Multiple Choice Questions

39. Which of the following is not an objective of a questionnaire?

a. A questionnaire must translate the information needed into a set of specific
questions that the respondents can and will answer.
b. A questionnaire must be easy to use.
c. A questionnaire must uplift, motivate, and encourage the respondent to become
involved in the interview, to cooperate, and to complete the interview.
d. A questionnaire should minimize response error.
(b, moderate, page 281)

40. The great weakness of questionnaire design is _____.

a. precision
b. accuracy
c. theory
d. consensus
(c, moderate, page 281)

41. The first step in the questionnaire design process is _____.

a. specify the type of interview method
b. identify the form and layout
c. specify the information needed
d. determine the content of individual questions
(c, moderate, page 281)

42. When developing a questionnaire, to ensure that the information obtained fully
addresses all components of the problem, the researcher should:
a. review components of the problem and the approach.
b. prepare a set of dummy tables.
c. have a clear idea of the target population.
d. all of the above
(d, moderate, page 281)

43. A _____ describes how the analysis will be structured once the data have been
collected.
a. dummy table
b. analysis table
c. dummy plan
d. none of the above
(a, moderate, page 281)

44. The type of method influences questionnaire design. Considering how the
questionnaire is administered under each method, which method is most appropriate
if lengthy, complex, and varied questions need to be asked?
a. mail questionnaire
b. telephone interview
c. personal interview
d. Internet questionnaire

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 (c, moderate, page 282)

45. Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one
are decisions involved with _____.
a. determining the order of scales
b. choosing question wording
c. choosing question structure
d. individual question content
(d, moderate, page 284)

46. “Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?” is an example of a
_____.
a. structured question
b. dichotomous question
c. double-barreled question
d. branching question
(c, moderate, page 284)

47. A _____ is a single question that attempts to cover two issues.

a. structured question
b. dichotomous question
c. double-barreled question
d. branching question
(c, easy, page 284)

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48. When determining if a question is necessary, in some situations it may be necessary
to ask questions that are not directly related to the information that is needed. Which
of the types of questions below was mentioned in your text as an example of such a
question?
a. neutral questions
b. filler questions
c. questions about competing brands
d. all of the above
(c, difficult, page 284)

49. Most “why” questions about the use of a product or choice alternative involve two
aspects: _____ and _____.
a. attributes of the product; influences leading to knowledge of the product
b. attributes of the product; how the product is used
c. how the product is used; influences leading to knowledge of the product
d. none of the above
(a, difficult, page 285)

50. _____ that measure familiarity, product use, and past experience should be asked
before questions about the topics themselves.
a. Branching questions
b. Filler questions
c. Dichotomous questions
d. Filter questions
(d, moderate, page 286)

51. Respondents‟ inability to remember leads to three types of error. Which of the errors
listed below is not mentioned in the text as one of the types of errors created by
respondents?
a. telescoping
b. creation error
c. recall error
d. omission error
(c, difficult, page 286)

52. The respondents‟ ability to remember an event is influenced by all of the following
except:
a. the event itself
b. the time elapsed since the event
c. the presence or absence of events that would aid memory
d. where you were when the event occurred
(d, moderate, page 286)

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53. Which of the following is not a reason why a respondent might be unwilling to
answer a particular question?
a. The respondent may not be informed.
b. Too much effort is required.
c. The situation or context may not seem appropriate for disclosure.
d. No legitimate purpose or need for the information requested is apparent.
(a, moderate, page 287)

54. When trying to overcome respondents‟ unwillingness to answer, explaining why the
data are needed or the use of counter-biasing statements can _____.
a. put the request in context
b. make the request seem legitimate
c. help reduce the effort required of the respondent
d. both a and b
(d, moderate, page 288)

55. _____ refer to open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words.
a. Dichotomous questions
b. Structured questions
c. Unstructured questions
d. Branching questions
(c, easy, page 289)

56. “Describe your college experience” and “What is your occupation?” are _____
questions.
a. dichotomous
b. filter
c. structured
d. unstructured
(d, moderate, page 289)

57. Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions?

a. Unstructured questions are good as first questions on a topic.
b. Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more
articulate.
c. Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than
structured questions.
d. Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research.
(b, difficult, page 289)

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58. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of unstructured questions?
a. Unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires.
b. Coding of responses is costly and time consuming.
c. Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than
structured questions.
d. Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more
articulate.
(c, easy, page 289)

59. _____ specify the set of response alternatives and the response format.
a. Filter questions
b. Structured questions
c. Unstructured questions
d. Branching questions
(b, easy, page 290)

60. Which of the following is not a type of structured question?

a. multiple choice
b. dichotomous
c. scale
d. none of the above
(d, easy, page 290)

61. When developing questionnaire questions, if you are considering order position bias
and the set of all possible response alternatives, you are developing _____ questions.
a. multiple choice
b. dichotomous
c. scale
d. branching
(a, moderate, page 290)

62. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of structured questions?

a. Coding and processing of data are much less costly and time consuming.
b. Considerable effort is required to design effective multiple choice questions.
c. Showing respondents the list of possible answers produces biased responses.
d. It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
(a, easy, pages 290-291)

63. What is the one acute problem of dichotomous questions?

a. There is potential for position bias.
b. It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
c. The response can be influenced by the wording of the question.
d. None of the above.
(c, moderate, page 291)

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64. _____ is the translation of the desired question content and structure into words that
respondents can clearly and easily understand.
a. The questionnaire design process
b. Question wording
c. Overcoming inability to answer
d. Determining the content of individual questions
(b, moderate, page 291)

65. When developing a questionnaire, the following guidelines: (1) define the issue, (2)
use ordinary words, and (3) avoid ambiguous words are used when _____.
a. arranging questions in proper order
b. choosing question wording
c. designing questions to overcome the respondent‟s inability to answer
d. determining the content of individual questions
(b, moderate, page 291)

66. When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why, and
way) are used when _____.
a. defining the issue
b. choosing question wording
c. avoiding generalizations and estimates
d. determining the content of individual questions
(a, moderate, pages 292-293)

67. Choosing between the questions “Do you think the distribution of soft drinks is
adequate?” (Incorrect) and “Do you think soft drinks are readily available when you
want to buy them?” (Correct) are examples of situations that pertain to _____.
a. avoiding leading questions
b. avoiding ambiguous words
c. using positive and negative statements
d. using ordinary words
(d, moderate, page 293)

68. Which of the words below is not an ambiguous word?

a. frequently
b. twice
c. often
d. occasionally
(b, moderate, page 294)

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69. When developing a questionnaire, if the researcher is asking him/herself if the word
means what he/she intended; if it has any other meanings; if the word has more than
one pronunciation; or if a simpler phrase is suggested then, he/she is probably
concerned with _____.
a. avoiding leading questions
b. avoiding ambiguous words
c. using defining the issue
d. using ordinary words
(b, difficult, page 294)

70. A _____ is a question that gives the respondent a clue as to what answer is desired or
leads the respondent to answer in a certain way.
a. leading question
b. implicit alternative
c. filter question
d. structured question
(a, difficult, page 295)

71. Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives?

a. Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people
selecting that alternative.
b. When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives at
the end of the list have a greater chance of being selected.
c. The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of
alternatives appear.
d. All of the above are correct.
(d, difficult, page 295)

72. The statement “Questions should be specific, not general.” pertains to the _____
aspect of questionnaire development.
a. avoid implicit assumptions
b. avoid implicit alternatives
c. avoid generalizations and estimates
d. use unambiguous words
(c, moderate, page 296)

73. The information that is of the most importance to the research project and should be
obtained first is _____.
a. qualifying information
b. identification information
c. basic information
d. classification information
(c, difficult, page 297)

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74. _____ is information that relates directly to the research problem.
a. Qualifying information
b. Identification information
c. Basic information
d. Classification information
(c, moderate, page 297)

75. _____ is socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to classify respondents.

a. Qualifying information
b. Identification information
c. Basic information
d. Classification information
(d, difficult, page 297)

76. _____ is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name,

address, and phone number.
a. Qualifying information
b. Identification information
c. Basic information
d. Classification information
(b, difficult, page 297)

77. Which of the following statements is true about difficult questions?

a. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the section on basic information.
b. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the identification section.
c. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the classification section.
d. All of the statements are correct.
(d, moderate, page 297)

78. Which statement is correct concerning the effect on subsequent questions?

a. As a rule of thumb, general questions should precede specific questions to prevent
specific questions from biasing responses to general questions.
b. The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings
or have not formulated a point of view.
c. The inverted funnel approach is particularly useful when information has to be
obtained about respondents‟ general choice behavior and their evaluations of
specific products.
d. All are correct.
(d, moderate, pages 297-298)

79. _____ are questions used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the
interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.
a. Leading questions
b. Branching questions
c. Opening questions
d. Multiple choice questions
(b, moderate, page 298)

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80. Experiments on mail questionnaires for census of population revealed what about
questionnaire form and layout?
a. Questions at the top of the page received more attention than those placed at the
bottom.
b. Sensitive information placed at the end of the questionnaire was answered more
frequently than sensitive information placed elsewhere.
c. Instructions printed in red made little difference except that they made the
questionnaire appear more complicated to the respondents.
d. Both „a‟ and „c‟ are correct.
(d, moderate, pages 298-299)

81. Which of the following practices should be avoided when reproducing the
questionnaire?
a. If the printed questionnaire runs to several pages, it should take the form of a
booklet.
b. Sideways formatting and splitting should be done to conserve space.
c. Directions or instructions should be placed as close to the questions as possible.
d. Surveys directed at different respondent groups can be reproduced on different
colored paper.
(b, moderate, page 300)

82. _____ is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the
purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential
problems.
a. Funneling
b. Telescoping
c. Posttesting
d. Pretesting
(d, moderate, page 301)

83. Observational forms should specify the who, what, and when of the behavior to be
observed. The forms should also specify all of the items below except:
a. where
b. whether
c. why
d. way
(b, moderate, page 302)

84. Which of the following statements are true concerning questionnaire design for
international marketing research?
a. The questionnaire may have to be suitable for administration by more than one
method.
b. It is desirable to have two or more simple questions rather than a single complex
question.
c. Unstructured or open-ended questions should be used with caution in countries
with high illiteracy rates.
d. All of the above statements are true.
(d, moderate, page 303

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