Anda di halaman 1dari 49

Verses Used to Support Trinity

Christian and Catholic doctrine both claim that the bible teaches and supports a triune Godhead known

as the Trinity. Although the bible never uses the terms “trinity”, “Godhead” or specifically states that God is

made up of three entities, Trinitarians argue that the ‘Godhead’ made up of ‘God the Father’, ‘God the Son’ and

the ‘Holy Ghost’ is eluded to and described by a number of bible verses. The current description of this theory

states that God the Father, God the Son, and the Holy Ghost are all separate entities with different tasks, but are

each an equal part of what we call God (so there is one God made up of three parts).

Apart from the Trinity doctrine, there are other sects of bible based religions that state Jesus (Y’shua)

is the incarnation of God (YHWH) as the flesh. This belief holds that Jesus is God in all aspects with all of

God’s authority, but God took a human form as Jesus Christ. There are several ideas for why God did this

depending on the group of believers.

The purpose of this article is to examine every bible verse used to support the Trinity doctrine. In the

journey through these verses, we will inevitably define clearly the relationship between YHWH and Jesus. The

‘Holy Ghost’ will be covered in a separate article because the amount of verses required for understanding what

this is and what it does are far too many to cover in this article and frankly deserve their own article.

As with all of my studies, I am after the truth of what the bible teaches. Sometimes these truths have

been twisted, hidden and confused in order to steer us in the direction of man and flesh versus God and His will.

In order to untwist these truths, it is therefore necessary to examine verses in biblical and cultural context, look

at the Hebrew and Greek used, and rely on the original manuscripts.

Old Testament Verses

Something basic to note before beginning this study is that the Hebrew language does not have capitalized

letters. Whenever you see a word in English in the old testament that has been capitalized such as ‘God’,

‘Spirit’, ‘Holy’ and ‘Lord’, it was the translators decision (based on their personal views and beliefs) to

capitalize the word. Another thing to note is that whenever the Old Testament says, “the LORD”, the word

‘lord’ is written completely in caps because it is the word ‘YHWH’ which is the name of God. Some

Trinitarians believe that YHWH is ‘God the Father’ and some believe that YHWH is the Godhead completely

which is made up of the three parts. For the purposes of being as true to the original language as possible, I will

not be capitalizing anything except ‘YHWH’ when it appears (this will be substituted in for ‘the LORD’).

Genesis 1:1
“In the beginning god created the heavens and the earth.”

• The Trinity argument using this verse recognizes the word ‘elohim’ which was translated to ‘god’ and

the fact that it is a plural noun. Trinitarians argue that this shows the plurality of YHWH.

• In the Hebrew language, nouns do not have very strict rules. For example, masculine nouns can have

feminine endings and singular nouns can have plural endings. One strict rule for Hebrew grammar is

that verbs always agree with nouns in gender and number. Whenever ‘elohim’ refers to YHWH, the

accompanying verb is always singular. Genesis 1:1 clearly shows this, “b’reishith bara elohim et…”

The word ‘bara’ is the singular past tense form of ‘create’. If ‘elohim’ was meant to be plural in this

verse, the word “bar’u” would have been used as the verb, and elohim would have been translated


• In Ex. 7:1, Moses is called an elohim (god) to Pharaoh. In Judges 11:24, Chemosh (a pagan god) is

called elohim. 1 Samuel 5:7, Dagon (a pagan god) is called elohim. This shows that the word ‘elohim’

does not always refer to YHWH.

• Every instance in the bible where the word ‘elohim’ does refer to YHWH, it is accompanied by a

singular attribute (verb or adjective).

• A Hebrew language scholar named Gesenius is considered one of the highest authorities on the

Hebrew language. When writing about the plurality of the noun ‘elohim’, he had this to say about it,

“That the language has entirely rejected the idea of numerical plurality in Elohim (whenever it refers to

YHWH) is proved especially by its being almost invariably joined with a singular attribute.”

E. Kautzsch, ed., Gesenius’ Hebrew Grammar (Clarendon Press, Oxford, 1910), p. 399.

• We can conclude that the plurality of ‘elohim’ is not proof or support of the Trinity doctrine. Because

‘elohim’ always has numerical singularity when referring to YHWH, this verse actually serves as proof

against Trinity doctrine.

Genesis 1:26

“Then god said, “Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness…””

• The Trinity argument for this verse is the usage of the word ‘elohim’ again, and the words ‘us’ and

‘our’. In this verse, the word ‘elohim’ does have a singular verb attached to it: ‘vaiyomer’ (said), but

when ‘elohim’ is referring to himself while speaking, he says ‘us’ and ‘our’.

• Although ‘elohim’ is not given a singular attribute when referring to himself as ‘us’ and ‘our’ in verse

26, verse 27 does. Gen. 1:27, “And god created man in his own image, in the image of god he created
him; male and female he created them.” So verse 26 has ‘elohim’ stating what he intends to do

without a singular attribute, and in verse 27 when ‘elohim’ does it, it does use a singular attribute (past

tense form of ‘create’ just like Gen. 1:1).

• The words ‘us’ and ‘our’ in this verse have caused much debate in many scholastic circles. Some of

the more popular explanations are: 1) YHWH is triune, 2) angels are present, 3) YHWH is talking to

the water and earth (as humans are made up of mostly water and dirt, so we are in their image), and 4)

the grammar is using the ‘plural of majesty’ rule which emphasizes YHWH’s power and authority.

Explanation (1) assumes the Trinity doctrine and can only be accepted if Trinity is proven without

using this verse (so we will refer back to it if that is the case at the end of this study). Explanation (2)

assumes angels are present, but if that is the case, we are created in the image of angels also which is

not supported by any other scriptures. Explanations (3 and 4) are both rational and make sense.

• The ‘plural of majesty’ rule is a grammar concept found in many languages. If you type in ‘the plural

of majesty’ as a Google search, most of the websites that will be near the top of the search list are from

Trinity websites that use very bad logic and false sources to say that the bible does not use this rule.

Some of these websites actually claim that most Hebrew scholars rejected the idea of it. Here are some

real references that you can trust as they come from reliable sources for truthful facts about the Hebrew

language as it is applied to the bible without a Trinity bias already in place:

1) “Applied to the one true God, it (elohim) is the result of the Hebrew idiom of a plural of

magnitude of majesty.” Dictionary of the Bible, 1982, Bethany House Publishers. (Written by

Trinitarian scholars by the way).

2) “The plural of majesty (for elohim), occurs, on the other hand, more than two thousand times.

When used in that sense, it occurs in a numerically singular sense as construed by a verb in the

singular.” Gesenius’ Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon to the Old Testament, p. 49.

3) “ELOHIM – Ordinary Hebrew word for God. It is the plural of majesty.” (NAS Bible Dictionary:

Catholic Book Publishing Co., 1970.)

• The ‘plural of majesty’ rule is actually strongly supported and believed by almost every Hebrew

language expert and scholar (a full list of references would be far too long for this article so search for

it yourself). It is even supported and believed by most of the Trinitarian scholars as well. This being

the case, the explanation for the ‘us’ and ‘our’ in this verse and in Gen. 11:7 given by all of these

scholars is this grammar rule in effect.

• In verse 26, elohim says, “let us make man in our image”. In verse 27, when elohim does what he said

he was going to do, it says, “and god created man in his own image, in the image of god he created

them.” This takes the concept back to a singular. The plural of majesty rule causes a powerful being

to refer to itself in the plural, but when others talk about the powerful being, it would be talked about in

the singular. This is what we witness in verses 26-27.

Genesis 11:7

“Come, let us go down and there confuse their language, that they may not understand one another’s


• The Trinity argument for this verse is YHWH referring to himself as ‘us’.

• Again, the ‘us’ is emphasizing YHWH’s power using the rule of majesty.

• Although the verb for ‘confuse’ (nivlah) is used in the plural sense in this verse for what YHWH is

declaring to do, in verse 9 when YHWH actually does it, “there YHWH confused the language of all

the land”, the word used is balal which is the singular past tense form of nivlah.

• This follows the same pattern seen in Gen. 1:26 where YHWH declares what he will do and uses the

‘rule of majesty’ while referring to himself, but then has a singular verb when he performs the action

he declared.

Genesis 16:7-13

Verses 7-12 talk about “the angel of the lord”. Verse 13: “Then she called the name of YHWH who

spoke to her, “Thou art a god who sees”; for she said, “Have I even remained alive here after seeing him?”

• The Trinity argument for this verse is that the ‘angel of the lord’ is Jesus appearing in the OT. If this is

Jesus, then he is also being called a god.

• No where in the bible does Jesus ever claim to be that angel or is that angel ever claimed or indicated

to be Jesus. So that belief is an assumption.

• It is impossible for that angel to be Jesus (or for Jesus to exist in the OT) because Matt. 1:18 records

the beginning of Jesus, meaning the first time he ever existed. Most English translations of Matt. 1:18

use the word ‘birth’. The Greek word for ‘birth’ is ‘gennesis’, and it can only be translated to ‘birth’.

The Greek word that appears in Matt. 1:18 is not ‘gennesis’ it is ‘genesis’ (γένεσις) which is the Greek

word for ‘origin’, ‘beginning’, ‘birth’. Although genesis can be translated to birth in English, the

concept of the word is not just the physical birth of someone. It is a word used to denote the very first

existence ever of something. If Matt. 1:18 was simply talking about Jesus’ physical birth with the
option of Jesus having pre-existed, they would have used the word ‘gennesis’ because only the word

‘gennesis’ would have allowed for a pre-existence.

• The Hebrew word for angel is ‘malach’ (Root: 4397). It is a word that means ‘messenger’. So an angel

of YHWH is a messenger sent from YHWH.

• We will see many examples as we go along of when YHWH speaks through someone, that person is

sometimes called YHWH because YHWH was speaking through that vessel. In verse 13, we see one

example of this because the angel of YHWH was the one speaking, but she calls the angel YHWH.

Genesis 18:1-2

“Now the Lord appeared to him by the oaks of Mamre, while he was sitting at the tent door in the heat

of the day. And when he lifted up his eyes and looked, behold, three men were standing opposite him; and when

he saw them, he ran from the tent door to meet them, and bowed himself to the earth,”

• Trinitarians say that this verse shows three angels appearing to Abraham. These angels were said to be

men, so they say that one of them was Jesus. Some go so far as to say one of them is YHWH, one is Jesus,

and one is the Holy Ghost (showing a Trinity by having all three together).

• These verses pose an issue for many Christians that have been taught that no one has ever seen

YHWH. The Hebrew text here clearly says YHWH appeared to Abraham, not ‘el’ or ‘elohim’, but

YHWH. Here are some other places where YHWH has appeared to men: Adam and Eve heard his

footsteps (and it is assumed that he fellowshipped with them in person) Gen. 3:8, Abraham (Gen. 12:7,

15:1, 17:1, 18:1), Jacob (Gen. 28:13), Moses and the elders of Israel (Ex. 24:9-11), Samuel (1 Samuel

3:10), Solomon (1 Kings 3:5, 9:2, 11:9), Micaiah (1 Kings 22:19-22), Isaiah (Isa. 6:1-5), Ezekiel

(Ezek. 1:26-28), Daniel (Dan. 7:9-14), Amos (Amos 7:7), Stephan (Acts 7:56), and John (Rev. 5: 1-8).

• I am aware that there are verses that say “no one can see YHWH” in various wordings, but a study on

those verses should reveal to you that it is referring to the full glory and power of YHWH, not actually

physically seeing YHWH.

• We know from the Hebrew that one of these ‘men’ is YHWH. We can not assume that the other two

are Jesus and the Holy Ghost because the text does not say that.

Deuteronomy 6:4

“Hear, O Israel! YHWH is our god, YHWH is one!”

• Some Trinitarians say that the Hebrew word ‘echad’ (one) indicates a compound unity.
• Echad is the Hebrew numeral ‘1’. Isa. 51:2 describes Abraham as being echad (one), and it is used in

other places in the same way without being misunderstood.

• No where in the bible is the word echad used to indicate plurality. Echad is used as one in number, as

‘first’ in a series, as being the same as in “we are like one” in essence or goals etc. Gen. 1:5, 11:1,

21:15, 41:5, Ex. 9:6, 12:49 are all good verses showing the use of the word echad.

• This is actually a very strong verse against Trinity since it is emphatically stating that YHWH is echad,

not three-in-echad, just echad.

Psalm 45:6

“Thy throne, O god, is forever and ever; A scepter of uprightness is the scepter of thy kingdom.”

• This verse is quoted in Heb. 1:8. I will address it when we get there.

Psalm 110:1

“YHWH says to my lord: “Sit at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies a footstool for thy feet.”

• Trinitarians use this verse to say that in the Hebrew ‘my lord’ is adonai which is a word that is only

ever used to refer to YHWH, and since it is being applied to Jesus, it shows his divinity.

• If this were true, then this verse would be saying that YHWH is saying to YHWH, “sit at my right

hand…” That would not make rational sense.

• If ‘my lord’ is referring to Jesus, this would show the divinity of the Messiah. Unfortunately for

Trinitarians, the Hebrew word used for “my lord” in this verse is NOT adonai (pronounced Adon

‘eye’). The word used is adoni (pronounced Adon ‘nee’). Adoni is always used to describe human

persons with power (such as masters and lords) and is NEVER used to describe YHWH.

• The following 148 verses contain 166 uses of the word (adoni) and every one of them either refers to a

human lord or an angel. None refers to YHWH: Gen. 23:6, 11,15; 24:12(2x), 14, 18, 27(3x), 35, 36,

37, 39, 42, 44, 48(2x), 49, 65; 31:35; 33:8, 13, 14(2x), 15; 39:8; 42:10; 43:20; 44:5, 7, 18(2x), 19, 20,

22, 24; 47:18(2x), 25; Exod. 21:5; 32:22; Num. 11:28; 12:11; 32:25, 27; 36:2; Josh. 5:14; 10:1, 3;

Judg. 1:5, 6, 7; 4:18; 6:13; Ruth 2:13; 1 Sam. 1:15, 26(2x); 22:12; 24:8; 25:24, 25(2x), 26(2x), 27, 28,

29, 31, 41; 26:17, 18,19; 29:8; 30:13, 15; 2 Sam. 1:10; 3:21; 9:11; 11:11; 13:32, 33; 14:9, 12, 15,

17(2x), 18,19(2x), 22; 15:15, 21(2x); 16:4, 9; 18:31, 32; 19:19(2x), 20, 26, 27, 30, 35, 37; 24:3, 21, 22;

1 Kings 1:13, 17, 18, 20(2x), 21,24, 27(2x), 31, 36, 37(2x); 2:38; 3:17, 26; 18:7, 10; 20:4; 2 Kings

2:19; 4:16, 28; 5:3, 18, 20, 22; 6:5, 12, 15, 26; 8:5, 12; 10:9; 18:23, 24, 27; 1 Chron. 21:3(2x), 23; 2
Chron. 2:14, 15; Isa. 36:8, 9, 12; Jer. 37:20; 38:9; Dan. 1:10; 10:16, 17(2x), 19; 12:8; Zech. 1:9; 4:4, 5,

13; 6:4.

• Because of this distinction between Adonai and Adoni, this verse actually shows that the Messiah is

being referred to as a human lord and is proof against his divinity.

• It can be argued that original Hebrew writings did not contain vowel markings. So the word is simply

‘adon’ in every case. The vowel markings were added in during the ninth century. We do not have

manuscripts that predate the time when the vowel markings were added (oldest manuscript is dated

1004AD). We do know that the Torah was read every Sabbath day in the synagogues. The words

‘adonai’ and ‘adoni’ have very different pronunciations as I’ve shown above. The Hebrew speaking

people knew the difference and knew when the word was adonai and when it was adoni. We are

forced to trust that they placed the vowel markings correctly in the ninth century, as we have no way of

showing they didn’t. If we say, “the vowel markings are wrong”, then the word remains adon which is

used to refer to YHWH and human lords and masters, so this verse still does not give any proof of

Trinity or Jesus’ divinity.

Proverbs 8:23

“From everlasting I (wisdom) was established, from the beginning, from the earliest times of the


• Trinitarians sometimes try to use this verse to indicate that Jesus pre-existed from the beginning of

time. They do this by showing that Jesus is the “wisdom of God” in 1 Cor. 1:24.

• It is impossible for the wisdom to be Jesus (or for Jesus to exist in the OT) because Matt. 1:18 records

the beginning of Jesus, meaning the first time he ever existed. Most English translations of Matt. 1:18

use the word ‘birth’. The Greek word for ‘birth’ is ‘gennesis’, and it can only be translated to ‘birth’.

The Greek word that appears in Matt. 1:18 is not ‘gennesis’ it is ‘genesis’ (γένεσις) which is the Greek

word for ‘origin’, ‘beginning’, ‘birth’. Although genesis can be translated to birth in English, the

concept of the word is not just the physical birth of someone. It is a word used to denote the very first

existence ever of something. If Matt. 1:18 was simply talking about Jesus’ physical birth with the

option of Jesus having pre-existed, they would have used the word ‘gennesis’ because only the word

‘gennesis’ would have allowed for a pre-existence.

• Most Trinitarian scholars do not even agree with this argument. In Proverbs, the wisdom was

appointed and is subordinate to God. If this wisdom is Jesus, than Proverbs is saying Jesus was the
first thing God created. This would still go against the Trinity teaching of Jesus being God (or 1/3 of

God) since he would have been created by God. So Trinitarians reject it on those points, and I reject it

on the premise that Jesus is the wisdom of God because of what he represented and accomplished, not

actually its personification as a human.

Isaiah 7:14

“Therefore the lord (adonai) himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a

son, and she will call his name Immanuel.”

• The Hebrew name “Immanuel” means “God is with us”. Some use this to say that the Messiah will be

God incarnated as a man because of that. I will cover this when we get to Matthew 1:23.

Isaiah 9:6

“For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us; and the government will rest on his shoulders;

and his name will be called wonderful counselor, mighty god, eternal father, prince of peace.”

• If this verse was accurately translated, than Jesus is not just God the Son but also God the Father.

Many Trinitarian scholars reject this verse because of that.

• Unfortunately for those Trinitarians that do not reject this verse, it has actually been mistranslated.

Starting with “Eternal Father”, Jesus is never referred to as the “Eternal Father” anywhere. When

someone is called a ‘father’ in Hebraic understanding, they are being referred to as more of a founder

of something (such as Sigmund Freud being called the father of psychoanalysis). Examples of this are:

Gen. 4:20 and 21. The word translated to ‘Eternal’ is actually a word that means ‘coming age’. So

Jesus is the father of the coming age is what this means, and clearly that is what he is as high priest and


• The word god (el) has a wide range of uses in Hebrew understanding. There is God (YHWH), god (as

in a pagan god), anyone that has the authority of YHWH is called a god, etc. A supporting example

would be Ezekiel 31:11 when the king of Babylon is called ‘el’. If ‘el’ refers to YHWH or a member

of some Godhead, than the king of Babylon was also God or part of this Godhead.

• It is also said here that this child that will grow up to be all of these things will sit on the throne of

David. This is something that YHWH would never do, only the Messiah, a descendent of David,

would do this (Matt. 9:27 etc.).

Isaiah 43:11

“I, even I, am YHWH; and there is no savior besides me.”

• Trinitarians use this verse to show that Jesus is God since there are several verses where God calls

himself a savior and Jesus calls himself a savior.

• If anyone that is called a savior is God or part of the Godhead, then we have some issues. Judges 3:9

and Judges 3:15 call Othniel and Ehud saviors. In fact, there are many verses that call many men

saviors. Some of them use the English word ‘deliverer’, but it is the same Hebrew word. For some

reason the translators only chose the English word ‘savior’ when it referred to God or Jesus (showing

their Trinity bias).

Isaiah 44:6

“Thus says YHWH, the king of Israel and his redeemer, YHWH of hosts: ‘I am the first and I am the

last, and there is no god besides me.”

• Trinitarians argue that YHWH is called the ‘first and the last’ twice in Isaiah (44:6, 48:12) and Jesus is

called ‘the first and the last’ three times in Revelation (1:17, 2:8, 22:13). Because they are called by

the same title, it means they are the same person.

• We can find examples throughout the entire bible were the same title is used to describe YHWH,

Jesus, and men (such as master, lord, god, ruler, judge, king, savior etc.) without making the

assumption that those titles imply equality (if they did, then we are also God and part of the Godhead).

Why should this title be any different unless the bible explicitly states that it does make them the same

person? And it doesn’t. So what does it mean that Jesus is also called the first and the last? That part

I’m saving for Rev. 1:17 ☺

Jeremiah 17:5

“Thus says YHWH, “Cursed is the man who trusts in mankind and makes flesh his strength, and

whose heart turns away from YHWH.”

• Trinitarians argue that since we are told not to trust men, but are to trust Jesus; Jesus can not be a man

(and therefore must be God).

• I think that is a huge misunderstanding of this verse. The context of the verse says that you are cursed

if you trust the flesh and turn away from YHWH. Obviously trusting a representative of YHWH is not

turning away from YHWH. People were not cursed for trusting Moses, Joshua or David. Also, Moses,

Joshua, and David are not considered part of the Godhead even though we are to trust them.

Jeremiah 23:6
“In his days Judah will be saved, and Israel will dwell securely; and this is his name by which he will

be called, ‘YHWH our righteousness.’”

• Some argue that because Jesus will be called ‘YHWH our righteousness’ that this somehow makes him

God. First of all, it says he will be ‘called’ not just ‘will be’. Secondly, Jerusalem is also called

‘YHWH our righteousness’ (Jer. 33:16) and is obviously not God. There are many places were alters

are given the name YHWH (Ex. 17:15, Judges 6:24) and those are not God. Abraham called the

mountain he was to sacrifice his son on ‘YHWH will provide’. So just because Jesus and Jerusalem

will be called ‘YHWH our righteousness’ does not make them God.

• Something to point out is that in all of these cases of naming, the word ‘is’ gets implied in the Hebrew.

So it’s not just ‘YHWH our righteousness’ it’s ‘YHWH is our righteousness’. That alone should clear

up any confusion from this verse.

Micah 5:2

“But as for you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, too little to be among the clans of Judah, from you one will go

forth for me to be ruler in Israel. His goings forth are from long ago, from the days of eternity.”

• The words ‘goings forth’ is sometimes translated as ‘origins’. The Hebrew used signifies a ‘going out’

or that it was determined previously (in this context, the birth of the Messiah). In contrast to the

Messiah that had a genesis or origin/beginning, YHWH is without an origin. This is signifying that the

plan of redemption existed from eternity.

• All of the early Jews that studied this prophecy new that it meant the Messiah would be born in

Bethlehem (Matt. 2:3-6). Yet, none of them concluded from this wording that the Messiah would be

‘YHWH incarnate’.

• I suggest everyone just reads all of Micah (it’s not that long). The context shows that the ‘ruler’ from

Bethlehem will not be YHWH. This ruler will be born (have an origin), will have brothers, and that

YHWH will be this rulers God. This clearly shows the Messiah being subject to YHWH which should

disprove any teaching that says Jesus is equal to YHWH or is YHWH.

Zechariah 12:10

“And I will pour out on the house of David and on the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and

of supplication, so that they will look on me whom they have pierced; and they will mourn for him, as one

mourns for an only son, and they will weep bitterly over him, like the bitter weeping over a first-born.”
• This verse is rarely brought up in the Trinity argument, but I wanted a list that was as complete as


• The issue is when it says “they will look on me (YHWH) whom they have pierced; and they will

mourn for him (the Messiah)…” Some take this to mean that YHWH became flesh and was pierced

during the crucifixion, showing that Jesus is God.

• There are books written about the mistranslation of this verse which stems from the way it was written

in Hebrew. Apparently it was written in a very confusing way, so scholars have no idea what the word

‘me’ was meant to be translated as.

• John 19:37 reflects back to this prophecy saying “and, as another scripture says, ‘they will look on the

one they have pierced.’” Out of all of the various translations of the bible, they all agree that the word

‘me’ wasn’t there when John 19:37 quotes it. Does that mean it shouldn’t be there? No, but it is


• Rev. 1:7 says “Look, he is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, even those who pierced

him; and all the peoples of the earth will mourn because of him. So shall it be! Amen.” Again, this is

referring back to Zechariah and says that it was ‘him’ (Jesus) that got pierced, not ‘me’ (YHWH).

• Luke 2:35 says of Mary, “A sword will pierce your own soul too”, when referring to Jesus being

tortured and crucified. Was Mary literally going to be pierced? No, she wasn’t. So even if the word

‘me’ was meant to be in Zechariah 12:10, I think it can be easily understood as YHWH feeling pierced

in the same way as Mary while watching his son be tortured and crucified. YHWH would be pierced

spiritually (like Mary) while Jesus was being pierced physically by a roman spear.

• Because Mary is not Jesus, we can’t take this to mean YHWH is Jesus.

That concludes all of the Old Testament verses that are used in an attempt to support the Trinity doctrine (that I

know of at least). I have not yet covered: Psalms 45:6 and Isaiah 7:14. As I stated in each of those, we will be

referring back to them when we get to the corresponding New Testament verses. As far as I can tell from the

Old Testament alone, there are no verses that support Trinity, and there are actually a few verses that disprove


New Testament – The Gospel

Something to note about the New Testament before getting started is that the manuscripts were written entirely

in capitalized letters. In fact, they didn’t even put spaces between the words: SOTHEYAPPEAREDLIKETHIS.

Because of this, the English translators had to use context and language grammar to determine when words

referred the lord YHWH or the lord Jesus. The word for god in Greek is ‘theos’. The Greek language uses a

definite article to designate the one true God (the theos). When something has a relation to something else or is

a part of something else, the definite article can imply ownership. Example: “The boy read the book” can also

be translated “The boy reads his book”. This is called the ‘reflexive sense’, and it is determined by context.

Another thing to note is how the manuscripts have been altered over the years. The KJV of the bible is based

off of a manuscript that was put together by a man named Erasmus. He used six Greek manuscripts and the

Latin Vulgate. His final produced manuscript was called the Textus Receptus. Most bible scholars reject this

Greek manuscript, as it is the most mistranslated and doctored Greek manuscript we have as Erasmus used

church father decrees and writings to fill in where he was missing texts (and he was missing a lot because he

used poor quality manuscripts for his compilation). This website has an explanation of Greek manuscripts and a

description of the fourth century copies that I rely on for translations:

Matthew 1:23

“Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and shall bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel,”

which translated means, “God with us.”

• I’d first like to mention something about verses 22 and 24. In verse 22 it says God spoke through the

prophet which is just another example of how when God speaks through something or someone (like

an angel) that person represents the full authority of God and in the Hebrew language, those people are

referred to on several occasions as ‘gods’ or are actually called “God”. This concept also is used in the

NT with the Greek. Verse 24 says that Joseph did as the angel commanded him. The angel was able to

command Joseph because he represented the authority of God.

• The correct translation of ‘Immanuel’ is “God is with us”. The Hebrew language lacks the form of the

present tense verb ‘to be’ so it must often be assumed. Immanuel is a compound of three words: ‘im’

(with) ‘anu’ (us) ‘el’ (God). So without the verb present it means ‘with us God’. Using other names

for example: Elijah – ‘eli’ (my God) ‘jah’ (Yahweh) = ‘my God Yahweh’ if we are being direct and

not assuming the verb. Using correct Hebrew interpretation it reads: ‘Yahweh is my God’. Another
example is Daniel: ‘dani’ (my judge) ‘el’ (God) = ‘my judge God’ which should translate ‘God is my

judge’. Michael: ‘mi’ (who) ‘cha’ (like) ‘el’ (God) = ‘who like God’ which translates ‘who is like


• We have already talked a bit about names. Just because something is ‘called’ or ‘named’ something,

doesn’t mean they are literally that thing. Here are some examples: Elijah means “Yahweh is my God”,

but Elijah was not God or included in the Trinity Godhead. Bithiah’s (a daughter of Pharaoh) name

means “daughter of Yahweh”. Bithiah was not the sister of Jesus was she? Dibri’s name means

“Promise of Yahweh”. Was she the real Messiah? Eliab’s name means “My God is my father”. Was he

the real son of God? Michael means ‘who is like God’. Was Michael God or the Messiah? Clearly

these names do not indicate these men are God, so we can not take ‘Immanuel’ as proof of Jesus being


• I talked about names in Jeremiah 23:6 if you want to refer back to those notes.

Matthew 4:10

Then Jesus said to him, “Begone, Satan! For it is written. “You shall worship YHWH your God, and

serve him only.’”

• Verses 1-11 are all worth reading at this point. Trinitarians sometimes argue that Jesus could not be

tempted because he is God and God certainly can’t be tempted (James 1:13). I think these verses show

Jesus being tempted pretty clearly. Yes, he does refuse Satan, but Satan is ‘tempting’ him. Heb. 2:17

and 4:15 talk about how Jesus was “made like his brothers in every way” and was “tempted in every

way, just as we are”. So obviously Satan thinks it’s possible for Jesus to give into the temptation

right? In verse 4, Jesus is tempted with food. He says “It is written, ‘Man shall not live on bread alone,

but on every word that proceeds out of the mouth of God.’” Jesus is recognizing God’s superiority to

himself by saying that for one, and for two he says “every word”, could that possible include the Law?

In verse 7, Jesus says, “It is written, you shall not put the Lord your God to the test.’” If Jesus was

God, how would it have been putting God to the test? He would just be testing himself.

• Trinitarians use verse 10 to show that only God is to be worshipped and served. I agree. The problem

is that Trinitarians then go on to say that Jesus was worshipped and served and so therefore must be

God. Interesting point. Here’s another interesting point: Satan is asking Jesus to worship him. Why

would Satan think that God would worship him? That silly Devil. Let’s explore the bible a little and

see what it shows about worshipping and serving. Throughout the bible it was common for people to
worship other people. The issue is that the word that gets translated to worship is not always translated

to worship. The Trinitarian translators translated the word to worship when it referred to God or Jesus

and “bow before” or “pay homage to” whenever a man did it to a man. Here are some verses to show

that: Gen. 19:1, 23:7, 33:3 37:10, 43:26, Joshua 5:14, Ruth 2:10, 1Sam. 20:41, 25:41. So it is clear that

men worshipped men without it being wrong or a sin.

• It is clear that there is a special kind of worship that is reserved for YHWH alone. The word used in

this verse is latreuo. This word is used in other verses where men worship or serve other things. There

is no unique vocabulary word that is used only for the worship of YHWH, so we must deduce that the

worship for YHWH is based on intent. There are several verses where someone went to worship

someone else, and the person being worshipped told the worshipper to stop. Some of these verses are:

Acts 10:26 and Rev. 19:10. In Rev. 19:10, John is trying to worship an angel. Clearly John knew better

than to worship someone other than God.

• Since the worship that is reserved for God alone is based on the intent of the heart, we can deduce that

we are only to worship God as a God and no one else. We can worship other people in the sense of

paying respect or honoring them, as long as we do not view them as a God. Therefore, worshipping

Jesus as a God is exactly what Jesus was talking against when he quoted, “You shall worship the Lord

(YHWH) your God only”.

Matthew 9:2-3

“And behold, they were bringing to Him a paralytic, lying on a bed; and Jesus seeing their faith said to

the paralytic, “Take courage, my son, your sins are forgiven.” And behold, some of the scribes said to

themselves, “This fellow blasphemes.”

• See notes on Mark 2:7.

Matthew 9:8

“But when the multitudes saw this, they were filled with awe, and glorified God, who had given such

authority to men.”

• Some Trinitarians use this verse to say Jesus is God. I think a simple reading of it shows that it is

saying the opposite. They were glorifying God (YHWH) for giving the power (or authority) to men. It

is recognizing Jesus as a MAN with authority GIVEN to him by YHWH. This shows that Jesus is

lower than God if God has to give Jesus authority.

Matthew 28:18-20
“And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to me in heaven and on

earth. Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son

and the Holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to

the end of the age.”

• Again, Jesus says that his authority has been GIVEN to him. Acts 2:36 says God MADE him lord and

Christ. Eph. 1:22 says God PLACED everything under his feet and APPOINTED him to the head of

the church. This is just to further emphasize the fact that God has the real power and authority and

gave it to his son. The son is not equal to the father, but has been given the full authority of the father.

• “Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations in my name.” is what the original Greek

manuscripts say. There are actually several historical records of church fathers and other respected

elders quoting this exact verse and reading it this way. Now, if you want to believe it was written the

way the Trinitarian translators wrote it (to say “in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit),

then let’s look at what the disciples actually did (since they were the ones Jesus was giving this

command to). Acts 2:38, Peter says “Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus

Christ for the forgiveness of your sins”. No mention of the Father or Holy Spirit. Acts 8:16 “they had

simply been baptized in the name of Jesus Christ”. Acts 10:48 “so he ordered them to be baptized in

the name of Jesus Christ”. Acts 19:5 “On hearing this, they were baptized into the name of Jesus

Christ”. I guess they didn’t realize Jesus meant the Father and Holy Spirit as well.

• Some argue that we can only be baptized into God (therefore Jesus is God). 1 Cor. 10:2 says the

Israelites were baptized into Moses. If you are familiar with Hebrew culture, you’ll know that anyone

that was a disciple of someone else (and all the high priests and teachers had disciples), they were

baptized into them. It was a ceremony showing apprenticeship or yourself as being a devoted follower

of the person’s teachings.

Mark 2:7

“Why does this man speak that way? He is blaspheming; who can forgive sins but God alone?”

• One of the main things Jesus did was show where people at the time had misunderstood, added to, or

taken away from Torah. They believed that only God had the power to forgive sins. There are

numerous verses in Torah where we are told to forgive those who have transgressed (sinned against)

us. Jesus says in John 20:23 “if you forgive anyone his sins, they are forgiven.” The apostles and Jesus

had the ability to forgive transgressions of the Law. This authority has been given to Jesus and the
apostles by God. If Jesus having this ability makes him God, then the apostles are also God. What is

clear is that Jesus and the apostles acted with the authority of God which was given to them. This is

why they could forgive those sins.

• There was a misconception that Jesus was trying to make himself out to be a god with power of his

own accord. This is why the Jews kept getting angry at him. In all of these cases, Jesus keeps trying to

explain to them that he represents YHWH and has been given the authority of YHWH. He never says,

“I am God” or “I am YHWH”.

Luke 1:35

“And the angel answered and said to her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the

Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy offspring shall be called the son of God.”

• Some Trinitarians use the phrase “son of God” to indicate that Jesus pre-existed or existed eternally.

Matthew 1:18 records the ‘beginning’ of Jesus. Not just his birth, but his very genesis. By the usage of

the word ‘son’, he couldn’t possible have existed eternally because the son always comes after the

father (which is YHWH).

• The phrase ‘son of God’ is not unique to Jesus. In the OT: Gen. 6:2, Job 1:6, 2:1, all refer to angels

using the same phrase (sometimes the phrase is just directly translated to ‘angel’). Israel is also called

a ‘son of God’ in Ex. 4:22. In the NT: 1 John 3:1 -2 says anyone that is grafted in is called a ‘son of

God’ (some translations say ‘children of God’ but that is just another Trinitarian translator error to

separate us from also being called sons of God. It’s the same Greek wording!). So clearly being called

a ‘son of God’ does not mean you have existed eternally or are equal to God.

Luke 1:47

“And my spirit has rejoiced in God my savior.”

• Trinitarians argue that both Jesus and God are called ‘savior’ so that makes them the same person. We

have already discussed that being ‘called’ or ‘named’ something does not make you the same thing as

something else that gets ‘called’ or ‘named’ it.

• There are many instances in the bible where men are called saviors. Trinitarian translators often used

the English word ‘deliverer’ in those cases as a way of separating them from Jesus and God. It is the

same word being used in those cases. Neh. 9:27, 2 Kings 13:5, Isaiah 19:20. Obviously just because

something is called savior does not mean it is God.

• YHWH is our Savior because He sent Jesus. Jesus is our Savior because he was obedient to YHWH

even unto death. Yeshua literally means “YHWH is salvation.”

Luke 5:20-21

“And seeing their faith, He said, “Friend, your sins are forgiven you.” And the scribes and the

Pharisees began to reason, saying, “Who is this man who speaks blasphemies? Who can forgive sins, but God


• Read the notes on Mark 2:7 again.

Luke 7:16

“And fear gripped them all, and they began glorifying God, saying, “A great prophet has arisen among

us!” and, “God has visited His people!”

• Trinitarians sometimes argue that the phrase “God has visited His people!” shows that Jesus is God.

First of all, within the context of this verse, they recognized Jesus as being a great prophet not God.

Secondly, it is said that God has done something anytime the effects of his will take place. For

example, if a friend gave you some money in a time of need, you would say “God has blessed me” in

reference to your friend’s actions. Whenever something God does is through another person (such as a

prophet or even a great prophet), it is said that God did it, and occasionally the vessel God worked

through is also recognized.

Luke 8:39

““Return to your house and describe what great things God has done for you.” And he went away,

proclaiming throughout the whole city what great things Jesus had done for him.”

• I think the Trinitarian argument made from this verse is obvious. Remember, whenever a person is

doing the will of God, it is recognized as being an action of God. God acts through people. Often God

is acknowledged for this. Scriptures refer to things like “God spoke through the prophet” or “God

freed his people from Egypt” even though it was Moses that physically went and asked Pharaoh to let

the people go. Often times the person that performs the will of God is also recognized. “Moses led the

Israelites out of Egypt” even though God freed them and led the way.

• Jesus told the man to go and proclaim what God had done. The man went and proclaimed what Jesus

had done. Does this make Jesus God or does this make the man disobedient? Maybe this shows the

tendency of men to try and make gods out of other men and physical things. Why didn’t Jesus say “Go

and proclaim what I have done”, if he was implying that he was God?
• We know that God’s actions or miracles are performed through men (such as with Moses and the

plagues and splitting the sea, the apostles healing people, etc.). So regardless of what the man went

and proclaimed and what was meant by the proclamation, Jesus himself was acknowledging that it was

God that performed miracles through him. This shows that Jesus is not God.

John 1:1

“In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was God.”

• When this verse says “and the logos was God”, it’s not actually saying ‘was God’ it is saying ‘was a

god’. The definite article is not present. As we progress through the scriptures it will become clearer

that Jesus was viewed as a god (someone sent by God, the theos, with His full authority).

• The first thing we must understand about this verse is the word logos (which got translated to ‘Word’).

It appears over 300 times in the bible. Trinitarians have chosen 7 of those times to capitalize it because

they wanted it to refer to Jesus. The word ‘logos’ has been translated to a variety of English words, but

its context and meaning are always the same (based on the actually Greek definition of the word). The

word logos means ‘logic’, ‘commands’, ‘something that was said’, ‘expression of will’ (Rom. 15:18,

Luke 20:20, Matt. 21:24, 1 Tim. 5:17, Gal. 5:14, John 4:37, Luke 4:32, John 6:60, Acts 8:21, Matt.

15:6, Heb. 13:7, Matt. 12:36, Matt. 18:23, Acts 10:29). Hard core Trinitarians argue that the ‘Word’ is

Jesus and will not except any other interpretation, but I think it is pretty clear that the ‘Word’ is the

Law (or Torah): Psalm 119:105, Ex. 24:3, Dt. 32:46, Isa 2:3, Micah 4:2, Ps. 119:160. Ex. 20, when

God speaks the Law, starts with, “And God spoke all these words…” John continues after this verse to

explain that Jesus was the Law being lived in the flesh. For the purposes of this verse, all John is

talking about is that the Law of God (His will, or personality) was in the beginning, was with God and

is a god. There are plenty of verses that state we come to know God through the Law. Why? Because

the Law is who God is (I think of it as his personality).

• Attributes of God are often spoken of as personifications such as Wisdom in Proverbs 8:23. The

motivation of God (Spirit) is also spoken of in this way, and John 1:1 speaks of His

commands/logic/Law in the same way by saying it was a god. The Law contains the authority of God,

so it is therefore a god in Hebrew.

• This verse is actually proof towards the Law existing from the very beginning.

John 1:3
“All things came into being by Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into


• Our review of John 1:1 should now put this verse into better context. Logos, BTW, should be referred

to as ‘it’ not ‘he’ or ‘him’ because it does not have masculine gender attached to it (Trinitarian

translators made it masculine so that it could refer to Jesus). The ‘Him’ in this verse is the will,

command, speech, Law etc. of God.

• Genesis records the creation of everything, “And God said let there be light”. It was through the word

of God that everything came into being including the light.

John 1:10

“He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him.”

• If you start in verse 6, you will see that the ‘He’ in this verse is referring to the ‘true light’. If you read

on through verse 13, you’ll see that the ‘true light’ gave the right to become a ‘son of God’ to anyone

that would receive it (the true light). Now we must ask ourselves what is the true light. Trinitarians

would say “it must be Jesus because Jesus is called the light”. True enough, but we are also called to

be ‘lights” to the world. It says that anyone that would receive the light would be a son of God. Where

else does it talk about becoming a son of God? Rom. 8:14-15, “For all who are being led by the Spirit

of God (God’s will, command –aka- Law), these are sons of God. For you have not received a spirit of

slavery (Egypt, the flesh, sin, man’s will) leading to fear again, but you have received a spirit of

adoption as sons by which we cry out, “Abba! Father!” So if we receive the commands or Law of God

(perhaps having it written on our hearts) than we are called sons of God. If we receive the ‘true light’,

we are called sons of God. Could it be that the ‘true light’ is the Law of God?

John 1:14-15

“And the word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only

begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. John bore witness of him, and cried out, saying, ‘This was he

of whom I said, he who comes after me has a higher rank than I, for he existed before me.’”

• The plan of redemption took place through Jesus, “The will of God became flesh”. Jesus is also the

“light to the world”. By giving us the true light (the Law of God), we can be called sons of God (just

like Jesus).

• Trinitarians say that John said Jesus existed before him (showing that Jesus is eternal or pre-existed at

the very least). John is talking in the context of the logos throughout this verse. “The logos became
flesh, dwelt among us, we beheld its full glory, glory from the Father, full of grace and truth. This is

the logos I spoke of, the logos that will come after me and existed before me and is more important

than me.” He is saying the logos existed before him, not Jesus. Matthew 1:18 records the genesis

(beginning, origin, first moment of existence) of Jesus.

John 1:18

“No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has

explained Him.”

• “The only begotten Son” is what the original Greek manuscripts say. Trinitarian translators changed it

to God to give a stronger argument for Trinity. Interestingly enough, a man named Tertullian, who is

credited for coming up with the concept of one God in three persons, quoted this verse in several of his

writings and speeches. He always quoted it as saying “begotten Son” not “begotten God”. Tertullian

argued aggressively for the Trinity doctrine and would most certainly have quoted the verse with

“begotten God” if the transcripts had stated that.

• I love this verse. Earlier, I was talking about how there are plenty of verses that say man has seen God

(physically with their eyes). Some use this verse to argue that no one can see God. I agree. The word

translated to ‘see’ is a word that means “know fully” (not see physically). No one can know God

except through His Law, and through his son, who was the Law being kept perfectly by the flesh, we

were able to ‘see’ (come to know) God because he (Jesus, the Law in the flesh) has explained Him


John 2:19

“Jesus answered and said to them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.”

• Verse 21 makes it clear that Jesus was actually talking about the temple of his body (our bodies are

now considered the temple of God and we are meant to keep them pure, 1 Cor. 3:16).

• Some Trinitarians believe that Jesus raised himself from the dead (trying to give him power of his own

accord to make him a God). Here is an interesting verse that is in conflict with that belief: 1

Corinthians 6:14 “Now God has not only raised the Lord, but will also raise us up through His power.”

So what was Jesus meaning? In the context of this verse, the Jews were ‘destroying’ the temple by

defiling it. Jesus had just gotten done flipping over tables and chasing out animals. Perhaps he was

referring to the three days it would take for God to raise him from the dead. So in those three days he

would raise up, not his physical body, but the temple. What happened after Jesus was raised from the
dead? 1 Corinthians 6:19-20 “Or do you not know that your body is a temple for the will of God that is

in you, that you have received from God, and that you are not your own? For you have been bought

with a price (the blood offering of Jesus): therefore glorify God in your body.” Man has destroyed the

physical temple, but in three days, Jesus raised a new temple: us! And now we are meant to keep our

temples (bodies) pure (perhaps not defiling them with unclean things).

John 2:24

“But Jesus, on his part, was not entrusting himself to them, for he knew all men,”

• This is a rarely used verse in the Trinity arguments that I’ve heard, but I thought it worth mentioning

because of a contradiction that arises when this verse does get brought up. Some Trinitarians argue that

Jesus had the full knowledge of everything because he is God so therefore knows all things. There are

verses that show a limitation of what Jesus knows: Luke 2:52, Matthew 24:36 for example. Prophets

were able to know things about men through God: 2 Sam. 12:7, 1 Kings 14:4-6, 21:17-20, 2 Kings 1:1-

4, 2 Kings 5:19-27, Dan. 2:5. There were also verses mentioned above where Jesus knew what men

were thinking and was viewed as a great prophet. When Jesus says he knows all men in this verse, he

is talking about the sin nature of man. Verse 25 supports that, “and because he did not need anyone to

bear witness concerning man for he himself knew what was in man.”

John 3:13

“And no one has ascended into heaven, but he who descended from heaven, even the son of Man.”

• If we look throughout the bible, we get a good idea of what it means to be descended from heaven.

James 1:17 says every good gift comes from above, Mal. 3:10 says the heavens will poor out blessings,

John 17:18 says, “As you sent me into the world, I have sent them”. Clearly things coming from

heaven simply means they are from God, not that they physically dwelt there before hand. Also, didn’t

Elijah and Enoch get taken by God into heaven without a physical death? I don’t think Jesus was being

literal here.

• If we read the verses before it the context becomes clearer (please read verse 1-12). Jesus says in verse

12, “If I told you earthly things and you do not believe, how shall you believe if I tell you heavenly

things?” It appears Jesus was then saying in verse 13 that no one present had ascended into heaven

(seen/understood heavenly things because they have never seen them: verse 11), so no one present

would understand heavenly things, except someone that descended from heaven (sent by God), only

that person would be able to understand heavenly things (because they were sent by God to perform a
task of God’s will). Those that descended from heaven were sent by God (such as prophets). Also, it

continues to talk about how Jesus brought us the light. For those of us that believe in Jesus (accepting

the light), judgment will pass over us. Verse 21, “But he who PRACTICES the truth comes to the light

(what is the truth of the light? The LAW), that his DEEDS may be manifested as having been wrought

in God.” Sounds like our physical actions are what determine if we have the light and therefore escape

judgment (verses 16-19). That is what being born again means: giving up the life ruled by flesh for a

life ruled by the Law of God. Only then will you have the light. Nicodemus did not understand this.

John 5:18

“For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because he not only was

breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.”

• I think that it is fair to point out here that the Jews (who were the masters of their own language and

understood the Torah better than anyone) knew that the Sabbath was not meant to be broken and that

Jesus should not be claiming himself to be God. These things would have been blasphemous

according to the Torah and the prophets.

• The word ‘equal’ does not mean same person. It is a word that means ‘same authority’ (See Gen. 44:18

and 2 Corinthians 11:12). Jesus goes on to explain in the next 6 verses that all the authority he has, he

got from his Father. He was trying to explain to the Jews that he was not claiming to be God or

claiming to have the authority of his own accord. He was given authority by God. The Jews were mad

because Jesus was claiming to be the Messiah which leads him to say, “If you do not believe my

words, believe my works”.

John 6:33

“For the bread of God is that which comes down out of heaven, and gives life to the world.”

• Same as previous verse. Coming from heaven simply means sent by God. Interestingly, this verse says

that Jesus is the bread of God. What was it that Jesus said to Satan? “You shall not live on bread alone,

but on every word that comes from God.” Interesting.

John 6:38

“For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of Him who sent me.”

• Again, the phrase being used here “come down from heaven” is a phrase that means sent by God. I

also love how Jesus says that he has not come to do his own will but the will of God. Further proof

that Jesus is not God, was sent by God and is doing God’s will not his own (because he is not God).
John 6:46

“Not that any man has seen the Father, except the one who is from God; he has seen the Father.”

• Once again, he who is sent by God (descended from heaven) has seen (understands) God. Trinitarians

say that Jesus must have pre-existed because he has seen God. I trust that (assuming you’ve read these

verses in order) you now understand what it means to see God and descend from heaven. This verse

should be self-explanatory.

John 6:62

“What then if you should behold the son of man ascending where he was before?”

• The word translated to ascending in this verse is anabaino. This makes people think he is talking about

his ascension into heaven in Acts 1:9. Acts 1:9 does not use this word for ascension. This word

(anabaino) means to go up. It is used in the following verses: Matt. 5:1, Matt. 3:16, Mark 1:10, Mark

4:7-8, Luke 19:4. It is translated into “climbing”, “coming up” (when Jesus came up from under the

water during his baptism), “grow up” (referring to plants). Jesus is talking about his resurrection and

“coming up” from under the ground.

• Reading the verses around this one for context reveals that Jesus is talking about his resurrection not


• I’m not sure why this verse gets used in Trinity arguments, but it’s been mentioned to me before so I

figured I’d go over it.

John 6:64

“But there are some of you who do not believe.” For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were

who did not believe, and who it was that would betray Him.”

• Once again, the use of the word ‘beginning’ has been twisted. Trinitarians try to argue that Jesus knew

from the beginning of time. This beginning is referring to a shorter time. Perhaps from the beginning

of his discipleships, Jesus knew it would be Judas that would betray him? If you do a study on the

‘betrayal’ of Judas, you’ll realize that Judas didn’t actually ‘betray’ Jesus in that sense. He was chosen

to be the person that would hand him over. He was told to do it as part of God’s plan. Jesus new Judas

was the one that would be picked.

John 8:24

“I said therefore to you, that you shall die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am he, you shall

die for your sins.”

• Some translations, like the one I am using, have inserted the word “He” or “God” to support the Trinity

doctrine. The verse actually just reads “I am”.

• Now you might be thinking, “didn’t God call himself I am?” No actually, He didn’t. The Hebrew

word used in Ex. 3:14 is “ehyeh” which gets translated to ‘I am’ but actually means ‘to be’. In Ex.

3:12 (just 2 verses prior), God says, “I will be (ehyeh) with thee”. It’s weird that the translators

decided to change it in Ex. And this verse in order to make that Trinitarian connection between God

and Jesus. I find that a little disturbing.

• So in Exodus, when God says, “I am who I am, thus you shall tell the sons of Israel, ‘I am has sent me

to you’”, God is really saying in response to what Moses should call Him, “I will be what I will be”.

What does that mean? Well there are many examples in the bible where men are said to be known by

the fruits of their labors. Jesus says if you do not believe my words, believe my works. So what is it

that God does? His Law. That lines up with many verses that say we will know God through his Law

and through Jesus who was the Law being lived in the flesh.

• In this verse, the phrase ‘I am’ is a phrase that is used for designation, such as “it is I”. John 20:31

says, “But these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the son of God, and that by

believing you may have life in his name.” It does not say, “so that you may believe that Jesus is God.”

Jesus is simply saying in this verse, “If you do not believe that I am who I claim to be (the Passover

lamb, sin offering, Messiah) than you will die in your sins”.

• Romans 11:1 and Timothy 1:15 are other examples of this Greek designation of ‘I am’ (ego imi) being

applied to men. So there is no way this can connect Jesus to God.

John 8:58

“Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.”

• This is another verse where Jesus calls himself ‘I am’ and Trinitarians relate this to when YHWH calls

him self ‘I am’ when speaking to Moses through a burning bush. As you now know, YHWH did not

call himself ‘I am’.

• The wording used in this verse should read ‘I am he’. Here are several other places where the same

wording is used: Mark 13:6, Luke 21:8, John 13:19, 18:5-8, Matt. 14:27, Mark 6:50, John 6:20, 8:24-

28. The words that got translated to ‘I am’ were commonly used to signify ones self. In Matt. 26:22-25,

the disciples said what should have been translated as, “Not I am, Lord” when declaring they wouldn’t

be the person to betray him.

• What Jesus is saying here is that he was always the plan for salvation, even before Abraham. Lots of

verses refer to Abraham for salvation contexts because Abraham is ‘the father’ of Israel (that does not

mean he is God lol). It was with Abraham that the original covenants were made. “For he was looking

forward to the city with foundation, whose architect and builder is God” (Heb. 11:10). Abraham ‘saw’

the future kingdom of God with the salvation plan (Jesus) by knowing what God was promising him.

• Read from verse 53 for context of this verse. The Jews say to Jesus, “Surely you are not greater than

our father Abraham, who died? The prophets died too; whom do you make yourself to be?” Jesus

answered, “If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing; it is my father who glorifies me, of whom you say,

‘He is our God’’ and you have not come to know Him, but I know Him; and if I say that I do not know

Him, I shall be a liar like you, but I do know Him, and keep His word.” (Side Note: the phrase here is

linking ‘knowing Him’ with ‘keep His word’ as a concept). “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my

day, and he saw it and was glad.” Jesus is not just claiming that he ‘existed’ before Abraham, but is

also claiming that Abraham ‘saw’ Jesus in his day (which was the present time, so basically he is

saying Abraham is still alive). Obviously this is not literal. As stated above, Abraham ‘saw’ the

kingdom to come and knew the salvation plan. The plan of redemption existed from the beginning of

time. Jesus did not physically exist until he was born, but the redemption that he represented existed in

the mind of God eternally.

• It should be clear now that when Jesus says, “I am he” in this verse, he is signifying who he is (the plan

of redemption) and making reference to the covenant made with Abraham (for which the redemption is

the promise of).

John 10:18

“No one has taken it away from me, but I lay it down on my own initiative, I have authority to lay it

down, and I have authority to take it up again. This commandment I received from my Father.”

• So recently I made the statement to a Trinitarian that God raised Jesus from the dead, and she quoted

this verse to me to say that Jesus raised himself from the dead. I don’t think all Trinitarians believe

that because I’ve never heard anyone try to make that argument or claim before. Anyway, here is the

verse. We already looked at John 2:19 which explained that Jesus rose up the temple. We looked at 1

Corinthians 6:14 that explicitly states, “By his power, God raised Jesus from the dead”. So let’s read a

few verses before this one to get context.

• Starting in verse 14: “I am the good shepherd; and I know my own, and my own know me, even as the

father knows me and I know the father; and I lay down my life for the sheep”. So far it is clear Jesus is

talking about how he is willingly going to be the sacrifice for his sheep (us). 16: “and I have other

sheep, which are not of this fold; I must bring them also, and they shall hear my voice; and they shall

become one flock with one shepherd.” A reference to others being grafted in to his flock. 17: “For this

reason the father loves me, because I lay down my life that I may take it again.” Talking about being

sacrificed and raised from the grave. 18: “No one has taken it away from me, but I lay it down on my

own initiative. I have authority to lay it down, and I have authority to take it up again. This

commandment I received from my father.” No one is murdering Jesus; he is giving his life up freely as

a sacrifice. He has the authority to do that and the authority to be risen from the grave (before

judgment day, something only Jesus was allowed to do). He was commanded by God to do this. So

who did it? God commanded Jesus to do it by giving him the authority (permission) to do it. I think it

makes sense to say that God raised Jesus from the grave (as 1 Corinthians 6:14 states).

John 10:30

“I and the Father are one.”

• Obviously Trinitarians use this verse to indicate that Jesus and the Father are one being. This actually

goes against the standard Trinity doctrine that teaches they are separate beings that make up one God.

So perhaps you could use this verse to say that it is indicating they make up one God.

• This word for ‘one’ is also used when Paul says, when speaking of Apollos, “he who plants and he

who waters are ONE” (1 Cor. 3:8). John 11:52 says that Jesus died to make all of God’s children ‘one’

(same word). John 17:11, 21-22 all have Jesus asking God to make his followers ‘one’ (same word) as

he and God are ‘one’ (same word). I think that is enough to show that when it says ‘one’ it does not

mean ‘one being’, it means ‘with one purpose’ or ‘with the same goals/beliefs/mission/purpose etc.’

So Jesus and God have the same purpose, and we are also meant to be ‘one’ (have the same purpose)

with them.

John 10:33

“The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone you, but for blasphemy; and because you,

being a man, make yourself out to be God.”

• Shouldn’t the Jews be aware that the Messiah was supposed to be God incarnate? I guess they didn’t

understand their own plural word ‘Elohim’ and the prophecies and Law that they studied every 7th day

since they were 12 years old in the Synagogues.

• This verse actually reads, “For a good work we do not stone you, but for blasphemy, because you, a

man, claim to be a god.” For some reason, the Trinitarian translators decided to but ‘God’ (the theos)

in this verse when it only says ‘theos’ (a god).

• How did Jesus reply to this accusation? Verse 34, “Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in

your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’? If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the

Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world,

‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the son of God’? If I do not do the works of my Father,

do not believe me; but if I do them, though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may

know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.”

• This response shows a few things that I have been saying and showing for awhile now: the Prophets

(those to whom the word of God came) were called gods in the Hebrew language in the old testament,

and Jesus never claimed to be God, but did indicate that he was a god (Prophet, or person that has been

given the authority of God). I’ll cover verse 38 on its own.

John 10:38

“but if I do them, though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand

that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.”

• Trinitarians use this verse to say that Jesus and the Father are united into one God. First of all that

ignores the context before it where Jesus says ‘I am the son of God’ which you should now know is a

title that we are also eligible to claim if we follow the Law and accept the blood of the lamb as a

covering for our sins. Secondly, Jesus uses this same wording in 2 other places in John: John 14: 10-

23 and John 17:21-23. Maybe those will shed some light on what he is referring to here. John 14:11

says, “…I am in the Father and the Father is in me…”, verse 20 says, “In that day you will know that I

am in the Father, and you in me, and I in you”. Jesus uses the same language with his disciples that

Trinitarians try to claim makes Jesus and the Father combined into God. The disciples were obviously

not part of the Godhead the Trinitarians believe in, so this verse can’t be claiming that. John 17, “may

all be one, just as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be in us….that they may be

one even as we are one, I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one.” I think it is
clear that when Jesus says “I am in you and you are in me” he is essentially saying the same thing as,

“you and I are one”. Us, God and Jesus are all meant to be joined in one


John 14:11

“Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me; otherwise believe on account of the works


• Again, Jesus is saying, believe that my will is the same as God’s. If you don’t believe my words, than

you should look at my works (which is how we show that we have the Law written on our hearts).

John 14:16-17

“And I will ask the Father, and He will give you another helper, that he (it) may be with you forever;

that is the spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it does not behold him (it) or know him (it),

but you know him (it) because he (it) abides with you, and will be in you.”

• This is another verse used to try and show that the Holy Spirit is a separate entity from God. A study

on ‘spirit’ will reveal to you that the Holy Spirit is the will of God. It is like my arm. My arm is a part

of me but is not a separate entity from me. God gave us the ‘spirit’ or ‘motivation’ to keep his Law

(literally a spirit of truth or motivation to seek truth).

• This verse also confuses some people because of the words ‘He’ and ‘Him’. The word used does not

have a masculine gender. It should say ‘it’.

• Jesus kept saying that he knows God. How? Because he had the spirit of truth. God is going to give us

a ‘helper’ which is the spirit of truth, and this verse says we will know God because of it, just like

Jesus. The truth is the word and the word is God’s everything (will/Law/plan), and we come to know

God through His word which contains His Law.

John 17:5

“And now, glorify Thou me together with Thyself, Father, with the glory which I had with Thee before

the world was.”

• At this point we already know that the logos of God (Law and plan of redemption which were carried

out by Jesus) existed eternally. We also know that Jesus did not exist until he was born (his genesis).

• Jesus is praying for the glory that was foretold in the OT prophecies. The glory that existed from the

beginning. 2 Timothy 1:9 says that we have been granted grace from all eternity (and no one tries to

prove that we existed for all time). Is this really the case? If we have been granted grace from all
eternity than there was no need for Jesus to come down to earth, be sacrificed and raised up again in

order for us to have it. The point of 2 Timothy and of this verse is that the logos (plan), grace, and

glory of God have existed from eternity.

• John 17:3 really sets the stage for this verse also when it says, “And this is eternal life, that they may

know Thee, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom Thou hast sent. I glorified Thee on the earth,

having accomplished the work which Thou hast given me to do.”

• If you read on past verse 5, I don’t see how you can possibly argue that Jesus was not sent by God to

do His work and give us His commands. Nothing came from Jesus except by the Father. If you still

wonder how it is that we get salvation: “And THIS is eternal life, THAT we may know Thee (YHWH,

which is done through understanding and keeping the Law), the ONLY true God, AND Jesus Christ

whom Thou hast SENT.” We must keep the Law and accept the blood covering if we are to be saved.

The Holy Spirit isn’t even mentioned here, wonder why a triune God would leave a part out.

John 20:17

“Jesus said to her, “Stop clinging to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my

brethren, and say to them, ‘I ascend to my Father and your Father, and my God and your God.”

• The NIV translation of the bible uses the word ‘returned’ instead of ‘ascended’. This causes problems

for any Trinitarian that uses that translation because it indicates that Jesus was there with God before

and is going to return. The Greek word means “to go up”. It appears 82 times in the NT and this verse

and the one right after it are the only places in the entire bible that it got translated ‘returned’.

• This verse offers hard proof against Trinity. This happened after the resurrection, and Jesus is saying

that he will go up to his God which is also Mary’s God. How can Jesus have a God if he is part of the

God? He can’t. Jesus called to his God while on the cross, he prayed to his God before being captured,

he ‘went up’ to his God after the resurrection and he told the churches about his God in Rev. 3:2-12.

John 20:28

“Thomas answered and said to Him, “My lord and my God!”

• Once again the word theos is used without the definite article, so it should read ‘god’ and is being used

in the same style that the word god has always been used when referring to Jesus in other verses or in

reference to prophets or angels. The disciples certainly never acknowledged Jesus as being the theos

• Anyone that was acting with the authority of God was called a god. Thomas, being Jesus’ disciple,

would therefore refer to Jesus as his lord, master, and god as was the Hebrew custom. It’s strange to us

in English because we see the word ‘god’ as only something that is deity, but that is not the way the

word is used in their language.

• Luke 24:19-21 reads, “And he (Jesus) said to them, “what things?” And they said to Him, “The things

about Jesus the Nazarene, who was a prophet mighty in deed and word in the sight of God and all the

people, and how the chief priests and our rulers delivered him up to the sentence of death, and

crucified him. But we were hoping that it was he who was going to redeem Israel. Indeed, besides all

this, it is the third day since these things happened.” The disciples were talking to Jesus after he rose

from the dead and did not even recognize him. They called him a prophet that performed great deeds in

the sight of God. They did not recognize Jesus to be God.

That concludes the Gospel of Jesus. From his genesis to his crucifixion, from his resurrection to his ascension,

he never claims to be God, is never acknowledged as God, shows respect and prays to his God, is viewed as a

prophet that is sent by God, acknowledges and explains that his authority came from God, explained that he is

doing the will of God, shows that he is like God in essence/plan/purpose, calls himself the son of God and tells

us to be sons of God and one with him and God. No Trinity here.

New Testament – Acts through Revelation

I would like to remind any readers that this is the third section of verses for the topic of Trinity. It is important

that you have read the first two sections before this one because there are concepts and themes that have been

developing along the way. I would also like to state once more that I am after the truth of what the bible has to

teach on Trinity, so please respond to anything I’ve stated that you disagree with and provide your biblically

supported reason for disagreeing so that we can come to an agreement.

Acts 5:3-4

“But Peter said, “Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit, and to keep back

some of the price of the land? While it remained unsold, did it not remain your own? And after it was sold, was

it not under your control? Why is it that you have conceived this deed in your heart? You have not lied to men,

but to God.”
• As I have mentioned before, a study on spirit and Holy Spirit shows that spirits are forces that are put

on someone or something in order to ‘motivate’ it to do something. For example, in Exodus, God

caused an east spirit (got translated to wind) to bring the locus and the frogs for plagues. The ‘holy

spirit’ referrers to God’s direct motivation towards His will. So when the Holy Spirit or the Spirit of

God (or Spirit of the Lord) comes upon someone, that person is now 100% motivated to do God’s will

with all the authority that comes with it. Jesus had the Holy Spirit come upon him during his baptism,

and started his ministry shortly after. King David also had the Spirit as well as a few other significant

figures in the bible.

• The apostles were filled with the Spirit (Acts 4:31). In the context of this verse, Ananias is trying to

cheat the apostles out of money. Peter says he is lying to the Holy Spirit because he is filled with the

Holy Spirit (motivation of God’s will).

• It can be understood from this verse that the Holy Spirit is linked with God. I agree to this. The Holy

Spirit is certainly a part of God (the Father, Yahweh). It is His will and the motivation to follow it.

This shows that the Holy Spirit is not a separate ‘God’ that makes up the third part of a Triune

Godhead, but it is actually part of Yahweh. If that is difficult to understand, think of it like this: when

you are cheering for your favorite sports team, you are said to be filled with ‘team spirit’. That ‘team

spirit’ is not an entity with its own power and will; rather, it is a driving force generated by the team

that motivates the fans to cheer and support the ‘will’ of the team (which is hopefully to win).

Acts 7:45

“And having received it in their turn, our fathers brought it in with Joshua upon dispossessing the

nations whom God drove out before our fathers, until the time of David.”

• I thought this one was really funny. The KJV version of the bible has the word ‘Jesus’ in place of

‘Joshua’. It is a mistake that is made again in Hebrews 4:8. Read the verses around this one for context

and hopefully you’ll recognize the reference to the book of Joshua.

Acts 7:59

“And they went on stoning Stephen as he called upon the Lord and said, “Lord Jesus, receive my


• The KJV of the bible says, “called upon God”. This version says “called upon the Lord”. The actually

Greek says “cried out” which could be taken as “prayed” but doesn’t have to be and there is no

mention of the Lord or God.

• This verse does say, “Lord Jesus, receive my spirit!” What does that mean? The spirit that was given

to man in Genesis through the Breath that came from God, was the spirit of life. The spirit represents a

motivational force so having a spirit of something means being driven or motivated towards that thing

or to use that thing (such as a spirit of wisdom or a spirit of God etc.). When talking generically about

a man’s spirit, it refers to the spirit of life (motivation to live). Stephen is essentially asking Jesus to

accept his life. We know that Jesus represents the Law, and we are judged by the Law.

• Why do you suppose he is crying out to Jesus and calling him lord? We will be coving a few verses

soon that say we must confess Jesus as our lord in order to have him as our lamb. That is what

Stephen is doing here. Jesus is the high priest, so Stephen is saying, “forgive me priest”.

Acts 20:28

“Be on guard for yourselves and for all the flock, among which the Holy Spirit has made you

overseers, to shepherd the church of God which He purchased with His own blood.”

• The Greek manuscripts read, “Shepherd the church of God which He purchased with the blood of his

own”. The word ‘son’ or ‘one’ is then implied by own in the Greek. God did purchase us (redeemed

us) with the blood of His son (the Passover lamb).

Romans 9:5

“whose are the fathers, and from whom is the Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, God

blessed forever. Amen.”

• Read the entire chapter. It is worth it.

• This verse is different depending on your translation: (RSV) “to them belong the patriarchs, and of

their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ. God who is over all be blessed forever. Amen.”

(Moffatt) “the patriarchs are theirs, and theirs too (so far as natural descent goes) is the Christ.(Blessed

forevermore be the God who is over all! Amen.)” (KJV) “Whose are the fathers, and of whom as

concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.” (NAS) (above) (NIV)

“Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all,

forever praised! Amen.”

• The Greek supports that the RSV is the most accurate. This is not surprising considering the other

versions were all translated by Trinitarians. The phrase “God over all” and “God blessed forever” can

also be found in: Rom. 1:25, Cor. 11:31, Eph. 1:3, 4:6, 1 Timothy 6:15.

Romans 10:9
“that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from

the dead, you shall be saved;”

• Here is just one more verse to indicate that it was God that raised Jesus. This verse even goes so far as

to say that if you want to be saved you must believe that it was God that raised Jesus from the dead.

• “Jesus is Lord” but ‘Lord’ does not equal ‘God’. The Greek word here is kurios. It means nobility and

is a title that shows respect. Here are other places it is used: Matt. 20:8 for property ‘owners’ (kurios),

Mark 13:35 for heads of households, Matt. 10:24 for slave owners (master), 1 Peter 3:6 for husbands

(sweet!), Matt. 21:30 for fathers (sir), Acts 25:26 for The Roman Emperor (glad he isn’t God), Matt.

27:63 Roman guards (also glad they aren’t all Gods).

• Acts 2:36 – God made Jesus both Lord and Christ. If Lord = God, than God made Jesus God.

Romans 10:13

“for “whoever will call upon the name of the lord will be saved.”

• Trinitarians point out that the context of this verse is speaking about Jesus, but this verse is quoting

Joel 2:32 which refers to Yahweh. So it could be said that Jesus is Yahweh from this connection.

• Trying to make such a connection would conflict with all of the other verses we have already covered

that showed Jesus prayed to God, was a man, great prophet, and was given the authority of God.

Making such a connection would also mean Jesus is both God the Son and God the Father (YHWH),

which is still in conflict with Trinity.

• What we are witnessing between the old and new testaments is a passing of authority from father to

son. This does not make the son the same person as the father; it means the son has the authority of the


1 Corinthians 8:6

“yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things, and we exist for Him; and one

lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through him.”

• I think this entire chapter is worth reading. It clearly expresses that there is one God and one lord

(Jesus). There is one God, the Father. It does NOT say there are three Gods, the Father, the Son and the

Holy Spirit; nor does it say “there is one Godhead made up of three, the Father, the Son and the Holy

Spirit.” Seems like the best time in the world to mention the triuness of God if the bible was ever

going to teach it.

• Trinitarians use this verse to show that all things came through Jesus (implying creation). The context

of this chapter is talking about the church not the creation in Gen. “we (the church) exist through

him”. It was Jesus’ blood that purified us and made our bodies temples for God.

1 Corinthians 10:4

“and all drank the same spiritual drink, for they were drinking from a spiritual rock which followed

them; and the rock was Christ.”

• I’m glad that we can take verses super literal all the time because this one makes Jesus a rock, and if

Jesus is God than God is also a rock.

• So the context of this verse is in reference to the Israelites as they journeyed through the desert.

Trinitarians sometimes use this verse to argue that Jesus was there following them around for the trip.

If that was the literal case, I’m 100% positive Exodus would have mentioned something about it, don’t

you think?

• Was the Messiah foretold in the desert to the Israelites? Most assuredly, YES! The Passover Lamb for

one before the journey even began. The manna was the “bread from heaven” given by God (and we

covered were it relates Jesus to being the bread from heaven, and Jesus said you shall not live on bread

alone because you need his blood covering and to be living on every word of God, aka, the Law, in

order to receive the gift of salvation). The Tabernacle was full of Messiah related artifacts (such as the

menorah). The high priest was a system set up for practice for the Priest of Priests (we say King of

Kings so why not?). The prophecy of the Messiah was given to the Israelites: Num. 24:7 & 17, “A star

will come out of Jacob; a scepter will rise out of Israel” and “their kingdom will be exalted.”

• It gets even more direct with this verse. Two times Moses is told to get water from a rock. The first

time he is commanded to strike the rock, and he does. Could this be symbolic of Jesus being

crucified? The second time, Moses is told to speak to the rock, and he strikes it instead. Because of

this, Moses is not allowed to enter the Promised Land. Why did God care so much? Was it simply

because Moses disobeyed? 1 Cor. 10:4 is saying that the rock symbolized Jesus. Striking the rock the

second time was symbolic of crucifying Jesus a second time.

1 Corinthians 10:9

“Nor let us try the Lord, as some of them did, and were destroyed by the serpents.”
• This is only an issue if your translation of the bible says ‘Christ’ instead of ‘the Lord’. This verse is

referring to Num. 21:5 when ‘the Lord’ (Yahweh) “sent venomous snakes among them” after some of

the Israelites “spoke against God”.

1 Corinthians 12:4-6

“Now there are varieties of gifts, but the same spirit. And there are varieties of ministries, and the same

lord. And there are varieties of effects, but the same God who works all things in all persons.”

• Sometimes this is used to show a connection between the spirit, lord, and Father. It doesn’t say Father,

but the connection is still attempted anyway. If you read all the context around these verses you’ll see

that it’s just implying that there are many churches, miracles, prophets and teachings, but they all come

from one God, are all purified by one lord, and all act in one spirit (motivation/will). It’s saying, there

are lots of us, and we are all in the same boat so work together.

• Verse 13 really sums that up by saying, “For by one spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether

Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one spirit.” Verses 14-17 go

on to say don’t complain about the position or purpose you received because all are needed.

2 Corinthians 5:19

“namely, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not counting their trespasses against

them, and he has committed to us the word of reconciliation.”

• This translation isn’t very good. It should read: “That God was reconciling the world to himself in

Christ, not counting men’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of

reconciliation.” (NIV).

• We know from our progression to this point that Christ was the ‘image’ or ‘essence’ of God. Jesus had

the spirit in him (motivation, will of God). Jesus was also called a god because of that. So the phrase

“God was in Christ” shouldn’t be a problem if you understand such concepts, but this translation has

thrown some people with a Trinitarian bias off.

• If ‘God was in Christ’ means that Christ is God then what does it mean in Col. 1:27 when it says Christ

is in us? That means God is in us, meaning we are also God.

2 Corinthians 12:19

“All this time you have been thinking that we are defending ourselves to you. Actually, it is in the sight

of God that we have been speaking in Christ; and all for your upbuilding, beloved.”
• Again, the NIV translation is much better: “We have been speaking in the sight of God as those in

Christ; and everything we do, dear friends, is for your strengthening.” Some other translations may

directly use the phrase “God in Christ” as these translations sort of hint at, but we already have an

understanding of that concept and know it does not mean God is Christ.

2 Corinthians 13:14

“The grace of the lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit, be with

you all.”

• What a wonderful way to end a letter. The ‘Holy Spirit’ should actually be translated as ‘spirit of


• This verse doesn’t imply any sort of trinity. Also, it fails to mention the Father, but does mention God

as a separate entity from Jesus and the spirit.

• This verse is really simple to understand: grace came through Jesus, love came through God, and we

are all fellowshipping in the spirit (will/motivation of God).

Ephesians 1:22-23

“And He put all things in subjection under his feet, and gave him as head over all things to the church,

which is his body, the fullness of him who fills all in all.”

• This verse is only an issue if your translation is like the one above. The first ‘He’ is ‘the Theos’, so

God. The second ‘He’, ‘Him’, ‘His’ and ‘Him’ is Jesus. So the verse should read (and most

translations do): “And God put all things in subjection under his feet, and gave him as head over all

things to the church, which is his body, and fullness of him who fills all in all.”

• So God appointed (the word translated to gave) Jesus as head over the church (other verses verify that),

and put everything under his feet. If Jesus was God, he would not have needed to be appointed.

Ephesians 3:9

“and to bring to light what is the administration of the mystery which for ages has been hidden in God,

who created all things;”

• Some translations add the words “by Jesus Christ” at the end. It is not in the Greek manuscripts.

Ephesians 4:7-8

“But to each one of us grace was given according to the measure of Christ’s gift. Therefore it says,

“When he ascended on high, he led captive a host of captives, and he gave gifts to men.”
• Verse 8 is quoting the OT and referring to God as the gift giver. Since this verse says Jesus is the gift

giver, some Trinitarians argue that it is showing that Jesus is God.

• This is simply showing that Jesus is fulfilling something that was set up in the prophecy. There are

many instances of this happening even for men in the OT being related to something that happens to

other men in the NT. Examples are: Hosea 11:1 compared to Matt. 2:15, Jeremiah 31:15 compared to

Matt. 2:18, Psalm 69:4-25 compared to Acts 1:20.

• This verse simply demonstrates God acting through Jesus as He does through many men. Ex. 3:10 and

6:6 for example.

Ephesians 5:5

“For this you know with certainty, that no immoral or impure person or covetous man, who is an

idolater, has an inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and God.”

• Some translations say ‘of Christ, who is God’. Those translations are again showing Trinitarian

influence. Some might then argue that Christ is God because the kingdom is said to belong to both of

them. The bible supports that it is God’s kingdom and Jesus is appointed as the King over it. There are

also 2 verses where Jesus calls it his kingdom. So I don’t see why this verse should be a problem for


Philippians 2:6-8

“who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped,

but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. And being

found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a


• This is the gold mine for any Trinitarian (or should be anyway). The first point to look at is the word

‘form’. This Greek word (morphe) actually refers to an outward appearance. It is also used in Luke

24:13-33 when Jesus appears to two disciples and they do not recognize him because he took on a

different form (physical appearance). So Jesus existed in the form of God (man was created in God’s

image also).

• It goes on to say that ‘(he) did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped’. That right there is a

point against Trinity because it is showing inequality between them.

• The next part reads, “but emptied Himself” in the context of not grasping equality with God. The word

used for “emptied” is a literal word for “made no reputation”. He made nothing for himself. This is
key because it is in the context of “not grasping equality with God, BUT emptied himself”. What was

Jesus tempted with 3 times by the Devil? To use the authority given to him by God to make a name for

himself and rule over the earth.

• It goes on to say he took the form of a servant and essence of a man. So he was a man in both

appearance and essence (100%). It says, “and being found in appearance as a man” can sometimes be

confusing language because it sort of seems like Jesus pre-existed and then chose to take this form.

The wording here actually says something more like “and being that he was a man” then goes on to

talk about humbling himself and dying on a cross.

Colossians 1:15-20

“And he is the image of the invisible God, the first born of all creation. For by him all things were

created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or

authorities all things have been created by him and for him. And he is before all things, and in him all things

hold together. He is also head of the body, the church; and he is the beginning, the first born from the dead; so

that he himself might come to have first place in everything. For it was the Father’s good pleasure for all the

fullness to dwell in him, and through him to reconcile all things to himself, having made peace through the

blood of his cross; through him, I say, whether things on earth or things in heaven.”

• There is a lot going on with these verses so the first thing to do is establish proper context. If you read

verses 1-14, it is made pretty clear that the Father is being called God and is being praised and thanked

for His lord, Jesus. They are writing to the brethren of Colossae. Why? Well, if you read ahead a little

bit to 2:18-19, they have started worshipping angles and have forgotten that Jesus is the provider of

salvation through his blood. They have also forgotten that Jesus is the founder of the church and its

ruler. So now we have some context.

• Verse 15 starts with, “and he (Jesus) is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation.”

This is key because it is calling Jesus the ‘image’ of God. It is not saying Jesus is God. We have

looked at many verses explaining and showing that Jesus is the image/representation of God in the

flesh, is called a god because of that (as are the prophets and anyone that has been called to do the will

of God). Man was also created in the ‘image’ of God. He is the ‘first-born’ which means he is of the

highest rank to power and privilege (hence, being the King of Kings and ruler of the heavenly kingdom

which he inherits from God). Nothing to difficult to understand yet.

• Verse 16 is weird in the English. It is saying through him ALL things are created; however, that is not

what is implied in the Greek. In the Greek it is saying ‘all things in these categories: thrones,

kingdoms, rulers, authorities’. This verse is placing Jesus higher than all of those things, showing that

all of those things are established and ruled over by him (the kingdom to come and the church). It is

not saying ALL things such as rocks, birds, trees etc. Those things were created by God.

• In verse 17, it says Jesus is before all things. This word for before is not a word indicating before in

time. This word that got translated to before is a word that shows position or authority. Jesus has

authority over all things. Verse 18 goes on to support verse 17 by saying “He is also head of the

church…” Every verse in this section is simply stating in various ways and to various categories that

Jesus is ruler of the church, kingdoms, authorities etc. It is emphasizing Jesus’ power so that the

Colossians would understand that Jesus is the highest power because he has inherited God’s authority.

Colossians 2:2

“That their hearts may be encouraged, having been knit together in love, and attaining to all the wealth

that comes from the full assurance of understanding, resulting in a true knowledge of God’s mystery, that is,

Christ himself,”

• There are a variety of translations for this verse, so depending on the one you have, it may or may not

be confusing. Some Trinitarians use this verse to argue that the mystery of God is Jesus.

• The actual Greek wording here is saying “the mystery of the Christ of God” as in the mystery that

Christ sent by God will reveal to us. It is difficult to prove that Christ is a mystery because the word

for mystery used in this verse is not a word that is equal to our word for mystery (as in something that

cannot be understood). The word is actually “secret” (something that was not known but has been or

will be revealed). So what was the secret? It has been mentioned in a few other verses: Eph. 3:2-9,

Col. 1:27, Gal. 1:11-12. The secret was the grace we would receive from God through Jesus because

he died for us and covered our sins with his blood. He took away the curse of the Law (death). This

has been a secret up until Jesus revealed it. Even the apostles didn’t understand at the last supper when

Jesus was explaining it to them because it was such a secret. The secret was not that Jesus is God

which is what some Trinitarians seem to think.

Colossians 2:9

“For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,”

• Be careful how you read this verse. It is not saying, “Jesus is Deity in human form”; it says “for in him

all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form.”

• The word that got translated to Deity is not even a word that should be translated to that. It’s a word

that means ‘divine authority’. Clearly Jesus had the authority of God given to him as we have covered

in a number of verses.

• Guess who else has “the fullness of Deity” dwelling in them? Us: 2 Peter 1:4, “For by these He has

granted to us His precious and magnificent promises, in order that by them you might become

partakers (inheritors) of the divine nature (word for Deity), having escaped the corruption that is in the

world by lust.” Clearly this does not make us God and so therefore it is not proof for Jesus being God.

• Eph. 3:19 is also a good verse to support this point as it says that we have the fullness of God.

2 Thessalonians 1:12

“in order that the name of our Lord Jesus may be glorified in you, and you in Him, according to the

grace of our God and the Lord Jesus Christ.”

• Grace is given by God through Jesus. This verse is only an issue if your translation reads: ‘of our God,

Jesus Christ’ as some of the Trinitarian translations do. There is clearly a separation of God and Jesus

in the Greek wording showing that grace comes from both of them.

1 Timothy 3:16

“And by common confession great is the mystery of the godliness: He who was revealed in the flesh,

was vindicated in the spirit, beheld by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in the world, taken up

in glory.”

• Don’t be fooled by the word ‘godliness’. Remember, as I’ve showed in numerous previous verses,

Jesus and anyone else that had the authority of God (such as prophets, angels and apostles) were called

gods. We are also called gods if we are following God’s will (Jesus said so himself, “Isn’t it written

that ye are called gods?”)

• Some of the translations read “God who was revealed in the flesh”. This is a mistranslation by

Trinitarians scribes.

• This verse actually shows everything Jesus was and did as a man. This would have been the prime time

to say, “was God in the flesh” or “was God incarnate” if the bible actually was teaching that Jesus is

God or part of a Godhead Trinity. Perhaps that’s why the scribes tried to translate it that way in some

of the translations because the absence of such a statement is strong evidence against that teaching.
1 Timothy 5:21

“I solemnly charge you in the presence of God and of Christ Jesus and of His chosen angels, to

maintain these principles without bias, doing nothing in a spirit of partiality.”

• Again, the phrase ‘God and of Christ Jesus’ is used to argue that God is Jesus. The Greek has a

separation. So once again, another verse separates Jesus from God.

• This would have been another prime time to establish the Trinity teaching. He charged in the presence

of God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit…oh wait, no the Holy Spirit is being left out. Why? Shouldn’t all

three parts of the Godhead Trinity be represented here? Why is he choosing angels over the Holy


• We covered before that angels are messengers from God, and the messengers always bring the same

message: God’s plan/will. So we are charged God, Jesus (who is the Law in the flesh) and by the fact

that the message of the Law has been given to us.

1 Timothy 6:14-16

“That you keep the commandment without stain or reproach until the appearing of our lord Jesus

Christ, which He will bring about at the proper time, He who is the blessed and only sovereign, the King of

kings and Lord of lords; who alone possesses immortality and dwells in unapproachable light; whom no man

has seen or can see. To Him be honor and eternal dominion! Amen.”

• Some argue that since Jesus is called King of kings and God is called King of kings, it makes them the

same person. Once again, having the same title does not make you the same person. Who else was

called King of kings besides Jesus and God? Several men actually: Ezra 7:12, Daniel 2:37. It is a

phrase that means ‘the best king’ or ‘most powerful king’. This same phrasing is seen in other words

also like “Servant of servants” (Gen. 9:25).

• So this verse is saying that God will send Jesus back to earth at the appropriate time which is what all

of the prophecy in the bible says too. He will come again and when he (Jesus) does, he will be the new

King of kings because he is inheriting ruler ship from God. All of us that are found to be sons of God

will also inherit the kingdom (which is where this entire pecking order of being greatest and least in the

kingdom comes from; although, Jesus is first born so his authority will always be greatest).

2 Timothy 4:1

“I solemnly charge you in the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who is to judge the living and the

dead, and by His appearing and His kingdom:”

• This is the same as the previous verse (1 Timothy 5:21). There is a Greek distinction between God and

Jesus. Paul charges Timothy by both of them.

Titus 2:13

“looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ


• The wording of this verse in English can be tricky because if you read it with the right inflection, it

sounds like Jesus is being called God and Savior. This is not the case in the Greek. There are 2 persons

being spoken of here: ‘our great God’ and ‘our savior Jesus Christ’. Luke 9:26 states the glory of both

the Father and the son will appear which is just a verse to show agreement with the context of this one.

Both God and Jesus will appear.

Hebrews 1:2

“in these last days has spoken to us in His son, whom he appointed heir of all things, through whom

also He made the world.”

• I’d like to point out once again that God appointed Jesus to being heir of all things (all things is

referring to the kingdom and God’s authority and the church). Jesus did not acquire these things on his

own. It shows his lesser status to God (or the Father; Yahweh).

• The Trinitarian part of this verse is the second part “through whom also He made the world.” We have

already covered a few verses about the “world” being created through Jesus. This one is the same as

those. World is a Greek word that means ‘ages’. It is through Jesus that the coming ‘ages’ are made

(the Kingdom).

• Verse 4 goes on the say that Jesus inherited a greater name than the angels. If Jesus is God, than he

would have always been greater than the angels. The fact that he had to inherit it after his resurrection

shows that he is not God.

Hebrews 1:8

“But of the son he says, “Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever, and the righteous scepter is the

scepter of his kingdom.”

• The Trinity argument for this verse is that the son is being called God.

• This verse is quoted from Ps 45:6-7. In that verse, the word ‘elohim’ is being used but is not referring

to YHWH. It is referring to a man (most likely David or Solomon) which is the king who was made

king (v. 7) by his righteousness.

• The righteous scepter is a reference to Gen. 49:10 which states that the scepter will not depart from

Judah. This is showing the kingship line to Jesus through David.

• The fact that the son is being called God is a misunderstanding from the quotation to the OT verse that

used ‘elohim’. The Greek writer made ‘elohim’ from that verse (which refers to men and is referring

to a man in that verse) mean the theos (God) in this verse even though it is a quotation.

Hebrews 1:10

“And, “Thou, Lord, in the beginning didst lay the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the

works of they hands;”

• This is a quote from Ps. 102:25. This verse is showing that God created the heavens and earth

originally (which is what Ps. 102:25 is talking about) and Jesus is bringing about the new age (new

heaven and earth) which is what Hebrews 1:10 is talking about.

• It is showing the transition of authority from Father to son which is actually what the entire book of

Hebrews is trying to do because they didn’t understand that Jesus had the full authority of God. They

were under the impression that Jesus was trying to claim he was God which his why they were getting

mad. Hebrews (whoever it is written by) is clearing that up by showing that Jesus is not God, is under

God, but has been appointed by God to rule the coming kingdom.

• Hebrews 2:5 verifies that we are talking about the future heaven and earth.

Hebrews 2:16

“For assuredly He does not give help to angels, but He gives help to the descendant of Abraham.”

• Trinitarians that are using a KJV (and some other translations) will have a different translation of this

verse that says something like, “For verily he took on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the

seed of Abraham.” This is just a bad translation based on the poor quality manuscripts used to create

the Textus Receptus that is used by the KJV.

• This verse shows the humanity of Jesus by connecting him with Abraham (earth) over angels (heaven).

Verse 17 follows with, “Therefore, he had to be made like his brethren in all things, that he might

become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins

of the people. For since he himself was tempted in that which he has suffered, he is able to come to the

aid of those who are tempted.” Jesus was a man that was tempted and made just like every other man.

Hebrews 4:8

“For if Joshua had given them rest, he would not have spoken of another day after that.”
• Some translations mistakenly put ‘Jesus’ instead of Joshua. It is an attempt to link Jesus with the OT


Hebrews 7:3

“Without father, without mother, without genealogy, having neither beginning of days nor end of life,

but made like the son of God, he abides a priest perpetually.”

• This verse is talking about Melchizedek. The issue here is how Jesus can be the high priest without

being from the Levi blood line. This is showing that Melchizedek was recognized as a high priest

without having Levi blood. The phrase being used “without father or mother” is implying that his

genealogy is not known (Melchizedek’s). It was required that you prove your blood line to become

high priest. In no way is this verse saying that Melchizedek was Jesus in the OT.

Hebrews 13:8

“Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today, yes and forever.”

• This is a wonderful verse. It is pointing out that Jesus does not change. We know he was born a man,

we know that he was appointed by God and was given God’s authority, but this does not make him


• Some argue that this verse is stating an eternal existence for Jesus. The word yesterday implies a short

time ago, not an infinite time ago. Always look at the Greek.

1 Peter 1:11

“Seeking to know what person or time the spirit of Christ within them was indicating as he predicted

the sufferings of Christ and the glories to follow.”

• We must remember what a spirit is. It is a motivating force. That’s what the word for spirit indicates.

Different things are called spirits based on what function they serve. So if someone suddenly becomes

enlightened, you could say a spirit of wisdom came upon them such as in Ex. 18:3, Deut. 34:9 and

Eph. 1:17. You could say a spirit of grace: Zech. 12:10, Heb. 10:29. When a spirit is from God, it is

usually signified by a capital ‘S’ to show that. The ‘Spirit of God’ is the same concept of having a

motivation put on you, but it is much stronger becomes it comes from God and typically brings

authority with it (such as when David had the Spirit come upon him as well as Jesus).

• This verse in context is saying that the prophets had the ‘spirit’ (motivation) of Christ (NOT Jesus,

Christ which is a word that means ‘the Messiah’ which represents redemption). So the prophets

understood that the prophecies that were being reviled through them were indications of the salvation
through redemption that was to come. They were motivated to prophecy the Christ (the spirit of Christ

came upon them).

• This in no way indicates that Jesus possessed the prophets. Sometimes Trinitarians try to use this verse

to show that Jesus existed in the OT, but this verse is not even talking about Jesus being there at all.

It’s only talking about the prophets prophesying about the sufferings of the Christ and the glory that

would follow.

2 Peter 1:1

“Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who have received a faith of the

same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ:”

• The Greek indicates: “our God” and “our Savior”, 2 separate people.

1 John 2:22

“who is the liar but the one who denies that Jesus is the Christ? This is the antichrist, the one who

denies the Father and the Son.”

• This verse is used by Trinitarians to say that if you deny that Jesus is God than you are part of the

antichrist. What does the verse say? “If you deny that Jesus is the Christ (Messiah)”, it does not say “if

you deny Jesus is God”.

1 John 3:16

“We know love by this, that he laid down his life for us; and we ought to lay down our lives for the


• Some translations say “we know the love of God by this…” to indicate that Jesus is God, but that’s not

what it says.

1 John 4:1-3

“Behold, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God; because

many false prophets have gone out into the world. By this you know the spirit of God: every spirit that

confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God; and every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not

from God; and this is the spirit of the antichrist, of which you have heard that it is coming, and now it is already

in the world.”

• Trinitarians use these verses to say that you must believe that Jesus is God or you are part of the

antichrist. Again, that is not what these verses are saying. All these verses are saying is that you must
recognize Jesus as the Messiah (because you can not accept the gift of salvation unless you do


• It emphasizes “in the flesh”. Why? Gnosticism was huge at this time. Gnostics believed that all matter

was of evil intent and Jesus could not have been flesh because of that. They believed and taught that

Jesus was some sort of non material being. So really this verse is emphasizing the humanity of Jesus

by making it clear that he was “flesh and bone and blood”.

1 John 5:7-8

“And it is the Spirit who bears witness, because the Spirit is the truth. For there are three that bear

witness, the spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement.”

• What a perfect verse for showing how we are judged. The Spirit (will or Law of God) is the truth, the

water which is commonly correlated with life but also represents baptism or dedication (to the Law,

washing away the flesh), and the blood which is our sin covering (payment) from the Messiah.

• If you have a translation that mumbles some garbage about “three bearing witness in heaven, the

Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost”, just throw that version of the bible away and get a new one

because that entire phrase was added to the text by the Trinitarians that translated it.

1 John 5:20

“And we know that the son of God has come, and has given us understanding, in order that we might

know Him who is true, and we are in Him who is true, in His son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and eternal


• Some think that the last sentence in this verse is referring to Jesus. Some good reading comprehension

should help you realize that the subject of this verse is God not Jesus so this final statement must be

referring to Him. God has been referred to as ‘the true God’ many times in the bible while Jesus has

never been referred to by that phrase.

Jude 4

“For certain persons have crept in unnoticed, those who were long beforehand marked out for this

condemnation, ungodly persons who turn the grace of our God into licentiousness and deny our only master and

lord, Jesus Christ.”

• Some translations say “the only Lord God, Jesus Christ.” This is a wrong translation.

Revelation 1:8
“I am the Alpha and the Omega,” says the lord God, “who is and who was and who is to come, the


• Some translations leave out the word ‘God’ so it becomes confusing and people think this verse is

talking about Jesus. If you read the next several verses, it is clear this is referring to God and not Jesus

(plus ‘God’ is in the Greek).

• Both God and Jesus are referred to as Alpha and Omega. We have already seen that same titles does

not mean same person.

Revelation 1:11

“saying, “Write in a book what you see, and send it to the seven churches: to Ephesus and to Smyrna

and to Pergamum and to Thyatira and to Sardis and to Philadelphia and to Laodicea.”

• Some translations add the phrase, “I am the Alpha and Omega” to this verse to apply it to Jesus. It’s

not present in the Greek, but even if it was, we already know that doesn’t make Jesus God.

Revelation 1:13-15

“and in the middle of the lamp-stands one like a son of man, clothed in a robe reaching to the feet, and

girded across his breast with a golden girdle. And his head and his hair were white like white wool, like snow;

and his eyes were like a flame of fire; and his feet were like burnished bronze, when it has been caused to glow

in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of many waters.”

• For the Trinitarian connection to be made, we need to look at Daniel 7:9 and Ezekiel 43:2. Daniel 7:9,

“I kept looking until thrones were set up, and the Ancient of Days (God) took His seat; His vesture was

like white snow, and the hair of His head like pure wool. His throne was ablaze with flames, Its wheels

were a burning fire.” Does anyone else think it is weird that God’s throne is a wheel chair on fire?

Ezekiel 43:2, “and behold, the glory of the God of Israel was coming from the way of the east. And

His voice was like the sound of many waters; and the earth shone with His glory.”

• Based on Daniel and Ezekiel, which are describing God, we see that Jesus is also being described in

physical appearance as looking similar to God in Revelation. I suppose it won’t be good enough to

just say, “the son takes after his Dad” but there really isn’t any way to explain why their descriptions

are similar other than that and the fact that Jesus represented God in the flesh so it makes sense that

God would take the form of a similar appearance. We can look at what else it says in Daniel and

Revelation though. Daniel 7:13-14, “I kept looking in the night visions, and behold, with the clouds of

heaven One like a son of man was coming, and he came up to the Ancient of Days (God) and was
presented before Him. And to him was given dominion, glory and a kingdom that all the peoples,

nations, and men of every language might serve him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion which

will not pass away; and his kingdom is one which will not be destroyed.” So Daniel (after describing

what God looks like) clearly shows the son of man coming up and inheriting the kingdom from the

Ancient of Days (God). Both God and Jesus are present in this prophecy as Father and son and as

separate beings with one (the Father) giving the kingdom to the other (son). So this description of God

in Daniel is talking about God while also noting that the son is present as a separate being. The fact

that Jesus is described similarly in Rev. does not make them the same person. Rev. also has he son

separate from God in a variety of chapters, but specifically the beginning of chapter 5. So again, they

are both present and not the same person even though they look a lot alike.

• Exodus 34:29-33 talks about what Moses looked like right after spending time with God and receiving

the Law. It says that his skin glowed so much that he had to put a veil over his face. I just thought it

was interesting because it describes Jesus’ feet as glowing bronze. Perhaps being in the presence of

God’s glory has that affect on people. Most people think that Moses’ hair turned white also, but

Exodus does not record that.

Revelation 1:17

“And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as a dead man. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying, “Do

not be afraid; I am the first and the last,”

• Isaiah 41:4 helps to understand this verse. The first and the last is a reference to calling forth the

nations. God did this in the OT and Jesus did this in the NT after he received God’s authority. Jesus

will be doing this when he establishes his Father’s kingdom on earth.

Revelation 21:6

“And he said to me, “it is done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give

to the one who thirsts from the spring of the water of life without cost.”

• God was the Alpha and Omega and He has passed that authority to His son, Jesus. Jesus is the Alpha

(beginning) of the new age (God’s kingdom) and he is the Omega (end) of sin by the covering of his

blood. Water is life and he says he will give it freely to anyone that thirsts (wants it, seeks it).

Revelation 22:13

“I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end.”

• This verse shows that these phrases are all equivalent.

We have now gone over every verse in the bible that is used to teach the Trinity doctrine and have found that

not a single verse actually teaches or supports Trinity and most of the verses used actually teach something

apposed to Trinity. It’s not my opinion that Jesus is not God; the bible clearly shows it by calling him a man,

the son of God (and calling us sons of God), a great prophet, showing that all authority, power and position that

he has was GIVEN to him by God, he prayed to and worshipped God, he called God his God, was made in

every way like his brethren, and was tempted. Jesus is the image of God which means he has the same

‘essence’ or ‘purpose’ which is God’s will. Jesus says himself that he has not come to do his own will but the

will of the Father. We are also created in the image of God and we are told to be ‘one’ with God (have the same

purpose). The overwhelming evidence is clear: Jesus is not God. To teach that he is God is blasphemous just

as the Jews correctly understood from Torah.

Special thanks to Josh Westhoelter for the effort of the research dedicated to this subject.

119 Ministries