National Law University, Jodhpur National Entrance Test, 2006

Total Marks 600

1. 2. Read instructions carefully. This test paper contains One Hundred Fifty Questions with multiple-choice answers. Of which forty questions from Legal Aptitude, thirty questions from Information Level, thirty questions from English, thirty questions from Reasoning Ability and twenty questions are from Mathematical Ability. For each correct answer four marks shall be awarded and for every wrong answer one mark shall be deducted. Candidates are required to fill in details in the computer assessment sheet with HP pencil. Improper shading in the computer assessment sheet or mutilation of the sheet would render it invalid. Candidates are required to record answers in the computer assessment sheet as instructed. This test is of Two Hours. First bell will ring five minutes before commencement of the test. As soon as the first bell rings candidate should write his/her roll number at places prescribed in the test paper and fill in the details as required in the computer assessment sheet. Before commencing to write your answers make sure that your booklet is legibly printed and contains one hundred fifty questions. You can use blank pages at the end of this booklet for rough work. Candidates are required not to keep in their possession anything except pen, pencil, sharpener, and eraser. Electronic gadgets (except wrist watch without any add on facility) such as calculator, cell phone, think pad etc. are not allowed in the examination hall. In case of any malpractice or attempt to use malpractice, which would include talking to neighbors, copying or using unfair means, the center in-charge shall seize the paper and expel the candidate and cause a detailed report to be sent to University along with the seized paper in a separate packet. Signature Center in-charge National Entrance Test (NET)

Instructions

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Match column A with column B in order to make suitable pairs. Select the most appropriate pair. Column A 1. Democracy 2. Judiciary 3. Cabinet 4. Bureaucracy (a) {1, 1}, {2, 3), {3, 2}, {4, 2} (b) {1, 3}, {2, 1}, {3, 4}, {4, 2} (c) {2, 3}, {1, 2}, {3, 4}, {4, 1} (d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1} Column B 1. Supreme Court 2. Home Secretary 3. Election 4. Prime Minister

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Match column A with column B to make opposites pairs. Select the most appropriate pair. Column A 1. Rule of Law 2. Discrimination 3. Subjugation 4. Fundamental Duty (a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4} (b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1} (c) {1, 1}, {2, 2}, {3, 3}, {4, 4} (d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1} Column B 1. Eve teasing 2. Autocracy 3. Equality 4. Independence

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Match column A and column B to make appropriate pairs. Column A lists words and column B lists statements, select appropriate words and statements making a pair. Column A 1. Secularism 2. Immunity 3. Freedom 4. Discretion Column B 1. For an offence a person can be punished up to a maximum period of seven years of imprisonment. 2. Newspaper can publish any fair comment. 3. State does not promote any religion. 4. The Governor is not liable for any act done in his official capacity

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4} (b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1} (c) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1} (d) {1, 3}, {2, 4}, {3, 2}, {4, 1} 4. Match column A with column B to make the most suitable and appropriate pairs. Column A 1. Immorality 2. Offence 3. Ethics 4. Transparency (a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4} (b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1} (c) {1, 2}, {2, 1}, {3, 4}, {4, 3} (d) {1, 3}, {2, 4}, {3, 2}, {4, 1} Column B 1. committing a theft 2. disrespecting parents 3. showing reasons for a decision 4. practicing honesty

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Which one of the following is a legal act? (a) Police beating a person for not showing respect to a police man. (b) Police arresting a person showing him a warrant of arrest. (c) Students blocking the public road and collecting contributions for a religious festival. (d) None of the above Which of the following could be considered human rights? (a) Protecting children from forced labour. (b) Providing food to flood and draught affected people. (c) Basic schooling and medical facilities to citizen. (d) All the above. Which one of the following amounts to homicide? (a) A man killing a cow. (b) A tiger killing a man. (c) A woman killing a child. (d) None of the above. Which one of the following is an example of contract? (a) Ramesh promising Suresh a dinner. (b) Kailash promising Ram to kill Ganesh. (c) Mohit promising Suresh to buy his house for an agreed price. (d) Ravinder promising to negotiate Kailash for buying a house. Which one of the following is an example of intellectual property? (a) An idea (b) A Book (c) A fantasy (d) None of the above Which of the following finds a place in the Constitution of India? (a) Equality (b) Non discrimination (c) Directive Principles (d) All the above The age of eligibility for exercising the right to franchise in India is: (a) 22 years (b) 20 years (c) 18 years (d) 16 years Which one of the following does not find a place in the Preamble of the Constitution of India? (a) Integrity (b) Sovereignty (c) Morality (d) Justice Which one of the following is an example of an offence of adultery? (a) A man and a woman living like husband and wife without marriage (b) A married man having sexual relations with an unmarried woman (c) A married woman having sexual relations with an unmarried man (d) None of the above

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Which one of the following refers to doli incapax? (a) Not capacitated to commit a crime (b) Capacitated to commit a crime (c) Neither capacitated nor incapacitated to commit a crime (d) All the above

Directions questions 15 to 19: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions based on the given passage. Choose the most appropriate from the multiple-choice answers. There are two major systems of criminal procedure in the modern world; the adversarial and the inquisitorial. In the inquisitorial system, the presiding judge is not a passive recipient of information. Rather, the presiding judge is primarily responsible for supervising the gathering of the evidence necessary to resolve the case. He or she actively steers the search for evidence and questions the witnesses, including the respondent or the defendant. Lawyers play a more passive role, suggesting routes of inquiry for the presiding judge and following the judges questioning with questioning of their own. Attorney questioning is often brief because the judge tries to ask all relevant questions. The goal of both the adversarial system and the inquisitorial system is to find the truth. But the adversarial system seeks the truth by pitting the parties against each other in the hope that competition will reveal it, whereas the inquisitorial system seeks the truth by questioning those most familiar with the events in dispute. The adversarial system places a premium on the individual rights of the accused, whereas the inquisitorial system places the rights of the accused secondary to the search for truth. Both systems were historically preceded by the system of private vengeance in which the victim of a crime fashioned his own remedy and administered it privately. The modern adversarial system is only one historical step removed from the private vengeance system and still retains some of its characteristic features. Thus, for example, even though the right to initiate legal action against a criminal has now been extended to all members of society and even though the police department has taken over the pretrial investigative functions on behalf of the prosecution, the adversarial system still leaves the defendant to conduct his own pretrial investigation. The trial is still viewed as a duel between two adversaries, refereed by a judge who, at the beginning of the trial has no knowledge of the investigative background of the case. In the final analysis the adversarial system of criminal procedure symbolizes and regularizes the punitive combat. By contrast, the inquisitorial system begins historically where the adversarial system stopped its development. It is two historical steps removed from the system of private vengeance. Therefore, from the standpoint of legal anthropology, it is historically superior to the adversarial system. Under the inquisitorial system the public investigator has the duty to investigate not just on behalf of the prosecutor but also on behalf of the defendant. Because of the inquisitorial systems thoroughness in conducting its pretrial investigation, it can be concluded that a defendant who is innocent would prefer to be tried under the inquisitorial system, whereas a defendant who is guilty would prefer to be tried under the adversarial system. 15. Which one of the following explains the theme of the passage? (a) The inquisitorial system is the best system of criminal justice. (b) Both the adversarial and the inquisitorial systems of criminal justice evolved from the system of private vengeance. (c) The adversarial and inquisitorial systems of criminal justice are being combined into a new and better system. (d) Analyzes two systems of criminal justice and implies that one is better.

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Which one of the following explains inquisitorial system? (a) Pretrial investigations are not conducted by the judge. (b) Pretrial investigations are conducted by the judge for the plaintiff. (c) Pretrial investigations are conducted by the judge for the defendant. (d) Pretrial investigations are conducted by the judge for both the plaintiff and the defendant. Which one of the following places a premium on the rights of the accused? (a) Inquisitorial system (b) Adversarial system (c) Arbitral system (d) None of the above From the standpoint of law which one of the following system is superior? (a) Adversarial system (b) Inquisitorial system (c) Mix of both (d) None of the above Which one of the following is the most appropriate about adversarial system? (a) It is duel between the parties and the judge is a referee. (b) It is an understanding between the parties and the judge is an approver. (c) It is a system where the judge is an investigator. (d) It is a system to create perpetual adversary between the parties. The body of legal principles that prevailed in England from 6th century until the Norman Conquest (1066) is known as: (a) Common Law (b) Anglo-Saxon Law (c) Indian Law (d) English Law The legal and moral code of Islam, systematized in the early centuries of the Muslim era (8th-9th century AD) is known as: (a) Sharia (b) Quran (c) Hadith (d) None of the above Which one of the following is not related to Indian Parliament? (a) General Assembly (b) Speaker (c) Joint Parliamentary Committee (d) Leader of the Opposition

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Directions for questions 23 to 32: Each question is based on the application of principles on the given facts. Read the facts carefully, apply the given principle on the facts and select the most appropriate answer out of the four choices given under each question. 23. Facts: A school bus driver, after dropping all the children home, stopped in a roadside restaurant for having lunch. While he was having lunch, conductor of the bus, who was not having a driving license, drove the bus in order to turn it. While turning the bus he caused an accident whereby a small boy, restaurant owners son was injured. Restaurant owner brought a suit against school authorities. Principle: For every legally authorized act of the servant, the master is liable provided that the act falls within the course of employment when either the master has authorized the same or it is a wrongful mode of doing some authorized act. (a) Restaurant owners suit against school will fail. (b) School authorities are to be held liable as conductor is an employee of the school. (c) School authorities are liable since the driver and conductor had finished the task of leaving children, a task for which they were authorized by the school authorities. (d) None of the above. 24. Facts: A, lives in a remote colony of Delhi. He has been running a cyber caf there offering internet services for more than five years. Being the only shop of this kind in the area he has been making good profit. B, opened a coffee shop in the neighborhood and provided internet access to his customers as a result internet business of A, is affected and he starts suffering loses. After some time A, has to close his business. A, wants to bring a suit against, B for causing him loss of business. Principle: The mere fact that a man is injured by anothers act gives in itself no cause of action; if the act is deliberate, the party injured will have no claim in law even though the act is intentional, so long as the other party is exercising a legal right. (a) A, can bring an action against B, for legal remedy. (b) B, will be liable to restore As business. (c) A, has no cause of action against B. (d) B, can be ordered to stop providing internet services to his customers. 25. Facts: Amit, while rushing to board a moving train at a station pushed Anil who was walking along with a heavy load, containing fire crackers, the push resulted in slipping of the load from Anils hand. The crackers exploded injuring a boy, Sumit standing nearby. Sumit filed a suit against Amit claiming damages. Principle: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care in order not to injure by an act or omission his neighbour, which he may foresee. The neighbour for this purpose is a person who is likely to be affected by the act or the omission. (a) Amit is not liable, because Sumit is not his neighbour. (b) Amit is not liable, because Anil should not be carrying load of crackers on a Railway station. (c) Amit is liable, because he pushed Anil. (d) Amit is liable because he was running.

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Facts: Mr. Gemini was passing by Mrs. Vadheras house. At that time, Mrs. Vadheras dog ran out and bit Mr. Geminis overcoat. Mr. Gemini turned around and shot at the dog however, the dog ran away. While the dog was far away from Mr. Gemini, Mr. Gemini shot the dog dead as he believed that the dog had bitten other persons in the locality. Mrs. Vadhera filed a suit for damages as her dog was of a rare breed and worth Rs. 5000/Principle: Every person has a right to defend his own person, property or possession against an immediate harm, and to that end, may use reasonable amount of force. (a) Mrs. Vadhera will succeed because Mr. Gemini killed the dog as his right of private defence has elapsed. (b) Mrs. Vadhera will not succeed because Mr. Gemini is justified in shooting the dog. (c) Mrs. Vadhera will not succeed because Mr. Gemini took the action to protect him as well as many other members of public in future. (d) Mrs. Vadhera will succeed because she lost her precious dog.

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Facts: Mr. Anil and Mrs. Seema Shah purchased bus tickets from a private bus company for a journey from Rainagar to Baruch via Amreli. The bus driver, by mistake, took them in a wrong direction and dropped them at a distance of 3 miles from Amreli on the state highway. Mr. and Mrs. Shah had to walk the distance of 3 miles as there was no mode of transport available and it was midnight. Mr. And Mrs. Shah filed a suit against the bus company and claimed Rs. 2,500/ as damages for inconvenience suffered for walking and Rs. 5,000/ in respect of Mrs. Seema Shahs catching cold during that night. Principle: For a breach of contract, compensation can be claimed for the personal inconvenience suffered by a party by reason of the breach, which naturally arose in the usual course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract to be likely to result from the breach of the contract. (a) The bus company is liable to pay both the amounts claimed because the loss was suffered by Mr. And Mrs. Shah for no fault of theirs. (b) The bus company is liable to pay Rs. 2,500/ only. (c) The bus company is not liable to pay anything. (d) The bus company is not liable as there was no breach of contract.

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Facts: A, a patient of B a doctor, is dissatisfied with Bs treatment. He discontinues the treatment and after sometime leaves the city. Later on his illness was automatically cured. A was upset because B had made him spend a lot of money on his illness. A writes a letter accusing B, for cheating. He alleges that B magnified the effects of his illness, deliberately treated him in a manner so that it persisted and also caused deterioration of his health. B shows this letter to his lawyer. In consultation with his lawyer B files a suit for damages against A for defamation. Principle 1: A person defames another if he states anything, which exposes the other to hatred or ridicule or results in, him being shunned by others, or injures him in his trade, business or profession. Principle 2: To commit defamation, there must be communication of defamatory statement to a third party. (a) A has defamed B and is liable to pay compensation. (b) A has defamed B when the letter was read by the lawyer and therefore the compensation has to be paid. (c) A has not defamed B (d) A has defamed B by writing such a letter to him

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Facts: A and B were thieves engaged in stealing cars and other vehicles. One day they stole a car and while driving through a city, they engaged a driver to drive them through the city, as they did not know the route inside the city. As the indicator lamp of the car was not working and the thieves were unaware of this, they had not told about it to the driver due to which another car belonging to X was damaged and his driver suffered injuries. X and his driver file a suit for damages against A and B. Principle: A right of action cannot arise out of an illegal activity. (a) X and his driver would lose, because he was injured by a stolen car. (b) X and his driver would win, because they were not a party to the stealing. (c) X and his driver would win, because their car was illegally hit. (d) None of the above.

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Facts: A promises B to discover a treasure trove by magic, if B pays him Rs. 500. B being aware of the fact that A is a magician agrees to the same and pays him Rs. 500. But to Bs dismay no treasure trove was discovered. B files a suit for breach of contract and to recover Rs. 500. Principle: An agreement to do act impossible in itself is void. (a) (b) (c) (d) Bs suit will fail. B would recover Rs. 500. B would recover Rs. 500 only if he has suffered some loss. A shall be required to discover treasure trove by magic otherwise he would be liable for breach of contract.

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Facts: Rakesh is a merchant based in Kolkata deals in almonds, which he procures from Indian as well as foreign markets. Vimlesh enters into a contract with Rakesh for supply of 500 kilograms of almonds @ Rs. 400 per kilogram. The relations between India and Pakistan turned sour and both countries snapped business ties soon after Rakesh agreed to supply almonds to Vimlesh. Rakesh did not deliver almonds to Vimlesh because he mostly procured almonds from Pakistan, which were comparatively cheaper. When asked by Vimlesh, Rakesh said that due to no trade and war like conditions between Indian and Pakistan he is not in a position to supply him almonds. Vimlesh files a suit for breach of contract. Principle: When due to natural disaster or war it becomes impossible to perform a contract, non-performance of such contract shall not make either of the parties liable for breach of contract but this does not include commercial impossibility. (a) Vimlesh will succeed. (b) Rakesh will succeed. (c) None of them will succeed. (d) Both of them will partially succeed.

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Facts: GSK A pharmaceutical company has reasons to believe that an existing patent of Pfizer company is erroneous thus it starts manufacturing the medicine on which the so called erroneous patent of Pfizer exists. Pfizer filed a suit for stopping GSK from manufacturing the medicine and also for treble damages. The court finds the patent valid. Principle: A willful infringement of patent where the infringing acts were committed without concern for the rights of the patentee or without a good faith belief will result in treble damages to be paid by infringer to the patentee. (a) (b) (c) (d) GSK will have to pay treble damages only. GSK will have to pay ordinary damages. GSK will have to pay no damages but stop manufacturing the medicine. GSK will pay damages but not treble damages and also stop manufacturing the medicine.

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Which one of the following gives the correct meaning of doctrine of subrogation? (a) Derogation (b) Congregation (c) Entering into shoes of another (d) Sharing profits equally An accomplice means: (a) A partner in crime (b) A partner in business (c) A partner in court (d) None of the above Which one of the following relates to the method of acquiring immoveable property under certain conditions by possession for a statutory period of time? (a) Possession in fact (b) Possession in law (c) Adverse possession (d) Universal possession Which one of the following amounts to settlement by arbitration? (a) A court having jurisdiction to hear appeals and review a trial courts procedure. (b) The hearing at which the accused is brought before the court to plead to the criminal charge in the indictment. (c) A doctrine under which a person may not recover for an injury received when he voluntarily exposed himself to a known danger. (d) The hearing of a dispute by an impartial third person or persons by giving an award. Bequeath connotes: (a) To give a gift to someone through a will. (b) To sell property at low price. (c) To distribute property amongst sons. (d) None of the above. Which one of the following explains the power of attorney? (a) Power of advocates to file PIL. (b) A legal document whereby one person gives another person the power to act on his or her behalf. (c) Power given by parties to the Judge to decide the case. (d) None of the above.

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What does the word bona vacantia means? (a) Goods without owner (b) Bonafide vacancy (c) Availability of seats (d) None of the above What does de novo refers to? (a) Conceding a fact (b) Starting afresh (c) Pushing backward (d) Pushing forward Which one of the following supplies the missing number in this series: 1 19 ? (a) 28 (b) 29 (c) 31 (d) 33 Which one of the following supplies the missing number in this series: 6 8 4 9 ? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 11 Which one of the following is the largest fraction? (a) 3/4 (b) 7/8 (c) 4/5 (d) 7/9 A car left Jaipur at 7.12 am and arrived in Jodhpur, 180 miles distant at 10.57 am on the same day. What was its average speed in miles per hour? (a) 42 (b) 44 (c) 46 (d) 48 4 10

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Directions for questions 45 to 49: Read the passage mentioned below carefully and answer the questions given thereafter. You are required to select one out of the multiple choice answers reflecting on the nature of statement made in the question i.e., whether the statement made in the question is true, untrue, insufficient information in the passage or none of the above. So much of the literature of the western world, including a large part of its greatest literature, was either written for actual speaking or in a mode of speech, that we are likely to deform it if we apply our comparatively recent norm of writing for silent reading. It is only that so much of this work is drama or oratory (the latter including the modern forms of sermons, lectures and addresses which as late as the nineteenth century play a most important part). It is also that through classical and mediaeval times, and in many cases beyond these, most reading was either aloud or silently articulated as if speaking: a habit we now recognize mainly in the slow. Most classical histories were indeed quite close to oratory and public speech, rather than silent reading of an artifact, was the central condition of linguistic composition.

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Until the nineteenth century, most people could only read with difficulty. (a) True (b) Untrue (c) Insufficient information (d) None of the above In ancient times, literature was intended to be read aloud. (a) True (b) untrue (c) Insufficient information (d) None of the above Classical histories were passed on orally and never written down. (a) True (b) Untrue (c) Insufficient information (d) None of the above Only people with literacy problems now read aloud. (a) True (b) Untrue (c) Insufficient information (d) None of the above Oratory includes sermons and lectures but not the modern forms. (a) True (b) Untrue (c) Insufficient information (d) None of the above

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Directions for questions 50 to 54: In each of the following questions there are two words to the left of the sign {::} which are connected in some way. The same relationship exists between the third word and the one of the four choices given under each question. Find the correct choice in each question. 50. Pain : Sedative :: Grief : ? (a) Kill (b) Solace (c) Irritation (d) Wound Death : Gallows :: Criminal : ? (a) Crime (b) Bottom (c) Jail (d) Judge Ophthalmia : Eye :: Rickets : ? (a) Bone (b) Child (c) Kidney (d) Heart

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Metal : Conduction :: Plastic : ? (a) Inflammable (b) Breakage (c) Insulation (d) Industry JLN : SQO :: PRT : ? (a) YWU (b) VUT (c) UYW (d) UTV In a certain code BEAT is written as GIDV, how is SOUP written in that doe? (a) RXSR (b) XSYR (c) XSXR (d) None of the above In a class of 50 students, 18 take Chorus, 26 take Band, and 2 take both Chorus and Band. How many students in the class are not enrolled in either Chorus or Band? (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10 A veterinarian surveys 26 of his neighbours. He discovers that 14 have dogs, 10 have cats, and 5 have fish. Four have dogs and cats, 3 have dogs and fish, and one has a cat and fish. If no one has all three kinds of pets, how many neighbours have none of these pets? (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 11 Which one of the following statements is the converse of the statement If the moon is full, then the vampires are prowling.? (a) If the vampires are prowling, then the moon is full. (b) If the moon is not full, then the vampires are prowling. (c) If the vampires are not prowling, then the moon is not full. (d) None of the above. Which one of the following statements is the inverse of the statement If you do not understand geometry, then you do not know how to reason deductively? (a) If you reason deductively, then you understand geometry. (b) If you understand geometry, then you reason deductively. (c) If you do not reason deductively, then you understand geometry. (d) All the above. If Ramesh likes oranges more than grapes, strawberries more than apples, and apples more than oranges, then which one of the following is not true? (a) He likes grapes more than strawberries. (b) He likes strawberries more than grapes. (c) He likes apples more than grapes. (d) He likes strawberries more than oranges.

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if 8th of the month falls 3 days after Sunday then which one of the following will be the day on 17th of that month? (a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday Which one of the following is a leap year? (a) 1704 (b) 1945 (c) 1978 (d) 1982

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Directions for questions 63 to 67: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow: Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged, one on each day from Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the play is to be in accordance with the following: A must be staged on the previous day of the day on which E is staged. C must not be staged on Tuesday. B must be staged on a day which follows the day on which F is staged. D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B. E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule. 63. Which one of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday? (a) E, A, B, F, D, C (b) F, A, B, E, D, C (c) A, F, B, C, D, E (d) None of the above Which one of the following days in addition to Tuesday, play C cannot definitely be staged? (a) Friday (b) Thursday (c) Wednesday (d) Monday Between which one of the following pairs of plays, play D is staged? (a) E and F (b) C and E (c) B and E (d) C and F Which one of the following plays is staged on Monday? (a) A (b) D (c) F (d) C Which one of the following plays immediately follows B? (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) E

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P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row. Q is between P and T. Which of the following information given in A and B is sufficient to find out who among them is in the middle? A P is left of Q and right of S. B R is at the right end. (a) Only B is sufficient (b) Only A is sufficient (c) Both A and B are required (d) None of the above M, P, A and K are four friends. Which of the following statements given in P and Q are sufficient to find out who among the four is the heaviest? P P is heavier than M and K but lighter than A Q M is lighter than P and A but heavier than K (a) Only P is sufficient (b) Only Q is sufficient (c) Both P and Q are required (d) None of the above Which one of the following number sets follow the same property as the number set: (21, 51, 15)? (a) (21, 51, 42) (b) (31, 35, 41) (c) (21, 91, 35) (d) (21, 30, 51) Which one of the following equals, (5x 1) + (10x2 + 7x)? (a) 10x2 + 12x 1 (b) 15x2 + 7x 1 (c) 10x2 + 2x 1 (d) 10x2 + 1x 1 Which one of the following fills the missing number in (4x + _ ?) + (2x + 3) = 6x + 5 (a) + 4 (b) 4 (c) + 2 (d) 2 Which one of the following is the most appropriate missing number in (x2 + 6x + 7) + (3x2 + _ ? _ + 1) = 4x2 + 13x + 8. (a) 7x (b) + 7x (c) 2x (d) 19x When two sides of an isosceles triangle measure 3 and 7. Which one of the following could be the measure of the third side? (a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 3 (d) 2 Which one of the following is twelve less than eight times a number? (a) 8x 12 (b) 20 4x (c) 2x 7 (d) 7x 12

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Ramesh and his friends are walking around a track that is shaped as a regular pentagon. Each side measures 85 feet. If they make 3 complete trips around the track, how far have they walked? (a) 375 ft (b) 945 ft (c) 1275 ft (d) 1530 ft A large pizza has a circumference of 72.5 inches. Which one of the perimeters listed could belong to the smallest box capable of holding a large pizza? (a) 23 (b) 26 (c) 72 (d) 96 A rectangular football field has side lines 120 yards long. Each of the end lines is 160 feet long. Which one of the following gives the perimeter of the football field? (a) 1040 ft (b) 946 ft (c) 645 ft (d) 356 ft A spinner contains eight regions, numbered 1 through 8. The arrow has an equal chance of landing on any of the eight regions. If the arrow lands on the line, it is spun again. What is the probability that the arrow lands on an odd number? (a) 1 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/4 (d) None of the above A movie theater sells 3 sizes of popcorn (small, medium, and large) with 3 choices of toppings (no butter, butter, extra butter). How many possible ways can a bag of popcorn be purchased? (a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 27 Alarm clocks are sold in blue or pink with either digital or standard displays. How many different arrangements of alarm clocks are possible? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 Which one of the following when divided by 19 gives the quotient 19 and the remainder 9? (a) 370 (b) 331 (c) 281 (d) 368

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In a seminar 15% of registered delegates were absent and 20% fell ill out of those who were present. If the total number of delegates who successfully completed the seminar is 544, how many delegates had registered for the seminar? (a) 944 (b) 800 (c) 721 (d) 625 The average age of boys in a class of 30 is 15 years. If 10 more boys join the class, the average age of the whole class is reduced by one year. What is the average age of new comers? (a) 9 years (b) 10 years (c) 11 years (d) 12 years If the difference between simple and compound interests on a sum of money. (a) Rs. 8,000 (b) Rs. 9,000 (c) Rs. 9,300 (d) Rs. 10,000 A rectangular garden is 100 meters long and 60 meters broad. A five-meter wide road surrounds the garden. Which is the area of the road? (a) 1700 m2 (b) 1803 m2 (c) 1856 m2 (d) 1900 m2 The diameter of a circle is 35 cms. What is the absolute difference between the area and the circumference of the circle? (a) 332.6 cms (b) 742.5 cms (c) 982.4 cms (d) None of the above Which one of the following gives the true height of a tank, which is 2.1 meter long and 2 meter broad and the capacity of the tank is 21 hectoliter. (a) 1 meter (b) 0.9 meter (c) 0.5 meter (d) 0.3 meter If logex x log5e = 3. What is the value of x? (a) 5e3 (b) e5 (c) 125 (d) 242 Which one of the following gives the factors of 8 + x 7x2? (a) (1 + x) (8 7x) (b) (1 7x) (8 + x) (c) (8 x) (1 + 7x) (d) (8 + 7x) (1 x)

84.

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Which one of the following explains Oligopoly as a form of imperfect competition? (a) There is one price for the industrys products. (b) There are only a few producers in the industry. (c) There are many producers in the industry. (d) There are only a few buyers. Which one of the following measures carried by the government hinders market economy? (a) Imposes taxes on consumer goods. (b) Plans production and distribution. (c) Promotes imports. (d) Controls the quality of some consumer goods. Which one of the following is an example of an entrepreneur according to economists? (a) The divisional manager of a group of retail stores. (b) The proprietor of a one man confectionary shop. (c) The salaries coach of a professional team. (d) The head of research and development division in a nationalized industry. In order that there would be full employment without inflation, which one of the following equals aggregate demand? (a) Potential GNP (b) Actual GNP (c) Both the above (d) None of the above Which one of the following refers to the term Liquidity Preference? (a) The communitys preference for a gold backed currency. (b) The extent to which investors prefer to keep their assets in money. (c) The banks insistence on collateral security from business borrowing on overdraft. (d) The central banks shareholdings in other financial institutions. The SDRs created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) was for the purpose of: (a) Aiding the development of banking systems in the African countries. (b) Encouraging members of the IMF to return to the full gold standard. (c) Reducing the need for gold as a means of international liquidity. (d) Reducing the needs for periodical settlement with IMF. Which of the following measures, announced in a Budget speech, would lead, other things being equal, to fall in the Index of Retail Prices? I. A decrease in indirect taxation II. A cut in income tax paid by those with small incomes III. An increase in taxes paid by large companies IV. An increase in taxes paid by those with very large incomes (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) III and IV only (d) I, II, III, IV Which one of the following hormones is responsible for stimulating uterine contractions? (a) Oxytocin (b) Testosteron (c) Estrogen (d) Progesterone

92.

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99.

Which one of the following is responsible for coordinating body movements? (a) Medulla Oblongata (b) Cerebellum (c) Midbrain (d) Pons

100. When osmotic pressure of blood is too high, the secretion of which one of the following hormones is increased? (a) Prolactine (b) Oxytocin (c) Antidiuretic (d) Progesterone 101. Which one of the following is known as outermost layer of Skin? (a) Dermis (b) Epidermis (c) Hypodermis (d) Homeotherms 102. Mammals and birds maintain a constant body temperature, if mammals maintain body temperature at about 37 deg C, what is the body temperature maintained by birds? (a) 40 deg C (b) 37 deg C (c) 34 deg C (d) 32 deg C 103. Which one of the following Ultra Violet (UV) light doesnt penetrate the Earths atmosphere and gets absorbed by the ozone layer? (a) UVA (b) UVB (c) UVC (d) None of the above 104. Assuming a car to be initially at rest, how far does this car travel in 10 seconds if it undergoes a constant acceleration of 5 (m/sec)/sec to the right? (a) +200 meters (b) +250 meters (c) +300 meters (d) +350 meters 105. Which one of the following is not a basic unit of measurement? (a) Length (b) Mass (c) Time (d) Speed 106. Which one of the following equals 10 meter/sec? (a) 22.369 miles/hour (b) 22.459 miles/hour (c) 22.128 miles/hour (d) 22.018 miles/hour

107. In the year 1926, the Hilton Young Currency Commission recommended the creation of which one of the following as a Central Bank: (a) The Reserve Bank of India (b) The Central Bank of India (c) The Allahabad Bank (d) The State Bank of India 108. Which one of the following committees was appointed in 1936 to examine the financial position of the state-owned railways and to suggest measures for its earnings? (a) The Walchand Committee. (b) The Wedgewood Committee. (c) The Mody-Lees Committee. (d) Sir Tekchand Committee 109. Which of the following years Shri Jaiprakash Narayan started the Citizens for Democracy movement. (a) 1971 (b) 1972 (c) 1974 (d) 1977 110. Which one of the following committees was appointed on Indian currency in April 1898 to suggest ways and means of establishing the gold standard in India? (a) Henry h. Fowler Committee (b) Sir Johns Committee (c) Moore Committee (d) Senderson Committee 111. In which one of the following years Indias first news agency, the Associated Press of India was established. (a) 1906 (b) 1908 (c) 1910 (d) 1911 112. The Indian colliery owners set up the Indian Mining Federation in the year 1913 for the objective of: (a) To encourage collective bargaining (b) To compete with the British (c) To fight racial discrimination and foreign monopoly (d) None of the above 113. Who amongst the following has won the David Dixon Award for the most outstanding athlete of the 2006 Commonwealth Games? (a) Samaresh Jung (b) Chong Wei Lee (c) Gagan Narang (d) Jin Zhang 114. Which one of the following pacts was signed in 1933 between Sir William Clare-Lees and the Bombay Mill owners Association to check the rising imports of Japanese textile goods into India? (a) The Mody-Lees Pact (b) The William-Naoroji Pact (c) The Clare-Bajaj Pact (d) None of the above

115. The mascot for 2006 Commonwealth Games Karak is: (a) An endangered dog (b) A red-tailed black cockatoo (c) A Kangaroo (d) A Hypothetical animal 116. Smt. Indira Gandhi announced the famous 20-point economic programme in the year: (a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1980 117. In 1978 currency demonetisation, which one of the following currency notes was left out? (a) 10,000 (b) 5,000 (c) 1,000 (d) 500 118. Which one of the following international games India is hosting in the year 2010? (a) Commonwealth Games (b) Asian Games (c) Olympic Games (d) None of the above 119. The Constitution Amendment Act, 2003 added the following set of languages: (a) Maithilli, Konkani, Santhali, Marathi (b) Malayalam, Manipuri, Maithilli, Dogri (c) Maithilli, Bodo, Santhali, Dogri (d) Nepali, Santhali, Dogri, Konkani 120. Which one of the following is not a regional trade arrangement? (a) NAFTA (b) AFTA (c) EFTA (d) NATO Directions for questions 121 to 130: Read the following passage carefully and mark the correct answer from among the multiple choices given below each question under the passage. Software and intellectual property have come a long way to provide new dimension to the markets. For a firm to be satisfied with the performance and functionality of an existing product was to risk losing market share to a competitor that targeted the same market. The nature of competition in the industry has been such that, if there is a perceived market for a particular software product, someone will build it, and someone else will, as well, said Harry C. Reinstein, chairman and chief executive officer of the Aion Corp. While many software firms were aware of what intellectual property protection applied to software primarily trade secret law and copyright law, the actions of most of the firms suggested that legal concerns rarely entered into product-development decisions. The collective behavior of firms served to achieve the constitutional aim on which intellectual property law is based: to promote the progress of science and the useful arts. More specifically, the software industry achieved the intent of intellectual property law, that is, to advance the public good, an objective widely interpreted to mean the generation and wide dissemination of ideas and innovations. Todays legal ferment indicates that software firms are much more attuned to intellectual property issues. And why not? Copyright law and patent law exist to encourage innovation. Both award

limited monopolies to those who invest their resources, effort, and ingenuity in developing products that society may deem useful. Thus intellectual property law offers the potential for private financial gain as an incentive for undertaking the risks of innovation. To Francis D. Fisher, adviser to the Educational Technology Group at the Harvard Law School concerns that innovation in software will diminish without strong intellectual property protection seem at odds with the industrys historically high rate of innovation. It is not enough to suggest that the incentives of monopoly are needed, Fisher maintained. We need evidence. We need to shift the burden of proof, so that those who believe that the public interest gains from extending property rights to software must prove their case. Among those who believe this case is unproven is Richard Stallman, whose Free Software Foundation and League for Programming Freedom provide a test of his conviction that innovation is best served absent prices based on commercial monopoly. While Fisher may be unconvinced of the need to accord strict intellectual property rights to software, the perception that software is vulnerable to abuses by competitors and users is widespread. Firms trying to position themselves in the market to earn returns on their investment often devote considerable thought to protection strategies. 121. Does Francis D. Fisher consider intellectual property rights important for growth and development of software? (a) Yes, as software does not require intellectual property. (b) Yes, software growth is possible only through commercial monopoly. (c) Yes, strong intellectual property regime is not a requirement for software innovation. (d) Yes, software patents are required for giving impetus to innovation in this field. 122. What Harry C. Reinstein contemplates about software market? (a) Market of particular software determines the nature of competition. (b) Competition in software development may determine the market. (c) Software development and market has no relationship. (d) None of the above 123. Which one of the following is a correct deduction from the given passage? (a) Francis D. Fisher and Richard Stallman are of the same opinion as to software development and intellectual property regime. (b) Views of Harry C. Reinstein and Francis D. Fisher are synonymous with software development and intellectual property regime. (c) Francis D. Fisher and Richard Stallman are of opposite opinion as to software development and intellectual property regime. (d) None of the above. 124. Which one of the following is correct? (a) Software firms are aware of intellectual property protection to software. (b) Trade secret law and copyright law primarily apply to software. (c) Software protection issue has rarely affected product-development decisions. (d) All the above. 125. Which one of the following relates to Copyright and Patent Law? (a) They encourage innovation. (b) Both award limited monopolies. (c) Both (a) and (b). (d) None of the above.

126. Which one of the following explains, shift the burden of proof as stated in the passage? (a) Those who believe that the public interest gains from extending property rights to software must prove their case. (b) Those who believe that the public interest does not gain from extending property rights to software must prove their case. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 127. Who amongst the following is unconvinced according to Richard Stallman? (a) Harry C. Reinstein (b) Richard Stallman (c) Francis D. Fisher (d) None of the above 128. According to the passage which one of the following is the constitutional aim of intellectual property law? (a) To promote the progress of science and the useful arts. (b) To promote monopoly through protection regime. (c) To benefit one industry. (d) None of the above. 129. Which one of the following explains public good as contemplated in the passage? (a) Betterment of scientific community. (b) The generation and wide dissemination of ideas and innovations. (c) Making software freely available to people. (d) None of the above. 130. Which one the following could be a possible conclusion in the light of arguments led by Harry C. Reinstein, Richard Stallman, and Francis D. Fisher? (a) Software should not be given strong intellectual property protection. (b) Software protection is against public good. (c) Intellectual Property Protection should be given to software. (d) None of the above. Directions for questions 131 to 140: Below mentioned are pair of words, which are synonyms as well as antonyms, based on the nature of pair given in the question, select one pair based on the same nature from the given four choices. 131. serenade: melody (a) sere: scorched (b) shrivel: bloom (c) constrict: release (d) compress: spread 132. mlange: meddle (a) docile: rebellious (b) obstinate: firm (c) tropic: temperate (d) torrid: mild 133. seigniorage: tax (a) superior: higher (b) excellent: imperfect (c) glorious: ignominious (d) magnificent: bare

134. luxury: destitution (a) idleness: leisure (b) lynch: resuscitate (c) contribute: receive (d) tribute: encomium 135. revive: extinguish (a) anarchy: order (b) disturbance: tumult (c) upheaval: complication (d) annoy: discommode 136. agnostic: theist (a) profane: blasphemous (b) nihilist: cynic (c) religious: irreligious (d) skeptic: infidel 137. apotheosis: consecration (a) sanctification: exaltation (b) blessing: damnation (c) anathema: honour (d) vituperation: laud 138. avouch: equivocate (a) mislead: dodge (b) myth: fable (c) limitation: permission (d) retardation: impedance 139. diatribe: praise (a) harangue: discourse (b) encouraging: nagging (c) quibbling: nitpicking (d) charge: accuse 140. camouflage: open (a) disguise: disclose (b) dress up: touch up (c) replicate: simulate (d) shroud: veil Directions for questions 141 to 145: Below mentioned are questions based on sentence construction. Out of given multiple choice answers select one that completes the sentence given in the question. 141. I never miss a cricket match; I --- fond of cricket since childhood. (a) has been (b) have been (c) will be (d) am

142. --- the room, the door suddenly swung and hit him in the face. (a) On entering (b) Entering (c) While entering (d) As he entered 143. Even though the principle of citizens participation in government --- proclaimed, several provisions of the Constitution contain the fundamental principles of the democratic participation. (a) is not directly (b) are not directly (c) had not directly (d) have not directly 144. The woman asked her husband ---(a) that when was he going to Jodhpur (b) as to when was he going to Jodhpur (c) when he was going to Jodhpur (d) when was he going to Jodhpur 145. He a lie if he ever said that he liked you. (a) was telling (b) have been telling (c) would have told (d) would have been telling Directions for questions 146 to 150: Each of the following questions contains an idiom, the meaning of which is given below them. You are required to pick the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the four choices given. 146. Thats all moonshine (a) Sparkling (b) Beautiful (c) Rubbish (d) Interesting 147. Blarney (a) Cajolery (b) Disapproval (c) Forbidden (d) Honesty 148. To blow the gaff (a) Divulge a secret (b) Disguised information (c) Trumpet (d) Keep secrecy 149. Not to care a hoot (a) Free minded (b) Not caring anything (c) Very introspective (d) Diligent

150. To die in harness (a) Die while being active (b) Die while in penury (c) Die while fighting (d) Die while in youth

National Law University, Jodhpur National Entrance Test, 2007

Total Marks 600
1. 2. Read instructions carefully. This test paper contains One Hundred Fifty Questions with multiple-choice answers. Of which forty questions from Legal Aptitude, thirty questions from Information Level, thirty questions from English, thirty questions from Reasoning Ability and twenty questions are from Mathematical Ability. For each correct answer four marks shall be awarded and for every wrong answer one mark shall be deducted. Candidates are required to fill in details in the computer assessment sheet with HP pencil. Improper shading in the computer assessment sheet or mutilation of the sheet would render it invalid. Candidates are required to record answers in the computer assessment sheet as instructed. This test is of Two Hours. First bell will ring five minutes before commencement of the test. As soon as the first bell rings candidate should write his/her roll number at places prescribed in the test paper and fill in the details as required in the computer assessment sheet. Before commencing to write your answers make sure that your booklet is legibly printed and contains one hundred fifty questions. You can use blank pages at the end of this booklet for rough work. Candidates are required not to keep in their possession anything except pen, pencil, sharpener, and eraser. Electronic gadgets (except wrist watch without any add on facility) such as calculator, cell phone, think pad etc. are not allowed in the examination hall. In case of any malpractice or attempt to use malpractice, which would include talking to neighbors, copying or using unfair means, the center in-charge shall seize the paper and expel the candidate and cause a detailed report to be sent to University along with the seized paper in a separate packet. Signature Center in-charge National Entrance Test (NET)

Instructions

3. 4.

5. 6.

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1.

ABCD is a trapezium in which AB is parallel to DC and AB = 2CD. If its diagonals intersect each at O, then the ratio of the areas of the triangles AOB and COD is: (a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 1 A room is 7.5 meter long, 5.5 meter breadth and 5 meter high. If it has one door 1.6 meter breadth and 2.5 meter high and two windows each 80 centimetres breadth and 1.25 meter high. What will be the expenditure in covering the walls by paper 40 centimetres breadth at the rate of 75 paise per meter? (a) Rs. 232.50 (b) Rs. 312 (c) Rs. 312.68 (d) Rs. 212 A wire in the form of a square is cut and bent in the form of a circle. If the area of the square is 110 cm2 what is the area of the circle? (a) 110 cm2 (b) 120 cm2 (c) 130 cm2 (d) 140 cm2 Present worth of a bill due 4 years hence is Rs. 575. If the bill is due after 2/1/2 years its present worth is Rs. 620. What is the interest rate per annum? (a) 5% (b) 6% (c) 7% (d) 9% Omesh divides Rs. 6375 amongst Veera and Rekha. Veera is 22 years old while Rekha is 23 years old. If the compound rate of interest is 4% per annum and both of them will receive the same amount at the age of 25 years. What is share of Veera at present? (a) Rs. 3125 (b) Rs. 3150 (c) Rs. 3175 (d) Rs. 3170 Ramesh bought a house from Suresh and paid him Rs. 40,000 as the initial payment and Rs. 48,000 after 5 years. If the rate of simple interest was 4% per annum. What was the cash price of the house? (a) Rs. 92,000 (b) Rs. 89,000 (c) Rs. 84,000 (d) Rs. 80,000 A passenger train running at the speed of 80 km/hour leaves the Railway Station 6 hours after a Goods trains leaves and overtakes it in 4 hours. What is the speed of Goods train? (a) 30 km/hour (b) 32 km/hour (c) 34 km/hour (d) 36 km/hour

2.

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20 men can complete a work in 40 days. When should 4 men leave so that the work may be finished in 48 days? (a) 2 days (b) 4 days (c) 6 days (d) 8 days Amar, Bipin and Chandan are partners in a business with contributory capital of Rs. 5,000, Rs. 6,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively. Amar gets 30% of the profit for managing the business and the balance is divided in the ratio of their capitals. At the end of the year Amar gets Rs. 200 more than Bipin and Chandan together. What is the total profit? (a) Rs. 2,800 (b) Rs. 3,00 (c) Rs. 3,200 (d) Rs. 3,500 The cost of 11 chairs is equal to the cost of 3 tables. The cost of one chair and one table is Rs. 140. What is the cost of a chair? (a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 60 (c) Rs. 66 (d) Rs. 90 Which one of the following Countries shall host 11th South Asian Games-2008? (a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Bangladesh (d) Pakistan

9.

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Directions for questions 12 to 16: For the word given in each of the questions, choose the word or phrase, which is similar in meaning to the word given in the question. 12. Abstruse: (a) Profound (b) Suspended (c) Exciting (d) Recondite Obfuscate: (a) Clarify (b) Profuse (c) Confuse (d) Charge Claustrophobia: (a) Fear of Dogs (b) Fear of Water (c) Fear of closed spaces (d) Fear of vampires Impervious: (a) Vulnerable (b) Chaotic (c) Intelligent (d) Impenetrable

13.

14.

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16.

Lugubrious: (a) Shining (b) Cheerful (c) Mournful (d) Blissful Which one of the following dates is known as International Day for the Elimination of Racial discrimination? (a) March 15 (b) March 18 (c) March 21 (d) March 22 Which one of the following positions India secured in the medals tally in the 15th Asian Games held in Doha in 2006? (a) 6th position (b) 7th position (c) 8th position (d) 9th position Which one of the following Countries is the largest importer of iron ore from India? (a) China (b) Australia (c) Brazil (d) Pakistan Which one of the following caves have twelve Buddhist caves, seventeen Hindu caves and five Jain caves. (a) Ajanta caves (b) Ellora caves (c) Borra caves (d) None of the above Which one of the following Gupta Emperors changed his Capital from Patliputra to Ayodhya? (a) Rama Gupta (b) Chandragupta I (c) Chandragupta II (d) Samudragupta Which one of the following is the largest Tribal group in India? (a) Gonds (b) Santhals (c) Chaimals (d) Reangs Which one of the following pairs of metals Electrum is an alloy of: (a) Gold and Iron (b) Gold and Silver (c) Silver and Copper (d) None of the above

17.

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Which one of the following Continent has largest number of Commonwealth Members? (a) Africa (b) Asia (c) Europe (d) South America Which one of the following Indian dance forms derives its name from earthen lamp? (a) Bhangra (b) Gidda (c) Garba (d) Kathak In Binary number system, what does 111 represent? (a) One hundred eleven (b) seven (c) three (d) one Match column A with column B in order to make suitable pairs. Select the most appropriate pair. Column A Column B 1. Parliament 1. Governor 2. President 2. High Court 3. Attorney General 3. State Legislature 4. Supreme Court 4. Advocate General (a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 2} (b) {1, 3}, {2, 1}, {3, 4}, {4, 2} (c) {2, 3}, {1, 2}, {3, 4}, {4, 1} (d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

25.

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Match column A with column B to make pairs. Select the most appropriate pair. Column A Column B 1. Reserve Bank of India 1. Patents 2. Ministry of Finance 2. Repo Rate 3. Ministry of External Affairs 3. Tax Rate 4. Ministry of Commerce 4. Passport (a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4} (b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1} (c) {1, 1}, {2, 2}, {3, 3}, {4, 4} (d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

29.

Match column A and column B to make appropriate pairs. Column A Column B 1. The Constitution of India 1. Rights of Consumers 2. The Indian Penal Code 2. Proscribing Monopoly & Cartels 3. The Competition Act 3. Fundamental Rights 4. The Consumer Protection Act 4. Theft (a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4} (b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1} (c) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1} (d) {1, 3}, {2, 4}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

30.

Match column A with column B to make the most suitable and appropriate pairs. Column A Column B 1. Sentencing 1. Establishing Guilt 2. Conviction 2. Punishment 3. Court 3. Station House Officer 4. Police Station 4. Judge (a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4} (b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1} (c) {1, 2}, {2, 1}, {3, 4}, {4, 3} (d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

31.

Which one of the following is an illegal act? (a) Not obeying Parents. (b) Taking bribe. (c) Students collecting donations. (d) None of the above. Which of the following is facet of human rights? (a) Protecting children from forced labour. (b) Providing food to flood and draught affected people. (c) Basic schooling and medical facilities to citizen. (d) All the above. Mr. X was apprehended by the Police believing that Mr. X has committed a crime. Mr. X is prosecuted for the alleged offence. Mr. X is legally called as: (a) A criminal (b) A Convict (c) An Accused (d) A Prosecutor Which one of the following is not an example of contract? (a) Kailash purchased a car from Ganesh. (b) Mohit promised Suresh to buy his house for an agreed price. (c) Ramesh promising Suresh a dinner. (d) Raj promising Kiran to sell his motorbike. Gopal, a journalist, in order to have fun published in the daily newspaper a story about an actress labeling her with conjectures and surmises thereby depicting her as a wicked woman. Reading this her fan club raised slogans against her and held a public rally against her. Has Gopal committed one of the following? (a) Murder of an Icon (b) Defamation (c) Negative Publicity (d) Misuse of newsprint Hindi written in devanagari script is: (a) Constitutional Language of India (b) Official Language of the Government of India (c) National Language of India (d) All the above

32.

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Which one of the following marriage is child marriage in India? (a) Between a Boy aged 22 years & a Girl 19 years (b) Between a Girl aged 18 years & a Boy 21 years (c) Between a Girl aged 18 years & a Boy 20 years (d) None of the above Which one of the following does not constitute the Parliament of India? (a) The Lok Sabha (b) The Rajya Sabha (c) The President (d) The Prime Minister Which one of the following is not true about the Supreme Court of India? (a) It succeeded the Federal Court of India (b) It has seat in New Delhi only (c) It has twenty nine judges (d) None of the above Which one of the following refers to doli capax? (a) Not capacitated to commit a crime (b) Capacitated to commit a crime (c) A child in mothers womb. (d) All the above. A legal proceeding adjourned sine die refers to: (a) That the proceeding shall commence on the first of next month. (b) That the proceeding was not given a date for continuation. (c) That the Court has passed a decree in the given case. (d) None of the above Which one of the following is true about the Constitution of India? (a) It has been enacted by the British Parliament. (b) It has been enacted by the Constituent Assembly. (c) It has been passed by the Parliament of India. (d) It has been adopted by the People of India. Adjudication of cases between parties in courts in India connotes: (a) Inquisitorial system (b) Adversarial system (c) Arbitral system (d) None of the above Which one of the following day is observed as Constitution day in India? (a) 26th October (b) 26th November (c) 26th January (d) 15th August Which one of the following is not correct? (a) The High Court directing the government to remove encroachments on public roads. (b) The Supreme Court directing Universities to make guidelines against ragging. (c) The High Court directing the State Government to make a law prohibiting smoking in public places. (d) The Supreme Court directing Government of India to take stern action against sexual harassment of women at work places.

38.

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The President of India is administered oath of office by: (a) The Prime Minister (b) The Chief Justice of India (c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) The Attorney General of India The phrase per incuriam refers to: (a) Judgment of a Court in accordance with law (b) Judgment of a Court without reference to a statutory provision (c) Judgment of a judge not of a Court (d) All the above Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations? (a) General Assembly (b) Security Council (c) Economic and Social Council (d) World Trade Organization

47.

48.

Directions for questions 49 to 51: Each question given below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the argument is a strong argument and which is a weak argument. 49. Statement:: Should the health care services be nationalized? Arguments:: I. Yes, it has been done elsewhere also. II. No, the quality of health care services will deteriorate. (a) Only argument I is strong. (b) Only argument II is strong. (c) Neither I nor II is strong. (d) Both I and II are strong. Statement:: Should there be a world government? Arguments:: I. Yes, it will help in eliminating tension among the Nations. II. No, then only the developed countries will dominate in the government. (a) Only argument I is strong. (b) Only argument II is strong. (c) Neither I nor II is strong. (d) Both I and II are strong. Statement:: Should non vegetarian food be totally banned in our country? Arguments:: I. Yes, it is expensive and therefore it is beyond the means of most people in our country. II. No, nothing should be banned in a democratic country like ours. (a) Only argument I is strong. (b) Only argument II is strong. (c) Neither I nor II is strong. (d) Both I and II are strong.

50.

51.

Directions for questions 52 to 61: Each question is based on the application of principles on the given facts. Read the facts carefully, apply the given principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer out of the four choices given under each question. 52. Facts: Mr. X delivered a lecture at a local Rotary Club in favour of an accused who is prosecuted for assaulting a police officer. He said that the accused is a victim of prevailing corruption in the judiciary and he knows that the accused is going to be punished by the Court for being honest. Mr. X is charged for committing contempt of Court. Principle: A person shall not be guilty of contempt of Court on the ground that he has published (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs or by visible representations, or otherwise) any matter which interferes or tends to interfere with or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the course of justice in connection with any civil or criminal proceeding pending at that time of publication, if at that time he had no reasonable grounds for believing that the proceeding was pending. (a) Mr. X has not committed contempt of Court. (b) Mr. X has committed contempt of Court. (c) Mr. X has dishonoured the Court. (d) Mr. X shall be acquitted because he is an honest man. 53. Facts: Amar is a staunch believer of divine powers of Baba Sarvanand and believes that anybody who touches Babas feet shall be cured of any disease. He published a news item in a national daily explaining his experience and powers of Baba. Principle: Advertisement of magic remedy is a punishable offence. Magic remedy includes a talisman, mantra kavacha, and any other charm of any kind which is alleged to possess miraculous powers for or in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation treatment or prevention of any disease in human beings or animals or for affecting or influencing in any way the structure or any organic function of the body of human beings or animals. Whether Amar has committed the offence of advertisement of magical remedy? (a) Yes, Amar has committed the offence. (b) Yes, Amar and national daily both have committed the offence. (c) No, Amar has not committed any offence. (d) Amar has not but national daily has committed the offence. 54. Facts: Amit, while rushing to board a moving train at a station pushed Anil who was walking along with a heavy load, containing fire crackers, the push resulted in slipping of the load from Anils hand. The crackers exploded injuring a boy, Sumit standing nearby. Sumit filed a suit against Amit claiming damages. Principle: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care in order not to injury by an act or omission his neighbour, which he may foresee. The neighbour for this purpose is a person who is likely to be affected by the act or the omission. (a) Amit is not liable, because Sumit is not his neighbour. (b) Amit is not liable, because Anil should not be carrying load of crackers on a Railway station. (c) Amit is liable, because he pushed Anil. (d) Amit is liable because he was running.

55.

Facts: Ramesh is working as a lift operator in a company. One day he was injured while operating the elevator, which fell off the pulleys due to excess greasing by engineers of the company. Whether the company is liable for the injury sustained by Ramesh? Principle: An employer is liable to maintain in good and safe condition any way works, machinery or plant connected with or used in his trade or business, or by reason of any like omission on the part of any person in the service of the employer who has been entrusted by the employer with the duty of seeing that such way, works, machinery or plant are in good and safe condition, any failure in the same shall make company liable for any loss resulting from such failure. (a) No, company is not liable to any one. (b) Yes, company is liable to Ramesh. (c) Yes, company is liable to engineers. (d) None of the above.

56.

Facts: Mr. A in search of job met a quarry owner and requested him to provide any job for the time being. The quarry owner allowed him to work as a labourer and to carry stone boulders from one place to another in the quarry. Unaware of working condition and environment Mr. A tried to remove a huge stone having live dynamite inside, which blew up fracturing the leg of Mr. A. Mr. A filed suit against the quarry owner. Whether A would succeed? Principle: In any suit for damages, the workman shall not be deemed to have undertaken any risk attaching to the employment unless the employer proves that the risk was fully explained to and understood by the workman and that the workman voluntarily undertook the same. (a) No, he undertook the risk of employment. (b) No, he was aware of the dangers involved in the job. (c) Yes, he was never explained the hazards of the given job. (d) None of the above.

57.

Facts: Mr. A saw an unknown man jumping the boundary wall and entering his house in the night. He hid himself in a corner carrying a sword and waiting for the person. The moment the person entered the house, he hit the person and cut his head. Whether Mr. A committed offence of killing a man? Principle: Any act done in exercise of right of private defence shall not be an offence. The right to private defence in no case extends to the inflicting of more harm that it is necessary to inflict for the purpose of defence. (a) Yes, because he should allow any person entering his house (b) No, he has not committed any offence. (c) No, he has not committed any offence because he exercised right of private defence. (d) Yes, because he exceeded right of private defence.

58.

Facts: Amar delivered a colour television to M/s XYZ Courier Services-a common carrier at Delhi to be delivered to his parents in Jaipur in nicely packed condition. Amar paid Rs. 400 as Courier charges. Amars parents informed him that the colour television delivered to them is damaged. Knowing this Amar filed suit against M/s XYZ Courier Services for recovery of Rs. 12,000 (twelve thousand) the price of colour television plus freight and packaging charges. Would he succeed? Principle: No common carrier shall be liable for the loss of or, damage to property delivered to him to be carried exceeding in value one hundred rupees, unless the person delivering such property to be carried, or some person duly authorised in that behalf, shall have expressly declared to such carrier or his agent the value and description thereof. (a) No, Amar will not succeed. (b) Yes, he would because he has suffered loss. (c) Yes, he will but he would not recover more than one hundred rupees. (d) Yes, he will recover the cost of television plus freight and packaging charges that he incurred.

59.

Facts: Ashok a news paper publisher publishes advertisements sponsored by individuals and societies. He published in his news paper an advertisement showing caricature of a bare woman and a plant coming out of her womb and a punch line reading keep the earth green and be greeted by the earth. The sponsor of this advertisement is a society working for protection of environment. Whether Ashok has committed any offence? Principle 1: No person shall publish, or cause to be published, or arrange or take part in the publication or exhibition of, any advertisements which contains indecent representation of women in any form. Principle 2: Any person who contravenes the provisions of Principle 1 shall commit an offence punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, and with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees. (a) Yes, Ashok has committed an offence. (b) No, Ashok has not committed any offence. (c) Ashok has not committed any offence but offence is committed by the sponsoring society. (d) Society has not committed any offence but Ashok definitely has committed the offence.

60.

Facts: Rohan entered into an agreement with a Banker and deposited Rs. Five lakh with the Banker. The terms of the contract provided that Rohans son Suresh shall be the beneficiary of the deposited amount only, if he marries after he attains legally marriageable age. Is agreement between Rohan and Banker void? Principle: Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void. (a) Yes, since the agreement is restraining marriage of Suresh. (b) No, agreement is valid and enforceable. (c) Yes, because Suresh has right to marry once he is eligible to cast his vote. (d) None of the above.

61.

Facts: Ashutosh agrees to pay Baman a sum of money if Baman marries Chandini anytime during Ashutoshs life. Chandini marries Dinesh and soon thereafter Ashutosh dies. Whether agreement between Ashutosh and Baman could be enforced, if Dinesh dies after one year of marriage and Baman marries Chandini? Principle: When a future event on which a contract is dependent is the way in which a person will act at an unspecified time, then the event shall be considered to become impossible when such person does anything which renders it impossible that he should so

act within any definite time, or otherwise than under further contingencies. If the event becomes impossible, such agreements become void. (a) No, agreement has become void. (b) Yes, because Baman ultimately marries Chandini. (c) Yes, because essence of this contract was marriage between Baman and Chandini. (d) Both (b) and (c). 62. What does De minimis non curat lex refer to? (a) The law does not concern itself with trifles (b) To sell property at a very low price (c) Expecting minimal incentive (d) None of the above. What does Bench mean in relation to a judicial proceeding? (a) Courtroom (b) Anteroom for Judges (c) A Judge in Court session (d) Wooden plank for Judges Force majeure refers to: (a) Forced labour (b) An inevitable (c) Majority force (d) Democracy Which one of the following is an example of Intellectual Property Rights? (a) Tenancy rights in a house (b) Copyright (c) Ownership in a motorcar (d) None of the above What does ab initio refer to? (a) Towards the end (b) From the beginning (c) Somewhere in the middle (d) Final goal Which one of the following is the odd word out? (a) Defamation (b) Slander (c) Libel (d) Honour Which one of the following is not part of Alternative Dispute Resolution? (a) Arbitration (b) Litigation (c) Conciliation (d) Mediation What does inter alia refer to? (a) Among other things (b) Interested in aliens (c) Alliance invited (d) All the above

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

Which one of the following supplies the missing number in this series: 1, 4, 10, 19, ?. (a) 28 (b) 31 (c) 32 (d) 33 Which one of the following supplies the missing number in this series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, ?. (a) 64 (b) 66 (c) 72 (d) 76 Six friends are sitting before a dining table in the following order, B is sitting opposite to D, E is sitting opposite to C and A is on the extreme left end of the table facing F. Who is sitting beside B facing D and E? (a) D (b) C (c) A (d) B Which one of the following will complete the series: PMT, OOS, NQR, MSQ, ? (a) LWP (b) LVR (c) LVP (d) LUP There are five books A, B, C, D and E placed on the table. If A is placed below E, C is placed above D, B is placed below A and D is placed above E, then which of the following book touches the surface of the table? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E If the Greenwich Mean Time is 4.30 am, what is the time in Kolkata? (a) 10 am (b) 9.30 am (c) 11.30 pm (d) 10.30 am A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children. F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child, who is C? (a) Bs daughter (b) Ds father (c) As son (d) Es daughter Mr. X went fifteen kilometer to the west from his house, then turned left and walked twenty kilometer. He then turned east and walked twenty five kilometer and finally turning left covered twenty kilometer. How far is he from his house? (a) 10 kilometer (b) 5 kilometer (c) 15 kilometer (d) 20 kilometer

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

In the following number series, how many 9s are there which are preceded by 3 but not followed by four? 2395139673948934932398393 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 2

Directions for questions 79 to 81: In each question below are given two statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III, and IV. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the two given statements. 79. Statements: A. All mean are vertebrates. B. Some mammals are vertebrates. Conclusions: I. All men are mammals. II.All mammals are men. III. Some vertebrates are mammals. IV. All vertebrates are men. (a) Only I follows. (b) Only II and III follow. (c) Only III follows. (d) All follows. 80. Statement: A. All knowledge is good. B. All knowledge is difficult. Conclusion: I. Some good things are difficult. II.All difficult things are knowledge. III. All good things are difficult. IV. Easy things are not knowledge. (a) Only I follows. (b) Only II and III follows. (c) Only II or III follows. (d) Only I or IV follows. 81. Statement: A. All boys are beautiful. B. All beautiful are lovely. Conclusion: I. All boys are lovely. II.Some boys are lovely. III. Some lovely are boys. IV. All beautiful are not lovely. (a) Only I and III follow. (b) Only I follows. (c) Only III and IV follow. (d) None follows.

82.

In a concial cup 4000 (four thousand) drops of water are dropped into it. The diameter of each drop is 4 mm. If the diameter of the end of the cup is same as the height of the cup, what will be the height of water in the cup? (a) 6 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 7 cm The mean weight of 120 students in the first year class of a college is 56 kg. If the mean weight of boys and that of girls in the class are 60 kg and 50 kg respectively, then the number of boys and girls separately in the class are:: (a) 64,42 (b) 38,64 (c) 72,36 (d) 72,48 The number of ways in which six men and five women can dine at a round table if no two women are to sit together is given by: (a) 6! 5! (b) 30 (c) 7! 4! (d) 40 How many meters of cloth 5 meter wide will be required to make a conical tent, the radius of whose base is 7 meter and whose height is 24 meter? (a) 120 meter (b) 100 meter (c) 110 meter (d) 105 meter Mr. X left one third of his property to his widow and three fifth of the remainder to his daughter. He gave rest to his son who received Rs. 6400. How much was his original property worth. (a) Rs. 48,000 (b) Rs. 64,000 (c) Rs. 36,000 (d) Rs. 24,000 Ramesh started a business with a capital of Rs. 18,000. Four months later Suresh joined him with a capital of Rs. 24,000. At the end of the year total profit earned was Rs. 5,100. What is Sureshs share in the profit? (a) Rs. 2,000 (b) Rs. 2,100 (c) Rs. 2,400 (d) Rs. 2,200 Rakesh reaches his office 30 minutes late if he walks from his house at a speed of 3 km/hour and reaches 40 minute early if walks at 4 km/hour. How far is his office from his house in kilometers? (a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

Directions for questions 89 to 93: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below it. Six friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U play Football, Cricket, Tennis, Basketball, Badminton and Volleyball. T who is taller than P and S plays Tennis. The tallest among them plays Basketball. The shortest among them plays Volleyball. Q and S neither play Volleyball nor Basketball. R plays Volleyball. T is between Q who plays football and P in order of height. 89. What does S play? (a) Football (b) Either Cricket or Badminton (c) Cricket (d) Badminton Who among them is taller than R but shorter than P? (a) T (b) Data inadequate (c) Q (d) None of the above Who among them plays Basketball? (a) S (b) U (c) Q (d) R Which one of the following statements is not true? (a) T is taller than R (b) U is taller than Q (c) P is shorter than R (d) Q is taller than S Who will be at the third place if they are arranged in descending order of their height? (a) T (b) Q (c) P (d) S A cistern has two pipes, which can fill it in 2 hours and 3 hours, respectively. A third pipe can empty it in 5 hours. If all the three pipes are turned on when the cistern is empty, when will it be filled? (a) 22 hours 30 hours (b) 19 19 hours (c) 30 (d) 23 hours The compound interest on a sum of money for 3 years at 5% is Rs. 3783. What is the simple interest? (a) Rs. 3,200 (b) Rs. 3,500 (c) Rs. 3,600 (d) Rs. 3,800

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

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96.

If (X 4) (X P) = X2 16 then P is equal to: (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 4 (d) 8 International Finance Corporation Report titled Doing Business 2007 ranked India at which one of the following positions. (a) 144th (b) 134th (c) 120th (d) 109th In which one of the following years the Indian Coast Guard was established? (a) 1989 (b) 1980 (c) 1977 (d) 1971 At which one of the following places the annual meeting of the World Economic Forum was held on January 24-28, 2007: (a) Warsaw (b) Davos (c) Brussels (d) New Delhi

97.

98.

99.

100. What does TFT refer to? (a) Thick Film Transmitter (b) Thin Film Transistor (c) True Film Transmitter (d) Thick Film Transistor 101. The escape velocity of an object projected from the surface of a given planet is independent of: (a) mass of the planet (b) mass of the object (c) opposite to the direction of projection (d) radius of the planet 102. The length of a wire is increased by 1 mm on the application of given load. In a wire of the same material, but of length and radius twice that of the first, on application of the same load extension produced is: (a) 4 mm (b) 2 mm (c) 1 mm (d) 0.5 mm 103. When the Kinetic Energy of a body is increased by 300%, the momentum of the body is increased by: (a) 100% (b) 200% (c) 300% (d) 400%

104. A plastic which can be softened on heating and hardened on cooling is called as: (a) Thermoelastic (b) Thermoplastics (c) Thermosetting (d) Thermite 105. Which one of the following is the mascot of 15th Asian Games? (a) Orry (b) Karak (c) Kangaroo (d) Baby Elephant 106. Under a flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined by: (a) The nations monetary authority (b) The price of gold (c) The nations budget (d) The forces of demand and supply in the foreign exchange market 107. In a perfectly competitive market there exists: (a) Free entry and restricted entry of firms. (b) Free entry and free exit of firms (c) Restricted entry and exit of firms (d) Restricted entry and free exit of firms 108. Which one of the following international games India is hosting in the year 2010? (a) Commonwealth Games (b) Asian Games (c) Olympic Games (d) None of the above 109. An inferior commodity is one which is consumed in smaller quantities when the income of the consumer: (a) Rises (b) Falls (c) Stagnates (d) Becomes Zero 110. The incidence of tax refers to: (a) The level and the rate of taxation (b) Who ultimately bears the burden of tax (c) The growth of taxation (d) The way in which tax is collected 111. Morphine, Codeine and Heroin are chemically known as: (a) Analgesics (b) Narcotics (c) Alkaloids (d) All the above 112. In which one of the following, Nodules with nitrogen fixing bacteria are present? (a) Wheat (b) Cotton (c) Gram (d) Mustard

113. The Indian colliery owners set up the Indian Mining Federation in the year 1913 for the objective of: (a) To encourage collective bargaining (b) To compete with the British (c) To fight racial discrimination and foreign monopoly (d) None of the above 114. Which one of the following Vitamins is responsible for blood clotting? (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K 115. Which one of the following states the Law of Demand? (a) Income rises, Demand rises (b) Price rises, Demand falls (c) Price falls, Demand falls (d) Expenditure rises, Demand rises Directions for questions 116 to 119: Select the most appropriate opposite word for the words given in each of the following questions. 116. Nefarious: (a) Wicked (b) Reprehensible (c) Pious (d) Coherent 117. Desultory: (a) Random (b) Methodical (c) Aimless (d) Lacking 118. Sacrosanct: (a) Religious (b) Sanctimonious (c) Sacramental (d) Unholy 119. Ignominy: (a) Discomfiture (b) Discredit (c) Honour (d) Stupidity Directions for questions 120 to 124: Choose the best alternative to fill the blanks in the given sentences. 120. The prosecutor asked the accused to tell the court.. (a) Where were you at the time the crime was committed? (b) You were where at the time the crime was committed. (c) Where was she at the time the crime was committed? (d) Where she was at the time the crime was committed.

121. The man her basket and ran out of the shop before anyone could stop him. (a) caught out (b) caught up (c) caught up on (d) caught up in 122. It is unwise to all your capital one enterprise. (a) tie on, on (b) tie down, on (c) tie up, in (d) tie in with, in 123. The day a heavy turnout of voters in urban and rural areas. (a) proved, queue (b) showed, both (c) witnessed, both (d) presented, lines 124. The disputes between India and Pakistan are of a more serious nature than .. between India and its other neighbours. (a) that exist (b) that existing (c) those that exist (d) that which exists 125. Which one of the following sentences is grammatically correct? (a) There is much hot this summer. (b) My leg is paining. (c) I made a good shot at the goal. (d) The others boys are not present. 126. Which one of the following sentences is incorrect? (a) I have no money to buy a motor car. (b) I am not teacher, I am student. (c) He drank half a glass of milk. (d) A hundred years make a century. Directions for questions 127 to 131: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. The average growth rate of the Indian economy over a period of 25 years since 1980-81 (financial year beginning April) has been about 6.0 per cent, with the growth rate averaging 9.1 per cent during the last two years. The economy has shown considerable resilience during the recent years, as evidenced by the avoidance of adverse contagion impact of several shocks in the Emerging Market Economies and the ability to cope with oil price increases. The strengthening of economic activity in the recent years has been supported by persistent increase in domestic investment rate from 22.9 per cent of GDP in 2001-02 to 33.8 per cent in 2005-06 coupled with more efficient use of capital. Domestic saving rate has also improved from 23.5 per cent to 32.4 per cent during the same period. While the services sector continues to be the driver of growth with a share of around 60 per cent in the overall GDP, a noteworthy development during the recent years has been the continued recovery in industrial sector, particularly the manufacturing sector supported by domestic as well export demand. The financial sector has acquired greater strength, efficiency and stability by the combined effect of competition, regulatory measures, policy environment and motivation among the market

players including banks. The Government securities market is quite deep, liquid and vibrant and well developed in terms of instruments/processes/participants. The exchange rate of the rupee has been flexible, particularly, in the last few years and the turnover in the foreign exchange market has increased considerably. The stock market has been opened to foreign institutional investors and is comparable with major international equity markets. However there are certain challenges to be addressed. The poor state of the physical infrastructure, both in terms of quantity and quality is considered to be most critical hindrance for Indias progress by many. The most important issue here is regulatory framework and overall investment climate, which are being addressed by the Government. Secondly, fiscal consolidation still remains a matter of concern, especially in the eyes of the rating agencies. The recent budget of the Central Government brings the consolidation on track. Studies on State finances by the Reserve Bank of India give grounds for optimism in regard to their fiscal health. Two important areas could be recognized which, if addressed would result in fiscal empowerment. One is elimination of subsidies, which are not directly targeted to the poor or inappropriate, and the second is elimination of most of the tax exemptions, which are patently distortionary. Another challenging issue relates to development of agriculture. While over 60 per cent of the workforce is dependent on agriculture, the GDP growth generated from agriculture is only marginally above the rate of growth of the population, which is not adequate to ensure rapid poverty reduction. 127. A noteworthy development during the recent period has been the: (a) Rapid development of agriculture along with industrial growth. (b) Rapid development of industries along with the services sector. (c) Rapid development of agriculture along with the services sector. (d) Rapid development of services along with agricultural sector. 128. What does fiscal consolidation imply in the above paragraph? (a) Increase in savings. (b) Reduction in unproductive Government expenditure. (c) Reduction in taxes. (d) Reduction in investment. 129. Which one of the following is not an ingredient of financial sector reforms? (a) Exchange rate flexibility. (b) Development of equity market. (c) Development of infrastructure. (d) Development of the Government securities market. 130. According to given paragraph, which one of the following has not contributed to rising growth rate in Indian economy? (a) Agricultural sector. (b) Financial sector. (c) Services Sector. (d) Industrial Sector. 131. Which one of the following is not true about the Indian agricultural sector? (a) It provides employment to 60% of the workforce. (b) It has not been highly successful in reducing poverty level in the country. (c) The GDP growth generated from agriculture is less than the rate of growth of population. (d) The GDP growth generated from agriculture is higher than the rate of growth of population.

Directions for questions 132 to 136: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. History of government in America shows a gradual development of the system. Local governments were the first governments. The primitive tribe that chose the strongest man to be its chief and the oldest men to form a council was establishing local government. It was seeking a better safer life. In the same way, the first English settlers who landed at Jamestown, Virginia, in 1607 soon realized that they needed rules and leaders. At first, the settlers searched for gold and had to find their own food and provide their own shelter. As food supplies began to run low, and as the colonists faced hunger and disease, they saw that they needed to work together if the colony was to survive. The colonists formed a council to make laws for the colony. They chose Captain John Smith as president of the council to see that the laws were carried out. This government at Jamestown was the first local government in America. Today, local government is still the first and most important government in American lives. It protects lives, provides safety, and homes, and it helps to keep environment clean. Local government provides Americans with schools, libraries and other important services. 132. The Jamestown colonists formed a government because of: (a) Pride (b) Greed (c) Necessity (d) Togetherness 133. The most suitable title for this passage would be: (a) Historical evolution (b) The first government (c) American Life (d) Rules and leaders 134. The first colonial government according to the given passage was: (a) Local government (b) Federal government (c) City government (d) Necessity government 135. The overall goal of local government seems to be public: (a) Annihilation (b) Protection (c) Growth (d) Development 136. What did settlers search first? (a) Silver (b) Law and rules (c) Gold (d) Peace

Directions for questions 137 to 140: Select the word which closely fits the definition given in each of the following question. 137. One who does a thing for pleasure and not as profession? (a) Empirical (b) Diabolical (c) Amateur (d) Philanderer 138. Government by Priests or a government which has its state religion is called. (a) Aristocracy (b) Oligarchy (c) Sacerdotal (d) Theocracy 139. Animals that live in flock are called? (a) Gregarious (b) Pugnacious (c) Migratory (d) Parasite 140. To free a person from charge or blame: (a) Inculpate (b) Exculpate (c) Inculcate (d) Circumvent Directions for questions 141 to 150: Each question is based on arrangement of parts of legal phrases in one sentence, providing the most appropriate meaning. One or more parts of the sentence is given in the question, remaining parts of the sentence are to be sequentially selected from the remaining four parts of the sentence (P, Q, R, S) given under each questions. Most suitable sequence is required to be selected from the four choices (a, b, c, d) given for each question. 141. When a party . Or disabled his promise in its entirety, unless he has signified, .. in its continuance. (P) to a contract has refused to perform, (Q) himself from performing, (R) the promisee may put an end to the contract, (S) by words or conduct, his acquiescence (a) PQRS (b) SQPR (c) QSRP (d) RPSQ

142. if it appears from .. that it was . That by the promisor himself, such promise must be (P) the nature of the case (Q) any promise contained in it should be performed (R) the intention of the parties to any contract (S) performed by the promisor (a) PQRS (b) PRQS (c) QSRP (d) QRSP 143. Where a debtor, makes a payment to him, .. or under circumstances implying, the payment, must be applied accordingly. (P) either with express intimation, (Q) owing several distinct debts to one person, (R) that the payment is to be applied to the discharge of some particular debt, (S) if accepted. (a) QPRS (b) PQRS (c) PRQS (d) SRPQ 144. shall be a body corporate having with power to acquire and hold property, . And to contract, and may by the name .. sued. (P) by which it is known sue and be (Q) Every Bar Council (R) perpetual succession and a common seal, (S) both movable and immovable, (a) PQRS (b) QPSR (c) QRSP (d) QSPR 145. Parliament . admit into the Union, or . on such terms and it (P) may by law (Q) establish, new States (R) conditions as (S) thinks fit (a) PQRS (b) SRQP (c) RQPS (d) QPRS 146. The State . any person or the equal . the laws . of India. (P) protection of (Q) equality before the law (R) shall not deny to (S) within the territory (a) PQRS (b) SRQP (c) RQPS (d) QPRS

147. No of fourteen to work in ... or engaged in any . Employment. (P) child below the age (Q) years shall be employed (R) any factory o mine (S) other hazardous (a) RSQP (b) PQRS (c) SQRP (d) QPRS 148. The State shall . panchayats and .. and authority as may be .. them to self-government. (P) function as units of (Q) necessary to enable (R) endow them with such powers (S) take steps to organise village (a) RSQP (b) PQRS (c) SRQP (d) QSRP 149. The State shall for . A uniform . the .. India. (P) territory of (Q) endeavour to secure (R) the citizens (S) civil code throughout (a) PQRS (b) QRSP (c) RSPQ (d) RQPS 150. There shall be a the consist of .. and two Houses to be known respectively as the the House of the People. (P) the President (Q) Parliament for (R) Council of States and (S) Union which shall (a) RSQP (b) SQPR (c) PQRS (d) QSPR