The Foundation Examination

Sample Examination Paper 1

Multiple Choice

Instructions

1. All 75 questions should be attempted.

2. There are no trick questions.

3. All answers are to be marked on the original examination paper.

4. Please use a pen to mark your answers with either a √ or X.

5. You have 1 hour for this paper.

6. You must get 38 or more correct to pass.

Candidate Number: ........................................

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 1. Which phrase applies to the user representative in a PRINCE project
management team?

a) They will be impacted by the outcome

b) They may need to use both in-house and external teams to
construct the final outcome
c) Representation from the business viewpoint
d) Will provide the funding

2. Which stage does PRINCE recommend should always be used?

a) Project Closure
b) Implementation
c) Testing
d) Initiation
e) Specification

3. Name one of the products of the process “Starting Up A Project”.

a) Project Mandate
b) Project Initiation Document
c) Project Brief
d) Issue Log
e) Lessons Learned blank report

4. In which process are team plans produced?

a) Executing a Work Package

b) Accepting a Work Package
c) Authorising a Work Package
d) Reviewing Stage Status

5. Which document reviews actual achievements against the Project

Initiation Document?

a) End Project Report

b) Post Project Review
c) Lessons Learned Report
d) Follow-On Action Recommendations

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 6. In which section of filing is it recommended that Product Descriptions
should be placed?

a) Project plans
b) Stage control
c) Quality
d) Specialist

7. A statement of the products to be produced is a component of what?

a) The Configuration Management Method

b) A Product Description
c) The Project Mandate
d) A Plan

8. After Initiation in which process is risk assessment mandated?

a) Controlling a Stage
b) Managing Stage Boundaries
c) Managing Product Delivery
d) Closing a Project

9. Project controls are set up based on the Project Brief, the Project Quality
Plan and which other product?

a) The Project Plan

b) The Risk Log
c) The Business Case
d) The Project Approach

10. Two products are re-assessed and refined to reflect the current
understanding of the project, and to form a basis for updating the Project
Plan. Which are they?

a) The issue log and the risk log

b) The project initiation document and the project management

team structure
c) The project quality plan and project approach
d) The business case and the risk log

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 11. Which of the following is not a quality product?

a) Issue Log
b) Product Descriptions
c) Quality Plan
d) Risk Log

12. What is defined as standard elements to tolerance?

a) Quality & Time

b) Time & Cost
c) Percentage
d) Cost & Scope

13. In PRINCE all potential changes are dealt with as ...?

a) Configuration items
b) Requests for Change
c) Project Issues
d) Exception Reports
e) Action items

14. Apart from the Issue Log, which other product is updated in the process
“Examining Project Issues”?

a) The stage plan

b) The Risk Log
c) The Work Package
d) The Business Case

15. Which sub process produces the draft product checklist?

a) Defining and Analysing Products

b) Designing a Plan
c) Scheduling
d) Completing a Plan

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 16. With which process does the Quality Review technique NOT have close
ties?

a) Planning
b) Managing Product Delivery
c) Authorising Work Packages
d) Assessing Progress
e) Taking Corrective Action

17. Who acts as the project’s “voice” to the outside world?

a) Project Manager
b) Project Board
c) Senior User
d) Team Manager

18. Where a management stage ends part way through one or more elements
of specialist work, what technique is useful in helping to identify the
detailed products to be processed in a given management stage?

a) Configuration Management
b) Work Package Authorisation
c) The Management of Risk
d) Product-Based Planning

19. In which sub-process is the Risk Log created?

a) Planning A Project
b) Setting Up Project Controls
c) Refining the Business Case and Risks
d) Preparing a Project Brief

20. Where, minimally, should the Lessons Learned Report be updated?

a) Planning a Stage
b) Reporting Stage End
c) Updating a Project Plan
d) Producing an Exception Plan

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 21. What is the fundamental principle behind the sub process “Authorising
Initiation”?

a) No-one should commit to large expenditure on the project

before verifying that it is sensible to do so
b) No project should commit to significant expenditure without
checking that it fits with any relevant corporate and programme
strategy
c) No one should commit to significant expenditure without
checking that the project will be appropriately controlled

22. Which of the following options is NOT part of a plan’s text?

a) The intended approach

b) Any assumptions
c) How adherence is to be monitored and controlled
d) Impact on the business case
e) Assessment of the risks

23. In PRINCE the term “stage”

a) Applies to a set of related functions

b) Is the collective noun for a number of phases
c) Describes a partitioning of the project with decision points
d) Relates to payment for work done

24. Which of these products is not part of the Project Initiation Document?

a) The Next Stage Plan

b) The Project Filing Structure
c) The Project Approach
d) The Project Quality Plan

25. Which product evaluates the actual project outcome versus that envisaged
in the project initiation document?

a) Product Checklist
b) Project Closure Meeting
c) Lessons Learned Report
d) End Project Report

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 26. When should a Product Description be baselined?

a) As soon as it is available in draft form

b) When the associated product has passed its quality check
c) When the plan containing its creation is baselined
d) As soon as it is written

27. Which of the following is NOT a Project Board control?

a) Work Package Authorisation

b) Highlight Report
c) Mid Stage Assessment
d) End Stage Assessment

28. If there is a need to know what the precise components of a product were
three months ago, what part of PRINCE would most help us?

a) The stage plan

b) The Issue Log
c) Configuration Management
d) Work Package Authorisations
e) Highlight Reports
f) Checkpoint Reports

29. In which process is the Quality Log updated?

a) Delivering a Work Package

b) Executing a Work Package
c) Reviewing Stage Status
d) Assessing Progress

30. In the PRINCE 2 approach, stages (and their duration’s) are defined by
reference to:

a) The technical skills required

b) The length of the project
c) How far ahead it is sensible to plan
d) The budget allocated to the project

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 31. Which role should advise on suitable reviewers for a Quality Review?

a) Project Support Office

b) Project Manager
c) Project Board
d) Project Assurance
e) Team Manager

32. Which role is defined as “optional”?

a) Senior Supplier
b) Project Assurance
c) Team Manager
d) Configuration Librarian

33. What purpose does risk evaluation serve?

a) Decides whether the level of each risk is acceptable

b) Determines how important each risk is
c) Determines the potential risks which could be faced by the project
d) Assesses the likelihood and consequences of a risk

34. The Project Plan is based on the Project Brief, the Project Quality
Plan and which other product?

a) The Project Approach

b) The Project Initiation Document
c) The Business Case
d) The Risk Log

35. Which sub process checks for any changes to the project management
team?

a) Planning a Stage
b) Updating the Project Plan
c) Reporting Stage End
d) Reviewing Stage Status

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 36. Given that producing a Product Breakdown Structure and a Product Flow
Diagram are two of the steps of product-based planning, what is the third?

a) Identifying activities and dependencies

b) Writing Product Descriptions
c) Scheduling
d) Defining and analysing products

37. What does PRINCE take as the “official” start of a project?

a) Project Mandate
b) Project Board appointment
c) Authorising Initiation
d) Project Initiation Document approval
e) Project manager appointment

38. When does the Project Board decide where the authority for making
change lies?

a) During Starting Up A Project

b) During Authorising Initiation
c) Before leaving Initiation
d) Authorising a Stage

39. As part of Assessing Progress the Project Manager looks at Checkpoint

Reports, Work Packages status and what other product?

a) The Issue Log

b) The Quality Log
c) The Business Case
d) The Risk Log

40. Apart from the Issue Log, which product is an input to the sub process
“Identifying Follow-On Actions?

a) End project report

b) Business case
c) Lessons learned report
d) Quality log

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 41. Who should re-evaluate the priority of an issue after impact analysis?

a) The Project Manager

b) Those with Assurance responsibilities
c) The Author
d) The Senior User

42. The PRINCE concept of “management stages” equates to

a) the delivery of a major product

b) the use of a particular set of specialist skills

c) commitment of resources and authority to spend
d) design, build and implementation

43. The decision on whether a project’s solution will be contracted to third

parties is made in which product?

a) The Project Plan

b) The Project Approach
c) The Project Initiation Document
d) The Project Quality Plan

44. When does a Team Manager report on the status of a Work Package to the
Project Manager?

a) Weekly Checkpoint Reports

b) On completion of the Work Package
c) On an ad hoc basis triggered by the process “Assessing Progress”
d) At the frequency defined in the Work Package

45. Which sub process may trigger a premature close to the project?

a) Taking Corrective Action

b) Examining Project Issues
c) Confirm Project Closure
d) Ad Hoc Direction

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 46. Defining when and by whom a product will be tested is part of which
process?

a) Planning Quality
b) Authorising Work Package
c) Assessing Progress
d) Planning a Stage

47. “Controlling a Stage” drives which other process?

a) Managing Stage Boundaries

b) Ad Hoc Direction
c) Managing Product Delivery
d) Planning

48. Which of the following is an action in the sub process “De-commissioning

a Project”?

a) Recommend a date and plan for post project review

b) Check that all project issues are closed
c) Assess the quality of the project’s management
d) Archive project files
e) All of the above

f) B and D

49. If the Project Board decides to accept an Off Specification without any
corrective action, what is this called?

a) An exception
b) A concession
c) An action item
d) A deviation

50. Which of these statements is FALSE?

a) A PRINCE project has a finite life span

b) A PRINCE project has a defined amount of resources

c) A PRINCE project may have only activities, i.e. no products

d) A PRINCE project has an organisation structure with defined
responsibilities, to manage the project

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 51. Which of these statements is FALSE?

a) The Project Plan is an overview of the total project

b) For each stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required

c) An Exception Plan needs to the approval of the Project Board

d) At least one Team Plan is needed for every Team Manager

52. The key to successful use of the process model is where each process is
approached with a key question. Which of the following is the key
question?

a) “Is this process really relevant and necessary to this project?”

b) “Is how I use this process clear? If not, is it any clearer at the
next level down?”
c) “How extensively should this process be applied on this project?”
d) “How can I prove that I have done this process adequately?”

53. By what are technical stages (as opposed to management stages) typified?

a) They overlap with each other

b) The use of a particular set of specialist skills
c) Technical names
d) Irregular spans of time

54. Which of these is NOT a particular objective of an End Stage Assessment?

a) Check that the need for the project has not changed
b) Review the Next Stage Plan against the Project Plans
c) Disseminate useful lessons learned
d) Review the tolerances set for the next stage

55. Which one of these is NOT a Project Issue?

a) Project Exception
b) Request For Change
c) A Specialist Query
d) Statement of Concern

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 56. Who may submit a Project Issue?

a) Only someone in the management team below the Project Board

b) Only the Project Manager
c) Only the Project Board
d) Anyone

57. Which one of these products is NOT an output from Closing a Project?

a) Lessons Learned Report

b) Post Project Review Plan
c) Follow-on Action recommendations
d) Issue Log

58. Which is an UNTRUE purpose of Configuration Management?

a) To identify products
b) To create products
c) To track products
d) To protect products

59. Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance
Criteria?

a) A justification for undertaking the project based on estimated

costs and anticipated benefits
b) A measurable definition of what must be done for the final
product to be acceptable to the Customer
c) To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project
d) To trigger Starting Up a Project

60. Which of these is NOT a valid risk management action?

a) Prevention
b) Denial
c) Reduction
d) Transference
e) Contingency

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 61. Which one of these is NOT a key criteria for producing a Product Flow
Diagram?

a) Are the products clearly and unambiguously defined?

b) On what other products is each product dependent?

c) Is any product dependent on a product outside the scope of
this plan
d) Which products can be developed in parallel?

62. Why would a copy of the Project Issue be returned to the author?

a) The author owns it

b) To acknowledge its receipt and entry into the system
c) To elicit further information
d) To notify rejection of the issue

63. In which category is a Lessons Learned Report?

a) a Management Product
b) a Quality Product
c) a Specialist Product

64. When should a Product Description be written?

a) At the start of a project

b) As soon as possible after the need for the product has been
identified
c) Before authorising a Work Package that will contribute to its
development
d) After the product has been created

65. In Planning, which of these processes comes before Estimating?

a) Identifying Activities and Dependencies

b) Analysing Risks
c) Completing a Plan
d) Scheduling

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 66. What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for
Change?

a) Project and Stage Tolerances

b) A Change Budget
c) Contingency Plans
d) Adding a contingency margin to estimates

67. Which one of these is the true principle behind Evaluating a Project?

a) Successful organisations learn from their experience with projects.

This is more likely if the lessons learned are preserved beyond the
end of the project.
b) If the project is a failure then knowing where the blame lies is
important
c) Not everyone involved in a project may subjectively agree whether
the project was a success or failure. Some objective assessment
is needed to establish this

68. Which one of these statements is UNTRUE for Planning?

a) PRINCE provides a product-based start to the planning activity

b) Planning is an iterative process
c) Product-Based Planning is a key technique of PRINCE
d) Plans monitor and control progress

69. Which one of these products is NOT an input to Producing an Exception

Plan?

a) Current Stage Plan

b) Lessons Learned Report
c) Issue Log
d) Exception Report

70. In Decommissioning a Project the project files are archived. What is the
explanation given for this?

a) It will make interesting reading in years to come

b) Never throw anything away
c) This material may be needed by Programme Management
d) Preserve the project records for use by auditors or other enquiries

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1

 71. Who is primarily responsible for executing the Controlling a Stage group
of processes?

a) The Project Manager

b) The Project Board
c) Project Assurance
d) The Executive

72. Which one of these is NOT a Managing Product Delivery process?

a) Accepting a Work Package

b) Executing a Work Package
c) Assessing a Work Package
d) Delivering a Work Package

73. Which of these Managing Stage Boundaries processes is NOT done

routinely at the planned end of a stage?

a) Updating a Project Plan

b) Updating a Project Business Case
c) Updating the Risk Log
d) Producing an Exception Plan

74. Which of these Starting Up a Project processes creates a blank Risk Log?

a) Appointing a PB Executive and a PM

b) Preparing a Project Brief
c) Defining a Project Approach
d) Planning an Initiation Stage

75. What is the first lower level process in Initiating a Project?

a) Planning a Project
b) Refining the Business Case
c) Planning Quality
d) Setting up Project Files

Ver.3.1 Doc Ref: P2.Pract.Paper1.V3.1