HCL Career Development Center

Computer Hardware & Networking

Max Marks: 100

Duration: 60 Mins.

Basic Electronics
Q1: What do you use to check for line-voltage sags?
A. Polarity tester
B. Line monitor
C. LAN analyzer
D. Breakout box

Q2: Which of the following components will hold a charge even though power has been
removed?
A. Diode
B. Transistor
C. Capacitor
D. Rectifier

Q3: A multimeter is set up to DC, Ohms, and 20k. How would a good 4-ampere fuse
measure?
A. 0.00
B. 0.04
C. 0.40
D. 4.00

Q4: If a power supply has "watts capacity" rating of 200, what does this mean?
A. The power supply uses up 200 watts
B. The power supply always produces 200 watts. Therefore, the load you attach
must be able to use up this much power
C. This is the minimum amount of power the supply can provide
D. The power supply can provide up to 200 watts.

Q5: When measuring an unknown voltage:

A. start with the meter set to its highest range
B. remove power until the meter is connected to the circuited start with the meter set
to its lowest range
C. start with the meter set to its lowest range
D. set the meter to the Ohms function

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Q6: When using an ohmmeter:
A. Remove power to the circuit before attaching the meter.
B. you must physically break the circuit to insert the ohmmeter
C. connect the meter in series with the component being measured
D. Power must be applied to the circuit under test.

Q7: What is the best ground to use when working on a personal computer?
A. Chassis
B. Common.
C. Outlet ground
D. Computer

Q8: When should you not wear a wrist band ground strap?
A. When working on a disk drive
B. When working on a CPU
C. When working on memory
D. When working around an exposed cathode ray tube (CRT).

Q9: Once an IC is mounted on a circuit board it is:

A. Not susceptible to ESD damage if the board is not installed in the PC
B. Still susceptible to ESD damage
C. Not susceptible to ESD damage if the board is properly installed in the PC
D. Not susceptible to ESD damage as long as the computer is turned off.

Q10: Select the incorrect answer. Sometimes ESD damage:

A. Is not immediately apparent but may show up weeks after the ESD incident.
B. Happens to ICs or circuit boards through improper handling.
C. Will "toughen" the computer against future ESD damage.
D. Is caused by charges that are too weak to be felt by a human.

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 Core Hardware (220-301)
Q11: Which power mode typically enabled in portable computers turn off selected
components such as the hard drive and display, until a system event such as a
keyboard entry or a mouse movement occurs:
A. Hibernate Mode.
B. Shutdown Mode.
C. Standby Mode.
D. Suspend Mode.

Q12: What is the thing that should be done prior to flashing the BIOS?
A. Reboot the computer.
B. Write down bus frequency.
C. Backup the Hard drive.
D. Make a backup of BIOS on a floppy.

Q13: You are installing an OEM processor upgrade that calls for you to install a faster
Pentium III processor in an existing system. While OEM processors do not include
a fan and a heat sink unit, you suspect that you need to upgrade the system’s
cooling capabilities to accommodate the faster processor. However you are not sure
which fan and heat sink module needs to be installed. What should you do to ensure
proper cooling of the processor?
A. You must research and locate a proper cooling for this processor by matching its
operating temperature specification to the fan unit.
B. Since both processors are Pentium III’s, there is no need to change the fan unit.
The BIOS will adapt to the new processor automatically.
C. Install the Fastest compatible fan unit available. The BIOS will automatically
adjust the fan speed to compensate for the additional heat and you will have
ensured that enough cooling capability is available.
D. Flash the BIOS to upgrade it for the new processor. The Flash program contains
updated fan control information for the new processor.

Q14: The various levels of cache available with Pentium Pro are:
A. L1 and L2.
B. L1, L2 and L3.
C. L1, L2, L3, L4.
D. L2 and L3.

Q15: The maximum recommended length for SCSI chain is:

A. 20.
B. 10.
C. 50.
D. 30.

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Q16: In a client-server network:
A. Each unit handles some information for the network.
B. At least one unit is reserved to just to serve the other units.
C. At least one unit depends on the other units for its information.
D. Each unit has its own information, and can serve as either client or server.

Q17: What type of cable does 10Base-T and 100Base-T use?

A. UTP.
B. STP.
C. Fiber-Optic.
D. RG-58.

Q18: Who is known as father of computers?

A. Edwin Aldrin.
B. Blaze Pascal.
C. Charles Babage.
D. None of the above.

Q19: If a Dot-Matrix Printer is outputting faint and uneven characters, you should
_______. Select the best answer.
A. Replace the Print-Head.
B. Replace the Ribbon.
C. Exchange the printer for a good one.
D. Change the paper type.

Q20: What is the IRQ for the floppy disk drive controller?
A. IRQ 15.
B. IRQ 6.
C. IRQ 10.
D. IRQ 14.

Q21: If the standalone printer passes the self test and the user still cannot print. What
else could be the cause of the problem?
A. Laser Error.
B. Pick-up roller.
C. Printer Interface.
D. Fuse error.

Q22: When disposing of a CRT, you should first___________.

A. Check applicable local ordinances.
B. Smash the CRT’s glass envelop with a hammer.
C. Pack it in its original container.
D. Discharge the HV anode.

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Q23: What functions are performed by the external power supply of a portable computer
system?
A. Increase the voltage of the commercial power for the computer.
B. Convert commercial ac voltage into a dc voltage for the system usage the battery
charging.
C. Convert commercial dc voltage into ac voltage that the system can use to power
its internal components and recharge its batteries.
D. Store commercial power to recharge the battery.

Q24: What system board feature is used to manage the installation and replacement of
the microprocessor?
A. ZIF.
B. HSF.
C. ROM-BIOS.
D. Operating System.

Q25: Speakers are checked by ______________ settings of a multimeter.

A. amp.
B. Capacitance.
C. Ohm.
D. Volts.

Q26: When opening the cover of CRT, you should be careful because:
A. Excess radiation.
B. The monitor case may not fit together.
C. The CRT could implode if dropped.
D. The CRT can store voltages in excess of 25000 Volts.

Q27: Where is PnP stored in BIOS?

A. Device Manager.
B. ESCD.
C. RTC.
D. PnP Registry.

Q28: Which of these configurations can be set on an IDE drive? Select all that apply.
A. Master.
B. Independent.
C. Slave.
D. Primary.

Q29: Which of the power sources is the most dangerous to work around with?
A. 12V dc, 500mA.
B. 240V ac, 50mA.
C. 120V dc, 5 Amps.
D. 120V ac, 500mA.

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Q30: What is the most common repair for a failed LCD monitor?
A. Replace the computer.
B. Replace the LCD panel.
C. Replace the signal cable.
D. Demagnetize the LCD screen.

Q31: A workstation can share its printer with other nodes on the network. What type of
networking is it?
A. Client/Server network.
B. Peer-to-Peer network.
C. Star Network.
D. Ring Network.

Q32: What statement best describes the key to properly connecting the AT power
supply to a Baby AT style system Board.
A. P9 should be plugged into P1, while P8 should be plugged into P2.
B. It does not matter which power supply connector is plugged into which circuit-
board connector.
C. The connectors are configured so that the power supply will only plug into the
circuit-board on way.
D. P8 should be plugged into P1, while P9 should be plugged into P2.

Q33: The purpose of rechargeable battery on some system boards is to __________ in

the event of power fluctuation.
A. Maintain the system’s time of day chip.
B. Back-up the contents of the RAM memory.
C. Keep the microprocessor’s registries alive.
D. Maintain the contents of CMOS RAM.

Q34: An ATAPI interface refers to which type of device?

A. Printer.
B. CD-ROM.
C. MODEM.
D. Monitor.

Q35: An external MODEM connects to the computer through a ______________ port.

A. SCSI.
B. Joystick.
C. Serial.
D. Parallel.

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Q36: What should be done if the CMOS contains a password and you don’t know?
A. Find a machine which does not use the password protection.
B. Enter the CMOS program and replace or erase the Password.
C. Install the CMOS shorting Jumper to erase the CMOS data, then re-enter the
configuration information.
D. Keep trying different passwords until you find on that works.

Q37: What is wrong if the floppy disk drive stays on?

A. The Cable is reversed.
B. The Computer is locked up.
C. The system keeps looking for a floppy disk.
D. Nothing. It’s a Power light.

Q38: What is the maximum segment length associated with the 10Base-5 LAN
networking standard?
A. 185 Meters.
B. 200 Meters.
C. 100 Meters.
D. 500 Meters.

Q39: If the mouse attached to attached to your portable computer does not work but the
touch pad unit does, what steps should you take to get the mouse working
correctly?
A. Switch the mouse to the another PS/2 Mini-Din connector because it be plugged
into the connector for the full size keyboard.
B. Switch the mouse to the other USB slot to access the enabled USB port
connection.
C. Check the computer’s documentation for an Fn-Key combination requirement for
the mouse.
D. Switch the mouse to another serial port connector to access the correct COM
port.

Q40: When installing SCSI devices in a system, which device or devices should be
terminated?
A. All SCSI devices should be terminated.
B. Only the first SCSI device needs to be terminated.
C. Only the last SCSI device needs to be terminated.
D. SCSI devices do not require termination, because they are bus level devices.

Q41: What conditions could cause the device manager utility to display an exclamation
point on a yellow background next to a PC card adapter? Select all that apply.
A. The enabling for PC card slots has been disabled in the CMOS.
B. The PC device may be faulty.
C. The PC card controller in the notebook may be faulty.
D. The Operating System does not support the installed PC card device.

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Q42: What are the priority assignments given to wide SCSI devices?
A. 0=highest, 15=lowest.
B. 0=lowest, 15=highest.
C. 1=lowest, 14=highest.
D. 1=highest, 14=lowest.

Q43: A technician is asked to purchase a digital camera for her company. Her main
concern is whether the digital camera can connect to the workstation properly.
Which of the following connections cannot be used to connect a digital camera to
a workstation?
A. IEEE-1394 Firewire ports.
B. PS/2 Ports.
C. Parallel Ports.
D. USB Ports.

Q44: The address typically reserved for COM1 port is :

A. 2F8.
B. 3F8.
C. 2E8.
D. 3E8.

Q45: What is the difference between FPM DRAM and EDO DRAM? Choose Two.
A. The memory access of the Fast Page Mode DRAM is accomplished in one cycle
rather than two.
B. EDO DRAM is an advanced version of FPM DRAM.
C. Fast Page Mode DRAM is an advanced version of FPM DRAM.
D. The Memory access of FPM DRAM is accomplished in two cycles rather than
three.

Q46: Which type of system board uses a 5 pin DIN connector for the keyboard?
A. NTX.
B. PS/2.
C. PC-AT.
D. ATX.

Q47: Which port typically uses IRQ14?

A. Serial Port.
B. FDD Controller.
C. Parallel Port.
D. Primary IDE Controller.

Q48: When discharging a monitor, which of the following tools should you never use?
A. Leather Insulated Shoes.
B. High Voltage Regulator.
C. Ground Strap.
D. Surge Suppressor.

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Q49: After upgrading a multiple processor system board by installing an additional
processor, the system automatically enters the CMOS setup utility upon boot up.
What is the most likely cause for this to occur?
A. The additional processor is most likely outside the acceptable stepping range of
the original processor, creating an error condition that needs additional system
configuration.
B. When this action occurs, it indicates that the BIOS has not been updated to
accommodate the new processor. Therefore the system opens the CMOS setup
utility at the startup.
C. This is a typical response to restarting the system with additional microprocessors
installed.
D. The terminating resistor pack should have been removed from the vacant
processor socket before installing the new processor.

Q50: What is an onboard 25-Pin Female port on an ATX board used for?
A. Video Card.
B. Hard Drive.
C. Mouse.
D. Parallel Port.

Q51: When connecting two computers directly together their serial ports, what cable
type should be used?
A. Standard parallel able.
B. SCSI Cable.
C. Standard serial cable.
D. Null Modem Cable.

Q52: What does ECC RAM do?

A. ECC RAM detects Memory errors and corrects them.
B. ECC RAM stores system configuration data.
C. ECC RAM stores cached data.
D. ECC RAM runs at twice the Bus Speed.

Q53: How can you differentiate between an ATA-33 and an ATA-66 IDE Cable?
A. Connector Color.
B. Cable Width.
C. Number of conductors.
D. Connector Style.

Q54: What causes the printout from a Dot-Matrix Printer to get lighter from left to
right?
A. Bad Ribbon.
B. Bad Toner Cartridge.
C. Wrong Spacing between the platen and the Printer head rod.
D. Bad Print Head.

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Q55: If a CD-ROM and Hard Drive both stop working after you install a CD-RW drive,
what is the likely cause?
A. The cable was installed backward on the CD-ROM drive.
B. The CD-ROM drive was not enabled in the CMOS utility.
C. The drivers were configured incorrectly.
D. The Master/Slave selection Jumper isn’t set correctly on the CD-RW drive.

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Operating System Technologies (220-302)
Q56: Where is the tool that allows you to set up an application that does not feature an
automated installation utility in Windows 9x.
A. Start->Settings->Control Panel->System, and then click on Add-Remove
Program Tab.
B. Right click on the desktop and then select properties from the contextual menu,
and then click the Add-Remove Programs tab.
C. Start->Setting->Control Panel, and then Add-Remove Programs.
D. Right click on My Computer and select Properties from the contextual menu, and
then click on the Add-Remove programs tab.

Q57: What is the proper path to activate the Windows XP Restore Wizard?
A. Start->All Programs->Administrative Tools->System Restore.
B. Start->All Programs->Administrative Tools->Backup.
C. Start->All Programs->Backup->System Restore.
D. Start->All Programs->Accessories->System Tools.

Q58: The minimum microprocessor listed for installing Windows 2000 Prof. is:
A. Pentium 133.
B. Pentium II 133.
C. Pentium III 133.
D. Pentium IV 750.

Q59: Which file must be present on the startup disk to provide real mode access to CD-
ROM drives:
A. CDROM.EXE
B. CDROM.INF
C. MSCDEX.COM
D. MSCDEX.EXE

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Q60: You are preparing to conduct a department wide disk cloning operation to install
Windows XP. Which Windows tool is used to prepare the reference computer for
cloning?
A. RIPrep.
B. Ghost.
C. Sysprep
D. Unattend.exe

Q61: Which of these files does not need to be present to boot Windows NT /2000?
A. NTLDR.
B. KERNAL.EXE
C. BOOT.INI
D. NTDETECT.COM

Q62: To configure the file MYFILE.TXT as read only, use the _____________ DOS
Command:
A. ATTRIB +R MYFILE.TXT
B. ATTRIB -R MYFILE.TXT
C. ATTRIB +A MYFILE.TXT
D. ATTRIB -A MYFILE.TXT

Q63: Which of the following is true regarding the boot sector?

A. It always contains the MBR.
B. It contains the disk’s Partition table.
C. It resides on each disk partition.
D. It contains the root directory.

Q64: Under what conditions should you consider manually establish a restore point?
Select all that apply.
A. When you are updating a driver and it appears to cause problems with the system
that rolling back the driver does not resolve.
B. When you are installing a new software program and it creates problems with the
system that does not resolve.
C. Anytime you need to get back to a point where you know the system was
functioning correctly.
D. Whenever you can’t get into Safe Mode to reconfigure the Driver loading
Process.

Q65: Which Windows 9x utility can be used to monitor the operation of application
packages and log any errors?
A. Scandisk.
B. Dr. Watson.
C. Report tool.
D. Conflict Manager.

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Q66: What is the basic function of the HKEY_CURRENT_USER Registry Key?
A. PnP status Data.
B. Current information about devices.
C. User-Specific configuration.
D. User Logon data.

Q67: Which of the following network utilities are used to identify the IP Address of a
remote network location? Select all that apply.
A. ARP.
B. Netstat.
C. Nbstat.
D. Tracert.
E. Ping.

Q68: What is the most common type of file that may be installed by an application,
which will damage the operation of another application that may attempt to use
the same file?
A. .DLL
B. .EXE
C. .COM
D. .CAB

Q69: Microsoft typically releases patches in the form of updates, or in collections that
include additional functionality or new device drivers, that they refer to as:
A. Updates.
B. Service packs.
C. OEM Patches.
D. Releases.

Q70: On what conditions is it better to employ the FAT 32 file system instead of NTFS
file system?
A. On Larger drives.
B. On Faster drives.
C. On Slower drives.
D. On Smaller drives.

Q71: Which command line utility can be used to convert the disk drive file system from
FAT to FAT32?
A. CVT1.EXE
B. CONVERT.EXE
C. CNVRT1.EXE
D. CONVTER.EXE

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Q72: What is the Swap file in Windows 2000/NT called?
A. WINSWAP.SWP
B. PAGEFILE.SYS
C. SWAP.SYS
D. WIN386.SWP

Q73: You change the display properties on a Windows 9x machine. You can hear the
machine boot up file and know that it is working but you have no display on the
screen. What can you do to shutdown the computer and enter the safe mode?
A. Press <ALT+F4> then <ENER>.
B. Unplug the computer from the wall outlet.
C. Press the reset button on the computer.
D. Press <CTRL+ALT+DEL> twice.

Q74: What is the minimum amount of RAM required for Windows 95?
A. 4 MB.
B. 8 MB.
C. 16 MB.
D. 32 MB.

Q75: Before installing a new piece of Hardware in a Windows 2000 system, what
precaution should be taken?
A. The BIOS should be flashed to make sure that it has the latest hardware support
information.
B. The Windows 2000 HCL (Hardware Compatibility List) should be consulted to
make sure that the device is listed on it.
C. The device’s driver should be checked to ensure that it has been signed by
Microsoft.
D. The device’s operating system should be examined to make sure that it will run at
Windows 2000 compatible speeds.

Q76: How does a Trojan Virus attack a system?

A. It replaces a disk’s original boot-sector code.
B. The attack occurs when a document is open.
C. It appears to be a normal program.
D. Code is added to a legitimate program.

Q77: When you restart windows in safe mode, with the command prompt, which of the
following files are you executing?
A. CONFIG.EXE
B. MSDOS.EXE
C. CMD.EXE
D. DOSSTART.EXE

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Q78: A group of sectors on an HDD is referred to as an _____________. Select all that
apply.
A. Allocation Unit.
B. Cluster.
C. Segment.
D. Cylinder.

Q79: A customer is trying to dial into a LAN network; they can connect but they cannot
browse the network. What could be the most likely cause of this problem?
A. NetBEUI is not installed.
B. PPP is not set up correctly.
C. There is no master browser computer set up on the Network.
D. There are two master browser computers setup on the Network.

Q80: What is the correct sequence of events when a DOS system is started?
A. It loads COMMAND.COM, CONFIG.SYS, and AUTOEXEC.BAT in order.
B. It loads AUTOEXEC.BAT, CONFIG.SYS, and COMMAND.COM in order.
C. It loads CONFIG.SYS, COMMAND.COM, and AUTOEXEC.BAT in order.
D. It loads COMMAND.COM, AUTOEXEC.BAT, and CONFIG.SYS in order.

Q81: Which log file is not generated automatically during the windows startup process?
A. BOOTLOG.TXT
B. SETUPLOG.TXT
C. DETLOG.TXT
D. DETCRASH.LOG

Q82: Where do you go and how do you correct HIMEM.SYS errors in MS-DOS?
A. C:\WINDOWS, check AUTOEXEC.BAT for the line:
DEVICE=C:\WINDOWS\HIMEM.SYS
B. C:\DOS, check CONFIG.SYS for the line: DEVICE=C:\DOS\HIMEM.SYS.
C. C:\DOS, check AUTOEXEC.BAT for the line: DEVICE=C:\DOS\HIMEM.SYS.
D. C:\WINDOWS, check CONFIG.SYS for the line:
DEVICE=C:\WINDOWS\HIMEM.SYS.
Q83: You want to use a printer connected to another computer running Windows 9x in
the network. What must that other computer have enabled to permit you to print
through it?
A. Print Sharing.
B. File Sharing.
C. Port Sharing.
D. Network Printing.

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Q84: Which 2000 Prof. Start file is used to start a Windows 2000 Install from a 32 bit
Operating System?
A. WINNT 32.
B. WINNT.
C. WINNT 16.
D. WIN2K.

Q85: How are the problems associated with the WINDOWS NT boot sequence
corrected?
A. Boot to Emergency Startup Disk and run “restore c:”
B. Restore system files from the ERD.
C. Boot to emergency startup disk and run “sys c:”
D. Copy needed from the files from the Windows NT distribution CD.

Q86: OSR2 is an upgrade for:

A. Windows 3.11.
B. DOS 6.22.
C. Windows 95.
D. Windows 3.1.

Q87: ___________ is the core component of the Windows 9x structure.

A. PORGRAM.INI
B. GDI.EXE
C. SYSTEM.INI
D. CONTROL.INI

Q88: What utility is used to directly edit Registry entries in Windows 9x.
A. EDIT.
B. REGEDT32
C. REGEDIT
D. SYSEDIT

Q89: What is the function of DOSSTART.BAT file?

A. This file serves no function in Windows.
B. Load Real Mode DOS drivers.
C. Makes DOS commands available under windows.
D. Load virtual mode DOS drivers.

Q90: What is the RDISK method used for in a NT 4.0 system?

A. Make a backup to a disk.
B. Create an ERD.
C. Restore a backup.
D. Restore a file system to a previous good condition.

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Q91: How did the Windows version before Windows 95 organize and monitor the
system’s configuration information?
A. .DAT Files.
B. .LOG Files.
C. .INI Files.
D. .CFG Files.

Q92: What type of error message is produced when no valid MBR is found in the
system?
A. Invalid Media Type.
B. No Partition Found.
C. Disk Not Found.
D. Non-System Disk or Disk Error.

Q93: What command is used to view hidden system files?

A. fa +r +s +h c:\*.sys
B. attrib –r –s –h c:\*.sys
C. attrib +r +s +h c:\*.sys
D. fa -r -s -h c:\*.sys

Q94: MSCDEX.EXE assigns a logical drive letter to:

A. The floppy drive.
B. A CD-ROM Drive.
C. The Primary active partition.
D. An Extended Partition.

Q95: How many logical drives can be created using DOS?

A. 23.
B. 38.
C. 44.
D. 8.

Q96: What does the DOS command SHARE.EXE do?

A. Allowing multiple users to log in to a single workstation.
B. Allowing multiple users to share the same Internet Connection.
C. Enabling File sharing over a network.
D. Allowing multiple users to access a network printer.

Q97: A Graphical object that acts as a link to share point on a remote unit is called:
A. A Window
B. An Alias.
C. An access port.
D. A Sprite.

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Q98: What are the possible drawbacks of converting FAT16 to FAT32? Select all that
apply.
A. Possible loss of data.
B. Smaller Partition sizes are supported.
C. Possible Performance loss caused by slower read/write and speed.
D. Less space to save on the disk.

Q99: Which method is used to change file attributes from the Windows Explorer?
A. Highlight the file and choose the select options entry in the system tools menu.
B. Highlight the file and choose the select options entry in the view menu.
C. Right-Click on the file and select properties.
D. Edit the appropriate registry entry with Regedt32.

Q100: The video BIOS:

A. Replaces the system BIOS for video operations.
B. Is an extension of the system BIOS.
C. Acts independently from the system BIOS.
D. Is unaware of the system BIOS and vice-versa.

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