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Board Questions

1. A patient came in because of severe headache. Before giving a drug, the

physician must know what the drug will do to the body. This is known as:
A. Pharmacodynamic C. Drug development
B. Pharmacokinetic D. Adverse drug reaction
MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp. 31

2. Distribution of drugs to tissue:

A. Is independent on blood flow to the organ
B. Is independent of the solubility of the drug to the tissue
C. Depend on the unbound drug concentration gradient between blood
and the tissue
D. Is increased for drugs that are strongly bound to plasma proteins
MPL = 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp.20

3. Giving a second drug in order to enhance the action of a primary drug is a

kind of drug interaction known as:
A. potentiation C. additive
B. synergism D. antagonism
MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 72

4. Two drugs have said to have this property when they reached the same
plasma concentration at the same rate after oral administration:
A. Potency C. Bioavailability
B. Efficacy D. Bioequivalence

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 8

5. When the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration it is:

A. Zero order kinetic C. Maechelis Menten kinetics
B. First order kinetics D. none of the above

MPL= 0.33
Katzung 8th Ed pp 35

6. Entero-hepatic recycling of drugs is:

A. Volume of distribution C. First pass effect
B. Half-life D. First order kinetics

MPL= 0.5
Katzung 8th Ed pp 52

7. Which of the following reactions is most effective for Phase II elimination of

hydrophobic drugs?
A. glucoronidation C. oxidation
B. hydrolysis D. reduction

MPL= 0.33
GG 8th Ed pp12

8. Drug oxidation frequently involve all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Cytochrome p450 enzymes C. Esterases
B. NADH or NADPH cofactors D. Molecular oxygen

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp12

9. Jovita after recurrent seizure became comatose. Blood gas analysis showed
severe metabolic acidosis. The antidote for Jovita is:
A. Endophonium C. Pyridoxine
B. Atropine sulfate D. Thiamine

MPL= 0.5
GG 8th Ed. Pp76

10. A 14 year old was rushed to the E.R. because of poisoning. P.E. showed
increased sweating and salivation with constricted pupils. The most likely
substance ingested is:
A. Salicylates C.Opioids
B. Anticholinesterase drugs D.Antidepressants

MP= 0.5
GG 8th Ed. pp184

11. Which of the following will produce the most rapid induction of anesthesia?
A. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane
B. Nitrous oxide D. Isoflurane

MPL= 0.25
GG 8th Ed.pp

12. Of the following drugs, this tranquilizer has muscle relaxant and
anticonvulsant properties:
A. Diazepam C. Ethanol
B. Sodium Luminal D. Meprobamate

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 409

13. An anticonvulsant which is metabolized to Phenobarbital, hence, their clinical

effects are very similar:
A. Carbamazepine C. Diazepam
B. Primidone D. Oxazepam

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 532

14. The first synthetic local anesthetics widely used for infiltration anesthesia:
A. Procaine C. Etidocaine
B. Bupivacaine D. Benzocaine

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 376

15. Repeated exposure to which of the following anesthetic agents is most

associated with liver damage:
A. Isoflurane C. Nitrous oxide
B. Halothane D. Enflurane

MPL= 0.33
GG 10th Ed pp 351-352

16. Which of the following inhalation anesthetics is most likely to produce

diffusional hypoxia?
A. Cyclopropane C. Nitrous oxide
B. Halothane D. Methoxyflurane

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 355
17. Secobarbital and ethanol when given together show:
A. Additive sedative action
B. Reduced sedative action
C. Competitive antagonism
D. Chemical antagonism
MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 418

18. Nitrous oxide has a:

A. potent action on the medullary center
B. significant effect on renal function
C. reliable surgical anesthesia only under hyperbaric condition
D. potent relaxation effect
MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 355-356

19. Of the Phenothiazines, which is the most popularly used as an antipsychotic

A. Chlorpromazine C. Chlordiazepoxide
B. Meprobamate D. Diphenhydramine

MPL= 1
Katzung 8th Ed pp 478

20. Extrapyramidal adverse effect is commonly seen with the use of this anti-
psychotic agent:
A. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine
B. Thioridazine D. Fluoxetine

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 488

21. An agent that is used in the treatment of organo-phosphate poisoning:

A. Atropine C. Physostigmine
B. Neostigmine D. Naloxone

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 185
22. The major action involve in the antiseizure activity of Phenytoin is:
A. Block of sodium ion channel
B. Block of calcium ion channel
C. Facilitation of GABA action on chloride ion
D. Inhibition of GABA transaminase
MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 529

23. A 3 years old was brought to the ER because of recurrent attacks of blank
stares lasting for few minutes. This child is best manage with this anti-seizure
A. Phenobarbital C. Lamotrigine
B. Ethosuximide D. Vigabantrine

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 535

24. Prolonged treatment with this anti-seizure agent is associated with gingival
hyperplasia :
A. Ethosuximide C. Valproate
B. Phenobarbital D. Phenytoin
MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed 530

25. This is an inhibitory neurotransmitter:

A. Acetylcholine C. Glycine
B. Glutamic acid D. GABA

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 304

26. The best treatment for Parkinson’s disease is:

A. Levodopa C. Amantadine
B. Selegiline D. Pergolide

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 555

27. This drug competitively inhibits the binding of aldosterone to

mineralocorticoid receptors:
A. amiloride C. spirinolactone
B. triamterene D. hydrochlorothiazide

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 779

28. This drug potentiates the ototoxic effect of loop diuretics:

A. coumadin C. digitalis
B. lithium D. streptomycin
MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 773

29. A diuretic agent that inhibit NaCl symport:

A. spirinolactone C. triamterene
B. ethacrynic acid D. hydrochlorothiazide

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 775
30. A symphatomimetic agent that also acts as beta adrenergic agonist:
A. dopamine C. isoproterenol
B. dobutamine D. norepinephrine

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 228

31. This drug acts by inhibiting renal systemic and tissue generation of
angiotensin II:
A. losartan C. amrinone
B. captopril D. hydralazine

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed. Pp910

32. Dopamine is used in the treatment of advanced left heart failure because it:
A. causes vasoconstriction
B. produces positive inotropic effect
C. reduces left ventricular afterload
D. decreases cardiac output

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 925

33. The following are effects of cardiac glycosides except:

A. inhibits NaKATPase
B. decreased calcium entry to myocardium
C. reduced reuptake of norepinephrine from nerve terminals
D. direct inotropic effects on cardiac muscle

MPL= 0.33
GG 10th Ed pp 916

34. Of the vasodilators listed below, the drug of choice for the treatment of acute
anginal attack is:
A. Nitroglycerin C. Nifedipine
B. Hydralazine D. Propranolol

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 911

35. This angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI) is a prodrug and must
be hydrolyzed by the esterases in the liver:
A. captoril C. lisinopril
B. enalapril D. trondolapril

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 822
36. A contraindication to the use of beta blockers
A. Bronchial asthma C. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Hypertension D. Congestive heart failure

GG 10th Ed pp 884
37. An acute attack of re-entrant supraventricular tachycardia will respond to:
A. Digitalis C. Magnesium sulfate
B. Verapamil D. Quinidine
MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 965

38. A 60 years old female patient complained of nystagmus after taking this
antiarrythmic drug. The drug could be:
A. Disopyramide C. Procainamide
B. Lidocaine D. Quinidine
MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 961
39. The mechanism of action of gembfibrozil is:
A. Increase excretion of bile acid salts
B. Increase expression of high affinity LDL- receptor
C. Increase hydrolysis by lipoprotein lipase
D. Inhibition of secretion of VLDL by the liver

MPL= 0.33
GG 10th Ed 993
40. This antihyperlipidemic agents reduces circulating cholesterol levels by
binding to cholesterol in the GIT?
A. niacin C. clofibrate
B. cholestyramine D. gemfibrozil
MPL= 0.33
GG = 10th Ed 989

41. Which of the following drugs is used as an emergency agent for hypertensive
A. Methyldopa C. Hydralazine
B. Diltiazem D. Nitroprusside
MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 890

42. A Second generation Sulfonylurea that can inhibit peripheral deiodination of

thyroid hormone
A. Tolbutamide C. Glyburide
B. Chlorpropamide D. Glimepiride
GG 10th Ed pp1702

43. A member of the newer oral hypoglycemic agents classified as insulin

A. Rosiglitazone C. Glimepiride
B. Voglibose D. Repaglinide

MPL= 0.33
GG 10th Ed pp 1706

44. A thionamide that can block peripheral deiodination of thyroid hormone

A. Propranolol C. Prophylthiouracil
B. Carbimazole D. Methimazole
MPL = 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 1581
45. Which among these antithombotic drugs inhibit the synthesis of thomboxane
by irreversible acetylation of the enzyme cyclooxygenase?
A. Abciximab C. Integrilin
B. Aspirin D. Ticlodipine

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 1534

46. An isoxazole derivative of ethinyltestosterone that is used to suppress ovarian

A. Danazol C. Raloxifene
B. Clomiphene D. Mifepristone

MPL= 0.33
Katzung 8th Ed pp 699

47. A gnRH analog which produces gonadal suppression:

A. Flutamide C. Finasteride
B. Leuprolide D. Spironolactone

MPL= 0.25
Katzung 8th Ed pp 942

48. A principal regulator of bone mineral homeostasis which needs to be

metabolized to gain biologic activity:
A. Vitamin D C. Glucocorticoids
B. Parathyroid hormone D. Adrenal androgens

GG 10th Ed pp 1728

49. Which among the following is a long-acting glucocorticoids?

A. Betamethasone C. Prednisone
B. Cortisone D. Triamcinolone

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 1657

50. Antineoplastic agent usually cause the following side effects EXCEPT:
A. loss of hair C. nausea and vomiting
B. liver damage D. bone marrow suppression

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th ed pp 1388

51. Busulfan, a useful drug in chronic myelocytic leukemia is:

A. An antimetabolite C. an alkylating agent
B. An antibiotic D. a hormonal agent
MPL= 0.5
GG 10-th Ed pp 1383

52. An immunopotentiating agent with an antihelminthic property:

A. Herceptin C. Interferon
B. Rituximab D. Levamisole

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 1477
53. The most effective drug to use during acute attacks of gouty arthritis is:
A. Allopurinol C. Colchicine
B. Probenecid D. Phenylbutazone

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 719

54. One approach in the treatment of bronchial asthma is the use of mediator
release inhibitors which would include:
A. Cromolyn sodium C. Terbutaline
B. Theophylline D. Ketotifen

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 742

55. Which anti-asthmatic would be your choice if you want one with a less cardiac
A. Epinephrine C. Terbutaline
B. Ephedrine D. Isoproterenol

MPL= 1
GG 10th ed pp 736

56. A long acting Beta-2 selective agonist used for asthma prophylaxis:
A. Cromolyn C. Metaproterenol
B. Ipatropium D. Salmeterol

MPL= 1
GG 10th ed pp 737

57. The H2 antagonist with the highest bioavailability:

A. Cimetidine C. Ranitidine
B. Famotidine D. Nizatidine

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th ed pp 1011

58. An irreversible proton pump inhibitor:

A. Lanzoprazole C. Omeprazole
B. Pantoprazole D. Famotidine

MPL= 0.75
GG 10th Ed 1007

59. This drug is used in the treatment of PUD as a mucosal protective agent
A. Sucralfate C. magnesium OH
B. metronidazole D. ocreotide

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 1012

60. Ethambutol is administered concurrently with other antituberculous drugs in

the treatment of TB inorder to:
A. Reduce the pain of injection
B. Facilitate penetration of the BBB
C. Retard the development of organism resistance
D. Delay excretion of other anti TB drugs by the kidney

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 1280
61. The mainstay drug in the treatment of all types of leprosy is:
A. Clofazimine C. Isoniazid
B. Dapsone D. Rifampicin

MPL= 1
GG 10th ed pp 1288

62. Vestibular and auditory dysfunction can follow the administration of:
A. Tetracycline C. Clindamycin
B. Amikacin D. Carbenicillin

MPL= 0.75
GG 10th ed 1227-1228

63. A beta-lactamase inhibitor:

A. Cefotaxime C. Sulbactam
B. Amoxicillin D. Ticarcillin

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 1214

64. A drug of choice in Rickettsial infections:

A. Chloramphenicol C. Sulfonamide
B. Tetracycline D. Polymyxin B

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed 1240

65. An antimicrobial agent which inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis:

A. Neomycin C. Erythromycin
B. Cephalexin D. Trimethoprim

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 1190

66. Gray baby syndrome, a form of cardio-respiratory collapse, is an age specific

toxicity of which antimicrobial in the newborn?
A. Sulfonamides C. Chloramphenicol
B. Nalidixic acid D. Nitrofurantoin

MPL= 1
GG 10th ed pp 1249

67. Exerts a synergistic effect with Sulfonamide:

A. Trimethoprim C. Atropine
B. Prostaglandin D. Metronidazole

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 1176

68. An anti-malarial agent which also exerts an amebicidal effect:

A. Chloroquine C. Primaquine
B. Chloroguanide D. Mefloquine

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 1084
69. Antimicrobial agent with greatest CSF penetration:
A. Chloramphenicol C. Tetracycline
B. Penicillin D. Erythromycin

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed 1247

70. The most absorbable of all the oral erythromycin salt is:
A. Lactobromate C. Estolate
B. Succinate D. Stearate

MPL= 0. 75
GG 10th Ed pp 1252

71. This drug, with less side effects, is effective against ascaris and hookworms
A. Mebendazole C. Pyrantel pamoate
B. Piperazine D. Niclosamide

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 1025

72. An effective amebicidal agent and at the same time displays antibacterial
activity against anaerobes:
A. Metronidazole C. Paromomycin
B. Quinacrine D. Chloroquine

GG 10th Ed pp 1106

73. The drug of choice for monilial infections of skin and mucous membrane:
A. Griseofulvin C. Amphotericin B
B. Nystatin D. Selenium sulfide

GG 10th Ed pp1307

74. Antiviral drug which is effective on the treatment of herpes simplex

encephalitis is:
A. Idoxuridine C. Acyclovir
B. Vidarabine D. Amantadine

MPL= 0,75
GG 10th Ed pp 1317

75. Primaquine should be used with caution in G6PD deficient individuals

because of the possibility of production of:
A. Aplastic anemia C. Granulocytopenia
B. Hemolytic anemia D. Megaloblastic anemia

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 1084

76. Imipenem is combined with this drug:

A. Clindamycin C. Cephalosporin
B. Cilastatin D. Carbenicillin

GG 10th Ed1214
77. Which of the chemical structure of Beta-lactams is the site of action of
A. Beta-lactam ring C. R-side chain
B. Thiazolidine ring D. Dihydrothiazine ring
MPL= 1
GG 1190

78. The Penicillin with the longest half life (24-28 days ) is:
A. Phenoxymethylpenicillin C. Benzathine penicillin
B. Procaine penicillin D. Benzyl penicillin
MPL= 0.75
GG 1197

79. Antibiotic that is NOT recommended for use in children or during pregnancy
because of its potential to cause arthropathy:
A. Sulfonamides C. Aminoglycosides
B. Macrolides D. Quinolones

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp1182

80. Most nephrotoxic of the aminoglycosides:

A. Streptomycin C. Gentamicin
B. Neomycin D. Amikacin

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 1229

81. The ratio of sulfamethoxazole to Trimethoprim for it to be effective is:

A. 40:1 C. 200:1
B. 20:1 D. 10:1

GG 10th Ed pp 1176

82. Doxycycline is an appropriate therapy in infection caused by:

A. Rickettsiae C. Schistosomiasis
B. Plasmodium vivax D. Histoplasma capsulatum

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 1156

83. The drug recommended for most heavy metal intoxications is:
A. CaNa2EDTA C. Dimercaprol
B. Penicillamine D. Deferoxamine

MPL= 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp 1867

84. A 24 year old man working in a company that manufacture “semiconductors”.

Following accident at the plant he manifested with nausea and vomiting,
headache, hypotension and chills. Laboratory showed hemoglobinuria and a
plasma hemoglobin of 1,4g/dl. This individual is probably exposed to:
A. Arsine C. Mercury vapor
B. Inorganic arsenic D. Methylmercury

MPL 0.5
GG 10th Ed pp1862
85. Serotonin antagonist not derived from a fungus that is useful for the treatment
of migraine headache is:
A.Sumapitran C. Bromocriptine
B.Ergotamine D. Ketanserin

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 278

86. Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrum of antimicrobial

activity. The major advantage of Clarithromycin is that:
A. Eradicate mycoplasmal infection in a single dose
B. Active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin
C. More active against Mycobacterium avium complex
D. Acts on methicillin resistant staphylococci

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th ave.pp 1250

87. The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram positive organism
to macrolide antibiotics is:
A. Methylation of binding site on the 50S ribosomal subunits
B. Formation of esterases that hydrolyzed the lactone ring
C. Formation of drug- inactivating acetyltransferase
D. Decrease drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane

MPL= 0.25
GG 10TH ED PP1250

88. Weeping lesion is best treated with:

A, Wet dressing C. Ointment
B. Gels D. Aerosol

MPL= 1
GG 10TH Ed pp1796

89. Host factors affecting the use of antimicrobial agents is/are:

A. Age of patient C. Genetic factor
B. Site of infection D. All of the above

MPL= 1
GG 1144

90. The mechanism of action of miconazole is best described as:

A. Binding to 80 S ribosomes
B. Inhibition of sterol synthesis
C. Blockade of tetrahydrofolate reductase
D. DNA intercalation

MPL= 0.75
GG 10th Ed pp1301

91. Leukoverin rescue is used to reverse toxicity of which of the following anti-
cancer agents?
A. Vinblastine C. Adriamycin
B. Cyclophosphamide D. Methotrexate

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 1512

92. Antiarrhythmic drug that predominantly block the slow calcium channels :
A. Verapamil C. Lidocaine
B. Amiodarone D. Metoprolol

GG 10th Ed pp 948

93. Antiarrythmic drug that predominantly block potassium channels and prolongs
A. Class I C. Class II
B. Class III D. Class IV

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 949

94. Recommended drug therapy for angina in patients with hyperthyroidism:

A. Dihydroperidine Calcium Channel blockers
B. Beta-Adrinergic Receptor Blocker
C. Non-Dihydroperidine Calcium Channel blockers
D. Organic Nitrates

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 860

95. Anti anginal drug which should be avoided in patients with Hypertrophic
A. Metoprolol C. Isosorbide-5-mono nitrate
B. Diltiazem D. Verapamil

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 851

96. The least antigenic source of Insulin is

A. Beef C. Pork
B. Human D. Horse

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 1692

97. Preparation of choice for replacement and suppression therapy of the thyroid
A. levothyroxine C. liothyronine
B. triiodothyronine D. tyrosine

GG 10th Ed pp 1577

98. Anemia with neurologic abnormalities occur most often in deficiencies of:
A. vitamin B12 C. iron
B. folic acid D. biotin

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp 1507

99. Which of the following has the highest elemental iron?

A. Ferrous gluconate C. Ferrous fumarate
B. Hydrated ferrous sulfate D. Desiccated ferrous sulfate

MPL= 0.25
GG 10th Ed pp 1496

100. A direct acting cholinomimetic that is lipid soluble and often used in the
treatment of glaucoma?
A. Acetycholine C. Pilocarpine
B. Bethanecol D. Physostigmine

MPL= 1
GG 10th Ed pp161