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1. The precaution to be observed when using rubber insulated electrical cable is that the cable
should be:
A. keep clear the oils
B. tighly coils at all time
C. washed with water and dry it periodically
D. light smeared the cable with oils
2. What should be your first action if you see a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment:
A. switch off power at main switch B. telephone the fire section
C. shout fire!fire!fire D. use fire bucket to extinguished fire
3. Rubber is the most common insulation but easily damage by:
A. water B. Gasoline
C. Petroleum D. weather
4. Tinning of soldering iron means:
A. inserting the cooper bit with thin coat of tin
B. covering the cooper bit with tin sheet
C. giving the iron surfaces with coating of solder
D. cleaning the cooper bit
5. What is the most suitable for solder electrical connection:
A. 60% alloy 40% lead B. 60% lead 40% alloy
C. 60% cooper 40% tin D. 70% tin 30% alloy

6. What is the common cause of dry joint:

A. Hot soldering bit B. less solder
C. dirty work surface D. faulty component
7. Coaxial cable or RF cable is used to carry energy:
A. up to 300 MHz B. up to 3000 MHz
C. up to 300 Volt D. up to 3000 Volt
8. What is the main advantages of crimped joint over solder:

A. heaving more resistance to vibration B. easily to work on

C. easily corrode D. does not corrode

9. What is the purpose of disoldering tools

A. soldering joint faster B. absorb heat from joint

C. allow rapid removal soldering from PCB D. allow rapid soldering on PCB

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10. Vice clamp is use to:

A. get better grip B. prevent damage on finishing side
C. prevent file touching the jaw D. protect the vice jaw

Electricity
11. How much current flow in the filament of a 300 Watt bulb connected to a 120 V power line
A. 2.5 mA B. 2.5A
C. 25 mA D. 25A
12. The resistance of 500,000 ohms is equivalent to:
A. 0.05 MΩ B. 5 MΩ
C. 0.5 MΩ D. 50 MΩ
13. Which type of capacitor is required when high voltage is involve.
A. electrolytic capacitor which is polarized
B. electrolytic capacitor which is non polarized
C. oil pregnated paper capacitor which is polarized
D. oil impregnated paper capacitor which is non polarized

14. In order to determine the direction of a magnetic field around a straight wire carrying a current,
you would apply
A. north south pole B. Cockscrew rules
C. left hand rules D. Lenz’s law
15. In a series circuit with unequal resistance:
A. the lowest R has the highest voltage drop
B. the lowest R has the most current
C. the highest R has the most current
D. the highest R has the high voltage drop
16. Two capacitor of 10 mF are connected in series to a 20 V source. The total capacitance is:
A. 2 mF B. 10 mF
C. 5 mF D. 20 mF
17. What is the time constant of a 0.01 µF capacitor in a series with 1 MΩ resistor
A. 10 ms B. 50 ms
C. 100 ms D. 500 ms
18. What is the time constant of a 20H coil connected is series with a 100 Ω resistor:
A. 20 ms B. 200 ms
C. 100 ms D. 1000 ms

19. Maximum current

would flow in resistor of

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resistance in fig 1 :

A. 10 KΩ
B. 4 KΩ 10K
C. 2 KΩ 4K 1K 240V
D. 1KΩ 2K

Fig 1

20. For 10 Volt average value the r.m.s value is:

A. 5.1 Volts B. 7.07 Volts
C. 11.1 Volts D. 20.6 Volts
21. The frequency of 100 MHz correspond to a period of:
A. 0.01 ms B. 0.001 ms
C. 0.01 µsec D. 0.001 µsec
22. The period of 1/20 second correspond to a frequency of:
A. 20 Hz B. 20 KHz
C. 200 Hz D. 200 KHz
23. In a sine wave AC circuit with a 40 Ohm Resistor in series with a 30 Ohm XL, the total
impedance Z equals:
A. 30 B. 40
C. 50 D. 70
24. A pure AC waveform is applied across an inductance, the current:
A. leads the voltage by 90 deg B. lags the voltage by 90 degree
C. in phase with the voltage D. antiphase with the voltage
25. The power factor in an AC circuit equal:
A. cosine of phase angle B. zero for a resistive circuit
C. unity for reactive circuit D. sine of phase angle
26. With refer to the fig 2, what is
voltage across the 4 KΩ Resistor?

A. 4 Volt
B. 8 Volt 4K 1K 240V
C. 6 Volt 10K 2K
D. 12 Volt

Fig 2

27. Self inductance of an inductor can be increase by:

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A. increasing the flux B. increasing the flux density

C. increasing the number of turns D. increasing the permeability of a coil

28. At resonance, the series LCR circuit will be:

A. supply voltage and current are in antiphase
B. supply voltage and current are in phase
C. voltage lead current by 90 degrees
D. voltage lags current by 90 degrees
29. When current flows through a straight wire conductor the effect always produced are:
A. heating and chemical B. magnetic and chemical
C. magnetic, heating and electrostatic D. heating and magnetic
30. To decrease the capacitance of an air dielectric capacitor you would:
A. decrease the distance between the plates
B. increase the area of the plate
C. increase both plates and distance
D. increase the distance between plates.
Electronic
31. What charges does a piece of P-type of semi conductor have in the absences of applied
voltage?
A. negative B. positive
C. neutral D. hole charges
32. When a voltage is applied to a semiconductor, which of the following are to drift?
A. holes and atoms B. atom and parent atom
C. holes and electron D. parent atoms and electron
33. When PN junctions is reverse biased:
A. holes and electrons move away from the junction
B. holes and electrons recombined at the junction
C. there is no depletion layer
D. the base is invaded by the emitter majority carriers
34. The maximum voltage which may be applied to semi conductor device in the direction
opposite to normal current flow is called:

A. avalance voltage B. breakdown voltage

C. safe operating voltage D. peak inverse voltage

35. In an electronic circuit a zener diode is commonly are used as a

A. voltage regulator B. current limiter

C. voltage smoother D. voltage sensing

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36. In a PN junction, when does the maximum current flow is achieved?

A. when ‘N’ is negative to ‘P’ B. when ‘N’ is positive to ‘P’

C. when both P and N same potential D. when ‘N’ has excess of neutrons

37. The type of power supply with DC input and AC output is called:

A. battery B. line regulator

C. inverter D. converter

38. The reason for having a transformer in the electronic power supply system of an output
DC (0 volt to 12 volt) is to:

A. step up the voltage B. double the required voltage

C. step down the voltage D. isolate the system

39. The main advantage of bridge rectifier over full wave rectifier is:

A. it can use cheap metal rectifiers

B. there is large voltage output
C. a transformer with a center tapped secondary is not required
D. four rectifier gives a smoother output

40. One feature of an A.F push pull amplifier is thet :

A. all harmonic are cancelled in the output transformer

B. it operates under class C bias condition
C. class B bias can be used without introducing distortion
D. the frequency of the mains hum is double

41. During identification of a small signal type transistor, there is a small tab at the side of
its body casing. Which leg is close to this tab?

A. Base B. emitter
C. Collector D. heater

42. For what reason are transistor sealed in a metal case:

A. for heat dissipation B. to exclude light

C. for ease of connection D. to prevent thermal runway

43. How does the silicon control rectifier (SCR) conduct?

A. The SCR must be forward biased

B. By applying negative voltage at the cathode
C. The gate is positive with respect to the cathode
D. A negative pulse is required at the gate

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44. One application of uni junction transistor (UJT) is to:

A. regulative voltage B. trigger a junction

C. filter radio interference D. trigger SCR

45. In an LC oscillator, what determine the frequency and stabilizing of the circuit? The

A. ‘tank circuit’ B. crystal

C. radio frequency choke (RFC) D. feedback

46. The frequency of the oscillatory voltage in an oscillator depends on the:

A. source of supply to the LC circuit

B. value of inductance and capacitance in LC circuit
C. resistance of the inductor
D. dielectric of the capacitance

47. The main advantage of an integrated circuit (IC) is:

A. contain electronic circuitry in a very small package

B. the price is very much cheaper
C. weight is lighter
D. production is economically

48. Perform the following octal addition 7268 + 3638

A. 13118 B. 11408
C. 11318 D. 10498

49. What type of logic function is equivalent to the diagram shown below :

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOR
D. NAND

50. Identify the logic circuit related to the truth table as shown:
A B O/P
A. AND gate
B. OR gate 0 0 1
C. NAND gate 0 1 1
D. NOR gate 1 0 1
1 1 0

Test Equipment
51. What is used in a meter to prevent the pointer to swing right off the scale ?

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A. Poles B. pivot
C. Magnet D. damper spring
52. Range selector switch selected at low range when measuring higher reading will cause …..

A. explosion B. saturation
C. pegging D. accuracy
53. What should you pay attention when measuring using ammeter in DC circuit ?
A. The polarity of the probe B. The load on the circuit
C. The circuit must be connected in parallel D. Select the range selector switch to ohm
54. Why ‘ pegging ‘ should be prevented ?
A. it will bend the pointer B. it will ruin the peg
C. it will ruin the scale D. the range selector will be ruin

55. When using Voltmeters and Ammeters to measure to measure voltage and current in
a circuit how should they be connected ?
A. voltmeters in series, ammeters in series
B. voltmeters in series, ammeters in parallel
C. voltmeters in parallel, ammeters in series
D. voltmeters in parallel, ammeters in parallel
56. The type D insulation tester is capable of producing :
A. 250 volts at handle speed of 160 rpm B. 250 volts at handle speed of 180 rpm
B. 500 volts at handle speed of 160 rpm D. 500 volts at handle speed of 180 rpm
57. Which safety precaution statement is most correct when testing equipment using a
Wee Megger insulation tester ?
A. Turn the handle as fast as possible
B. The tester must be kept within magnetic influence
C. The handle must be turned very slowly to avoid damage
D. All electrical power must be isolated for component and circuit under test

58. What is the correct test equipment to use to check the serviceability of a fuse ?

A. Ammeter B. Voltmeter
C. Ohmmeter D. Insulation tester

59. The oscilloscope has a wide range of uses as a test equipment, one of the common uses is :

A. Measurement of resistance of a circuit

B. Measurement of a capacitance of a circuit
C. Measurement and comparison of frequency
D. Measurement and comparison of resistance and capacitance of a circuit

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60. To make the trace move on the screen of an oscilloscope, ………….. are used :
A. lead plates B. deflection plates
C. moving coil D. capacitors
Communication Principle
61. If transmitting frequency is 75 MHz, a quarter λ/4 should be
A. 4m B. 2m
C. 16 m D. 1m
62. Buffer amplifier are used in Tx to

A. prevent feedback between stage

B. isolte the oscillation from load variation
C. improve the regulation of thr HT
D. separate the RF and the AF stage
63. In frequency multiplying devices, Class C bias is used
A. because it is more efficienct
B. because larger power can be handled
C. anode current pulses include harmonies of the input frequency
D. anode dissipation is reduced thus reducing distortion
64. When the Transmitter is keyed:
A. the RF carrier will be radiated B. the Tx will be demodulatd
C. the oscillator cct will be cut off D. the amplitude modulation will be take place
65. The process of impressing information on a carrier wave is called
A. deviation B. propagation
C. electrification D. modulation
66. If carrier wave is said to be over modulated
A. the amplitude of the carrier wave is greater than that of the modulating wave
B. the carrier amplitude is less than the modulating wave amplitude
C. the amplitude of the modulated wave near falls to zero
D. there too much power in carrier
67. The tuned output cct of a quadruple when tuned to the desired harmonic acts as
A. filter cct B. reject cct
C. silent cct D. harmonic filter
68. 100% modulation in FM transmitter indicate thtat
A. the carrier deviates according to the mode gignal
B. the carrier deviates in frequency by full permission amount
C. the carrier deviates in amplitude by maximum amount
D. the carrier deviates according to the maximum amplitude of modulation signal

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69. The sensitivity of radio Receiver is measure of

A. its ability to discriminate between signal of different frequencies
B. its susceptibility to self oscillation
C. its ability to produce a good o/p with weak signals input
D. its ability to reject noise
70. The degree to which the RF amplifier respond to the desired signal while rejecting all others is
know as amplifiers
A. sensitivity B. selectivity
C. signal to noise ratio D. fidelity
71. The process of combining two or more frequency in a non linear device is called
A. frequency multiplication B. heterodyne
C. converter D. detection
72. The function of transmission line is
A. to transfer energy from a source to a load
B. to transfer RF wave from TX to aerial
C. to transfer energy from a source to a load with minimum loss
D. to transfer from a source to a load without loss
73. One advantage of coaxial cable is
A. the impedance is very high B. can handle very high frequency
C. can handle very high power D. it is balance line
74. The longest element in a Yagi Arrays is known as
A. Reactor B. director
C. Reflector D. radiator
75. One of the advantage of sky waves is
A. signal to noise ratio is improve B. sensitivity is increase
C. frequency stability is improved D. bandwidth is increase

Radar Principle
76. An aircraft is 20 statue miles away from the radar station. The time taken for the transmitted
pulse to reach the target is:
A. 53.75 μsec B. 61.8 μsec
C. 107.5 μsec D. 123.6 μsec
77. A square wave of amplitude 0V to +100V is applied to a short LR circuit. After L/R seconds, the
voltage across L is:
A. 0V B. +36.8 V

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C. +63.2 V D. +100 V
78. In an astable multivibrator circuit, the trigger is applied to one of the transmitter for the reason of:
it requires a trigger to operate
the trigger will lower down the frequency of operation
the trigger provides synchronization to the circuit
the trigger will make the transistor to cut off later
79. The diplexer is a device that allows
A. switching the Tx and Rx on and off for common aerial
B. two radar sets to be operate on the common aerial
C. RF energy going through it with a phase change
D. RF echoes to mix with local oscillator output
80. The principles of electronic scanning are:
A. only the reflector is turning
B. Only the aerial array is turning
C. power used to steer the beam is minimum
D. angle of scan of beam steered is maximum
81. A good radar receiver must have one of the following characteristics:
A. low gain and low signal to noise ratio
B. high gain and high signal to noise ratio
C. high power output and high gain
D. low power consumption and high power output
82. A cosecant square reflector produces a beam that is:
A. wide in vertical and wide in horizontal
B. narrow in vertical and wide in horizontal
C. narrow in horizontal and narrow in vertical
D. narrow in horizontal and wide in vertical

83. Secondary radar

A. works with no cooperative reflective pulse from the target
B. works with cooperative target which transmits own radio waves
C. transmits continuous wave which varies in frequency
D. transmit frequency of waves reflected from a target
84. A logarithmic amplifier will amplify:
A. all reflected echoes with minimum attenuation
B. all reflected echoes then detect the required pulses
C. tinny echoes but will be saturated by strong echoes

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D. tinny echoes but will not be saturated by strong pulses

85. Blocking oscillator produces an output of:
A. Pulse B. saw tooth waveform
C. sine waves D. pedestal waveform
86. RF energy will be successfully guided along the waveguide if the boundary condition of the
propagation is satisfied i.e.:
A. E lines and H lines are both at 90º to the surface
B. H lines terminates at 90º to the wall surface
C. E lines terminates at 90º and H lines parallel to the surface
D. H lines terminates at 90º and E lines perpendicular to the walls
87. One of the disadvantages to produce radial time base by the rotating coils is:
A. rotation is synchronized with aerial rotation
B. rotation gets inefficient at high speed
C. alignment of the aerial is difficult
D. mechanical methods is efficient at low speed
88. A dummy load is a waveguide device that:
A. provide attenuation necessary for RF measurements
B. absorbs part of the incident energy for attenuations
C. absorbs all the incident energy for matched termination
D. acts as the antenna and provides attenuation for receiver performance
89. Which of the following statements is true for a t.w.t?
A. high noise factor due to wide band amplification
B. have odd number of cavities for oscillator
C. does not employ cavities and have low noise factor
D. electron beam is velocity modulated and is tunable
90. Pencil shaped beam can be used to detect targets for height measurement using the:
A. raster scan and conical scan
B. electronic scanning only
C. coseqant squared scanning
D. mechanical array reflector

Administration and Organization

91. Who are responsible to ensure that the Unit Servicing Orders are issued and
maintained, and are available to all personal ?

A. Base Commander B. Engineering Officer

C. Senior Engineering Officer D. MTU

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92. Who has to countersign after accepting the quality of work that has been done
and signed by tradesmen ?
A.. Officer i/c Eng. Records B. SCNO i/c Squadron or Section
C. Squadron Engineering Officer D. NCO i/c Trade

93. Who is qualified to certify and sign BAT M 3020 ?

A. SNCOI/C Section B. Inventory holder
C. A Commission Officer D. A Specialist Officer

94. Which copy of BAT L 147,148 and 149 are retained by the inventory holder
after receiving, returning or exchanging item from store ?
A.. Original copy B. Duplicate copy
C. Triplicate copy D. Master copy

95. The BAT L 3000 is retained by .................... until the borrowed returned their
equipment.
A. SCAF B. Borrower
C. Inventory Holder D. Individual

Equipment Safety
96. Which one of the type fire extinguisher to against the chemical fire?
A. Water B. Dry powder
C. Foam D. CO2

97. What is the dangerous/hazard voltage?

A. 20Vac/30Vdc B. 50Vdc/10Vac
C. 30Vac/50Vdc D. 40Vdc/20Vac

98. How to recognize the radio active valve?

A. Three blade propellar symbol
B. The word’CAUTION”
C. Red marking triangle
D. High voltage labelled

99. Which one of equipment NOT including in lifting Tackle?

A. Lifting beam B. Pulleys block

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C. Winchers D. step ladder

100. Electrolytic Capacitor which held as spares a to be reformed at interval not exceeding

A. 6 month B. 12 month
C. 15 month D. 24 month

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