CHN POWER BULLETS BY: COACH PJ

DEFINITION OF TERMS ____________________ is defined as the art of preventing disease, prolonging life, and promoting health to enable every citizen to realize his birthright to health and LONGEVITY. ____________________ is defined as the utilization of the nursing process in the different levels of clientele for the PROMOTION OF HEALTH, PREVENTION OF DISEASE, and REHABILITATION. ____________________ is defined as a special field of nursing that combines the skills of NURSING and PUBLIC HEALTH. BASIC PRINCIPLES OF CHN The _________ is the PATIENT in Community Health Nursing. The _________ is considered as the BASIC UNIT OF CARE in CHN. The _________ is the ENTRY POINT in working with the family. In Community Health Nursing, the client is considered a passive recipient of care. True or False? The PRIMARY FOCUS of Community Health Nursing is __________. The ULTIMATE GOAL of CHN is ________________________. The Community Health Nurse is said to be a _____________ in terms of practice. HINT: Jack of all trades. The PRIMARY RESPONSIBILITY of the CHN is ________________. ROLES OF THE PUBLIC HEALTH NURSE The PHN conducts follow-up home visits to families with children who are taking antibiotics for pneumonia. What role is she performing? The PHN conducts a lecture about ways on how to prevent diseases such as dengue through environmental sanitation at the health center. The PHN taps a local NGO for a joint sponsorship of a one-day free circumcision program during summer. The PHN assigns midwives under her supervision to attend a provincial training on updates regarding IMCI. The PHN initiates a community-wide clean-up of the water systems in the area. The PHN conducts disease surveillance or the continuous collection and analysis of data on dengue. Who will take charge of the RHU in the absence of the Municipal Health Officer? What are the qualifications to become a Public Health Nurse? ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH The DOH is the LEADER, staunch advocate, and model in promoting health for all in the Philippines. This is the ________ of the DOH. GUARANTEE equitable, sustainable, and quality health for all Filipinos, especially the poor, and lead the quest for excellence in health. This is the __________ of the Department of Health. The GOAL of the Department of Health is ________. HINT: 4 letters The four (4) elements of FOURmula ONE for Health are: HINT: Go! Go! FIRES! Local Government Code of 1991 a.k.a. Republic Act ________ _____________ is the TRANSFER OF POWER AND AUTHORITY from the national government to the local government units to perform specific functions and responsibilities, including health services. The _________ is the chairperson of the municipal health board. The _________ is the vice-chairperson of the municipal health board. PRIMARY HEALTH CARE Primary Health Care is __1__health care made universally __2__ to individuals and families in the community by means __3__ to them through their full __4__ and at a cost that the community and country can __5__ at every stage of development. Legal basis of PHC in the Philippines. The UNDERLYING THEME of the implementation of PHC in the Philippines is ________________________________________.

ANSWER

ANSWER

The nine (9) ELEMENTS/COMPONENTS of Primary Health Care are: HINT: CHELEMENT

The KEY STRATEGY for obtaining the mission of PHC is _________. FAMILY HEALTH NURSING _________________ is the process of determining EXISTING AND POTENTIAL HEALTH CONDITIONS OR PROBLEMS of the family. HINT: ASSESSMENT LEVEL _________________ identifies the NATURE OR TYPE OF NURSING PROBLEMS the family experiences in the performance of their health tasks with respect to a certain health condition or health problem. HINT: ASSESSMENT LEVEL ANSWER

_________ are CONDITIONS CONDUCIVE TO DISEASE, accident, or failure to realize ones own potentials. (e.g. lack of immunization) _______________ are conditions wherein there is FAILURE IN HEALTH MAINTENANCE. (e.g. tuberculosis, disability) ANTICIPATED PERIODS OF UNUSUAL DEMAND on the individual or family in terms of adjustment or family resources. EXPANDED PROGRAM ON IMMUNIZATION ANSWER

The seven (7) immunizable diseases covered by EPI are:

Legal basis of EPI When to discard unused DPT, Polio, Measles, and TT vaccines? Unused BCG vaccine is discarded _______ after reconstitution. Up to what age can you still give immunization to a child? Indolent ulceration after BCG vaccination is treated with __________. Fever after DPT vaccine is managed by _________ and _________. Absolute contraindication for DPT is a history of ________________. The two (2) vaccines MOST sensitive to heat are ______ and ______ The temperature in the BODY OF THE REFRIGERATOR used for the storage of vaccines should be maintained at _____________. NON-COMMUNICABLE DISEASE PROGRAM The four (4) major non-communicable/lifestyle-related diseases in the Philippines are _______, _______, _______, and _______. The three (3) major risk factors COMMONLY SHARED by the four major lifestyle-related diseases are _______, _______, and _______. A blood pressure reading of 120/80 mm Hg is classified as ________ according of the JNC VII. Body mass index of 25 is considered to be _____________. ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH & SANITATION The three (3) components of the Epidemiologic triangle are: Sanitation Code of the Philippines Clean Air Act of 1999 _______ water supply facility includes protected well and developed springs. _______ water supply facility includes communal faucet/stand-posts _______ water supply facility includes water works system or individual house connections ANSWER ANSWER

_______ toilet facility uses water carriage type connected to a SEWERAGE SYSTEM. _______ toilet facility uses water carriage type with SEPTIC TANK. Examples of __________ toilet facilities are pit latrines, reed odorless earth closet, pour flush toilet, and aqua privies. The rule in food safety is ______________________. The four (4) rights in food safety are: How long drinking water must be boiled? When cooking/reheating food, ALL PARTS should reach what temperature? Cooked food should NOT be left at room temp. for more than ______ INFECTIOUS wastes are disposed in a _________ bag. Non-infectious DRY wastes are disposed in a _________ bag. Non-infectious WET wastes are disposed in a _________ bag. RADIOACTIVE wastes should be placed in an __________ bag. NUTRITION PROGRAM Nutrition Act is a.k.a. __________ Milk Code is a.k.a. ___________ FIDEL salt is ___________ Food Fortification Act is _______________ Nutrition month is observed yearly during the month of ___________ OLD MANS FACE is seen in ____________ FLAG SIGN is seen in _____________ How much Vitamin A will you give as supplementation for an INFANT 6 to 11 months old? How many doses? How much Vitamin A will you give as supplementation for a PRESCHOOLER 12 to 71 months old? How often? How much Vitamin A will you give a PREGNANT WOMAN? When will you give it? How often? How much Vitamin A will you give a POSTPARTUM MOTHER? When will you give it? For INFANTS with xeropthalmia you will give ___1___ IU of Vitamin A in 3 doses. The first dose will be given ___2___, second dose will be given ___3___, and the last dose shall be given ___4___. For with xeropthalmia you will give ___1___ IU of Vitamin A in 3 doses. The first dose will be given ___2___, second dose will be given ___3___, and the last dose shall be given ___4___. ANSWER

HERBAL MEDICINES Traditional and Alternative Medicine Act (TAMA Law) Tsaang Gubat can be used for __________________. Helminthiasis can be treated with ________________. A child with ring worm can be treated with _______________. For patients with gout, _____________ can help lower the uric acid. For fever, common cold, and cough the best herb to be used is _____ Yerba Buena is used for ______________. ______________ has a diuretic effect. ______________ can be used as an antiseptic. COMMUNICABLE DISEASE ETIOLOGIC AGENT Rubeola virus Typhoid fever Diptheria Tetanus Streptococcus pneumoniae

ANSWER

PATHOGNOMONIC SIGNS

Raspberry tongue Malaria S Rice watery stool Petechiae, Hermans sign Leonine facies Chicken pox Lyssadovirus Amebiasis Pruritus ani Rubella virus Filariasis Leptospirosis Painless chancre Mumps Whooping cough Pulmonary Tuberculosis Gonorrhea Candida albicans

MCN POWER BULLETS BY: COACH PJ

___________________________ stimulates MATURATION of the ovum. A matured ovum is called a ______________ follicle. _____________ stimulates PROLIFERATION and growth of the ENDOMETRIUM. ____________ hormone is responsible for OVULATION. Ovulation occurs approximately ___ days _________ the onset of the next menstrual period. Around the time of ovulation, basal body temperature drops by _____ F and then rises to _____ F. __________________ is formed from follicle cells that remain in the ovary following ovulation. _________________ PREPARES the endometrium for pregnancy if a fertilized ovum is implanted. Average length of a menstrual cycle is _____ days. ___________ pelvis is well-rounded and is MOST favorable for labor and birth. _______________ pelvis is oval-shaped and has an adequately sized outlet, making it favorable for labor and birth. __________ pelvis is angulated and has a NARROW passage, making it NOT favorable for labor. _____________ pelvis is FLAT and is wide transversely but short anteroposteriorly. ____________________ is a measurement of the ANTEROPOSTERIOR diameter of the pelvic inlet. ____________________ is the distance from the LOWER margin, POSTERIOR surface of the symphysis pubis to the sacral promontory. __________________________ is a measurement of the TRANSVERSE diameter of the pelvic outlet. Fertilization commonly occurs in the ___________ part of the fallopian tube. The egg cell remains viable for __________ hours after ovulation. Sperm cells remain viable for __________ hours. Zygote implants __________ days after ovulation. ____________________________ is produced by the chorionic villi to ensure that the corpus luteum will continue to produce progesterone for the first 2 to 3 months of pregnancy. The first 8 weeks of pregnancy is known as the period of __________________, in which the embryo is most susceptible to the effects of teratogens. Fetal heart forms during the ____ week of gestation. Fetal heart tones can be detected using a DOPPLER ultrasound as early as ___________ weeks. Fetal heart tones can be auscultated using a FETOSCOPE by the end of _____ weeks gestation. By the end of _____ weeks gestation, lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio is 2:1. Normal amount of amniotic fluid is _____ to ______ ml at term. Anencephaly, esophageal atresia, diabetes can lead to ________________. Fetal kidney disorders will likely cause ___________________. Umbilical ___________ carries OXYGENATED blood from the placenta to the fetus. Umbilical ___________ carry DEOXYGENATED blood from the fetus to the placenta. ___________ provides for EXCHANGE of nutrients and waste products between the fetus and mother. Blood cells and bacteria CANNOT pass through the placental barrier. Drugs, antibodies, and viruses CAN pass through the placenta. ______ weeks is the AGE OF VIABILITY. At ______ weeks, the fetus is considered full-term. ________________ is the FIRST FETAL MOVEMENT perceived by the pregnant woman that occurs as early as 16 to 20 weeks gestation. ________________ is BLUISH COLORATION of the mucous membranes of the cervix, vagina, and vulva that occurs at about week 6.

 ________________ is softening of the CERVIX that occurs at the beginning of the second month. ________________ is softening and thinning of the LOWER UTERINE SEGMENT. A positive pregnancy test is a _____________ sign of pregnancy. Positive signs of pregnancy are:    ________________________________________________ ________________________________________________ ________________________________________________

At _____ weeks, the fundus is palpable JUST ABOVE THE SYMPHYSIS PUBIS. At _____ weeks, the fundus can be found approximately HALFWAY between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. At _____ weeks, the fundus is at the level of the UMBILICUS. At _____ weeks, the fundus is at the level of the XIPHOID PROCESS. During the second and third trimesters (weeks 18 to 30), fundal height in centimeters APPROXIMATELY EQUALS fetal age in weeks 2 cm. _________________ occurs as the plasma increase exceeds the increase in red blood cell production. Pulse may ____________ about 10 beats/min during pregnancy. Blood pressure slightly ____________ in the second trimester. Peristalsis _____________ during pregnancy because of progesterone. ___________________ is caused by elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin and changes in carbohydrate metabolism. Eating ________________ before arising may help alleviate morning sickness. Nasal stuffiness experienced by a pregnant woman can be alleviated with the use of _____________ and _________________. The best nursing intervention for SUPINE HYPOTENSION SYNDROME is positioning the woman to the _________________________. Instructions for women experiencing varicosities include wearing ____________ and avoiding the use of _______________. _________________ is NOT advised for relieving constipation because it can decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. Ptyalism is best relieved by the use of ______________________. Exercises that will relieve BACKACHE during pregnancy are _________________, _______________, and ______________. Recommended weight gain during the whole duration of pregnancy is __________ lbs. An added ______ kcal per day is recommended for the daily caloric allowance of a pregnant woman. Folic acid prevents __________________ in the fetus. The pregnant vegetarian is at risk for developing ____________ deficiency. Pica is associated with _______________. Maternal RUBELLA infection can cause ____________________ to the child. Maternal herpes infection during the first trimester can cause _______________. Notify physician if less than _______ fetal movements in a 12-hour period was noted. Nonstress test evaluates the response of the fetal heart rate to ________________. A reactive NST is ____________ and indicates __________________. Nonreactive Nonstress test is ___________ A reactive NST is the presence of at least _____ FHR accelerations of _____ bpm or more, lasting _____ seconds or more. ______________________ is used to evaluate if the fetus can tolerate the stress of labor.

 If MORE THAN 50% of all the contractions during a CST reveals a SUDDEN DROP OF FHR in the middle of the contractions, this is interpreted as ____________ CST. Late deceleration indicates _______________________. The MOST common cause of late deceleration is ____________________. Alpha-fetoprotein is DOWN with _________________. Amniocentesis is usually performed ONLY after ______ weeks. Before amniocentesis ask the woman to _________________. _____________ is administered to the woman after amniocentesis. ______________________ is the DEFINITIVE test to evaluate fetal lung maturity. Normal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio is ______. __________________ is the most common cause of EARLY miscarriage. The cervix is CLOSED with _______________ abortion. _____________ is the KEY INTERVENTION for threatened miscarriage. ________________ is the most significant risk factor for the occurrence of ectopic pregnancy. _______________ is the drug of choice for UNRUPTURED ectopic pregnancy. ______ is monitored for 1 YEAR for patients treated for hydatidiform mole. ____________ is avoided within a year after treatment for hydatidiform mole. _________________ is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma. _________________ is used to prevent the toxic effects of methotrexate. _________________ is the procedure of choice for incompetent cervix. ______________________________ is the hallmark sign of placenta previa. __________________ is CONTRAINDICATED for clients with active vaginal bleeding. Sharp fundal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and a board-like uterus are signs of ________________________. ________________________ is a risk factor for preterm labor. HINT: Common infection during pregnancy. ______________ is the INITIAL MANAGEMENT for preterm labor. Tocolytic is NOT given if the cervix is already ______ cm dilated. ________________ is monitored for patients receiving terbutaline. ________________ is the most common side effect of terbutaline. ________________ is the antidote for terbutaline. Ritodrine (Yutopar) is NOT mixed with _____________. Bethamethasone is given to women in preterm labor to hasten (speed up) ______________________. The 3 classic signs of Pregnancy-induced hypertension are _________________, ________________ and ______________. A ________________ environment is prescribed for pre-eclamptic patients. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent ____________ in pre-eclamptic patients. A THERAPEUTIC BLOOD LEVEL of _______ mg/dL is maintained for clients receiving MgSO4 ______________, ______________, and ____________________ are assessed HOURLY for patients receiving MgSO4 _________________ is the antidote for Magnesium sulfate toxicity. For eclampsia, the INITIAL NURSING ACTION is to _____________________________________. HINT: What is your priority? Mother-fetus Rh incompatibility occurs if the fetus Rh _________ blood mixes with a mothers Rh __________ blood. ______________ is administered to the mother prevent Rh isoimmunization.

 ______ is the MOST common fetal position. ________________ is associated with an INCREASED BACK PAIN during labor. First stage of labor begins with onset of regular contractions and ends with ______________________ During the latent phase, the cervix is dilated ________ cm. During the latent phase, the BEST INSTRUCTION for the woman is to ______________ unless the membranes are ruptured. Analgesia of labor is given during the ___________ phase. ______________ is the DOC for labor pain. If BOW ruptures, the INITIAL NURSING ACTION is to ______________________. _____________ phase is the SHORTEST and MOST DIFFICULT during the first stage of labor. A ______________ may impede the descent of the fetus. _______________ is the artificial rupture of membranes. Amniotomy may be performed if the cervix is at least _____ cm dilated. During the second stage of labor, the patient should be monitored every _______. Pushing (bearing down) must be performed ONLY if the cervix is _____________________. Proper pushing instruction should be PUSHING WITH _______________ while BREATHING _______. Instruct the woman to _________ when CROWNING The babys head is delivered ______________ contractions. PRIORITY INTERVENTION after the head is delivered is to _____________________. After establishment of airway, the NEXT PRIORITY is to check for a _____________. Immediately after delivery, the baby is placed ___________________________. The cord is cut if ____________________. Signs of PLACENTAL SEPARATION include _____________________________, _________________________, and ___________________________. Credes maneuver is the application of gentle pressure on the ______________ uterus to aid with placental delivery. Greatest risk after placental delivery is _______________. Methergine is administered ONLY after ________________________ to stimulate uterine contractions. Vital signs should be monitored every _________ during the immediate postpartum period. Neonates who are delivered by cesarean birth have a higher incidence of _______________________ Discontinue oxytocin if contraction is lasting ___________ seconds. Oxytocin is given via ___________ using an ____________________. Fetal ____________ is an EARLY sign of hypoxia. __________________ amniotic fluid is a sign of fetal distress. Prolonged labor (more than 24 hours) predisposes the patient to the development of ______________. A woman in NEGATIVE STATION who experiences PREMATURE RUPTURE OF MEMBRANES is at risk for _______________. __________________ is the FHR pattern seen in cord prolapse. _______________ is the BEST position for relieving compression of a prolapsed cord. Cover exposed cord with _______________________________ to prevent drying. _____________ cesarean section is a risk factor for uterine rupture. ______________________________ is an ominous sign suggesting an impending uterine rupture. During the ____________ phase, the mother is passive, DEPENDENT, and is mainly concerned with own needs. During the ____________ phase, the mother strives for INDEPENDENCE and begins to show interest on the baby.

 Role transition is the hallmark of ______________ phase. Normal rate of uterine involution is ________________________________. The fundus is expected to be at ________________________ on the FIRST POSTPARTUM DAY. On the ________ day, the uterus should be NONPALPABLE in the abdominal area. _______________________________ is the most common cause of SUBINVOLUTION. ___________ position is a good indicator of maternal-infant bonding. Normal blood loss during childbirth ranges from ______ to ______ mL. Palpation of a uterus that is _______ and _________ suggests UTERINE ATONY. A _____________ prevents contraction of the uterus. Palpating or massaging the fundus using TWO HANDS, with one hand supporting the base of the uterus, will prevent ____________________. __________________ is the INITIAL NURSING INTERVENTION for atony. __________________ is the presence of fever of 38C for two consecutive days of the first 10 postpartum days, starting 24 hours after birth. A client with endometritis is positioned __________________. ______________ will prevent pooling of secretions in a client with endometritis. After delivery, the FIRST NURSING ACTION is to establish the neonates ________. The nurse should place the neonate in a __________________________ to facilitate mucus drainage. Drying the newborn with WARMED towel will prevent _________________. Hypothermia causes ________________ and ________________ to the newborn. Apgar score is assessed during the ___________________ and after ___________________. An Apgar score of _______ indicates NO immediate distress, _______ indicates MODERATE distress, and _______ indicates SEVERE distress. After birth, the neonates umbilical cord is tied _________ from the abdominal wall with a cotton cord, plastic clamp, or rubber band. The cord usually falls off after ______ days. ______________ is the prophylactic DOC for opthalmia neonatorum. _________ mg of Vitamin K is given intramuscularly at the __________________. According to WHO, the minimum birth weight of a healthy newborn is ___________ A LOW-BIRTH-WEIGHT neonate weighs ____________ or less at birth. A VERY-LOW-BIRTH-WEIGHT neonate weighs ____________ or less at birth. Posterior fontanel closes by ____________ Anterior fontanel closes by ____________ Initial feeding should take place within __________ after birth. Breast milk contains ______ calories per ounce. Full term neonates require _______ kcal/kg/day Breast-feeding mothers should increase their fluid intake to __________________ daily. HIV infection is _______________ to breast feeding. ____________ should NOT be given to infants YOUNGER THAN AGE 1 because it has a low linoleic acid content and its protein is difficult for infants to digest. __________________ is mottling or purple discoloration of the skin. Its a transient vasomotor response that occurs primarily in the arms and legs of infants who are exposed to cold. Neonatal jaundice in the FIRST 24 HOURS after birth is known as ___________________ and is a sign of erythroblastosis fetalis. When providing phototherapy to a neonate, the nurse should cover the neonates _____ and ________

PEDIA POWER BULLETS BY: COACH PJ

Developmental theories include ____________ age periods and developmental tasks; ____________ five stages of development; ____________ stages of moral development; ____________ eight stages of development; and ____________ phases of cognitive development. A child with HIV-positive blood should receive ___________________________________ rather than oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) immunization. To achieve postural drainage in an infant, place a ______ on the nurses lap and lay the infant across it. A child with __________________ should eat more calories, protein, vitamins, and minerals than a child without the disease. Infants subsisting on cows milk only dont receive a sufficient amount of ________, which will eventually result in anemia. A child with an UNDIAGNOSED INFECTION should be placed in ___________. An infant usually TRIPLES his birth weight by the end of ____________. Clinical signs of _______________ in an infant include lethargy, irritability, dry skin, decreased tearing, decreased urinary output, and increased pulse. Appropriate care of a child with meningitis includes frequent assessment of neurologic signs (such as decreasing levels of consciousness, difficulty to arouse) and measuring the ______________________ because subdural effusions and obstructive hydrocephalus can develop. Expected clinical findings in a newborn with ___________________ include reflexive hypertonicity and criss-crossing or scissoring leg movements. Papules, vesicles, and crust are all present at the same time in the early phase of ______________ Topical _________________ should NOT be used on chickenpox lesions. A serving size of a food is usually ________________ for each year of age. The characteristic of ______________________________ is erythema on the face, primarily the cheeks, giving a slapped face appearance. _______________ may brave pain, especially in front of peers. Therefore, offer analgesics if pain is suspected or administer the medication if the client asks for it. Signs that a child with cystic fibrosis is responding to pancreatic enzymes are the absence of ______________, improved appetite, and absence of abdominal pain. ______________ appears as discrete rose-pink macules that first appear on the trunk and that fade when pressure is applied. A NINETY-NINETY traction is used for fracture of a childs ________________. One sign of ____________________ is limping during ambulation.

 __________________ would NOT be performed on a male child with hypospadias because the foreskin may be needed during surgical reconstruction. Classic signs of ______________________ are seizures, slow apical pulse difficulty breathing, and retinal hemorrhage. An infant born to an HIV-positive mother will usually receive _____________ for the first 6 weeks of life. Infants born to an HIV-positive mother should receive ALL immunizations of schedule. Blood pressure in the arms and legs is __________________ in infants. When bottle-feeding a newborn with a cleft palate, hold the infants head in an _________ position. Because of circulating maternal antibodies that will decrease the immune response, the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine shouldnt be given until the infant has reached _______________. Before feeding an infant any fluid that has been warmed, test a drop of the liquid _________________ to prevent burning the infant. A newborn typically wets _________ diapers per day. The MOST adequate diet for an infant in the first 6 months of life is ______________ An infant can usually chew food by ___________, hold spoon by ____________, and drink fluid from a cup by _______________. _____________ is the leading cause of death for infants younger than 1 year of age. ______________________ is a term used to describe an infant who falls below the fifth percentile for weight and height on a standard measurement chart. The primary concern with infusing large volumes of fluid is __________________. This is especially true in children and infants, and in clients with renal disease. Certain hazards present increased risk of harm to children and occur more often at different ages. For __________, more falls, burns, and suffocation occur; for ___________, there are more burns, poisoning, and drowning; for ______________, more playground equipment accidents, choking, poisoning, and drowning; and for ______________, more automobile accidents, drowning, fires, and firearm accidents. A child in Bryants traction whos younger than age 3 or weighs less than 30 lb (13.6 kg) should have the buttocks _________________ and clear or the bed. The knees should be slightly flexed, and the legs should be extended at a ___________ to the body. The _______ provides the traction mechanism. In an infant, a _________________ is the MOST significant sign of increasing intracranial pressure. To elicit ________________, the nurse holds the neonate in both hands and suddenly, but gently, drops the neonates head backward. Normally, the neonate abducts and extends all extremities bilaterally and symmetrically, forms a C shape with the thumb and forefinger, and first adducts and then flexes the extremities.