688. During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of imprisonment of c. Director of Prison
an inmate, He shall allow a deduction of how many days for d. Court
each month for displaying good behavior?
a. 10 days 3700. The Bureau of Corrections is under the:
b. 15 days a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
c. 8 days b. Department of Justice
d. 5 days c. Department of the Interior and Local Government
3689. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in d. Department of Health
the state which exempts an individual from the punishment
which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by 3701. It is the redress that the state takes against an offending
the President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole member of society that usually involves pain and suffering:
and Pardon is called: a. incarceration
a. Amnesty b. floggings
b. Parole c. ordeal
c. Probation d. punishment
d. Pardon
3690. It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty. 3702. This code introduced the concept of restitution. But
a. Reprieve punishments were meted according to the social class of
b. Amnesty the offender:
c. Probation a. Justinian code
d. Commutation b. The Greeks
3691. Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a c. Burgundian code
correctional institution after he has served the minimum of his d. Code of Hammurabi
prison sentences.
a. Parole 3703. According to this ancient law that was practice in the
b. Pardon areas of Babylon, The killer is answerable not to the family
c. Probation but to the king:
d. None of the above a. Code of Hammurabi
3692. The who investigates for the court a referral for b. Roman twelve tables
probation or supervises a probationer or both c. Pharaoh’s law
a. police officer d. Burgundian code
b. probationer officer 3704. This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for the
c. intelligence officer detection and punishment of unbelievers and heresy:
d. law enforcer a. Inquisition
b. Lateran council
3693. When does probation revocable before the final c. Ecclesiastical court
discharge of the probationer by the court for the violation of d. Tortio millenio adviniente
any of the conditions of probation. 3705. borne out of the need to maintain the health of prisoners
a. any time during probation so that their profitability can be maximized not out of
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer humanitarian reasons as the government and the merchants
c. after 1 year under probation want to make it appear:
d. none of the above a. UN convention for profitability of prisoners
b. US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners
3694. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has c. UN convention for treatment of prisoners
been subsequently convicted of another crime; d. US convention for treatment of prisoners
a. progress report 3706. In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the feudal
b. violation report lords instituted official methods by which God could indicate
c. infraction report who was innocent and who was guilty. One such method was
d. arrest report called:
a. Trial by fighting
b. Trial by ordeal 3719. Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit murder,
c. Trial by combat assaults on noble or middle class women, sexual relations with
d. Dei indicum noble or middle class women and giving aid or comfort to
3707. Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this escape offender:
was tied to the crime committed: a. Burgundian code
a. Banishment b. Drakonian code
b. Death c. Law of Talion
c. Torture d. The Greeks
d. Mutilation 3720. This people love to philosophize that their brand of
3708. Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the justice was not vengeful and retributive. They maintain that
public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the justice should reform the offender but must also serve as
latter to undergo institutional treatment program: deterrence to others from committing offense:
a. Solitary confinement a. The Romans
b. Punishment b. The Greeks
c. Floggings c. The Jews
d. Imprisonment d. The Americans
3709. It is conditional release after the prisoner has served 3721. Today, the stand of the Church has become a
part of his sentenced on prison for the purpose of gradually re- complete reversal of the past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope
introducing them to free life: John Paul II who reversed this so called:
a. Probation a. Eclessiastical court
b. Parole b. Inquisition
c. Pardon c. Ordeal
d. Executive clemency d. Culture of death
3710. This school argues that since children and lunatic 3722. punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is also
cannot calculate pleasure and pain they should not be practice of the Israelites in Jesus time:
prepared as criminals and as such that they should not be a. stoning to death
punished: b. breaking on a wheel
a. Classical school c. burning alive
b. Neo classical school d. trial by ordeal
c. Positivist school 3723. the offended party is fastened by metal bands to a
d. Hedonism board made of wood and then had their bones systematically
3711. This approached of penology assessed at the time of broken:
French Revolution: a. stoning to death
a. Classical school b. breaking on a wheel
b. Neo classical school c. burning alive
c. Positivist school d. trial by ordeal
d. Hedonism 3724. like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once
3712. According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick man practiced by Romans. The Roman Catholic Church has also
who needs not to be punished but treated in a hospital so that been known to resort to this form of punishment during the
his illness which has something to do with the commission of time of inquisition for non believers, witches and heretics:
crime may be cured”: a. stoning to death
a. Corrections b. breaking on a wheel
b. Penology c. burning alive
c. Classical d. trial by ordeal
d. Positivist 3725. The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized land
3713. This school views as crime as social phenomenon: started to intensify in 17th Century.
a. Classical school a. Absolutely true
b. Neo classical school b. Probably true
c. Positivist school c. Absolutely false
d. Sociology d. Probably false
3714. It is the study and practice of a systematic management
in jails or prisons and other institutions concerned with the 3726. Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for
custody, treatment and rehabilitation of criminal offenders: release on the basis of individual response and progress
a. Penology within the correctional institution and a service by which they
b. Corrections are provided with necessary control of guidance as they served
c. Correctional administration the remainder of their sentence with in the free community:
d. Penal management a. Probation
3715. a Latin word which means pain or suffering: b. Parole
a. Penology c. Imprisonment
b. Poena d. Reprieve
c. Peona 3727. The indeterminate sentence law was approved on:
d. All of the abovementioned a. December 5, 1933
3716. It is the field of criminal justice administration which b. December 25, 1933
utilizes the body of knowledge and practices of the government c. December 5, 1955
and the society in handling individuals who have been d. December 25, 1955
convicted of an offense: 3728. The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT:
a. Penology a. Granted by the court
b. Corrections b. He was once on Probation
c. Criminal justice c. Must not have committed any crime against national
d. All of the above security
3717. The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this code: d. Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment
a. Code of drakon 3729. The following are the unanticipated consequence of
b. Code of Hammurabi punishment; EXCEPT:
c. Justinian code a. It develops a caution in the parts of criminal committing
d. Burgundian code crime during night time
3718. existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years b. Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the
before Christ was born, the king ruled the City of Ur in ancient law)
Sumeria: c. Punishment elevates the criminal
a. king Ur Nammu d. Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals
b. king Herodes 3730. It assumes that every individual has free will and knows
c. Emperor Justin the penal laws:
d. None of the above a. Classical school
b. Neo classical b. whipping rod
c. Straight jacket
c. Positivist
d. handcuffs
3731. This school focuses on crimes and on the
3744. Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders:
corresponding punishment attached to it:
a. 100 or more
a. Classical school b. 21- 99
b. Neo classical c. 150 or more
c. Positivist d. 20 or less
3732. This school maintains that criminals must be 3745. Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders:
rehabilitated to institutions provided by the government and a. 21 – 99
should not be punished contrary to other schools ideology: b. 120
c. 20 or less
a. Classical school d. 150
b. Neo classical 3746. Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders:
c. Positivist a. 21 – 99
3733. BJMP stands for: b. 120
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology c. 20 or less
b. The government d. 150
c. The jail bureau 3747. This correctional facility introduced individuals
d. None of the abovementioned housing in cellblocks, with congregate work in shops during the
3734. STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are day:
administered and controlled by the Provincial Government a. Elmira reformatory
(Governor). b. Borstal institution
STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the
supervision of the Department of the Interior and Local c. Auburn prison system
Government. d. Pennsylvania prison system
a. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false 3748. His progressive move was noted when the convicts
b. Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true after good behavior were given marks and after accumulating
c. Both statement is true the required number, a ticket to leave was issued to deserving
d. Both statement is false convicts:
3735. The following institutions are controlled and a. Sir Walter Crofton
supervised by our government EXCEPT:
a. New Bilibid Prisons
b. Alexander Macanochie
b. Manila City Jail c. Zebulon Brockway
c. Iwahig Penal Colony d. Manuel Montesinos
d. Elmira Reformatory 3749. opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to
3736. The confinement of an inmate may be transferred to an remodel its philosophy away from punitive and retributive
AFP stockade provided the inmate is certified as minimum practices and veered towards reformation and treatment
security risk and is __ years of old who can no longer perform educational and vocational are imparted to the prisoner as a
manual work: way to treat his lack of life skills to survive according to the
a. More than 60 rules of the outside society:
b. more than 50 a. Elmira reformatory
c. More than 70
d. more than 80
b. Sing-sing prisons
3737. As a general rule, viewing the remains of the deceased c. Alcatraz
relative of an inmate may be enjoyed only if the deceased d. Walnut street jail
relative is in a place within a radius of ___ kilometres by road 3750. This is considered as the “institution of silent
from prison: system” due to the imposition of strict code of silence:
a. 10 a. Auburn
b. 30 b. Pennsylvania
c. 20 c. Walnut street
d. d. 40 d. Irish prisons
3738. An inmate over _ years of age may be excused from 3751. He established an agricultural colony for male
mandatory labor: youth:
a. 50 a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
b. 60
c. 55 b. Sir Walter Crofton
d. 65 c. Manuel Montesinos
3739. The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s uniform: d. Domer of france
a. Tangerine 3752. assigned as superintendent of the English Penal
b. Blue Colony located at Norfolk Island in Australia:
c. Brown
d. Yellow
a. Alexander Macanochie
3740. The color of medium security risk prisoner’s uniform: b. Domer of France
a. Tangerine c. 8Sir Walter Crofton
b. Blue d. Zebulon Brockway
c. Brown 3753. He introduced the progressive stage system. It was
d. Yellow also referred to as the Irish System:
3741. The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s uniform: a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
a. Tangerine b. Manuel Montesinos
b. Blue c. Sir Walter Crofton
c. Brown d. Alexander Macanochie
d. Yellow 3754. He was the superintendent of the Elmira
Reformatory in New York. He introduced a system of grades
3742. The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or for prisoners:
custody by an inmate: a. Zebulon Brockway
a. Detention b. Alexander Macanochie
b. emancipation c. Manuel Montesinos
c. Release of prisoner d. Domer of France
d. escape 3755. The progressive development of the prison system
3743. The following are considered instruments of restraint; came to the middle of the __ century:
EXCEPT:
a. Leg irons
a. 18th
b. 19th 3767. This is the discipline being implemented in
Louisiana state penitentiary. Under this discipline, every inmate
c. 20th
is responsible for the actuations of all the others:
d. 21st a. Rough Rider Industries
3756. This law brought about extensive reforms in the b. I am my Brother’s keeper
prison and authorized o penitentiary house with 16 cells to be c. Conditional setting
built in the yard of the jail to carry out solitary confinement with d. collective responsibility
labor for ``hardened atrocious offenders’’:
a. ACT of 1890 3768. Sweden, a convict may undergo probation with
b. ACT of 1790 community service and render service to the community
for ___ to ____ hours depending on the seriousness of the
c. ACT of 1690 crime committed:
d. ACT of 1590 a. 50 – 250
b. 40- 280
c. 40 – 240
d. 50 – 260
3403. what type of questions are allowed to be asked
to a witness who is unwilling to testify?
3757. The new prison had the traditional lay out of large A. Intelligent
rooms for the inmates: B. Misleading
a. Auburn Prison C. Unresponsive
D. Leading
b. Pennsylvania 3769. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that
c. Walnut Street punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to
d. Irish Prisons vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the
3758. On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is criminal?
founded: A. Retribution
a. 1875 B. Restoration
b. 1876 C. The Executive
c. 1877 D. The Quasi-Judiciary
d. 1888 3770. The post-sentence investigation report is submitted to
3759. He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, Spain court within___________?
which organized prisoners into companies and appointed petty A. 10-days period
officer in charge: B. 30-days period
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise C. 15-days period
b. Manuel Montesinos D. 60-days period
c. Alexander Maconochie 3771. To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for
d. Sir Walter Crofton disposition,documentation and appropriate order?
3760. This state prison contained cells in the pits similar A. Bureau of Corrections
to the underground cistern of long ago rome: B. Bureau of Immigration and
a. St Michael System Deportation
b. Sing-Sing prisons C. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Maine State prisons D. National Bureau of Investigation
d. Wal nut street 3772. A complaint may be filed by any of the following,
3761. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was EXCEPT:
established by Domer of France. The boys were confined in A. The offended party
cottages with an appointed ___ to supervise them: B. other public officers
a. Penal guards C. any peace officer
b. Immediate supervisors D. Offender
c. House fathers 3773. The President grants absolute/conditional pardon
d. Big brothers based on the recommendation of
3762. Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted to A. Bureau of Corrections
lessen their period of imprisonment should be confined in a B. Office of the Executive Secretary
singular cell (Solitary confinement) for a period of ___ months C. Board of Pardon and Parole
with a reduce diet: D. Parole and Probation Administration
a. 6 months
b. 7 months 3774. A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration
c. 8 months is referred to as
d. 9 months a. Determinate sentence
3763. This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an b. Capital punishment
equivalent to a modern day parole: c. Corporal punishment
a. Progressive stage system d. Indeterminate sentence
b. Spanish system 3775. Which of the following executive clemency needs the
c. Criminal justice system concurrence of the congress?
d. None of the foregoing a.Pardon
3764. It features consisted solitary confinement of a. Amnesty
prisoners in their own cell day and night: b. Probation
a. Auburn system c. Parole
b. Pennsylvania system 3776. It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted
c. St Michael System person should serve part of his sentence?
d. Irish system a.Pardon
3765. He was a penologist and is sometimes regarded as b.Parole
the father of prison reform in the United States of America: c.Probation
a. Alexander Maconochie d.Amnesty
b. Zebulon Reed Brockway 3777. How many days before election does inmate are
c. Sir Walter Crofton prohibited from going out?
d. Domer of France A. 30 days
3766. It is considered the best reform institution for young B. 90 Days
offenders: C. 60 Days
a. Borstal Institution D. 120 Days
b. St. Michael Institution 3778. Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has
c. Auburn System never been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor.
d. Pennsylvania If you were the prison director, how many days for each
 month would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time
allowance?
A. 5 days
B. 8 days
C. 10 days
D. 12 days
3779. The post-sentence investigation report is submitted to
court within___________?
A. 10-days period
B. 30-days period
C. 15-days period
D. 60-days period
3780. Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the
quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center .
A. 55 days
B. 5 days
C. 60 days
D. 15 days
3781. In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment
by claiming refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the
end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by
a road or path assigned to him.
A. 30 days
B. 50 days
C. 40 days
D. 60 days
3782. Who among the following may be granted conditional
pardon?
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by
government physician
b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero”
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he
broke his probation conditions
3783. The following are considered minor offenses of an
inmate, EXCEPT:
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due
respect when confronted by or reporting to
any officer or member of the custodial force
c. Willful waste of food
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and
orderliness in his quarter and/or
surroundings
3784. What documents are attached to the Release
Document of the parolee?
1. Prison record
2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer
3. Location of the Prison or Confinement
4. Order of Court
a. 4 and 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3
3785. An advantageous result in the integration of
correctional agencies is:
a. More physical facilities to maintain
b. More prisoners to supervise
c. Divided resources such as manpower and
finances
d. Better coordination of services and
increased cost-efficiency
3786. A petition for the grant of absolute or conditional
pardon shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by the
_______ if the crime committed by the petitioner is against
national security.
a. Secretary of Foreign Affairs
b. Secretary of Justice
c. Secretary of National Defense
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local
Government
3787. Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately
released provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been
previously convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the
maximum penalty for the offense he may be
found guilty of is destierro
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
found guilty of is prision correccional
c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
found guilty of is reclusion perpetua
d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or
more than the possible maximum term of
punishment of the offense he may be found
guilty of
3788. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision
correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1)
day
b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years
and one (1) day
c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years
and one (1) day
d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one
(1) day
3789. There are four (4) acknowledged goals of
_____________ as follows: retribution, deterrence,
incapacitation and rehabilitation.
a. Criminal intent
b. Criminal mind
c. Criminal sanction
d. Criminal action
3790. The system of key control in a jail includes:
a. An updated system of monitoring and control
of keys
b. A documented inventory of security
personnel
c. A collection of all padlocks and keys
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting
them
3791. To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for
disposition, documentation and appropriate order?
a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. National Bureau of Investigation
3792. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted
to court within _____________.
a. 10-day period
b. 30-day period
c. 15-day period
d. 60-day period
3793. The President grants absolute/conditional pardon
based on the recommendation of:
a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Parole and Probation Administration
d. Office of the Executive Secretary
3794. Which of the following are classified as detainees?
1. Accused person who is confined in jail while
undergoing investigation
2. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting
of undergoing trial
3. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting
final judgment
4. Accused person who is confined in jail and already
convicted to serve a prison term
a. 3, 4 and 1
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 4, 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
3795. Why is probation service analogous to parole service?
a. Both have similar investigation and
supervision functions.
b. Both services are performed by the
prosecutors.
c. Both services are performed by alcoholics.
d. Both services are under the courts.
3796. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides
undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
However, control over the probationer and probation
program is exercised by:
a. The Chief of Police of the place where
he/she resides
 b. The Parole and Probation Administrator a. Invite both of them to the office and
c. The Secretary of Justice investigate the matter
d. The Court who placed him on probation b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the
heated discussion
3797. Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the
maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is culprit
charged with?
a. Batas Pambansa 95
b. Batas Pambansa 85 3808. Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is ordered by the
c. Batas Pambansa 105 Court to pay certain amounts to the victim as part of his
d. Batas Pambansa 965 civil liability. To whom shall he pay the amount for
3798. What is the primary purpose of the presentence remittance of the victim?
investigation? a. Municipal treasurer
a. To help the judge in selecting the b. Cashier of the trial court
appropriate sentence of the offender c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
b. To exonerate the offender d. Cashier of the Probation Office
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend
himself
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
3809. The ______________ model of correctional institution
3799. According to the control theory, crime and focuses in security, discipline and order:
delinquency result when an individual’s bond to a. Rehabilitative
________________ is weak and broken. b. Reintegration
a. Behavior c. Medical
b. Police d. Custodial
c. Law 3810. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences
d. Society of residents with crimes which are not usually reported to
the police. What are these studies called?
3800. A drug user who is placed under probation may be a. Population surveys
made to serve his sentence by the court if he b. Police surveys
a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined c. Victimization surveys
b. Commits another offense d. Information surveys
c. He is 21 years old 3811. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a
d. Violates any of the conditions of his little more care than other inmates. Which of the following
probation should NOT be done by a jail officer?
3801. JOI Jean Sibuto confiscated white crystalline a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical
substance rolled in a transparent sachet and she staff regularly
suspected it to be “shabu”. What should he do first? b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his
a. Record the incident in the logbook prescribed diet
b. Bring the substance to NBI c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
c. Properly identify the substance d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient
d. Properly preserve the evidence inmate
3802. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall
be treated _________________. 3812. What is the classification of the prisoner’s offense of
a. Comprehensively possession of lewd or pornographic literature and/or
b. Appropriately photographs?
c. Confidentially a. Minor offense
d. Judiciously b. Less grave offense
c. Victimless offense
3803. Is the court order revoking the grant of probation d. Grave offense
appealable? 3813. Juveniles are not capable of committing deviant acts,
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable and what are considered deviant acts are deviant only by
b. Definitely no, it is not appealable mainstream standards, not by the offender’s standards.
c. It depends on the outcome of the This assumption is advanced by the ________________
investigation theory.
d. It depends on the violations committed a. Social
3804. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that b. Juvenile
punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to c. Cultural deviance
vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the d. Choice
criminal? 3814. If people fear being apprehended and punished, they
a. Retribution will not risk breaking the law. This view is being held by
b. Restoration the __________ theory.
c. Rehabilitation a. Displacement
d. Deterrence b. General deterrence
3805. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of c. Discouragement
a prison sentence? d. Incapacitation
a. Commutation of sentence 3815. One of the following is NOT a gauge in determining
b. Parole the age of the child and that is:
c. Absolute pardon a. Baptismal certificate
d. Conditional pardon b. Birth certificate
3806. There are various types of prison programs. For what c. Looks
purpose is a rehabilitative program? d. Warts
a. It secures prisoners from escape or violence 3816. What do you call the monitoring and support of
b. It employs prisoners in various products or juveniles who have been released from custody or
good-producing tasks supervision by the juvenile court.
c. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills a. After care
or educational achievement b. Welfare
d. It assigns prisoners to daily routine work like c. Duty
laundry and janitorial d. Concern
3807. There are two (2) inmates arguing over loss of some
items in their cell. You are the guard on duty. What will 3817. The scientific approach to the study of criminal
you do? behavior is ____________________.
 a. Research
b. Survey
c. Criminology
d. Study
3818. To be eligible for the grant of conditional pardon, what
portion of the sentence must have been served by a
petitioner-prisoner?
a. At least one half of the minimum of his
indeterminate sentence
b. At least one half of the maximum of his
indeterminate sentence
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his
indeterminate sentence
d. At least one third of the minimum of his
indeterminate sentence
3819. Who among the following can apply for release under
the Law on Release on Recognizance?
a. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is three (3) years and above
b. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is twelve (12) months and above
c. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is not more than six (6) months
d. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is six (6) months and above
3820. Which of the following is NOT an objective in the
conduct of interview of probation applicant?
a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems
b. To determine how the person shall respond
to supervision
c. To gather information about the person
d. To determine his paying capacity
3821. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of
probation in the United States?
a. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Alexander Maconochie
c. John Murray Spear
d. John Augustus
3822. What is meant by the concept of probation which is
from the Latin word “probatio” and had historical roots in
the practice of judicial reprieve?
a. Live with integrity
b. Testing period
c. Walk with faith
d. Out of the institution
3823. Sociologists look at corrections as:
a. The intervention which documents the
attitudinal response of offenders and staff to
processes of punishment
b. The medium through which prisoners
change their behavior and attitudes
c. The consolidation of interactions between
correctional officers and the prisoners
d. A total institution in which the basic
physiological needs of prisoners were to be
met away from the outside world
3824. What is the function responsibility of prison guards?
a. Inmates’ health
b. Prison security
c. Prisoner’s interpersonal relations
d. Prison industry
3825. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a
thick wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in
every corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed
guards:
a. Maximum security facility
b. Medium security facility
c. Super maximum security facility
d. Minimum security facility
3826. Which of the following procedures should be
observed in handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
1. They should be segregated especially during the
withdrawal period
2. They should be closely supervised to prevent
attempts to commit suicide or self-mutilation
3. They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants
unless prescribed by a physician
4. They should be transferred to mental institution of
proper psychiatric treatment
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 3, 4 and 1
c. 4, 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
3827. A prisoner who is aggressive, violent, quarrelsome
and does not cooperate with other inmates is referred to
as
a. Squealer
b. Sucker
c. Hustler
d. Tough
3828. When does an applicant who was granted probation
report to the assigned Probation Officer for Interview?
a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of
probation order
b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of
probation order
c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his
receipt of the probation order
d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt of
probation order
3829. What agency issues the Certificate of Final Release
and Discharge of a Parolee?
a. Bureau of Corrections
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Parole and Probation Administration
d. Department of Justice
3830. Pedro was arrested by the police for theft in the
amount of P5,000.00. He was brought to the police station
and an administrative record of the arrest was prepared.
He was fingerprinted, interrogated and placed in a line-up
for identification by witnesses. What process did he
undergo?
a. Preliminary hearing
b. Booking
c. Trial
d. Indictment
3831. The “Discharge on Parole” issued by the Board to the
parolee, and also issued by the President of the
Philippines to a pardonee upon the Board’s
recommendation.
a. Release document
b. Release folders
c. Release signatures
d. Release notes
3832. What is called the body of unwritten guidelines which
expresses the values, attitudes and types of behavior that
older inmates demand of younger ones?
a. Code of jail conduct
b. Rehabilitation guidelines
c. Code of silence
d. Inmate social code
3833. Which of the following guidelines shall be followed
when the parolee commits an infraction of the terms and
conditions appearing in his Release Documents?
1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and
submits an Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon
and Parole
2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders
the arrest of the parolee
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board
finds that the continuation of his parole is
incompatible with public welfare
4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 4, 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 3, 4 and 1
3834. You are a jail personnel assigned to censor inmates’
mails. In one mail, you found unusual names and
sentences. What shall you do?
a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and
give it to the inmate
c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the
contents to determine the real meaning of
the names and sentences
d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
addressee
3835. The classical theory of criminology provides that the
basis for criminal liability is ______________________
 a. Individual’s thinking
b. Individual’s mental state
c. Human free will
d. Human facilities
3836. He said the “crime must be considered an injury to
society, and the only rational measure of crime is the
extent of injury.”
a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Cesare Beccaria
c. James Wilson
d. John Howard
3837. What is the effect of the grant of probation?
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
b. The execution of sentence is suspended
c. The probationer is sent to prison
d. The prison term is doubled
3838. To what programs shall prisoners be assigned so that
they can engage in producing goods?
a. Industrial
b. Operational
c. Agricultural
d. Administrative
3839. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the
custodial force shall proceed to their assigned critical
posts armed with their issued firearms to:
a. Shoot at the escapees
b. Protect the other inmates
c. Plug off the escape routes
d. Give warning shots
3840. When shall the prison record and carpeta of a
petitioner for executive clemency be forwarded to the
Board of Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP
for prison record and carpeta
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration
of the minimum of the prisoner’s
indeterminate sentence
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the
BUCOR Director of the BPP request for
prison record and carpeta
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the
BUCOR Director of the request made by the
BPP for the prison record and carpeta
3841. Which of the following contributes to prison violence?
a. Prison industry
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including
overcrowding and threats of homosexual
rapes
c. Conjugal visits
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out
and work
3842. Which of the following factors makes it difficult for a
released prisoner to lead a straight life?
a. Scientific advances have made modern
living more pleasant
b. Police conduct close supervision on released
prisoners
c. Lasting reformation must come from within
and cannot be imposed
d. Many of his contacts and friends are
underworld characters
3843. Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what
shall be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm?
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters
b. Saturate the area with riot gas
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their
respective cell
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders
3844. Which agency exercises supervision over parolees?
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
b. Probation and Parole Administration
c. Bureau of Corrections
d. Department of Justice
3845. The judge approves or denies the grant of probation
based on the report of the
a. Social worker
b. Probation officer
c. Prosecutor
d. Police office
3846. What law grants probation to first time offenders who
are sent to prison terms of not more than six (6) years?
a. Presidential Decree No. 448
b. Presidential Decree No. 968
c. Presidential Decree No. 603
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184
3847. An offender can apply for Release on Recognizance
is he is convicted with an offense whose penalty is:
a. Three (3) years and above
b. Not more than six (6) months
c. Twelve (12) months and above
d. Six (6) months and above
3848. Which of the following is the prison administrator’s
tool for controlling and stabilizing prison operation?
a. Leadership
b. Supervision
c. Activity
d. Recreation
3849. Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang
Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release facility called
_______________ for counseling and therapy.
a. Recreation Center
b. Congregate Group
c. Half-way House
d. Diagnostic Center
3850. What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest
happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy
Bentham?
a. Utilitarianism
b. Rehabilitation
c. Reformation
d. Conformance
3851. Juanito was convicted and sentenced for the crime of
serious physical injuries to a prison term of prision
correccional. Based on his penalty, is he qualified for
probation?
a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1
day
b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1
day
c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12
years
d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
3852. The approval of the application of probation is done
by the Judge thru the issuance of
a. Probation Citation Ticket
b. Probation Order
c. Probation Certificate
d. Probation Clearance
3853. According to this theory, social actions are repeated
(or not repeated) as a consequence of their association in
the actors mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
a. Containment
b. Differential Association
c. Operant Conditioning
d. Differential Identification
3854. This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but
under great pressure they will resort to crime. . .
a. Strain theory
b. Differential association theory
c. Social learning theory
d. Psychoanalytic theory
3855. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of
a prison sentence?
a. Parole
b. Commutation of sentence
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon
3856. It is a report on the background of the convict,
prepared for the judge to decide on the approval or denial
of application of probation.
a. Probation Report
b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
d. Pre-Trial Report
3857. By what term is selling of illegal commodities inside
prison or jail known?
a. Gleaning
b. Hustling
c. Benting
d. Vending
3858. There are various types of prison programs. What c. Education program
type of program that secures prisoner from escape or d. Religious program
violence? 3869. What rehabilitation program that provides a presocial
a. Maintenance environment within the prison to help the inmates develop
b. Rehabilitative noncriminal ways to coping outside?
c. Industrial a. Psychotherapy
d. Security b. Behavior therapy
3859. The National Record of the prisoner at the New Bilibid c. Occupational therapy
Prison is called d. Milieu therapy
a. Carpeta 3870. Prisoners should not be given corporal punishment
b. Released Document nor confined in dark cells or sweat boxes as these are:
c. Commitment Order a. Somewhat prohibited
d. Mittimus b. Relatively prohibited
3860. The founder of the Classical School of Criminological c. Absolutely prohibited
Theory. d. Fairly prohibited
a. John Howard 3871. Which does not form part of the basic principles for
b. Jeremy Bentham riot control?
c. Cesare Lombroso a. Preparation of a specific plan of action
d. Cesare Beccaria b. Dissemination of plan to everyone
3861. If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants c. Rapid execution of plan
pardon? d. Firmness in executing the plan
a. Secretary of Justice 3872. Prison time is considered a dead time when minutes
b. President of the Philippines seem to crawl and the soul grows bitter. Which of the
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court following mitigate the oppressiveness of time?
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole a. Administrative program
b. Security programs
3862. What guarantees the appearance in court of a c. Rehabilitation programs
defendant granted release on recognizance? d. Custodial program
a. His/her promise to live a new life 3873. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of three
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison (3) years and one (1) day to death, is known as:
c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment, a. Provincial Prisoner
etc. b. Insular Prisoner
d. His/her capacity to raise bail c. City Prisoner
d. Municipal Prisoner
3863. Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their
minimum or maximum term for maintaining good behavior 3874. How is an offender released from prison or jail?
or participating in various types of vocational, educational 1. After service of sentence
and treatment programs. 2. Issuance of order of the court
a. Good time 3. Grant of parole
b. Credits 4. Grant of pardon
c. Days off 5. Grant of amnesty
d. Vacation 6. Any lawful order of competent authority
3864. Which of the following requirements shall qualify a a. 1,3,4,5 and 6
prisoner for parole? b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate c. All of those listed above
sentence d. 2,3,4,5, and 6
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a 3875. The institution during the Golden Age of Penology in
final judgment of conviction 1870 to 1880 that used parole extensively.
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less a. Irish Prison System
the good conduct time allowance earned b. Elmira Reformatory
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence c. Federal Bureau of Prisons
a. 4, 1 and 2 d. Irish Parole Organization
b. 2, 3 and 4 3876. Strip search should be conducted:
c. 3, 4 and 1 a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are
d. 1, 2 and 3 witnesses
3865. When an accused is released from imprisonment on b. At the warden’s office
his or her promise to return to court as required, or upon c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail
the undertaking of a suitable person that he will guarantee personnel
the accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called: d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the
a. Promise others to avoid further embarrassment
b. Acknowledgment 3877. Idea of probation first existed early in the 19th century
c. Surety in
d. Recognizance a. Japan
3866. According to the routine activities theory, the volume b. U.S.A.
and distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the c. England
following, EXCEPT: d. Ireland
a. Presence of motivated offenders
b. Absence of capable guardians
c. Availability of suitable targets 3878. You are a jail personnel assigned to censor inmates’
d. Absence of motivated offenders mails. In one mail, you found unusual names and
3867. A group that has a short history, limited size, and little sentences. What shall you do?
define territory is a type of gang known as: a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
a. Status b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and
b. Sporadic give it to the inmate
c. Criminal c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the
d. Collective contents to determine the real meaning of
3868. The correctional program which enables an individual the names and sentences
to enhance his employability, develop his intellectual d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
faculties, and graduate to a free existence in community addressee
living all at the same time is referred to as 3879. The classical theory of criminology provides that the
_______________ basis for criminal liability is ______________________
a. Livelihood program a. Individual’s thinking
b. Guidance counseling b. Individual’s mental state
 c. Human free will
d. Human facilities
3880. He said the “crime must be considered an injury to
society, and the only rational measure of crime is the
extent of injury.”
a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Cesare Beccaria
c. James Wilson
d. John Howard
3881. What is the effect of the grant of probation?
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
b. The execution of sentence is suspended
c. The probationer is sent to prison
d. The prison term is doubled
3882. To what programs shall prisoners be assigned so that
they can engage in producing goods?
a. Industrial
b. Operational
c. Agricultural
d. Administrative
3883. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the
custodial force shall proceed to their assigned critical
posts armed with their issued firearms to:
a. Shoot at the escapees
b. Protect the other inmates
c. Plug off the escape routes
d. Give warning shots
3884. When shall the prison record and carpeta of a
petitioner for executive clemency be forwarded to the
Board of Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP
for prison record and carpeta
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration
of the minimum of the prisoner’s
indeterminate sentence
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the
BUCOR Director of the BPP request for
prison record and carpeta
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the
BUCOR Director of the request made by the
BPP for the prison record and carpeta
3885. Which of the following contributes to prison violence?
a. Prison industry
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including
overcrowding and threats of homosexual
rapes
c. Conjugal visits
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out
and work
3886. Which of the following factors makes it difficult for a
released prisoner to lead a straight life?
a. Scientific advances have made modern
living more pleasant
b. Police conduct close supervision on released
prisoners
c. Lasting reformation must come from within
and cannot be imposed
d. Many of his contacts and friends are
underworld characters
3887. Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what
shall be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm?
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters
b. Saturate the area with riot gas
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their
respective cell
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders
3888. Which agency exercises supervision over parolees?
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
b. Probation and Parole Administration
c. Bureau of Corrections
d. Department of Justice
3889. The judge approves or denies the grant of probation
based on the report of the
a. Social worker
b. Probation officer
c. Prosecutor
d. Police office
3890. What law grants probation to first time offenders who
are sent to prison terms of not more than six (6) years?
a. Presidential Decree No. 448
b. Presidential Decree No. 968
c. Presidential Decree No. 603
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184
3891. An offender can apply for Release on Recognizance
is he is convicted with an offense whose penalty is:
a. Three (3) years and above
b. Not more than six (6) months
c. Twelve (12) months and above
d. Six (6) months and above
3892. Which of the following is the prison administrator’s
tool for controlling and stabilizing prison operation?
a. Leadership
b. Supervision
c. Activity
d. Recreation
3893. Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang
Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release facility called
_______________ for counseling and therapy.
a. Recreation Center
b. Congregate Group
c. Half-way House
d. Diagnostic Center
3894. What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest
happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy
Bentham?
a. Utilitarianism
b. Rehabilitation
c. Reformation
d. Conformance
3895. Juanito was convicted and sentenced for the crime of
serious physical injuries to a prison term of prision
correccional. Based on his penalty, is he qualified for
probation?
a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1
day
b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1
day
c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12
years
d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
3896. The approval of the application of probation is done
by the Judge thru the issuance of
a. Probation Citation Ticket
b. Probation Order
c. Probation Certificate
d. Probation Clearance
3897. According to this theory, social actions are repeated
(or not repeated) as a consequence of their association in
the actors mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
a. Containment
b. Differential Association
c. Operant Conditioning
d. Differential Identification
3898. This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but
under great pressure they will resort to crime. . .
a. Strain theory
b. Differential association theory
c. Social learning theory
d. Psychoanalytic theory
3899. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of
a prison sentence?
a. Parole
b. Commutation of sentence
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon
3900. It is a report on the background of the convict,
prepared for the judge to decide on the approval or denial
of application of probation.
a. Probation Report
b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
d. Pre-Trial Report
3901. By what term is selling of illegal commodities inside
prison or jail known?
a. Gleaning
b. Hustling
c. Benting
d. Vending
3902. There are various types of prison programs. What
type of program that secures prisoner from escape or
violence?
 a. Maintenance b. Guidance counseling
b. Rehabilitative c. Education program
c. Industrial d. Religious program
d. Security 3913. What rehabilitation program that provides a presocial
3903. The National Record of the prisoner at the New Bilibid environment within the prison to help the inmates develop
Prison is called noncriminal ways to coping outside?
a. Carpeta a. Psychotherapy
b. Released Document b. Behavior therapy
c. Commitment Order c. Occupational therapy
d. Mittimus d. Milieu therapy
3904. The founder of the Classical School of Criminological 3914. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following
Theory. instances:
a. John Howard a. Rape
b. Jeremy Bentham b. Murder
c. Cesare Lombroso c. Impeachment
d. Cesare Beccaria d. Brigandage
3915. It was held as the 1st probation officer employed by
3905. If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants the government:
pardon? a. John Augustus
a. Secretary of Justice b. Teodolo C Natividad
b. President of the Philippines c. Edward N Savage
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court d. Mattew Davenport
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
3916. Which of the following is a prerogative of the chief
executive with concurrence of congress:
3906. What guarantees the appearance in court of a a. probation
defendant granted release on recognizance? b. amnesty
a. His/her promise to live a new life c. pardon
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison d. parole
c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment, 3917. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims
etc. such as gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?
d. His/her capacity to raise bail a. Compound crime
b. Complex crime
3907. Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their c. Blue collar crime
minimum or maximum term for maintaining good behavior d. Victimless crime
or participating in various types of vocational, educational 3918. An open institution usually a penal form or camp.
and treatment programs. a. Maximum security institution
a. Good time b. Minimum security institution
b. Credits c. Medium security institution
c. Days off d. None of these
d. Vacation 3919. They assist probation and parole office in the
3908. Which of the following requirements shall qualify a supervision of the probationers.
prisoner for parole? a. Volunteer workers
1. Confinement in jail or b. Volunteer probation officers
prison to serve an c. Volunteer community workers
indeterminate sentence d. Volunteer probation aides
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to
a final judgment of conviction 3920. It ensures a more careful selection of the institution in
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence which the prisoner is to be confined.
less the good conduct time allowance earned a. Quarantine unit
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence b. Courts
a. 4, 1 and 2 c. RDC
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. Correction
c. 3, 4 and 1 3921. The continuing relationship between probation officer
d. 1, 2 and 3 and probationer is known as?
3909. When an accused is released from imprisonment on a. Pre-Sentence Investigation
his or her promise to return to court as required, or upon b. None of these
the undertaking of a suitable person that he will guarantee c. supervision
the accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called: d. affiliation guidance
a. Promise 3922. The ideal ratio or escort is____ prison guard for
b. Acknowledgment every____number of inmates.
c. Surety a. 1:2
d. Recognizance b. 1:4
3910. According to the routine activities theory, the volume c. 1:12
and distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the d. 1:7
following, EXCEPT:
a. Presence of motivated offenders 3923. He was the first Superintendent of Elmira sentence
b. Absence of capable guardians reformatory.
c. Availability of suitable targets a. John Augustus
d. Absence of motivated offenders b. John Howard
c. Zebulon Brockway
3911. A group that has a short history, limited size, and little d. Teodulo Natividad
define territory is a type of gang known as:
a. Status 3924. Reducing the degree of Death penalty inflected upon
b. Sporadic the council.
c. Criminal a. amnesty
d. Collective b. commutation
3912. The correctional program which enables an individual c. pardon
to enhance his employability, develop his intellectual d. commutation of sentence
faculties, and graduate to a free existence in community
living all at the same time is referred to as
_______________
a. Livelihood program
NOTHING FOLLOWS