Chemistry Exam

Time- 2 hours No. of Questions- 30 F.M.- 120

{Syllabus – 1. Atomic Structure, 2. States of Matter (The Gaseous State)}

1. The ratio of the energy of the electron in ground state of hydrogen to that
of the electron in first excited state of Be3+ is
(a) 1:4 (b) 1:8 (c) 1:16 (d) 16:1

2. Which has the maximum value of magnetic moment?

(a) Mg2+ (b) Ti3+ (c) V3+ (d) Fe3+

3. If Aufbau rule is not followed, 19th electron in Sc (Z = 21) will have

(a) n = 3, l = 0 (b) n = 3, l = 1 (c) n = 3, l = 2 (d) n = 4, l = 0

4. If n and l are respectively the principal and azimuthal quantum numbers

then the expression for calculating the total number of electrons in any
energy level is
𝑛
(a) ∑𝑙=1 2(2l + 1)

𝑛−1
(b) ∑𝑙=1 2(2l + 1)

(c) ∑𝑛+1
𝑙=0 2(2l + 1)

𝑛−1
(d) ∑𝑙=0 2(2l + 1)

5. The ionisation energy of gaseous sodium atom is 495.50 kJ mol-1. The

lowest possible frequency of light that can ionise a sodium atom is
(a) 4.76 x 1014 s-1
(b) 7.50 x 1014 s-1
(c) 1.24 x 1015 s-1
(d) 3.15 x 1015 s-1
6. A typical golf ball weighs 40.0 g. If it is moving with a velocity of 20.0 ms-1,
its de- Broglie wavelength is
(a) 1.66 x 10-34 nm
(b) 8.28 x 10-32 nm
(c) 8.28 x 10-25 nm
(d) 1.66 x 10-24 nm

7. For which of the following sets of four quantum number, an electron will
have the highest energy?
n l m s
(a) 3 2 1 +1/2
(b) 4 2 -1 +1/2
(c) 4 1 0 -1/2
(d) 5 0 0 -1/2

8. The energy of an electron in first energy level is -21.79 x 10-19 J. The energy
of electron in second energy level is
(a) -3.4 eV atom-1
(b) -328 kJ mol-1
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

9. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 0.53 Å. The radius of
Li2+ ion (atomic number = 3) in second excited state is
(a) 0.17 Å (b) 0.71 Å (c) 0.53 Å (d) 1.59 Å

10. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with n = 4 and l = 3 is

(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 10 (d) 12

11. The probability of finding an electron at the nodal surface is

(a) unity (b) low (c) high (d) zero

12. The wavelengths of electron waves in two orbits is 3 : 5. The ratio of kinetic
energy of electrons will be
(a) 25 : 9 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 9 : 25 (d) 3:5
13. If the uncertainty in velocity of a moving object is 1 x 10-6 ms-1 and the
uncertainty in its position is 58 m, the mass of the object is approximately
equal to that of
(a) Helium (b) Deuterium (c) Lithium (d) Electron

14. The first emission line on hydrogen spectrum in the Balmer series appears
at (RH =Rydberg Constant)
(a) 5/36 RH (b) 3/4 RH (c) 7/144 RH (d) 9/400 RH

15. A gas absorbs photon of 355 nm and emits at two wavelengths. If one of
the emission is at 680 nm, the other is at
(a) 1035 nm (b) 325 nm (c) 743 nm (d) 518 nm

16. 2 moles each of NO and O2 in a 20 L flask react at 27oC to form NO2. Thus,
change in pressure due to reaction is
(a) 1.23 atm (b) 2.46 atm (c) 3.69 atm (d) no change

17. A given mass of helium at STP is allowed to expand to 1.4 times its initial
volume by changing the temperature and pressure, then its resultant
density would be
(a) 0.25 kg m-3
(b) 4 kg m-3
(c) 0.13 kg m-3
(d) 7.84 kg m-3

18. Which is the correct statement of Gay- Lussac’s law describing the
behaviour of a fixed amount of gas?
(a) As pressure increases, volume increases at constant temperature.
(b) As pressure increases, volume decreases at constant temperature.
(c) As temperature increases, pressure decreases at constant volume.
(d) As temperature increases, pressure increases at constant volume.

19. How many moles of KClO3 is needed to prepare 1.8 L of O2 which is

collected over water at 22oC and 1 atm at which vapour pressure of water
is 20 torr?
(a) 0.024 (b) 0.012 (c) 0.036 (d) 0.048
20. The average molecular speed is greatest in which of the following gas
samples?
(a) 1 mol of O2 at 560 K
(b) 0.50 mol of Ne at 500 K
(c) 0.20 mol of CO2 at 440 K
(d) 2 mol of He at 140 K

21. A gas in an open container is heated from 27 oC to 127 oC. The fraction of
the original amount of the gas remaining in the container will be
(a) 3/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/8

22. For CO, isotherm is of the type as shown. Near the point A, compressibility
factor Z is

(a) (1 + b/V) (b) (1 – b/V) (c) (1 + a/RTV) (d) (1 – a/RTV)

23. What percent of a sample of nitrogen must be allowed to escape if its

temperature, pressure and volume are to be changed from 273 oC, 3.00
atm and 1.65 L to 0 oC, 0.75 atm and 0.55 L respectively?

(a) 16.67% (b) 83.33% (c) 75.00% (d) 25.00%

24. A comparison is made at STP of 0.50 mole of H2 (g) and 1 mole of He (g).
The two gases will
(a) Have equal molecular kinetic energies.
(b) Have equal molecular speed.
(c) Occupy equal volumes.
(d) Have equal effusion rates.

25. At the top of the mountain the thermometer reads 0 oC and the
barometer reads 710 mm of Hg. At the bottom of the mountain the
temperature is 30 oC and pressure is 760 mm of Hg. Density of air at the
top with that at the bottom is
 (a) 1:1 (b) 1.04 : 1 (c) 1 : 1.04 (d) 1 : 1.5

26. Mean free path of krypton atom (radius = 1.85 Å) at 20oC and 1 bar
pressure is
(a) 665 Å (b) 26.64 pm (c) 333 nm (d) 472 pm

{Hint: Mean free path,

d = 2r (collision diameter), P = Pressure, T = Temp. at Kelvin, R = Gas const.}

27. Boyle’s temperature of helium is, (van der Waals’ constant,

a = 0.0351 atm L2 mol-2 and b = 0.024 L mol-1
(a) 18 K (b) -18 K (c) 10 K (d) -10 K

{Hint: Tb = a/Rb}

28. Where is the pressure less than 1 atm?

(a) At a place where water boils at 110 oC
(b) At a place where water boils at 90 oC
(c) At a place below sea level
(d) At a place where water boils at 100 oC

29. Mole fraction of water vapour in the water saturated air is 0.02. If total
pressure is 1.2 atm, partial pressure of dry air is
(a) 1.18 atm (b) 1.22 atm (c) 1.176 atm (d) 1.224 atm

30. The partial pressure of oxygen in air is 22 kPa. What is the oxygen content
in percent volume?
(a) 42% (b) 21.7% (c) 11% (d) 5.5%