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Exam Title

: Novell 050-649-(606A) : Tcp/Ip for Networking Professionals

Version : R6.1

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1. Examine the graphic below.

Router C uses RIP and has split horizon enabled. Which cost metric does Router C advertise on Netwok 3 regarding Network 6? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 15 E. 16 F. Router C does not advertise routes for Network 6 over Network 3. Answer: F 2. What does TFTP use to maintain data packet order? A. Pointers B. Sequence numbers C. Acknowledgements D. Fixed-length packets E. A single data packet Answer: C 3. Which mechanisms can be used to obtain a dynamic IP address? (Choose 3.) A. DNS B. ARP C. DHCP D. RARP E. ICMP F. PING G. BOOTP Answer: CDG 4. What symptom can occur on a network when clients are configured with an incorrect subnet mask? A. Clients ARP for remote devices. B. Dynamic route entries are added unnecessarily. C. Clients cannot obtain an IP address using DHCP. www.Prepking.com

D. Routers send ICMP port unreachable messages for remote devices. Answer: A 5. Which steps are part of the TCP/IP error resolution process? (Choose 2.) A. List all operating systems in use. B. Examine the communication process. C. Begin capturing all network packets. D. Identify the possible points of failure. Answer: BD 6. Your company uses the IP address 168.212.0.0 with subnets 168.212.64.0 and 168.212.128.0. What is the appropriate subnet mask for your company? A. 255.255.0.0 B. 255.255.128.0 C. 255.255.192.0 D. 255.255.224.0 E. 255.255.255.0 F. 255.255.255.128 G. 255.255.255.192 H. 255.255.255.224 Answer: C 7. Which tool do you use to determine active processes on a host? A. ROUTE B. PING/TPING C. TRACEROUTE D. Port scanner Answer: D 8. When do RIP routers advertise their routing information? A. Every 30 seconds B. Every 60 seconds C. Anytime a change occurs D. When a request for information is received Answer: A 9. Which routing configuration provides a method for explicitly defining the next hop from a router to a particular destination? A. Static B. Dynamic

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C. Directed D. Link state E. Distance vector Answer: A 10. What class of IP address is shown below? 233.4.71.222 A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D E. Class E Answer: D 11. How often does an OSPF router rebuild its routing table information? A. Every 30 seconds B. Every 60 seconds C. Every five minutes D. Every hour E. At a predetermined interval F. Only when a change occurs Answer: F 12. Examine the graphic below.

Router B uses RIP and has poison reverse enabled. Which cost metric does Router B advertise on Network 2 regarding Network 7? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 15 F. 16 G. Router B does not advertise routes for Network 7 on Network 2. www.Prepking.com

Answer: B 13. What is a typical error symptom of a network that was not configured with a required DHCP relay agent? A. Clients cannot access their default gateway. B. Clients cannot obtain an IP address using DHCP. C. Clients cannot ping devices on another network. D. Clients cannot use host names to reach other devices. Answer: B 14. Which Windows utilities can you use to examine the host's local IP address? (Choose 2.) A. PING B. WINIPCFG C. IPCONFIG D. PORTSCAN E. TRACEROUTE Answer: BC 15. Which protocol is used for generic communication between proxies or gateways and other Internet systems? A. FTP B. SMTP C. POP3 D. HTTP E. Gopher Answer: D 16. Which protocol works in conjunction with IP to report errors? A. TCP B. UDP C. IRC D. ICMP E. SNMP F. IGMP G. TELNET Answer: D 17. Which NetWare server utility do you use to obtain the end-to-end path information between a server and a remote IP device? A. TCPCON

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B. IPTRACE C. TRACEROUTE D. PING/TPING Answer: B 18. What error symptom could you see on a network if a client had a misconfigured subnet mask? A. Dynamically added route entries B. Numerous unanswered ARP broadcasts C. A high rate of ICMP port unreachable packets D. Reachability with IP addresses but not host names Answer: B 19. Which statements are true regarding enabling split horizon on a RIP network? (Choose 2.) A. It decreases RIP traffic. B. It increases convergence time. C. It simplifies the routing tables. D. It prevents networks from being unreachable. Answer: AB 20. Which firewall protocol encapsulates IP when sending across a serial line? A. ARP B. PPP C. NAT D. SLP E. VPN F. IP Gateway Answer: B 21. What is the purpose of the ARP utility? A. Determines the IP address of a remote device B. Determines the number of hops to a destination device C. Reads and configures the local MAC-to-IP address tables D. Identifies how many unanswered ARP packets have been sent Answer: C 22. Your organization uses the IP address 156.10.0.0. Your current requirements are 10 subnets, each supporting 500 hosts. You anticipate needing to grow to 25 subnets, with each continuing to support 500 hosts. Based on these current and future needs, which subnet mask should you use? A. 255.255.128.0 B. 255.255.192.0

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C. 255.255.224.0 D. 255.255.240.0 E. 255.255.248.0 F. 255.255.255.0 Answer: E 23. Which protocols in the TCP/IP suite operate at the Internet layer of the DoD model? (Choose 2.) A. IP B. TCP C. UDP D. ARP E. NF8 F. FDDI G. HTTP Answer: AD 24. The network for your organization uses 4 bits to identify the subnet address. Assuming addresses of all zeros and all ones are not used, how many subnets are available in your organization? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 14 F. 16 G. 28 H. 30 I. 32 Answer: E 25. You are setting up routing for a network. You are interested in implementing the simplest type of routing that meets your current and future network needs. The network currently has multiple subnets using 12 routers. You anticipate network growth in the near future. You are interested in load sharing and short convergence time. Which type of IP routing should you set up for this network? A. Static B. Link state protocol C. Access link protocol D. Distance vector protocol Answer: B

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26. What is the purpose of the ROUTE utility? A. Views a host's route table B. Compares entries in multiple router tables C. Adds entries in a link state routing database D. Forces a client to use a specific routing protocol E. Determines how many hops are required to get to a device Answer: A 27. Assuming addresses of all zeros and all ones are not used, how many hosts are allowed on a class C IP network that uses supernetting and a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0? A. 254 B. 260 C. 510 D. 516 E. 1022 F. 2046 G. 4094 Answer: F 28. Which statement describes snooping? A. Flooding the network with traffic B. Falsifying the source address in a packet C. Decrypting a user's password using the private key D. Accepting all packets being transmitted on the network, regardless of the destination address Answer: D 29. Which firewall provides basic protection using packet filtering at the border? A. Bastion host B. Screened host C. Screened subnet D. Screening router Answer: D 30. Which denial of service attacks center around weaknesses in the TCP/IP stack specification? (Choose 2.) A. Land B. Smurf C. Teardrop D. SYN attack

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E. Ping of death Answer: CE 31. Which type of problem would cause a device to continuously ARP without receiving any replies? A. A host has a faulty network card. B. A host is missing a route table entry. C. A host has been configured with the wrong network mask. D. A host has been configured with the wrong default gateway. Answer: C 32. Which routing paradigm does BGP support? A. As is B. Hop-by-hop C. Tree graph D. Hierarchical Answer: B 33. Which functions are typically available on a protocol analyzer? (Choose 2.) A. Topology maps B. Broadcast throttling C. Filtering based on port values D. Utilization percentage statistics E. Trace routing between remote devices Answer: CD 34. An analyzer indicates that packets cannot be delivered because of 'fragmentation' denials. Which protocol might cause such a fragmentation fault? A. IP B. TCP C. UDP D. ARP E. ICMP Answer: A 35. A TCP/IP address is divided into which parts? (Choose 2.) A. Host B. Class C. Subnet D. Network E. Subnet mask

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