By Cooper P. Abrams
(All Rights Reserved)
"church."(3) This was actually the first edition of the Geneva Bible
and was a revision of the Tyndale New Testament. The Tyndale (1526)
translation had used the term "congregation."
The Matthew's Bible (1537), translated by John Rogers who used
the pen name of Thomas Matthew, correctly used the word
"congregation." He was an assistant and friend of William Tyndale.
The Matthew's Bible was the first entire Tyndale Bible. Tyndale
completed the New Testament, and part of the Old Testament before
he was martyred. Matthew completed the translation of the Old
Testament (using some work from Coverdale) and published the first
entire Tyndale Bible under the name "Thomas Matthew." The Great
Bible (1539) also used the term "congregation." The Geneva New
Testament of 1557, produced by William Whittingham, was the first to
use the word "church" (note the Protestant source of the translation).
The Bishop's Bible (1568) was a revision of the Geneva Bible and
continued the use of the term "church." (For an article adddressing
the translation of the word "ekklesia" as "church" click here.)
This shows that the use of the word "church", instead of
"assembly" or "congregation", came from those who had a
hierarchical and unscriptural form of church government. To have
translated the word "ekklesia" accurately into "assembly" or
congregation" would have exposed their form of church government
as being in error. They knew the truth that God had not set up a
hierarchical form of church government and deliberately used the
word "church" to confuse and support their false doctrine.
What then does the biblical word, translated as church, really
mean? It simply means an assembly of people. The New Testament
knows nothing of using any formal word to refer exclusively to the
assembly of believers.