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Define anisocytosis.

varying cell sizes

Define poikilocytosis varying cell shapes

From which cells do B cells


stem cells in bone marrow
arise?

From which cells do plasma


B cells
cells differentiate?
Microglia are not discernable
How can a Nissl stain be used in a Nissl stain while
to differentiate microglia oligodendroglia appear as
from oligodendroglia? small dark nuclei with dark
chromatin

In what type of CNS tissue


(white or grey) are white matter
oligodendroglia predominant?

Into what cell type does a


monocyte differentiate in Macrophages
tissues?

Name 2 substances produced


histiminase and arylsulfatase
by an eosinophil.
Name the three types of basophils, eosinophils, and
leukocytic granulocytes. neutrophils

Name the two types of


lymphocytes and monocytes
mononuclear leukocytes.

- cellular immune response -


What are 2 functions of T cell
regulation of B lymphocytes
lymphocytes?
and macrophages

What are 2 morphological - small irregular nuclei - and


features of microglia? relatively little cytoplasm
- follicles of lymph nodes -
What are 3 examples of white pulp of spleen -
peripheral lymphoid tissue? unencapsulated lymphoid
tissue

- pagocytosis of bacteria,
cell debris, and senescent red
What are 3 functions of a cells - scavenges damaged
macrophage? cells and tissues - can
function as an antigen
presenting cell

- Large - Kidney-shaped
What are 3 morphological
nucleus - Extensive 'frosted
characteristics of monocytes?
glass' cytoplasm

- Off center nucleus - Clock


What are 4 characteristics of face chromatin distribution -
the plasma cell morphology? Abundant RER - Well
developed Golgi apparatus
What are 4 morphologic - Round - Small - Densely
characteristics of staining nucleus - Small
lymphocytes? amount of pale cytoplasm

What are 4 substances - hydrolytic enzymes -


contained within the lysozyme - myeloperoxidase
lysosomes of neutrophils? - lactoferrin

- cytotoxic T cells (MHC I,


CD8) - helper T cells (MHCII,
What are 4 types of cells into
CD4) - suppressor T cells -
which T cells differentiate?
delayed hypersensitivity T
cells

Neoplastic, Asthma, Allergic


What are the 5 important
process, Collagen vascular
causes for eosinophilia in
disease, and Parasites
humans?
(pneumonic NAACP)
What are the blood cell
diffenentiation names of the - Pluripotent hematopoietic
ACTIVE T CELL line beginning stem cell - Lymphoblast - T
with the pluripotent cell - Active T cell
hematopoietic stem cell? (4)

What are the blood cell


differentiation names of the - Pluripotent hematopoietic
ERYTHROCYTE cell line stem cell - Proerythroblast -
beginning with pluripotent Reticulocyte - Erythrocyte
hematopoietic stem cell? (4)

What are the blood cell


differentiation names of the
- Pluripotent hematopoietic
MONOCYTE cell lines
stem cell - Mono blast -
beginning with the
Monocyte
pluripotent hematopoietic
stem cell? (3)

What are the blood cell


differentiation names of the - Myeloblast - Promyelocyte
NEUTROPHIL, EOSINOPHIL, - Myelocyte - Metamyelocyte
and BASOPHIL cell lines - Stab cell - Neutrophil,
beginning with the eosinophil or basophil
myeloblast stage? (6)
What are the blood cell
differentiation names of the - Pluripotent hematopoietic
PLASMA CELL line beginning stem cell - Lymphoblast - B
with the pluripotent cell - Plasma cell
hematopoietic stem cell? (4)

What are the blood cell


differentiation names of the - Pluripotento hematopoietic
PLATELET CELL line beginning stem cell - Megakaryoblast -
with the hematopoietic stem Megakaryocyte - Platelets
cell? (4)

What are the components of - Type I pneumocyte - tight


the air-blood barrier? junction - endothelial cell

What are the steps of - maturation in the marrow -


maturation of a B cell? (2 migration to peripheral
points) lymphoid tissue
- Heparin (anticoagulant) -
What are the substances
histamine (vasodilator) -
contained within the densly
vasoactive amines - Slow
basophilic granules of the
reacting substance of
basophil? (4)
anaphylaxis

What are two basic - multilobed nucleus - large,


morphological characteristics spherical azurophilic primary
of neutrophils? granules (lysosomes)

- acute inflammmatory
What are two important
response of a cell -
functions of a neutrophil?
phagocytosis

What are two names for an


Erythrocytosis and
increased number of red
polycythemia
cells?
What cell type closely
basophil
resembles a mast cell?

What cranial nerves are


CN VII, VIII (association with
commonly involved in an
internal acoustic meatus)
acoustic neuroma?

What disease is characterized


by destruction of Multiple sclerosis
oligodendroglia?

What does CD stand for? cluster of differentiation


What drug prevents mast cell
Cromolyn sodium
degranulation?

What immunoglobulin can


bind to the membrane of a IgE
mast cell?

a baby (developing)
What is a reticulocyte?
erythrocyte

What is an important example


Acoustic neuroma
of a Schwannoma?
DPPC
What is another name for
(dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholi
pulmonary sufractant?
ne)

What is percentage of
leukocytes in the blood exist less than 1%
as basophils?

What is the 'gap' between the


myelination segment of 2 Node of Ranvier
Schwann cells called?

What is the advantage of the


easy gas exchange (Oxygen
large surface area:volume
and Carbon dioxide)
ratio in erythrocytes?
What is the basic morphologic
Anucleate, biconcave
structure of an erythrocyte?

- bilobate nucleus - packed


What is the basic morphology
with large eosinophilic
of an eosinophil? (2 things)
granules of uniform size

What is the embryologic


mesoderm
origin of microglia?

What is the function of


Interferon gamma with macrophage activation
relation to macrophages?
What is the function of
phagocytosis in CNS
microglia?

What is the function of myelination of multiple CNS


oligodendroglia? axons

lowers alveolar surface


What is the function of
tension and prevents
pulmonary surfactant?
atelectasis

myelination of PNS (a
What is the function of
Schwann cell myelinates only
Schwann cells?
one PNS axon)
> 2.0 in fetal lung is
What is the importance of the
indicative of fetal lung
lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio?
maturity

Membranes contain the


chloride bicarbonate antiport
What is the importance of the
allowing the RBC to transport
physiologic chloride shift in
carbon dioxide from the the
erythrocytes?
lung periphery for
elimination.

What is the last segment of


lung tissue in which ciliated respiratory bronchioles
cells are found?

terminal broncioles
What is the last segment of (remember ciliated cells
lung tissue in which goblet sweep away mucous
cells are found? produced by goblet cells and
therefore run deeper)
What is the primary function
Mediates allergic reactions
of a basophil?

What is the primary function


Defense against infections
of a leukocyte?

What is the primary function


Mediates allergic reactions
of a mast cell?

production of large amounts


What is the primary function
of a specific antibody to a
of a plasma cell?
particular antigen
glucose (90% anaerobically
What is the primary source of
degraded to lactate, 10% by
energy for erythrocytes?
HMP shunt)

release of histamine, heparin,


What is the process of
and eosinophil chemotactic
degranulation in mast cells?
factors

What is the range of


4,000 - 10,000 cells per
concentration for leukocytes
microliter
in the blood?

What is the response of an


eosiniphil to antigen antibody high degree of phagocytosis
complexes?
What is the response of transformation into large
microglia to tissue dammage? ameboid phagocytic cells

What is the response to fusion to form multinucleated


microglia infected with HIV? giant cells in CNS

What is the survival time for


120 days
an erythrocyte?

What pathognomonic change


is seen in neutrophils of a
hypersegmented polys
person who is folate/vitamin
B12 deficient?
What percentage of
leukocytes exist as 1 - 6%
eosinophils in the blood?

What percentage of
leukocytes exist as 40 - 75%
neutrophils in the blood?

What percentage of
leukocytes in blood are 2 - 10%
monocytes?

What process occurs when


Type II pneumocytes develop
type I pneumocytes are
into type I
damaged?
What substance in
eosinophilic granules is
primarily responsible for major basic protein
defense against helminths
and protozoan infections?

Where is the site of


Thymus
maturation of T lymphocytes?

Which cell type constituitively


secretes pulmonary Type II pneumocyte
surfactant?

Which cell type lines the


Type I pneumocyte
alveoli?
Which leukemia is the result
Multiple myeloma
of plasma cell neoplasm?

Which type of hypersensitivity


Type I hypersensitivity
reaction is a mast cell
reaction
involved in?

Which type of immunity do B


humoral immunity
cells exhibit?

After arising from the floor of


the primitive pharynx, where It descends down into the
does the thryoid diverticulum neck
go?
After the first breath at birth,
what causes closure of the An increase in oxygen
ductus arteriosus?

A decrease resistance in
After the first breath at birth,
pulmonary vasculature causes
what causes the closure of
increased left atrial pressure
the foramen ovale?
vs. right atrial pressure

Although the diaphragm


descends during
C3-C5
development, it maintains
innervation from ____?

An easy pneumonic to
Young Liver Synthesizes
remember fetal erythropoiesis
Blood
is?
At what time in the course of
development is the fetus
Weeks 3-8
most susceptible to
teratogens?

Deoxygenated blood from the


SVC is expelled into the
pulmonary artery and ____ ductus arteriosus
____ to the lower body of the
fetus.

Do the cardiovascular
structures arise from neural
Mesoderm
crest (ectoderm), mesoderm,
or endoderm?

Do the chromaffin cells of the


adrenal medulla arise from
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?
Do the enterochromaffin cells
arise from neural crest
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm?

Do the lungs arise from


neural crest (ectoderm), Endoderm
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Do the lymphatics arise from


neural crest (ectoderm), Mesoderm
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Do the melanocytes arise


from neural crest (ectoderm), Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
mesoderm, or endoderm?
Do the neural crest cells arise
from mesoderm, ectoderm, or Ectoderm
endoderm?

Do the odontoblasts arise


from neural crest (ectoderm), Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Do the parafollicular (C) cells


of the thyroid arise from
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Do the Schwann cells arise


from neural crest (ectoderm), Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
mesoderm, or endoderm?
Do the urogenital structures
arise from neural crest
Mesoderm
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm?

Does blood arise from neural


crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, Mesoderm
or endoderm?

Does bone arise from neural


crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, Mesoderm
or endoderm?

Does muscle arise from


neural crest (ectoderm), Mesoderm
mesoderm, or endoderm?
Does the thyroid arise from
neural crest (ectoderm), Endoderm
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Does the adrenal cortex arise


from neural crest (ectoderm), Mesoderm
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Does the ANS arise from


neural crest (ectoderm), Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Does the celiac ganglion arise


from neural crest (ectoderm), Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
mesoderm, or endoderm?
Does the dorsal root ganglion
arise from neural crest
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm?

Does the dura connective


tissue arise from neural crest
Mesoderm
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm?

Does the gut tube epithelium


arise from neural crest
Endoderm
(ectoderm), mesoderm, or
endoderm?

Does the liver arise from


neural crest (ectoderm), Endoderm
mesoderm, or endoderm?
Does the pancreas arise from
neural crest (ectoderm), Endoderm
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Does the parathyroid arise


from neural crest (ectoderm), Endoderm
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Does the pia arise from


neural crest (ectoderm), Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Does the serous linings of


body cavities arise from
Mesoderm
neural crest (ectoderm),
mesoderm, or endoderm?
Does the spleen arise from
neural crest (ectoderm), Mesoderm
mesoderm, or endoderm?

Does the thymus arise from


neural crest (ectoderm), Endoderm
mesoderm, or endoderm?

From what does the


ligamentum teres hepatis Umbilical vein
arise?

Results from incomplete


How does a bicornate uterus
fusion of the
form?
paramesonephric ducts
Failure of fusion of the
How does a cleft lip form? maxillary and medial nasal
processes

Failure of fusion of the lateral


palatine processes, the nasal
How does a cleft palate form?
septum, and/or the median
palatine process

Inferior poles of both kidneys


fuse, as they ascend from the
How does a horseshoe kidney pelvis during development
form? they get trapped under the
inferior mesenteric artery,
and remain low in the
abdomen

How is meckel's diverticulum Omphalomesenteric cyst is a


different than an cystic dilatation of the
omphalomesenteric cyst? vitelline duct
How long does full
development of 2 months
spermatogenesis take?

- 2 umbilical arteries (carries


How many arteries and veins
deoxygenated blood away
does the umbilical cord
from fetus) - 1 umbilical vein
contain?
(oxygenated blood to fetus)

Is a primary spermatocyte 2N
4N
or 4N?

Is a primary spermatocyte
Diploid, 4N
haploid or diploid?
Is a secondary spermatocyte
Haploid, 2N
haploid or diploid?

Is a secondary spermatocyte
2N
N or 2N?

Is a speratogonium haploid or
Diploid, 2N
diploid?

Is a spermatid haploid or
Haploid, N
diploid?
Meiosis I is arrested in which
Prophase
phase until ovulation?

Meiosis II is arrested in which Metaphase (an egg MET a


phase until fertilization? sperm)

Most oxygenated blood


reaching the heart via IVC is
diverted through the ____ ____ foramen ovale
and pumped out the aorta to
the head.

The right common cardinal


vein and right anterior
Superior vena cava
cardinal vein give rise to what
adult heart structure?
The stapedius muscle of the
ear is formed by which 2nd
branchial arch?

This type of bone formation


consists of ossification of
cartilaginous molds and Endochondral
forms long bones at primary
and secondary centers.

True or False, blood in the


umbilical vein is 100% False, it is 80% saturated
saturated with oxygen?

True or False, there are two


True, type A & type B
types of spermatogonia?
What are the 1st branchial
arch derivatives innervated CN V2 and V3
by?

What are the 2nd branchial


arch derivatives innervated CN VII
by?

What are the 3rd branchial


arch derivatives innervated CN IX
by?

What are the 4th and 6th


branchial arch derivatives CN X
innervated by?
What are the cartilage - Thyroid - Cricoid -
derivatives (5) of the 4th and Arytenoids - Corniculate -
6th branchial arches? Cuneiform

- 2 inches long - 2 feet from


the ileocecal valve - 2% of the
What are the five 2's
population - Commonly
associated with meckel's
presents in the first 2 years of
diverticulum?
life - May have 2 types of
epithelia

- 2 germ layers: epiblast


& hypoblast - 2 cavities:
What are the rule of 2's for
amniotic cavity & yolk
the 2nd week of
sac - 2 components to the
development?
placenta: cytotrophoblast
& syncytiotrophoblast

3 germ layers (gastrula):


What are the rule of 3's for
ectoderm, mesoderm,
the 3rd week of development?
endoderm
What can a persistent cervical
A branchial cyst in the neck
sinus lead to?

What can be found in the It is dense with immature T


cortex of the thymus? cells

It is pale with mature T cells,


What can be found in the
epithelial reticular cells, and
medulla of the thymus?
Hassall's corpuscles

What connects the thyroid


The thyroglossal duct
diverticulum to the tongue?
What devlopmental
contributions does the 5th None
branchial arch make?

What do the 2nd - 4th


branchial clefts form, which
are obliterated by Temporary cervical sinuses
proliferation of the 2nd arch
mesenchyme?

What does aberrant


development of the 3rd and DiGeorge's syndrome
4th pouches cause?

What does the 1st aortic arch


Part of the maxillary artery
give rise to?
What does the 2nd
Epithelial lining of the
pharyngeal pouch develop
palantine tonsils
into?

Common carotid artery and


What does the 3rd aortic arch
proximal part of the internal
give rise to?
carotid artery

What does the 4th pharyngeal


Superior parathyroids
pouch develop into?

What does the 5th aortic arch


Nothing
give rise to?
What does the 5th pharyngeal
C cells of the thyroid
pouch develop into?

The proximal part of the


What does the 6th aortic arch
pulmonary arteries and (on
give rise to?
left only) ductus arteriosus

What does the ductus


Ligamentum arteriosum
arteriosus give rise to?

What does the ductus


venosus shunt blood away Liver
from?
What does the first branchial
The external auditory meatus
cleft develop into?

What does the foramen ovale


Fossa ovalis
give rise to?

What does the left 4th aortic


Aortic arch
arch give rise to?

What does the ligamentum


Ductus venosus
venosum come from?
What does the notochord give
Nucleus Pulposus
rise to?

What does the primitive atria Trabeculated left and right


give rise to? atrium

What does the primitive Trabeculated parts of the left


ventricle give rise to? and right ventricle

What does the right 4th aortic Proximal part of the right
arch give rise to? subclavian artery
What does the right horn of
Smooth part of the right
the sinus venosus give rise
atrium
to?

Dorsal mesentery, but is


What does the spleen arise
supplied by the artery of the
from?
foregut

What does the thymus arise Epithelium of the 3rd


from? branchial pouch

What does the thyroid The floor of the primitive


diverticulum arise from? pharynx
What does the truncus The ascending aorta and
arteriosus give rise to? pulmonary trunk

What does the umbilical


Medial umbilical ligaments
arteries give rise to?

What ear muscle does the 1st


Tensor tympani
branchial arch form?

What effect does 13-cis-


Extremely high risk for birth
retinoic acid have on the
defects
fetus?
What effect does ACE
Renal Damage
inhibitors have on the fetus?

What effect does iodide have Congenital goiter or


on the fetus? hypothyroidism

What effect does warfarin and


Multiple anomalies
x-rays have on the fetus?

What effects does cocaine Abnormal fetal development


have on the fetus? and fetal addiction
What embryonic structure are
the smooth parts of the left
Bulbus cordis
and right ventricle derived
from?

What embryonic structure


Left horn of the sinus
does the coronary sinus come
venosus
from?

What embryonic structure


does the median umbilical Allantois (urachus)
ligament come from?

What fetal landmark has


developed within week 2 of Bilaminar disk
fertilization?
What fetal landmark has
occurred within week 1 of Implantation
fertilization?

What fetal landmark has


occurred within week 3 of Gastrulation
fertilization?

What fetal landmarks (2) have


Primitive streak and neural
developed within week 3 of
plate begin to form
fertilization?

- Neurohypophysis - CNS
What five things arise from
neurons - Oligodendrocytes -
neuroectoderm?
Astrocytes - Pineal gland
- Septum transversum -
What four structures make up pleuroperitoneal folds - body
the diaphragm? wall - dorsal mesentery of
esophagus

- Adenohypophysis - Lens of
What four things arise from
eye - Epithelial linings -
surface ectoderm?
Epidermis

What four things does


- Mandible - Malleus - Incus
Meckel's cartilage (from the
- Sphenomandibular ligament
1st arch) develop into?

What four things does - Stapes - Styloid process -


Reichert's cartilage (from the Lesser horn of hyoid -
2nd arch) develop into? Stylohyoid ligament
What four things does the
Body, tail, isthmus, and
dorsal pancreatic bud
accessory pancreatic duct
become?

What four things does the - Seminal vesicles -


mesonephric (wolffian) duct Epididymis - Ejaculatory duct
develop into? - Ductus deferens

What induces the ectoderm to


form the neuroectoderm Notochord
(neural plate)?

Abdominal contents herniate


into the thorax due to
What is a hiatal hernia?
incomplete development of
the diaphragm
Abnormal opening of penile
urethra on inferior side of
What is a hypospadias?
penis due to failure of
urethral folds to close

What is a single umbilical Congenital and chromosomal


artery associated with? anomalies

What is a urachal cyst or


The allantois
sinus a remnant of?

What is an abnormal opening


of penile urethra on superior
side of penis due to faulty Epispadias
positioning of the genital
tubercle?
What is associated with an
Exstrophy of the bladder
epispadias?

What is Meckel's Persistence of the vitelline


diverticulum? duct or yolk sac

Bilateral renal agenesis or


What is oligohydramnios
posterior urethral valves (in
associated with?
males)

What is oligohydramnios? < 0.5 L of amniotic fluid


What is polyhydramnios Esophageal/duodenal atresia,
associated with? anencephaly

What is polyhydramnios? > 1.5-2 L of amniotic fluid

Bilateral renal agenesis, that


results in ologohydramnios
causing limb and facial
What is Potter's syndrome?
deformities and pulmonary
hypoplasia (Babies with
Potter's can’t pee in utero)

What is the acrosome of


Golgi apparatus
sperm derived from?
What is the female
homologue to the corpus Vestibular bulbs
spongiosum in the male?

What is the female


Urethral and paraurethral
homologue to the prostate
glands (of Skene)
gland in the male?

What is the female


homologue to the scrotum in Labia majora
the male?

What is the female


homologue to the ventral
Labia minora
shaft of the penis in the
male?
What is the flagellum (tail)
One of the centrioles
derived from?

What is the food supply of


Fructose
sperm?

What is the male homologue


to the glans clitoris in the Glans penis
female?

What is the male homologue


to the greater vestibular Bulbourethral glands (of
glands (of Bartholin) in the Cowper)
female?
What is the most common
congenital anomaly of the GI Meckel's diverticulum
tract?

What is the most common


The tongue
ectopic thyroid tissue site?

What is the normal remnant


Foramen cecum
of the thyroglossal duct?

What is the postnatal The nucleus pulposus of the


derivative of the notochord? intervertebral disc
What is the site of T-cell
Thymus
maturation?

What part of the gut is the


Foregut
pancreas derived?

What suppresses the


development of the Mullerian inhibiting substance
paramesonephric ducts in (secreted by the testes)
males?

What teratogenic agent


causes limb defects ('flipper' Thalidomide
limbs)?
What three structures does - Thymus - Left inferior
the 3rd pharyngeal pouch parathyroid - Right inferior
develop into? parathyroid

What three things does the - Middle ear cavity -


1st pharyngeal pouch develop Eustachian tube - Mastoid air
into? cells

What three things does the


- Fallopian tube - Uterus -
paramesonephric (mullerian)
Part of the vagina
duct develop into?

What three things does the - Pancreatic head - uncinate


ventral pancreatic bud process - main pancreatic
become? duct
Heart begins to beat, upper
What two things occur during
and lower limb buds begin to
week 4 of fetal development?
form

What type of bone formation


is spontaneous without Intramembranous
preexisting cartilage?

What type of twins would


have 1 placenta, 2 amniotic Monozygotic twins
sacs, and 1 chorion?

What type of twins would


Monozygotic or dizygotic
have 2 amniotic sacs and 2
twins
placentas?
What will DiGeorge's T cell deficiency &
syndrome lead to? hypocalcemia

When do primary oocytes


During fetal life
begin meiosis I?

When do primary oocytes


Just prior to ovulation
complete meiosis I?

When does fetal


erythropoiesis occur in the Week 28 and onward
bone marrow?
When does fetal
erythropoiesis occur in the Weeks 6-30
liver?

When does fetal


erythropoiesis occur in the Weeks 9-28
spleen?

When does organogenesis


Weeks 3-8
occur in the fetus?

Where does positive and


At the corticomedullary
negative selection occur in
junction
the thymus?
Where does spermatogenesis
Seminferous tubules
take place?

Where is the first place fetal


erythropoiesis occurs and Yolk sac (3-8 wk)
when does this take place?

Which aortic arch does the


stapedial artery and the hyoid 2nd aortic arch
artery come from?

Which branchial arch are the


greater horn of hyoid and the
3rd branchial arch
stylopharyngeus muscle
derived from?
Which branchial arch does
Meckel's cartilage develop 1st arch
from?

Which branchial arch forms


the anterior 2/3 of the 1st arch
tongue?

Which branchial arch forms


the incus and malleus of the 1st arch
ear?

Which ear bone(s) does the


Stapes
2nd branchial arch form?
Which embryonic tissue are
Ectoderm
branchial clefts derived from?

Which embryonic tissue are


branchial pouches derived Endoderm
from?

Which is more common a


Hypospadias
hypospadias or epispadias?

Which muscles (3) are - Most pharyngeal


derivatives of the 4th constrictors - Cricothyroid -
branchial arch? Levator veli palatini
Which muscles (4) are - Muscles of facial expression
derivatives of the 2nd - Stapedius - Stylohyoid -
branchial arch? Posterior belly of digastric

- Temporalis - Masseter -
Lateral pterygoid - Medial
Which muscles (8) are
pterygoid - Mylohyoid -
derivatives of the 1st
Anterior belly of digastric -
branchial arch?
Tensor tympani - Tensor veli
palatini

All intrinsic muscles of the


Which muscles are derivatives
larynx, except the
of the 6th branchial arch?
cricothyroid

Which pharyngeal arch does


Reichert's cartilage develop 2nd arch
from?
Which teratogenic agent
causes vaginal clear cell DES
adenocarcinoma?

Which two branchial arches


form the posterior 1/3 of the 3rd and 4th arches
tongue?

Which two embryonic tissues


are branchial arches derived Mesoderm and neural crests
from?

Which week of fetal


development have the
Week 10
genitalia taken on male/
female characteristics?
A common football injury
--Medial collateral ligament
caused by clipping from the
--Medial meniscus --Anterior
lateral side will damage what
cruciate ligament
structures (3 answers)?

A lumbar puncture is
Iliac crest
performed at what landmark/

A positive anterior drawer


Anterior cruciate ligament
sign indicates damage to
(ACL)
what structure?

A pudendal nerve block is


Ischial spine
performed at what landmark?
Abnormal passive abduction
Medial collateral ligament
of the knee indicates damage
(MCL)
to what structure?

Anterior' in ACL refers to


Tibial
what attachment?

At what level is a lumbar


Between L3-L4 or L4-L5
puncture performed?

Common peroneal nerve


Loss of dorsiflexion(Foot
damage manifests what
Drop)
deficit?
Common peroneal, Tibial,
--'L4-S2 (common peroneal)
Femoral, and Obturator
--L4-S3 (tibial) --L2-L4
nerves arise from what spinal
(femoral) and (obturator)
cord segments (4 answers)?

Coronary artery occlusion Left anterior descending


usually occurs where? artery (LAD)

Do the coronary arteries fill


Diastole
during systole or diastole?

Erection and sensation of the


S2-S4
penis is in what dermatomes?
Femoral nerve damage
Loss of knee jerk
manifests what deficit?

The left wraps around the


How does the course of the arch of the aorta and the
left recurrent laryngeal nerve ligamentum arteriosum while
differ from that of the right? the right wraps around the
subclavian artery.

2/3 of the way from the


How is the appendix located? umbilicus to the anterior
superior iliac spine

--Right has three


How many lobes are in the
(superior,middle,inferior) --
right and left lungs and what
Left has two (superior and
are their names?
inferior) and the lingula
1.Left gastric-azygous vv.
2.Superior-Middle/Inferior
Name five portal-systemic rectal vv. 3.Paraumbilical-
anastomoses. inferior epigastric
4.Retroperitoneal-renal vv.
5.Retroperitoneal-
paravertebral vv.

--Suspensory ligament of
ovaries --Transverse cervical
Name the 4 ligaments of the
(cardinal) ligament --Round
uterus.
ligament of uterus --Broad
ligament

--Opponens digiti minimi --


Name the hypothenar
Abductor digiti minimi --
muscles.
Flexor digiti minimi

1.Duodenum(2nd-4th parts)
2.Descending colon
Name the retroperitoneal 3.Ascending colon 4.Kidney
structures (9). & ureters 5.Pancreas
6.Aorta 7.Inferior vena cava
8.Adrenal glands 9.Rectum
--Supraspinatus --
Name the rotator cuff
Infraspinatus --teres minor
muscles.
--Subscapularis

--Opponens pollicis --
Name the thenar muscles Abductor pollicis brevis --
Flexor pollicis brevis

Obturator nerve damage


Loss of hip adduction
manifests what deficit?

Pain from the diaphragm is


Shoulder
usually referred where?
Subarachnoid space extends
S2
to what spinal level?

The area of the body that


contains the appendix is McBurney's point
known as what?

The femoral triangle contains --Femoral nerve --Femoral


what structures from lateral artery --Femoral vein --
to medial? Femoral Canal (lymphatics)

The inguinal ligament exists


L1
in what dermatome?
The kneecaps exist in what
L4
dermatome?

The male sexual response of


ejaculation is mediated by
Visceral and somatic nerves
what part of the nervous
system?

The male sexual response of


emission is mediated by what Sympathetic nervous system
part of the nervous system?

The male sexual response of


Parasympathetic nervous
erection is mediated by what
system
part of the nervous system?
The nipple exists in what
T4
dermatome?

The recurrent laryngeal nerve 1.CN X 2.All intrinsic muscles


arises from what cranial nerve of the larynx except the
and supplies what muscles? cricothyroid muscle.

The SA and AV nodes are


usually supplied by what Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
artery?

The spinal cord ends at what


L1-L2
level in adults?
The umbilicus exists in what
T10
dermatome?

The xiphoid process exists in


T7
what dermatome?

Tibial nerve damage


Loss of plantar flexion
manifests what deficit?

Protrusions of peritoneum
What are hernias? through an opening, usually
sites of weakness.
Modified smooth muscle of
afferent arteriole in the
What are JG cells?
juxtaglomerular apparatus of
the kidney

--Inferior epigastric artery --


What are the boundaries of
Lateral border of the rectus
the inguinal (Hesselbach)
abdominus --Inguinal
triangle?
ligament

--Skin --Connective tissue


--Aponeurosis --Loose
What are the layers connective tissue --
encountered from the Pericranium --Dura mater --
outsided down to the brain? Subdural space --Arachnoid
--Subarachnoid space --Pia
mater --Brain

--Esophageal varices --
What are the manifestations
Hemorrhoids --Caput
of portal hypertension?
medusae
What condition is usually
associated with portal Alcoholic cirrhosis
hypertension?

What defect may predispose


Defective development of the
an infant for a diaphragmatic
pleuroperitoneal membrane
hernia?

What gut regions and 1.Foregut 2.--Stomach to


structures does the celiac duodenum --liver --
artery supply? gallbladder --pancreas

What gut regions and 1.Hindgut 2.--Distal 1/3 of


structures does the IMA transverse colon to upper
supply? portion of rectum
What gut regions and 1.Midgut 2.--Duodenum to
structures does the SMA proximal 2/3 of transverse
supply? colon

What is a diaphragmatic Abdominal retroperitoneal


hernia? structures enter the thorax

entrance of abdominal
What is a femoral hernia? contents through the femoral
canal.

Stomach contents herniate


upward through the
What is a hiatal hernia?
esophageal hiatus of the
diaphragm
What is the arterial blood
--Superior rectal a. (Above)
supply difference above and
--Inferior rectal a. (Below)
below the pectinate line?

Through weak abdominal


wall, into the inguinal
What is the course of a direct
triangle, medial to the inferior
inguinal hernia?
epigastric artery, through the
external inguinal ring only.

Through the internal (deep)


inguinal ring and the external
What is the course of an (superficial) inguinal ring
indirect inguinal hernia? lateral to the inferior
epigastric artery and into the
scrotum

What is the course of the Pass under uterine artery and


ureters? under the ductus deferens
1.Coordinates motility along
What is the function of
entire gut wall 2.Regulates
Myenteric plexus?
local secretions, blood flow,
Submucosal plexus?
and absorption

What is the function of the JG --secrete renin and


cells? erythropoietin

What is the innervation --Visceral innervation


difference above and below (Above) --Somatic
the pectinate line? innervation (Below)

What is the innervation of the


Phrenic nerve (C3,4,5)
diaphram?
Sodium sensor in part of the
distal convoluted distal
What is the macula densa?
tubule in the juxtaglomerular
apparatus of the kidney

What is the Myenteric plexus


1. Auerbach's plexus 2.
also known as? Submucosal
Meissner's plexus
plexus?

What is the pectinate line of Where the hindgut meets


the rectum? ectoderm in the rectum

What is the relationship of the


two pulmonary arteries in the Right anterior Left superior
lung hilus?
What is the usual pathology
Internal hemorrhoids (not
above the pectinate line of
painful) Adenocarcinoma
the rectum?

What is the usual pathology External hemorrhoids


below the pectinate line of (painful) Squamous cell
the rectum? carcinoma

--Superior rectal v. to IMV to


What is the venous drainage portal system (Above) --
difference above and below Inferior rectal v. to internal
the pectinate line? pudendal v. to internal iliac v.
to IVC (Below)

--Muscularis mucosae --
What layers of the gut wall Inner circular muscle layer --
contribute to motility (4)? Myenteric plexus --Outer
longitudinal muscle layer
What layers of the gut wall --Serosa --Lamina propria --
contribute to support (3)? Submucosa

What muscle opens the jaw? Lateral pterygoid

What nerve innervates most 1.Vagus Nerve (CNX)


of the 'glossus' muscles and 2.Palatoglossus (innervated
which is the exception? by hypoglossal n.)

1.Trigeminal Nerve,
What nerve innervates most
Mandibular branch 2.Tensor
of the 'palat' muscles and
veli palatini (innervated by
which is the exception?
vagus n)
What nerve innervates the
muscles that close and open Trigeminal Nerve (V3)
the jaw?

Cell bodies of
What neurons do the GI
parasympathetic terminal
enteric plexus contain?
effector neurons

What part of the heart does anterior interventricular


the LAD supply? septum

What spinal cord levels are


vertebral disk herniation most Between L5 and S1
likely to occur?
What structure is in the
femoral triangle but not in --Femoral nerve
the femoral sheath?

1.Internal Jugular Vein


What structures are in the (lateral) --2.Common Carotid
carotid sheath? Artery (medial) --3.Vagus
Nerve (posterior)

1.Skin/superficial fascia
2.Ligaments
(supraspinatous,interspinous,
What structures are pierced ligamentum flavum)
when doing an LP? 3.Epidural space 4.Dura
mater 5.Subdural space
6.Arachnoid 7.Subarachnoid
space--CSF

--Round ligaments of the


What structures do the broad
uterus --Ovaries --Uterine
ligament contain (4)?
tubules --Uterine vessels
--Tertiary bronchus --
What structures make up the
Bronchial artery --Pulmonary
bronchopulmonary segment?
artery

--IVC at T8 --esophagus,
What structures perforate the
vagal trunks at T10 --aorta,
diaphragm at what vertebral
thoracic duct, axygous vein at
levels?
T12

What three muscles close the --Masseter --Temporalis --


jaw? Medial pterygoid

What usually provides the


Posterior descending artery
blood supply for the inferior
(PD) of the RCA
left ventricle?
in response to decreased
When do the JG cells secrete renal BP, decreased sodium
renin? delivery to distal tubule, and
increased sympathetic tone

When is damage to the


recurrent laryngeal nerve 1.Thyroid surgery
most likely to happen and 2.Hoarseness
what are its results(2
answers)?

Where is the CSF found? Subarachnoid space

1.Between the inner and outer


Where is the Myenteric plexus layers of smooth muscle in GI
located? Submucosal plexus? tract wall 2.Between mucosa
and inner layer of smooth
muscle in GI tract wall.
Which ligament contains the Suspensory ligament of the
ovarian vessels? ovary

Which ligament contains the Transverse cervical (cardinal)


uterine vessels? ligament

Which lung is the usual site of


Right lung
an inhaled foreign body?

Which lung provides a space Left lung (in the place of the
for the heart to occupy? middle lobe)
Which meningeal layer is not
Pia mater
pierced during an LP?

Who usually gets a direct 1.Older men 2.Infants (failure


inguinal hernia? indirect of processus vaginalis to
hernia (and why)? close)

What are the 3 layers of


1) Endoneurium 2)
peripheral nerves? (inner to
Perineurium 3) Epineurium
outer)

1. bone 2. tendon 3. skin 4.


Where is type I collagen
dentin 5. fascia 6. cornea 7.
found?(7)
late wound repair
1. cartilage (including hyaline)
Where is type II collagen
2. vitreous body 3. nucleus
found? (3)
pulposus.

1. Cochlea- hearing 2.
What are the functions of the
vestibule- linear acceleration
major structures of the inner
3. semicircular canals-
ear bony labyrinth?
angular acceleration.

What are the major structures


1. Cochlea 2. vestibule 3.
of the inner ear bony
semicircular canals
labyrinth?

What are the major structures 1. Cochlear duct 2. utricle. 3.


of the inner ear membranous saccule 4. semicircular
labyrinth? canals.
Name two proteins involved
in the structure of macula 1. Desmoplakin 2.Keratin
adherens.

1. Distribution center of proteins and


lipids from ER to plasma membrane,
lysosomes, secretory vessicles 2.
Modifies N-oligosaccharides on
Name 6 functions of Golgi asparagine 3. Adds O-oligosaccharides
apparatus. to Ser and Thr residues 4. Proteoglycan
assembly from proteoglycan core
proteins 5. Sulfation of sugars in
proteoglycans and of selected tyrosine
on proteins

6. Addition of mannose-6-
phosphate to specific
Name 6 functions of Golgi
lysosomal proteins, which
apparatus (continued answer)
targets the protein to the
lysosome

Name two proteins involved


1. E-cadherins 2. actin
in the structure of zona
filaments
adherens?
1. liver hepatocytes, 2.
Which cells are rich in smooth
steroid hormone-producing
ER?
cells of adrenal cortex.

1. M cells take up antigen. 2.


stimulated B cells leave Peyer's patch
and travel through lymph and blood to
Describe the immune lamina propria of intestine. 3. In
response stimulated via lamina propria B cells differentiate into
IgA-secreting plasma cells. 4. IgA
Peyer's patches. receives protective secretory
component. 5. IgA is transported
across epithelium to gut to deal with
intraluminal Ag.

1. Mucus-secreting goblet
Which cells are rich in rough cells of small intestine, 2.
ER? antibody-secreting plasma
cells.

1. Nonspecific filtration by
What are the functions of the macrophages. 2. storage/
lymph node? proliferation of B and T cells
3. Ab production.
1. skin 2.blood vessels
Where is type III collagen
3.uterus 4.fetal tissue
found? (5)
5.granulation tissue

1. zona occludens 2.zona


Name five types of epithelial adherens 3.macula adherens
cell junctions. 4.gap junction
5.hemidesmosome

Describe microtubule 9+2 arrangement of


arrangement of cilia. microtubules.

A Peyer's patch is 'covered' by


single layer of cuboidal
Describe the outer structure
enterocytes, interspersed with
of a Peyer's patch.
specialized M cells (no goblet
cells).
A secondary lymphoid organ.
Has many afferents, one or
What is a lymph node?
more efferents. With
Include information on
trabeculae. Major histological
structural components.
regions = Follicle, Medulla,
Paracortex

What is the primary


regulatory control of zona ACTH, hypothalamic CRH
fasciculata secretion?

What is the primary


regulatory control of zona ACTH, hypothalamic CRH
reticularis secretion?

What are/is the primary


secretory product of the zona aldosterone
glomerulosa?
What do Brunner's glands
alkaline mucus
secrete?

Allow macromolecules of
What is the function of liver plasma full access to surface
sinusoids? of liver cells through space of
Disse.

Allows adjacent cells to


What is the function of a gap
communicate for electric and
junction?
metabolic functions.

What is produced by alpha


cells of the Islets of alpha cells produce glucagon
Langerhans?
What three cell types are
alpha, beta, and gamma cells
found in Islets of Langerhans?

What type of cells are Nissl Are found in neurons. Are not
bodies found? In what parts found in axon or axon
of the cell? hillock.

IN what area of the spleen are B cells are found within the
B cells found? white pulp of the spleen.

What is type IV collagen basement membrane or basal


found? (1) lamina
What is produced by beta
cells of the Islets of beta cells produce insulin
Langerhans?

What is the only GI


Brunner's glands
submucosal gland?

Describe the histological Capsule, Zona glomerulosa,


layers of the adrenal glands Zona fasciculata, Zona
(outside to in) reticularis, Medulla.

What are/is the primary


secretory product of the Catecholamines (Epi, NE)
adrenal medulla?
Check out the picture in the
Memo to you.
book.

Check out the picture in the


Memo to you.
book. p. 105

What do the medullary cords Closely packed lymphocytes


consist of? and plasma cells.

What is the most common


Collagen Type I - 90%
type of collagen?
What is the most abundant
Collagen.
protein in the human body?

Define Islets of Langerhans. Collections of endocrine cells.

What is the function of Connect cells to underlying


hemidesmosomes? extracellular matrix.

What are/is the primary


secretory product of the zona cortisol, sex hormones.
fasciculata?
What is another name for
Desmosome
macula adherens?

What is the effect of duodenal Duodenal ulcers cause


ulcers on Brunner's gland hypertrophy of Brunner's
histology? glands.

Dynein causes the bending of


How does dynein function in
cilium by differential sliding
cilia function?
of doublets.

What kind of protein is


Dynein is an ATPase.
dynein?
Describe the role of dynein in Dynein links peripheral 9
cilia structure. doublets of microtubules.

Endolymph is made by the


What makes endolymph?
stria vascularis.

Endoneurium invests single


What is Endoneurium? nerve fiber of the peripheral
nerve.

Epineurium (dense connective


What is Epineurium? tissue) surrounds entire never
(fascicles and blood vessels)
What is type X collagen
epiphyseal plate
found? (1)

Filtration of plasma occurs


Plasma is filtered on the basis
according to net charge and
of what properties?
size.

From the fusion of


How is the glomerular
endothelial and podocyte
basement membrane formed?
basement membranes.

What is produced by gamma


gamma cells produce
cells of the Islets of
somatostatin.
Langerhans?
GFR (Glomerulosa,
Fasciculata, Reticularis)
What is the mnemonic to
corresponds to Salt (Na+),
remember layers and
Sugar (glucocorticoids) and
products of adrenal cortex?
Sex (androgens) The deeper
you go, the sweeter it gets.

Hair cells are the sensory


What is the function of hair
elements in both the cochlear
cells?
and vestibular apparatus.

Name a protein involved in


the structure of Integrin.
hemidesmosomes.

What is another name for


Intermediate junction.
zona adherens?
Irregular 'capillaries' with
Describe the histological
round pores 100-200 nm in
structure of sinusoids of the
diameter and no basement
liver.
membrane.

Is the site of steroid synthesis


What is the function of
and detoxification of drugs
smooth ER?
and poisons

Is the site of synthesis of


secretory (exported proteins
What is the function of rough
and of N-linked
ER?
oligosaccharide addition to
many proteins.

What part of pancreas are the Islets of Langerhans are most


Islets of Langerhans numerous in the tail of
concentrated? pancreas.
What structural defect causes Kartagener's syndrome is due
Kartagener's syndrome? What to dynein arm defect. Results
is the consequence? in immotile cilia.

Large, encapsulated sensory


receptors found in deeper
Define Pacinian corpuscles. layers of skin at ligaments,
joint capsules, serous
membranes, mesenteries.

Where are Brunner's glands Located in submucosa of


located? duodenum

Long, vascular channels in


Describe the histologic
red pulp. With fenestrated
structure of sinusoids of the
'barrel hoop' basement
spleen.
membrane.
What is the histologic change Lymph node paracortex
in lymph nodes during an becomes enlarged during
extreme cellular immune extreme cellular immune
response? response.

What is the histologic Lymph node paracortex is not


presentation of DiGeorge's well developed in patients
syndrome? with DiGeorge's syndrome.

What kind of cells are found


nearby the sinusoids of the Macrophages
spleen?

What are the major structures Medulla consists of medullary


of the lymph node medulla? cords and medullary sinuses.
Medullary sinuses
What do medullary sinuses
communicate with efferent
communicate with?
lymphatics.

Medullary sinuses contain


What do medullary sinuses
reticular cells and
consist of?
macrophages.

Meissner's corpuscles are


What is the function of involved in light
Meissner's corpuscles? discriminatory touch of
glabrous skin.

What is the histologic change


in nephrotic syndrome? What Negative charge is lost.
is the consequence of this Plasma protein is lost in urine
change?
What is the glomerular
basement membrane coated Negatively charged heparan
with? (provides negative sulfate.
charge to filter).

What is the most common


tumor the adrenal medulla in Neuroblastoma
children?

Pacinian corpuscles are


What is the function of
involved in pressure, coarse
Pacinian corpuscles?
touch, vibration, and tension.

What do the Islets of


Pancreatic buds.
Langerhans arise from?
What specialized vascular
Paracortex contains high
structure is found in the
endothelial venules (HEV). T
lymph node paracortex?
and B cells enter from the
What is the function of this
blood through the HEV.
structure?

What cells are found in the


Paracortex houses T cells.
lymph node paracortex?

Perineurium (permeability
What is Perineurium? barrier) surrounds a fascicle
of nerve fibers.

What is the most common


tumor the adrenal medulla in Pheochromocytoma
adults?
Compare the consequences Pheochromocytoma causes
of pheochromocytoma vs. episodic hypertension
neuroblastoma on blood Neuroblastoma does NOT
pressure cause episodic hypertension

Pores in liver sinusoids


allowing plasma
What is the space of Disse?
macromolecules access to
liver cell surfaces.

What is the primary


Preganglionic sympathetic
regulatory control of adrenal
fibers
medulla secretion?

What is the function of zona Prevents diffusion across


occludens? intracellular space.
Primary follicles are dense
Describe the appearance and and dormant. Secondary
status of primary vs. follicles have pale central
secondary follicles. germinal centers and are
active.

Describe the location of the Region of cortex between


lymph node paracortex. follicles and medulla.

What is the primary


regulatory control of zona Renin-angiotensin
glomerulosa secretion?

What is the glomerular


Responsible for the actual
basement membrane
filtration of plasma.
responsible for?
What is another name for
reticulin
type III collagen?

What are Nissl bodies? rough ER

Semicircular canals contain


Where in the inner ear are the
ampullae Functions in
ampullae found? What is the
detecting angular
function of this structure?
acceleration.

What are/is the primary


sex hormones (e.g.
secretory product of the zona
androgens)
reticularis?
What is the function of lymph Site of B-cell localization and
node follicles? proliferation.

Small, discrete sites of


Define macula adherens.
attachment of epithelial cells.

Small, encapsulated sensory


Define Meissner's corpuscles. receptors found in dermis of
palm, soles and digits of skin.

Specialized cell interspersed


between the cuboidal
What is an M cell? What is it's
enterocytes covering a Peyer's
function.
patch. M cells take up
antigens.
stratum Corneum, stratum
Name the layers of epidermis Lucidum, stratum
from surface to base. Granulosum, stratum
Spinosum, stratum Basalis.

What is the location of zona Surrounds the perimeter just


adherens? below zona occludens.

Synthesize enzymes (e.g.


What is the function of Nissl
ChAT) and peptide
bodies?
neurotransmitters.

T cells are found in the PALS


In what area of the spleen are
and the red pulp of the
T cells found?
spleen.
Which part of the cochlea The base of the cochlea picks
picks up high frequency up high frequency sound the
sound? Which picks up low apex picks up low frequency
frequency? sound

What is the bony labyrinth The bony labyrinth is filled


filled with? Describe its with perilymph. Perilymph is
composition. Na+ rich, similar to ECF

The failure of addition of


mannose-6-phosphate to
What is the cause of I cell
lysosome proteins. These
disease? What is the
enzymes are secreted outside
consequence?
the cell instead of being
targeted to the lysosome.

The membranous labyrinth is


What is the membranous
filled with endolymph.
labyrinth filled with? Describe
Endolymph is K+ rich, similar
its composition.
to ICF.
What layer of the peripheral
The perineurium must be
nerve must be rejoined in
rejoined in microsurgery for
microsurgery for limb
limb reattachment.
reattachment?

Where in the inner ear are the The utricle and saccule
maculae found? What is the contain maculae Functions in
function of this structure? detecting linear acceleration.

How is the function of gap Through a connection with


junctions accomplished? central channels.

What is another name for


Tight junction.
zona occludens?
Type ONE: bONE Type TWO:
What are mnemonics for
carTWOlage Type FOUR:
remembering locations for
under the FLOOR (basement
type I, II and IV collagen?
membrane)

Unencapsulated lymphoid
tissue found in lamina propria
What is a Peyer's patch?
and submucosa of small
intestine.

What type of infection may


induce an extreme cellular
immune response? What Viral response is an example.
happens to the lymph node The paracortex enlarges.
during such an immune
response?

According to the
Homunculus man, place the foot, trunk, hand, face,
following in order (from tongue
medial to lateral). hand, foot,
tongue, face, trunk
(T or F) Can Bell's palsy occur
true
idiopathically?

(T or F) Can fasiculations be
True
present in a LMN lesion?

(T or F) Is the anterior nucleus


of the thalamus part of the True
limbic system?

(T or F) Is the cingulate gyrus


True
part of the limbic system?
(T or F) Is the Entrorhinal
cortex part of the limbic True
system?

(T or F) Is the hippocampal
formation part of the limbic True
system?

(T or F) Is the mammillary
body part of the limbic True
system?

(T or F) Is the septal area part


True
of the limbic system?
(T or F) Thoracic outlet
syndrome results in atrophy True
of the interosseous muscles?

(T or F) Thoracic outlet
syndrome results in atrophy
True
of the thenar and hypothenar
eminences?

(T or F) Thoracic outlet
syndrome results in
disappearance of the radial True
pulse upon moving the head
to the opposite side?

(T or F) Thoracic outlet
syndrome results in sensory
True
deficits on the medial side of
the forearm and hand?
A lesion of the globus
Wilson's disease
pallidus causes what disease?

Wernicke-Korsakoff's
A lesion of the mammillary
encephalopathy
bodies (bilateraly) produces
(confabulations, anterograde
what?
amnesia)

A lesion of the optic chiasm


bitemporal hemianopsia
produces?

A lesion of the right dorsal


left lower quadrantic anopsia
optic radiation (parietal
(a temporal lesion)
lesion) produces?
A lesion of the right Meyer's
left upper quadrantic anopsia
loop (temporal lobe)
(a temporal lesion)
produces?

A lesion of the right optic


right anopsia
nerve produces?

A lesion of the right optic left homonymous


tract produces? hemianopsia

A lesion of the right visual


left hemianopsia with macular
fibers just prior to the visual
sparing
cortex produces?
A lesion of the Striatum can Huntington's and Wilson's
cause which 2 diseases? disease

A positive Babinski is an
indicator for a (UMN or LMN) UMN lesion
lesion?

A rupture of the middle


menigeal artery causes what
epidural hematoma
type of hematoma? (epidural
or subdural)

A rupture of the superior


cerebral veins causes what
subdural hematoma
type of hematoma? (epidural
or subdural)
An aneurysm of the anterior
communicating artery may visual defects
cause what type of defects?

An aneurysm of what artery posterior communicating


may cause CN III palsy? artery

Are D1 neurons in the basal


ganglia inhibitory or Excitatory
excitatory?

Are D2 neurons in the basal


ganglia inhibitory or Inhibitory
excitatory?
Beginning with anterior ant. comm. - ACA - ICA -
communicating artery post. comm. - PCA - PCA -
describe the path around the post. comm. - ICA - ACA -
circle of Willis. ant. comm.

AIDS, Lyme disease,


Bell's Palsy is seen as a
Sarcoidosis, Tumors,
complication in what 5
Diabetes (ALexander Bell with
things?
STD)

Brodmann's area 17 is? principal visual cortex

Wernicke's area (associative


Brodmann's area 22 is?
auditory cortex)
Brodmann's area 3,1,2 is? principal sensory area

Brodmann's area 4 is? principal motor area

Brodmann's area 41, 42 is? primary auditory cortex

Brodmann's area 44, 45 is? Broca's area (motor speech)


Brodmann's area 6 is? premotor area

frontal eye movement and


Brodmann's area 8 is?
pupilary change area

CN I has what function? smell

CN I passes through what


cribriform plate
'hole'?
CN II has what function? sight

CN II passes through what


optic canal
'hole'?

eye movement, pupil


CN III has what 4 functions? constriction, accommodation,
eyelid opening

medial rectus, superior


CN III inervates what 5 rectus, inferior rectus, inferior
muscles. oblique, levator palpebrae
superioris
CN III passes through what
superior orbital fissure
'hole'?

CN IV has what function? eye movement

CN IV inervates what muscle. superior oblique

CN IV passes through what


superior orbital fissure
'hole'?
posterior 1/3 taste,
swallowing, salivation
CN IX has what 4 functions?
(parotid), monitoring carotid
body and sinus

CN IX passes through what


jugular foramen
'hole'?

CN V has what 2 functions? mastication, facial sensation

CN V1 passes through what


superior orbital fissure
'hole'?
CN V2 passes through what
foramen rotundum
'hole'?

CN V3 passes through what


foramen ovale
'hole'?

CN VI has what function? eye movement

CN VI inervates what muscle. lateral rectus


CN VI passes through what
superior orbital fissure
'hole'?

facial movement, anterior 2/3


CN VII has what 4 functions? taste, lacrimation, salivation
(SL, SM glands)

CN VII passes through what


internal auditory meatus
'hole'?

CN VIII has what 2 functions? hearing, balance


CN VIII passes through what
internal auditory meatus
'hole'?

taste, swallowing, palate


CN X has what 5 functions? elevation, talking,
thoracoabdominal viscera

CN X passes through what


jugular foramen
'hole'?

head turning, shoulder


CN XI has what 2 functions?
shrugging
jugular foramen (descending)
CN XI passes through what
-- foramen magnum
'hole'?
(ascending)

CN XII has what function? tounge movements

CN XII passes through what


hypoglossal canal
'hole'?

Complete the muscle spindle


reflex arc by placing the muscle stretch - intrafusal
following in order: alpha stretch - Ia afferent - alpha
motor, Ia afferent, muscle motor - extrafusal
stretch, extrafusal contraction
contraction, intrafusal
stretch.
Extrafusal fibers are
innervated by what motor alpha motor neuron
neuron?

From which 3 spinal roots


does long thoracic nerve C5, C6, C7
arises?

General sensory/motor
dysfunction and aphasia are
anterior circle
caused by stroke of the? (ant.
circle or post. circle)

Give 3 characteristics of a atrophy, flaccid paralysis,


LMN lesion. absent deep tendon reflexes
Give 3 charateristics of medial rectus palsy on lateral
internuclear ophthalmoplegia gaze, nystagmus in abducted
(INO) eye, normal convergence.

spastic paralysis, increased


Give 4 characteristics of an
deep tendon reflexes, +
UMN lesion.
Babinski, minor to no atrophy

Golgi tendon organs send


group Ib afferents
their signal via what nerve?

Horner's Syndrome is present


if the lesion in Brown- T1
Sequard is above what level?
How are the fibers of the
corticospinal tract laminated? arms- medial, legs-lateral
(legs/arms medial or lateral?)

How are the fibers of the


dorsal column laminated? legs-medial, arms-lateral
(legs/arms medial or lateral?)

How are the fibers of the


spinothalmic tract laminated?
cervical-medial, sacral-lateral
(sacral/cervical medial or
lateral?)

How do glucose and amino


carrier-mediated transport
acids cross the blood-brain
mechanism
barrier?
How does the hypothalamus via releasing factors (ie. TRH,
control the adenohypophysis? CRF, GnRF, etc.)

Huntington's patients
typically have what type of Chorea
movements?

If the radial nerve is lesioned, triceps reflex and


what 2 reflexes are lost? brachioradialis reflex

If you break your humerus


mid-shaft, which nerve would radial nerve
likely injure?
If you break your medial
epicondyle of the humerus,
ulnar nerve
which nerve would likely
injure?

If you break your


supracondyle of the humerus,
median nerve
which nerve would likely
injure?

If you break your surgical


neck of the humerus, which axillary nerve
nerve would likely injure?

In a lesion of the radial nerve,


what muscle is associated extensor carpi radialis longus
with wrist drop?
Intrafusal fibers are
encapsulated and make up
group Ia afferents
muscle spindles that send
their signal via what nerve?

Intrafusal fibers are


innervated by what motor gamma motor neuron
neuron?

Is Bell's palsy an UMN or a


LMN
LMN lesion?

Is the Babinski reflex (positive


or negative) when the big toe
positive (pathologic)
dorsiflexes and the other toes
fan-out?
Name 2 locations for lesions ventral white commissure and
in Syringomyelia? ventral horns

Name 3 locations for lesions dorsal columns, lateral


in Vit.B12 neuropathy corticospinal tracts, and
(Friedreich's ataxia)? spinocerebellar tracts

Thirst/waterbalance,
Adenohypophysis control,
Name 7 functions of the Neurohypophysis control,
hypothalamus? Hunger/satiety, Autonomic
regulation, Temperature
regulation, Sexual emotions.
TAN HATS

internal auditory meatus,


Name the 4 foramina that are
jugular foramen, hypoglossal
in the posterior cranial fossa?
canal, and foramen magnum.
optic canal, superior orbital
Name the 5 foramina that are fissure, foramen rotundum,
in the middle cranial fossa? foramen ovale, and foramen
spinosum.

Feeding, Fighting, Feeling,


Name the 5 functions of the
Flight, sex (F--K) [the
Limbic system?
famous 5 F's]

Name the 5 segments of the


roots - trunks - divisions -
brachial plexus in order from
cords - branches
proximal to distal.

Name the type of movement


with slow writhing Athetosis
movements (esp. the fingers)?
Name the type of movement
with sudden, jerky, Chorea
purposeless movements?

Name the type of movement


with sudden, wild flailing of Hemiballismus
one arm?

Neurons from the globus


pallidus have what action on Inhibitory
the ventral anterior nucleus?

Neurons from the striatum


have what action on the Inhibitory
globus pallidus?
Place the following in order
(from light entering the eye to retina, CN II, pretectal nuclei,
reflex). Pretectal nuclei, Edinger-Westphal nuclei, CN
pupillary constrictor muscle, III, ciliary ganglion, pupillary
retina, ciliary ganglion, constrictor muscle
Edinger-Westphal nuclei, CN
II, CN III.

Stimulation from the


paraventricular nucleus cause oxytocin
the release of what hormone?

Stimulation from the


supraoptic nucleus cause the ADH (vasopressin)
release of what hormone?

choriod plexus epithelium,


intracerebral capillary
The Blood-Brain Barrier is
endothelium, astrocytes.
formed by what 3 structures?
(First Aid says Arachnoid but
the brains say that’s a typo)
The central retinal artery is a
ophthalmic artery
branch off what larger artery?

The embryologic defect of


subclavian artery and inferior
having a cervical rib can
trunk of the brachial plexus
compress what 2 structures?

The fasciculus cuneatus


contains fibers from the upper extremities
upper or lower body?

The fasciculus gracilis


contains fibers from the lower extremities
upper or lower body?
The hippocampal formation is
connected to the mammillary
fornix
body and septal area via what
structure?

The hippocampus has input


entorhinal cortex, septal area
from what two areas?

The hippocampus has output


mammillary body, septal area
to what two areas?

The infraorbital nerve is a


CN V2
branch off what larger nerve?
The Nucleus Ambiguus has
CN IX, X, XII
fibers from what 3 CNs?

The Nucleus Solitarius has


CN VII, IX, X
fibers from what 3 CNs?

Traction or tear of the


superior trunk of the brachial Erb-Duchenne palsy (waiter's
plexus causes what tip)
syndrome?

Vertigo, ataxia, visual deficits,


and coma are caused by
posterior circle
stroke of the? (ant. circle or
post. circle)
Visual fibers from the lateral
geniculate body terminate on
Calcarine fissure
the upper and lower banks of
what fissure?

What 1 nerve root is assoc.


S1
with the achilles reflex?

What 1 nerve root is assoc.


C5
with the biceps reflex?

What 1 nerve root is assoc.


L4
with the patella reflex?
What 1 nerve root is assoc.
C7
with the triceps reflex?

What 2 areas have sensation


lateral palm/thumb and the
deficit in a lesion of the
radial 2 1/2 fingers
median nerve?

What 2 areas have sensation


medial palm and the ulnar 1
deficit in a lesion of the ulnar
1/2 fingers
nerve?

What 2 cutaneus nerves are posterior brachial cutaneous


lost in a lesion of the radial and posterior antebrachial
nerve? cutaneous
What 2 spinal roots make up
the inferior trunk of the C8, T1
brachial plexus?

What 2 spinal roots make up


the superior trunk of the C5, C6
brachial plexus?

What 2 structures pass


through the internal auditory CN VII, VIII
meatus?

What 2 symptoms are seen


difficulty flexing the arm,
with a lesion of the
variable sensory loss
musculocutaneus nerve?
What 2 symptoms are seen
weak intrinsic muscles of the
with a lesion of the ulnar
hand, Pope's blessing
nerve?

What 3 blood barriers does blood-brain, blood-gas,


the body have? blood-testis

What 3 muscles are lost in a


coracobrachialis, biceps
lesion of the
brachii, and brachialis
musculocutaneous nerve?

triceps brachii,
What 3 muscles are lost in a
brachioradialis, and extensor
lesion of the radial nerve?
carpi radialis longus
What 3 structures pass spinal roots of CN XI
through the foramen (ascending), brainstem,
magnum? vertebral arteries

What 3 structures pass CN II, ophthalmic artery,


through the optic canal? central retinal vein

Brachioradialis, Extensors of
What 4 'muscles' does the
the wrist and fingers,
radial nerve innervate?
Supinator, Triceps. (BEST)

substantia nigra pars


What 4 areas is there
compacta, globus pallidus,
decreased output in
ventral anterior nucleus,
Parkinson's?
cortex
wrist flextion, wrist
What 4 movements are
addduction, thumb
limpaired in a lesion of the
adduction, and adductiont of
ulnar nerve?
the 2 ulnar fingers

forearm pronation, wrist


What 4 movements are lost in
flexion, finger flexion, and
a lesion of the median nerve?
several thumb movements

What 4 structures pass CN IX, X, XI(descending),


through the jugular foramen? jugular vein

What 4 things do the lateral internal capsule, caudate,


striate arteries supply? putamen, globus pallidus
What 5 spinal nerves that
C5, C6, C7, C8, T1
make up the brachial plexus?

What 5 structures pass


CN III, IV, V1, VI, ophthalmic
through the supperior orbital
vein
fissure?

What 5 types of cells make up Astrocytes, Microglia,


the suportive cells of the Oligodendroglia, Schwann
CNS/PNS? cells, Ependymal cells.

What are 2 characteristics of impaired proprioception and


Tabes Dorsalis? locomotor ataxia
What are 3 clinical findings of arm hangs by the side,
the arm in Erb-Duchenne medially rotated, forearm is
palsy? pronated

What are the 2 classic causes blow to the shoulder and


of Erb-Duchenne palsy? trauma during birth

What are the 3 classic


symptoms of Horner's ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis
syndrome?

ipsi motor paralysis(spastic),


What are the 4 classic ipsi loss of dorsal column,
findings of Brown-Sequard contra loss of spinothalamic,
syndrome? ipsi loss of ALL sensation at
the level of the lesion
What are the input and output
input - mammillary body,
of the anterior nucleus of the
output - cingulate gyrus
thalamus?

input - anterior nucleus of


What are the input and output
the thalamus, output -
of the cingulate gyrus?
entorhinal cortex

input - cingulate gyrus,


What are the input and output
output - hippocampal
of the entorhinal cortex?
formation

input - hippocampal
What are the input and output
formation, output - anterior
of the mammillary body?
nucleus of the thalamus
input - hippocampal
What are the input and output
formation, output -
of the septal area?
hippocampal formation

What artery do the lateral


internal carotid artery
striate branch off of?

What artery does the anterior


inferior cerebellar artery basilar artery
branch off of?

What artery does the anterior


vertebral artery
spinal artery branch off of?
What artery does the
posterior inferior cerebellar vertebral artery
artery branch off of?

What artery does the superior


cerebellar artery branch off basilar artery
of?

What artery supplies Broca's


middle cerebral artery
and Wernicke's speech areas?

What artery supplies the


medial surface of the brain anterior cerebral artery
(foot-leg area)?
What bone do all the
foramina of the middle sphenoid bone
cranial fossa pass through?

What CN arises dorsally? CN IV trochlear

What CN is the afferent limb


CN II
of the pupillary light reflex?

What CN is the efferent limb


CN III
of the pupillary light reflex?
What CNs lie medially at the
CN III, VI, XIII (3 - 6 - 12)
brain stem?

What CNS/ PNS supportive


cell has the following
Oligodendroglia
functions: central myelin
production?

What CNS/ PNS supportive


cell has the following
Ependymal cells
functions: inner lining of the
ventricles?

What CNS/ PNS supportive


cell has the following
Schwann cells
functions: peripheral myelin
production?
What CNS/ PNS supportive
cell has the following Microglia
functions: phagocytosis?

What CNS/ PNS supportive


cell has the following
Astrocytes
functions: physical support,
repair, K+ metabolism?

What disease does Tabes


tertiary syphilis
Dorsalis result from?

What disorder results from a


Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
lesion in the medial
(INO)
longitudinal fasciculus (MLF).
What embryologic defect is
thoracic outlet syndrome by having a cervical rib.
caused by

What happens if a swinging results in pupil dialation of


light test is performed on a the defective eye as the light
Marcus Gann pupil (afferent is swung from the normal eye
pupil defect)? to the defective eye

What happens if you


both eyes constrict
illuminate one pupil in a
(consensual reflex)
normal patient?

What hypo/hyper-kinetic
disorder is marked by
decreased serum ceruloplasm Wilson's disease
and Keyser-Fleischer rings in
the eyes.
the eyes DO NOT constrict to
What is a Argyll Robertson
light, but DO accommodate
pupil?
to near objects

What is affected in a central


paralysis of the contralateral
VII lesion (lesion above the
lower quadrant
facial nucleus - UMN)?

What is affected in a
peripheral VII lesion (lesion at paralysis of the ipsilateral
or below the facial nucleus - face both upper and lower.
LMN)?

What is the common name for


Bell's palsy
a peripheral VII lesion?
What is the consequence
when your CNS stimulates the increased sensitivity of the
gamma motor neuron and the reflex arc
intrafusal fibers contract?

The striatum to the


What is the direct pathway substantia nigra pars
from the striatum to the reticularis /medial globus
cortex? pallidus to the thalamus to
the cortex (excitatory path)

What is the embryologic


tissue origin of Microglia Mesoderm
(ecto/meso/edo)?

The striatum to the lateral


globus pallidus to the
What is the indirect pathway subthalamic nucleus to the
from the striatum to the substantia nigra/medial
cortex? globus pallidus to the
thalamus to the cortex
(inhibitory pathway but still
increases the thalamic drive)
What is the lesion in Brown- hemisection of the spinal
Sequard syndrome? cord

What is the most common anterior communicating


circle of Willis aneurysm? artery

What is the name for the


small muscle fiber type that Intrafusal fibers
regulates muscle length?

What lesion produces coma? reticular activating system


What lesion produces
conduction aphasia, poor
repetition w/ poor Arcuate fasiculus
comprehension, and fluent
speech?

What lesion produces Kluver-


Bucy syndrome (hyperorality,
Amygdala (bilateral)
hypersexuality, disinhibited
behavior)?

What lesion produces motor


(expressive) aphasia with Broca's area (motor speech)
good comprehension?

What lesion produces


personality changes and frontal lobe - these are
deficits in concentration, frontal release signs
orientation, judgement?
What lesion produces sensory
Wernicke's area (associative
(fluent/receptive) aphasia
auditory cortex)
with poor comprehension?

What lesion produces spatial right parietal lobe --


neglect syndrome? contralateral neglect.

What lobe of the brain is the


frontal
Broca's area in?

What lobe of the brain is the


frontal eye movement and frontal
pupillary change area in?
What lobe of the brain is the
frontal
premotor area in?

What lobe of the brain is the


primary auditory cortex area temporal
in?

What lobe of the brain is the


frontal
principal motor area in?

What lobe of the brain is the


parietal
principal sensory area in?
What lobe of the brain is the
principal visual cortex area occipital
in?

What lobe of the brain is the


temporal
Wernicke's area in?

What midbrain structure is


important in mitigating
Basal Ganglia
voluntary movements and
making postural adjustments?

What mineral causes the


copper
pathology of Wilson's disease
What muscle depresses and
inferior rectus
extorts the eye?

What muscle elevates and


superior rectus
intorts the eye?

What muscle extorts,


elevates, and adducts the inferior oblique
eye?

What muscle fiber type makes


up the muscle bulk and
Extrafusal fibers
provides the force for
contraction?
What muscle intorts,
depresses, and abducts the superior oblique
eye?

What muscle sensor senses


tension and provides
golgi tendon organs
inhibitory feedback to alpha
motor neurons?

What muscular disorder is a


medial longitudinal fasciculus Multiple Sclerosis (MLF=MS)
syndrome associated with?

What nerve is known as the


radial nerve
great extensor nerve?
What neurotransmitter is
decrease in Parkinson's dopamine
disease

What nucleus if typically contralateral subthalamic


lesioned in hemiballismus? nucleus

What nucleus of the


hypothalamus controls suprachiasmatic nucleus
circadian rhythms?

What nucleus of the


hypothalamus controls lateral nucleus
hunger?
What nucleus of the
hypothalamus controls ventromedial nucleus
satiety?

What nucleus of the


hypothalamus controls sexual septate nucleus
emotions?

What nucleus of the


hypothalamus controls thirst supraoptic nucleus
and water balance?

What part of the


hypothalamus (ant./post.)
anterior hypothalamus
controls autonomic
regulation?
What part of the
hypothalamus (ant./post.) anterior hypothalamus
controls cooling when hot?

What part of the


hypothalamus (ant./post.)
posterior hypothalamus
controls heat conservation
when cold?

What part of the ventral


spinal cord is spared with
dorsal columns
complete occlusion of the
ventral artery?

What passes through the CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI, post-
cavernous sinus? (nerves and ganglionic SNS and the
artery Internal carotid artery
What reflex is lost in a lesion
of the musculocutaneous biceps reflex
nerve?

What structure passes


CN V3
through the foramen ovale?

What structure passes


through the foramen CN V2
rotundum?

What structure passes


through the foramen middle meningeal artery
spinosum?
What structure passes
through the hypoglossal CN XII
canal?

What symptom is seen with a


Deltoid paralysis
lesion of the axillary nerve?

What symptom is seen with a


decreased thumb function
lesion of the median nerve?

What syndrome is seen with a


lesion of the long thoracic Winged scapula
nerve?
What syndrome is seen with a
lesion of the lower trunk of Claw hand
the brachial plexus?

What syndrome is seen with a


lesion of the posterior cord of Wrist drop
the brachial plexus?

What syndrome is seen with a


Saturday night palsy
lesion of the radial nerve?

What syndrome is seen with a


Waiter's tip (Erb-Duchenne
lesion of the upper trunk of
palsy)
the brachial plexus?
What two bones do all the
foramina of the posterior temporal and occipital bones
cranial fossa pass through?

What two hypothalamic nuclei


does the posterior pituitary supraoptic nucleus and
(neurohypophysis) receive paraventricular nucleus.
neuronal projections from?

What type of fibers do the


motor
corticospinal tracts carry?

What type of fibers do the sensory - pressure, vibration,


dorsal columns carry? touch, proprioception
What type of fibers do the sensory - pain and
spinothalmic tracts carry? temperature

What type of function does


CN I have? (sensory, motor, or sensory
both)

What type of function does


CN II have? (sensory, motor, sensory
or both)

What type of function does


CN III have? (sensory, motor, motor
or both)
What type of function does
CN IV have? (sensory, motor, motor
or both)

What type of function does


CN IX have? (sensory, motor, both
or both)

What type of function does


CN V have? (sensory, motor, both
or both)

What type of function does


CN VI have? (sensory, motor, motor
or both)
What type of function does
CN VII have? (sensory, motor, both
or both)

What type of function does


CN VIII have? (sensory, motor, sensory
or both)

What type of function does


CN X have? (sensory, motor, both
or both)

What type of function does


CN XI have? (sensory, motor, motor
or both)
What type of function does
CN XII have? (sensory, motor, motor
or both)

What type of lesion is seen in combo of UMN and LMN


Amyotrophic Lateral lesions with no sensory
Sclerosis? deficit

random asymmetric lesions in


What type of lesion is seen in
mostly white matter of the
Multiple Sclerosis?
cervical region

What type of lesion is seen in


acquired LMN lesion causing
Poliomyelitis and is it genetic
flaccid paralysis
or acquired?
What type of lesion is seen in genetic LMN lesion causing
Werdnig-Hoffmann disease flaccid paralysis (aka. Floppy
and is it genetic or acquired? infant disease)

What type of molecule can


cross the blood-brain barrier Lipid-soluable/nonpolar
most easily? (lipid/nonlipid, molecules
polar/nonpolar)

What vagal nuclei controls


motor innervation to the Nucleus Ambiguus
pharynx, larynx, and upper (Motor=aMbiguus)
esophagus?

What vagal nuclei controls


Nucleus Solitarius
visceral sensory in formation
(Sensory=Solitarius)
like taste and gut distention?
What vagal nuclei sends
parasympathetic fibers to the dorsal motor nucleus of CN X
heart, lungs, and upper GI?

What would happen


temperature regulation if you lose the ability to conserve
lesioned your posterior heat
hypothalamus?

What would happen


temperature regulation if you have hyperphagia and
lesioned your ventromedial become obese
nucleus of the hypothalamus?

When is a positive Babinski a


during the first year of life
normal reflex?
Where is the lesion in a
Subthalamic nucleus
patient with hemiballismus?

Where is the lesion in Substantia nigra pars


Parkinson's? compacta

Which CN is the only nerve


that does not abut the wall in CN VI (abducens)
the cavernous sinus?

Which CNs pass through the


CN II - VI
middle cranial fossa?
Which CNs pass through the
CN VII - XII
posterior cranial fossa?

Which division of the facial


motor nucleus has duel upper division
innervation? (upper or lower)

Which thalamic nucleus has a Lateral Geniculate Nucleus


visual function? (LGB)

Which thalamic nucleus has Medial Geniculate Nucleus


an auditory function? (MGB)
Which thalamic nucleus has
Ventral Anterior Nucleus (VA)
pre-motor function?

Which thalamic nucleus has


the function of body senses Ventral Posterior Lateral
(proprioception, pressure, Nucleus (VPL)
pain, touch, vibration)?

Which thalamic nucleus has


Ventral Posterior Medial
the function of facial
Nucleus (VPM)
sensation and pain?

Which thalamic nucleus is the


Ventral Lateral Nucleus (VL)
primary motor cortex?
Which way does the head
toward the lesion -- note:
deviate in a unilateral lesion
First-Aid is wrong in the
(LMN) of CN XI? (toward or
book)
away)

Which way does the jaw


deviate in a unilateral lesion
toward the lesion
(LMN) of CN V? (toward or
away)

Which way does the patient


tend to fall in a unilateral
toward the lesion
lesion (LMN) of the
cerebellum? (toward or away)

Which way does the tongue


deviate in a unilateral lesion
toward the lesion
(LMN) of CN XII? (toward or
away)
Which way does the uvula
deviate in a unilateral lesion
away from the lesion
(LMN) of CN X? (toward or
away)

Why does the arm hang by


paralysis of shoulder
the side in Erb-Duchenne
abductors
palsy?

Why is L-dopa use for L-dopa crosses the blood-


parkinsonism instead of brain barrier while dopamine
dopamine? does not.

Why is the arm medially


paralysis of the lateral
rotated in Erb-Duchenne
rotators
palsy?
Why is the forearm pronated
loss of the biceps brachii
in Erb-Duchenne palsy?