3 5
e−2y = − e3x + (1)
2 3
∂M (x, y)
= 2y cos(xy) − xy 2 sin(xy)
∂y
∂N (x, y)
= y cos(xy) − xy 2 sin(xy) + y cos(xy)
∂x
As the above expressions are equal, the equation is exact. We look now for
a function f (x, y) such that
∂f (x, y) Z
= M (x, y), =⇒ f (x, y) = 1 + y 2 cos(xy) ∂x+h(y) = x+y sin(xy)+h(y)
∂x
1
and
∂f (x, y)
= N (x, y) (≡ xy cos(xy) + sin(xy)) = xy cos(xy) + sin(xy) + h(y),
∂y
implying that h0 (y) = 0, or h(y) = const. The solution is
√ √
(3) (x2 + y2 x2 + y2 )dx = xy x2 + y2 dy, y(1) = 1
Again, by inspection, this equation is not separable and not linear. It is
not Bernoulli and cannot be solved √ by linear substitution v =√Ay + Bx + c.
Is it exact? Set M (x, y) = x2 + y 2 x2 + y 2 and N (x, y) = xy x2 + y 2 Then
∂M (x, y) q y3
= 2y x2 + y 2 + √ 2
∂y x + y2
∂N (x, y) q x2 y
2
=y x +y + 2 √
∂x x2 + y 2
So the equation is not exact. It is not homogeneous. However, it is is
simplified by noting that
√
dy x2 + y 2 x2 + y 2
= √
dx xy x2 + y 2
y dy dv
which becomes, setting v = , =v+x
x dx dx
√
dy x2 + v 2 x3 1 + v 2 dv
= √ =v+x
dx 3
vx 1 + v 2 dx
or
dv 1
x = √
dx vx 1 + v 2
which is separable. We get
Z √ Z
dx
v 1 + v 2 dv =
x2
Setting u = 1 + v 2 , 2vdv = du, the equation becomes
Z
1 1 Z
1
u 2 du = dx
2 x2
2
integrating we get
1 3 1
u2 = − + c
3 x
or !3 2
y2 1
1+ 2 =9 − +c
x x
√
8
Imposing the IVP y(1) = 1, =⇒ 8 = 9(−1 + c)2 , =⇒ c = 3
+ 1. The final
solution becomes
√ 2
3 3
y2 = x 2
8+3− − 1 (3)
x
and then
1 2x sin x 2 cos x C
Z
v(x) = (2x cos x)dx + C = + +
x x x x
or
x
y2 = (4)
C + 2 (x sin x + cos x)