It SM Mcqs Old Course Final Opt

For May/Nov.
2019 Examination CA Intermediate (IPC)
Understanding
Information Technology
For
IT - SM EIS - SM
(With 2,000 + MCQs)
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(With 2,500 + MCQs)
130 + Hours
Multiple Choice Questions
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ISBN: 978-93-84833-57-2
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(MCQs)
[For CA-Intermediate - IPC]
Om Trivedi
Visiting Faculty of NIRC and WIRC of the ICAI
External Subject Expert at the BOS of ICAI, IIM-C Alumnus
Carvinowledge
P R E S S
Carvinowledge
P R E S S
Multiple Choice Question
© Om Trivedi, 2019
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This book is meant for educational and learning purposes. The author(s) of the book has/have taken all reasonable care to ensure that the contents of the book do not
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Conte nt
Chapter 1: Introduction to Business Process Management 1
Chapter 2: Business Process Management Implementation and Role of IT 6
Chapter 3: Business Process Mapping Systems 11
Chapter 4: Introduction to Information Systems 15
Chapter 5: Computing Technologies 18
Chapter 6: Information System Layers, Life Cycle and Modern Technologies 29
Chapter 7: Telecommunications and Networks 37
Chapter 8: Internet and Other Technologies 49
Chapter 9: Introduction to Business Information Systems 57
Chapter 10: Specialized Business Information Systems 63
Chapter 11: Business Process Automation through Application Software 72

c h a p t e r
1
Introduction to Business
Process Management
i
Multiple Choice Question (MCQs)
© Carvinowledge Press (CNP), 2019

d
1. Which of the following statement about 7. Which one of the following is not the benefit of
business is not true? Process or Modern organizations?
e
(a) It is an economic activity. (a) Responsive to market requirements
(b) It is pursued mainly to satisfy the material (b) Improved communication
v
needs of the society. (c) Better collaboration between different
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(c) It is conducted with the purpose of earning functional tasks
profits. (d) Performance measurements non-aligned
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(d) It is conducted to avoid competition in the with process goals
market. 8. Which one of the following is the weakness of
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2. A ___________ is a sequence of events that uses Process or Modern organizations?
inputs to produce outputs. (a) Duplication of functional expertise
(a) Business (b) Process (b) Responsive to market requirements
m
(c) Radical redesign (d) Economic activity (c) Improved communication
3. A business process comprises a combination of (d) Better collaboration between different
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number of such independent or interdependent functional tasks
processes such as_________________. 9. Which one of the following is not the weakness
.
(a) Developing new product of Process or Modern organizations?
(b) Customer order processing (a) Duplication of functional expertise
f
(c) Bill payment system (b) Inconsistency of functional performance
(d) All of the above between processes
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4. Waiting in a queue in a post office or bank or (c) Performance measurements aligned with
buying a ticket for train or bus is a simple___. process goals
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(a) Business (b) Business System (d) Increased operational complexity
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(c) Business process (d) None of the above 10. “Barrier to communication between different
5. Process Owner is the key person in _______. functions” is a weakness of _____________.
(a) Functional organisation (a) Process Organization
(b) Traditional organisation (b) Traditional Organization
(c) Modern organisation (c) Functional Organization
(d) All of the above (d) Both “B” and “C”
6. Functional Executive is the key person in 11. Which one of the following is not the weakness
_______________. of Functional organizations?
(a) Traditional organisation (a) Poor handover between functions that
affects customer service
(b) Modern organisation
(b) Lack of end-to-end focus to optimize
(c) Process organisation
organizational performance
(d) All of the above
(c) Increased operational complexity
(d) Barrier to communication between different
functions
2 I N FO RMAT IO N T e c h no lo g y ( IT ) – M CQs
12. Which one of the following is not a benefits of 19. Business processes have ______________ on the
Functional organizations? financial status of the organization.

(a) Focus on functional excellence (a) Direct effect (b) Indirect effect
(b) Toughand complicated work flow (c) No effect (d) Both a and b
implementation 20. _______________ covers the business processes
(c) Work balancing because workers have involved in recording and processing
similar skills accounting events of a company.
(d) Clear management direction on how work (a) O2C cycle (b) Accounting cycle
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should be performed (c) P2P cycle (d) Inventory cycle
13. In which of the following duplication of 21. __________________ begins when a transaction
d
functional expertise is exercised? occurs and ends with its inclusion in the
(a) Traditional organisation financial statements.
e
(b) Modern organisation (a) O2C cycle (b) P2P cycle
(c) Functional organisation
v
(c) Accounting cycle (d) Inventory cycle
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22. OTC is also called as _________.
14. Barrier to communication between different (a) Sales cycle (b) P2P cycle
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functions is a limitation of ____________. (c) Accounting cycle (d) Inventory cycle
(a) Modern organisation
23. O2C is also called as _________.
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(b) Traditional organisation
(a) P2P cycle (b) Accounting cycle
(c) Inventory cycle (d) Sales cycle
(d) All of the above 24. ___________________ covers all the business
15. ___________________ supports cost leadership
m
processes relating to fulfilling customer
strategy. requests for goods or services.
(a) Traditional organisation (a) P2P cycle (b) Sales cycle
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(b) Modern organisation (c) Accounting cycle (d) Inventory cycle
25. _________________ involves transactional flow
.
(d) All of the above of data from the initial point of documenting a
customer order to the final point of collecting
f
16. _________ supports differentiation strategy. the cash.
(a) Traditional organisation (a) Sales cycle (b) P2P cycle
o
(b) Functional organisation (c) Accounting cycle (d) Inventory cycle
(c) Modern organisation 26. _________________ is also known a P2P cycle.
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(d) All of the above (a) Sales cycle
17. Which of the following statement about (b) Accounting cycle
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business process flow is true? (c) Purchase to pay cycle
(a) A business process flow is a prescribed (d) Inventory cycle
sequence of work steps. 27. _________________ is also known a P2P cycle.
(b) It is performed in order to produce a desired (a) Procure to pay cycle
result for the organization. (b) Sales cycle
(c) It is initiated by a particular kind of event. (c) Accounting cycle
(d) All of the above (d) Inventory cycle
18. Which of the following statement about 28. _________________ covers all the business
business process flow is true? processes relating to obtaining raw materials
required for production of a product or for
(a) It is initiated by a particular kind of event.
providing a service.
(b) It has a well-defined beginning and end.
(a) Sales cycle
(c) It is usually completed in a relatively short
(b) Accounting cycle
period.
(c) Procure to pay cycle
(d) Inventory cycle
I nt rod uc t i o n to Bu s i n e s s Pro ce s s M a n agem ent 3
29. ________________ involves the transactional the technical and organizational environment

flow of data from the point of placing an order in which they will be executed.
with a vendor to the point of payment to the (a) Organisational business processes
vendor. (b) Operational business processes
(a) Sales cycle (c) Implemented business processes
(b) Accounting cycle (d) Management Processes
(c) Inventory cycle
37. Process management involves concerted
(d) Procure to pay cycle
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efforts to________ to organizational processes.
30. _____________ are the high- level processes that (a) Map (b) Implement
are typically specified in textual form. (c) Improve (d) All of the above
d
(a) Organisational business processes
38. Which of the following is a benefits of using
(b) Operational business processes
e
techniques for BPM?
(c) Implemented business processes (a) Effectiveness gains for enterprises
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(d) All of the above (b) Creation of basic operational value
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31. The _____________ is broken down into proposition
operational goals. (c) Revenue growth
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(a) Business strategy (d) All of the above
(b) Organisational processes 39. Which of the following is a benefits of using
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(c) Operational processes techniques for BPM?
(d) Implementation processes (a) Revenue growth
32. The Business strategy is broken down into (b) Process improvements
________________.
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(c) Goal fulfilment
(a) Organisational processes (d) All of the above
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(b) Operational processes 40. Which of the following is a BPM practice?
(c) Operational goals (a) Strive for process-oriented organizational
.
(d) Implementation processes structure.
33. _____ are specified by business process models. (b) Appoint process owners.
f
(a) Organisational business processes (c) Senior management needs to commit and
(b) Operational business processes drive BPM.
o
(c) Implemented business processes (d) All of the above
(d) Management Processes 41. Which of the following is a BPM practice?
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34. Operational Business Processes are the basis (a) Work collaboratively with business partners
for developing _____________________. on cross-organizational business processes.
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(a) Organisational business processes (b) Continuously train the workforce and
(b) Operational business processes continuously improve business processes.
(c) Implemented business processes (c) Align employee bonuses and rewards to
business process performance.
(d) Management Processes
35. _________________________ are the basis for
developing implemented business processes. 42. From a business management point of view,
which one of the following is not an important
(a) Organisational business processes
aspects of business process management?
(b) Operational business processes
(a) Increasing customer dissatisfaction
(c) Implemented business processes
(b) Reducing cost of doing business (cost
(d) Management Processes reduction)
36. ______________________ contain information (c) Establishing new products services at low
on the execution of the process activities and cost (value creation)
(d) Providing competitive advantages to the firm
43. Which of the following phases of Business (b) Reducing cycle time
Process Management-Life cycle involves (c) Reducing defects

analysis of the current environment and (d) All of the above
current processes, identification of needs and
definition of requirements? 50.
__________________ is a people-focused
management system that aims at continual
(a) Design phase
increase in customer satisfaction at continually
(b) Implementation phase lower real cost.
(c) Analysis phase (a) Six sigma
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(d) Run phase (b) BPM
44. Which of the following phases of Business (c) Total Quality Management
d
Process Management-Life cycle involves (d) All of the above
evaluation of potential solutions to meet the
e
identified needs, business process designing 51. TQM stands for ___________________.
and business process modelling? (a) Total Qualified Management
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(a) Design phase (b) Total Quality Management
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(b) Analysis phase (c) Total Quality Mechanism
(c) Implementation phase (d) Total Qualified Mechanism
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(d) Run phase 52.
Business Process Reengineering (BPR)
45. Which of the following phases of Business is a business management strategy,
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Process Management-Life cycle involves originally pioneered in the early 1990s by
project preparation, blue printing, realization, ________________.
final preparation, going live and support? (a) Michael Hammer
(b) James Champy
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(a) Analysis phase
(b) Design phase (c) Michael porter
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(c) Implementation phase (d) Arthur D. Little
(d) Run phase 53. Which of the following is a BPR success factor?
.
46. Which of the following phases of Business (a) Adequate IT infrastructure
Process Management-Life cycle involves (b) BPR team composition
f
business process execution or deployment and (c) Business needs analysis
business process monitoring? (d) All of the above
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(a) Analysis phase
54. Which of the following is a BPR success factor?
(b) Run and monitor phase
(a) Organization wide commitment
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(c) Design phase
(b) Ongoing continuous improvement
(d) Implementation phase
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(c) Effective change management
47. Which of the following phases of Business (d) All of the above
Process Management-Life cycle involves
iteration for continuous improvement? 55. BPM is the achievement of an organization’s
objectives through the ________________,
(a) Analysis phase
____________________ and ___________ of
(b) Design phase essential business processes.
(c) Implementation phase (a) Improvement (b) Management
(d) Optimize (c) Control (d) All of the above
48. Six Sigma is a business strategy developed 56. Which one of the following is not “BPM
by ____________ in 1986 to achieve process Principles”?
improvement.
(a) Role of IT
(a) Motorola (b) Google
(b) Processes are Assets
(c) Apple (d) Microsoft
(c) Processes create consistent value
49. Six Sigma efforts targets which of the following? (d) Intermittent improvement of processes
(a) Improving customer satisfaction
I nt rod uc t i o n to Bu s i n e s s Pro ce s s M a n agem ent 5
57. Senior management’s commitment is needed (a) Define Phase

for successful BPM. This is called ________. (b) MeasurePhase
(a) Bottom-up commitment (c) Control Phase
(b) Horizontal commitment (d) Improve Phase
(c) Top-bottom commitment 63. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(d) None of the above in the explanation of BPR definition?
58. BPR, TQM and Six Sigma are tools for________. (a) Fundamental: What is the company’s basic
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(a) Process devaluation style of working?
(b) Performance evaluation (b) Radical: All existing procedures and
structures must be forgotten and new styles
d
(c) Assets valuation
of working must be discovered. Changes
(d) Processes Improvement
must be made at the very root.
e
59. Which of the following is not a main area of (c) Spectacular: Spectacular changes must be
target in six sigma efforts? discovered, which might also be marginal
v
(a) Improving customer satisfaction improvements in business processes.
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(b) Reducing cycle time (d) Processes: Redesign must be fixed on the
(c) Reducing value processes not on the tasks, jobs, people, or
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(d) Reducing defects structures.
60. In six sigma the most appropriate solution is 64. A BPR team must represent________.
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identified using solution prioritization matrix (a) Every factor of the business environment
and validated by using (b) All important stakeholders from the industry
(a) Root cause analysis (c) Every functional area of an organization
m
(b) CTC analysis (d) The whole nation and its demographic
(c) CTQ analysis factors
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(d) Pilot testing 65. Organization wide commitment means______.
61. Process is standardized and documented. (a) Top-bottom commitment
.
Under which phase of ‘DMAIC’? (b) Bottom-up execution
(a) Define Phase (b) Analyse Phase (c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
f
(c) Measure Phase (d) Control Phase (d) None of the above
62. Cost and benefit analysis is performed to
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validate the financial benefit of the solution
under________.
(d) P
Answer Keys - MCQs
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(b)
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(d)
4
(a)
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(c)
6
(a)
7
(d)
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(a)
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(c)
10
(d)
11
(c)
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(b)
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(b)
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(b)
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(a)
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(c)
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(d)
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(d)
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(d)
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(b)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (a) (d) (b) (a) (c) (a) (c) (d) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(d) (a) (c) (a) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (d) (c) (c) (d) (d)
61 62 63 64 65
(d) (d) (c) (c) (c)
c h a p t e r
2
Business Process Management
Implementation and Role of IT
i
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
d
1. Which of the following factors is not to be (d) Collaboration tools
considered in implementing BPM?
e
8. Which of the following component of BPM suit
(a) Scope (b) Goal provides a system for storing and securing
(c) Tools (d) Only Methods electronic documents, images, and other files?
v
(a) Process engine
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2. Six Sigma, BPM Life Cycle Method, TQM,
Informal methods are the ____________________ (b) Business analytics
in BPM implementation.
r
(c) Content management
(a) Scope and goals (b) Methods to be used (d) Collaboration tools
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(c) Tools to be used (d) Skills required 9. Which of the following component of BPM
3. Which one of the following is not considered suit removes intra- and interdepartmental
under the meaning of Sponsorship in BPM communication barriers through discussion
implementation key factors? forums, dynamic workspaces, and message
m
(a) Executive Level (b) Process Owner Level boards?
(c) Competitor Level (d) Employee Level (a) Process engine
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4. BPM includes ___________. (b) Business analytics
(a) Process (b) People (c) Content management
.
(c) Technology (d) All of the above (d) Collaboration tools
10. Which of the following is not a need for BPM
f
5. Which of the following is a Component of BPM
suit? implementation?
(a) To create the long-term future positioning
o
(a) Process engine
of the business and enhance its future
(b) Business analytics
capability.
r
(c) Content management
(b) To create short-term cost effectiveness and
(d) All of the above improvement to current customer service.
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6. Which of the following component of BPM (c) To initiate continuous improvement from the
suit is a robust platform for modelling and base of the current, but improved, processes.
executing process-based applications, (d) To restrict the knowledge of products within
including business rules? the organization
(a) Process engine
11. Which of the following is the need for BPM
(b) Business analytics implementation?
(c) Content management (a) To introduce a knowledge of product and
(d) Collaboration tools customer profitability.
7. Which of the following component of BPM suit (b) To address the cultural barriers that prevent
enable managers to identify business issues, effective cross-functional and hierarchical
trends, and opportunities with reports and working.
dashboards and react accordingly? (c) To re-engineer the business radically
(a) Process engine and provide clear future competitive
(b) Business analytics differentiation.
(c) Content management (d) All of the above
B usi ne ss Pro ce s s M a n a g e m e nt I m p l e m ent at io n and R o le o f IT 7
12. Organizations that utilize BPM systems to (d) All of the above
accomplish IT enabled business process 18. Which of the following is not the reason for
change, gain from which of the following failure of BPMS?
capabilities?
(a) System has been engineered as for to the
(a) Closer business involvement in designing IT actual requirements.

enabled business processes.
(b) Technological obsolescence.
(b) Ability to integrate people and systems that
(c) Software fails to meet business needs
participate in business processes.
i
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
(c) Ability to simulate business processes to
design the most optimal processes for 19. Which of the following is not a benefit of
Business Process Automation?
d
implementation.
(d) All of the above (a) Business process improvement
e
13. Which of the following is a benefit of BPMS? (b) Improved procedures
(a) Automating repetitive business processes. (c) Better Process Control
v
(b) BPMS works by ‘loosely coupling’ with a (d) Restriction on assignment.
i
company’s existing applications. 20. Which one of the following is not the key
(c) Operational savings. benefits of business process automation?
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(d) All of the above (a) Business process improvement
14. Which of the following is a benefit of BPMS? (b) Improved procedures
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(a) Reduction in the administration involved in (c) Weak Process Control
compliance and ISO Activities. (d) Improved efficiency
(b) Freeing-up of employee time. 21. Which of the following is a benefit of Business
m
(c) Greater company agility. Process Automation
(d) All of the above (a) Improved assignments
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15. Which of the following is not a reason for failure (b) Improved customer service
of BPMS? (c) Improved Efficiency
.
(a) Superficial or deficient executive (d) All of the above
involvement 22. BPA is a set of__________.
f
(b) Deficient project management (a) Strategies (b) Skills
(c) Breakdown in gap analysis (c) Plans (d) Tricks
o
(d) Flexible enough or too complicated to be 23. Which of the following is a benefit of BPA?
customized to meet the precise workflow
r
(a) Saving on costs
and business process.
(b) Staying ahead in competition
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16. Which of the following is a reason for failure of
(c) Fast service to customers
BPMS?
(a) Limited options for customization of the
BPM software are required 24. Which of the following is incorrect statement
(b) Not flexible enough or too complicated to about BPA?
be customized to meet the precise workflow (a) BPA is a set of activities or strategies to
and business process. automate business processes so as to bring
(c) Failure to identify future business needs benefit to enterprise in terms of cost, time
and effort.
(b) BPA consists of integrating applications,
17. Which of the following is a reason for failure of restructuring labour resources and using
BPMS? software applications throughout the
(a) Inadequate assessment of the need for organization.
change management (c) Business processes can be determined for
(b) Persistent compatibility problems with the many functional units of an organization,
diverse legacy systems of the partners. including sales, management, operations,
(c) Resources not available when desirable
supply chain, human resources and 32. _____________ are the activities related to the
information technology. production of products and services.
(d) BPA decreases productivity by automating (a) Inbound logistics
key business processes through computing (b) Operations
technology. (c) Outbound logistics
25. In the automation of functional units, sales is (d) Marketing and sales
automated through creation of _________.
33. Which of the following terms, in case of a hotel
(a) SCM database (b) CRM database
i
would include reception, room service etc.
(c) AIS database (d) ERP database (a) Inbound logistics
26. Which one of the following is not a challenge in (b) Outbound logistics
d
implementing BPA? (c) Marketing and sales
(a) Budget
e
(d) Operations
(b) Single product or service line
34. _______________ are all the activities concerned
v
(c) Build and buy system with distributing the final product and/or
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(d) Interfaces with the customers service to the customers.
27. The value chain approach was developed by (a) Inbound logistics
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________ in the 1980s. (b) Marketing and sales
(a) Michael Hammer (b) Michael Porter (c) Outbound logistics
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(c) James Champy (d) Jack Welch (d) Operations
28. The aim of the value chain framework is to 35. Which of the following terms, in case of a hotel
__________. this activity would entail the ways of bringing
(a) Maximise value creation customers to the hotel.
m
(b) Minimising costs. (a) Inbound logistics
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(c) Diversifying products and services (b) Outbound logistics
(d) Both a and b (c) Marketing and sales
.
29. Which of the following is a support activity in (d) Operations
the value chain analysis? 36. ______________ essentially analyses the needs
f
(a) Procurement and wants of customers and is responsible for
(b) Operation creating awareness among the target audience
o
(c) Outbound Logistics of the company about the firm’s products and
services.
(d) Sales & Marketing
r
(a) Inbound logistics
30. Which of the following is a primary activity in
(b) Outbound logistics
the value chain analysis?
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(c) Marketing and sales
(a) Procurement
(d) Operations
(b) Human Resource Management
(c) Sales & Marketing 37.
________________ is concerned with the
responsibility for purchasing the materials that
(d) Administrative
are necessary for the company’s operations.
31. ______________ are the activities concerned (a) Procurement
with receiving the materials from suppliers,
storing these externally sourced materials, and
handling them within the firm. (c) Technology Development
(a) Inbound logistics (d) Firm Infrastructure
(b) Operations 38. _____________ is concerned with recruiting,
(c) Outbound logistics training, motivating and rewarding the
workforce of the company.
(d) Marketing and sales
(a) Procurement
B usi ne ss Pro ce s s M a n a g e m e nt I m p l e m ent at io n and R o le o f IT 9
(c) Technology Development (d) Production Cycle

(d) Firm Infrastructure 44. _________ involves activities of selling goods or
39. ____________ is concerned with technological services and collecting payment for sales.
innovation, training and knowledge that is (a) Financing Cycle (b) Expenditure Cycle
crucial for most companies today in order to (c) Revenue Cycle (d) Production Cycle

survive.
45. ___________________includes transactions
(a) Procurement surrounding the recognition of revenue
i
involving accounts like Sales, Accounts
(c) Technology Development Receivable, Inventory and General Ledger.
(d) Firm Infrastructure (a) Financing Cycle
d
40. _________ includes planning and control (b) Revenue Cycle
(c) Expenditure Cycle
e
systems, such as finance, accounting, and
corporate strategy etc. (d) Production Cycle
46. __________________ involves activities of buying
v
(a) Procurement
and paying for goods or services used by the
i
(c) Technology Development organization.
(a) Revenue Cycle (b) Expenditure Cycle
r
(d) Firm Infrastructure
(c) Financing Cycle (d) Production Cycle
41. Which one of the following statement is 47. _________________ includes transactions
T
incorrect regarding AIS? surrounding the recognition of expenditures
(a) AIS is a system of collection, storage and involving accounts like Purchases, Accounts
processing of financial and accounting data Payable, Cash Disbursements, Inventory and
that is used by decision makers. General Ledger.
m
(b) An Accounting Information System is a (a) Expenditure Cycle
unified structure that employs physical (b) Revenue Cycle
O
resources and components to transform
(c) Financing Cycle
economic data into accounting information
(d) Production Cycle
.
for external and internal users.
48. ________________ involves activities of hiring
(c) Accounting information system (AIS) is a
and paying employees.
f
specialized subsystem of the Information
System (IS). (a) Revenue Cycle
(b) Financing Cycle
o
(d) AIS provide inadequate controls to ensure
that data are recorded and processed (c) Human Resource Cycle/Payroll Cycle
inaccurately by exposing organizational (d) Production Cycle
r
assets (data and systems) by providing 49. ______________ involves the recurring set of
inadequate documentation of all business business activities and related data processing
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activities and an ineffective segregation of operations associated with the manufacturers
duties. of products including activities like converting
42. Basic Functions of an AIS is__________. raw materials and labour into finished goods.
(a) Collect and store data (a) Production Cycle (b) Payroll Cycle
(b) Record Transaction (c) Revenue Cycle (d) Financing Cycle
(c) Safeguard Organizational Assets 50.
______________ involves the information
(d) All of the above processing operations involved in updating
43. __________________ provides a clear view of the general ledger and preparing reports that
firm’s processing framework and involves summarize the results of an organization’s
activities of obtaining necessary funds to activities.
run the organization, repay creditors, and (a) Payroll Cycle
distribute profits to investors. (b) General Ledger and Reporting System
(a) Financing Cycle (c) Revenue Cycle
(b) Revenue Cycle (d) Financing Cycle
(c) Expenditure Cycle
51. Purchase raw materials belongs to _________ (a) Financial Reporting Cycle
cycle. (b) Revenue Cycle
(a) Expenditure Cycle (c) Expenditure Cycle
(b) Production Cycle (d) Payroll Cycle
(c) Expenditure Cycle 58. ____________________ involves the activities
(d) Payroll Cycle like capturing the data, implementing control

52. Decide how many units to make next month procedures, recording in journals, posting to
belongs to ___________________ cycle. ledgers and preparation of reports.
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(a) Expenditure Cycle (a) Data input (b) Data storage
(b) Production Cycle (c) Data processing (d) Information output
(c) Expenditure Cycle 59. _________________ involves organizing the data
d
(d) Payroll Cycle in master file or reference file of an automated
53. Pay for raw materials belongs to __________ system for easy and efficient access.
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cycle. (a) Data input (b) Data storage
(a) Expenditure Cycle (c) Data processing (d) Information output
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(b) Production Cycle 60. The data files stored in the system typically
i
(c) Expenditure Cycle include which of the following?
(d) Payroll Cycle (a) Transaction file which is a collection of
r
54. Disburse payroll checks to factory workers transaction input data - normally temporary
belongs to _________________________ cycle. in nature.
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(a) Expenditure Cycle (b) Master file which is a collection of data that
(b) Production Cycle are of a more permanent or continuing
(c) Expenditure Cycle interest.
(d) Payroll Cycle (c) Reference (table) file contains data that are
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55. Hire a new assistant controller belongs to necessary to support data processing.
________ cycle. (d) All of the above
(a) Expenditure Cycle 61. _______________________ involves addition,
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(b) Production Cycle deletion and updating of the data in the
(c) Expenditure Cycle transaction file, master file or reference file.
.
(d) Payroll Cycle (a) Data input (b) Data storage
56. Update the allowance for uncollectible (c) Data processing (d) Information output
f
accounts belongs to _________________________ 62. __________involves generation of documents
cycle. and managerial reports in printable or
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(a) Financial Reporting Cycle electronic form for addressing queries, to
(b) Production Cycle control operational activities and help the
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(c) Expenditure Cycle management in decision making.
(d) Payroll Cycle (a) Data input (b) Data processing
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57. Establish a ` 10,00,000 credit limit for (c) Data storage (d) Information output
customer Carvinowledge Press belongs to
_________________________ cycle.
Answer Keys - MCQs
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(d) (b) (c) (d) (d) (a) (b) (c) (a) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (c) (d) (c)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(d) (a) (d) (d) (b) (b) (b) (d) (a) (c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b) (a) (a) (b) (c) (c)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(d) (d) (a) (c) (b) (b) (a) (c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (a) (b) (a) (b) (d)
61 62
(c) (b)
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c h a p t e r
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Business Process Mapping
Systems

d
ER DIAGRAMS 7. Which one of the following is not the advantages
e
1. _______________ are commonly used to of using E R Diagram?
represent entities in ER-Diagram. (a) It is Intuitive and helps in Physical Database
v
(a) Diamonds creation.
i
(b) Ovals (b) It can be generalized and specialized based
on needs.
(c) Rectangles
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(c) It can help in database design.
(d) Square Boxes
(d) It is not simple but easily understandable.
2. ________________ are normally used to
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represent relationships. 8. There are certain limitations of using E-R
Diagram. Which one of the following is not a
(a) Diamonds (b) Rectangular Boxes
limitation of using E-R Diagram?
(c) Ovals (d) Square Boxes
(a) Physical design derived from E-R Model may
m
3. ____________________ are used to represent have some amount of ambiguities
attributes. (b) or inconsistency.
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(a) Rectangular Boxes (c) Sometime diagrams may lead to
(b) Ovals misinterpretations.
.
(c) Diamonds (d) A diagram to show the entity relationship of
(d) Square Boxes different attributes.
f
4. ____________________ is a piece of data-an (e) None of the above.
object or concept about which data is stored. Answer the questions from the E R Diagram
o
(a) Attributes (b) Relationships drawn below.
r
(c) Entity (d) Flows Customer-street Loan-number Amount
Customer-Name
5. _______________________may be a ‘physical
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Customer-Id Customer-City
object’ such as a house or a car, an ‘event’ such
as a house sale or a car service, or ‘concept’ Borrower
Customer Loan
such as a customer transaction or order. (Bank)
(a) Attributes (b) Relationships
(c) Entity (d) Flows
9. In the above E R Diagram, customer and loan
6. Which one of the reasons from why the are in which type of relationship?
documentation is important to Information (a) One to one (b) One to many
Systems is not correct?
(c) Many to one (d) Many to many
(a) Depicts how the system works
10. In the above E R Diagram, ‘customer name’ is:
(b) Trains the users
(a) An Entity (b) An Attribute
(c) Designs new systems
(c) A Relationship (d) A Flow of data
(d) Controls the system development and
maximizes costs 11. In the above E R Diagram, ‘Loan’ is:
(a) An Entity (b) An Attribute
(c) A Relationship (d) A Flow of data
12. In the above E R Diagram, ‘Loan number and (a) Physical DFD (b) Context DFD
Amount’ are: (c) Logical DFD (d) None of the above
(a) Entities (b) Attributes 22. A physical DFD _________________.
(c) Relationships (d) Flow of data (a) Focuses on the business and how the
DATA FLOW DIAGRAMS business operates.
13. Data flow diagram and flow chart are (b) Depicts the system
_____________. (c) It describes the business events that take
(a) Synonymous (b) Different place and the data required and produced
i
(c) Same (d) Similar by each event.
14. Which of the following statement about DFD is (d) Reflects the business.
d
not correct? 23. Which of the following is an advantage using
(a) A data flow diagram only shows what an Data Flow Diagram?
e
accounting system is doing (a) It aids in describing the boundaries of the
(b) It also shows what an information system is system.
v
doing and how the system is doing it. (b) It is beneficial for communicating existing
i
(c) A data flow diagram shows few technical system knowledge to the users.
details, it may be used to obtain an overall (c) A straightforward graphical technique which
understanding of the system. is easy to recognize.
r
(d) It is used as a last step of developing system (d) All of the above
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flow-charts. 24. Which of the following is a limitation of using
15. The _____________ in a data flow diagram Data Flow Diagram?
are used to depict the flow of data from the (a) It is used as the part of system documentation
origination of transactions and other events, file.
m
through various stages of processing and (b) It simply takes a long time to create, so long
refinement, to the distribution of processed or that the analyst may not receive support
captured data. from the management to complete it.
O
(a) Rectangle (b) Symbols (c) DFD can be easy understood by technical
(c) Lines (d) Circles and nontechnical audiences.
.
16. Square in a DFD signifies ______________. (d) It supports the logic behind data flow within
the system.
f
(a) External entity (b) Process
(c) Data store (d) Data flow 25. Which of the following is an advantage of using
17. Circle in a DFD signifies ________________. Data Flow Diagram?
o
(a) External entity (b) Process (a) It make the programmers little confused
(c) Data store (d) Data flow regarding the system.
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18. Rectangle with one side open in a DFD signifies (b) The biggest drawback of the DFD is that it
________. simply takes a long time to create, so long
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(a) External entity (b) Process that the analyst may not receive support
(c) Data store (d) Data flow from the management to complete it.
(c) DFD can be easy understood by technical
CONTEXT DIAGRAM
and even by nontechnical audiences.
19. Context diagram is the ____________ DFD.
(d) Physical considerations are left out.
(a) Lowest level (b) Medium level
Imagination
(c) Highest level (d) Real level
FLOW CHARTS
20. _________________ depicts a data processing
26. A ______________ is a graphic representation of
system and includes external entities that are
an algorithm.
the sources and destinations of system’s inputs
and outputs. (a) Flowchart (b) ER diagram
(a) Flowchart (b) Context diagram (c) Logical DFD (d) Context DFD
(c) ER Diagram (d) None of the above 27. Flowcharts ________________.
21. A ________________ shows how the system will (a) Play a vital role in the programming of a
be implemented. The physical model depicts problem
the system. (b) Are quite helpful in understanding the logic
of complicated and lengthy problems.
B usi ne ss Pro ce s s M a pp i n g Sys te m s 13
(c) Are helpful in explaining a program to others. 33. System Outline Charts _____________.
(d) All of the above (a) Merely list the inputs, file processed and the
28. Once the flowchart is drawn, it becomes outputs without considering their sequence.
______________ to write the program in any (b) Are designed to present an overview of data
high level language. flow through all parts of a computer.
(a) Difficult (b) Onerous (c) Represent flow of documents, the operations
(c) Easy (d) Inexpedient or activities performed, the persons or
29. It is ________________ to say that a flowchart workstations.
i
is a must for the better documentation of a (d) Represent the operations of a system with
complex program. the help of a logically drawn diagram, data,

and illustrates the correct flow of documents.
d
(a) Correct (b) Incorrect
(c) Inapposite (d) Infelicitous 34. In a Computer system, the System Flowchart
e
30. Which of the following is a limitation of using mainly consists of __________________.
flowcharts? (a) Sources from which input data is prepared
and the medium or devices used
v
(a) Innovative, dynamic, risk taker and
(b) The processing steps or sequence of
i
revolutionary
(b) Profit and function oriented operations involved, and
(c) The intermediary and final outputs prepared
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(c) A market leader who has lot of time for family
(d) People and process oriented and the medium and devices used for their
storage.
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31. Which of the following is a limitation of
flowcharts? (d) All of the above
(a) They are a better way of communicating the 35. ________________ are diagrammatic
logic of a system to anyone. representation of the data processing steps to
be performed within a computer program.
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(b) The program logic is quite complicated. In
that case, a flowchart becomes complex and (a) System Flow Charts
(b) System Outline Charts
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clumsy.
(c) Efficient Program Maintenance: The (c) Program flow charts
maintenance of an operating program (d) None of the above
.
becomes easy with the help of a flowchart. 36. ______________________ are designed to present
an overview of data flow through all parts of a
f
(d) Quicker grasp of relationships: Before
any application can be solved, it must be computer.
understood, the relationship between (a) System Flow Charts
o
various elements of the application must (b) System Outline Charts
be identified. The programmer can chart a (c) Program flow charts
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lengthy procedure more (d) None of the above
32. Which of the following is an advantage of using 37. ________________ represents flow of documents,
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flowchart? the operations or activities performed, the
(a) If alterations are to be done, the flowchart persons or workstations.
may require complete re-drawing. (a) System Outline Charts
(b) A flowchart acts as a guide or blueprint (b) Program flow charts
during the systems analysis and program (c) System Flow Charts
development phase. (d) None of the above
(c) As the flowchart symbols cannot be typed, 38. A _____________________ represents the
reproduction of a flowchart becomes a operations of a system with the help of a
problem. logically drawn diagram, data, and illustrates
(d) It becomes difficult to establish the linkage the correct flow of documents.
between various conditions, and the actions (a) System Outline Charts
to be taken thereupon, for a particular (b) System Flow Charts
condition.
(c) Program flow charts
(d) None of the above
39. ______________________ provide a complete (c) It is a decision support tool that uses a tree-
and detailed sequence of logical operations to like graph or model of decisions and their
be performed in a central processing unit of possible consequences, including chance
the computer for executing the program. event outcomes, resource costs, and utility.
(a) System Outline Charts (d) All of the above
(b) System Flow Charts 43. Which of the following is an advantage of a
(c) Program flow charts decision tree?
(d) None of the above (a) It is simple to understand and interpret
i
40. _____________________ are used to depict the (b) Possible scenarios can be added
scientific, arithmetic and logical operations or (c) Worst, best and expected values can be
d
steps which must be accomplished to solve the determined for different scenarios
computer application problem. They display (d) All of the above
e
specific operations and decisions and their 44. _____________ describe the conditions or
sequence within the program. factors that will affect the decision or policy
(a) System Outline Charts
v
(a) Action stub (b) Condition entries
(b) Program flow charts
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(c) Condition stub (d) Action entries
(c) System Flow Charts 45. ____________ describe, in the form of
(d) None of the above statements, the possible policy actions or
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41. ________________________ are used to translate decisions.
the elementary steps of a procedure into a (a) Condition stub (b) Action stub
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program of coded instructions. (c) Condition entries (d) Action entries
(a) System Outline Charts 46. _______________ indicate which conditions are
(b) Program flow charts being met or answer the question in condition
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(c) System Flow Charts stub.
(d) None of the above (a) Condition entries (b) Condition stub
DECISION TABLE
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(c) Action stub (d) Action entries
42. Which of the following statement about 47. ___________________ describe which actions
decision tree is true? are to be taken under a specific combination of
.
(a) It is a tree-like representation and is defined conditions and defines the actual results of the
decision.
f
as a collection of a basis (condition) and
a conclusion (action) and is a one way to (a) Condition stub (b) Action stub
display an algorithm. (c) Condition entries ( d) Action entries
o
(b) It is also termed as an Inference or Logical
tree.
Answer Keys - MCQs

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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(c) (a) (b) (c) (c) (d) (d) (e) (a) (b) (a) (b) (b) (d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (c) (b)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d) (c) (a) (b) (b) (a) (a) (d) (c) (a) (c) (b) (c) (b)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47
(b) (d) (d) (c) (b) (a) (d)
c h a p t e r
4
Introduction to Information
System

d
INFORMATION SYSTEM NEED FOR INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
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1. An information system can be defined 6.
Why documentation is important to
technically as a set of interrelated components Information Systems?
v
that ____________________ information.
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(a) Depicting how the system works
(a) Collects (or retrieves) (b) Training users
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(b) Processes (c) Designing new systems
(c) Distributes (d) All of the above
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(d) All of the above 7.
Why documentation is important to
2. An information system support __________in Information Systems?
an organization. (a)
Controlling system development and
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(a) Decision making (b) Coordination maintenance costs
(c) Control (d) All of the above (b) Standardizing communications with others
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3. _________________________ can be defined (c) Auditing Information Systems
.
technically as a set of interrelated components (d) All of the above
that collect (or retrieve), process, store, and 8. Which of the following statements about IT is
f
distribute information to support decision true?
making, coordination and control in an
o
(a) IT allows enterprises to work more efficiently
organization.
and to maximize productivity.
(a) Database system
r
(b) IT provides faster communication, electronic
(b) Information system storage and the protection of records to any
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(c) Application software enterprise.
(d) System software (c)
IT enables business enterprises to
4. Feedback is _____________ of the information differentiate their products and services
system. from that of their competitors.
(a) Input (b) Process (d) All of the above
(c) Output (d) All of the above
REASONS FOR USE OF IT FOR BUSINESS
5. Feedback is returned to appropriate people or
9. Youtube, Facebook and WhatsApp are the
activities in the organization to evaluate and
examples of __________.
refine the ____________.
(a) Data and information management
(a) Input (b) Process
(b) Communication capabilities
(c) Output (d) All of the above
(c) Automated processes
10. BPA enables the organisation to optimize and (c) Valuation (d) Cut off
improve their business processes through 15. Which of the following objective of auditing
_____________. verify that the accounting values fairly present
(a) Greater control over business and IT an item is worth?
processes. (a) Valuation (b) Existence
(b) Reduced costs through higher efficiency and (c) Authorisation (d) Cut off
better management of the people involved.
16. Which of the following objective of auditing
i
(c) Shortened cycle times in the execution of
verify that the transaction is re-coded in the
processes through improved and refined
proper accounting period?
d
business work flows.
(a) Existence (b) Authorisation
e
(c) Cut off (d) Valuation
IMPORTANCE OF IT IN AUDITING 17. Which of the following objective of auditing
v
11. Which of the following statements about audit verify that the processing is in compliance with
i
in a computerised environment is true? governmental laws and regulations, generally
accepted accounting procedures, and the
r
(a) Auditing in a computerized environment
would depend on the scope and objective of organization’s policies and procedures?
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audit. (a) Operational (b) Authorisation
(b) Audit broadly involves the process of (c) Compliance (d) Valuation
evaluating and reporting the adequacy 18. Which of the following objective of auditing
m
of system controls, efficiency, economy, verify that the program, area, or activity is
effectiveness, and security practices performed economically, efficiently, and
O
(c) It assures that assets and information effectively?
resources are safeguarded, that data integrity (a) Operational (b) Authorisation
.
is protected, and that the system complies (c) Cut off (d) Valuation
with applicable policies, procedures,
f
standards, rules, laws and regulations. INFORMATION SYSTEM CONTROL PROCEDURE
o
19. Which of the following is a type of Information
12. While conducting the audit in an IT System Control procedure?
r
environment the auditor has to look at (a) Strategy and direction.
____________ parts of the system because of (b) General Organization and Management.
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their interfacing nature. (c) Access to IT resources, including data and
(a) Manual (b) Automated programs.
(c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b (d) All of the above
13. Which of the following objective of auditing 20. Which of the following is a type of Information
verifies that the assets, liabilities, ownership, System Control procedure?
and/or activities are real? (a) System development methodologies and
(a) Authorisation (b) Valuation change control.
(c) Cut off (d) Existence (b) Operation procedures.
14. Which of the following objective of auditing (c) System Programming and technical support
verify that events have occurred in accordance functions.
with management’s intent? (d) All of the above
(a) Existence (b) Authorisation
I nt rod uc t i o n to I n fo r m ati o n Sys te m 17
21. Which of the following is a type of Information 23. Which of the following is an impact of IT on
System Control procedure? controls?
(a) Quality Assurance Procedures. (a) Realignment of functions data entry and
(b) Physical Access Controls. source of transactions may be centralized.
(c) Business Continuity Planning (BCP) and (b) Changes in custody of files and documents.
Disaster Resource Planning (DRP). Ready access to data over telecom links
(d) All of the above complicate custodial functions of data. Data
i
librarian may become in charge for data.
22. Which of the following is a type of Information
(c) Transfer of responsibilities; Single action by
d
System Control procedure?
the user may complete the entire processing
(a) Network and Communication.
cycle of the transaction.
e
(b) Database Administration.

(c) Protective and detective mechanisms against
v
internal and external attacks.
i
T r
O m
f .
r o
1
(d)
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Answer Keys - MCQs
2
(d)
3
(b)
4
(c)
5
(a)
6
(d)
7
(d)
8
(d)
9
(b)
10
(d)
11
(d)
12
(a)
13
(d)
14
(b)
15
(a)
16
(c)
17
(c)
18
(a)
19
(d)
20
(d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(d) (d) (d)
30-04-2019
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1,395/-
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4
2
c h a p t e r
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Computing Technologies
i
d
COMPUTING (b) Includes programming and software
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1. Computing involves _____________. engineering
(a) Computer hardware (c) Is involved in many hardware and software
v
aspects of computing, from the design
(b) Software
i
of individual microprocessors, personal
(c) Computer system computers, and supercomputers, to circuit
(d) All of the above design
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2. Which of the following is a Sub-field of (d) All of the above
Computing?
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7. An information system ____________________.
(a) Computer Science (a) Can be defined technically as a set of
(b) Computer Engineering interrelated components that collect,
(c) Information Technology process, store, and distribute information to
m
(d) All of the above support decision making, coordination and
control in an organization.
3. Which of the following is a Sub-field of
O
Computing? (b) Contain information about significant
people, places, and things within the
(a) Information Technology
.
organization or in the environment
(b) Software Engineering surrounding it.
(c) Information Systems
f
(c) Aims to support operations, management
(d) All of the above and decision making
o
4. ________________________ refers to the scientific (d) All of the above
and practical approach to computation and its 8. Software engineering ___________.
applications.
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(a) Is a field of Computer science, for designing
(a) Computer Science and writing programs for computers or other
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(b) Computer Engineering electronic devices
(c) Information Systems (b) Is concerned with developing large
(d) Information Technology applications
5. _____________ refers to the discipline (c) Covers not only the technical aspects
that integrates several fields of electrical of building software systems, but also
engineering and computer science required to management issues
develop computer hardware and software. (d) All of the above
(a) Computer Science
COMPUTING TECHNOLOGIES
(b) Computer Engineering
(c) Information Systems 9. A server ______________________________.
(d) Information Technology (a) Is a computer (Hardware) or device on
a network dedicated to run one or more
6. Computer Engineering _________________. services (as a host)
(a) Focuses on system and hardware aspects of (b) To serve the needs of the users of other
computing computers on a network.
Com p ut i ng Te ch n o l o gi e s 19
(c) Serves the needs of the users of other (d) FTP Servers
computers on a network. 20. A _____________________ is designed to restrict
(d) All of the above access to information on the Internet.
10. A _________________ is a server computer that (a) Multimedia Servers
runs database software. (b) File server
(a) Database server (b) File server (c) Web server
(c) Proxy server (d) Anti-virus server (d) Proxy Server
i
11. The task of a ______________ is to store shared
files and programs. POPULAR COMPUTING ARCHITECTURE
(a) Database server (b) File server 21. The hardware of the computer ___________.
d
(c) Proxy server (d) Anti-virus server (a) Consists of all the electronic components
and electromechanical devices
e
12. _________________ is one of the main reasons
that many small networks exist. (b) Comprise the physical entity of the device
(c) Is tangible
v
(a) Sharing printers (b) Sharing database
i
(c) Sharing files (d) All of the above (d) All of the above
13. __________________ is a computer that manages 22. ____________________ is a part of the computer
r
one or more printers. that pertains to programming, which is
basically machine language.

(a) Database server (b) File server
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(a) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
(c) Print server (d) Proxy server
(b) Micro architecture
14. A _____________________ is a server computer
(c) System Design
that runs software that enables the computer
m
to host an Internet website.
(a) Web server (b) Database server 23. The ________________________ provides
commands to the processor, to tell it what it
O
(c) File server (d) Proxy server
needs to do.
15. Which of the following server applications
(a) Micro architecture
.
provide a service over the Internet?
(b) System Design
(a) Web servers (b) Mail servers
f
(c) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
(c) FTP servers (d) All of the above
16. Microsoft’s IIS (Internet Information Services)
o
is an example of _________. 24. The __________ consists of multiple pieces,
including addressing modes, instructions,
(a) Database server (b) File server
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native data types, registers, memory
(c) Web server (d) Proxy server architecture, interrupt, and exception
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17. A ____________________ is a server that handles handling, and external I/O.
the network’s e-mail needs. (a) Micro architecture
(a) Mail server (b) Database server (b) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
(c) File server (d) Web server (c) System Design
18.
_____________________ are software (d) All of the above
applications designed to stream audio and 25. ________________is related to the programming
visual files over the Internet. of a computer, that is, how the computer
(a) Database server (b) Multimedia Servers understands what each element in its basic
(c) File server (d) Web server language means, what instructions are to be
19. __________________________ are used to transfer carried out and in what order, etc.
files from one computer to another over the (a) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
Internet. (b) Micro architecture
(a) Multimedia Servers (c) System Design
(b) File server (d) All of the above
(c) Web server
26. Which of the following instruction set enables (c) Small and complex
to add two number together? (d) Small and limited
(a) COMPARE (b) IN 37. RISC instructions is of __________________.
(c) JUMP (d) ADD (a) Uniform fixed length
27. Which of the following instruction set enables (b) Variable length
to compare numbers? (c) Undefined length
(a) ADD (b) COMPARE (d) Pre-defined length
i
(c) IN (d) JUMP
38. In ______________________, to execute each
28. Which of the following instruction set enables instruction, there is a separateelectronic
to input information from a device?
d
circuitry in the control unit, which produces
(a) IN (b) ADD all the necessary signals.
e
(c) COMPARE (d) JUMP (a) CISC (b) RISC
29. Which of the following instruction set enables (c) System design (d) Micro architecture
v
to jump to designated RAM address? 39. _________________________ is also called hard-
i
(a) ADD (b) COMPARE wired approach.
(c) JUMP (d) IN (a) CISC (b) Micro architecture
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30. Which of the following instruction set enables (c) Micro chip (d) RISC
to load information from RAM to CPU? 40. Which of the following statement about CISC is
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(a) LOAD (b) STORE true?
(c) JUMP (d) OUT (a) They use simple addressing modes
31. Which of the following instruction set enables (b) IBM RS6000 is an example of CISC
m
to output information to device? (c) CISC chips have large and complex
(a) LOAD (b) STORE instructions
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(c) JUMP (d) OUT (d) CISC instructions are of uniform fixed length
32. Which of the following instruction set enables 41. Which of the following statement about RISC is
.
to store information to RAM? not true?
(a) LOAD (b) STORE (a) RISC processors use a small and limited
f
(c) JUMP (d) OUT number of instructions.
(b) RISC consume more power as compare to
33. CISC stands for ___________________.
o
CISC.
(a) Complex Instruction Set Computer
(c) RISC instructions are of uniform fixed length.
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(b) Competitive Instruction Set Computer
(d) MC88100 Processors is an example of the
(c) Complex Information Set Computer RISC.
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(d) Competitive Information Set Computer
42. Which of the following feature about RISC is
34. RISC stands for ___________________. true?
(a) Redundant Instruction Set Computer (a) RISC are complex as well as expensive to
(b) Replicated Instruction Set Computer produce
(c) Reduced Instruction Set Computer (b) RISC chips have large and complex
(d) Re-enforced Instruction Set Computer instructions
35. CISC chips have _________________ instructions. (c) They mostly use hardwired control units
(a) Large and limited (d) The Pentium series is a very popular example
of the RISC
(b) Large and complex
(c) Small and complex 43. Which of the following statement about CISC is
not true?
(d) Small and limited
(a) CISC processors have comparatively simpler
36. RISC chips use _________________ instructions. design and high performance, as compared
(a) Large and limited to RISC.
(b) Large and complex (b) CISC chip design is comparatively complex
(c) CISC use complex addressing modes (a) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
(d) CISC comparatively more power, as (b) System Design
compared to RISC (c) Computer architecture
44. Which of the following feature about CISC is (d) All of the above
true? 50. ______________ is a description of how the
(a) CISC processors use a small and limited ISA does and what it does, i.e. everything
number of instructions. (resources, design techniques, etc.) is
(b) CISC instructions are of uniform fixed length. organized on the Chip or Processor.
i
(a) Micro architecture
(c) MC88100 Processors is an example of the
CISC. (b) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
d
(c) System Design
(d) CISC Processors have many processing
features, and hence the job of Machine (d) All of the above
e
Language Programmers becomes easier. 51. Micro Architecture is a lower level detailed
description of the system, for describing
45. Which of the following feature about RISC is
v
completely ___________________.
true?
i
(a) The operation of all parts of the computing
(a) RISC chip design is comparatively complex system
(b) Since RISC Processors have a small
r
(b) The resources and methods used to achieve
instruction set, they place extra demand architecture specification

on Programmers who must consider how
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(c) The essential specifications for the logical
to implement complex computations by implementation
combining simple instructions. (d) All of the above
(c) RISC use complex addressing modes 52. __________ is also known as Computer
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(d) RISC comparatively more power, as Organization.
compared to CISC (a) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
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46. __________________ is the art that specifies the (b) Micro architecture
relations and parts of a computer system. (c) System Design
.
(a) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA) (d) All of the above
(b) Computer architecture 53. _______________________ is the process of
f
(c) System Design defining the architecture, components,
modules, interfaces, and data for a system to
o
satisfy specified requirements.
47. _____________________ is concerned with the (a) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
structure and behaviour of the computer as (b) Micro architecture
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seen by the user.
(c) System Design
(a) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
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(b) Computer architecture 54. ___________ could be seen as the application of
(c) System Design systems theory to product development.
(d) All of the above (a) System Design
48. ____________________ includes the information (b) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
formats, the instruction set, and techniques for (c) Micro architecture
addressing memory. (d) All of the above
(a) Computer architecture 55. Systems design includes which of the following
(b) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA) hardware components within a computing
(c) System Design system?
(d) All of the above (a) System interconnects-Computer buses and
switches
49. The ____________________ of a computer system
is concerned with the specifications of the (b) Memory controllers and hierarchies
various functional modules, such as processors (c) CPU off-load mechanisms-Direct Memory
and memories, and structuring them together Access (DMA)
into a computer system. (d) All of the above
56. ________________________ is a communication (a) Cloud computing

system that transfers data between components (b) Grid computing
inside a computer, or between computers that (c) Mobile computing
covers all related hardware components (wire, (d) BYOD
optical fibre, etc.) and software, including 62. NIST stands for ______________.
communication protocol. (a) National Institute of Space and Technology
(a) Computer bus (b) National Institute of Standards and
(b) Memory controller Technology
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(c) Direct Memory Access (DMA) (c) Northern Institute of Standards and
(d) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA) Technology
d
57. The _________________________ is a digital (d) Northern Institute of Space and Technology
circuit which manages the flow of data going CLOUD COMPUTING ENVIRONMENT
e
to and from the main memory and can be a 63. A ____________________ can be accessed by any
separate chip or integrated into another chip. subscriber with an internet connection and
v
(a) Computer bus access to the cloud space.
i
(b) Direct Memory Access (DMA) (a) Public cloud
(b) Private cloud
(c) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA)
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(c) Community cloud
(d) Memory controller
(d) Hybrid cloud
58. _____________________________ is a feature
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64. __________________________ describes cloud
of modern computers that allows certain computing where resources are dynamically
hardware subsystems within the computer to provisioned on an on-demand, self-service
access system memory independently of the basis over the Internet, via web applications/
central processing unit (CPU).
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web services, from a third-party provider who
(a) Computer bus bills on a utility computing basis.
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(b) Memory controller (a) Private cloud
(c) Direct Memory Access (DMA) (b) Community cloud
.
(d) Instruction Set Architecture (ISA) (c) Public cloud
59. _____________________ is the use of two or more (d) Hybrid cloud
f
Central Processing Units (CPUs) within a single 65. A __________________ environment is often the
computer system to allocate tasks between first step for a corporation prior to adopting a
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them. public cloud initiative.
(a) Multiprocessing (a) Private cloud
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(b) Hardware Virtualization (b) Community cloud
(c) Public cloud
(c) Platform Virtualization
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(d) Hybrid cloud
(d) Both b and c
60. _____________________ refers to the creation of 66. Which of the following type of cloud computing
a virtual machine that acts like a real computer enables an enterprise to manage the
with an operating system. infrastructure and have more control?
(a) Multiprocessing (a) Community cloud
(b) Hardware Virtualization (b) Public cloud
(c) Platform Virtualization (c) Hybrid cloud
(d) Both b and c (d) Private cloud
67. A ___________ cloud is established for a specific
EMERGING COMPUTING MODELS group or organization and limits access to just
CLOUD COMPUTING that group.
61. _______________ is a method of computing in (a) Public (b) Private
which an individual or an organization makes (c) Neither a nor b (d) Both a and b
use of another organizations excess computing
power or data storage capacity.
68. _________________ are also called internal client, mobile device), back end platforms
clouds. (servers, storage), a cloud based delivery, and
(a) Private (b) Public a network (Internet, Intranet, Inter-cloud).
(c) Community (d) Hybrid (a) System design
69. A ________________ cloud is formed when several (b) Cloud computing architecture
organizations with similar requirements share (c) Protocols
common infrastructure. (d) Instruction design architecture (ISA)
(a) Public (b) Private 76. _______________________ of the cloud
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(c) Community (d) Hybrid computing system comprises of the client’s
70. A __________________ cloud is shared among devices and some applications are needed for
d
two or more organizations that have similar accessing the cloud computing system.
cloud requirements. (a) Back end (b) Front end
e
(a) Community (b) Public (c) Either a or b (d) Both a or b
(c) Private (d) Hybrid 77. The front end in a cloud application consists
v
71. A hybrid cloud is essentially a combination of which of the following?
i
______________. (a) Fat client (b) Thin client
(a) Private and public clouds (c) Mobile device (d) All of the above
78. In cloud computing, the __________________ is
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(b) Public and community clouds
(c) Community and private clouds a cloud itself which may encompass various

computer machines, data storage systems and
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(d) At least two clouds, where the clouds
included are a mixture of public, private, or servers.
community. (a) Back end (b) front end
72. A ___________________ cloud describes cloud (c) Neither a nor b (d) Both a or b
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computing where resources are dynamically 79. There are some set of rules, generally called
provisioned on an on-demand, self-service as _______________ which are followed by back
basis over the Internet, via web applications/ end server.
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web services, from a third-party provider who (a) Middleware (b) Virtualisation
bills on a utility computing basis. (c) Multiplexing (d) Protocols
.
(a) Public (b) Community 80. ____________________ allow computers that are
(c) Private (d) Hybrid connected on networks, to communicate with
f
73. A _____________ cloud is essentially a each other.
combination of at least two clouds. (a) Middleware (b) Virtualisation
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(a) Public (b) Private (c) Multiplexing (d) All of the above
(c) Community (d) Hybrid CHARACTERISTICS OF CLOUD COMPUTING
r
74. VTAS Ltd. implemented cloud computing 81. Cloud computing gives us the ability to expand
technology in its enterprise, where the and reduce resources according to the specific
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organization runs non-core applications on service requirement. Which of the following
web servers/ web applications of a third party features does the above line signify?
who bills on a utility computing basis, while (a) Elasticity and Scalability
maintaining core applications and sensitive (b) Pay per use
data in-house. Which of the following type of (c) On-demand service
cloud computing environment is used by VTAS
(d) Resiliency
ltd.?
82. We pay for cloud services only when we use
(a) Community cloud
them, either for the short term or for a longer
(b) Public cloud duration. Which of the following features does
(c) Hybrid cloud the above line signify?
(d) Private cloud (a) Elasticityand Scalability
CLOUD COMPUTING ARCHITECTURE (b) Resiliency
75. ___________________________ refers to the (c) Pay per use
components and subcomponents that typically (d) On-demand service
consist of a front end platform (fat client, thin
83. We invoke cloud services only when we need 90. __________________ is the foundation of cloud
them, they are not permanent parts of the IT services.
infrastructure: this is a significant advantage (a) SaaS (b) Iaas
for cloud use as opposed to internal IT services. (c) Naas (d) CaaS
Which of the following features does the above 91. _________________ provides clients with access
line signify? to server hardware, storage, bandwidth and
(a) Pay per use other fundamental computing resources.
(b) Elasticityand Scalability (a) SaaS (b) Naas
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(c) Resiliency (c) Iaas (d) CaaS
(d) On-demand service 92. NaaS stands for _________________________.
d
84. The __________________ of a cloud service (a) Network as a service
offering can completely isolate the failure (b) Software as a Solution
e
of server and storage resources from cloud (c) Node as a service
users. Work is migrated to a different physical (d) Node as a Solution
resource in the cloud with or without user
v
93. ____________________ is a category of cloud
awareness and intervention.
i
services where the capability provided to the
(a) Resiliency cloud service user is to use network/transport
(b) Elasticityand Scalability connecting services.
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(c) Pay per use (a) SaaS (b) Naas
(d) On-demand service
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(c) Iaas (d) CaaS
85. Public cloud service providers often can host 94. _____________________ involves optimization
the cloud services for multiple users within the of resource allocation by considering network
same infrastructure. Which of the following and computing resources as a whole.
features does the above line signify?
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(a) Naas (b) SaaS
(a) Pay per use (c) Iaas (d) CaaS
(b) On-demand service
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95. CaaS stands for _________________________.
(c) Multi Tenancy (a) Communication as a Solution
(d) Elasticityand Scalability
.
(b) Communication as a Service
SERVICE MODELS OF CLOUD COMPUTING (c) Customization as a Service
86. SaaS stands for _________________________.
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(d) Customization as a Solution
(a) Solution as a Service 96. The _______________ vendor is responsible for
(b) Software as a Solution
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all hardware and software management and
(c) Software as a Service offers guaranteed Quality of Service (QoS).
(d) Sample as a Service
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(a) Naas (b) SaaS
87. _________ includes a complete software offering (c) Iaas (d) CaaS
on the cloud.
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97. Voice over IP (VoIP) and Instant Messaging (IM)
(a) SaaS (b) Iaas is an example of _________________________.
(c) Naas (d) CaaS (a) CaaS (b) Naas
88. Which instance of SaaS allows users to explore (c) SaaS (d) Iaas
functionality of Web services such as Google 98. PaaS stands for _________________________.
Maps, Payroll processing, and credit card (a) Platform as a Solution
processing services etc.?
(b) Program as a Solution
(a) Testing as a Service (TaaS)
(c) Platform as a Service
(b) Communication as a Service (CaaS)
(d) Program as a Service
(c) Data as a Service (DaaS)
ADVANTAGE/ DRAWBACKS OF CLOUD
(d) API as a Service (APIaaS)
COMPUTING
89. IaaS stands for _________________________.
99. Which of the following is drawback of cloud
(a) Information as a service computing?
(b) Integration as a service (a) Cost Efficient: Cloud computing is probably
(c) Investment as a service the most cost efficient method to use,
(d) Infrastructure as a service maintain and upgrade.
(b) Almost Unlimited Storage: Storing (a) Cloud computing

information in the cloud gives us almost (b) Grid computing
unlimited storage capacity. (c) Mobile computing
(c) Surrendering all the company’s sensitive (d) All of the above
information to a third-party cloud service 104. ______________ is someone/something that
provider could potentially put the company can move or be moved easily and quickly from
to great risk. place to place.
(d) Since all the data is stored in the cloud, (a) Cloud (b) Mobile
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backing it up and restoring the same is (c) Grid (d) All of the above
relatively much easier than storing the 105. Which of the following is the correct sequence
same on a physical device and are usually
d
of Mobile Computing?
competent enough to handle recovery of
(i) The user enters or access data using the
information.
e
application on handheld computing device.
100. Which of the following is an advantage of cloud
(ii) Now both systems (handheld and site’s
computing?
v
computer) have the same information and
(a) Cloud computing is probably the most
i
are in sync.
cost efficient method to use, maintain and
(iii) The process work the same way starting from
upgrade.
the other direction.
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(b) Storing information in the cloud gives us
(iv) Using one of several connecting technologies,

almost unlimited storage capacity.
the new data are transmitted from handheld
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(c) Since all the data is stored in the cloud, to site’s information system where files are
backing it up and restoring the same is updated and the new data are accessible to
relatively much easier than storing the other system user.
same on a physical device and are usually
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(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
competent enough to handle recovery of
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
information.
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
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(d) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
101. Which of the following is a drawback of cloud
106. Mobile Hardware includes _________.
.
computing?
(a) Technical issues (b) Inter-operability (a) Laptops (b) Smart phones
f
(c) Prone to attack (d) All of the above (c) Tablet (d) All of the above
102. Which of the following is a benefit of cloud 107. Mobile computing devices are configured to
operate in ______________ transmission mode.
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computing?
(a) There are chances that all the application (a) Full- duplex (b) Half- duplex
(c) Single- duplex (d) none of the above
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needed by the user may not be stationed
with a single cloud vendor and two vendors 108. Which of the following is a benefit of mobile
computing?
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may have applications that do not co-operate
with each other. (a) Increase in workforce productivity
(b) It is feasible to confine within budgetary (b) Improvement in customer service
allocations and can be ahead of completion (c) Improvement in incident management
cycle times. (d) All of the above
(c) Storing information in the cloud could make 109. Which of the following is a concern relating to
the company vulnerable to external hack mobile computing?
attacks and threats. (a) Mobile computing has its fair share of
(d) Surrendering all the company’s sensitive security concerns as any other technology.
information to a third-party cloud service (b) Another problem plaguing mobile
provider could potentially put the company computing are credential verification.
to great risk. (c) When a power outlet or portable generator
MOBILE COMPUTING is not available, mobile computers must rely
103. _______________________ is a computing system entirely on battery power.
where the users with portable computers still (d) All of the above
have network connections while they move.
GRID COMPUTING 116. ___________________________ in general is a

110. _______________________ is a computer network special type of parallel computing that relies
in which each computer’s resources are shared on complete computers and connected to a
with every other computer in the system. network by a conventional network interface.
(a) Cloud computing (a) Grid computing
(b) Grid computing (b) Cloud computing
(c) Mobile computing (c) Mobile computing
(d) All of the above (d) Multiplexer
i
111. Which of the following statement about grid 117. In the ideal grid computing system, every
computing is true? resource __________________.
d
(a) It relies on complete computers (with on- (a) Shall not be shared
board CPU, storage, power supply, network (b) Is shared
e
interface, and so forth). (c) Might be hared
(b) It is connected to a network (private, public, (d) Could be shared
v
or the Internet) by a conventional network 118. A user, desirous of connecting to a grid
interface.
i
network,has to enrol his machine as
(c) It is a special kind of distributed computing. _______________ on the grid and install the
(d) All of the above provided grid software on his own machine.
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112. Which of the following statement about grid (a) Authenticator (b) Administrator
computing is true? (c) Donor (d) Customer
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(a) It is a computer network in which each 119. After the user positively establishes his identity
computer’s resources are shared with every with a ________________, it shall take steps to
other computer in the system. assure that the user is in fact who he claims to
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(b) It relies on complete computers be.
(c) It is connected to a network (private, public, (a) Certificate Authority
or the Internet) by a conventional network (b) Donor
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interface. (c) Customer
(d) All of the above (d) Government
.
113. Which of the following is a benefit of grid 120. The _____________________ is responsible for
computing? controlling the rights of the users in the grid.
f
(a) Making use of Underutilized Resources (a) Certificate Authority
(b) Resource Balancing (b) Customer
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(c) Parallel CPU Capacity (c) Donor
(d) All of the above (d) Government
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114. Which of the following is a benefit of grid 121. Procedures for removing users and machines
computing? are executed by the ______________.
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(a) Virtual resources and virtual organizations (a) Donor (b) Administrator
for collaboration (c) Customer (d) Government
(b) High Reliability 122. Which of the following is a responsibility of a
(c) Access to additional resources Certificate Authority?
(d) All of the above (a) Positively identifying entities requesting
115. In which of the following means we can use the certificates
computation resources of a grid? (b) Issuing, removing, and archiving certificates
(a) To run an existing application on an available (c) Protecting the Certificate Authority server
machine on the grid rather than locally; (d) All of the above
(b) To use an application designed to split its 123. Which of the following is a responsibility of a
work in such a way that the separate parts can user?
execute in parallel on different processors (a) Maintaining a name space of unique names
(c) To run an application, that needs to be for certificate owners
executed many times, on many different (b) Serving signed certificates to those needing
machines in the grid. to authenticate entities
(d) All of the above (c) Issuing, removing, and archiving certificates
(d) None of the above 130. In a grid computing system, large amount of
124. The responsibility to manage the resources of encryption shall not be used at a time. There
the grid belongs to the _______________. should be a minimum communication at a
(a) Administrator (b) User time. Which of the following constraint of
(c) Customer (d) Government security on grid is highlighted in the above
125. Which of the following function is not required phrases?
by grid systems and applications? (a) Single Sign-on
(a) Authentication (b) Access Control (b) Exportability
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(c) Privacy (d) Repudiation (c) Protection of Credentials
126. Which of the following is an authentication and (d) Interoperability with local security solutions
d
access control issue? VIRTUALIZATION
(a) To provide authentication to verify the users, 131. _________________ refers to technologies
e
process which have user’s computation designed to provide a layer of abstraction
and resources used by the processes to between computer hardware systems and the
v
authenticate. software, running on them.
i
(b) To allow local access control mechanisms to (a) Virtualization (b) Cloud computing
be used without change. (c) Grid computing (d) Mobile computing
132. _______________ means to create a virtual
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(c) Neither a nor b
(d) Both a and b version of a device or resource.

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127. In a grid computing system, a user should (a) Cloud computing
authenticate once and they should be able to (b) Virtualization
acquire resources, use them, and release them (c) Grid computing
and to communicate internally without any (d) Mobile computing
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further authentication. Which of the following 133. Which of the following statement is true about
constraint of security on grid is highlighted in virtualization?
the above phrases?
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(a) It means to create a virtual version of a device
(a) Protection of Credentials or resource.
(b) Interoperability with local security solutions
.
(b) It refers to technologies designed to provide
(c) Single Sign-on a layer of abstraction between computer
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(d) Exportability hardware systems and the software, running
128. In a grid computing system, sensitive on them.
information such as user passwords and (c) It is the process of creating logical computing
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private keys should be protected. Which of resources from available physical resources.
the following constraint of security on grid is (d) All of the above
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highlighted in the above phrases? 134. ____________ is the process of creating logical
(a) Single Sign-on computing resources from available physical
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(b) Protection of Credentials resources.
(c) Interoperability with local security solutions (a) Grid computing (b) Mobile computing
(d) Exportability (c) Virtualization (d) Cloud computing
129. In a grid computing system, access to local 135. In ______________, a single physical server is
resources should have local security policy at divided into multiple logical servers.
a local level. Despite of modifying every local (a) Partitioning (b) Consolidation
resource there should be an inter-domain (c) Grouping (d) Both b and c
security server for providing security to local 136. Platform Virtualization is also known as
resource. Which of the following constraint _____________________.
of security on grid is highlighted in the above (a) Hardware Virtualization
phrases?
(b) Network Virtualization
(a) Single Sign-on
(c) Storage Virtualization
(b) Protection of Credentials
(c) Exportability
(d) Interoperability with local security solutions
137. __________________ refers to the creation of a in turn host virtual machines. Which of the
virtual machine that acts like a real computer application of the concept of virtualisation is
with an operating system. being highlighted in the above case?
(a) Hardware Virtualization (a) Server consolidation
(b) Platform Virtualization (b) Disaster recovery
(c) Storage Virtualization (c) Portable applications
(d) Both a and b (d) Portable workspace
138. _________________________ is a method of 141. __________________________ are needed when
i
combining the available resources in a network running an application from a removable
by splitting up the available bandwidth into drive, without installing it on the system’s main
d
channels, each of which is independent from disk drive.
the others, and each of which can be assigned (a) Server consolidation
e
(or reassigned) to a particular server or device (b) Portable applications
in real time. (c) Disaster recovery
(a) Hardware Virtualization
v
(d) Portable workspace
(b) Network virtualization
i
142. ___________________________ can be used to
(c) Platform Virtualization encapsulate the application with a redirection
(d) Storage Virtualization layer that stores temporary files, windows
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139. P2V transformation stands for _____________. registry entries and other state information in
(a) Public to Virtual the application’s installation directory and not
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(b) Private to Virtual within the system’s permanent file system.
(c) Physical to Virtual (a) Grid computing
(d) Partitioned to Virtual (b) Cloud computing
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140. Virtual machines are used to consolidate many (c) Mobile computing
physical servers into fewer servers, which (d) Virtualization
Answer Keys - MCQs
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f
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
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(d) (d) (d) (a) (a) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
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(d) (a) c b a d b a c a d b a c b d a b d c
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
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b c a d b (b) (b) (a) (c) (a) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d) (a) (d) (c) (a) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(a) (b) (a) (c) (a) (d) (b) (a) (c) (a) (d) (c) (d) (c) (b) (b) (d) (a) (d) (a)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(c) (d) (a) (c) (c) (c) (a) (d) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (c) (d)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (c) (a) (c)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
(b) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (d) (b) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (a) (d) (b) (c) (a)
141 142
(b) (d)
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6
Information System Layers, Life
Cycle and Modern Technologies
i
d
APPLICATION SOFTWARE 6. Which of the following type of application
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1. Which of the following statement is true? software provides capabilities required to
support enterprise software systems?
(a) Application software has been created to
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perform a specific task for a user. (a) Application Suit
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(b) Application software is software that employs (b) Enterprise Software
the capabilities of a computer directly and (c) Information Worker Software
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thoroughly to a task that the user wishes to (d) Enterprise Infrastructure Software
perform using a computer. 7. Which of the following type of application
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(c) Application software is any program software addresses individual needs required
designed to perform a specific function to manage and create information for
directly for the user or, in some cases, for individual projects within departments?
another application program. (a) Application Suit
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(d) All of the above (b) Enterprise Software
2. Which of the following is an application (c) Information Worker Software
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software? (d) Enterprise Infrastructure Software
(a) Word processing
.
8. Which of the following type of application
(b) Electronic spreadsheet software is used to access contents and
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(c) Database addresses a desire for published digital content
(d) All of the above and entertainment?
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3. Which of the following is an application (a) Content Access Software
software? (b) Educational Software
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(a) Email reader (c) Media Development Software
(b) Web browser (d) Information Worker Software
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(c) Desktop publishing 9. Which of the following type of application
(d) All of the above software holds contents adopted for use by
4. Which of the following type of application students?
software has multiple applications bundled (a) Content Access Software
together? (b) Educational Software
(a) Enterprise Software (c) Media Development Software
(b) Application Suit (d) Information Worker Software
(c) Enterprise Infrastructure Software 10. Which of the following type of application
(d) Information Worker Software software addresses individual needs to generate
5. Which of the following type of application and print electronic media for others to
software addresses an enterprise’s need and consume?
data flow in a huge distributed environment? (a) Content Access Software
(a) Enterprise Software (b) Educational Software
(b) Application Suit (c) Information Worker Software
(c) Enterprise Infrastructure Software (d) Media Development Software
(d) Information Worker Software
11. MS Office 2010, 2013 which has MS-Word, 19. Which of the following is an online data entry
MS-Excel and MS-Access is an example of device?
____________. (a) OCR (b) OMR
(a) Enterprise Software (c) Scanner (d) Touch screen
(b) Enterprise Infrastructure Software 20. Which of the following is an output device?
(c) Application Suit (a) VDU (b) OMR
(d) Information Worker Software (c) OCR (d) Track ball
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12. Email servers and security software are 21.
On-line data entry is when data is
examples of ______________. ____________________.
(a) Enterprise Software
d
(a) Stored
(b) Enterprise Infrastructure Software (b) Shared
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(c) Application Suit (c) Input straight into the computer for
(d) Information Worker Software processing.
v
13. Spreadsheets are example of _____________. (d) later transferred from the disk or tape to a
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(a) Enterprise Software computer for processing
(b) Enterprise Infrastructure Software 22. _______________________ is usually achieved by
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(c) Application Suit methods known as key-to-disk or key-to-tape.
(d) Information Worker Software (a) On-line data entry
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14. Windows media player is an example of ____. (b) Off-line data entry
(a) Content Access Software (c) Both a and b
(b) Educational Software
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(c) Information Worker Software 23. Which of the following devices allow movement
(d) Media Development Software on the screen?
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(a) Mouse (b) Joystick
15. The threat of viruses invading custom-made
applications is __________. (c) Light pen (d) All of the above
.
(a) Very high (b) Moderate 24. _________________ use rows of needles which
(c) Very less (d) None of the above are made to impact with an ink-ribbon to make
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the pattern of the required character on the
HARDWARE paper.
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16. Which of the following statement is not true? (a) Ink-jet printer (b) Dot-matrix printer
(a) Hardware is the collection of physical (c) Laser printer (d) All of the above
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elements that constitutes a computer system. 25. __________________ squirt quick-drying ink
(b) Computer hardware refers to the physical onto paper to form the shape of the character
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parts or components of a computer. being printed.
(c) Monitor is an example of hardware. (a) Ink-jet printer (b) Dot-matrix printer
(d) Operating System is an example of hardware (c) Laser printer (d) All of the above
26. ___________________ use a laser beam to create
INPUT/ OUTPUT DEVICES
an electric charge which attracts special black
17. Optical disk is a _____________. dust to it.
(a) Input device (a) Dot-matrix printer
(b) Secondary memory device (b) Ink-jet printer
(c) Output device (c) Laser printer
(d) Primary memory device (d) All of the above
18. Which of the following is a direct data entry 27. __________________ are devices which, in
device? response to output signals from the computer,
(a) OCR (b) Mouse cause a pen to move across a sheet of paper to
(c) Touch screen (d) Key board produce drawings such as graphs.
I nfor m at i o n Sys te m L aye rs, L i fe Cycl e and M o der n Tec hno lo gi es 31
(a) Scanner (b) Printer (b) Primary Memory, cache memory, Registers
(c) Joystick (d) Graph plotters (c) Registers, Secondary Memory, cache
memory
Processing and MEMORY UNIT (d) RAM, ROM, CMOS
28. The Central Processing Unit (CPU) also 37. Which of the following is a type of Register?
known as the processor is the __________ of the
(a) Accumulators (AR)
computer.
(b) Instruction Registers (IR)
(a) Heart (b) Soul
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(c) Memory Registers (MR)
(c) Brain (d) All of the above
29. Which of the following is not a functional unit
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of Central Processing Unit (CPU)? 38. Primary Memory is of how many types?
(a) Control unit (a) Two (b) Three
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(b) Input Devices (c) Four (d) Five
(c) Registers 39. Which of the following is a primary memory?
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(d) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (a) RAM (b) ROM
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30. In a microcomputer, the entire CPU is on a tiny (c) CMOS (d) All of the above
chip called a _________________. 40. The full form of RAM is _____________.
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(a) Micro powered unit (a) Random Access Memory
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(b) Microprocessor (b) Read Access Memory
(c) Micro unit (c) Random Accessible Memory
(d) Microchip (d) Random Authorization Memory

31. CU stands for ________________. 41. The data written on ______________ cannot be
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(a) Control Unit (b) Central Unit modified.
(a) RAM (b) Virtual memory
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(c) Carbonized Unit (d) Control Unit
32. All the computer’s resources are managed (c) Flash Memory (d) ROM
.
from the _______________. 42. ROM stands for _________________________.
(a) ALU (b) CU (a) Random Only Memory
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(c) Register (d) All of the above (b) Read Operational Memory
33. __________________ is the logical hub of the (c) Read Only Memory
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computer. (d) Read Oscillation Memory
(a) ALU (b) CU 43. _________ is temporary and is erased when
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(c) Register (d) Terminal computer is switched off.
34. Logical operations include which of the (a) RAM (b) ROM
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following operation (c) CMOS (d) All of the above
(a) Addition 44. _________________ is made of thin crystal film
(b) whether one number is equal to another known as synthetic garnet.
number (a) RAM (b) Bubble Memory
(c) Subtraction (c) Flash Memory (d) ROM
(d) Multiplication 45. The Black Strip on the back side of a Credit or
35. _______________ are internal memory within Debit card is an example of ____________.
CPU, which are very fast and very small. (a) RAM (b) Flash Memory
(a) Registers (b) ROM (c) ROM (d) Bubble Memory
(c) RAM (d) CMOS
36. There is a huge speed difference between 46. _________________ is non-volatile and can be
____________ and _________________ to bridge used for auxiliary storage also.
these speed differences, we have __________. (a) ROM (b) Bubble memory
(a) Registers, Primary Memory, cache memory (c) Flash Memory (d) All of the above
47. _______________ is a volatile and cannot be used (a) Performing Hardware Function
for auxiliary storage. (b) User Interface
(a) ROM (b) RAM
(c) Hardware Independence
(c) Bubble memory (d) Flash Memory
(d) Memory management
48. ______________ is an imaginary memory.
(a) Virtual memory (b) ROM 55.
Every computer could have different
(c) RAM (d) Bubble Memory specifications and configurations of hardware.
If application developers would have to rewrite
i
49. When RAM runs low, virtual memory moves
data from RAM to a space called a _____________. code for every configuration they would be in a
big trouble. Which of the following feature of an
d
(a) Debug files (b) Recycle bin
(c) Paging file (d) CMOS operating system deals with the above problem?
e
50. Virtual memory is an allocation of __________ (a) Performing Hardware Function
space to help RAM. (b) User Interface
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(a) CMOS (b) ROM (c) Hardware Independence
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(c) Hard disk (d) Bubble memory (d) Memory management
56. Which of the following is not an example of a
SYSTEM SOFTWARE
r
system software?
51. Which of the following is an example of a system (a) Microsoft Windows 10
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software? (b) Mac OS X
(a) Microsoft Windows 10 (c) Linux
(d) Google Chorme
(b) Mac OS X
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57. GUI stands for ______________________.
(c) Linux
(a) Global User Interface
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(b) Graphical User Interface
52. ________________ allows the part of a computer (c) Graphical User Index
.
to work together by performing tasks like (d) Graphical User Index
transferring data between memory and disks
f
or rendering output onto a display device. NETWORK
(a) Operating system 58. ________________ is a collection of computers
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(b) Utility software and other hardware interconnected by
communication channels that allow sharing of
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(c) Interpreter
resources and information.
(d) Compiler
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(a) Computer Network
53. _______________ helps to analyse, configure, (b) Node
optimize and maintain the computer. (c) Terminal
(a) Operating system (d) Station
(b) Interpreter 59. A network is an interconnected set of devices
(c) Utility software known as _____________.
(d) Compiler (a) Nodes (b) Terminals
(c) Stations (d) All of the above
54. Which of the following feature of operating
system does efficient management of all 60. _______________ refers to the process of
peripheral devices, such as printer, hard-disk, deciding on how to communicate the data from
scanner, etc. and it also efficiently manages source to destination in a network.
efficiently different applications/software like (a) Routing (b) Bandwidth
MS-Office, printer’s software, etc. (c) Resilience (d) Contention
61. ________________ refers to the amount of data 67. What are the Objectives of DBMS
which can be sent across a network in given (a) To acquire information
time. (b) To assure information quality
(a) Resilience (b) Contention (c) To provide software tools so that users in
(c) Routing (d) Bandwidth the enterprise can access information they
62. ________________ refers to the ability of a require
network to recover from any kind of error like (d) All of the above
i
connection failure, loss of data, etc. 68. Which of the following statements about DBMS
(a) Routing (b) Bandwidth is true?
d
(c) Resilience (d) Contention (a) It is a collection of programs that enables
e
users to create and maintain a database.
63. _______________ refers to the situation that
(b) It is a general-purpose software system
arises when there is a conflict for some
that facilitates the processes of defining,
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common resource. constructing, manipulating, and sharing
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(a) Routing (b) Contention databases among various users and
(c) Bandwidth (d) Resilience applications.
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(c) A conceptual framework that defines
64. In computer networks, _________ refers to the the logical relationships among the data
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ability of a network to recover from any kind of elements needed to support a basic business
error like connection failure, loss of data etc. or other process.
(a) Routing (b) Resilience (d) All of the above

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(c) Contention (d) Bandwidth 69. Which of the following is an objectives of
DBMS?
DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
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(a) To know its information needs;
65. Which of the following statement about
(b) To acquiring that information;
.
database is correct?
(c) To organize that information in a meaningful
(a) A database system is basically a computer
f
way
based record keeping system.
(b) It is the collection of data, usually referred to (d) All of the above
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as the database, contains information about DATABASEMODELS
one particular enterprise. It maintains any
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70. Which of the following term is not used in
information that may be necessary to the
Relational Database Models?
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decision-making processes involved in the
management of the organization. (a) Relations (b) Attributes
(c) A database may be defined as a collection (c) Objects (d) Tables
of interrelated data stored together to serve 71. Which of these is not an example of Relational
multiple applications; the data is stored Database?
in such a way that it is independent of the (a) Access (b) MySQL
programs which use the data.
(c) Java (d) Oracle
72. Which of the following is a component of a
66. What are the Objectives of DBMS
telecommunications network?
(a) To know its information needs
(a) Terminals
(b) To acquiring that information
(b) Telecommunications processors
(c) To organize that information in a meaningful
(c) Computers
way
(d) all of the above
73. Which of these is not an example of Relational (a) Network database

Database? (b) Hierarchical database
(a) Access (b) MySQL (c) Object oriented database
(c) Java (d) Oracle (d) Relational database
74. Which of the following statement about DBMS 80. Which of the following is an advantage of a
is true? DBMS?
(a) Permitting data sharing
(a) DBMS are software that aid in organizing,
i
(b) Minimizing Data Redundancy
controlling and using the data needed by the
(c) Integrity can be maintained
application programme.
d
(b) They provide the facility to create and
81. Which of the following is an advantage of a
e
maintain a well-organized database.
Applications access the DBMS, which then DBMS?
v
accesses the data. (a) Program and file consistency
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(c) A set of computer programs that controls the (b) User-friendly
creation, maintenance, and utilization of the (c) Improved security
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databases of an organization. (d) All of the above
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ADVANTAGES/ DISADVANTAGE OF A DBMS
75. Child record can have _____________ parent
record. 82. Which of the following is an advantage of a
DBMS?
(a) One (b) Two
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(a) Achieving program/data independence
(c) Three (d) Four
(b) Integrity can be maintained
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76.
Hierarchically structured databases are
(c) Faster application development
___________ other database structures.
.
(a) More flexible than
83. Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) refers
f
(b) Flexible enough like
to ____________ a system.
(c) Less flexible than
(a) Conceiving (b) Designing
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(c) Implementing (d) All of the above
77. A ___________________ is structured into a
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series of two-dimensional tables. SOFTWARE/SYSTEM DEVELOPMENT LIFE CYCLE
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(a) Hierarchical database (SDLC)/ INFORMATION SYSTEM LIFE CYCLE
(b) Relational database 84. Arrange the following phases for developing an
(c) Object oriented database information system in the correct order:
(d) Network database i. System analysis
78. _____________________ is a logical data structure ii. System design
that allows many-to-many relationships iii. System maintenance
among data records. iv. System investigation
(a) Network database v. System implementation
(b) Hierarchical database (a) i, ii, iii, iv, v
(c) Relational database (b) iv, i, ii, v, iii
(d) Object oriented database (c) i, iv, vii, iii
79.
______________ provide a unique object (d) iii, iv, v, i, ii
identifier (OID) for each object.
85.
____________________ ensures that the 90. Coding and testing of the system and
organisation has sufficient hardware, software acquisition of hardware and software is done
and personnel resources to develop and in which of the following stage of SDLC?
support the proposed system. (a) System analysis
(a) Operational feasibility (b) System implementation
(b) Legal feasibility (c) System design
(c) Technical feasibility (d) System investigation
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(d) Schedule feasibility 91.
Examine current business, sending out
86. ____________________ is done to check the questionnaires and observations of the current
d
willingness and ability of management, procedures is done in which of the following
e
users and Information Systems staff in the stage of SDLC?
organisation to build and use the proposed (a) System implementation
v
system. (b) System design
i
(a) Technical feasibility (c) System investigation
(b) Operational feasibility (d) System analysis
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(c) Legal feasibility
92. ________________________ implies that while
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(d) Schedule feasibility the system runs satisfactorily, there is still
87. ____________________ finds out the possibility room for improvement.
of any conflict between the proposed system (a) Perfective Maintenance

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and legal requirements. (b) Adaptive Maintenance
(a) Legal feasibility (c) Corrective Maintenance
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(b) Technical feasibility (d) All of the above
(c) Operational feasibility
.
93. All systems will need to adapt to changing
(d) Schedule feasibility needs within a company.Which of the following
f
88. _____________________ study is done to find out implies the above said errors?
that how long this system will take to develop (a) Perfective Maintenance
o
and how can it be completed in a desired time (b) Adaptive Maintenance
frame.
(c) Corrective Maintenance
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(a) Technical feasibility
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(b) Operational feasibility
94. Problems frequently surface after a system
(c) Legal feasibility
has been in use for a short time, however
(d) Schedule feasibility thoroughly it was tested. ________________
89. __________________________ is done to measure states that any errors must be corrected.
the costs and benefits of the new system. (a) Perfective Maintenance
(a) Economic feasibility (b) Corrective Maintenance
(b) Technical feasibility (c) Adaptive Maintenance
(c) Operational feasibility (d) All of the above
(d) Legal feasibility
RECENT TECHNOLOGIES/ DEVICES 98. Android is an operating system based on the

95. The iPod is a line of portable media players _____________ with a user interface based
designed and marketed by ________________. on direct manipulation, designed primarily
for touchscreen mobile devices such as
(a) Google (b) Motorola
smartphones and tablet computers, using
(c) Apple (d) Xiomi
touch inputs, that loosely correspond to real-
96. Wi-Fi stands for ______________________. world actions, like swiping, tapping, pinching,
i
(a) Wireless fidelity and reverse pinching to manipulate on-screen
(b) Wireless federation objects, and a virtual keyboard.
d
(c) Wireless fragmentation (a) Mac (b) IOS
(d) 802.11 × Standard of IEEE (c) Linux kernel (d) All of the above
e
97. PDA stands for _____________________.
v
(a) Personal Digital Assistant
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(b) Private Digital Assistant
(c) Personal Device Assistant
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(d) Private Device Assistant
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O m
Answer Keys - MCQs
f .
o
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(d) (d) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (c) (d) (b) (a) (d) (a)
r
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (b) (d) (b) (a) (c) (d) (d) (b) (b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b) (d) (a)
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41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d) (b) (a) (c) (c) (d) (a) (c) (a) (c) (d) (b) (a) (d) (a)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(d) (c) (b) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (c) (c) (d) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (a) (c) (d)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (d) (a) (b) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c)
30-04-2019
EIS-SM Test Series

(With MCQs)
5 Mock With
Evaluation
Papers
Prof. Om Trivedi
Visiting Faculty of NIRC & WIRC of ICAI,
Ext. Subject Expert at the BOS of ICAI,
IIM-C Alumnus
EIS Fast Track 60 Hours

For May 2019 2 Views
 100% Exam-oriented Lectures
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Prof. Om Trivedi
Order your PD @ 9953922272 IIM-C Alumnus, Visiting Faculty at NIRC and WIRC of ICAI,
External Subject Expert and Guest Faculty at BOS of the ICAI
4
c h a p t e r
7
Telecommunications
and Networks
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NETWORKING AN ENTERPRISE intranets, and inter-organizational extranets
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1. The Internet and Internet-like networks inside to support electronic business and commerce,
the enterprise are called ________________. enterprise collaboration, and strategic
advantage in local and global markets.
v
a. Intranets b. Extranets
i
(a) Industry trend
c. Setranets d. Telnets
(b) Technology trend
2. The Internet and Internet-like networks
r
(c) Application trend
between an enterprise and its trading partners
are called _________________. (d) All of the above
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a. Intranets b. Setranets 7. A telecommunications network is a collection
c. Extranets d. Telnets of _______________.
(a) Terminal nodes
TRENDS IN TELECOMMUNICATION (b) Links
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3. Which of the following is a potential trend in (c) Any intermediate nodes
tele-communication? (d) All of the above
O
(a) Industry trend 8. ____________________ are information systems
(b) Technology trend
.
that use common standards for hardware,
(c) Application trend software, applications, and networking.
f
(d) All of the above (a) Open systems (b) Middleware
4. ________________ are the trends towards more (c) Multiplexers (d) Synchronisers
o
competitive vendors, carriers, alliances, and 9. __________________________ is a general term
network services, accelerated by deregulation for any programming that serves to glue
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and the growth of the Internet and the together or mediate between two separate, and
WorldWide Web. usually already existing, programs.
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(a) Industry trend (a) Middleware (b) Multiplexers
(b) Technology trend (c) Open systems (d) Synchronisers
(c) Application trend 10.
_________________________ is commonly
(d) All of the above known as the plumbing of an information
5. ____________________ is the trend towards system because it routes data and information
extensive use of Internet, digital fiber-optic, transparently between different back-end data
and wireless technologies to create high-speed sources and end-user applications.
local and global internet works for voice, data, (a) Middleware (b) Open systems
images, audio, and video communications. (c) Multiplexers (d) Synchronisers
(a) Industry trend 11. What are the advantages of a Computer
(b) Technology trend Network in an Organization?
(c) Application trend (a) File Sharing
(d) All of the above (b) Remote access
6. ______________________ is the trend towards (c) Resource Sharing
the pervasive use of the Internet, enterprise (d) All of the above
TELECOMMUNICATION NETWORK (a) Multiplexer (b) NIC

12. Which of the following is a component in a (c) Modem (d) Switch
telecommunications network?
INTERNETWORK PROCESSOR
(a) Terminals
20. ___________ is a communications processor
(b) Tele-communications processors
that interconnects networks based on different
(c) Tele-communications channels rules or protocols, so that a telecommunications
(d) All of the above message can be routed to its destination.
i
13. _______________ are the starting and stopping (a) NIC (b) Router
points in any telecommunication network
(c) Modem (d) Multiplexer
environment.
d
(a) Terminals 21. ____________________ is the process of deciding
(b) Tele-communications processors on how to communicate the data from source
e
to destination, in a network.
(c) Tele-communications channels
(d) Telecommunication software (a) Routing (b) Multiplexing
v
14. __________________________ support data (c) Virtualisation (d) Routing
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transmission and reception between terminals 22. A ____________ is a gizmo that gives your
and computers by providing a variety of control network signals a boost so that the signals can
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and support functions. travel farther.
(a) Terminals (a) Hub (b) Switch
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(b) Tele-communications processors (c) Repeater (d) Bridge
(c) Tele-communications channels
(d) Telecommunication software TELECOMMUNICATION MEDIA/ CHANNELS
TELECOMMUNICATION PROCESSOR
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23. Which of the following is a type of guided
15. _______________ is a card installed in a computer media?
that enables the computer to communicate (a) Twisted Pair Copper Cable
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over a network. (b) Coaxial Copper Cable

(a) NIC (b) Modem
.
(c) Fibre Optic Cable
(c) Multiplexer (d) Switch (d) All of the above
16. ____________________ is a device that converts
f
signals the computer understands into signals 24. Which of the following is a type of guided
that can be accurately transmitted over the media?
o
phone to another modem, which converts the (a) Fibre Optic Cable
signals back into their original form. (b) Infrared Waves
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(a) Hub (b) Modem (c) Communication Satellites
(c) Multiplexer (d) NIC (d) Micro Waves
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17. _______________________ is a form of data 25. Which of the following is a type of unguided
transmission in which one communication media?
channel carries several transmissions at the (a) Terrestrial Microwave
same time. (b) Radio Waves
(a) Hub (b) Modem (c) Micro Waves
(c) NIC (d) Multiplexer (d) All of the above
18. Modem is an abbreviation of _________________. 26. ______________________ transmits high-speed
(a) Modern-demodulator radio signals in a line-of-sight path between
(b) Mechanised-demodulator relay stations spaced approximately 30 miles
(c) Modulator-demodulator apart.
(d) None of the above (a) Terrestrial microwave
19. _______________ is a device that combines large (b) Radio waves
number of low speed transmission lines into (c) Microwaves
high speed line. (d) Infrared waves
Te l e com m u n i cati o n s a n d N e t wo r k s 39
27.
_______________________ are an invisible 34. Radio waves are most commonly used
form of electromagnetic radiation that varies transmission media in the __________________.
in wavelength from around a millimetre to (a) LAN (b) MAN
100,000 km. (c) WAN (d) PAN
(a) Terrestrial microwave
(b) Radio waves funcational based classification
(c) Microwaves 35. Which of the following is functional based
(d) Infrared waves classification of telecommunication network?
i
28. _______________________ are most commonly (a) Client-Server (b) Peer-to-Peer
used transmission media in the wireless Local (c) Multi-Tier (d) All of the above
d
Area Networks. 36. Which of the following is functional based
(a) Terrestrial microwave classification of telecommunication network?
e
(b) Microwaves (a) Client-Server
(c) Radio waves (b) Public Network
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(d) Infrared waves (c) Private Network
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29. Microwaves have wavelengths ranging from as (d) Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
37. Which of the following is ownership-based
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long one meter to as short as one millimetre,
or equivalently, with frequencies between 300 classification of telecommunication network?
MHz (0.3 GHz) and 300 GHz. (a) Public Network
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(a) Communication satellite (b) Private Network
(b) Terrestrial microwave (c) Virtual Private Network (VPN)
(c) Infrared waves (d) All of the above
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(d) Microwaves 38. Which of the following is ownership-based
classification of telecommunication network?
30. A satellite is some solar-powered electronic
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(a) Virtual Private Network (VPN)

device that _______________ signals.
(b) Public Network
(a) Receives (b) Amplifies
.
(c) Multi-Tier
(c) Retransmits (d) All of the above (d) Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
f
Type of telecommunication network 39. A _________________ is defined as a network
shared and accessed by users not belonging to
a single organization.
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Area Based Classification
31. Which of the following is Area Coverage Based (a) Public data network
(b) Private data network
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Classification of telecommunication network?
(a) Local area Network (LAN) (c) Virtual data network
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(d) none of the above
(b) Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
40. _________________________ consists of two or
(c) Wide Area Network (WAN)
more internal networks (or intranets) which
(d) All of the above can communicate securely as if all internal
32. ______________________ is a network that spans hosts from different intranets belonged to the
a large geographic territory, such as an entire same virtual network.
city, region, or even an entire country. (a) Public data network
(a) WAN (b) LAN (b) Private data network
(c) PAN (d) MAN (c) Virtual data network
33. Which of the following is Area Coverage Based (d) none of the above
Classification of telecommunication network? 41. ___________________ covers areas such as
(a) Virtual Private Network (VPN) Offices, Classrooms, Buildings, Manufacturing
(b) Multi-Tier plant etc.
(c) Wide Area Network (WAN) (a) WAN (b) PAN
(d) Peer-to-Peer (c) LAN (d) MAN
42. The network computer that contains the hard characteristic of Client-Server architecture has
drives, printers, and other resources that are been highlighted in the above phrase?
shared with other network computers is called (a) Shared Resources
a ___________________. (b) Transparency of Location
(a) Node (b) Server (c) Scalability
(c) Client (d) User (d) Integrity
43. Any computer that’s not a ____________ is called 52. Client-Server software usually masks the
a client.
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location of the server from the clients by
(a) Node (b) Server redirecting the service calls when needed.
(c) Client (d) User Which of the following characteristic of Client-
d
44. A ____________ is a device that is connected to Server architecture has been highlighted in the
the network. above phrase?
e
(a) Node (b) Packet (a) Shared Resources
(c) Topology (d) All of the above (b) Transparency of Location
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45. A __________________ is a message that is sent (c) Scalability
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over the network from one node to another (d) Integrity
node.
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53. The ideal Client-Server software is independent
(a) Node (b) Packet of hardware or Operating System software
(c) Topology (d) All of the above platforms.Which of the following characteristic
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46. Client computers can be classified as of Client-Server architecture has been
_____________________. highlighted in the above phrase?
(a) Fat (b) Thin (a) Shared Resources
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(c) Hybrid (d) All of the above (b) Transparency of Location
47. A ______________________ is a client that (c) Scalability
performs the bulk of any data processing
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(d) Mix and match
operations itself, and does not necessarily rely

on the server. 54. In a Client-Server architecture environment,
.
(a) Fat client (b) Thin client client workstations can either be added or
(c) Hybrid client (d) All of the above removed and also the server load can be
f
distributed across multiple servers. Which of
48. A ______________________ is a client that
the following characteristic of Client-Server
performs the bulk of any data processing
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architecture has been highlighted in the above
operations itself, and does not necessarily rely
phrase?
on the server.
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(a) Fat client (b) Thin client (a) Shared Resources
(c) Hybrid client (d) All of the above (b) Transparency of Location
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49. __________________ use the resources of the (c) Scalability
host computer. (d) Integrity
(a) Fat client (b) Thin client 55. The server code and server data is centrally
(c) Hybrid client (d) All of the above managed, which results in cheaper
50. A ________________ generally only presents maintenance and the guarding of shared
processed data provided by an application data integrity. At the same time, the clients
server, which performs the bulk of any required remain personal and independent.Which of
data processing. the following characteristic of Client-Server
(a) Fat client (b) Thin client architecture has been highlighted in the above
phrase?
(c) Hybrid client (d) All of the above
(a) Shared Resources
TYPES OF TELECOMMUNICATION NETWORK (b) Transparency of Location
51. A server can service many clients at the (c) Scalability
same time and regulate their access to the (d) Integrity
shared resources. Which of the following
MULTI TIER ARCHITECTURE (c) It is impractical for an organization which

56. A single computer that contains a database and requires two or more users to interact with
a front end to access the database is known as the organizational data stores at the same
___________________. time.
(a) Client-Server (b) Peer-to-Peer (d) All of the above
(c) Multi-Tier (d) Single-tier 64. Which of the following is an objective of
applying control in e-commerce environment?
57. A ____________ system requires only one stand-
(a) Prevent loss of Computer Hardware,
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alone computer.
Software and Personnel
(a) One-tier (b) Two-tier
(b) Prevent from high costs of computer Error
d
(c) Three-tier (d) N-tier (c) Safeguard assets from un-authorized access
58. A single computer that contains a database and (d) All of the above
e
a front end to access the database is known as 65. Which of the following is an advantage of two-
________. tier architecture?
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(a) One-tier (b) Two-tier (a) Since processing was shared between the
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(c) Three-tier (d) N-tier client and server, more users could interact
59. A ____________ system consists of a client and a with system.
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server. (b) Performance deteriorates if number of users
(a) One-tier (b) Two-tier is greater than 100.
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(c) Limited functionality in moving the program
(c) Three-tier (d) N-tier
or programs across servers.
60. In ______________ system, the database is (d) All of the above
stored on the server, and the interface used to 66. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a
access the database is installed on the client.
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two- tier architecture?
(a) Two-tier (b) One-tier (a) Processing is shared between the client
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(c) Three-tier (d) N-tier and server, so more users can interact with

61. In _______________ system, the user system system.
.
interface is usually located in the user’ desktop (b) Performance deteriorates if number of users
and the database management services are is greater than 100.
f
usually in a server which is a more powerful (c) Limited functionality in moving the program
machine that services many clients. or programs across servers.
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(a) One-tier (b) Three-tier (d) Both b and c
(c) Two-tier (d) N-tier 67. A ____________ system can handle users only
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62. Which of the following is an advantage of single up to 100.
tier architecture? (a) One-tier (b) Three-tier
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(a) It also requires only one installation of (c) Two-tier (d) N-tier
proprietary software which makes it the 68. Which of the following is an advantage of 3 tier
most cost-effective system available. architecture, as compared to two tier system?
(b) Can be used by only one user at a time. (a) Improved scalability
(c) A single tier system is impractical for an (b) Improved data integrity
organization which requires two or more
(c) Improved security
users to interact with the organizational data
stores at the same time. (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above OWNERSHIP BASED CLASSIFICATION
63. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a 69. A _______________________ is defined as a
single tier architecture? network shared and accessed by users not
(a) A single-tier system requires only one stand- belonging to a single organization.
alone computer. (a) Public data network
(b) It also requires only one installation of (b) Private data network
proprietary software which makes it the (c) Virtual private network
most cost-effective system available.
70.
______________ is a network established (a) Centralized computing
and operated by a telecommunications (b) Cloud computing
administration, or a recognized private (c) Decentralised computing
operating agency, for the specific purpose of
(d) Grid computing
providing data transmission services for the
public. 76. In _________________________, the computer
(a) Public data network itself may control all the peripherals directly
(if they are physically connected to the central
computer) or they may be attached via a
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(c) Virtual private network terminal server.
(d) All of the above (a) Cloud computing
d
71. ________________________ provide businesses, (b) Decentralised computing
government agencies and organizations of (c) Grid computing
e
all sizes a dedicated network to continuously
(d) Centralized computing
receive and transmit data critical to both the
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daily operations and mission critical needs of 77. _________________________ is the allocation
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the organization. of resources, both hardware and software, to
(a) Public data network each individual workstation, or office location
which are capable of running independently of
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each other.
(c) Virtual private network
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(a) Cloud computing
(b) Decentralised computing
72. A ______________________emulates a private (c) Grid computing
network over public or shared and therefore
(d) Centralized computing
insecure infrastructures.
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(a) Public data network 78. ___________________________ enable file sharing
and all computers can share peripherals such
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as printers and scanners as well as modems,
(c) Virtual private network allowing all the computers in the network to
.
(d) All of the above connect to the Internet.
73. ________________________ consists of two or (a) Cloud systems
f
more internal networks (or intranets) which (b) Decentralised systems
can communicate securely as if all internal (c) Grid systems
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hosts from different intranets belonged to the
(d) Centralized systems
same virtual network.
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(a) Public data network NETWORK TOPOLOGY
(b) Virtual private network 79. In ___________________ the nodes are strung
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(c) Private data network together in a line.
(d) All of the above (a) Bus topology (b) Mesh topology
(c) Star topology (d) Ring topology
NETWORK COMPUTING
80. In a _______________, packets are sent around
74. In network computing, network computersand
the circle from computer to computer.
other thin clients provide a browser-based
user interface for processing small application (a) Bus topology (b) Mesh topology
programs called ________________. (c) Star topology (d) Ring topology
(a) Astrolls (b) Batrals 81. ________________ has multiple connections
(c) Applets (d) Ballets between each of the nodes on the network
75. _____________________________ is computing (a) Bus topology (b) Mesh topology
done at a central location, using terminals that (c) Star topology (d) Ring topology
are attached to a central computer.
82. Which of the following is an advantage of ring (b) Parallel transmission

topology? (c) Asynchronous transmission
(a) It requires least amount of cable to connect (d) Synchronous transmission
the computers together.
89.
In ________________, there are separate,
(b) This topology is very reliable. If direct link parallel paths corresponding to each bit of the
between 2 nodes breaks down, there exists byte so that all character bits are transmitted
an alternate path. simultaneously.
(c) It is more reliable since communication (a) Serial transmission
i
between 2 computers is not dependent on a
(b) Parallel transmission
single host computer.
(c) Asynchronous transmission
d
(d) It is easy to extend the network. 2 Cables can
be joined together with a connector, making (d) Synchronous transmission
e
a longer cable. With this more number of 90. In ______________________, each character is
computers can be connected to the network. sent at irregular intervals in time as in the case
of characters entered at the keyboard in real
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83. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of
time.
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mesh topology?
(a) It is very difficult to diagnose network (a) Serial transmission
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problems. (b) Parallel transmission
(b) Adding or replacing a node will disturb the (c) Asynchronous transmission
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entire network. (d) Synchronous transmission
(c) The cost of installation and maintenance is 91. In __________________, the transmitter and
high (more cable is required than any other receiver are paced by the same clock.
topology) (a) Serial transmission
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(d) If there is a problem with main cable, the (b) Parallel transmission
entire network goes down.
(c) Asynchronous transmission
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TRANSMISSION MODES (d) Synchronous transmission
.
84. In which of the following mode of transmission, TRANSMISSION TECHNIQUES
data can be communicated in both the
92. In this ______________________ transmission
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directions but one at a time.
technique a permanent path is establish
(a) Simple duplex (b) Half duplex
between sender and receiver for the duration
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(c) Full duplex (d) All of the above of data communication.
85. TV advertisement is an example of which of the (a) Circuit switching
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following type of transmission? (b) Message switching
(a) Simple duplex (b) Half duplex (c) Packet switching
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(c) Full duplex (d) All of the above (d) All of the above
86. Walky-talky is an example of which of the 93. ____________________ is the oldest
following type of transmission? technique of data communication and this
(a) Simple duplex (b) Half duplex technique provide inefficient utilization of
(c) Full duplex (d) All of the above communication channel.
87. Mr. Jack Welch was talking to his secretary on (a) Message switching
his smartphone, this type of transmission of (b) Circuit switching
data is called ___________________. (c) Packet switching
(a) Simple duplex (b) Half duplex (d) All of the above
(c) Full duplex (d) All of the above 94. ___________________ is the latest technique of
data communication.
TRANSMISSION TECHNOLOGY
(a) Message switching
88. In ________________, the bits of each byte are
(b) Circuit switching
sent along a single path one after another.
(c) Packet switching
(a) Serial transmission
95. In this technique the data is communicated THE OSI MODEL

in the form of packets between sender and 102. Which of the following layer of the OSI model
receiver. governs the layout of cables and devices such
(a) Packet switching as repeaters and hubs?
(b) Message switching (a) Data Link (b) Physical
(c) Circuit switching (c) Network (d) Transport
(d) All of the above 103. Which of the following layer of the OSI model
i
96. In this technique many packets of common provides MAC addresses to uniquely identify
destinations are combined together in the form network nodes and a means for data to be sent
of a message for communication to a common over the Physical layer in the form of packets?
d
destination. (a) Data Link (b) Physical
(a) Packet switching (c) Network (d) Transport
e
(b) Message switching 104. Which of the following layer of the OSI model
(c) Circuit switching
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handles routing of data across network
(d) All of the above segments?
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(a) Physical (b) Data Link
NETWORK ARCHITECTURE AND PROTOCOLS
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(c) Network (d) Transport
97. ___________________ refers to the layout of the
network, consisting of the hardware, software, 105. Which of the following layer of the OSI model
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connectivity, communication protocols provides for reliable delivery of packets?
and mode of transmission, such as wired or (a) Physical (b) Data Link
wireless. (c) Network (d) Transport
(a) Network architecture
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(b) Protocols 106. Which of the following layer of the OSI
model establishes sessions between network
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(c) Layout
(d) All of the above applications?

(a) Session (b) Presentation
.
98. A ______________ is a set of rules that enables
effective communications to occur. (c) Application (d) Physical
f
(a) Network architecture 107. Which of the following layer of the OSI model
(b) Protocols converts data so that systems that use different
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(c) Layout data formats can exchange information?
(d) All of the above (a) Session (b) Application
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(c) Presentation (d) Physical
99. Which of the following type of protocol is a
format of data, character set used, type of error 108. Which of the following layer of the OSI model
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correction used, and type of encoding scheme allows applications to request network
used? services?
(a) Syntax (b) Semantics (a) Session (b) Application
(c) Timing (d) None of the above (c) Presentation (d) Physical
100. Which of the following type of protocol is a type 109. The ________________ which provides services
and order of messages used to ensure reliable directly to the users such as e-mail.
and error free information transfer? (a) Transport Layer
(a) Syntax (b) Semantics (b) Internet Layer
(c) Timing (d) None of the above (c) Application Layer
101. Which of the following type of protocol defines (d) Network Interface Layer
data rate selection and correct timing for 110. The _________________ which provides end-to-
various event a during data transfer? end communication between applications and
(a) Syntax (b) Semantics verifies correct packet arrival.
(c) Timing (d) None of the above (a) Application Layer
(b) Transport Layer
(c) Internet Layer (d) All of the above

(d) Network Interface Layer
THREATS AND VULNERABILITES
111. The ___________________ which provides packet
routing for error checking and addressing and 118. ____________________ threats originate mostly
integrity. from inexperienced individuals using easily
available hacking tools from the Internet.
(a) Internet Layer
(a) Structured (b) Unstructured
(b) Application Layer
(c) Internal (d) External
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(c) Transport Layer
(d) Network Interface Layer 119. ______________________ threats originate from
individuals who are highly motivated and
d
112. The _____________________ which provides an technically competent and usually understand
interface to the network hardware and device network systems design and the vulnerabilities
e
drivers. of those systems.
(a) Application Layer (a) Structured (b) Unstructured
v
(b) Transport Layer (c) Internal (d) External
i
(c) Internet Layer
120. _____________________ threats originate
(d) Network Interface Layer from individuals or organizations working
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113. _______________________ can also be called the outside an organization, which does not have
Data Link Layer. authorized access to organization’s computer
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(a) Application Layer systems or network.
(b) Network Interface Layer (a) Structured (b) Unstructured
(c) Transport Layer (c) Internal (d) External
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(d) Internet Layer 121. ___________________ threats originate from
individuals who have authorized access to the
TCP/IP PROTOCOL SUITE network.
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114. TCP stands for _________________. (a) Structured (b) Unstructured
(a) Transmission Control Protocol
.
(c) Internal (d) External
(b) Transport Control Protocol 122. A vulnerability is an inherent weakness in
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(c) Transmission communication Protocol the _____________ of a network or system that
(d) Transport communication Protocol renders it susceptible to a threat.
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115. __________________________, the protocol on (a) Design (b) Configuration
which the Internet is built, is actually not a (c) Implementation (d) All of the above
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single protocol but rather an entire suite of 123. Buffer overflow, failure to handle exceptional
related protocols. conditions, access validation error, input
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(a) TCP/IP (b) HTTPS validation errors are examples of _________.
(c) HTTP (d) SSH (a) Timing Windows
116. TCP is a _________________________ transport (b) Software bugs
layer protocol. (c) Insecure default configurations
(a) Connection oriented (d) Bad Protocols
(b) Application oriented 124. _____________________ may occur when a
(c) Network oriented temporary file is exploited by an intruder to
(d) Data link oriented gain access to the file, overwrite important
data, and use the file as a gateway for advancing
NETWORK RISKS, CONTOLS AND SECURITY further into the system.
117. Computer and network security is implemented (a) Timing Windows
________________________. (b) Software bugs
(a) To protect company assets (c) Insecure default configurations
(b) To gain a competitive advantage (d) Bad Protocols
(c) To comply with regulatory requirements and
judicial responsibilities
125. ______________________ occur when vendors network security techtntiques

use known default passwords to make it as 131. Cryptography ___________________.
easy as possible for consumers to set up new
(a) Protects data from theft alteration
systems.
(b) Protects data from theft
(a) Software bugs
(c) Can also be used for user authentication
(b) Timing Windows
(c) Insecure default configurations
(d) Bad Protocols 132. _________________________ is the study of
i
techniques to defeat cryptographic techniques.
LEVELS OF SECURITY (a) Encryption (b) Decryption
d
126. Report generation includes ___________. (c) Cryptanalysis (d) All of the above
(a) Documenting the findings of the review 133. ____________________ is the process of
e
(b) Recommending new asset safeguarding transforming information to make it
techniques unreadable to anyone except those possessing
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(c) Recommending the levels of security to the key.
i
be followed for individual end users and (a) Encryption (b) Decryption
systems. (c) Cryptanalysis (d) All of the above
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(d) All of the above 134. Which of the following statement about
127. _________________ is the process of proving encryption is true?
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one’s identity. (a) It is the process of transforming information
(a) Privacy/confidentiality to make it unreadable to anyone except those
(b) Integrity possessing a key
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(c) Authentication (b) It is the changing of plaintext into cipher-
(d) Non-repudiation text.
(c) It is the reverse process of decryption.
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128. ____________________ refers to ensuring that no
one can read the message except the intended (d) All of the above
.
receiver. 135. The result of the process is encrypted
(a) Authentication information is referred to as ____________.
f
(b) Privacy/confidentiality (a) Plain text (b) Key
(c) Integrity (c) cipher text (d) none of the above
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(d) Non-repudiation 136. The reverse procedure of encryption is called
129. ___________________ ensures the receiver that ________________.
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the received message has not been altered in (a) Cryptanalysis (b) Decryption
any way from the original. (c) Either a or b (d) Both a and b
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(a) Integrity 137. Which of the following statement about
(b) Authentication decryption is true?
(c) Privacy/confidentiality (a) The reverse procedure of encryption is called
(d) Non-repudiation decryption
130. ______________________ refers to a mechanism (b) In decryption, when cipher text is applied
to prove that the sender really sent this to decryption also then original plaintext is
message. generated.
(a) Authentication (c) Keys are used to decrypt a message.
(b) Privacy/confidentiality (d) All of the above
(c) Integrity 138. Keys are used to _______________ a message.
(d) Non-repudiation (a) Encrypt (b) Decrypt
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
139. Encryption and Decryption algorithms are NETWORK ADMINISTRATION AND MANAGEMENT
__________ but keys may be and may not be 146. Network management refers to the activities,
_________________. methods, procedures, and tools that pertain
(a) Different, same (b) Different, different to the _______________________ of networked
(c) Same, same (d) Same, different systems.
(a) Operation (b) Administration
NETWORK SECURITY PROTOCOLS
(c) Maintenance (d) All of the above
140. HTTPS stands for ____________________.
i
147. _________________ deals with keeping the
(a) Secure Hypertext Transmission Protocol
network (and the services that the network
(b) Secure Hypertext Transport Protocol provides) up and running smoothly.
d
(c) Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol (a) Administration (b) Maintenance
(d) Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol (c) Operation (d) Provisioning
e
141. SFTP stands for ___________________. 148. ___________________ deals with keeping track
(a) Secure Field Transfer Protocol
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of resources in the network and how they are
assigned.
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(b) Secure File Transfer Protocol
(c) Secure File Transmission Protocol (a) Operation (b) Administration
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(d) Secure File Transport Protocol (c) Maintenance (d) Provisioning
142. _________________ are systems which control 149. ___________________________ includes all the
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the flow of traffic between the Internet and the “housekeeping” that is necessary to keep the
Firm’s internal LANs and systems. network under control.
(a) Anti-virus (b) SSL (a) Administration (b) Operation
(c) HTTPS (d) Firewalls (c) Maintenance (d) Provisioning
m
143. Which of the following is a feature of a good 150. _____________________ is concerned with
firewall? performing repairs and upgrades.
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(a) All traffic between the outside network and (a) Operation (b) Administration
the organizations Intranet must pass through (c) Maintenance (d) Provisioning
.
the Firewall.
151. _________________ is concerned with
(b) Only authorized traffic between the
f
configuring resources in the network to
organization and the outside, as specified support a given service.
by formal Security Policy, is allowed to pass
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(a) Operation (b) Administration
through the Firewall.
(c) Maintenance (d) Provisioning
(c) The Firewall must be immune to penetration
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from both outside and inside the 152. The goal of _______________________ is to
organization. recognize, isolate, correct and log faults that
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(d) All of the above occur in the network.
(a) Accounting management
144. ___________________ is a software-based
approach that prohibits access to certain (b) Configuration management
Web sites that are deemed inappropriate by (c) Fault management
management. (d) Performance Management
(a) Site Blocking (b) HID 153. __________________________________ monitors
(c) NID (d) NNID network and system configuration information
145. ________________________ are designed to so that the impact on network operations
monitor, detect and respond to user and system (hardware and software elements) can be
activity and attacks on a given host. tracked and managed.
(a) Firewall (b) HID (a) Fault management
(c) NID (d) NNID (b) Accounting management
(c) Configuration management
(d) Performance Management
154. ________________________ is concerned with (a) Performance Management

tracking network utilization information, such (b) Fault management
that individual users, departments, or business (c) Accounting management
units can be appropriately billed or charged for
(d) Configuration management
accounting purposes.
(a) Fault management 156. ___________________________ controls access
to network resources as established by
(b) Accounting management
organizational security guidelines.
(c) Performance Management
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(a) Fault management
(b) Accounting management
155. ____________________ measures and makes (c) Security Management
d
network performance data available so
that performance can be maintained and
e
acceptable thresholds.
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T r
O m
.
Answer Keys - MCQs
f
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(a) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (d) (d) (a) (b) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b)
o
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(d) (c) (d) (a) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (a) (c) (a) (d) (a) (d) (b) (a) (c)
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41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
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(c) (b) (b) (a) (b) (d) (a) (a) (b) (b) (a) (b) (d) (c) (d) (d) (a) (a) (b) (a)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(c) (a) (c) (d) (a) (d) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b) (c) (b) (c) (a) (d) (b) (b) (a) (d)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(b) (c) (d) (a) (a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(c) (b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (b) (a) (d) (b) (a) (a) (c) (d) (a) (b) (d)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
(c) (d) (b) (a) (c) (d) (c) (b) (a) (d) (d) (c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c)
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156
(b) (d) (d) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b) (a) (c) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (c)
30-04-2019
1
c h a p t e r
8
Internet and other Technologies
i
d
THE INTERNET REVOLUTION (d) Credit authorization at the point of sale using
e
1. Which of the following is not a feature of the online POS networks.
Internet? 4. Which of the following is an example of
v
(a) It does not have a central computer system business application of telecommunication
i
or telecommunications centre. network to overcome cost barriers?
(b) Instead, each message sent on the Internet (a) Use the Internet and extranets to transmit
r
has a unique address code so any Internet customer orders from traveling sales
server in the network can forward it to its people to a corporate data centre for order
T
destination. processing and inventory control.
(c) It does not have a headquarters (b) Desktop video conferencing between a
(d) Its use is declining from time to time company and its business partners using the
Internet, intranets, and extranets.
2. Which of the following is an example of
m
(c) Credit authorization at the point of sale using
business application of telecommunication
online POS networks.
network to overcome geographic barriers?
O
(d) Business-to-business electronic commerce
(a) Use the Internet and extranets to transmit
Web sites for transactions with suppliers and
customer orders from traveling sales
.
customers using the Internet and extranets.
people to a corporate data centre for order
processing and inventory control. 5. Which of the following is an example of
f
(b) Credit authorization at the point of sale using business application of telecommunication
online POS networks. network to overcome structural barriers?
o
(c) Desktop videoconferencing between a (a) Use the Internet and extranets to transmit
company and its business partners using the customer orders from traveling sales
r
Internet, intranets, and extranets. people to a corporate data centre for order
processing and inventory control.
(d) Business-to-business electronic commerce
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Web sites for transactions with suppliers and (b) Credit authorization at the point of sale using
customers using the Internet and extranets. online POS networks.
(c) Business-to-business electronic commerce
3. Which of the following is an example of
business application of telecommunication
network to overcome time barriers?
(d) Desktop video conferencing between a
(a) Use the Internet and extranets to transmit
company and its business partners using the
customer orders from traveling sales
Internet, intranets, and extranets.
people to a corporate data centre for order
processing and inventory control. NETWORK AND THE INTERNET
(b) Desktop videoconferencing between a 6. _________________ is a company’s private
company and its business partners using the network accessible only to the employees of
Internet, intranets, and extranets. that company.
(c) Business-to-business electronic commerce (a) Extranet
(b) Intranet
(c) Internet architecture
(d) Internet 14. ___________ supports data rate of about 3 Mbps.

7. The purpose of ________________________ is to (a) ASDL connection
distribute data or information to employees, (b) VSDL connection
to make shared data or files available, and to (c) SDSL connection
manage projects within the company. (d) All of the above
(a) Extranet
15. VDSL Connection stands for ______________.
(b) Internet architecture
(a) Very High Digital Subscriber Language
(c) Internet
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(b) Very High Digital Subscriber Line
(d) Intranet
(c) Virtual High Digital Subscriber Line
8. An ________________ offers access to selected
d
(d) Virtual High Digital Subscriber Language
outsiders
16. What is the business use of the Internet?
e
(a) Extranet
(a) Strategic business alliances
(b) Internet architecture
(b) Providing customer and vendor support
v
(c) Internet
(c) Collaboration among business partners
i
(d) Intranet
9. Extranets allow business partners to exchange
r
information.
(a) Internet architecture (a) Buying and selling products and services
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(b) Internet (b) Marketing, sales, and customer service
applications
(c) Intranet
(c) Growth of cross-functional business
(d) Extranet
applications
m
INTERNET APPLICATIONS (d) All of the above
10. ADSL stands for ____________________. 18. What is the business use of the Internet?
O
(a) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Language (a) Emergence of applications in engineering,
(b) Algometrical Digital Subscriber Line manufacturing, human resources and
.
accounting.
(c) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
(b) Enterprise communications and
f
(d) Algometrical Digital Subscriber Language
collaboration
11. _____________________ supports a data rate of (c) Attracting new customers with innovative
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about 1.5 to 9 Mbps for downloading and upto marketing and products.
640 kbps while uploading.
r
(a) SDSL connection

(b) VSDL connection
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(a) Retaining present customers with improved
(c) ASDL connection
customer service and support.
(b) Developing new web-based markets and
12. SDSL Connection stands for __________. distribution channels for existing products.
(a) Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line (c) Developing new information-based
(b) Similar Digital Subscriber language products accessible on the Web.
(c) Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line (d) All of the above
(d) Similar Digital Subscriber language 20. What is the business use of the Internet?
13. ____________________ supports same data rate (a) Generating revenue through electronic
for uploading and downloading. commerce applications is a growing source
(a) ASDL connection of business value.
(b) SDSL connection (b) Electronic commerce
(c) VSDL connection (c) Enterprise communications and
(d) All of the above collaboration
I nte r ne t a n d o th e r Te ch n o l o gi e s 51
INTRANET AND EXTRANET 27. It provides low cost online services to the
21. __________________ is an internal corporate organizations’ __________.
network built using Internet and World Wide (a) Employees (b) Owners
Web standards and products. (c) Associates (d) Partners
(a) Extranet E-COMMERCE
(b) Intranet 28. Which of the following organizations are open
(c) Internet architecture of for 24x7x365?
(a) E-commerce
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(d) Internet
22. __________________ are network links that (b) Traditional commerce
use Internet technologies to interconnect (c) Both a and b
d
the intranet of a business with the intranets (d) None of the above
of its customers, suppliers, or other business
e
29. Which of the following is an advantage of
partners.
e-commerce?
(a) Extranet
v
(a) Increases the profit margin of manufacturers.
(b) Intranet
i
(b) Allows manufacturers to give discounts to
(c) Internet architecture
customers.
(d) Internet
r
(c) Customers get better prices.
23. Companies use Extranets to ___________.
(a) Share product Catalogues exclusively with (d) All of the above
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wholesalers or Retailers in the Distribution 30.
In e-commerce customer interaction is
Channel _________________.
(b) Collaborate with other Companies on joint (a) Screen to face (b) Screen to screen
development efforts (c) Face to face (d) All of the above
m
(c) Provide or access services provided by one
31. Which of the following is a benefit to customers,
Company to a group of other Companies
O
given by e-commerce?
(a) Various options
24. Companies use Extranets to _________________.
.
(b) Time saving
(a) Jointly develop and use Training Programs
with other Companies (c) Reviews and coupons available
f
(b) Provide or access services provided by one (d) All of the above
Company to a group of other Companies 32. Which of the following is a benefit to sellers,
o
(c) Share news of common interest exclusively given by e-commerce?
with Partner Companies (a) Wide customer base
r

(b) Instant transactions
25. Intranet can be used for which of the following (c) Recurring payments made easy
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purposes? (d) All of the above
(a) Jointly develop and use Training Programs 33. Which of the following is a benefit to sellers,
with other Companies given by e-commerce?
(b) Provide or access services provided by one (a) Reduction in cost
Company to a group of other Companies
(b) Creation of new markets
(c) Share news of common interest exclusively
(c) Easier entry into new markets
with Partner Companies
(d) Intranets are used developing and deploying
critical business applications to support 34. Which of the following is a benefit to sellers,
business operations and managerial given by e-commerce?
decision making across the inter-networked (a) Reduction in error
enterprise. (b) Better quality of goods
26. Intranet provides low cost online services to (c) Reduction in cycle time
the organizations’ __________.
(a) Employees (b) Owners
(c) Associates (d) Partners
35. Which of the following is a component of 44. B2B stands for _________________.
e-commerce? (a) Boston-to-Business
(a) Warehouse operations (b) Business-to-Business
(b) Supply chain (c) Business-to-Boston
(c) Shipping and returns (d) Boston-to-Boston
(d) All of the above 45. C2C stands for ____________________.
36. Which of the following is a component of (a) Customer-to-corporates
i
e-commerce? (b) Corporates-to-customer
(a) Warehouse operations (c) Customer-to-customer
(b) Privacy policy
d
(d) Corporate-to-corporate
(c) Shipping and returns
E-COMMERCE GENERAL CONCERNS
e
37. Which of the following is a component of 46. In general consideration, paper is the prime
v
e-commerce? source of a certifiable audit trail. Without
i
(a) Mobile apps paper certification, the issue of the reliability
of electronic certification becomes a
(b) Payment gateways
management concern. Which of the following
r
(c) Web portals concern has been highlighted in the above
(d) All of the above phases?
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(a) Loss of audit trail
TYPES OF E-COMMERCE
(b) Business Continuity
38. _____________________ is simply e-commerce
(c) Exposure of data
between private individuals or consumers.
m
(d) Legal Risks
(a) C2C (b) B2B
(c) B2C (d) C2B 47. In an e-commerce environment, increased
O
dependence is placed on an electronic
39. OLX and Quikr are examples of ________. means of conducting business, the loss due
.
(a) B2B (b) B2C to E-Commerce Systems has the potential to
(c) C2C (d) C2B cripple an organization. Which of the following
f
40. ______________________ e-commerce is simply concern has been highlighted in the above
defined as e-commerce between companies. phases?
o
(a) C2C (b) B2B (a) Loss of audit trail
(c) B2C (d) C2B (b) Business Continuity
r
41. _____________________________ e-commerce is

defined as e-commerce between companies (d) Legal Risks
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and consumers. 48. In an e-commerce environment, data is shared
(a) C2C (b) B2B and organizations become connected to the
(c) C2B (d) B2C outside world, the possibility of data exposure
to Vendors, Service Providers, and Trading
42. Amazon and Flipkart are examples of Partners is significantly increased. Which of
_____________. the following concern has been highlighted in
(a) C2C (b) B2B the above phases?
(c) B2C (d) C2B (a) Loss of audit trail
43. A consumer posts his project with a set budget (b) Business Continuity
online and within hours companies review (c) Exposure of data
the consumer’s requirements and bid on the (d) Legal Risks
project. The above instant is an example of
which of the following types of E-commerce.
(a) C2C (b) B2B
(c) B2C (d) C2B
49. In an e-commerce environment, the inability (b) Faster time to market as business processes
to complete transactions or meet deadlines, or are linked, thus enabling seamless processing
the risk of inadvertently exposing information and eliminating time delays.
of trading partners poses significant legal (c) Optimization of resource selection as
risks. Which of the following concern has been businesses form cooperative teams to
highlighted in the above phases? increase the chances of economic successes,
(a) Loss of audit trail and to provide the customer products
(b) Business Continuity and capabilities more exactly meeting the
i
(c) Exposure of data requirements.
(d) Legal Risks (d) All of the above
d
50. In an e-commerce environment,electronic 54. What is the benefits of e-commerce application
information has the same legal and statutory and implementation?
e
requirements as paper information. (a) Reduction in inventories and reduction of
Organizations are responsible for the safe risk of obsolete inventories as the demand
v
storage, retention and retrieval of this for goods and services is electronically
i
information. Which of the following concern linked through just-in-time inventory and
has been highlighted in the above phases? integrated manufacturing techniques.
r
(a) Record retention and retrievability (b) Reduction in overhead costs through
(b) Business Continuity uniformity, automation, and large-scale
T
integration of management processes.
(c) Reduction in use of ecologically damaging
(d) Legal Risks
materials through electronic coordination of
BENEFITS/ RISKS OF E-COMMERCE activities and the movement of information
m
rather than physical objects.
51. What is the benefits of e-commerce application
and implementation?
O
(a) Reduction in costs to buyers from increased 55. What is the benefits of e-commerce application
competition in procurement. and implementation?
.
(b) Reduction in errors, time, and overhead (a) Reduction in advertising costs.
costs in information processing. (b) Creation of new markets through the
f
(c) Reduction in costs to suppliers by ability to easily and cheaply reach potential
electronically accessing on-line databases of customers.
o
bid opportunities, on-line abilities to submit (c) Easier entry into new markets, especially
bids, and on-line review of rewards. geographically remote markets, for
r
(d) All of the above enterprises regardless of size and location.

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and implementation? 56. Which of the following is not a befit of
(a) Reduction in time to complete business e-commerce?
transactions, particularly from delivery to (a) Reduction in costs to buyers from increased
payment. competition in procurement.
(b) Creation of new markets through the (b) Reduction in errors, time, and overhead
ability to easily and cheaply reach potential costs in information processing.
customers. (c) There is a lack of authenticity of transactions
(c) Easier entry into new markets, especially (d) Reduction in costs to suppliers by
geographically remote markets, for electronically accessing on-line databases of
enterprises regardless of size and location. bid opportunities, on-line abilities to submit
(d) All of the above bids, and on-line review of rewards.
and implementation?
(a) Better quality of goods as specifications are
standardized and competition is increased.
57. In e-commerce, there is need to identify 62. In an e-commerce environment, service

and authenticate users in the virtual global to customers may be denied due to non-
market where anyone can sell to or buy from availability of system as it may be affected by
anyone, anything from anywhere. Which of viruses, e-mail bombs and floods. Which of
the following risks in e-commerce has been the following risks in e-commerce has been
highlighted in the above phrases? highlighted in the above phrases?
(a) Repudiation of contract (a) Lack of authenticity of transactions
(b) Problem of anonymity (b) Data Loss or theft or duplication
i
(c) Lack of authenticity of transaction (c) Denial of Service
(d) Denial of service (d) Attack from hackers
d
58.
In e-commerce environment, there is 63. In an e-commerce environment,e-Commerce
possibility that the electronic transaction in transactions, as electronic records and digital
e
the form of contract, sale order or purchase by signatures may not be recognized as evidence
the trading partner or customer may be denied. in courts of law. Which of the following risks in
v
Which of the following risks in e-commerce has e-commerce has been highlighted in the above
i
been highlighted in the above phrases? phrases?
(a) Problem of anonymity (a) Non-recognition of electronic transactions
r
(b) Lack of authenticity of transaction (b) Lack of audit trails
(c) Repudiation of contract (c) Problem of piracy
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(d) Denial of service (d) Problem of anonymity
59. In an e-commerce environment, the electronic 64. In an e-commerce environment,Audit trails in
documents that are produced in the course e-Commerce system may be lacking and the
of an e-Commerce transaction may not be logs may be incomplete, too voluminous or
m
authentic and reliable. Which of the following easily tampered with. Which of the following
risks in e-commerce has been highlighted in risks in e-commerce has been highlighted in
O
the above phrases? the above phrases?
(a) Lack of authenticity of transactions (a) Non-recognition of electronic transactions.
.
(b) Data Loss or theft or duplication (b) Lack of audit trails
f
(c) Attack from hackers (c) Problem of piracy
(d) Denial of Service (d) Problem of anonymity
o
60. In an e-commerce environment, the data 65. In an e-commerce environment, Intellectual
transmitted over the Internet may be lost, property may not be adequately protected
r
duplicated, tampered with or replayed. Which when such property is transacted through
of the following risks in e-commerce has been e-Commerce. Which of the following risks in
P
highlighted in the above phrases? e-commerce has been highlighted in the above
(a) Lack of authenticity of transactions phrases?
(b) Data Loss or theft or duplication (a) Non-recognition of electronic transactions
(c) Attack from hackers (b) Lack of audit trails
(d) Denial of Service (c) Problem of piracy
61. In an e-commerce environment, web servers (d) Problem of anonymity
used for e-Commerce may be vulnerable 66. What are the risks involved in e-Commerce?
to hackers. Which of the following risks in (a) Lack of authenticity of transactions
e-commerce has been highlighted in the above (b) Data Loss or theft or duplication
phrases?
(c) Attack from hackers
(a) Lack of authenticity of transactions
(b) Data Loss or theft or duplication
67. What are the risks involved in e-Commerce?
(c) Denial of Service
(a) Problem of piracy
(d) Attack from hackers
(b) Problem of anonymity
(c) Repudiation of contract environment so the business have to do a

(d) All of the above smart pricing of their products and services
so as to make them competitive as that of their
68. What are the risks involved in e-Commerce?
competitors. The above phrase highlights
(a) Denial of Service which of the following advantage of an
(b) Non-recognition of electronic transactions e-commerce environment.
(c) Lack of audit trails (a) Providing wider reach
(d) All of the above (b) Reducing transaction costs
i
69. What are the key aspects to be considered in (c) Competitive pricing
implementing e-commerce? (d) Quick ordering facilities
d
(a) Implementing appropriate policies, 75. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of
standards and guidelines e-commerce?
e
(b) Performing cost benefit analysis and risk (a) Small screens of most devices still limit
assessment to ensure value delivery types of file and data transfer (i.e. streaming
v
(c) Implementing the right level of security videos, etc.)
i
across all layers and processes (b) WAP and SMS limited to small number of
(d) All of the above characters and text.
r
70. What are the key aspects to be considered in (c) Use of limited graphics.
implementing e-commerce? (d) Reducing transaction costs
T
(a) Establishing and implementing the right
level of baseline (best practice) controls
(b) Integration of e-Commerce with the business EFT SYSTEMS IN OPERATIONS
process and the physical delivery channels 76. ATM stands for _____________________.
m
(c) Providing adequate user training (a) Automated Talking Machine
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(b) Automated Teller Machine
(c) Automatic Teller Machine
MOBILE COMMERCE
.
(d) Automated Teller Mechanism
71. Which of the following is an advantage of 77. PIN stands for _____________________________.
m-commerce?
f
(a) Personal identification number
(a) Providing wider reach (b) Private identification number
(b) Reducing transaction costs
o
(c) Personal identity number
(c) Competitive pricing (d) Private identity number
r
(d) All of the above 78. The customer’s bank is usually referred to as

72. Mobile devices are called _______________ the _______________.
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because their transmission medium is a radio (a) Issuer bank
channel, or air interface. (b) Acquirer bank
(a) Wired (b) Wireless (c) Reserve bank of India
(c) Mobile (d) Flyings (d) Central bank
79. The _____________________ is usually referred
73. ___________________is e-commerce where
to as the issuer bank.
customers access the network using a mobile
(a) Merchant’s bank
device such as a mobile phone, or a smart
phone. (b) Government’s bank
(c) Reserve bank of India
(a) Mobile computing
(d) Customer’s bank
(b) Cloud commuting
80. The term __________________ denotes the bank
(c) B2C e-commerce that actually issued the payment instrument
(d) M-commerce that the customer uses for payment.
74. The e-commerce websites offer a huge range (a) Acquirer bank (b) Issuer bank
of options in commodities to choose from. (c) Central bank (d) Reserve bank of India
There are many competitors in an e-commerce
81. The ____________________ acquires payment 84. ___________________________ is a method of

records (i.e., paper charge slips or electronic automatically depositing to or withdrawing
data) from the merchants. funds from an individual’s account, when the
(a) Acquirer bank account holder authorizes the bank or a third
(b) Central bank party (such as an employer) to do so.
(c) Issuer bank (a) Automated teller machine
(d) Reserve bank of India (b) Point of sale (PoS) transaction
82.
The _____________________ serves as an (c) Telephone transfer
i
intermediary between the traditional payment (d) Pre-authorised transfers
infrastructure and the electronic payment 85.
Using _______________________, consumers
d
infrastructure. can transfer funds from one account to
(a) ECS mechanism (b) Payment gateway another through telephone instructions rather
e
(c) Banks (d) All of the above than traditional written authorization or
instrument.
83.
_____________________________ in general
v
denotes any kind of network (e.g., Internet) (a) Automated teller machine
i
service that includes the exchange of money (b) Point of sale (PoS) transaction
for goods or services. (c) Telephone transfer
r
(a) Core banking system (d) Pre-authorised transfers
(b) Electronic payment system
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(c) Electronic fund transfer system
O m
f .
r o
Answer Keys - MCQs
1
(d)
21
(b)
41
P2
(a)
22
(a)
42
3
(d)
23
(d)
43
4
(b)
24
(d)
44
5
(c)
25
(d)
45
6
(b)
26
(a)
46
7
(d)
27
(c)
47
8
(a)
28
(a)
48
9
(d)
29
(d)
49
10
(c)
30
(a)
50
11
(c)
31
(d)
51
12
(a)
32
(d)
52
13
(b)
33
(d)
53
14
(c)
34
(d)
54
15
(b)
35
(d)
55
16
(d)
36
(d)
56
17
(d)
37
(d)
57
18
(d)
38
(a)
58
19
(d)
39
(c)
59
20
(d)
40
(b)
60
(d) (c) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(d) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (d) (c) (d) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b)
81 82 83 84 85
(a) (b) (b) (d) (c)
c h a p t e r
9
Intro to business info system
i
d
INFORMATION SYSTEM CONCEPT 8. __________________ is data that has been
e
1. Data is _________________________. selected and organized into meaningful
patterns, and recorded by the human intellect.
(a) A collection of facts
v
(a) Information (b) Wisdom
(b) Collected as the result of experience,
i
observation or experiment, or processes (c) Knowledge (d) Experience
within a set of premises 9. Information is ________________ that has been
r
(c) Lowest level of abstraction processed so that they are meaningful.
(d) All of the above (a) Knowledge (b) Information
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2. Data consists of ____________________________. (c) Experience (d) Data
(a) Numbers (b) Words 10. Information is data that have been processed
(c) Images (d) All of the above so that they are ___________.
m
(a) Useless (b) Meaningful
3. ______________ is a collection of facts.
(c) Meaningless (d) All of the above
(a) Data (b) Knowledge
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(c) Experience (d) Information 11. Process explains the activities carried out by
__________.
4. ______________ is the lowest level of abstraction
.
(a) Users (b) Managers
from which __________ and _______________ are
derived. (c) Staff (d) All of the above
f
(a) Information; data; knowledge COMPONENTS OF INFORMATION SYSTEM
(b) Knowledge; Data; information
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12. Which of the following is not a component of
(c) Data; information; Experience Information Systems?
r
(d) Data; information; knowledge (a) People

5. _______________ is data that have been (b) Data
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processed so that they are meaningful. (c) Network
(a) Knowledge (b) Experience (d) Transaction Processing System
(c) Information (d) Wisdom 13. Information Systems (IS) can perform which
6. Information systems change data into of the following purpose for a business
_____________, which is useful and capable of enterprise?
giving a certain meaning to its users. (a) Support of business processes and
(a) Knowledge (b) Information operations.
(c) Experience (d) Wisdom (b) Support of decision making by employees
7. While ______________ is raw facts and figures, and managers.
_____________ is facts or figures ready for (c) Support of strategies for competitive
communication or use. advantage.
(a) Information; wisdom (d) All of the above
(b) wisdom; information 14. A business process ________________.
(c) Data; wisdom (a) Has a Goal
(d) Data; information (b) Has specific inputs
(c) Has specific outputs 20. __________________________ is used for the

(d) All of the above monitoring, controlling, decision-making,
and administrative activities of middles
15. A business process ________________.
management.
(a) Uses resources
(a) Management- Level Systems
(b) Has a number of activities that are performed
(b) Strategic Level Systems
in some order
(c) Knowledge- Level Systems
(c) Creates value of some kind for the customer.
(d) Operational- Level Systems
i
The customer may be internal or external.
(d) All of the above 21. ______________________________ support
discovery, processing and storage of knowledge
d
Organization Information System and and data workers.
Business pro uses (a) Strategic Level Systems
e
16. ________________________ is a standardized set (b) Knowledge- Level Systems
of activities that accomplish a specific task, (c) Management- Level Systems
v
such as processing a customer’s order. (d) Operational- Level Systems
i
(a) Business
22.
_________________________ ensure that
(b) Business process
r
business procedures are followed.
(c) Value creation (a) Strategic Level Systems
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(d) Business process automation (b) Management- Level Systems
17. A _____________________ is a coordinated and (c) Knowledge- Level Systems
standardized flow of activities performed (d) Operational- Level Systems
by people or machines, which can traverse
23. Strategic Level Systems is used by ___________.
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functional or departmental boundaries to
achieve a business objective that creates value (a) Middle Managers
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for internal or external customers. (b) Knowledge and data workers
(a) Business (c) Chief Executive Officers
.
(b) Value creation (d) Supervisors
(c) process 24. Management- Level Systems is used by
f
(d) Business process automation _______________.
(a) Middle Managers
INFORMATION SYSTEM AND THEIR ROLE IN
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(b) Chief Executive Officers
BUSINESSES
(c) Knowledge and data workers
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18. An information system can perform for a
(d) Supervisors
business enterprise:
25.
Knowledge- Level Systems is used by
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(a) Support of business processes and
operations. _____________________________.
(b) Support of decision making by employees (a) Middle Managers

and managers. (b) Knowledge and data workers
(c) Support of strategies for competitive (c) Supervisors
advantage. (d) Chief Executive Officers
(d) All of the above 26.
Operational- Level Systems is used by
19. ________________________________ is used to _____________________________.
track and deal with strategic issues, assisting (a) Middle Managers
long-range planning. (b) Supervisors
(a) Management- Level Systems (c) Knowledge and data workers
(b) Knowledge- Level Systems (d) Chief Executive Officers
(c) Strategic Level Systems
(d) Operational- Level Systems
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I nt ro to b u s i n e s s i n fo s ys te m 59
TRANSACTION PROCESSING SYSTEM 33. If an integrity constraint states that all

27. A ____________________________________ is a transactions in a database must have a
type of information system that collects, stores, positive value, any transaction with a negative
modifies and retrieves the day-to-day data value would be refused. This is an example of
transactions of an enterprise. ______________________.
(a) Management Information System (a) Consistency (b) Isolation
(b) Office Information System (c) Atomicity (d) Durability
(c) Transaction Processing System 34. ____________________ means that transactions
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(d) Decision Support System must appear to take place in seclusion.
(a) Consistency (b) Atomicity
28. A Transaction Processing System is a type of
d
information system that ________________ the (c) Isolation (d) Durability
day-to-day data transactions of an enterprise. 35. ____________________ means that a transaction
e
(a) Collects (b) Stores is either completed in full or not at all. TPS
systems ensure that transactions take place in
v
(c) Retrieves (d) All of the above
their entirety.
i
29. ____________________________________ are
(a) Consistency (b) Atomicity
mainly used by clerical staff performing such
(c) Isolation (d) Durability
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regular business activities as invoicing and
issuing of stock, following well defined business 36.
___________________ state that once
transactions are completed they cannot be
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procedures.
(a) Transaction Processing System undone.
(b) Management Information System (a) Consistency (b) Isolation
(c) Office Information System (c) Atomicity (d) Durability
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(d) Decision Support System 37. To ensure _________________________, even if
30. The users of _____________________________ the TPS suffers failure, a log will be created to
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____ tend to work at the lowest level of detail document all completed transactions.
as they process or query one transaction at a (a) Consistency (b) Durability
.
time, using computer systems to capture the (c) Isolation (d) Atomicity
raw data which reflects the business processes 38.
___________________________________ is a
f
of the organisation. computer-based information systems that
(a) Management Information System collect, process, store, and transmit electronic
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(b) Office Information System messages, documents, and other forms of
(c) Transaction Processing System office communications among individuals,
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(d) Decision Support System workgroups, and organizations.
(a) Management Information System
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31. __________________________ ensures that
people who are not authorized to use the (b) Office Automation System
system are not permissible to influence or (c) Transaction Processing System
transform the transaction process. (d) Decision Support System

(a) Equivalence
OFFICE AUTOMATION SYSTEMS (OAS)
(b) Access Control
39. Which of the following statements is true?
(c) Trustworthiness
(a) The Office Automation Systems (OAS) is
(d) High Volume Rapid Processing
amalgamation of hardware, software, and
32. __________________________ ensures that all other resources used to smooth the progress
transactions are processed in the similar format of communications and augment efficiency.
every time to ensure that full effectiveness is (b) Office automation refers to the use of
achieved. computer and software to digitally generate,
(a) Equivalence collect, store, manipulate, and relay office
(b) Trustworthiness information needed for accomplishing basic
(c) Access Control tasks and goals.
(d) High Volume Rapid Processing
(c) Office Automation Systems (OAS) is a 45. The goal of __________________________ is to

computer-based information system help knowledge workers create, organize, and
that collect, process, store, and transmit make available important business knowledge,
electronic messages, documents, and other wherever and whenever it’s needed in an
forms of office communications among organization.
individuals, workgroups, and organizations. (a) Office Automation System
(d) All of the above (b) Knowledge Management Systems
40. Which of the following activities can be (c) Transaction Processing System
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performed by Office Automation System? (d) Decision Support System
(a) Exchange of information 46. _______________________ facilitate
d
(b) Management of administrative documents organizational learning and knowledge
(c) Handling of numerical data creation.
e
(d) All of the above (a) Knowledge Management Systems
(b) Office Automation System
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KNOWLEDGE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (KMS)
(c) Transaction Processing System
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41. Knowledge ______________________________. (d) Decision Support System
(a) Is a much broader concept than information
47. Which of the following statements about
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(b) Consists of many pieces of related explicit knowledge is true?
information, and has a structure or
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(a) It is a knowledge which can be formalized
organisation whereby each piece of
easily and is easily available across the
information is linked to others
organization.
(c) Consists of knowing which action alternatives
(b) It is articulated and represented in the
are available and what information is
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form of spoken words, written material and
required before one can decide on a specific
compiled data.
course of action
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(c) This type of knowledge is codified, easy to
document, transfer and reproduce.
42. Wisdomis the combination of ________________
.
with ______________.
48. Which of the following statements about tacit
f
(a) Knowledge; Experience
knowledge is true?
(b) Data ; Experience
(a) It is the kind of knowledge that is difficult
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(c) Knowledge; Data to transfer to another person by means of
(d) None of the above writing it down or verbalizing it.
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43. ___________________ refers to any kind of IT (b) It resides in a few often-in just one person
system that stores and retrieves knowledge, and hasn’t been captured by the organization
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improves collaboration, locates knowledge or made available to others.
sources and mines repositories for hidden (c) Tacit knowledge is unarticulated and
knowledge. represented as intuition, perspective, beliefs,

(a) Office Automation System and values that individuals form based on
(b) Transaction Processing System their experiences.
(c) Knowledge Management Systems (d) All of the above
(d) Decision Support System 49. Which of the following statements about tacit
44. ________________________ treats the knowledge knowledge is true?
component of any organization’s activities as (a) It is a knowledge which can be formalized
an explicit concern reflected in strategy, policy, easily and is easily available across the
and practice at all levels of the organization. organization.
(a) Office Automation System (b) It is difficult to document and communicate
(b) Knowledge Management Systems the tacit knowledge.
(c) Transaction Processing System
(d) Decision Support System
I nt ro to b u s i n e s s i n fo s ys te m 61
(c) It is articulated and represented in the (a) Data mining

form of spoken words, written material and (b) Data discovery
compiled data. (c) Data transformation
(d) This type of knowledge is codified, easy to (d) All of the above
document, transfer and reproduce.
57.
Data warehouse databases contain
50. Which of the following statements about _____________ data.
explicit knowledge is true?
(a) Dynamic (b) Static
(a) It is a knowledge which can be formalized
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(c) Either a or b (d) Both a and b
easily and is easily available across the
organization. 58. In data mining, the data in a data warehouse
d
(b) It is the kind of knowledge that is difficult are analysed to reveal _________________.
to transfer to another person by means of (a) Hidden patterns
e
writing it down or verbalizing it. (b) Hidden trends in historical business activity
(c) It resides in a few often-in just one person (c) Either a or b
v
and hasn’t been captured by the organization (d) Both a and b
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or made available to others.
(d) Tacit knowledge is unarticulated and MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM (MIS)
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represented as intuition, perspective, beliefs, 59. Management Information Systems is _______.
and values that individuals form based on (a) The study of information systems in business
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their experiences. and management.
51. The processed data is known as __________. (b) Aims at meeting the information needs of
(a) Wisdom (b) Knowledge managers, particularly with regard to the
(c) Information (d) Experience current and past operations of the enterprise.
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52.
Knowledge is the internalization of (c) A system which provides accurate, timely
________________. and meaningful data for management
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planning, analysis and control to optimize
(a) Information (b) Data
the growth of the organization.
.
(c) Experience (d) All of the above
53. Information is ____________________.
60. Management Information Systems is a system
f
(a) Piecemeal (b) Fragmented which provides ______________ data to the
(c) Particular (d) All of the above organization.
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54. Knowledge is ___________________. (a) Accurate (b) Timely
(a) Structured (b) Coherent (c) Meaningful (d) All of the above
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(c) Often universal (d) All of the above 61. Management Information Systems is a system
which data for management ____________ to
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KNOWLEDGE DISCOVERY AND DATA MINING optimize the growth of the organization.
55. _____________________________ is a key
(a) Planning (b) Analysis
intellect who is employed owing to his or her (c) Control (d) All of the above
acquaintance of a subject matter, rather than
their ability to perform manual labour. DECISION SUPPORT SYSTEM (DSS)
(a) Knowledge worker 62. _____________________ are computer-based
(b) Intellectual worker information systems that provide interactive
(c) Brain worker information support to managers and business
(d) All of the above professionals during the decision making
process.
56. ___________________________ is a major use
of data warehouse databases and the static (a) Transaction Processing System
data they contain to reveal hidden trends in (b) Management Information System
historical business activity. (c) Decision Support System
(d) Office Information System
63. What are the components of a Decision Support 66. Which of the following component of EIS
System? includes Input data-entry devices, CPU, Data
(a) User Storage files and Output Devices?
(b) Database (a) Software (b) Hardware
(c) Planning language (c) User interface (d) Telecommunication
(d) All of the above 67. Which of the following component of EIS
64. __________________ is the brain of the DSS includes Text base software, Database, and
Graphic types such as time series charts, scatter
i
as it performs data manipulations and
computations with the data. diagrams, maps, motion graphics, sequence
charts, and comparison-oriented graphs (i.e.,
(a) User (b) Database
d
bar charts) Model base?
(c) Model base (d) Planning language
(a) Software (b) Hardware
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EXECUTIVE INFORMATION SYSTEM (c) User interface (d) Telecommunication
65. Which of the following statement about 68. Which of the following component of EIS
v
Executive Information System is true? includes hardware (physical) and software
i
(a) It is a tool that provides online access directly (logical) components by which people (users)
to the relevant information, in the format interact with a machine?
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that is useful and can be browsed. (a) Hardware
(b) It ensures that relevant information is timely, (b) Software
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precise and useful in business aspects, (c) Telecommunication
according to the interest of certain managers. (d) User interface
(c) It has useful format, and ensures that data 69. Which of the following component of EIS
can be browsed easily; will mean that the
m
involves transmitting data from one place to
system has been specially built for the use another in a reliable networked system?
of individuals who have little time to spare,
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(a) Hardware
are less skilful in using the keyboard and less
experienced with computers. (b) Software
.
(d) All of the above (c) Telecommunication
(d) User interface
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Answer Keys - MCQs
P r
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(d) (d) (a) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (c) (a)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(b) (d) (a) (c) (d) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (d) (b) (c) (d) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(d) (a) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (d) (b) (a) (c) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69
(d) (c) (d) (c) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c)
c h a p t e r
10
Specialized Business Information
Systems
i
d
ENTERPRISE RESOURCE PLANNING (ERP) VARIOUS STAGES OF ERP
e
1. _________________________ is an integrated 4. _________________________ is an accounting
cross-functional software that reengineers procedure or system designed to encourage
v
manufacturing, distribution, finance, human competence or give surety the implementation
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resources, and other basic business processes of a strategy or maintain assets or avoids fraud
of a company to improve its efficiency, agility, and error etc.
and profitability.
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(a) ABC analysis
(a) Customer Relationship Management (CRM) (b) EOQ
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(b) Supply Chain Management (SCM) (c) Inventory control
(c) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) (d) Just in Time (JIT)
(d) Core Banking System (CBS) 5. ___________________ is the supervision of
2.
_____________________ integrates and supply, storage and accessibility of items
m
automates many internal business in order to make certain a sufficient supply
processes and information systems within without excessive oversupply.
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the manufacturing, logistics, distribution, (a) Inventory control
accounting, finance, and human resource (b) ABC analysis
.
functions of a company.
(c) EOQ
(a) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
f
(d) Just in Time (JIT)
(b) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
6. ABC analysis is that technique of material
(c) Supply Chain Management (SCM)
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control in which we divide our material into
(d) Core Banking System (CBS) three categories and investment is done
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3. Which of the following statement about according to the value and nature of that
Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is true? category’s materials.
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(a) Enterprise Resource Planning is essentially (a) ABC analysis (b) Inventory control
a software which integrates all the (c) EOQ (d) Just in Time (JIT)
departments and their functions within a
7. EOQ is the order size for materials that will
company through a single IT system.
result in minimizing the costs of ordering and
(b) ERP is software architecture that allows carrying stock.
the exchange of information between all
(a) Inventory control (b) ABC analysis
functions.
(c) Just in Time (JIT) (d) EOQ
(c) ERP is the technological backbone of
e-business, an enterprise wide transaction 8. The EOQ provides a model for calculating
framework with links into sales order the suitable reorder point and the optimal
processing, inventory management and reorder quantity to make sure the immediate
control, production and distribution replenishment of inventory with no shortages.
planning, and finance. (a) EOQ (b) Inventory control
(d) Its adds a huge cost which is way more than (c) ABC analysis (d) Just in Time (JIT)
its benefit.
9. Just in Time Technique enables a company to 16. ____________________________ allows greater

ensure that it receives products/spare parts/ responsiveness to customer needs through
materials from its suppliers on the exact date sourcing of products and services outside of
and at the exact time when they are needed. your enterprise.
(a) Inventory control (b) Just in Time (JIT) (a) Operational CRM
(c) ABC analysis (d) EOQ (b) Collaborative CRM
10. JIT principles can be applied to which of the (c) Analytical CRM
following part of an organization? (d) All of the above
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(a) Distribution (b) Sales 17. Which of the following is a benefit of CRM?
(c) Accounting (d) All of the above (a) Integrates and personalizes the delivery of
d
11. JIT principles can be applied to which of the customer services.
following part of an organization? (b) Improves the customer experience through
e
(a) Order taking (b) Purchasing whatever point of contact is chosen.
(c) Influences the Internet as a self-service
v
(c) Opera¬tions (d) All of the above
delivery channel.
i
CUSTOMER RELATIONSHIP MANAGEMENT (CRM) (d) All of the above.
12. _________________________ tracks all the ways in
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18. Which of the following is a benefit of CRM?
which a company interacts with its customers (a) Provides a single point of access to
and analyses these interactions to optimize
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information for sales, marketing and
revenue, profitability, customer satisfaction, customer service.
and customer retention.
(b) Supports better-informed business decisions
(a) Customer Relationship Management (CRM) by providing a single enterprise-wide view of
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(b) Supply Chain Management (SCM) the customer.
(c) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) (c) Enables real-time interactions between
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(d) Core Banking System (CBS) customers, employees, partners and the
13. Customer relationship management enterprise.
.
applications, dealing with the analysis of (d) All of the above
customer data to provide information for
SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT (CRM)
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improving business performance are a part of
___________________. 19. ______ is the management of the flow of goods.
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(a) Analytical CRM (a) Supply chain management
(b) Operational CRM (b) Logistics management
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(c) Collaborative CRM (c) Customer relationship management
(d) All of the above (d) Core banking system
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14. _______________ uses customer understanding 20. ________ includes the movement and storage of
to perform effective relationship management. raw materials, work-in-process inventory, and
(a) Operational CRM finished goods from point of origin to point of

(b) Collaborative CRM consumption.
(c) Analytical CRM (a) Logistics management
(d) All of the above (b) Customer relationship management
(c) Core banking system
15. ____________________ supports customer
interaction with greater convenience through (d) Supply chain management
a variety of channels, including phone, fax, 21. _____________________ is a network of facilities
e-mail, chat, and mobile devices and distribution options that performs the
(a) Operational CRM functions of procurement of materials,
(b) Collaborative CRM transformation of these materials into
intermediate and finished products, and the
(c) Analytical CRM
distribution of these finished products to
(d) All of the above customers.
S p e c i a l i ze d Bu s i n e s s I n fo r m ati o n Sys tem s 65
(a) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) (a) Planning (b) Implementing

(b) Customer Relationship Management (CRM) (c) Controlling (d) All of the above
(c) Supply Chain Management (SCM) 29. ____________________ means the purchasing of
(d) Core Banking System (CBS) parts, components, or services.
22. _____________ refers to the linkages between (a) Procurements (b) Operations
suppliers, manufacturers and customers. (c) Distribution (d) Integration
(a) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) 30.
____________________________ must ensure
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(b) Supply Chain Management (SCM) that the right items are delivered in the exact
(c) Customer Relationship Management (CRM) quantities at the correct location on the
specified time schedule at minimal cost.
d
(d) Core Banking System (CBS)
(a) Operations (b) Distribution
23. ____________ involves all activities like sourcing
e
and procurement of material, conversion, and (c) Procurements (d) Integration
logistics. 31. ________________________ ensures having raw
v
(a) Supply Chain Management (SCM) materials, parts, components, assemblies,
i
(b) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) or services from suppliers, the firm must
transform them and produce the products
(c) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
or the services that meet the needs of its
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(d) Core Banking System (CBS) consumers.
24. __________ integrates management practices
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(a) Procurements (b) Distribution
and information technology to optimize (c) Integration (d) Operations
information and product flows among the
processes and business partners within a 32.
____________________ involves several
supply chain. activities—transportation (logistics),
m
warehousing, and customer relationship
management (CRM).
(b) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
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(a) Procurements (b) Distribution
(c) Core Banking System (CBS)
(c) Operations (d) Integration
.
(d) Supply Chain Management (SCM)
33. Distribution involves which of the following
25. _________________________ is an extension of activities?
f
logistic management.
(a) Transportation (logistics)
(b) Warehousing
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(b) Supply Chain Management (SCM)
(c) Customer relationship management (CRM)
(c) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
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34. ____________________ is critical because it is
26.
Logistical activities typically include
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necessary that all participants in the service
management of __________________________. chain recognize the entirety of the service
(a) Warehousing
chain.
(b) Inventory management (a) Procurements (b) Operations
(c) Supply/demand planning (c) Integration (d) Distribution
HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (HRM)
27.
Logistical activities typically include
management of __________________________. 35. A ________________________ is a software
(a) Inbound goods (b) Outbound goods application that combines many human
resources functions, together with benefits
(c) Transportation (d) All of the above
administration, payroll, recruiting and
28. Supply Chain Management may be defined as training, and performance analysis and
the process of __________________________ the assessment into one parcel.
operations of the supply chain with the purpose (a) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
of satisfying the customer’s requirement as
(b) Human Resource Management Systems
efficiently as possible.
(HRMS)
(c) Supply Chain Management (SCM) CORE BANKING SYSTEM

(d) Core Banking System (CBS) 41. ________________________ is the structural
36. _______________________ shapes an intersection network of institutions that offer financial
between Human Resource Management services within a county.
(HRM) and Information Technology. (a) HR system (b) Banking system
(a) Human Resource Management Systems (c) Political system (d) Accounting system
(HRMS) 42. Which of the following is a member of the
(b) Human Resource Information systems
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banking system?
(HRIS) (a) Commercial banks
(c) HR Technology
d
(b) Investment banks
(d) All of the above (c) National central banks
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37. Human Resource Information Systems (HRIS) (d) All of the above
are designed to supports______________.
43. Which of the following facilities are offered by
v
(a) Planning to meet the personnel needs of the the core banking system?
business.
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(a) Internet banking
(b) Development of employees to their full
(b) Branch clearing facility for banking branch
potential.
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offices
(c) Control of all personnel policies and
(c) Electronic fund Transfers or EFT
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programs.
44. Which of the following facilities are offered by
38. What are the benefits of Human Resource
the core banking system?
Management Systems (HRMS)?
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(a) Automatic teller machine or ATM
(a) Improves leadership development and
succession. (b) Electronic fund Transfers or EFT
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(b) Enhances data integrity within the enterprise. (c) Tele-banking
(c) ix. Enables to meet compliance and audit (d) All of the above
.
requirements. 45. Core stands for __________________.
(d) All of the above (a) Centralized Online Real-time Environment
f
39. What are the benefits of Human Resource (b) Centralized Online Real-time Interference
Management Systems (HRMS)? (c) Customer Online Real-time Environment
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(a) Reduces HR administrative costs. (d) Centralized Online Real-time Environment
(b) Increases employee engagement and
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46. Which of the following is an elements of Core
satisfaction. Banking System
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(c) Ensures seamless flow of information (a) Maintaining records for all the bank’s
between employees, supervisors, managers transactions.
and administrators.
(b) Processing payments and cheques

(d) All of the above (c) Making and servicing loans
40. What are the benefits of Human Resource (d) All of the above
Management Systems (HRMS)?
(a) Bringing industry best practices to the HR Banking System
functions.
(a) Making and servicing loans
(b) HRMS lets you assess and utilize the human
(b) Opening new accounts
resource potential completely.
(c) Processing cash deposits and withdrawals
(c) The solution increases the operational
efficiency and productivity of the HR (d) All of the above
department. 48. Which of the following is an elements of Core
(d) All of the above Banking System
(a) Processing payments and cheques
(b) Calculating interest
(c) Customer relationship management (CRM) 54. ________________________________ is generally

activities a computer-based method for tracking
(d) All of the above accounting activity in conjunction with
information technology resources.
Banking System (a) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
(b) Supply Chain Management (SCM)
(a) Managing customer accounts
(c) Accounting Information System (AIS)
(b) Establishing criteria for minimum balances,
interest rates, number of withdrawals
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allowed and so on 55. ____________ is a unified structure that
employs physical resources and components
(c) Establishing interest rates and
d
to transform economic data into accounting
(d) All of the above information for external and internal users.
e
50. Which of the following statement about CBS is (a) Accounting Information System (AIS)
true? (b) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
v
(a) It is defined as the set of basic software (c) Supply Chain Management (SCM)
components that manage the services
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provided by a bank to its customers through 56. _____________________________ collects,
its branches (branch network). processes and reports information related to
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(b) It is the platform where communication the financial aspects of business events.
technology and information technology are
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(a) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
merged to suit core needs of banking (b) Supply Chain Management (SCM)
(c) It is the networking of branches, which (c) Accounting Information System (AIS)
enables Customers to operate their accounts,
m
and avail banking services from any branch
of the Bank on CBS network, regardless of 57. ______________ is a system of collection, storage
where he maintains his account. and processing of financial and accounting
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(d) All of the above data that is used by decision-makers.
.
51.
The platform where communication
technology and information technology are (b) Accounting Information System (AIS)
f
merged to suit core needs of banking is called
_________________________________. (d) Core Banking System (CBS)
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(a) Customer Relationship Management (CRM) 58. _______________ are a system that brings
(b) Supply Chain Management (SCM) together, records, stores, and processes data to
fabricate information for decision makers.
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(c) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
(d) Core Banking System (CBS) (a) Accounting Information System (AIS)
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52. Which of the following is a banking product? (b) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
(a) Infosys’ Finacle (c) Supply Chain Management (SCM) © Carvinowledge Press (CNP), 2019
(b) Nucleus FinnOne (d) Core Banking System (CBS)

(c) Oracle’s Flexcube 59. What are the components of Accounting
(d) All of the above Information System (AIS)?
(a) Software
ACCOUNTING INFORMATION SYSTEM (AIS) (b) Information Technology Infrastructure
53. _______________________ is a system of (c) Internal Controls
collection, storage and processing of financial (d) All of the above
and accounting data that is used by decision
60. What are the components of Accounting
makers.
Information System (AIS)?
(a) People
(b) Accounting Information System (AIS)
(b) Procedure and Instructions
(d) Core Banking System (CBS) (c) Data
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (AI) EXPERT SYSTEM

61. _____________________________ is the effort 66. _________________________ is a knowledge-
to develop computer-based systems that can based information system that uses its
behave like humans, with the ability to learn knowledge about a specific, complex
languages, accomplish physical tasks, use a application area to act as an expert consultant
perceptual apparatus, and emulate human to end users.
expertise and decision making. (a) Management Information System
(a) Business Intelligence (BI) (b) Office Information System
i
(b) Artificial Intelligence (AI) (c) Expert system
(c) Expert system (d) Decision Support System
d
(d) All of the above 67. Expert System can be ________________________
62. __________________________ is the delivery of for providing problem solution or advice.
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accurate, useful information to the appropriate (a) Example based (b) Rule based
decision makers within the necessary time
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(c) Frame based (d) All of the above
frame to support effective decision making for
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business processes. 68. The ____________________ level expert system
draws the user’s attention on the problem area.
(a) Business Intelligence (BI)
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(a) Assistant (b) Colleague
(b) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
(c) True (d) All of the above
(c) Expert system
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69. The _______________________ level expert
(d) All of the above system discusses the problem with the user to
63. BI is essentially _______________________ arrive at an agreement
business insights, and the work processes and (a) Assistant (b) Colleague
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technologies used to obtain them. (c) True (d) All of the above
(a) Timely 70. While using the _______________________ level
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(b) Accurate expert system, the user accepts the solution
without any questions.
(c) high-value and actionable
(a) Assistant (b) Colleague
.
(d) all of the above (c) True (d) All of the above
71. ___________________________ allows the user to
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64. Business Intelligence tools are a type of software design, create, update, use and communicate
that is designed to _________________________ with the expert system.
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data. (a) Inference engine
(a) Retrieve (b) Analyse (b) User interface
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(c) Explanation facility
(c) Report (d) All of the above
(d) Knowledge base
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65. Which of the following statements of BI is true? 72. __________________________ contains the
(a) Business Intelligence tools are a type of basic logic and reasoning part of the system
software that is designed to retrieve, analyse to arrive at solution for problem provided by
and report data. user by matching the problem solution from
(b) BI tools are standalone tools or suites of tools knowledge base.
that are targeted to a specific industry that (a) User interface (b) Explanation facility
implement a particular BI technique. (c) Knowledge base (d) Inference engine
(c) Business Intelligence tools are software 73. Explanation of logic used to arrive at its
programs and features that are used to conclusion is given at ____________________.
complete detailed data analysis. (a) User interface
(d) All of the above (b) Inference engine
(d) Knowledge base
74.
______________________ includes the data, BUSINESS INTELLIGENCE
knowledge, Relationship, and decision rules 82. Which of the following business tools involve
used by experts to solve a particular type of using the data warehouse to get response to the
problem. query: “Tell me what happened”.
(a) Knowledge base (a) Dashboard
(b) User interface (b) Simple reporting and querying
(c) Inference engine (c) Scoreboard
(d) Explanation facility
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(d) Data mining
75.
____________________ is the computer 83. A ________ has a graphical list of specific,
equivalent of all the knowledge and insight attainable strategic milestones, combined with
d
that an expert or a group of experts develop metrics that serve as benchmarks.
through years of experience in their field.
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(a) Scorecard (b) Dashboard
(a) User interface (b) Knowledge base
(c) Data mining (d) OLTP
(c) Inference engine (d) Explanation facility
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84. _________________ involves data analysis for
76. ________________________ is used for building
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discovering useful patterns that are “hidden”
knowledge base of an expert system. in large volume of diverse data.
(a) User interface
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(a) Scorecard (b) Data mining
(b) Inference engine (c) Dashboard (d) OLTP
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85. _________________________ is a process of
(d) Knowledge Acquisition facility delivering business intelligence (BI) or
77.
____________________________ is used by information about business operations as they
programmer for collecting and organizing occur.
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knowledge and expertise of human experts in (a) OLTP (b) OLAP
the knowledge base. (c) Real-time Business Intelligence
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(a) Knowledge Acquisition facility (d) Operational Business Intelligence
(b) User interface
.
86. Extract Transform Load (ETL) is a part of
(c) Inference engine _________________.
(d) Explanation facility
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(a) Business Reporting
78. In ______________________ system, developers (b) Inventory Accounting
enter the case facts and results.
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(c) Financial Accounting
(a) Example-based (b) Rule-based (d) Payroll Accounting
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87. OLAP stands for __________________.
79. ______________________ systemis created by (a) Offline Analytical Processing
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storing data and decision rules as if-then rules. (b) Online Analytical Processing
(a) Example-based (b) Rule-based (c) Online Analytical Product © Carvinowledge Press (CNP), 2019
(c) Frame based (d) All of the above (d) Offline Analytical Product
80. ______________________are appropriate when a 88. ______________________ is a BI tool capability
history of cases is unavailable or when a body that relates geographic contexts to business
of knowledge can be structured within a set of data.
general rules. (a) Scorecard
(a) Example-based (b) Rule-based (b) Dashboard
(c) Frame based (d) All of the above (c) Location intelligence
81. _______________________ systems organize all (d) OLAP
the information (data, description, rules etc.) 89. Business reports are routinely assigned to
about a topic into logical units called frames, ____________________________.
which are similar to linked records in data files. (a) Accomplish conclusions about a trouble or
(a) Example-based (b) Rule-based issue.
(b) Demonstrate short and apparent
communication skills.
(c) Endow with recommendations for upcoming 96. ____________________ identifies what systems,
accomplishing. network resources, etc. a subject can access.
(d) All of the above Related processes also enforce least privilege,
90. Business reports are routinely assigned to need-to-know, and separation of duties.
____________________________. (a) Identity management
(a) Exhibit our analytical, reasoning, and (b) Authentication
evaluation skills in identifying and weighing- (c) Authorization
up potential solutions and outcomes. (d) Accountability
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(b) Pertain business and management theory to
a practical situation. 97. ________________________ refers to give only
those privileges to a user account, which are
d
(c) Scrutinize obtainable and potential solutions
essential to that user’s work.
to a problem, situation, or question.
(a) Rules-based Access Control (RAC)
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91. What are the benefits for Micro-Businesses and (b) Role-based Access Control (RBAC)
Small to Medium Enterprises? (c) Principle of least privilege
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(a) Paperless lodgement (d) All of the above
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(b) Electronic record keeping 98. _______________________ states that, if a backup
(c) Pre-filled forms
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user does not need to install software; hence,
(d) All of the above the backup user should be given rights only to
run backup and backup-related applications.
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92. What are the benefits for Micro-Businesses and
Small to Medium Enterprises? Any other privileges, such as installing new
software, should be blocked.
(a) Ease of sharing
(a) Principle of least privilege
(b) Secure AUS-key authentication
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(b) Rules-based Access Control (RAC)
(c) Same-time validation
(c) Role-based Access Control (RBAC)
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IMPORTANCE OF ACCESS AND PRIVILEGE
ELECTRONIC FUND TRANSFER
.
CONTROL
93. ________________________ consists of one or 99. EFT stands for _____________________________.
f
more processes to verify the identity of a subject (a) Electronic finance transfer
attempting to access an object. However, it (b) Electronic fund transfer
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does not provide 100 percent assurance of the (c) Electronic fund transmission
subject’s identity. (d) Electronic finance transmission
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(a) Identity management
(b) Authentication PAYMENT MECHANISM
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(c) Authorization 100. _______________________ allows the cardholder
(d) Accountability to pay for goods and services based on the
holder’s promise to pay for them.

94. _______________________ includes assigning
and managing a subject’s identity. (a) Debit card (b) Mobile banking
(a) Authentication (c) Credit card (d) Internet banking
(b) Authorization 101. _________________________ is a form of
(c) Accountability payment made via the internet that is designed
to perform the same function as a conventional
(d) Identity management
paper Cheque.
95. ________________ is the process of verifying a (a) National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT)
subject’s identity at the point of object access.
(b) Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)
(a) Identity management
(c) Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
(b) Authentication
(d) Electronic Cheque
(c) Authorization
(d) Accountability
102. Smart cards have an embedded __________. 106. The Cheque is in an electronic format, so it can
(a) Magnetic strip (b) Microchip be processed in ___________ steps as compared
(c) Sensors (d) All of the above to a standard paper Cheque.
(a) Fewer
103. __________________________ are the smart cards
that need to insert into a reader in order to (b) More
work, such as a smart card reader or automatic (c) Same
teller machines. (d) Any of the above, depending upon the nature
(a) Contact Cards (b) Contactless Cards of payment
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(c) Combi Cards (d) Hybrid Cards 107. The Cheque is in an electronic format, so it can
104. ____________________________ don’t need to be be processed has __________________ security
d
inserted into a reader. Just waving them near a features than a standard paper Cheque.
reader is just sufficient for the card to exchange (a) Fewer
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data. (b) More
(a) Contact Cards (c) Same
v
(b) Combi Cards (d) Any of the above, depending upon the nature
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(c) Contactless Cards of payment
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(d) Hybrid Cards 108. Electronic cheques incorporate ______________
105. Electronic Cheque is a form of payment made as its security feature.
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via the internet that is designed to perform the (a) Authorisation (b) Encryption
_________________ function as a conventional (c) Digital signature (d) All of the above
paper Cheque.
(a) Similar (b) Same
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(c) Distinguished (d) Different
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Answer Keys - MCQs
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(c)
21
(c)
41
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2
(a)
22
(b)
42
3
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(d)
(a)
43
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(c)
24
(d)
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(b)
25
(b)
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6
(a)
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(d)
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7
(d)
27
(d)
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8
(a)
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(d)
48
9
(b)
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(a)
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10
(d)
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(c)
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(d)
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(d)
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12
(a)
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(b)
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13
(a)
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(d)
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(c)
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15
(a)
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(b)
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(d)
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(d)
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(d)
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(d)
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19 20
(a) (d)
39 40
(d) (d)
59 60
(b) (d) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (a) (d) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(b) (a) (d) (d) (d) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (a) (a) (b) (b)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(c) (b) (a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (d) (b) (c) (c) (a) (b) (c)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108
(d) (b) (a) (c) (b) (a) (b) (d)
30-04-2019
IT-SM Test Series

(With MCQs)
995/-
5 Prof. Om Trivedi
Papers
IIM-C Alumnus

5
EIS-SM Test Series

(With MCQs)
995/-
5 Prof. Om Trivedi
Papers
IIM-C Alumnus

6
3
c h a p t e r
11
Business Process Automation
through Application Software
i

d
INTRODUCTION Business Process Automation (BPA)
e
1. Which of the following cases are examples of 5. ______________________ is a set of activities or
automation? strategies to automate business processes so as
v
(a) The newspaper delivery boy has used Google to bring benefit to enterprise in terms of cost,
i
maps to chart his/her path to our house. time and effort.
(b) At petrol pumps, automated machines which (a) Business Process Automation (BPA)
r
fill car’s tank and generate computerized (b) Business Process Reprocessing
bills. (c) Business Process Re-engineering (BPR)
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(c) Mother Dairy uses high degree of technology (d) Business Process Affirmation
to ensure that we get the freshest milk.
6. A BPA programme should ensure that data is
(d) All of the above only available to persons who have right to see
the same. Which of the following feature of BPA
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TYPES OF BUSINESS APPLICATIONS
is highlighted in the above phrases?
2. In ____________________, the data is first (a) Integrity (b) Availability
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collected and then all the collected data is
(c) Confidentiality (d) Timeliness
processed in one go.
.
(a) Online processing 7. A BPA programme should ensure that no un-
authorized amendments can be made in the
(b) Real-time processing
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data. Which of the following feature of BPA is
(c) Batch processing highlighted in the above phrases?
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(a) Integrity (b) Confidentiality
3. In _____________________, the data is processed (c) Availability (d) Timeliness
immediately while it is entered, the user usually
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8. A BPA programme should ensure that data
only has to wait a short time for a response.
is available when asked for. Which of the
(a) Batch processing
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following feature of BPA is highlighted in the
(b) Online processing above phrases?
(c) Real-time processing (a) Confidentiality (b) Integrity
(d) None of the above (c) Timeliness (d) Availability
4. In ________________________, input is 9. A BPA programme should ensure that data is
continuously, automatically acquired from made available in at the right time. Which of
sensors, for example, which is processed the following feature of BPA is highlighted in
immediately in order to respond to the input in the above phrases?
as little time as possible. (a) Confidentiality (b) Timeliness
(a) Real-time processing (c) Integrity (d) Availability
(b) Batch processing
10. Which of the following is a benefits of BPA?
(c) Online processing
(a) Business Process Automation (BPA) is a set of
(d) None of the above activities or strategies to automate business
processes so as to bring benefit to enterprise
in terms of cost, time and effort.”
B usi ne ss Pro ce s s Au to m ati o n th ro u g h Ap p li c at io n S o f t ware 73
(b) It consists of integrating applications, (b) Charging for instant access to records.
restructuring labour resources and using (Example: Public information, student
software applications throughout the transcripts, medical records)
organization. (c) Cost Savings, being clearly computed and
(c) BPA increases productivity by automating demonstrated.
key business processes through computing (d) All of the above
technology.
16. VTAS ltd wants to implement BPA in its
(d) All of the above business. Which of the following benefits justify
i
11. The process of __________________ enables the the implementations?
ability to bring tasks that exist across multiple (a) Reducing the cost of audits and lawsuits.
d
computers and different business departments (b) Taking advantage of early payment discounts
or branches under one umbrella that is the and eliminating duplicate payments.
e
business process itself.
(c) New revenue generation opportunities.
(a) Integration (b) Automation
v
(c) Orchestration (d) All of the above
17.
Arrange the following steps of the
i
STEPS IN IMPLEMENTING BPA implementation of BPA in the correct order:
i. Define why we plan to implement BPA
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12. Which of the following consideration is treated
as a return on investment (ROI) on BPA? ii. Document the process, we wish to automate
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(a) Cost Savings, being clearly computed and iii. Development of BPA
demonstrated. iv. Testing the BPA
(b) Savings in employee salary by not having to v. Defined the goals or objectives to be achieved
replace those due to attrition. by implementing BPA
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(c) The cost of space regained from paper, file vi. Understand the regulation /rules which it
cabinets, reduced. needs to comply with
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(d) All of the above vii. Calculate the ROI of project
13. Which of the following consideration is treated viii. Engage a business process consultant
.
as a return on investment (ROI) on BPA? Arrange the above in the correct order:
(a) Eliminating fines to be paid by the entity (a) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii and viii
f
with timely carrying out of process. (Due to (b) i, ii, vi, vii iii, iv, v, and viii
delays being avoided.) (c) i, vi, ii, v, viii, vii, iii and iv
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(b) Reducing the cost of audits and lawsuits. (d) i, v, ii, iii, iv, vi, vii and viii
(c) Taking advantage of early payment discounts
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18. There are thousands of processes across the
and eliminating duplicate payments.
world for which entities have gone for BPA
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and reaped numerous benefits. These include
14. Which of the following consideration is treated __________________________. ©©Carvinowledge
as a return on investment (ROI) on BPA? (a) Tracking movement of goods
(a) Ensuring complete documentation for all (b) Sales order processing
CarvinowledgePress
new accounts. (c) Customer services departments

(b) New revenue generation opportunities. (d) All of the above
(c) Collecting accounts receivable faster and
19. There are thousands of processes across the
improving cash flow.
world for which entities have gone for BPA
Press(CNP),
(d) All of the above and reaped numerous benefits. These include
15. Which of the following consideration is treated __________________________.
(CNP),2019
as a return on investment (ROI) on BPA? (a) Inventory management

(a) Building business by providing superior (b) Employee Management System
2019
levels of customer service. (c) Asset tracking systems.

20. Goals must be clearly defined. It means they MANUAL INFORMATION PROCESSING CYCLE
shall be __________________ 27. The production manager of ENT enterprises
(a) Measurable (b) Attainable instructed its workers to produce paper cups to
(c) Relevant (d) Specific the best of their abilities. Which of the following
feature is lacking in the above objective?
21. Goals must be easily quantifiable in monetary
(a) Specific (b) Measurable
terms. It means they shall be __________.
(c) Attainable (d) Timeliness
(a) Measurable (b) Specific
28. ________________________ means entering data
i
(c) Attainable (d) Relevant into the computer.
22. Goals must be Achievable through best efforts. (a) Input (b) Processing
It means they shall be __________________
d
(c) Storage (d) Output
(a) Specific (b) Measurable 29. _______________ means performing operations
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(c) Attainable (d) Relevant on the data.
23. Goals shall be set as per the needs of the entity. (a) Input (b) Storage
v
It means they shall be __________________. (c) Output (d) Processing
i
(a) Specific (b) Relevant 30. ____________ means saving data, programs and
(c) Measurable (d) Attainable outputs for future use.
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(a) Input (b) Storage
24. Goals must be achieved within a given time
(c) Processing (d) Output
frame. It means they shall be __________________
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31. __________ means presenting information in
(a) Specific (b) Measurable the form of Report.
(c) Attainable (d) Timely (a) Input (b) Processing
25. Mr. Vishal Sarangi, the Manager (sales) of OTC (c) Output (d) Storage
m
ltd., has set a goal of achieving the sales of 1 32. ___________________________ ensures that all
lakh units in the quarter of July- September. transactions are approved by responsible
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Its previous records state that in the current personnel in accordance with their specific
production capacity and capital availability or general authority before the transaction is
the sale cannot be more than 40,000 units at recorded.
.
full utilization of the company’s resources. So, (a) Authorization (b) Completeness
thereby the above goal cannot be achieved with
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(c) Accuracy (d) Validity
the current production capacity and available
resources. Which of the following feature of an DELIVERY CHANNELS
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optimum goal is lacking in the above case? 33. ______________________ refers to the mode
(a) Specific (b) Measurable through which information or products are
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(c) Attainable (d) Timely delivered to users.
(a) Processing cycle (b) Delivery channel
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26. The managers of Prathama ltd., desired to
produce 5 lakh units of ice cream cups and (c) Storage database (d) Feedback channels
cones and sell it in the month of July. Its current
production capacity is of 7 lakh units with CONTROLS IN BPA

available resources and capital. On 15th July, 34.
________________________ ensures that all
the workers of Prathama ltd. went on strike for transactions are approved by responsible
five days because of this the above budgeted personnel in accordance with their specific
sale level was achieved in the first week of or general authority before the transaction is
August. Which of the following feature lacked recorded.
in the attainment of the above set goal? (a) Authorisation (b) Completeness
(a) Specific (b) Measurable (c) Accuracy (d) Error handling
(c) Attainable (d) Timeliness
35. ______________________________ ensures that operation and maintenance of information

no valid transactions have been omitted from systems in a planned and controlled manner in
the accounting records. an organization.
(a) Authorization (b) Completeness (a) Application (b) Managerial
(c) Accuracy (d) Validity (c) Corrosive (d) Preventive
36. _______________________________ ensures that 42. ______________ are the controls on the sequence
all valid transactions are accurate, consistent of processing events.
with the originating transaction data, and (a) Application (b) Managerial
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information is recorded in a timely manner. (c) Corrosive (d) Preventive
(a) Authorization (b) Completeness
43. ______________ cover all phases of data right
d
(c) Accuracy (d) Validity from data origination to its final disposal.
37. _______________________________ ensures that
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(a) Managerial (b) Corrosive
all recorded transactions fairly represent (c) Application (d) Preventive
the economic events that actually occurred,
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are lawful in nature, and have been executed 44. _______________ cover transactions as they
i
in accordance with management’s general recorded in each stage of processing into
authorization. master, parameter and transaction files and
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include controls relating to transmission
(a) Validity (b) Authorization
and distribution of output through display,
(c) Completeness (d) Accuracy electronic media or printed reports.
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38. __________________________________ ensures (a) Managerial (b) Corrosive
that access to physical assets and information (c) Preventive (d) Application
systems are controlled and properly restricted
to authorized personnel. 45.
______________________ comprises the
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components that establish the interface
(a) Physical Safeguards and Security
between the user and the system.
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(b) Error Handling
(a) Input (b) Communication
(c) Completeness
(c) Boundary (d) Processing
.
(d) Segregation of Duties
46.
_____________________ comprises the
39. ______________________________ ensures that components that capture, prepare, and enter
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errors detected at any stage of processing commands and data into the system.
receive prompts corrective action and
(a) Boundary (b) Input
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are reported to the appropriate level of
management. (c) Communication (d) Processing
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(a) Physical Safeguards and Security 47.
______________________ comprises the
(b) Error Handling components that transmit data among
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subsystems and systems.
(c) Completeness
(a) Boundary (b) Input
(d) Segregation of Duties ©©Carvinowledge
(c) Processing (d) Communication
40. _________________________ ensures that duties
CarvinowledgePress
are assigned to individuals in a manner that 48. __________________ comprises the components
ensures that no one individual can control both that perform decision making, computation,
the recording function and the procedures classification, ordering, and summarization of
relative to processing a transaction. data in the system.
(a) Physical Safeguards and Security (a) Processing (b) Boundary
Press(CNP),
(b) Error Handling (c) Input (d) Communication

(c) Completeness 49. __________________ comprises the components
(CNP),2019
(d) Segregation of Duties that retrieve and present data to users of the
system.
2019
INFORMATION SYSTEM CONTROLS (a) Boundary (b) Input

41. __________________________ controls over the (c) Output (d) Database
managerial functions that must be performed
to ensure the development, implementation,
50. __________________ comprises the components 58. _________________________________ are

that define, add, access, modify, and delete responsible for the daily running of hardware
data in the system. and software facilities.
(a) Boundary (b) Input (a) Data Resource Management Controls
(c) Output (d) Database (b) Quality Assurance Management Controls
51. In which of the following the auditors evaluate (c) Security Management controls
systems development controls overall. (d) Operations management controls
(a) Concurrent audit
i
59. The system of internal control is said to be well
(b) Post-implementation designed and properly operated when _______.
(c) General audit (a) All transactions are executed in accordance
d
(d) None of the above with management’s general or specific
authorization;
e
52.
________________ focuses on individual
program modules. (b) Assets are safeguarded from unauthorized
access, use or disposition; and
v
(a) Unit Testing
(c) The recorded assets are compared with the
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(b) Integration Testing
existing assets at reasonable intervals and
(c) Whole-of-Program Testing appropriate action is taken with regard to
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(d) None of the above any differences.
53. _________________ focuses in groups of program (d) All of the above
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modules.
(a) Unit Testing TYPES OF APPLICATION CONTROLS
(b) Whole-of-Program Testing 60. Controls in the boundary subsystem serves
which of the following purposes?
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(c) Integration Testing
(a) To establish the identity and authenticity of
would-be-users of a computer system;
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54. __________________ focuses on whole program. (b) To establish the identity and authenticity of
(a) Unit Testing computer-system resources that users wish
.
(b) Integration Testing to employ;
(c) Whole-of-Program Testing (c) To restrict the actions undertaken by users
f
(d) None of the above who obtain computer resources to a set of
authorized actions.
55. In __________program errors are corrected.
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(a) Repair maintenance
61. _____________ restrict use of computer system
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(b) Adaptive Maintenance resources to authorized users, limit the
(c) Perfective Maintenance actions authorized users can taker with these
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(d) None of the above resources, and ensure that users obtain only
56. In _____________ the program is modified to authentic computer system resources.
meet changing user requirements. (a) Access Controls

(a) Repair maintenance (b) Cryptographic controls
(c) Input controls
(b) Perfective Maintenance
(d) Communication controls
(c) Adaptive Maintenance
62. The _____________________ is similar to a
(d) None of the above password assigned to a user by an institution
57. In _________________ the program is tuned to based on the user characteristics and encrypted
decrease the resource consumption. using a cryptographic algorithm.
(a) Repair maintenance (a) Digital Signatures
(b) Perfective Maintenance (b) Personal Identification Number
(c) Adaptive Maintenance (c) Plastic cards
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
63. In computer system, _____________________ 69. ______________________ are intended to detect

establish the authenticity of persons and errors in transaction data before the data are
prevent the denial of messages or contracts processed.
when data is exchanged electronically. (a) Source Document Control
(a) Digital Signatures (b) Data Coding Controls
(b) Personal Identification Number (c) Batch Controls
(c) Plastic cards (d) Validation Controls
i
70. ______________________ involve Transmission
64. ____________________ that are used to identify Media, Communication Lines, Modems,
a user need to go through procedural controls Port Protection Devices, Multiplexors and
d
like application for a card, preparation of the Concentrators.
card, issue of the card, use of the card and (a) Physical Component Controls
e
return of the card or card termination phases. (b) Line Error Controls
(a) Digital Signatures (c) Flow Controls
v
(b) Personal Identification Number (d) Link Controls
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(c) Plastic cards
71.
Whenever data is transmitted over a
(d) None of the above communication line, it can be received in error
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65. In systems that use physical source documents because of attenuation, distortion, or noise
to initiate transactions, careful control must be that occurs on the line. Which of the following
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exercised over these instruments. controls shall be implemented so as to prevent
(a) Source Document Control such errors?
(b) Data Coding Controls (a) Physical Component Controls
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(c) Batch Controls (b) Flow Controls
(d) Validation Controls (c) Link Controls
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66. _________________________ are put in place (d) Line Error Controls
at locations where batch processing is being 72. Which of the following is not way of Error
.
used. Detection?
(a) Source Document Control (a) Parity Checking
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(b) Data Coding Controls (b) Cyclic Redundancy Checks (CRC)
(c) Batch Controls (c) Loop Check
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(d) Validation Controls (d) Forward Error Correcting Codes
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67. ___________________________ is where there is 73. Which of the following can be used for error
a time gap between occurrence and recording correction?
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of transactions, that is, transactions are not (a) Parity Checking
recorded at the time of occurrence but are (b) Cyclic Redundancy Checks (CRC)
accumulated and a set (based on number/
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(c) Loop Check
time) is processed.
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(d) Using backward Error Correction codes

(a) Source Document Control
(b) Data Coding Controls 74. _______________________ are needed because
two nodes in a network can differ in terms of
(c) Batch Controls
the rate at which they can send receive and
(d) Validation Controls process data.
Press(CNP),
68. _____________________ validate the accuracy/ (a) Physical Component Controls

correctness of input data. (b) Flow Controls
(CNP),2019
(a) Source Document Control (c) Link Controls

(b) Data Coding Controls (d) Line Error Controls
2019
(c) Batch Controls

(d) Validation Controls
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75.
The simplest form of flow control is (a) Process controls
“_____________ Flow Control” in which the (b) Physical Component Controls
sender transmits a frame of data only when the (c) Flow Controls
receiver is ready to accept the frame.
(d) Link Controls
(a) Stop-and-Wait (b) Pause-and-Play
80. ______________ ensure that the data delivered
(c) Stop-and-Play (d) Play-and-Rewind
to users will be represented, formatted and
76. __________ involves two common protocols – delivered in a consistent and secured manner.
HDLC and SDLC.
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(a) Output controls
(a) Physical Component Controls (b) Source Document Control
(b) Flow Controls (c) Data Coding Controls
d
(c) Link Controls (d) Batch Controls
(d) Line Error Controls
e
81. _______________ consider the duration for
77. __________________________________ is which outputs should be retained before being
the process of connecting two or more
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destroyed.
communication networks together to allow the
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(a) Existence controls
users of one network to communicate with the
(b) Source Document Control
users of other networks.
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(c) Retention controls
(a) Topological (b) Channel Access
(d) Data Coding Controls
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(c) Internet working ( d) Flow
82. _____________________ are needed to recover
78. Which of the following device is not used to
output in the event that it is lost or destroyed.
connect sub-networks in an Internet?
(a) Source Document Control
(a) Bridge (b) Link
m
(b) Existence controls
(c) Router (d) Gateway
(c) Retention controls
79. ___________________________ perform
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(d) Data Coding Controls
validation checks to identify errors during
processing of data.
f .
Answer Keys - MCQs
1 2 3
r o 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
P
(d) (c) (b) (a) (a) (c) (a) (d) (b) (d) (c) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (c) (d) (d) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(a) (c) (b) (d) (c) (d) (a) (a) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (c) (a) (a) (b) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(b) (a) (c) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (c) (d) (c) (a) (c) (b) (a) (c) (b) (d) (d) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(a) (b) (a) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (b) (a) (c) (c) (b) (a) (a)
81 82
(c) (b)
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Multiple Choice Questions

Chapter 1: Introduction to Business Process Management 1

Chapter 2: Business Process Management Implementation and Role of IT 6

Chapter 3: Business Process Mapping Systems 11

Chapter 4: Introduction to Information Systems 15

Chapter 5: Computing Technologies 18

Chapter 6: Information System Layers, Life Cycle and Modern Technologies 29

Chapter 7: Telecommunications and Networks 37

Chapter 8: Internet and Other Technologies 49

Chapter 9: Introduction to Business Information Systems 57

Chapter 10: Specialized Business Information Systems 63

Chapter 11: Business Process Automation through Application Software 72

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Functional organizations? financial status of the organization.

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Process Management-Life cycle involves (c) Reducing defects

57. Senior management’s commitment is needed (a) Define Phase

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(c) Technology Development (d) Production Cycle

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(d) Payroll Cycle like capturing the data, implementing control

Answer Keys - MCQs

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Answer Keys - MCQs

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IMPORTANCE OF IT IN AUDITING 17. Which of the following objective of auditing

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IT-SM Study Kit With 2,000+ MCQs

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56. ________________________ is a communication (a) Cloud computing

58. _____________________________ is a feature

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(d) On-demand service

(b) Almost Unlimited Storage: Storing (a) Cloud computing

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GRID COMPUTING 116. ___________________________ in general is a

computing is true? (c) Donor (d) Customer

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(a) Public to Virtual the application’s installation directory and not

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(b) Educational Software

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73. Which of these is not an example of Relational (a) Network database

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RECENT TECHNOLOGIES/ DEVICES 98. Android is an operating system based on the

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TELECOMMUNICATION NETWORK (a) Multiplexer (b) NIC

over a network. (b) Coaxial Copper Cable

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operations itself, and does not necessarily rely

81. The acquires payment 84. _______ is a method of

50. comprises the components 58. _______________ are

63. In computer system, _ 69. __ are intended to detect