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Physiology MCQ
General physiology
1) Cell membrane
a. formed entirely of protein molecules b. are impermeable to fat soluble substa
nces
c. in some tissues permit permit transport of glucose at a greater rate in the p
resence of insulin d. are not changed through out the life
Ans. c
2) The substance that contributes maximally to the osmolality inside the cell is
a. protein b. phosphate
c. urea d. potassium
Ans. c
3) Proteins that are secreted by cells are generally
a. not synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to endoplasmic reticulum b. are s
ynthesized in the mitochondria
c. packed in the golgi apparatus d. moves across the cell membrane by endocytosi
s
Ans. c
4) The unique feature in mitochondria is
a. myosin b. actin
c. DNA d. prothrombin
Ans. c
5) The resting membrane potential of a cell
a. is dependant on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater to
Na+ b. falls to zero if Na+/K+ ATPase in membrane is inhibited
c. is equal to the equilibrium potential for K+ d. is equal to the equilibrium
potential of Na+
Ans. a
6) The somatic cells containing the full complement of 46 chromosomes in their n
uclei, containing all the genes necessary for carrying out the cell activities a
re called
a. autosomes b. haploid cells
c. allosomes d. diploid cells
Ans. d
7) In some cases DM is due to
a. excessive receptors b. antibodies against receptors
c. deficiency of receptors for extra cellular proteins d. deficiency of nucleot
ide regulatory G proteins
Ans. b
8) Many substances are removed from the cell to outside by
a. pinocytosis b. chemotaxis
c. phagocytosis c. exocytosis
Ans. d
9) Excessive formation of a substance/ secretion in the body is controlled in or
der to maintain homeostasis by
a. +ve feedback mechanism b. -ve feedback mechanism
c. osmosis d. haemodynamics
Ans. b
10 ) An action potential in a nerve
a. is terminated by influx of Na+ excessive receptors b. is terminated by efflu
x of K+
c. is initiated by efflux of Na+ d. is initiated by influx of K+
Ans. b
11)" Milieu interior " is a term introduced by
a. Laplace b. Boyle
c. Claud Bernard d. Lansteiner
Ans. c
12) An example of co-transport is
a. Na+-K+ pump b. Ca++ pump
c. Na+- H+ pump d. Na+ glucose transport
Ans.d

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Nerve Muscle
1) Which of the following has slowest conduction
a. A alpha b. A gamma
c. B fibres d. C fibres
Ans. d
2) A man falls into deep sleep with one arm under his head. After awakening the
arm is paralyzed but tingling sensation and pain sensation persists. This loss o
f motor function without the loss of sensory function is due to
a. A fibres are more susceptible to hypoxia that B b. A fibres are more sensitiv
e to pressure than C
c. C fibres are more sensitive to pressure than A d. Sensory nerves are nearer b
one and hence affected by pressure
Ans. b
3) Saltatory conduction
a. is seen only in myelinated nerve fibres b. is slower that non saltatory condu
ction
c. is not affected if a local anesthetic is applied to the node of Ranvier d. no
ne of the above
Ans. a
4) Myelin sheath is produced by
a. axoplasm b. mitochondria
c. scawann cell d. muscle cell
Ans. c
5) The action potential of skeletal muscle
a. has a prolonged plateau phase b. spreads inwards to all parts of the muscle v
ia T tubules
c. is longer than the action potential of cardiac muscle d. is not essential for
muscle conduction
Ans. b
6) Smooth muscle need help of
a. calmodulin for contraction b. acetyl choline for contraction
c.K+ for contraction d. monoamine oxidase for contraction
Ans. a
7) The cross bridges of the sarcomere in skeletal muscle are components of
a. actin b. myosin
c. troponin d. tropomyosin
Ans. b
8) The likely mechanism through which neostigmine acts in improving muscular wea
kness is
a. It blocks action of acetylcholine b. it interferes with action of mono-amine
oxidase
c. it enhances the action of catecholamines d. it blocks the action of acetyl ch
oline esterase
Ans. d
9) A skeletal muscle
a. obeys all or none phenomenon b. becomes less excitable when its membrane beco
mes hyperpolarized
c. has a resting membrane potential positive inside d. contains excessive Na+ in
intracellular compartment
Ans. a
10) The function of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle is-
a. sliding on actin to produce shortening b. Releasing Ca++ after initiation of
contraction
c. binding to myosin during contraction d. covering up the actin binding sites o
f myosin at rest
Ans. d

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Blood
1) The number of oxygen molecules carried by one Hb molecule
a. 1 b. 2
c. 4 d. 8
Ans. c
2) Arneth count is counting of
a. lymphocytes b. lobes of eosinophils
c. lobes of neutrophils d. reticulocytes
Ans. c
3) Majority of clotting factors are produced in
a. liver b. kidney
c. heart d. brain
Ans. a
4) Endothelial cells synthesise
a. fibrinogen b. factor 8
c. factor 10 d. factor 12
Ans. b
5) Iron is stored in the body in the following except
a. spleen b. R.E. system
c. gall bladder d. bone marrow
Ans. c
6) Cellular immunity is due to
a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes
c. neutrophils d. eosinophils
Ans. b
7) Action of plasmin is
a. to remove calcium b. antithrombin action
c. to stimulate heparin d. to degenerate fibrin
Ans. d
8) Osmotic pressure of plasma is mainly maintained by
a. albumin b. alpha globulin
c. beta globulin d. gamma globulin
Ans. a
9) Which is the most rare blood group
a. A Rh+ b. AB Rh+
c. AB Rh- d. B Rh-
Ans. c
10) Hematocrit of 45% means that in the sample of blood analysed
a. 45% Hb is in the plasma b. 45% of total blood volume is made up of plasma
c. 45% of Hb is in the RBC d. 45% of the total blood volume is made up of RBC's
and WBC's
Ans. d
11) The normal A/G ratio in blood is
a. 1:2 b. 2:1
c. 1:3 d. 3:1
Ans. b
12) Which of the following statements concerning the monocyte is incorrect
a. more common in blood than eosinophils and basophils b. produced in the adult
by the bone marrow and lymph nodes
c. unlike neutrophil does not accumulate outside circulation in area of inflamma
tion d. not classified as a granulocyte
Ans. c
13) The normal non fasting blood ketone level is

a. 0.1 - 0.5 mg% b. 0.5- 2 mg%

c. 2- 10 mg % d. 100 - 500 mg%
Ans. c

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Cardio vascular system

1) S.A. node is the pacemaker of heart because of
a. location in the right atrium b. neural control
c. natural leakiness to Na+ d. Natural leakiness to k+
Ans. c
2) Absolute refractory period in the heart
a. corresponds to the duration of relaxation b. lasts till half of cardiac contr
action
c. shorter than refractory period in skeletal muscle d. lasts till cardiac con
traction
Ans. d
3) First heart sound occurs during the period of
a. isometric relaxation b. isotonic relaxation
c. isovolumetric contraction d. isovolumetric relaxation
Ans. c
4) Which of these vessels does not have sympathetic control
a. cerebral b. splanchnic
c. cardiac d. cutaneous
Ans. a
5) Blood brain barrier is made up of
a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes
c. oligodendroglia d. microglia
Ans. a
6) Positive bathmotropic effect on heart is produced by
a. stimulation of vagus nerve b. stimulation of sympathetic nerves
c. atropin d. sectioning of vagus
Ans. b
7) Mary's law denotes relationship between heart and
a. contractility and conductivity b. rate and contraction
c. rate and BP d. contraction and BP
Ans. c
8) Which of the following conducting systems has the slowest conducting velocity
a. SAN b. atrial muscle
c. purkinje fibres d. AVN
Ans. c
9) In heart, within physiological limits the force of contraction is directly pr
oportional to the
a. pacemaker activity b. a-v nodal delay
c. initial length of the cardiac muscle d. respiratory rate
Ans. c
10) The diacrotic notch on aortic pressure curve is caused by
a. closure of mitral valve b. closure of tricuspid valve
c. closure of atrial valve d. closure of pulmonary valve
Ans. c
11) The PR interval of ECG corresponds to
a. ventricular repolarization b. ventricular repolarization
c. atrial repolarization and conduction through AV node d. repolarization of AV
node and bundle of His
Ans. c
12) Increased vagal tone causes
a. hypertension b. tachycardia
c. bradycardia d. increase in cardiac output
Ans. c
13) Which of the following is not increased during exercise
a. Stroke volume b. total peripheral resistance
c. systolic BP d. heart rate
Ans. b
14) Which of the following takes longest time to return to normal after 1L of bl
ood is removed from a normal individual
a. number of RBC's in peripheral blood b. plasma volume
c. renin secretion d. blood pressure
Ans. a
15) When a pheochromocytoma suddenly discharges a large amount of epinephrine in
to the circulation the patients heart rate would be expected to
a. increase because epinephrine has a direct chronotropic effect on the heart b.
increase because of increased parasympathetic discharge to the heart
c. decrease because the increase in blood pressure stimulates the carotid and ao
rtic baroreceptors d. decrease because of increased tonic parasympathetic discha
rge to heart
Ans. a
16) In a patient with mitral stenosis one would expect to hear
a. continuous murmur b. a systolic murmur loudest over the base of heart
c. a diastolic murmur loudest over the apex of heart d. a diastolic murmur loude
st over the base of heart
Ans. c
17) The 's' wave in ECG is below isoelectric line because of
a. repolarization of ventricles b. change in direction of the impulse when the b
ase of the ventricles are getting depolarised
c. depolarisation of apex of heart d. repolarisation of apex of heart
Ans. b
18) Which of the following is least likely to cause hypertension
a. chronically increased secretion of adrenal medulla b. treatment with OCP
c. chronically increased secretion of thyroid gland d. chronically increased sec
retion by zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex
Ans. c
19) Lymph flow from the foot is
a. increased when an individual rises from the supine to standing position b. in
creased by massaging the foot
c. increased when capillary permeability is decreased d. decreased by exercise
Ans. b
20) The pressure in the radial artery is determined by
a. the degree of constriction of brachial vein b. the rate of discharge in sympa
thetic nerve fibres to the arm
c. pressure in the hepatic portal vein d. pressure in the brachial vein
Ans. b
21) The 'T' wave in ECG is above the isoelectric line because of
a. depolarisation of ventricles b. depolarisation of bundle of His
c. change in the direction of repolarisation from the wave of depolarization of
the ventricles d. repolarisation of purkinje fibres
Ans. c

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Respiratory system
1) In Caissons disease pain in the joints and muscles is due to
a. formation of N2 bubbles b. formation of CO2 bubbles
c. due to fatigue d. due to increase in barometric pressure
Ans. a
2) Normal value of FEV1 in an adult is
a. 95% b. 80%
c. 65% d. 50%
Ans. b
3) The most important gas maintaining alveolar ventilation is
a. oxygen b. hydrogen
c. carbon dioxide d. N2
Ans. c
4) Hyperbaric oxygen is useful in all except
a. congenital heart disease b. gas gangrene
c. CO poisoning d. N2 toxicity
Ans. d
5) Administration of O2 is of value in all except
a. cytotoxic hypoxia b. stagnant hypoxia
c. anaemic hypoxia d. histotoxic hypoxia
Ans. d
6) As one ascends to higher than 3000meters above sea level changes in alveolar
PO2 and PCO2 are as follows
a. decrease in PO2, increase in PCO2 b. decrease in PO2, decrease in PCO2
c. increase in both PO2 and PCO2 d. increase in PO2, decrease in PCO2
Ans. b
7) Surfactant is secreted by
a. type 1 pneumatocytes b. type 2 pneumatocytes
c. goblet cells d. pulmonary vessels
Ans. a
8) Which of the following effects is not observed during prolonged stay is space
a. decrease in blood volume b. decrease in muscle strength
c. increase in red cell mass d. loss of bone mass
Ans. c
9) Which of the following discharge spontaneously during quiet breathing
a. stretch receptors in lung b. motor neurons in respiratory muscles
c. dorsal respiratory group of neurons d. ventral respiratory group of neurons
Ans. c
10) Pneumatic center functions primarily to
a. limit inspiration b. prolong expiration
c. decrease rate d. discharge inspiratory action potentials
Ans.a
11) Which of the following is the effect of negative G on the eye
a. temporary blinding with redout b. blackout of vision within few seconds
c. no effect d. redout and blackout
Ans. a
12) Airway resistance
a. increases in asthama b. decreases in emphysema
c. increases in paraplegic patients d. does not affect work of breathing
Ans. a
13) Decrease on PCO2, decrease in H+ and increased PO2 causes
a. hyperventilation b. hypoventilation
c. hypercapnoea d. hypoxia
Ans. b
14) Herring-Breur inflation reflex in human being
a. decreases the rate of respiration b. is not activated until the tidal volume
increases above 1.5 lit
c. is an important factor in normal control of ventilation d. is activated only
when tidal volume is les than 1 lit.
Ans. b
15) Total vital capacity is decreased but timed vital capacity is normal in
a. bronchial asthama b. scoliosis
c. chronic bronchitis d. all the above
Ans. b
16) The intrapleural pressure at the end of deep inspiration is
a. - 4mm Hg b. + 4 mm Hg
c. - 6mm hg d. + 6 mm Hg
Ans. a

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GIT
1) Which of the following are incorrectly paired
a. pancreatic alpha amylase-starch b. elastase-tissue rich in elastin
c. renin-coagulated milk d. erythropeptidase-polypeptides
Ans. d
2) All are GIT hormones except
a. cholecystokinin b. gastrin
c. secretin d. erythropoietin
Ans. d
3) Iron is absorbed in
a. stomach b. duodenum
c. jejunum d. ileum
Ans. b
4) In infants, defecation often follows a meal. The cause of colonic contraction
s in this situation is
a. gastro-ileal reflex b. increased circulating levels of CCK
c. gastrocolic reflex d. enterogastric reflex
Ans. c
5) Which of the following has highest ph
a. gastric juice b. pancreatic juice
c. bile in GB d. secretions of intestinal glands
Ans. b
6) Man is unable to digest
a. dextrin b. glucose
c. cellulose d. glycogen
Ans. c
7) Steatorrhoea may be caused by all factors except
a. pancreatectomy b. gastrin secreting hormone
c. resection of distal ileum d. hemolytic jaundice
Ans. d
8) Normal swallowing is dependant on the integrity of the
a. 9th and 10th cranial nerves b. pyramidal tract
c. trigeminal nerve d. appetite center of hypothalamus
Ans. a
9) Secretion of intrinsic factor occurs in
a. parietal cells of stomach b. chief cells of stomach
c. upper abdomen d. alpha cells of pancreas
Ans. b
10) In which of the following is absorption of water greatest
a. colon b. jejunum
c. duodenum d. stomach
Ans. b
11) Secretin is released by
a. acid in duodenum b. acid in stomach
c. cells in the liver d. distention of colon
Ans. a
12) Which of the following would not be produced by total pancreatectomy
a. hyperglycaemia b. metabolic acidosis
c. weight gain d. decreased absorption of amino acids
Ans. c
13) Vit D is essential for normal
a. fat absorption b. Ca absorption
c. ADH secretion d. protein absorption
Ans. b
14) Gastrin secretion is increased by
a. acid in the lumen of stomach b. distension of stomach
c. increased circulating levels of secretin d. vagotomy
Ans. b
15) Saliva is responsible for all EXCEPT
a. helps in deglutition b. prevents dental caries
c. is essential for complete digestion of starch d. prevents decalcification of
the teeth
Ans. c

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CNS
1) Lesions of which of the following nuclei cause hypothalamic obesity
a. ventromedial nucleus b. dorsomedial nucleus
c. suprachiasmatic nucleus d. supraoptic nucleus
Ans. a
2) The EPSP
a. is an all or none response to a presynaptic potential b. can be temporarily s
ummated during repetitive presynaptic stimulation
c. always initiates an action potential d. lasts only for the duration of presyn
aptic action potential
Ans. b
3) Following statements are true for dopamine except
a. it is related to Parkinsonism b. it is found in the cells uninhibited by Ach
in basal ganglia
c. it is one of the endogenous opiates from CNS d. it cannot be replaced in CN
S from dietary dopamine
Ans. c
4) Loss of fear and emotion is often observed in the lesion at
a. septal nucleus b. thalamus
c. amygdaloidal nucleus d. sensory cortex
Ans. c
5) The Renshaw cell
a. receive recurrent collaterals from motor neurons and inhibit other motor neur
ons in the vicinity b. is the inhibitory system of cerebellum
c. are a major component of muscle spindle d. are present in retina
Ans. a
6) Premotor cortex refers to
a. some areas anterior to primary motor cortex causing complex co-ordinate movem
ents like speech, eye movements b. an area of motor cortex responsible for volu
ntary movements
c. an area in temporal cortex d. an area of cerebellum
Ans. a
7) Functions of limbic system are all EXCEPT
a. olfaction b. gustation
c. feeding behaviour d. sexual behaviour
Ans. b
8) REM is
a. characterised by delta waves on ECG b. a sound and dreamless sleep
c. characterised by total lack of muscular activity d. referred to as paradoxica
l sleep
Ans. d
9) Sleep deprivation
a. can cause psychotic episodes b. is associated wit sluggishness of thoughts
c. makes a person more alert d. has no effect on the individual
Ans. a
10) The sympathetic system
a. has short post ganglionic fibres b. consists of vagus nerve
c. produces nicotine at its nerve endings d. has a thoraco-lumbar outflow from t
he spinal cord
Ans. d
11) Visceral pain
a. shows relatively rapid adaptation b. is mediated by beta fibres in dorsal roo
t of spinal nerves
can sometimes be relieved by applying irritant to skin can be produced by prolon
ged stimulation of touch receptors
Ans. c
12) The naked nerve endings are responsible for the sensation of
a. pain b. touch
c. hearing d. vision
Ans. a
13) When a normally innervated skeletal muscle is stretched the initial response
is contraction, with increase in the stretch sudden relaxation occurs because o
f
a. decrease in gamma efferent discharge b. inhibition of the discharge from annu
lospiral endings of afferent nerve fibres
decreased activity of afferent nerve fibres from golgi tendon organs d. increase
d activity of afferent nerve fibres from golgi tendon organs
Ans. d
14) After anterolateral cordotomy relief of pain is due to interruption of
a. left dorsal column left ventral spinothalamic tract
c. right lateral spinothalamic tract left lateral spinothalamic tract
Ans. d
15) Parasympathetic system
a. has short preganglionic fibres b. secretes dopamine
c. controls most of the movements and secretions of gut d. brings increase in he
art rate during exercise
Ans. c
16) In a health adult sitting with eyes closed the EEG rhythm observed with elec
trodes on occipital lobes
a. alpha b. theta
c. delta d. beta
Ans. a
17) The basal ganglia are primarily concerned with
a. sensory integration b. short term memory
c. control of movement d. neuroendocrine control
Ans. c
18) Interruption of motor pathways in the internal capsule on one side causes
a. spastic paralysis on the same side b. spastic paralysis on the opposite side
c. flaccid paralysis on the same side d. flaccid paralysis on the opposite side
Ans.b
19) the extrapyramidal system is not concerned with
a. stretch reflex b. righting reflex
c. spasticity d. sensation of viscera
Ans. d
20) After falling down from a staircase a young woman is found to have partial l
oss of voluntary movement on the right side of the body and loss of pain and tem
perature sensation on the left side below the mid-thoracic region. The probable
site of lesion is
a. transection of the right half of the spinal cord in the upper thoracic region
b. transection of the left side of the spinal cord in the upper thoracic regio
n
transection of sensory and motor pathways on the right side of the pons d. trans
ection of the left half of the spinal cord in the lumbar region
Ans. a
21) Thirst is stimulated by
a. increase in plasma osmolality and volume increase in plasma osmolality and de
crease in volume
c. decrease in osmolality and increase in volume d. decrease in plasma osmolalit
y and volume
Ans. d
22)Lesions of which of the following hypothalamic nuclei cause loss of circadian
rhythm
a. ventromedial b. dorsomedial
c. suprachiasmatic d. supraoptic
Ans.c
23) Normal blood flow to the brain is
a. greatly modified by vasomotor control b. about 150ml/min
c. about 750ml/min d. greatly increased during exercise
Ans.c
24) Retrograde amnesia
a. is abolished by prefrontal lobectomy b. responds to drugs that block dopamine
receptors
c. is commonly precipitated by a blow on the head d. is commonly precipitated by
ageing
Ans. c
25) Non fluent aphasia is produced by lesion of
a. Brocas area b. angular gyrus
c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe
Ans. b

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Endocrinology
1) A meal rich in proteins but low in carbohydrates does not cause hypoglycaemia
because
a. glucagon secretion is stimulated by meals b. the meal causes compensatory inc
rease in T4 secretion
c. cortisol in circulation prevents glucose from entering the muscles d. the ami
no acids in the meal are converted to glucose
Ans. a
2) Which of the following is incorrectly paired
a. beta cells-insulin b. F cells- gastrin
c. delta cells- somatostatin d. alpha cells- glucagon
Ans. b
3) After intravenous administration of a large dose of insulin, the return of a
low blood sugar level to normal is delayed by
a. thyrotoxicosis b. glucagon deficiency
c. diabetes d. parathormone deficiency
Ans. b
4 ) Insulin increases entry of glucose into
a. renal tubule b. the mucosa of the small intestine

c. neurons of motor cortex d. skeletal muscle cells

Ans. d
5) Glucagon is not normally found in the
a. brain b. pancreas
c. git d. adrenal glands
Ans. d
6 ) Which of the following is NOT produced by physiological amounts of glucocort
icoids
a. maintenance of normal vascular reactivity b. inhibition of inflammatory resp
onse
c. increased excretion of a water load d. inhibition of ACTH secretion
Ans. b
7) Cortisol increases blood glucose level by
a. increasing lipolysis b. increasing protein synthesis in muscles
c. increasing gluconeogenesis d.increasing growth hormone secretion
Ans. c
8) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
a. are amino acids b. are both secreted by neurons in the autonomic nervous syst
em
c. are polypeptides d. both activate alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
Ans. d
9) A decrease in extracellular volume is expected to cause increased secretion o
f all except
a. vasopressin b. renin
c. thyroxin d. ACTH
Ans. c
10) A patient with parathyroid deficiency 10 days after thyroidectomy will show
a. a low plasma phosphate and Ca++ levels and tetanus b. a low plasma Ca++ level
s, increased muscular excitability and Trousseaus sign
c. high plasma phosphate and Ca++ and bone demineralization d. increased muscula
r excitability, high plasma Ca++ and bone demineralization
Ans. b
11) Which of the following is not involved in regulation of plasma Ca++ levels
a. kidneys b. skin
c. lungs d. intestine
Ans. c
12) Ca++ plays an important role in following biological processes except
a. oxygen utilization b. contraction of cardiac muscle
c. contraction of skeletal muscle d. blood coagulation
Ans. a
13) Epiphyseal closure is regulated by
a. calcitonin b. somatomedins
c. 1,25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol d. thyroxine
Ans. b
14) Which of the following pituitary hormones is a polypeptide
a. MSH b. ACTh
c. beta - endorphin d. growth hormone
Ans. c
15) Growth hormone acts directly on
a. stimulation of protein synthesis b. stimulation of cartilage formation
c. elevation of BSL d. stimulation of bone formation
Ans. c
16) Hypopituitarism is characterized by
a. infertility b. intolerance to heat
c. weight gain d. excessive growth of the soft tissue
Ans. a
17) Excessive growth hormone secretion in adults causes
a. acromegaly b. gigantism
c. increased entry of glucose in muscles d. hypothyroidism
Ans. a
18) Angiotensin increases blood pressure by acting on the following EXCEPT
a. aldosteron secretion b. vascular smooth muscle
c. parasympathetic nervous system d. sympathetic nervous system
Ans. c
19) Erythropoietin
a. contains iron b. has no effect on WBC count
c. stimulates renin secretion d. increases half life of RBC
Ans. b
20) Somatostatin
a. inhibits insulin and glucagoon release b. stimulates insulin and glucagon rel
ease
c. stimulator of glucagon release d. acts as obesity hormone
Ans. a
21) Thyroid hormone stored in the lumen of follicles is in the form of
a. free T3 b. free T4
c. attached to thyroglobulin in the gland d. attached to thyroid binding globuli
n
Ans. c
22) Secretion of growth hormone
a. increases during REM sleep b. increases during exercise
c. increases during starvation d. increases during NREM sleep
Ans. d
23) Atrial natriuretic peptide brings
a. afferent arteriolar constriction in kidney b. efferent arteriolar consrtictio
n in kidney
c. increases renin secretion d. constriction of mesangial cells
Ans. b
24) Thyroid binding globulins are normal in
a. hyperthyroidism b. pregnancy
c. parents treated with glucocorticoids d. parents treated with estrogens
Ans. a
25) In starvation which of the following is reduced
a. plasma T4 b. plasma T3
c. reverse tri-iodothyroxine d. D thyroxine
Ans. b
26) Hypothyroidism is associated with increased levels of
a. cholesterol b. albumin
c. TBG d. iodine
Ans. a
27) The metabolic rate is least affected by an increase in the plasma levels of
a. TSH b. TRH
c. TBG d. none of the above
Ans. c
28) The coupling of mono iodotyrosine and di-iodotyrosine and the iodination of
thyroglobin is blocked by
a. TSH b. TRH
c. iodine d. thiocarbamides such as propylthiouracil
Ans. d
29) Parathyroid hormone
a. decreases Ca++ mobilization of bone b. increases Ca++ mobilization from bone
c. decreases circulating levels of free Ca++ d. increases urinary excretion of C
a++
Ans. b
30) Thyrocalcitonin
a. is secreted by thyroid b. is secreted by hypothalamus
c. is secreted by parathyroid d. increases Ca++ absorption by stomach
Ans. a

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Reproductive System
1) Testosterone is secreted by
a. sertoli cells of testis b. cells of adrenal medulla
c. cells of hypothalamus d. leydig cells of testis
Ans. d
2) Temporary methods of birth control which are best suited to prevent transmis
sion of disease are
a. IUD b. spermatocides
c .condom d. Ru 486
Ans. c
3) Cryptorchidism means
a. descent of testis b. hypogonadism
c. hyperfunction of the testis d. undescended testis
Ans. d
4) Androgen binding protein is produced by
a. adrenals b. hypothalamus
c. sertoli cells d. leydig cells
Ans. c
5) All of the following are produced by the corpus leuteum except
a. estrogens b. progesteron
c. relaxin d. F.S.H.
Ans. d
6) The testis is kept at a temperature of 2-3 degrees C below core temperature d
ue to
a. contraction of cremasteric muscle b. contraction of dartos muscle
c. contraction of internal oblique muscle d. relaxation of cremasteric muscle an
d due to position of the testis outside the pelvic cavity
Ans. d
7) Early detection of pregnancy depends on detection of
a. FSH b. progesteron
c. LH d. HCG
Ans. d
8) Secondary amenorrhoea can most commonly be caused in the following conditions
EXCEPT
a. age above 60 years b. stress
c. pregnancy d. competitive athletes
Ans. a
9) In the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, placental function is best assessed by ur
inary
a. pregnanediol b. pregnanetriol
c. chorionic gonadotropin d. estriol
Ans. c
10) Best method for diagnosing fetal lung maturity is
a. clinical examination b. ultrasonography
c. amniocentesis d. fetal kick counts
Ans. c
11) Full lung maturity is indicated by L/S ratio
a. 2:1 b. 3:1
c. 4:1 d. 5:1
Ans. a
12) The best method to diagnose Rh sensitization in the mother is
a. direct coombs test b. indirect coombs test
c. 'c' antigen d. 'a' antigen
Ans. b
13) Inhibin is secreted by
a. graffian follicle b. corpus leuteum
c. endometrium d. placenta
Ans. a
14) Maximal rise in the levels of prolactin are seen in
a. at term b. after delivery
c. during lactation only d. none of the above
Ans.a
15) Oestrogens are given in high doses to the mother to suppress lactation in
a. cleft palate in child b. highly obese mother
c. to prevent transmission of communicable disease like HIV d. inverted nipples
Ans. c
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Index=>
ESS1002 Human Physiology Multiple Choice Questions
Quiz
Show questions one by one
<= 1 / 55=>
Homeostasis
? refers to the unwavering control of a physiological setpoint.
? refers to maintaining a stable internal environment.
? refers to maintaining a stable external environment.
? A and B.
? A and C.
The concept of homeostasis

? includes the concept of an error signal.

? refers to maintaining physiological functions in a stable condition.
? refers only to the regulation of body temperature.
? A and B.
? B and C.
Hormones
? are chemical regulators that are conveyed from one organ to another via t
he blood stream.
 ? may be secreted by endocrine cells.
? may be secreted by nerve cells.
? A and B.
? A, B and C.
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker) cells in the
heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which ultimately results in a decre
ased heart rate. This is an example of
? endocrine control.
? exocrine control.
? hormonal control.
? neural control.
? none of the above.
The internal pacemaker that sets biological rhythms
? is located in the brain.
? is located in the heart.
? does not function in the absence of light or other environmental cues.
? A and C.
? none of the above.
Diffusion
? depends upon the random motion of molecules.
? results in net movement of molecules from regions of low concentration to
regions of high concentration.
? is important for moving molecules over large distances in the body.
? A and B.
? A and C.
The term metabolism

? refers to all the chemical reactions that occur in the body.

? includes the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules.
? includes the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler molecules.
? includes anabolism and catabolism.
? is described by all of the above.
ATP
? is formed during the hydrolysis of ADP.
? is used by cells for the storage of energy.
? represents the energy currency of all cells.
? A and C.
? B and C.
The site where most of the ATP is generated in a cell is the
? nucleus.
? plasma membrane.
? endoplasmic reticulum.
? Golgi apparatus.
? mitochondria.
Glycolysis
? does not occur in the absence of O2.
? does not occur in the presence of O2.
? may result in the formation of two moles of lactate for each mole of gluc
ose.
? A and C.
? B and C.
Which of the following metabolic pathways does not require oxygen?
 ? Glycolysis.
? Oxidative phosphorylation.
? The Krebs cycle.
? The breakdown of fatty acids to CO2 and H2O.
?
None of the above.
Glycolysis

? yields two moles of ATP for each mole of glucose processed.

? may yield two moles of lactate for each mole of glucose processed.
? takes place in the mitochondria of cells.
? A and B.
? A, B and C.
The reactions of the Krebs cycle
? take place in the cytosol of cells.
? generate ATP directly by substrate phosphorylation.
? are important for the metabolism of carbohydrates but not other molecules
.
? A and B.
? All of the above.
Which of the following statements concerning complete oxidation of glucose is tr
ue?
? Carbon dioxide is not released.
? Oxygen is released.
? Oxygen is used during the Krebs cycle reactions.
? Carbon dioxide is released during the Krebs cycle reactions.
? None of the above.
When glucose is catabolised in the absence of oxygen,
? pyruvate formed in glycolysis will generally be converted to lactate.
? pyruvate formed in glycolysis will generally be converted to acetyl coenz
yme A, which will enter the Krebs cycle.
? the number of ATP moles formed per mole of glucose will be less than the
number formed in the presence of oxygen.
? A and C.
? B and C.
Which of the following statements concerning energy storage in the body is true?

? Most is stored in the form of ATP.

? Most is stored in the form of glucose.
? Most is stored in the form of fat.
? Most is stored in the form of protein.
? Most is stored in the form of DNA.
The resting membrane potential

? occurs only in nerve and muscle cells.

? is the same in all cells.
? is oriented so that the cell's interior is positive with respect to the e
xtracellular fluid.
? requires the separation of most of the cell's charged particles.
? none of the above.
For an action potential to occur,
? the stimulus must reach or exceed threshold.
? Na+ influx must exceed K+ efflux.
 ? the membrane must be out of the relative refractory period.
? A and B.
? A, B and C.
During the rising phase of an action potential,
? Voltage-gated Na+ channels open.
? Voltage-gated K+ channels open.
? Voltage-gated Na+ channels close.
? Voltage-gated K+ channels close.
? A and D.
Which of the following statements concerning the rate of action potential propag
ation is true?
? It is faster in large-diameter axons than in small-diameter ones.
? It is faster for a strong stimulus than for a weak one.
? It is faster in myelinated nerve fibres than in non-myelinated ones.
? A and C.
? A, B and C.
Thick filaments in skeletal muscle are composed of
? actin.
? myosin.
? troponin.
? calmodulin.
? tropomyosin.
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the

? sarcomeres shorten.
? A bands shorten.
? I bands shorten.
? A and C.
? B and C.
Which of the following statements regarding the shortening of a skeletal-muscle
fibre is not true? When a skeletal-muscle fibre shortens,
? the sarcomeres shorten.
? the distance between Z lines decreases.
? the myofilaments shorten.
?
the myofilaments slide past each other.
? the length of the A bands remains the same.
In skeletal muscle, calcium facilitates contraction by binding to
? tropomyosin.
? actin.
? troponin.
? myosin.
? the thick filament.
Rigor mortis occurs in a dead animal because
? ATP, which is necessary for the detachment of cross bridges, is not being
formed.
? ATP, which is necessary for the formation of cross bridges, is not being
formed
? ATP, which is necessary for the formation of cross bridges, continues to
be formed for several hours after death.
? deterioration of muscle proteins prevents detachment of cross bridges.
? none of the above.
Motor unit refers to
 ? a single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibres it innervates.
? a single muscle fibre plus all of the motor neurons that innervate it.
? all of the motor neurons supplying a single muscle.
? a pair of antagonistic muscles.
? all of the muscles that affect the movement of any given joint.
An action potential in the motor end plate rapidly spreads to the central portio
ns of a muscle cell by means of the

? Z lines.
? sarcoplasmic reticulum.
? H zone.
? transverse tubules.
? pores in the plasma membrane.
During an isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle,
? the I bands shorten and the A bands stay the same length.
? the thick and thin filaments slide past each other.
? sarcomere length does not change.
? A and B.
? none of the above.
Which of the following is not true regarding the comparison of type I (slow oxid
ative) and type II b (fast-glycolytic) skeletal-muscle fibres?
? Type I fibres have more abundant mitochondria.
? Type I fibres fatigue more readily.
? Type I fibres have more abundant myoglobin.
? Type I fibres have more abundant capillaries.
? Type I motor units contain fewer fibres than type IIb motor units.
Which of the following statements about different kinds of skeletal-muscle fibre
s is true?

? Slow-oxidative fibres have a greater abundance of glycogen than do fast-g

lycolytic fibres.
? Fast-glycolytic fibres have a greater abundance of myoglobin than do slow
-oxidative fibres.
? Fast-glycolytic fibres can generate greater tension than can slow-oxidati
ve fibres.
? A and B.
? A, B and C.
Fast-glycolytic muscle fibres differ from slow-oxidative fibres in that
? the former rely on creatine phosphate as an ATP source for the first few
seconds of contraction whereas the latter do not.
? the former have a smaller diameter than the latter.
? the former can generate greater maximal tension than the latter.
? the former generate less lactic acid than do the latter.
? all of the above are true.
John is a sprinter who specialises in quick and powerful bursts of speed followe
d by periods of rest. Jim is a marathon runner who specializes in long, steady r
uns. Compared to Jim, John is likely to have

? legs with a larger diameter.

 ? legs with a smaller diameter.
? hypertrophy of type I muscle fibres.
? A and C.
? B and C.
The fibres in a muscle spindle
? are not true muscle fibres because they cannot contract.
? are innervated by gamma motor neurons.
? function to maintain tension on spindle receptors.
? B and C.
? A, B and C.
Golgi tendon organs
? are located in the tendons joining muscle and bone.
? monitor the strength of muscle contractions.
? are associated with monosynaptic reflexes.
? A and B.
? A, B and C.
The master gland of the endocrine system
? is the anterior pituitary gland.
? is the posterior pituitary gland.
? is the hypothalamus.
? is the pancreas.
? is the testis.
Which of the following statements is not true of the endocrine system?

? It is one of two major regulatory systems of the body.

? It is composed of glands that secrete chemical messengers into the blood.
? It is an important regulator of homeostatic mechanisms.
? It influences and is influenced by the nervous system
? None of the above.
Endocrine regulation
? refers to chemical regulators that are conveyed from one organ to another
via the blood stream.
? is slower than regulation by neurotransmission.
? differs from paracrine regulation in that endocrine regulators act on dif
ferent cell types from those that secreted them, whereas paracrine regulators ar
e secreted by the same cell type on which they act.
? A and B.
? A, B and C.
The pacemaker of the heart is normally the
? sinoatrial node.
? atrioventricular node.
? mitral valve.
? bundle of His.
? left ventricle.
In an electrocardiogram, the QRS complex represents the
? depolarisation of the atria.
? repolarisation of the atria.
? depolarisation of the ventricles.
? repolarisation of the ventricles.
? the delay at the AV node.
An ECG would be useful for determining a patient's
 ? heart murmur.
? stroke volume.
? cardiac output.
? blockage of conduction of electrical signals between the atria and the ve
ntricles.
? none of the above.
During the cardiac cycle,

? the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than th
at leaving the right side.
? the pressure of blood leaving the right side of the heart is greater than
that leaving the left side.
? the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.
? the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.
? A and D.
The aortic valve

? prevents the backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular diastole
.
? prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular
diastole.
? prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular
ejection.
? prevents the backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular ejection
.
? closes when the first heart sound is heard.
Cardiac output is the
? volume of blood pumped per minute by both ventricles.
? volume of blood flowing through the systemic circulation each minute.
? product of the number of heartbeats per minute and the volume pumped per
beat.
? A and C.
? B and C.
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
? the left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood with each systole than
the right ventricle.
? the intrinsic rate of the heart's pacemaker is 100 beats/min.
? cardiac output increases with increased heart rate.
? stroke volume increases with increased venous return.
? both ventricles contract simultaneously.
Distinguishing characteristics of veins include which of the following?
? All veins carry deoxygenated blood.
? All veins carry blood toward the heart.
? All veins have thick, elastic walls.
? A and B.
? B and C.
During exercise, there is an increased flow of blood to
? the brain.
? the kidneys.
? the skin.
? B and C.
? A, B and C.
Which of the following does not contribute to increased stroke volume during exe
rcise?
 ? Increased contractility of cardiac muscle.
? Increased venous return.
? Increased length of filling time during diastole.
? Increased sympathetic stimulation of ventricular muscle.
? Increased end-diastolic volume.
Inhalation/inspiration occurs as a result of

? an upward movement of the diaphragm.

? movement of the ribs closer together due to contraction of the inspirator
y/inhalatory intercostal muscles.
? a downward movement of the diaphragm.
? A and B.
? B and C.
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure must
? be lower than alveolar pressure.
? be between +5 and +10 mmHg above atmospheric pressure.
? alternate between being less than and greater than atmospheric pressure.
? change as the respiratory demands of the body change.
? be the same as atmospheric pressure.
During a physical examination, Joe learns that his resting tidal volume is 500 m
L; his average resting respiratory rate is 12 breaths per minute; his total lung
capacity is 6000 mL; and his anatomic dead space is 150 mL. Joe's resting alveo
lar ventilation is
? 72.0 L×min-1.
? 6.0 L×min-1.
? 4.2 L×min-1.
? 1.8 L×min-1.
? 0.5 L×min-1
Oxygen is carried in blood
? bound to haemoglobin.
? dissolved in the plasma.
? dissolved in the cytosol of erythrocytes.
? A and C.
? A, B and C.
Which of the following would cause a decrease in the binding affinity of haemogl
obin for oxygen?

? Increased pH of the blood.

? Increased temperature of the blood.
? Decreased DPG levels in erythrocytes.
? A and B.
? B and C.
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood

? is dissolved in the plasma.

? is bound to hemoglobin.
? is in carbonic acid.
? is in bicarbonate ion.
? is in carbonic anhydrase.
Insulin
? increases the uptake and utilization of glucose by muscle and adipose-tis
sue cells.
 ? increases the uptake and utilization of glucose by most nerve cells.
? decreases the uptake of amino acids by muscle cells.
? A and B.
? A and C.
Which of the following tissues is most dependent upon a constant blood supply of
glucose?
? Liver.
? Brain.
? Adipose tissue.
? Skeletal muscle.
? Cardiac muscle.
-----------------------------------------------

1. Where is ATP produced?

a) Nucleus
b) Nucleolus
c) Mitochondria
d) Ribosomes

2. The popliteal nodes are located;

a) In the neck
b) Behind the knee
c) On the tonsils
d) In the spleen

3. The pulmonary artery;

a) Carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
b) Carries oxygenated blood to the lungs
c) Carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the body
d) Carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the body

4. What organ secretes intestinal juices?

a) Small intestine
b) Liver
c) Gall bladder
d) Pancreas

5. Voluntary muscle is also known as;

a) Smooth muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Unstriated muscle
d) Skeletal muscle

6. What is the function of hyaline cartilage?

a) Helps to maintain the shape of an area
b) Flexibility & support
c) To add nutrients to articulating surfaces
d) Stretch & recoil

7. How is melanin produced?

a) By cells called melanocytes
b) During the process of desquamation
c) In the sweat glands of the dermis
d) By cells called histiocytes

8. What type of bones allow the body to move?

a) Short bones
b) Flat bones
c) Sesamoid bones
d) Long bones

9. Erythrocytes are;
a) Cells that fight infection
b) Cells that transport oxygen as oxyhaemoglobin around the body
c) Cells responsible for blood clotting
d) Cells that form collagen

10. Which muscle lifts the upper lip?

a) Levator labii superioris
b) Zygomaticus
c) Levator palpebrae
d) Splenius capitis

11. Sebum which becomes trapped in the base of a hair follicle with no surface o
pening causes;
a) Blackheads
b) Whiteheads
c) Dermatitis
d) Acne rosacea

12. Where is cancellous bone found?

a) Ends of long bones and in irregular bones
b) Ends of irregular bones
c) Ends of long bones and in short, flat, irregular bones
d) Ends of long bones and in flat bones

13. What is the action of the vastus medialis?

a) Flexes knee
b) Extends knee
c) Flexes hip
d) Extends hip

14. Systole relates to;

a)The period of time when the heart is contracting
b) The heartbeat
c) The period of time when the heart is relaxing
d) The pulse

15. What is the function of lymphatic vessels?

a) Transport lymph to the lymph nodes
b) Transport lymph to the lymphatic capillaries
c) Transport lymph to the lymphatic ducts
d) Transport lymph towards the heart

16. Which hormone does the adrenal medulla secrete?

a) Glucocorticoids
b) Adrenaline
c) Insulin
d) Testosterone

17. Which part of the brain is the relay station?

a) The cerebrum
b) The medulla oblongata
c) The midbrain
d) The pons varolii
18. Where does fertilization take place in the female reproductive system?
a) Uterus
b) Fallopian tubes
c) Uterus
d) Ovaries

19. What is the function of the pleural cavity?

a) To prevent friction between the layers of the lungs
b) To exchange gases between the layers of the lungs
c) To prevent a backflow of air between the layers of the lungs
d) To moisten the layers of the lungs

20. What is the function of antidiuretic hormone?

a) Stimulates basic metabolic rate
b) Increases water reabsorption in kidneys
c) Maintains calcium levels in bones
d) Contracts the uterus during labour

Answers: 1 (c), 2 (b), 3 (a), 4 (a), 5 (d), 6 (b), 7 (a), 8 (d), 9 (b), 10 (a),
11 (b), 12 (c), 13 (b), 14 (a), 15 (d), 16 (b), 17 (c), 18 (b), 19 (a), 20 (b).