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The menu of Zippy's Pizza Parlour features 4 specialty pizzas, as well as the option for customers to create their

own combinations. The prices of the pizzas are set out in the table below.

1. Which of the specialty pizzas represents the best bargain, i.e., the greatest savings over the custom combination price for the same pizza, for the customer? A. Specialty 1 B. Specialty 2 C. Specialty 3 D. Specialty 4 E. Can't tell

2. Over a certain weekend, Zippy's sold &pound;1,727.75 worth of Specialty 1 and Specialty 2 pizzas. In total, Zippy's sold 124 of these two types of pizzas. How many of the Specialty 2 pizzas did Zippy's sell? A. 96 B. 76 C. 69 D. 55 E. 14

3. The owner of the pizza parlour is considering changing the price of the Specialty 3 pizza, which is Zippy's most popular. The owner believes that, for every &pound;0.05 increase in price, the parlour will sell, on average, one fewer of that particular type of pizza each month, and that for every &pound;0.05 decrease in price, the parlour will sell, on average, 1 more of that particular type of pizza each month. For each of the last six months, Zippy's has sold 180 Specialty 3s. If you assume that the owner's belief is correct, which of the following prices will maximise Zippy's revenue on the Specialty 3 pizza? A. &pound;16.15 B. &pound;16.20 C. &pound;16.25 D. &pound;16.30 E. &pound;16.35

4. The cost to Zippy's to produce a pizza is &pound;7.34 plus the cost of toppings. The costs of some of the toppings are laid out in the following table.

What is Zippy's profit on each of the Specialty 4 pizzas it sells? A. &pound;15.50 B. &pound;10.97 C. &pound;8.16 D. &pound;4.20 E. &pound;3.63

The 'play list' of a radio station is a list of the songs eligible to be played at the station, along with the number of times per day that the song may be played, at maximum. Part of the play list for a specific day at a small, independent radio station is reproduced below.

5. If the radio station wanted to increase the number of plays of 'Yellow Sun, Yellow Moon' and 'Going to the Sea' by three plays each, what is the minimum number of other songs that must have their number of plays reduced in order to free up the time, if no song may have its number of plays reduced by more than 1? A. 8 B. 7 C. 6 D. 5 E. 4

6. If the radio station must pay &pound;0.25 in royalties for each time it plays any given record, what is the lowest amount of royalties it would pay for any given hour? Assume that no song may be played more than three times in any hour, and that only music is played during that hour. A. &pound;3.25 B. &pound;3.50 C. &pound;3.75 D. &pound;4.00 E. &pound;4.25

7. Because 'Flat-top Mountain' and 'Yellow Sun, Yellow Moon' are performed by the same artist, the radio station pays less in royalties if it plays both within the same hour. It must pay &pound;0.25 (which is the standard royalty it pays for any song on the list) when it plays the first of these two songs, but only &pound;0.10 when it plays the second one. What is the maximum amount it could save in any day by playing both songs in the same hour? A. &pound;3.60 B. &pound;2.40 C. &pound;0.50 D. &pound;0.30 E. &pound;0.15

8. What percentage of the radio station's musical programming for one day can be filled by playing the listed songs the maximum allowed number of times? Assume that the station must set aside 10 minutes per hour for news, and 12.5 minutes per hour for advertisements. A. 73.0% B. 60.0% C. 44.2% D. 28.2% E. 17.6%

In presidential elections in the United States, the winner of the election is the person who receives a majority of the votes of the delegates to the 'Electoral College'. Each state sends a certain number of delegates to the Electoral College based on that state's population; no state sends fewer than three, and the largest state, California, sends 55. There are 538 delegates in total, and the winning candidate for president must capture the votes of at least 270 of the delegates. The following chart depicts the number of Electoral College delegates from each state.

9. What is the smallest number of states' Electoral College delegates a candidate must win in order to win the presidential election? A. 11 B. 58 C. 125

D. 206 E. 271

10. What is the largest number of states' Electoral College delegates a candidate might win and still lose the presidential election? A. 13 B. 26 C. 35 D. 40 E. 42

11. If Candidate X won the electoral college votes of all delegates from California, Delaware, Florida, Kentucky, Missouri, Nevada, New York, Ohio, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island and Texas, which of the following combinations of states would allow that candidate to win the election, if he or she also won all of their electoral college votes as well? A. New Jersey, North Carolina, Oregon and Virginia B. Georgia, Michigan, Oklahoma and Washington C. Georgia, Indiana, Massachusetts and Tennessee D. Arkansas, Illinois, Louisiana and North Carolina E. Arizona, Colorado, Illinois and Maryland

12. The number of delegates each state sends to the Electoral College is determined by the following formula: 2 + (population of the state/650,000). Which of the following states could have a population of 4,500,000? A. Colorado B. Louisiana C. Idaho D. Both A and B E. Both A and C

The results realised by several teams of salespersons in the UK are shown in the following table. The second table shows the collective commissions earned by those teams.

13. The company that employs these salespeople strives to pay commissions that reflect the difficulty of the sale - i.e., a salesperson in a tough selling environment will receive more in commissions per pound sold than someone in an easier selling environment. Assuming that it has successfully done this, which team had the most difficulty selling in the period indicated? A. Leeds Team B. Manchester Team C. Newcastle Team D. Derby Team E. Can't tell

14. After the publication of the above charts, an error was discovered. &pound;85,000 of sales that had been credited to the Newcastle Team should have been credited to the Leeds Team. What is the corrected percentage of total sales that were made by the Leeds Team? A. 8% B. 13% C. 22% D. 29% E. 34%

15. If each of the Leeds and Derby Teams' representatives earned the same amount in commissions, and if the Derby Team had 2 more representatives than the Leeds Team did, how many salespersons are on the Derby Team? A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10 E. 11

16. What is the ratio of total commissions earned to total sales achieved collectively by the Southern and Derby Teams? A. 0.109 B. 0.122 C. 0.132 D. 0.148 E. 0.150

17. A fruit drink advertises that it has 5 percent apple juice. Children pour themselves another cup of this fruit drink and then add

cup of fruit drink that has 50 percent apple juice.

Which is most nearly the percent of apple juice in the children's mixed drink? A. 12.5% B. 16.3% C. 17.5% D. 55.0% E. 65.0%

18. The fire department has two classes of employees, responders and administrators. The department requires a physical for each new employee, unless that employee has had a physical in the previous year or is an administrator. Last month, the fire department required physicals of 6 new employees. If of the new employees are responders, how

(1)

of the new employees are administrators who have

had a physical in the previous year. (2) of the new responders have had a physical in the

previous year. A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. D. EITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

19. A jar contains 20 marbles, each of a single color: red, green, blue, or black. If a single marble is drawn at random, what is the probability that it will be red? (1) The probability that a marble will not be a given color is the same for all 4 colors. (2) There are 5 red marbles. A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient. D. EITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question. E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

20. If (1) x (2) |y| 4 4

, is z

8?

A. Statement (1) by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. B. Statement (2) by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. C. Statements (1) and (2) taken together are sufficient to answer the question, even though neither statement by itself is sufficient. D. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question. E. Statements (1) and (2) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled 'Set A' and 'Set B'. You will also be shown a 'Test Shape'. Your task is to determine whether the test shape belongs to Set A or Set B or neither set. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to each other, and in what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other. You then have to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B or neither set.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

A. Set A B. Set B C. Neither

26. Car X and car Y begin a trip at the same time and travel at the constant rate of 60 miles per hour. If car X gets 6 miles per gallon and car Y gets 7.5 miles per gallon, how many more minutes will it take car Y to consume 30 gallons than it takes car X to consume the same amount? A. 60 B. 45 C. 30 D. 24 E. 15

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled 'Set A' and 'Set B'. You will also be shown a 'Test Shape'. Your task is to determine whether the test shape belongs to Set A or Set B or neither set. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to each other, and in what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other. You then have to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B or neither set.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

A. Set A B. Set B C. Neither

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled 'Set A' and 'Set B'. You will also be shown a 'Test Shape'. Your task is to determine whether the test shape belongs to Set A or Set B or neither set. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to each other, and in what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other. You then have to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B or neither set.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

A. Set A B. Set B C. Neither

37. If the sides of a triangle have lengths x, y, and z, x + y = 30, and y + z = 20, then which of the following could be the perimeter of the triangle? I. 28 II. 36 III. 42 A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II, and III

Panama Canal The difficulty of carrying waterborne goods between the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans was greatly eased by the opening of the Panama Canal in 1914. The Canal shortened trade routes by bypassing the hazardous 8,000 nautical-mile trip around Cape Horn. The many benefits of the Canal beg the question of why it took so long to build it, as plans to build it had languished for some four hundred years. The story of the building of the Canal illustrates both the incredible difficulty of the undertaking and the amazing tenacity of the human spirit. The distance across the Isthmus of Panama is a mere 40 miles. This relatively short distance belies the difficulty inherent in the transit, however; the terrain is mountainous, the jungle is thick, and the area is plagued by yellow fever and malaria. Of these obstacles, the terrain is the most confounding. A canal would either have to be cut through the mountains, which would require record-setting amounts of earth to be moved, or to be built using a series of locks to, in effect, climb over the mountains. In 1880, a French company procured the permission of the government of Colombia - of which Panama was a province at the time - to dig a lockless canal across the isthmus. Vast amounts of materiel were put in place, and hundreds of thousands of engineers, labourers and support personnel were relocated to the jungles of Panama. Unfortunately, their efforts were for naught; poor planning, too-light equipment, and disease (which caused the deaths of some 22,000 people) doomed the French effort to failure, and their canal was abandoned in 1888. In 1902, the American government approved the purchase of the French assets still in place in Panama. A major roadblock - the opposition of the Colombian government to the American proposal - was overcome by inciting Panama to secede from

Colombia. Around the same time, the discovery of the mosquito as the vector species for malaria led to improved sanitation and disease-control efforts in the area, which eliminated the threats of malaria and yellow fever. These victories, along with an improved lock-based design for transiting the continental divide, helped ensure the Americans' success. 38. Panama was not a nation until the twentieth century. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

39. American efforts to build the Panama Canal could not have succeeded without previous efforts by the French. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

40. The decision about whether or not to use locks in the canal's design was hotly contested among French engineers. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

41. The primary difficulty faced by those who wanted to build the Panama Canal was the distance across the isthmus. A. True B. False C. Can't tell

42. If water spills over a dam at a constant rate of 600,000 gallons every 4 hours, how many hours would it take for 1,500,000 gallons of water to spill over at the same rate? A. 10 B. 9 C. 8 D. 4 E. 1

The following chart displays the number of dogs of four popular breeds that were registered with a local dog club during a particular three-month period.

43. In which month was the largest number of dogs registered with the club? A. April B. May C. June D. Both A and B E. Both B and C

44. Which breed of dog had the most registrations during this period? A. Bull Dogs B. Collies C. Poodles D. Sheep Dogs E. Can't tell

45. What percent of all dogs registered in May were either Collies or Sheep Dogs? A. 11% B. 28% C. 32% D. 40% E. 60%

46. On average, how many more Sheep Dogs than Collies were registered each month during this period? A. 20.0 B. 15.3 C. 10.3 D. 9.7 E. 5.0

Chewing gum Sarah is buying packs of chewing gum at a sweet shop. She buys some regular packs, which contain 8 sticks of gum each, and some jumbo packs, which contain 15 sticks of gum each. A regular pack of gum costs &pound;0.70 and a jumbo pack costs &pound;1.15. 47. The total number of sticks of gum that Sarah buys could be: A. 44 B. 47 C. 49 D. 51 E. 52

48. Sarah has &pound;4. How much money will Sarah have left if she buys the maximum number of sticks possible with her &pound;4? A. &pound;0.05 B. &pound;0.30 C. &pound;0.55 D. &pound;0.75 E. &pound;0.80

49. Sarah spends a total of &pound;9.05 on regular and jumbo packs of gum at the store. If she buys one more regular pack, she will have three times as many regular packs of gum as she would jumbo packs. How many total packs of gum does Sarah buy? A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11 E. 12

50. Sarah will evenly divide the gum that she buys among herself and five friends. What is the minimum amount of money Sarah must spend to ensure that each person gets an equal number of sticks? A. &pound;1.85 B. &pound;2.10 C. &pound;2.30 D. &pound;2.50 E. &pound;2.60

B. n = -6

52. What is the remainder when (1) x is a multiple of 3. (2) x is a multiple of 5.

is divided by 10?

A. Statement (1) by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. B. Statement (2) by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. C. Statements (1) and (2) taken together are sufficient to answer the question, even though neither statement by itself is sufficient. D. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question. E. Statements (1) and (2) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled 'Set A' and 'Set B'. You will also be shown a 'Test Shape'. Your task is to determine whether the test shape belongs to Set A or Set B or neither set. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to each other, and in what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other. You then have to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B or neither set.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

A. Set A B. Set B C. Neither

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled 'Set A' and 'Set B'. You will also be shown a 'Test Shape'. Your task is to determine whether the test shape belongs to Set A or Set B or neither set. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to each other, and in what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other. You then have to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B or neither set.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

A. Set A B. Set B C. Neither

63. If the Board of Selectmen contains 4 positions, and if in the current election two candidates are running for each position, how many different combinations of candidates could be elected to the Board? A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16 E. 24

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled 'Set A' and 'Set B'. You will also be shown a 'Test Shape'. Your task is to determine whether the test shape belongs to Set A or Set B or neither set. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to each other, and in what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other. You then have to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B or neither set.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

A. Set A B. Set B C. Neither

Chimpanzee code In a remote region of Western Africa, anthropologists have been studying a community of chimpanzees that have developed a primitive written code system to communicate. The chimpanzees use sticks to write codes in the dirt or mud, and appear to engage in some form of conversation with each other. By studying the behaviour of the chimpanzees when they read or write the codes, a team of anthropologists has been able to develop a preliminary translation for the code system, as reflected in the table below. You have been invited to accompany your anthropology professor on a field trip to observe the community of chimpanzees, but first you must demonstrate your proficiency with the code system. Your professor has asked you to examine specific codes or sentences and then choose the best answer from five possible interpretations. Sometimes the information will be incomplete or imperfect, but there will always be an answer that makes sense. In other words, there will be a 'best' answer that makes the most sense given the information you have, but you will have to use your judgment and make reasonable inferences to determine the best answer.

69. What is the best interpretation of the following coded message: 12, 5, 6 A. At night, the trees can look dangerous. B. At night, the trees can be dangerous. C. At night, the trees can look scary. D. A tree can be scary at night. E. A tree can look dangerous at night.

70. is the best interpretation of the following coded message: 9, 7C, 3C A. I will feed my family tomorrow. B. Feed my family tomorrow. C. Feed your family tomorrow. D. Your family should take your food for tomorrow. E. My family should hide our food for tomorrow.

71. What is the best interpretation of the following coded message: 9G, 13C, 2A A. More humans were visible yesterday than today. B. I looked for humans yesterday. C. I saw many humans yesterday. D. A human saw me yesterday. E. Humans saw me yesterday.

72. What is the best interpretation of the following coded message: 13, 10, D(1F, 5) A. Climbing a tree is the best way to escape a predator. B. There are many predators in the trees. C. Run as fast as you can when you see a predator. D. If you see a predator, quickly climb a tree. E. Predators move very quickly through the trees.

73. What is the best interpretation of the following coded message: 13C, 11, 18, 15, CF A. See a snake, throw a stick quickly. B. If you see a snake, throw a stick as fast as you can. C. People who see snakes should throw sticks quickly. D. Anyone who sees a snake should throw a stick as fast as possible. E. You better throw a stick more quickly than a snake can move.

74. What would be the best way to encode the following message: A clean family has nothing to hide. A. 3, 16G, B(GA, 8) B. 3, 16G, G8, AB C. 3, 16G, G8, B D. 3(16G), GA, 8 E. 3(16G), GB, 8

75. What would be the best way to encode the following message: Most chimpanzees can spot predators from the trees. A. 14, 13(10), 13(5) B. 14A, 13(10), 13(5) C. 14A, 13F, 10, 5 D. 14A(13, 10), 5 E. 14A(13F, 10), 5

76. What is the best interpretation of the following coded message: 14(BG), 7(AG) A. No chimpanzees eat more than humans. B. One chimpanzee doesn't have enough food. C. No chimpanzee has any food. D. None of the chimpanzees has any food. E. None of the chimpanzees has enough food.

77. What is the best interpretation of the following coded message: DE(1, 5), (11, 5) A. Don't go in the tree because there is a snake in it. B. No trees have snakes in them. C. Snakes don't like the trees. D. Don't cut down the trees. E. Run to the trees if you see a snake.

78. What would be the best way to encode the following message: A day without snakes is even sunnier. A. 12G, 11E, B(4A) B. 12G, 11E, A(4A) C. 12G, 11E, 4A D. 9, 4, 11E, 4A E. 9, 4, 11E, B(4A)

79. What is the best interpretation of the following coded message: 2(AG), C(EG) A. Few humans like chimpanzees. B. Some humans like chimpanzees. C. No humans like me. D. Few humans like me E. Many humans like me.

80. What is the best interpretation of the following coded message: 14B, (1, 7), (4, 12G) A. All the chimpanzees must find food during the daytime. B. All chimpanzees like to eat at night. C. Few chimpanzees search for food at dawn. D. Chimpanzees like the sunlight. E. All chimpanzees prey on nocturnal species.

81. What would be the best way to encode the following message: Tomorrow night we will see more humans. A. 13C, 2B, 9, 12 B. 13C, 2, 9, 12 C. 13C, 2A, 9, 12 D. 13(AC), 2B, 9, 12 E. 13(AC), 2A, 9

82. All but 50 of the 1,000 plants at the annual flower show were sold. Of the plants sold, 30 percent were sold at a discount of 25 percent off the full price, and the remaining plants were sold at the full price of \$12. What was the total revenue from the plant sales? A. \$8,550 B. \$8,835 C. \$10,545 D. \$11,100 E. \$12,000

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled 'Set A' and 'Set B'. You will also be shown a 'Test Shape'. Your task is to determine whether the test shape belongs to Set A or Set B or neither set. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to each other, and in what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other. You then have to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B or neither set.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

A. Set A B. Set B C. Neither

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled 'Set A' and 'Set B'. You will also be shown a 'Test Shape'. Your task is to determine whether the test shape belongs to Set A or Set B or neither set. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to each other, and in what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other. You then have to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B or neither set.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

A. Set A B. Set B C. Neither

93. A paint mixture contains blue paint and yellow paint in a ratio of 5:2. If there are 14 liters of yellow paint in the mixture, how many more liters of yellow paint must be added to make the mixture yellow?

A. B. C. D. 56 E. 60

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled 'Set A' and 'Set B'. You will also be shown a 'Test Shape'. Your task is to determine whether the test shape belongs to Set A or Set B or neither set. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to each other, and in what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other. You then have to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B or neither set.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

A. Set A B. Set B C. Neither

99. What is the average of p, q, and r? (1) p + 3q - 2r = 5 (2) 4p + 2q + 7r = -5 A. Statement (1) by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. B. Statement (2) by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. C. Statements (1) and (2) taken together are sufficient to answer the question, even though neither statement by itself is sufficient. D. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question. E. Statements (1) and (2) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

The Dakar Rally is an off-road automobile race with a course that changes from year to year, but that usually has the city of Dakar, Senegal as its destination. Courses the race followed in the years 2004, 2005 and 2006 are listed below.

100. In which year's race did the winner have the fastest average speed, in km per day? A. 2004 B. 2005 C. 2006 D. Can't tell E. Both B and C

101. Assuming that the 2005 winner averaged 12 hours and 15 minutes of driving time each day, what was the average speed in km per hour of the winning vehicle that year? A. 531.94 B. 738.20 C. 163.50 D. 43.42 E. 22.16

102. If the winner of the 2006 drove 10 hours per day in each of the first 6 days of the race, and 11.5 hours per day in each of the remaining 10 days, what was the average speed in km per hour for that race? A. 43.55 B. 49.48 C. 51.67 D. 78.63 E. 150.72

103. On what day did the 2004 winner pass the half-way point in the race, assuming he covered the same number of km each day? A. January 11 B. January 10 C. January 9 D. January 8 E. January 7

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled 'Set A' and 'Set B'. You will also be shown a 'Test Shape'. Your task is to determine whether the test shape belongs to Set A or Set B or neither set. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to each other, and in what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other. You then have to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B or neither set.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

A. Set A B. Set B C. Neither

109. The circular base of a planter sits on a level lawn, and just touches two straight garden walls at points W and Y. The walls come together at point X, which is 15 inches from the center of the planter. What is the area of the base of the planter? (1) Both points Y and W are 9 inches from the center of the planter. (2) Point W is 12 inches from point X. A. Statement (1) by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not. B. Statement (2) by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not. C. Statements (1) and (2) taken together are sufficient to answer the question, even though neither statement by itself is sufficient. D. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question. E. Statements (1) and (2) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

The following chart shows the number of shares of certain company's stock that were purchased at various prices on a given day.

110. The Law of Demand states that as the price of a good increases, the demand for that good decreases, all else equal. Which of the following stocks illustrates this principle? A. Alpha, Inc. B. Beta, Ltd. C. Gamma, LLC D. Delta Co. E. Can't tell

111. Which company's stock sold the most shares on the day in question? A. Alpha, Inc B. Beta, Ltd. C. Gamma, LLC D. Delta Co. E. Can't tell

112. Assuming that everyone who bought shares of Gamma LLC at a price between &pound;1 and &pound;2, and sold them on the same day, sold them at a price of &pound;4.50 per share. Assume further that every share bought at a price between &pound;4 and &pound;5 was bought earlier that same day at a price between &pound;1 and &pound;2. Which of the following represents the best estimate of the gross profit (sale price - purchase price) X number of shares sold) that they realised? A. &pound;35,437.50 B. &pound;29,877.50 C. &pound;22,837.50 D. &pound;16,545.50 E. &pound;11,812.50

113. Which company's stock enjoyed the greatest price increase over the course of the day? A. Alpha, Inc. B. Beta, Ltd. C. Gamma, LLC D. Delta Co E. Can't tell

114. If two sides of a triangle are 12 and 8, which of the following could be the area of the triangle? I. 35 II. 48 III. 56 A. I only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. II and III only E. I, II, and III