Directions for the following 8 (eight)
items:
Read the following five passages and
answer the items that follow each
passage. Your answers to these items
should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE – 1
This year, ten million children will die in
low-income and middle-income
countries. If child death rates were the
same as those in developed countries,
this figure would be lower than one
million. Conversely, if child death rates
were those of rich countries just 100
years ago, the figure would be 30 million.
The key difference between now and
then is not income but technical
knowledge about the causes of disease
and interventions to prevent disease, or
at least the most pernicious symptoms.
Today‘s tools for improving health are so
powerful and inexpensive that health
conditions could be reasonably good
even in poor countries if policymakers
spent even relatively little in the right
places.
1. What is the most logical inference
that can be made from this
passage?
(1) Child death rates have not
been controlled globally
because of the lack of
technological knowledge.
(2) Policymakers in poor
countries need to take
cognizance of technological
innovations in order to
reduce alarmingly high child
death rates.
(3) Child death rates have
reduced more in developing
countries than developed
countries when compared to
1900s levels.
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect as passage
clearly says that developed countries
have been able to reduce child death
rates with the use of technological
knowledge.
Statement 3 is incorrect as it directly
contradicts the passage as the reduction
in developed countries has been more
than that in developing countries.
The passage mentions that if poorer
countries were to adopt some of the
technological advances, they might be
able to cure or even prevent certain
diseases and thereby reduce child
mortality. This is correctly reflected in
Statement 2, which states that if
governments and policymakers in poor
countries follow technological advances,
they can reduce child death rates.
PASSAGE – 2
E-waste is an emerging issue, driven by
the rapidly increasing quantities of
complex end-of-life electronic equipment.
The global level of production,
consumption and recycling induces large
flows of toxic substances. The
international regulations mainly
developed under the Basel Convention,
focusing on a global ban for
transboundary movements of e-waste,
seem to face difficulties in being
implemented effectively. However, a
conclusive account of the situation and
trends is not yet possible. On a global
scale, some attempts have been made to
identify e-waste streams. The focus has
been laid on quantities and in some
cases on spatial distribution, but a global
1
perspective is still lacking.
2. Which of the following is the most
suitable conclusion from this
passage?
(a) E- waste is an imminent
danger for environment and
global efforts need to be
consolidated to tackle the
emerging concern.
(b) Nations have failed to
recognise the threat posed by
e-waste to our environment
and future generations.
(c) E- waste management is an
issue to be individually
handled by nations, rather
than at a global level.
(d) E- waste issue is still not a
crisis and the world will be
able to tackle it with evolving
technologies.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The passage focuses on the challenges
posed by e-waste induced by electronic
equipment being discarded in large
volumes. It does recognize that toxic
substances are produced due to the
production, consumption and recycling of
electronic items. It mentions that while
international conventions and efforts
have been put into place in order to
control e-waste, they have not yet been
completely successful. The passage
concluded by saying that these efforts
are not yet completely successful
because a global perspective is lacking.
This is most suitably mentioned in
option (a), which shows the
environmental danger posed by e-waste
and the efforts required at a global level.
Option (b) is incorrect as the passage
clearly that various nations have put in
efforts to control e-waste but have not
been completely successful. This also
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
invalidates option (c) as the passage
mentions that the individual efforts by
nations are not enough and a global
perspective is needed.
The passage also mentions that the
world recognizes the dangers posed by
e-waste and has already started taking
steps to control the same. However, it
does not place too much confidence in
the currently evolving technology.
Hence, option (d) is incorrect.
3. The following statements have
been made for the Basel
Convention:
(1) It tries to form basic
guidelines for management
of international movement of
e-waste.
(2) It has efficiently reduced
transportation of e-waste
from one country to another.
(3) It is binding on all parties to
recycle and manage their e-
waste by themselves.
Based on the passage, which of
the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 only
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The passage clearly states that the Basel
convention places a global ban on
transboundary movement of international
e-waste. It also states that the
convention creates international
guidelines for the same. Hence,
statement 1 is correct w.r.t. the
passage.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the
passage clearly mentions that the Basel
Convention has been ineffective in
2
regulating transboundary movement of
E- waste.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the
passage does not mention the binding
nature of the Convention.
PASSAGE – 3
Some of the larger companies — notably
Facebook and Google — engage civil
society through the creation of expert
task forces and targeted subject matter
working sessions dedicated to the
problem of online harassment and crime.
Organizations such as the Anti-
Cyberhate Working Group, Facebook‘s
Safety Advisory Board, and Twitter‘s new
Trust and Safety Council are all
examples of such multidisciplinary
gatherings that bring together subject
matter experts. However, these debates
(unlike say, congressional hearings), are
shielded from public view, as both
corporate and civil society participants
remain nearly silent about the
deliberations. Without greater
transparency, users, consumers — the
public at large — are ill- equipped to
understand exactly how platforms work
and how their own speech is being
regulated and why. This means that the
most basic tools of accountability and
governance — public and legal pressure
— simply don‘t exist.
4. What is the most crucial message
derived from this passage?
(a) User data is not safe and
secure on online social media
platforms.
(b) Social media platforms give a
lot of importance to making
users‘ experience safe and
harassment free.
(c) Though civil society is
involved by social media
platforms to reduce online
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
crime, accountability is still
low.
(d) Social media platforms are
least concerned about users
data safety and security.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The passage starts off by saying that
larger social media companies such as
Facebook and Google take online crime
and harassment very seriously and
interact with civil society using various
tools to try and reduce the instances of
such crimes. This is done through
multiple subject matter based working
sessions, expert task forces and
multidisciplinary groups. This goes on to
show that social media platforms are
indeed concerned about user security.
This makes option (b) correct and
option (d) incorrect.
The passage focuses more on online
crime and harassment, rather than data
safety. While the two are related in real
life, there is no data in the passage that
supports the same. Hence, option (a)
cannot be considered the most crucial
message. The second half of the
passage focuses on showing how most
of these interactions between social
media platforms and civil society happen
behind closed doors or away from the
spotlight, thereby leading to minimal
transparency and accountability. This
supports option (c). Between options
(b) and (c), option (c) covers gist of
the passage more comprehensively.
PASSAGE – 4
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is
Government of India's flagship
programme for achievement of
Universalisation of Elementary Education
(UEE) in a time bound manner, as
mandated by the 86th amendment to the
3
Constitution of India making free and
compulsory education to the children of
the 6-14 years age group, a
Fundamental Right. SSA is being
implemented in partnership with State
Governments to cover the entire country.
The programme seeks to open new
schools in those habitations which do not
have schooling facilities and strengthen
existing school infrastructure through
provision of additional class rooms,
toilets, drinking water, maintenance grant
and school improvement grants. Existing
schools with inadequate teacher strength
are provided with additional teachers,
while the capacity of existing teachers is
being strengthened by extensive training,
grants for developing teaching-learning
materials and strengthening of the
academic support structure at a cluster,
block and district level. SSA seeks to
provide quality elementary education
including life skills. SSA has a special
focus on girl's education and children
with special needs. SSA also seeks to
provide computer education to bridge the
digital divide.
5. Consider the following
assumptions:
(1) Right to Education is a
fundamental right for every
girl as per the Constitution.
(2) Teacher training institutes set
up by private organisations
are being encouraged by the
Government under the SSA
scheme.
With reference to the passage,
which of the assumptions given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
Explanation:
Though the Right to Education includes
all girls in the age group 6-14 years, it
need not include girls outside this age
group. Thus, assumption 1 is incorrect.
The passage states that schools with
inadequate teachers are being provided
with more teachers while existing
teachers are being trained. However,
nowhere does the passage allude that
this is being done through teacher
training institutes set up by private
organisations. Thus, assumption 2 is
also incorrect.
6. According to the passage, what are
the basic requirements to be
fulfilled in order to provide
education to all?
(1) Organising programs where
existing teachers can be
recruited.
(2) Ensuring that clean
surroundings and proper
schoolrooms are made
available for students.
(3) Providing teachers a support
system at their regional level
to help them perform better.
(4) The targets set forth by the
plan can be implemented as
per necessity within a
stipulated timeframe.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The passage states that the Sarva
Shiksha Abhiyan aims to provide
education to children and some of the
things that are being done as part of the
programme to achieve this are:
4
strengthening existing school
infrastructure, recruiting new teachers,
providing training to existing teachers
and supporting the academic support
structure at a cluster, district and block
level.
Thus, if one looks at this information
provided in the passage, statements 2
and 3 can be classified as valid basic
requirements. Statement 1 becomes
incorrect because it talks of recruiting
existing teachers while the passage talks
of training new teachers. Also, the
passage does not mention anything
about organising programs for the same.
Statement 4 also becomes incorrect
because the passage does not mention a
time frame at all.
7. On the basis of the passage,
consider the following
assumptions:
(1) Visually impaired children as
well as autistic children play
an important role in the
implementation of the Sarva
Shiksha Abhiyan.
(2) The digital revolution has yet
to be completely
incorporated into mainstream
education in India.
(3) Focus groups have been
formed to develop a The value of exports may be small due to
curriculum for this age group.
With reference to the passage,
which of the assumptions given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The passage clearly mentions that the
SSA has a clear focus on girl students
and students with special needs.
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
―Students with special needs‖ includes all
students who are impaired in some way
and thus covers visually impaired
children as well as autistic children.
Therefore, assumption 1 is correct.
The last line of the passage states that
the SSA seeks to impart computer
education to help ―bridge the digital
divide‖. This phrase implies that there are
still large differences in terms of
education provided on computers, which
further means that the digital revolution is
not completely incorporated in
mainstream education in India.
Therefore, assumption 2 is also
correct. The passage does not cover
focus groups at all. Therefore,
assumption 3 is incorrect.
PASSAGE – 5
The main cause of disequilibrium in the
balance of payments arises from
imbalance between exports and imports
of goods and services, that is, deficit or
surplus in balance of trade. When for one
reason or another value of exports of
goods and services of a country are
smaller than the value of its imports, the
disequilibrium in balance of payments is
likely to occur due to the resultant trade
deficit.
the lack of exportable surplus which in
turn results from the low production of
goods to be exported or the exports may
be small because of the high cost and
prices of exportable goods and severe
competition in the world markets.
8. Which of the following statements
is correct in context of the passage
given above?
(a) Balance of payments is
inversely proportional to
balance of trade.
(b) A trade surplus will always
5
 lead to surplus in Balance of (c) Both 1 and 2
payments. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) A trade deficit occurs when
imports are lower than Answer (d)
exports.
(d) A trade deficit occurs when 10. If it rains, trains will not be on time.
exports lags behind net One day, trains are on time. Which
imports in the wake of of the following is/are correct?
inflation. (1) It rained on that day.
(2) It did not rain on that day.
Answer: (d) Select the correct answer using the
Explanation: code given below:
The passage starts off by saying that the (a) 1 only
balance of payments is linked to the (b) 2 only
balance of trade. It then explains the (c) Both 1 and 2
balance of trade in the context of trade (d) Neither 1 nor 2
surplus and trade deficit i.e. the net gap
between exports and imports. This is Answer: (b)
supported by option (d), which states
that a trade deficit occurs when exports Directions for the following question:
are less than imports due to multiple In the question given below there are
factors, such as inflation. certain statements given followed by
Though balance of payments is linked to some conclusions. You have to take the
balance of trade, the exact relationship given statements to be correct even if
(i.e. direct or inverse proportionality) they seem to be at variance with
cannot be established. Hence, option (a) commonly known facts. Read all the
is incorrect. conclusions and then decide which of the
Continuing from the explanation from given conclusion logically follows from
option a, the exact relationship between the given statements, disregarding
trade surplus and balance of payments commonly known facts.
cannot be established. Hence, option (b)
cannot be considered correct. 11. Statement:
Option (c) is incorrect as it directly Some files are tables.
contradicts the passage, and mentions All tables are chairs.
the case of a trade deficit rather than a All chairs are desks.
trade surplus. Some desks are racks.
Conclusion:
9. If it does not rain, trains will be on I. Some racks are table.
time. One day, trains are on time. II. Some desks are tables.
Which of the following is/are III. Some chairs are files.
correct? IV. Some racks are files.
(1) It rained on that day. Codes:
(2) It did not rain on that day. (a) Only II and III follow
Select the correct answer using the (b) I, III and IV follow
code given below: (c) Only I and IV follow
(a) 1 only (d) Only III and IV follow
(b) 2 only

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CSAT
Answer: (a) maximum value of the y coordinate
Explanation: of the point it will land on, on its
The statement, Some desks are racks way?
has 4 different scenarios as shown (a) 6789
below: (b) 1234
(c) It will never reach (6789,
1234)
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
It is not possible to reach such a point
according to given conditions.

14. A boy has to travel as given below

to reach a coaching institute from
his house.
He travels 30 km towards North,
then 50 km towards West, then 70
km towards South and finally 80
Directions for the following 2 (two) km towards East. How far and
items: Refer to the data below and towards which direction is the
answer the questions that follow: coaching from his house?
A butterfly flies from one point to another (a) 50 km, South
on the xy plane. It moves in such a way (b) 50 km, South-East
that, if it is at a point (x, y) at any time, (c) 50 km, North–East
the next point it can move to, can only be (d) 40 km South
(x + 1, y + 1) or (x + 1, y – 1). Assume
that the butterfly starts moving from the Answer: (b)
origin. Explanation:
According to instructions:
12. How many times will the butterfly 50 km
have to ―take off‖ i.e., fly from one
point to another, to reach the point 30 km
(n + 2, n)?
(a) n 70 km
(b) n+1 House
(c) n+2 50 km
(d) None of the above 40 km
30 km
Answer: (c) 80 km
Coachin
Explanation:
g
The butterfly has to take off ‗n+2‘ times to 15. Pointing to a person in photograph,
reach (n+2, n) Ramesh said to Suresh, ―He is the
father of your sister‘s only sibling‘s
13. If ever the butterfly reaches the wife and is also my wife‘s
point (6789, 1234), what will be the

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019) 7

CSAT
 husband.‖ How is Ramesh‘s wife Answer: (b)
related to Suresh‘s wife? Explanation:
(a) Mother-in-law According to the instructions, following
(b) Mother family tree can be formed:
(c) Aunt
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Ramesh is Suresh‘s father-in-law and
thus Ramesh's wife is Suresh's
wife‘s mother.

Direction for the following 4 (four)

items: These questions are based on the
information given below:
There is a family of eight persons - A, B,
C, D, E, F, G and H. Among the family
members, there are five females and
three males and each married person
lives along with his/her spouse. We know 17. Who is the wife of the Politician?
the following information about them: (a) A
(i) Cricketer is the husband of C. (b) G
(ii) Chartered Accountant, a female, (c) D
has only two children, one of (d) Cannot be determined
whom is a female lecturer and
the other a male reporter. Answer: (b)
(iii) Each couple has at least one
child. 18. Who is the father of the lawyer?
(iv) E, a student, is niece of D‘s (a) Cricketer
spouse. (b) Reporter
(v) Singer, A is the sister-in-law of C. (c) Politician
(vi) H, a politician, is the father-in-law (d) Lecturer
of A.
(vii) B, married and a reporter is the Answer: (a)
uncle of F but not the spouse of
C. 19. Which among the following is
(viii) Each person belongs to a correct?
different profession and one (a) F is the nephew of B
person, F is a lawyer. (b) F is the niece of B
(c) F is the son of B
16. Who among the following is the (d) F is the daughter of B
Chartered Accountant?
(a) A Answer: (b)
(b) G
(c) D 20. The internal angles of a polygon
(d) None of the above are in arithmetic progression. The

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CSAT
 smallest angle is 120 degree and (a) If 3 students whose weight
the common difference is 5 degree. are 69 kg, 57 kg and 56 kg
Find the number of sides of the join the class, the average
polygon? weight of the class will
(a) 9 decrease.
(b) 12 (b) If 3 students whose weight
(c) 14 are 69 kg, 57 kg and 56 kg
(d) None of the above leave the class, the average
weight of the class will
Answer: (a) increase.
Explanation: (c) Neither (a) nor (b)
For any ‗n‘ sided closed figures, (d) Both (a) and (b)
Sum of internal angles = (n-2)
And in case angles are in A.P. Answer: (c)
𝑛 Explanation:
Sum of internal angles= 2 2𝑎 + 𝑛 − 1 𝑑
𝑛 The average weight of 69 kg, 57 kg and
Thus, (n-2)180°= 2 × 120° + 𝑛 − 1 5° 56 kg is 60.67 kg. Thus, if they join the
2
= 360 n - 720 = 240 n + 5n2 – 5n class, the average weight of class will
5n2 – 125n + 720 = 0 increase and if they leave the class,
n2 – 25n + 144 = 0 average weight will decrease.
(n-16) (n-9) = 0
n = 9 or n = 16 Directions for the following 2 (two)
From the options n = 9 items: Six schools in a city are situated
as follows: T is 20 km to the east of P
21. P can run 1 km in 4 min 54 sec, Q which is 50 km to the north of U. R is 40
in 5 min. How many meters start km to the west of S. U is 10 km to the
can P give Q in 2 km race so that west of Q and 20 km to the south of S.
the race may end in a dead heat?
(a) 20 m 23. Which three schools lie in a straight
(b) 12 m line?
(c) 40 m (a) PSU
(d) 60 m (b) RSU
(c) PST
Answer: (c) (d) PTU
Explanation:
P can run 2 km in 2 x 4 minutes 54 Answer: (a)
seconds = 588 seconds. Explanation:
Distance covered by Q in 588 seconds P 20 km T
588
= 600 × 2000 𝑚 = 1960 𝑚
Thus, P can give Q, 2000 – 1960 m = 40 30 km
metres start. 40 km
R S
22. The average weight of a class is 60
kg. Which of the following can be 20 km
concluded? 10 km
U Q

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CSAT
24. Which two are the farthest from the societal space. In the Indian context,
each other as the crow flies? people are marginalised on the basis of
(a) Q and P caste, class, gender (male and female),
(b) R and T culture, region, religion and so on. But
(c) R and U the whole question is why? The process
(d) U and T of marginalisation or social exclusion is
to systematically keep individuals and
Answer: (b) communities away from resources,
Explanation: opportunities and their rights. As a result
(R&T are farthest) of this, individuals and communities are
kept away from social, political, economic
25. An automobile dealer buys an old and cultural activities. Thus, society sees
motorcycle marked at 25,000 with to it that the power is restricted with one
20% and 5% off successively. He individual or one community so that they
spends 1,000 on its repairs and have extreme control over the others and
sells the motorcycle for 25,000. resources. So, technically, the majority of
Find his gain percent. Indian people are kept away from
(a) 20% productivity because of varied forms of
(b) 30% social exclusion/marginalisation.
(c) 25% One such exclusion is exclusion of the
(d) 28% transgender communities across the
globe as well as in India. They have been
Answer: (c) the subject of mockery and social
Explanation: rejection. At the same time, they are
100−20 100−5 subjected to violence. Transgenders face
Cost Price = Rs. 25000 x 100 × 100
80 95 staggering levels of discrimination and
= Rs. 25,000 x × violence. In 2012, 53% of anti-LGBT
100 100
Rs. 19,000. homicide victims were transgender
Effective cost price = Rs. 19000 + Rs. women. Transgenders are four times
1000 more likely to live in poverty because of
= Rs. 20,000 non-employability and unemployment.
Profit = Rs. 25,000 – Rs. 20,000 90% of transgenders report experiencing
= Rs. 5,000 harassment, mistreatment or
5000
 Profit % = 20000 × 100 discrimination on the job. Many
transgenders are harassed by the police.
= 25%.
Many of them commit suicide because of
rejection at multiple levels. Transgenders
Directions for the following 4 (four)
also face shockingly high rates of
items:
murder, homelessness, and
Read the following two passages and
incarceration.
answer the items that follow each
passage. Your answers to these items
26. Which of the following statements
should be based on the passages only.
has the author mentioned as the
most logical rationale behind
PASSAGE – 6
discrimination at different levels?
(1) To concentrate authority over
Exclusion happens at different levels in
resources among select few

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CSAT
 in the society. among people, institutional
(2) To avenge historical wrongs and infrastructural lacunae in
and address long-standing the system towards their
grievances. protection.
(3) The lack of legal protection Select the correct answer using the
against discrimination. code given below:
Select the correct answer using the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
code given below: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Answer: (c) Statement 1 is incorrect as the
Explanation: passage states that transgenders face
The passage states that discrimination staggering (or very high levels) of
ensures that the discriminated individual discrimination. Also, the passage does
or group stays away from social, political, not throw light on whether they live in
cultural and economic activities. It also isolation or not.
states that this ensures that The passage mentions that transgenders
discrimination ends up achieving the are often harassed by the police. A direct
purpose of restricted access to resources implication of this statement is that the
to a few selected people and groups. transgenders are wary of approaching
This validates statement 1 as a the police. This directly precludes
rationale. transgenders from getting protection
Statements 2 and 3 may be technically easily. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
correct but they are both unsupported The passage also states that most
in the passage. In that context, neither countries do not provide enough legal
can be considered a valid rationale. protection across multiple areas for
people who are discriminated against on
27. With regard to the transgender the basis of gender. Since transgenders
community, which of the following are discriminated against on the basis of
statements is/are not correct? their gender, this implies that the
(1) Transgenders face less government and legal systems are
discrimination as they live actually insufficiently equipped to tackle
isolated from the society. discrimination against them. This makes
(2) It is easy for transgenders to statement 3 incorrect.
seek protection against Statement 4 correctly sums up the
discrimination. discrimination against transgenders by
(3) Government systems are attributing it to personal biases, lack of
efficiently equipped to tackle empathy and support from the
discrimination against government, police and the legal
transgenders in India as well community as well. Hence, statement 4
as in other countries. is correct.
(4) Transgenders are easy
targets of discrimination PASSAGE – 7
because of lack of empathy

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CSAT
At the time of Indian independence, India
was divided into two sets of territories,
the first being the territories of "British
India", which were under the direct
control of the India Office in London and
the Governor-General of India, and the
second being the "Princely states", the
territories over which the Crown had
suzerainty, but which were under the
control of their hereditary rulers. In
addition, there were several colonial
enclaves controlled by France and
Portugal. The political integration of
these territories into India was a declared
objective of the Indian National
Congress, which the Government of
India pursued over the next decade.
Through a combination of factors,
Vallabhbhai Patel and V. P. Menon
convinced the rulers of almost all of the
hundreds of princely states to accede to
India. Having secured their accession,
they then proceeded to, in a step-by-
step process, secure and extend the
central government's authority over these
states and transform their administrations
until, by 1956, there was little difference
between the territories that had formerly
been part of British India and those that
had been part of princely states.
Simultaneously, the Government of India,
through a combination of diplomatic and
military means, acquired de facto and de
jure control over the remaining colonial
enclaves, which too were integrated into
India.
28. What was/were the major issues
with the political integration of
India?
(1) India was ruled by too many
different players. To achieve
unity, it was necessary to
eliminate those territories not
under Indian government
control.
(2) India was divided on the
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
basis of colonial rule over
territories by France,
Portugal and England, and
their cultural differences
posed a problem.
(3) India was ruled by too many
different players. To achieve
unity, it was necessary to
convince them to consent to
being ruled by the Indian
government– by force or by
persuasion.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The passage mentions that some
territories in India were under the direct
control of the India office in London while
there were some enclaves controlled by
France and Portugal. However, the
passage does not provide any evidence
to show that their cultural differences
created issues in governing or integrating
them in the Indian Union. This makes
statement 2 incorrect.
The passage mentions that India was
ruled by too many different players but
does not say that any of them were to be
eliminated in order to achieve unity. In
fact, it shows how the India Government
used a combination of diplomacy, force
and persuasion to get all the princely
states under the Indian Government‘s
control. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect
while statement 3 is correct.
29. Which of the following is correct
according to the passage?
(a) The British Government was
like the feudal overlord of the
Indian Princely States.
12
 (b) The Indian Government was (b) 1 and 3 only
like the English Lord, the (c) 2 and 3 only
Indian Princely State was its (d) 3 and 4 only
kingdom.
(c) The Indian Government was Answer: (b)
like the feudal overlord of the
Indian Princely States. 31. The least number which must be
(d) The British Government was added to the greatest number of 4
like the English Lord, the digits in order that the sum may be
Indian Princely State was its exactly divisible by 307 is
kingdom. (a) 32
(b) 43
Answer: (a) (c) 175
Explanation: (d) 132
At the time of independence, there was
no relation of kingdom between either the Answer: (d)
British or Indian government and the Explanation:
princely state. Thus, the Princely State On dividing 9999 by 307, we get
was the kingdom of the Prince ruling it remainder 175.
rather than being a Kingdom of the  Least number which must be added to
British or Indian government. Hence, 9999 to get a number perfectly divisible
statements (b) and (d) are incorrect. by 307 = 307 – 175 = 132.
The passage uses the word ―suzerain‖
which implies a certain amount of 32. A purse contains 225 currency
dependency on part of the princely state notes consisting of 5-rupee, 10-
on the British government. The metaphor rupee and 50-rupee currencies in
that comes closest is that of the British the ratio 3 : 7 : 5 respectively. Out
Government being the States‘ feudal of this, Rs. 25 is spent and the left
overlord. Hence, statement (a) is out money is exchanged for 500-
correct and (c) is incorrect. rupee currency notes then the
number of 500-rupee currency
DIRECTIONS for Q. 30: The following notes is
item consists of four statements. Of (a) 15
these four statements, two cannot both (b) 5
be true, but both can be false. Study (c) 10
the statements carefully and identify the (d) 20
two that satisfy the above condition.
Select the correct answer using the Answer: (c)
codes given below. Explanation:
3
Value of Rs. 5 note = 15 × 225 × 5 =
30. Examine the following statements:
(1) All boats are ships. 𝑅𝑠. 225
7
(2) Some boats are not ships. Value of Rs. 10 note = × 225 × 10 =
15
(3) No boats are ships. Rs. 1050
(4) Some boats are ships. 5
Value of Rs. 50 note = 15 × 225 × 50 =
Codes
𝑅𝑠. 3750
(a) 1 and 2 only

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CSAT
Total money = Rs. 5025 (c) 7C
Money remaining = Rs. 5025 – 25 (d) 2D
= Rs. 5000
𝑅𝑠.5000 Answer: (c)
No. of Rs. 500 notes = 𝑅𝑠.500 = 10
Explanation:
Given, 60% of A = 75% of B = 90% of C
33. In a test, 3 marks are given for
= 30% of D
each correct answer and 2 marks 60 75 90 30
are cut for each wrong answer. In = ×𝐴 = × 𝐵= ×𝐶 = ×
100 100 100 100
that test of 50 questions, a student 𝐷=𝐾
got 60 marks. How many questions 3 3 9 3
= 5 𝐴 = 4 𝐵 = 10 𝐶 = 10 𝐷 = 𝐾
did he solve correctly? 5𝐾 4𝐾 10𝑘 10𝑘
(a) 26 =𝐴= 3
,𝐵 = 3 ,𝐶 = 9
,𝐷 = 3
5𝑘
(b) 18  3A = × 3 = 5k
3
(c) 32 4𝑘 16𝑘
(d) 39 4B = 3 × 3 = 3
10𝑘 70𝑘
7C = 9 × 7 = 9
Answer: (c) 20𝑘
Explanation: 2D =
3
Let the number of correct questions be ‗x‘ so, 7C is the largest.
Then, wrong questions is ―(50-x)‖
 3 x – 2 (50-x) = 60 36. Ratan borrowed a certain sum of
3x – 100 + 2x = 60 money from his friend at 5% simple
=> 5x = 160 => x = 32 interest and in 7 years the interest
amounted to 455 less than the sum
34. If p = 1 × 2 × 3 × ........ × 100 and q borrowed. How much money was
= 101 × 102 × 103 × 104. Then find borrowed by Ratan?
the LCM of p and q. (a) 300
(a) 101 pq (b) 500
(b) 103 p (c) 700
(c) 10403 p (d) 800
(d) 10608 p
Answer: (c)
Answer: (c) Explanation:
Explanation: 𝑃∗𝑅∗𝑇
We know Simple Interest = where
Given, p = 1 x 2 x 3 x ....... x 100 100
q = 101 x 102 x 103 x 104 P is the principal amount, R is rate of
In q, 101 and 103 are prime numbers, interest and T is time period.
 LCM of p and q = p x 101 x 103 In the given question, Interest is 455 less
= 10403p than the Principal amount i.e. Interest =
P – 455
35. A, B, C and D are positive Hence
𝑃∗5∗7
numbers. 60% of A = 75% of B = P - 455 = => 100P - 455*100 = 35P
100
90% of C = 30% of D. Find the 455∗100
largest of 3A, 4B, 7C and 2D. => P = 65
= 700
(a) 3A
(b) 4B

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CSAT
37. Consider the figures given below: appeared hence the hexagon will contain
square inside it. Thus, the answer is (b).

38. Consider the sequence given

below:
4, 8, 9, 21, 38, ……
What is the next term of the series?
(a) 39
(b) 66
(c) 43
(d) 68

To fit the question mark, the correct
answer is
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The sum of any three consecutive terms
of the series gives the next term.
So, missing number = 38 + 21 + 9 = 68.
These types of question are generally
solved with hit and trial method.
Generally combination of square, cube,
sum and subtraction are used to form a
series. If no common pattern is found, try
to add certain numbers as done in the
above case.

39. While adding a certain number of

consecutive natural numbers
starting from 1; Akshit, by mistake,
added a natural number twice and
obtained the sum as 470. Which
number was added twice by
Akshit?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 5
(d) 10
Answer: (b)
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Explanation:
In each row there are three figures viz.
diamond, square and hexagon which Natural number are = 1, 2, 3, 4,
5…….and so on. (Used in counting)
contains circle, square and cross inside
Let the number of natural numbers Akshit
them. In the 3rd row diamond and square
added is n and let the natural number
have already appeared; hence in the
added twice is p.
question figure hexagon will appear.
Further, cross and circle have also Sum of n natural number is given as =
𝑛 ( 𝑛+1)
2

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CSAT
 𝑛 ( 𝑛+1) Read the following four passages and
Hence 2 + p = 470
answer the items that follow each
As the sum of number is 470, try to find
passage. Your answers to these items
the value of n for which sum is near to
should be based on the passages only.
470.
10(11)
e.g. if n = 10 then sum = 2 = 55 PASSAGE – 8
20(21)
when n = 20, sum = 2
= 210
30(31) Many people believe that because wages
when n = 30, sum = 2 = 465,
it is are lower in developing countries than in
near to 470 developed countries, competition from
31(32) developing countries in goods traded
for n = 31, sum = 2 = 496 which is
internationally will soon eliminate large
greater than 470 numbers of jobs in developed countries.
Hence p = 470 – 465 = 5 Currently, developed countries'
advanced technology results in higher
40. X‘s weight is 10% less than that of productivity, which accounts for their
Y and Z‘s weight is 10% more than higher wages. Advanced technology is
that of Y. By what percentage is being transferred ever more speedily
X‘s weight is less than that of Z? across borders, but even with the latest
2
(a) 1811 % technology, productivity and wages in
2 developing countries will remain lower
(b) 22 9 %
than in developed countries for many
(c) 1%
years because developed countries have
(d) 20%
better infrastructure. When productivity in
a developing country does catch up,
Answer: (a)
experience suggests that wages there
Explanation:
will rise. Some individual firms in
Here comparison has been made w.r.t.
developing countries have raised their
weight of Y, hence productivity but kept their wages (which
Let weight of Y = 100 kg
are influenced by average productivity in
Then weight of X = 90 kg (10% less than the country's economy) low. However, in
that of Y)
a developing country's economy as a
and weight of Z = 110 kg (10% more
whole, productivity improvements in
than that of Y)
110−90 goods traded internationally are likely to
Percentage difference = 110 x 100 = cause an increase in wages.
20 2 Furthermore, if wages are not allowed to
110
x 100 = 1811 %
rise, the value of the country's currency
This question can also be asked as:
will appreciate, which (from the
By what percentage is Z‘s weight is more
developed countries' point of view) is the
than that of X.
110−90 20 equivalent of increased wages in the
Then answer will be = 90 x 100 = 90 x developing country. And although in the
2 past a few countries have deliberately
100 = 229%
kept their currencies undervalued, that is
now much harder to do in a world where
Directions for the following 8 (eight)
capital moves more freely.
items:

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CSAT
41. It can be inferred from the passage
that if the movement of capital
across the world is restricted,
which of the following is likely to
occur?
(1) Advanced technology could
move more quickly from
developed countries to
developing countries.
(2) A country's productivity could
increase without significantly
increasing the value of its
currency.
(3) Workers could obtain higher
wages by increasing their
productivity.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The movement of capital across the
world is discussed in the context of
currency valuation and its consequent
effect on wages. Since it is unclear as to
what effect it has on technology,
Statement 1 is incorrect.
At present, capital moves freely and
makes it difficult to undervalue
currencies. This causes increases in the
currency‘s value and hence wages.
Thus, if capital movement was restricted,
currency valuation and wages could
remain low even if productivity increased.
42. Why do some firms, in a
developing country, that have
raised their productivity continue to
pay low wages?
(a) Wages are influenced by the
extent to which productivity
increases are based on the
latest technology.
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
(b) Wages are influenced by the
extent to which labour unions
have organized the country's
workers.
(c) The average productivity of
the workers in the country
has not risen.
(d) The education level of the
workers in the country
determines wages.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Since wages are influenced by average
productivity in the country's economy,
low wages despite increased productivity
imply that the average productivity has
not risen.
The role of technology, labour unions or
education levels on wage levels in
developing countries is not mentioned.
PASSAGE – 9
Recent research has brought out sharply
the impact of early undernourishment on
long-term health, and even on the
development of cognitive functions and
skills. The fact that India has such a high
rate of childhood undernourishment- one
of the highest in the world- makes this a
particularly alarming consideration. Aside
from protein-energy malnourishment,
there are also issues of particular
nutritional deficiencies, such as iron and
iodine, the consequences of which can
be silently serious. Various studies have
confirmed the connection between low
head circumference or low ponderal
index at birth and mortality rates later in
life from cardiovascular diseases. There
has also been some evidence showing a
greater tendency towards high blood
pressure for people whose birth weight
was particularly low. Since the Indian
population is known to be relatively more
susceptible to cardiovascular diseases,
17
the connection with the lowness of birth
weight would be certainly worth
examining. There are also observed
connections between low birth weight
and the ponderal index (that is, birth
weight divided by birth length) and the
incidence, later in life, of impaired
glucose tolerance and non-insulin
dependent diabetes. The population is
not in the grips of famines; the country
does not have to import food to survive;
we do not see starving people in the
streets. But India still has remarkably
high levels of child undernourishment
judged in terms of standard clinical
criteria, and to dismiss this worry on the
alleged grounds that ―we seem to be
doing alright‖ is gloriously stupid. A
medical problem deserves some medical
analysis, and not just self-satisfied visual
observation.
43. On the basis of the passage,
consider the following statements:
(1) The Indian Government is
satisfied to rest on its laurels
and is not inclined to analyse
the effects of
undernourishment on its
geriatric population.
(2) The Indian Government has
come a long way since days
when famine claimed lives of
innumerable citizens and the
import of food-grains was the
only way to meet its food
requirements.
(3) Images of cattle on the street
and malnourished children is
the image of how India is
symbolised the world over.
(4) In spite of its technological
and economic success, India
is still unable to provide its
future citizens a healthy
tomorrow.
Which of the statements given
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
above are correct?
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The passage mainly focuses on the
theme that India is facing a crisis of
undernourishment as far as its children
are concerned. It links undernourishment
to multiple disorders and lifestyle
diseases. It also shows how India should
not actually be facing this crisis as it has
moved beyond famines and large-scale
import of food grains but does so due to
lack of enough scientific research on this
topic.
Thus, it can be validly said that India has
come a long way since the days of
famine and import of food grains, but
despite this progress, it is unable to
provide a safe future to its children. This
validates both statements 2 and 4.
Statement 1 would have been correct
had it focused on paediatric (i.e. child)
population rather than geriatric (i.e. old
age) population. Statement 3 is
incorrect as there is no data to support it
in the passage. Also, the passage gives
an impression of an India that is way
more advanced than the one depicted in
statement 3.
44. Which of the following can be
inferred from the passage?
(a) Perception, thinking and
learning skills can be
developed at any age
provided the right
nourishment is provided.
(b) Insufficient nutrition to
pregnant women can lead to
diabetic children.
(c) The genetic makeup of
Indians makes them prone to
18
 heart attacks.
(d) Although India is self
sufficient in terms of food, its
people still have less to eat
as compared to other
countries.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The passage clearly mentions that the
Indian population has been known to be
relatively more susceptible to
cardiovascular diseases. Thus, the
reason for this enhanced risk seems to
be the genetic makeup of the Indian
population. Hence, option c becomes a
valid inference in the context of the
passage.
Option (a) is incorrect as the passage
clearly establishes a link between
development of cognitive skills and
adequate nourishment in childhood. It
states the development does get
impaired if proper nourishment is not
available in childhood. Hence, option a
contradicts the passage and is, hence,
invalid.
Option (b) also contradicts the
passage, which states that low birth
weight (which can possibly be due to
undernourished mothers) can lead to a
greater risk of diabetes later. It does not
say that is leads to children being
diabetic. Hence, option (b) (though
possible) is not as suitable as option
(c). Option (d) generalizes the entire
premise of the passage by saying people
have less to eat, instead of just saying
that children have insufficient nutrition.
Hence, option (d) is also incorrect.
45. According to the passage, what
could be the effects of
undernourishment of children?
(1) There could be a reduction in
average lifespan of people in
the country.
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
(2) There could be an increase
in demand for health care
services.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The passage states that
undernourishment has been linked to
cardiovascular diseases, increased blood
pressure, impaired glucose tolerance and
non-insulin dependent diabetes. Thus,
the lack of nourishment has been directly
linked to various lifestyle based diseases.
This can mean that the average lifespan
of the people could be reduced and there
would be a higher requirement for health
care. Thus, both the statements are
correct.
PASSAGE – 10
While the dominant species within a
particular ecosystem is often crucial in
perpetuating the ecosystem, a ―keystone‖
species, defined as one whose effects
are much larger than would be predicted
from its appearance, also plays a vital
role. But because complex species
interactions may be involved, identifying
a keystone species by removing the
species and observing changes in the
ecosystem is problematic. It might seem
that certain traits would clearly define a
species as a keystone species; for
example, Pisaster ochraceus is often a
keystone predator because it consumes
and suppresses mussel populations,
which in the absence of this starfish can
be a dominant species. But such
predation on a dominant species occurs
in systems that do as well as in systems
19
that do not have species that play
keystone roles. Moreover, whereas
Pisaster ochraceus occupies an
unambiguous keystone role on wave-
exposed habitats, in wave-sheltered
habitats the impact of Pisaster ochraceus
predation is weak or nonexistent.
Keystone status appears to depend on
context, whether of particular geography
or of such factors as community diversity
(for example, a reduction in species
diversity thrusts more of the remaining
species into keystone roles) and length
of species interaction (since newly
arrived species dramatically affect the
ecosystem).
46. Consider the following statements:
(1) Identifying a species as a
keystone species can be
achieved simply by removing
the species from a particular
ecosystem and observing
changes that occur in the
ecosystem.
(2) The Pisaster ochraceus is a
starfish that does not always
enjoy a keystone role.
With reference to the passage,
which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because the
second sentence states that removing
the species from a particular ecosystem
is problematic, not simple.
Statement 2 is correct because in
wave-sheltered habitats, the impact of
Pisaster ochraceus predation is
nonexistent.
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
47. Consider the following statements:
(1) Gaining a keystone status
becomes easier as an
ecosystem becomes less
diverse.
(2) The introduction of new
species cannot displace an
established keystone
species.
With reference to the passage,
which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct because a
reduction in species diversity thrusts the
remaining species into keystone roles.
Statement 2 is incorrect because newly
arrived species dramatically affect the
ecosystem.
PASSAGE – 11
Readers of factual material should bear
in mind this aspect: their authors, like
authors of fiction, have beliefs and
theories that affect the way they present
their subject matter. For example, a
British historian's account of the
Revolution of 1857 would be different
from the version written by a historian
from India. Because of national loyalties,
the two scholars might look at the events
from different angles: the former as a
colonial rebellion on a distant continent,
and the second as a struggle for
personal freedom. The two authors
would write from different points of view
and express certain opinions because
they have different ways of looking at the
subject.
20
48. With reference to the passage,
which of the following statements
would not be considered correct?
(1) Even facts can be interpreted
differently by different
people.
(2) Scholars from the India
understand their history
better than British scholars
do.
(3) An author's point of view is
less important than the facts
he presents.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 follows from the first
sentence of the passage.
Statement 2 is incorrect because no
such comparison is made.
Statement 3 is incorrect since the
author‘s background will influence the
manner in which he presents the facts.
49. Consider the following statements
followed by two conclusions:
Statement:
(1) Some pens are pencils.
(2) Some pencils are cows.
Conclusion:
(I) Pencils are either pens or
cows.
(II) Some pens are cows.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Conclusion I is valid
(b) Conclusion II is valid
(c) Both the conclusions are
valid
(d) None of the conclusion is
valid.
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
Answer: (d)
50. Consider the following statements:
(1) Some apples are bananas.
(2) All bananas are oranges.
(3) No oranges are lemons.
From the above three statements it
may be concluded that
(a) Some apples are lemons.
(b) All lemons are apples.
(c) All apples are oranges.
(d) No bananas are lemons.
Answer: (d)
51. Riya works 25% more efficiently
than Rita and Rita works 50% more
efficiently than Rima. To complete
a certain project, Riya alone takes
60 days less than Rita alone. If, in
this project Riya alone works for 72
days and then Rita alone works for
150 days, in how many days can
Rima alone complete the remaining
work?
(a) 75 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 85 days
(d) 80 days
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
This question can be solved in many
ways but the simplest method is as
under:
Ratio of times taken by Riya, Rita and
Rima = 80a : 100a : 150a = 8a : 10a :
15a
100a is 25 % more than 80a as Riya is
25 % more efficient than Rita.
Similarly 150a is 50% more than 100a
Note: Here, in the ratio, we have taken
100 for Rita as it makes the ratio simple,
if you take 100 for Riya, the ratio will be
100 : 125 : 187.5 which will make the
calculation difficult.
21
In the question it is given that Riya alone
takes 60 days less than Rita alone which
means 10a-8a = 60 => 2a = 60 => a = 30
Hence, actual time taken by Riya, Rita
and Rima = 8x30, 10x30, and 15x30 =
240, 300 and 450 days respectively.
Rita alone can complete the work in 300
days i.e. in 150 days she will complete ½
of the work.
Hence half the work is remaining which is
to be completed by Riya and Rima.
72 3
Work done by Riya in 72 days = 240 = 10
1 3 1 3
Work left for Rima = - =
2 10 5 Step 3: It is also given that no person
The full work is completed by Rima in
450 days and the 1/5th of the work will be
completed in 450/5 = 90 days.
52. Each of three persons P, Q and R
is ranked 1 to 3 in the order of their
heights as well as in the order of
their weights, not necessarily in the
same order. No person has same
rank in both weight and height. R is
heavier than Q but shorter than P
who is not the tallest. Who is the
heaviest?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Let‘s make two table; one for weight and
another for height
Step 1 (Weight table): R is heavier than
Q, this can be represented in three way
Rank Option Option Option
1 2 3
1 P R R
2 R P Q
3 Q Q P
Step 2 (Height table): R is Shorter than
P, this can also be represented in three
ways
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
Rank Option Option Option
1 2 3
1 P P Q
2 R Q P
3 Q R R
It is given that P is not the tallest hence
Option 1 and Option 2 of the Height table
are ruled out. Now the new height table
is
Rank Option 3
1 Q
2 P
R
has same rank in both weight and height.
In the option 2 of the Weight table the
rank of P is 2 which is same as rank of P
in the height table, hence option 2 of the
weight table is also ruled out. In option 1
and 3 all the rank P, Q and R are
different, therefore either P is heaviest
or R is heaviest. Thus it cannot be
determined who is the heaviest.
Directions for the following 3 (three)
items:
Consider the given information and
answer the three items that follow:
Water pipelines are laid between 7
different cities viz. A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
Some amount of water (in million litres
[ML]) is required by each city and the rest
is pumped forward to the next cities. The
total supply is equal to the total
requirement.
The direction of the water pumped is
represented by arrows. R represents the
22
main water reservoir; the numbers (a) 10 ML
adjacent to pipelines represent the (b) 20 ML
amount of water pumped through them (c) 30 ML
and the number in the circle shows the (d) 40 ML
water required at that city.
Answer: (c)
53. What is the requirement of water at Explanation:
city D? Similarly we can calculate that 30 ML
(a) 40 ML water has been pumped from city F to E.
(b) 20 ML C to F = 80, F=40, F to G = 10 then F to
(c) 60 ML E = 80-40-10 = 30.
(d) Cannot be determined
56. A rectangular sheet having length
Answer: (d) 24 cm and width 9 cm is folded in
Explanation: such a way that a cube is formed.
200 ML water is received by city A from The side of this cube is
the reservoir, out of which it retains 10 (a) 4
ML and pumps out 100 ML to C and 30 (b) 6
ML to B = 140 ML water (10 + 100 +30) (c) 8
has been consumed, hence remaining 60 (d) 9
ML ( 200-140) is pumped to city D. As it
is not known how much water is pumped Answer: (b)
from E to G, the water requirement at D Explanation:
cannot be determined. Area of the rectangular sheet is 24 x 9 =
216 sqcm
54. If the water requirement at city D is As the cube has 6 faces of equal area
20 million litres, then what is the and total area is 216 then area of each
requirement of water at city G? face = 216/6 = 36 sqcm
(a) 10 ML Side = √36 = 6cm.
(b) 20 ML
(c) 60 ML 57. If RVQHBN is the code for
(d) 40 ML NAGPUR, the code for RATLAM is
(a) MBMUBR
Answer: (a) (b) MBSKBR
Explanation: (c) MBUMBN
As given above the water received by (d) MBMUCR
City D is 60 ML and if it retains 20 ML
water it will pump out 40 ML to E which in Answer: (a)
turn retains all the 40 ML, and thus pump Explanation:
no water to city G. As city G receives 10 The letters of the word are written in
ML water from F and 0 ML from city E, reverse order and each letter, except the
the total requirement of G is 10ML. first and the last one, is moved one step
forward, to obtain the code.
55. If the water requirement at city F is i.e. reverse of NAGPUR is RUPGAN and
equal to that of city E, then how UPGA are moved one step forward
much water is pumped from city F
to B?

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CSAT
Similarly reverse of RATLAM is MALTAR At last, the person reaches at point F and
and if we move ALTA one step forward
we get MBMUBR which is the answer.
Note: these type of question are formed
using some kind of sequence or pattern,
hence try to find the sequence or pattern
to solve the question.

58. In a certain language, if SUNIL is

written as 34589 and PRAMIT as
612087, then TRIPURA is written
as
(a) 7180412
(b) 7186412
(c) 7286412
(d) 7186419 he is at a distance OF from the starting
point.
Answer: (b) OFM is a right angled triangle hence OF2
Explanation: = OM2 + MF2
Each letter of the word represents a OF2 = 42 + 32 => OF2 = 25 => OF = 5
unique digit as shown below; letter I has It is clear from the above figure that F is
appeared two times and it is represented in the South West direction.
by digit 8 Hence the person is 5 km away from the
S U N I L P R A M I T starting point in South West direction.
3 4 5 8 9 6 1 2 0 8 7
From the above table, we can easily find 60. The sum of the present ages of a
out code for TRIPURA which is 7186412. mother and her daughter is 60
years. Six years ago, mother's age
59. A person walks 7 km due north and was five times the age of the
then he takes right turn and walks daughter. After 6 years, daughter‘s
5 km. He again takes right turn and age will be:
walks 11 km and then walks 8 km (a) 14 years
due west. How far is he from his (b) 18 years
original position and towards which (c) 20 years
direction? (d) 12 years
(a) 4 km, South
(b) 5 km, North West Answer: (c)
(c) 3 km, North West Explanation:
(d) 5 km, South West Method 1:
Let the present ages of daughter and
Answer: (d) mother be x and (60 -x) years
Explanation: respectively.
The question can easily be solved with Six years ago, mother's age was five
the help of the diagram. times the age of the daughter then
Let the person starts from point O. The (60 - x) - 6 = 5(x - 6)
movement of the person is shown in the 54 - x = 5x - 30
diagram below: 6x = 84

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CSAT
 x = 14. 62. A person walks a certain distance
Daughter‘s age after 6 years = (x+ 6) and ride back in 6½ hours. If he
= (14+6) = 20 years. walks both ways, the time taken is
7¾ hours. How long would it take if
Method 2 (require minimum he rides both ways?
calculations): If the concept is (a) 5 hrs 20 minutes
understood, the question can be (b) 5 hrs 15 minutes
solved without using paper pen. (c) 6 hours
Go by answer options: (d) 4 hours 20 minutes
The sum of present age of mother and
daughter = 60 Answer: (b)
Sum of age of mother and daughter six Solution:
years ago = 60 – 6 – 6 = 48 13
=W+R= ....... (i)
In the answer options age of daughter is 2
given which is six years ahead of present 31
age hence the age of daughter six years =W+W= ....... (ii)
4
ago from the present age was (answer
option – 12) = let say d 31 31
= 2W = or W =
Sum of age of mother and daughter six 4 8
years ago = 5d + d = 48 Six years 31
Putting 𝑊 = in equation (i) above
ago, mother's age was five times the age 8
of the daughter 31 13
Option (d) gives value of d zero i.e. 12 - + 𝑅=
8 2
12 hence ruled out.
From option (c), we get value of d = 20- 13 31 52 − 31 21
𝑅= − = =
12 =8 which satisfy the equation 5d + d = 2 8 8 8
48. Hence the answer is option (c). 2 ×21 21
 2 R = = = 5¼ hours = 5
8 4
61. Without any stoppage, a person hours 15 minutes
travels a certain distance at an
average speed of 80 km/hr., and
with stoppages he covers the same 63. Two trains of the same length but
distance at an average speed of 60 with different speeds pass a static
km/hr. How many minutes per hour pole in 4 seconds and 5 seconds
does he stop? respectively. In what time will they
(a) 10 minutes cross each other when they are
(b) 13 minutes moving in same direction?
(c) 15 minutes (a) 25 seconds
(d) 18 minutes (b) 30 seconds
(c) 40 seconds
Answer: (c) (d) 20 seconds
Solution:
𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 Answer: (c)
Req. answer = Solution:
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑤𝑖𝑡 𝑕𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑔𝑒
80−60 20 1 2 ×4 ×5
= 80
= 80 = 4 hour = 15 minutes Req. Answer: = 40 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠
5−4

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CSAT
64. The radius of a circular wheel is 1¾ and water is to be 2:3, then how
m. How many revolutions will it much amount of water is to be
make to cover a distance of 11 added?
km? (a) 70 L
(a) 750 revolutions (b) 80 L
(b) 1250 revolutions (c) 100 L
(c) 1000 revolutions (d) 140 L
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Answer: (c) Solution:
Solution: In a mixture of 80L, milk = 3x, water = x
Total distance covered Total 4x = 80 litres, x = 20
= No. of
Circumference  Milk = 60 and water = 20
revolutions Let ‗y‘ litre of water be added to the
11 x 1000 existing mixture.
22 7 = 1000 60 2
2 × × Now, 20+𝑦 = 3
7 4
180 = 40 + 2y
65. From a pack of 52 cards, 2 cards 2y = 140 => y = 70 litres
are drawn at randomly. What is the
probability that both are aces? 68. The average of five consecutive
(a) 1/242 numbers is ‗x‘. If the next two
(b) 1/441 numbers are also included, the new
(c) 1/221 average will:
(d) None of the above (a) Increase by 2
(b) Remain the same
Answer: (c) (c) Increase by 1
Solution: (d) Increase by 1.5
Number of favourable Outcome
𝑁 𝑃 =
Number of possible Outcome Answer: (c)
= 4C2 / 52C2 = 1 / 221 Solution:
𝑛+ 𝑛+1 + 𝑛+2 + 𝑛+3 + (𝑛+4)
= 5
=𝑥
66. How many numbers of four digits 5𝑛+10
can be formed with the digits 0, 1, = 5
=𝑥
3, 5, 7 and 9 if the repetition of the 5 𝑛+2
= =𝑥
digits are allowed? 5

(a) 1440 = 𝑛+2 = 𝑥

𝑛+ 𝑛+1 + 𝑛+2 + 𝑛+3 + 𝑛+4 + 𝑛+5 + (𝑛+6)
(b) 720 = 7
(c) 1080 =
7𝑛+21
=
7(𝑛+3)
= 𝑛 +3=𝑥+1
(d) 1800 7 7

Answer: (c) Directions for the next two questions

Solution: (Qno. 69 and 70):
Req. answer: 5 x 6 x 6 x 6 = 1080 In the questions given below, the given
equations are solved on the basis of a
67. In a mixture of 80L, the ratio of milk certain system. Find the correct answer
and water is 3:1. If the ratio of milk for the unsolved equation on that basis.

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CSAT
69. If 2218 = 12 and 337 = 16 then 569 short of the recommendations of the
=? Nayak Committee. Much more needs to
(a) 20 be done if these banks (which still
(b) 24 dominate Indian banking) are to be put
(c) 39 on a sustainable path towards having
(d) 18 healthy balance sheets and realising
their potential as efficient, well-governed
Answer: (c) financial intermediaries, contributing
Explanation: majorly to India's economic development.
2218 = 2 x 2 x 1 + 8 = 12
337 = 3 x 3 + 7 = 16 71. Which among the following is the
569 = 5 x 6 + 9 = 39 most logical assumption that can be
made from the above passage?
70. 6x4x5 = 456 (a) The Indradhanush initiative
3x2x8 = 283 could have been more
4x9x3 = ? effective had the
(a) 493 recommendations of the
(b) 934 Nayak Committee been
(c) 394 properly incorporated.
(d) 493 (b) The problem of under-
capitalization in public sector
Answer: (b) banks is due to the total lack
Explanation: of government support and
Rewrite 6 x 4 x 5 ignoring the 'x' as Tens initiative to fix the problem.
placed number (middle number), Unit (c) India‘s economic
place number (right number), Hundreds development is solely
placed number (left number) and we get dependent on the
456. performance of and profits
Similarly from 3 x 2 x 8 we get 283 generated by the public
So, from 4 x 9 x 3 we get 934 sector banks.
(d) The government has taken
Directions for the following 3 (three) robust measures to improve
items: the health of public sector
Read the following three passages and banks.
answer the items that follow each
passage. Your answers to these items Answer: (a)
should be based on the passages only. Explanation:
From the passage we know that the
government has announced some
PASSAGE – 11 measures to rectify the situation, so there
is no lack of measures – although they
The serious balance sheet weaknesses may be said to be inadequate. Thus,
of public sector banks are well-known as option (b) can be ruled out.
is the growing problem of under- Public sector banks are one of the major
capitalisation. Although the government contributors to India‘s economic
announced a few steps under its development – not the sole contributors.
"Indradhanush" initiative, they fall far The passage also does not convey or

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CSAT
suggest any such thing. Thus, option (c)
can be eliminated.
Option (d) is incorrect since the govt.
has NOT taken appropriate measures
because ―much more needs to be done‖.
Option (a) can be inferred from
“…"Indradhanush" initiative, they fall far
short of the recommendations of the
Nayak Committee..”.
PASSAGE – 12
India has a long way to go, with female
labour force participation rate at 33%,
lower than the global rate of 50% and
East Asia‘s 63%. The gender
participation gap is at 52%, and the
female labour force participation rate has
been declining since 2005-in part,
because women study longer. Women
can be game changers. To actualise this
potential, the focus must be on
education, easing entry into workforce
and providing support to balance work
and family. Improved access to schools
and better infrastructure like toilets are
essential. Improved access to credit will
allow women to cultivate economic
opportunities.
72. The author‘s viewpoint can be best
summed up in which of the
following statements?
(a) If women are given the right
support and resources to
enter the workforce, they can
add to the country‘s
economy.
(b) India has the lowest female
labour force participation as
Indian women find it difficult
to find work suitable to their
potential.
(c) Other countries have more
female participation in the
workforce as their women do
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
not study for as long as
Indian women do.
(d) Indian women shy away from
joining the workforce due to
the familial responsibilities of
raising children.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The author is discussing the reasons for
low female labour force participation in
India. He believes that if given the right
support by way of education, work-life
balance, and infrastructure etc., they can
prove to be game changers for India.
This thought is brought out only in
option (a).
Although B might be true, it only talks
about one aspect – difficulty in finding
work – the solution that the author gives
– making resources and support
available is not covered. Thus, option
(b) does not give a complete
summary.
Options (c) and (d) are beyond the
scope of the passage and are not
supported by it.
PASSAGE – 13
The easy part will be to lock in India‘s
good fortune, with fiscal and monetary
discipline. In addition, India‘s public-
sector banks need capital and, since the
state cannot put up the money, the
minister must persuade potential
shareholders that they will be run at
arm‘s length from politicians. If India is to
thrive, it needs bold reforms and political
courage to match. The tried-and-tested
development strategy is to move people
from penurious farm jobs to more
productive work with better pay.
73. Which among the following is the
most logical corollary to the above
passage?
28
 (a) India‘s monetary and fiscal
position will improve if
everyone left farm jobs and
started working at jobs with
better pay.
(b) India requires politicians who
can enforce bold reforms to
address fiscal, monetary and
employment problems.
(c) If ministers can persuade
shareholders to invest more
money in state-run banks,
India‘s monetary and fiscal
health can improve manifold.
(d) Creating higher-paying jobs is
the only way by which India
can come out of its current
unfavourable economic
condition.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Option (a) is illogical. The passage
talks about ‗poor‘ farm jobs, which does
not mean that all farm jobs are ‗poor‘ and
that everyone should leave such jobs.
The passage states that ministers must
convince shareholders that the banks will
be run with minimum interference from
the politicians. This may lead to mean
that in such an event shareholders may
invest more, but it does not mean that
India‘s financial and monetary health will
definitely improve. Thus, option (c) can
also be eliminated.
The passage states that getting people to
work at more productive and better
paying jobs is a tried and tested strategy.
This does not mean that it is the only
way. Also in the passage this strategy is
suggested only for penurious farm jobs,
so it cannot be assumed to hold true for
the entire economy. Thus, option (d)
can also be ruled out.
The passage states that to thrive India
needs two things - bold reforms and
political courage. Reforms are needed in
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019)
CSAT
fiscal, monetary and employment
sectors. All this can be done if there is a
strong political leadership – ‗political
courage‘ – as given in option (b).
Directions for the next question (Q no.
74): Consider the given information and
answer the question that follows.
74. All talented singers practice since
childhood and all singers who
practice since childhood gargle with
warm water. Hence, all those
singers who do not gargle with
warm water are not talented
singers.
Which conclusion logically follows
from these statements?
(a) A singer who is not talented
does not practice since
childhood.
(b) No singer who does not
gargle with warm water is a
talented singer.
(c) Every singer who gargles
with warm water is a talented
singer.
(d) Every singer who practices
since childhood is a talented
singer.
Answer: (b)
75. Consider the following statement
and the two statements that follow
from it:
Only a tax exemption can save the
company.
(1) The tax exemption was
granted and thus, the
company was saved.
(2) The tax exemption was not
granted and thus, the
company was not saved.
Which of these statements follows
from the main statement?
(a) 1 only
29
 (b) 2 only (a) Paul
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Richa
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Gifty
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Answer: (d)
76. In a joint family there is a male
head of the family, his wife, his 3 78. Who amongst the seven
married sons with their wives and representatives travelled on
his unmarried daughter. Of his Saturday?
sons, two have 2 daughters each, (a) Shweta
and one has a son. How many (b) Richa
female members are there in the (c) Nita
family? (d) None of the above
(a) 5
(b) 9 Answer: (a)
(c) 7
(d) Can‘t be determined 79. To which country and on which day
did Nita travel?
Answer: (b) (a) South Africa, Wednesday
(b) Australia, Tuesday
Directions for Q no. 77 to 80: (c) Australia, Thursday
Seven representatives of a company – (d) Cannot be determined.
Samir, Nita, Richa, Shweta, Gifty, Paul
and Mohit travelled to three different Answer: (b)
countries i.e. South Africa, Australia and
France. Each of them travelled on 80. Who was the last one to travel?
different days of the week (no two (a) Samir
persons travelled on the same day), (b) Richa
starting on Monday and ending on (c) Mohit
Sunday. Minimum two people travelled to (d) None of the above
each country and South Africa is the only
country to which three people travelled. Answer: (c)
Samir travelled to South Africa on Solution:
Monday; Paul travelled to Australia but Day of the Traveller Country
neither on Tuesday nor on Saturday; week travelled
Mohit travelled on Sunday but not to Monday Samir S Africa
France. The one who travelled to Tuesday Nita Australia
Australia travelled on Tuesday and the Wednesday Gifty France
one who travelled to France travelled on Thursday Paul Australia
Saturday. Gifty travelled on Wednesday; Friday Richa S Africa
Richa travelled to South Africa but not on Saturday Shweta France
Thursday; Nita did not travel to France. Sunday Mohit S Africa
77. If every one‘s trip is postponed by
one day, who will be travelling on
Wednesday?

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