ANTI-INFECTIVE AGENTS 1- Cephalosporin mechanism of action may include: a) Inhibit protein synthesis b) Inhibit cell wall synthesis

c) Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites d) Alter the function of cell membrane permeability e) Inhibit translation of genetic information

2- The bacteriostatic effect of sulfametoxazole may be increased by: a) Penicillin b) Sulbactam c) Clavulanic acid d) Tarzobactam e) Trimetroprim

3-Correct statements regarding Penicillin V may include which of the following? I-β-lactamase sensitive antibiotic – acid stable II- Has a short half-life because is rapidly excreted by glomerular filtration III- Probenecid increase penicillin’s activity a) I only B) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

4- The only antibiotic available as chew able tablet includes: a) Penicillin b) Amoxicillin c) Ampicillin d) Erythromycin e) Clarithromycin

5- Correct statements regarding Erythromycin ESTOLATE may include:

I- Primarily effective against gram-positive bacteria and also have activity against some Gram-negative bacteria II- It is a macro lid antibiotic very useful as alternative to penicillin for those that have Allergy to penicillin antibiotics III- Regular erythromycin is better absorbed from GIT that erythromycin estolate a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

6- Penicillin should be administrated 1 hour before meals or 2 to 3 hours after meals in order to: I- Improve the bioavailability II- Maximize the dissolution rate III- Avoid interaction with calcium ions a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

7-Drugs used in the treatment of meningitis are all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Penicillins b) Cephalosporins c) Gentamycin d) Streptomycin e) Sulfonamides

8- Examples of antibiotic that is an acid stable penicillinase resistant include: a) Amoxicillin b) Oxacillin c) Ampicillin D) Carbenicillin e) Penicillin V

9- All of the following penicillins are acid label penicillins, EXCEPT: a) Penicillin V b) Penicillin G c) Methicillin d) Nafcillin e) Carbenicillin

10-Which of the following are/is correct regarding Tetracycline? I- Inhibit protein synthesis II- May be used in dental works III- Cannot be taken for infants less than 8 years old a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

11- Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of sulfametoxazole? a) Inhibit protein synthesis b) Inhibit cell growth by competitive antagonism with folic acid synthesis c) Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites d) Alter the function of cell membrane permeability e) Inhibit translation of genetic information

12- Mechanism of inhibit protein synthesis is characteristic of all the following antibiotics, EXCEPT:

Which of the following agents may interfere with the regular effect of penicillins? a) Antacids b) Food c) Probenecid d) Aminoglycosides e) All of the above 14.Which of the following drugs cannot be taken orally? a) INH b) PASA c) ASA d) Streptomycin e) Oxacillin 15.Example of drug used in prophylaxis of malaria includes: a) Cloroquine b) Quinine c) Primaquin d) Quinine e) Quinidine 16.Which of the following is NOT an anti-fungal drug? a) Amphotericin B b) Metronidazole c) Griseofulvin d) Nystatin e) Clotrimazole .a) Aminoglycosides b) Tetracycline c) Cephalexin d) Chloramphenicol e) Clindamycin 13.

Occurs in premature and new born infants when choramphenicol is administrated during the first few days of life II.17.Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Gray Babies syndrome? I.The effect continue remain after all drug is eliminated III.Has a half-life of 12hours II.The relation plasma concentration and half-life is not clear a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 20.Examples of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may include: a) Gentamycin b) Ceftriaxone c) Norfloxacin d) Erythromycin e) Penicillin 18.Glucoronyl transferase is required to detoxify cloramphenicol a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct .Correct statements regarding aminoglycosides may include: I.Due to inability of the infant to metabolize the drug because of glucoronyl transferase deficiency III.Which of the following agents may best treat Meningococcal encephalitis? a) Sulfametoxazole b) Erythromycin c) Cephalexin d) Tetracycline e) Penicillin 19.

21- Correct statements regarding Pellagra include: I- Caused due to deficiency of niacin II- Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin III- Characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

22- Gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease may be treated by which of the following agents? I- Cefixime II- Ceftriaxone III- Ciprofloxacin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

23- Nosocomial infections may be best treated by which of the following agents? I- Cephalosporin 3rd generation II- Macrolides antibiotics III- Penicillins a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

24- Viral encephalitis, a CNS infection, may be best be treated by which of the following agents? a) Benzyl penicillin b) Ceftriaxone

c) Acyclovir d) Streptomycin e) Vancomycin

25- Example of drug(s) used to treat pneumonia includes: I- Ampicillin combined with aminoglycosides II-Clarithromycin III- Levofloxacin

a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

26- Otitis extern, an ear infection may be best is best treated by: a) Ciprofloxacin eardrop b) Gentamicin eardrop c) Prednisone eardrop d) Levobunolol eardrop e) Saline solution

27- Otitis media is an ear infection normally caused by S. pneumoniae and may be best treated by: a) Amoxicillin b) Penicillin V c) Ampicillin d) Amoxicillin clavulanate e) Oxacillin

28- First line treatment for UTI-Urinary Tract Infection may include: a) Sulfametoxazole + Trimetoprim b) Amoxicillin clavulanate c) Penicillin procaine d) Erythromycin

e) All are very effective in treating UTI

29- Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy? a) Penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin and metronidazole b) Clarithromycin, amoxicillin, omeprazole and metronidazole c) Clarithromycin, azithromycin and lansoprazole d) Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only e) Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.

30- Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication may include: I- Lots of fluids II- Ciprofloxacin III- Metronidazole a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

31- Colitis associated with antibiotic use can best be treated by: a) Cephalosporins b) Macrolides c) Aminoglycosides d) Vancomycin e) Penicillin

32- Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include: I- Broad-spectrum penicillins II- Cephalosporins III- Clindamycin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only

Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium vivax is: a) Quinine b) Pyrimethamine c) Sulfadoxine d) Primaquine e) Quinidine 34.Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria.Correct statements regarding antibiotics may include: a) Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill or inhibit bacterial growth b) Drugs derivated from natural source that can kill or inhibit bacteria growth c) Drug with ability only to kill bacteria d) Drug with ability only to inhibit bacterial growth e) All are wrong regarding antibiotics 36.Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill bacteria is normally called: a) Bacteriostatic antibiotic b) Bactericidal antibiotic c) Bactericidal antimicrobial d) Bacteriostatic antimicrobial e) Bacteriostatic bactericidal antimicrobial . Which of the following drugs or combination should be more appropriate for this patient? a) Atovaquone only b) Chloroquine and primaquine c) Quinine and doxacycline d) Mefloquine e) C and D are correct 35.d) II and III only e) All are correct 33.

Clavulanic acid II. EXCEPT: a) Amoxicillin b) Nafcillin c) Methicillin d) Oxacillin e) All are very narrow spectrum penicillins 39.Examples of very narrow spectrum penicillins include all of the following.Antiviral drugs act in many different ways.Examples of extended spectrum penicillin may include: a) Amoxicillin b) Ampicillin c) Cloxacillin d) Carbenicillin e) Dicloxacillin 40.Sulbactam III. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with β-lactamase inhibitors. Examples of β-lactamase inhibitors is/are: I.Tazobactam a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct .37. they can be classified in: a) RNA inhibitors only b) DNA inhibitors only c) RNA and DNA inhibitors d) Protease inhibitors e) All are correct 38.Resistance is the major problem with penicillins due to ability of bacteria to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates the drug.

41.Which of the following is one of the most common side effects of vancomycin? a) Ototoxicity b) Disulfiram like side effect c) Diarrhea d) Weight gain e) Hallucinations 45.Bactericidal antimicrobial II. EXCEPT: .Correct statement regarding the mechanism of action of Vancomycin may include: a) Inhibit release of tRNA bound to peptyl site after peptide bond formation b) Inhibit peptide bound formation between acylaminoacids bound to the peptyl and acceptor site c) Inhibit stage II of cell wall synthesis preventing polymerization of the linear peptideoglycan d) Inhibit DNA gyrase in the bacteria e) Bind to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular *******s 44.Derivated from natural source: Cephalosporium acremonium III.Example of fourth generation cephalosporin includes: a) Ceftriaxone b) Cefipime c) Cefixime d) Cefotaxime e) Cefoxitin 43.Broad-spectrum agent a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 42.Correct statements regarding CEPHALOSPORINS include: I.All of the following are narrow spectrum protein synthesis inhibitors.

EXCEPT: a) Nystatin .Clarithromycin III.Erythromycin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 48.Wrong statement regarding MACROLIDES ANTIBIOTICS include: a) Used in both gram-positive and gram-negative infections b) Used as an alternative to penicillin when patient has allergy to penicillins c) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of microorganisms d) Increase gastric motility causing cramps and diarrhea as major side effect e) Very safe for children 49.Which of the following agents can be classified as macrolide antibiotics? I.Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tetracycline? a) Alteration in gut flora b) Disulfiram like reactions c) Teeth permanent discoloration d) Fanconi like syndrome e) Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis 47.All of the following are examples of aminoglycosides drugs.Azithromycin II.a) Erythromycin b) Azithromycin c) Clarithromycin d) Tetracycline e) Clindamycin 46.

Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include: I.b) Gentamicin c) Amikacin d) Streptomycin e) Garamycin 50.Which of the following is an anti-infective agent with lowest therapeutic index? a) Macrolide b) Cephalosporins c) Cloramphenicol d) Aminoglycosides e) Antifungal agents 51.Rifampin III.Ethambutol a) I only b) III only c) I and II only .Which of the following best classify metronidazole? a) Antiprotozoa b) Antibiotic c) Antifungal d) Antiviral e) Antimicrobial 53.Isoniazid II.Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of: a) PABA b) Folic acid c) Vitamin K d) Cyanide e) Nalidixic acid 52.

Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include: a) Niclosamide b) Prazinquatel c) Mebendazole d) Dapsone e) Thiabendazole 55. EXCEPT: a) Niclosamide b) Prazinquatel c) Mebendazole d) Dapsone e) Thiabendazole 56.Type A influenza is best treated by amantadine and rimantadine II.d) II and III only e) All are correct 54.Wrong statement regarding antifungal agents includes which of the following? a) Polyene antifungal act binding to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular *******s b) Azoles antifungal act blocking the synthesis of ergosterol. 58.Which of the following is considered a polyene antifungal agent? a) Miconazole b) Clotrimazole c) Amphotericin d) Itraconazole e) Ketoconazole 57. headaches and muscle pain e) Side effects of antifungals cannot be treat for Tylenol due to high drug interaction. anorexia. chills.All are examples of antihelmintic drugs. c) Polyene antifungal has the widest spectrum compared to any other agent d) Side effects of antifungals include fever.Type B influenza is best treated by oseltamivir and zenamivir .Which of the following statement is RIGHT regarding influenza treatment? I.

Which of the following statements best describes the action of the antitubercular agent ISONIAZID? a) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of mycobacterium b) Inhibit the DNA duplication of mycobacterium c) Inhibit arachydonic acids that feed mycobacterium d) Inhibit mycolic acids that are unique for mycobacterium e) Inhibit protein synthesis of mycobacterium . EXCEPT a) Cephalexin b) Ofloxacin c) Norfloxacin d) Ciprofloxacin e) Levofloxacin 60.III.All of the following are examples of quinolone antimicrobial agents.Influenza should not be treated with antiviral agents a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 59.Which of the following conditions are quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used? a) Respiratory tract infections b) Urinary tract infections c) Gastrointestinal tract infections d) Endocarditis e) Cerebral infections 61.

Which of the following complications is considered the gravest side effect associated with isoniazid treatment? a) Cardiac dysfunction b) Mental dysfunction c) Hepatitis d) Renal complications e) Discoloration of skin 63.Zidovudine III. EXCEPT: a) Ampicillin b) Cloxacillin c) Amoxicillin d) Bicampicilin e) All are correct 65.The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin? a) Thiamine b) Pyridoxine c) Folic acid d) Niacin e) Cyanocobalamin 64.Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to: I.Stavudine a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 66.Mutation .All of the following are examples of amino penicillin.62.Which of the following is an antiviral drug used in the treatment of AIDS-HIV? I.Acyclovir II.

II.The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in: a) Virus b) Gram-negative bacterias c) Gram-positive bacterias d) Both gram-positive and negative bacterias e) Plasmodium 68.Adaptation III.Gene transfer a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 67.Which of the following agent is classified as lincosamide antibiotic? a) Tetracycline b) Aminoglycosides .Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to: a) 30s ribosomal subunit only b) 50s ribosomal subunit only c) 70s ribosomal subunit only d) 30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits e) 30s and 70s ribosomal subunits 69.Broad-spectrum antibiotic that may cause severe impairment of bone marrow include which of the following agents? a) Tetracycline b) Aminoglycosides c) Vancomycin d) Cloramphenicol e) Clindamycin 70.

E 11.E 19.D 20.A 7.E 21.D .D 8.B 17.C 6.B 9.E 26.A 24.E 3.C 13.B 12.C 18.B 2.E 22.E 14.D 15.B 10.C 25.c) Vancomycin d) Cloramphenicol e) Clindamycin ANSWERS 1.E 23.E 4.B 27.A 16.B 5.

D 51.D 40. 35.D 56.A 45.E 48.A 29.E 31.D 34.D 32.C 59.C 57.C 49.B 43.B 61.C 60.E 54.28.E 52.B 55.B 47.E 38.E 41.D .C 44.B 30.E 58.A 50.A 39.D 42.E 33.E.D 46.B 36.A 53.C 37.

C 68.D 70.E (2) BIOCHEMISTRY 1-Glycine reaction is normally mediated by: a) Acetyl Coenzyme A b) UDP Glucoronyl tranferase c) PAPS.B 65.Phosphoadenosine-5-Phosphosulfate d) Sulfotranferase e) GST-Glutathione S-Transferase 2.C 63.62.D 69.D 66.E 67.Which is responsible for N in vivo? a) Argenine b) Tryptophan .B 64.Abundant element in the interstitial fluid may include: a) Potassium b) Sodium c) Magnesium d) Calcium e) Chloro 3.

RNAt . Which vitamin is/are fat-soluble? I.RNAm – RNA mensager III-RNAr – RNA ribossome a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 6.Vitamin B a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 7-Which of the following vitamin is not water-soluble? .Enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined: a) DNA polymerase b) DNA gyrase c) DNA ligase d) RNA transferase e) None of the above 5.Vitamin E II.c) Guanine d) Thiamine e) Leucine 4.Which of the followings are types of RNA? I.Vitamin K III.RNA transferase II.

Which of the following is considered the normal potassium serum in human body? a) 2.a) Vitamin B b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Folic acid e) Riboflavin 8.0 to 3.The most abundant metal ion in human body a) Iron b) Magnesium c) Aluminum d) Phosphorous e) Potassium 9.0mEq/L 10.5 to 7.5 to 5.5mEq/L e) 3.5mEq/L b) 3.0 to 6.Which of the following is considered as essential vitamin for breast-feed babies? a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D e) Vitamim E .0mEq/L c) 5.Which of the following is considered normal sodium serum in human body? a) 35 to 47 mEq/L b) 147 to 150 mEq/L c) 135 to 147mEq/L d) 75 to 135 mEq/L e) 125 to 145 mEq/L 11.5mEq/L d) 3.0 to 7.

Which of the following hormone acts on cell wall? a) Insulin b) Prolactin c) Cortisol d) Estrogen e) Alanine 13.What is correct regarding the formation of proteins? a) Formed by condensation of peptic bond b) Geometric sequence of amino acids c) The formation occurs by complexation of amino acids d) Proteins are formed from carbohydrates e) None of the above is right 15.Which of the following is considered the FIRST precursor of vitamin A formation? a) Retinoic acid b) Carotenoids c) Cobalt d) Calciferol e) Pantothenic acid .Which is the strongest endogenous analgesic-pain producer in human body? a) Leukotriene b) Enkephalin c) Bradykinin d) Cytokine e) Angiotensin 16.Which of the following vitamins has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based on its pteridine ring? a) Thiamine b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin K d) Folic acid e) Pyridoxine 14.12.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding enzymes? I-Enzymes are proteins II.Biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions that maintain human life process: a) Nucleic acid b) Amino acids c) Carbohydrates d) Oligopeptides e) Enzymes 18.Cell division II.17.Enzymes are catalyst because they are never altered during a reaction III.Michaelis-Menten theory describe the enzymatic reactions a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 19.Change in DNA replication altering the gene a) I only b) III only c) I and II only .Change in genotype III.Zwintter ion reacts with a substrate as: a) Neutral ion b) Proton acceptor ion c) Proton donor ion d) Anionic e) Cationic 20.Correct statements regarding mutation may include: I.

Shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall: a) Ribossomes b) Endoplasmic reticulum c) Mitocondria d) Cell membrane e) Nucleotide 24.DNAs III.Both DNAs and RNAs a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 23.d) II and III only e) All are correct 21.The Michaelis-Menten equation-Enzymatic reactions will appears ZERO order when: a) The substrate concentration is much smaller than Km b) When Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration c) When Vmax is much smaller than Km d) When Vmax is much larger than Km e) When Km approaches Vmax .RNAs II.Which pyrimidine base is not present in DNA? a) Thiamine b) Adenine c) Uracil d) Cytosine e) Guanine 22.The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in I.

Which vitamin can be classified as hormone? a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin D3 c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin K e) Vitamin B12 26.Hydrolysis of fixed oils may yields: a) Saturated + Unsaturated acids b) Glycerol + Fatty acids c) Glucose + Fatty acids d) Fatty acids + Triglycerides e) None of the above 28.Example of compound that is phospholipids include: a) Glycogen b) Leucine c) Lecithin d) Hyaluronic acid e) Phenylalanine 29.In an enzymatic reaction. addition of competitive inhibitor leads to: a) Increase the rate of reaction b) Decrease the rate of reaction c) Same rate of reaction d) Decrease rate and increase substrate concentration e) Decrease both rate and substrate concentration .25.False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include: a) Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver b) Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney c) Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver d) Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney e) Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight 27.

Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid? a) Methionine b) Argenine c) Leucine d) Tryptophan e) Glycine 34.30.Which of the following is the end product of AEROBIC reactions? a) Pyruvic acid b) CO2 c) CO2 + H2O d) Lactic acid e) Proteins 32.Which of the following is an essential amino acid? a) Histadiol b) Cysteine c) Methionine d) Aspartene e) Glutamine 33.Which of the following is the end product of ANAEROBIC reactions? a) Pyruvic acid b) CO2 c) CO2 + H2O d) Lactic acid e) Proteins 31.Which of the following is the end product of proteins? a) Amino acids .

The presence of mitochondria in the living cell can be detected by: a) Neutral reagent b) Jenus green c) Morquis reagent d) Methylene blue .Enzymes of fatty acid cycle a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 37.Which of the following is the main carbohydrate of body blood? a) Sorbitol b) Mannitol c) Frutase d) Glucase e) Lactase 38.Enzymes of Kreb’s cycle II.Enzymes of respiratory pathway as well cytochrome oxidase III. mitochondria may contain: I.b) Urea c) Uric acid d) Purine e) Phosphorous 35-Purine may be the end product of: a) Amines b) Amino acids c) Uric acid d) Proteins e) Enzymes 36.In the typical cell.

Keratin is an example of: a) Protein b) Peptin c) Scleroprotein d) Albuminoid e) C and D are correct 42.Which of the following is the only disaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism? a) Lactose b) Maltase c) Fructose d) Glucose e) Cellulose 40.The conversion of β-carotene to vitamin A is carried out in: a) Pancreas b) Spleen c) Liver d) Adrenal cortex e) Nefrons 41.The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in: a) RBCs b) Reticulum Endothelial c) Liver d) Kidney e) Pancreas 43.e) Phenolphthalein 39.Degradation of hemoglobin in mammal involves: a) Formation of bile pigments b) Formation of urobilinogen c) Formation of biliverdin .

e) All are correct 45.Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of DNA? a) DNA polymerase b) DNA gyrase .Which of the following is an important enzymatic reaction involved in muscular contraction? a) Glucose-6-phosphatase reaction b) Glycogenolysis c) ATP-Creatine phosphokinase reaction d) Enolase reaction e) Glucogenolysis 47.Protein disnaturation may happen due to: a) Exposure to air b) Shaking c) Increase in temperature d) Chemical reagents e) All are correct 48.Which of the following amino acid is an important precursor of hemoglobin? a) Alanine b) Proline c) Leucine d) Glycin e) Histadin 46.d) Non-oxidative cleavage of phosphirin ring e) All are correct 44.Non-protein portion of hemoglobin consist of: a) Ferrous complex of protophorphirin IX b) 3 Heme unit surrounding an iron atom c) 4 Heme unit surrounding a ferric ion d) 4 Pyrrole rings linked through a Fe&#179.+ mol.

c) DNA ligase d) RNA transferase e) None of the above 49.Heparin synthesized in the body and can be classified as: a) Monosaccharideo b) Polysaccharide c) Disaccharide d) Oligosaccharide e) Amino acid 53.Which of the following is the predominant intracellular element? a) Sodium b) Magnesium c) Potassium d) Calcium e) Phosphorous 51.Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide: a) Glucose + frutose .Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism? a) Maltase b) Sucrose c) Glucose d) Cellulose e) Frutose 52.Which pyrimidine base is not present in RNA sequence? a) Uracil b) Thiamine c) Cytosine d) Guanine e) Adenine 50.

GLYCOGENESIS is a process characterized by: a) The breakdown of glycogen into glucose b) The transformation of glucose to glycogen c) The breakdown of sugar into pyruvate .Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of one group to other group is called: a) Oxidoreductase enzymes b) Transferase enzymes c) Hydrolyses enzymes d) Isomerasis enzymes e) Lyasis enzymes 55.Consume of energy II.Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by: I.The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Kreb’s cycle metabolites is an anabolic process called: a) Glycogenolysis b) Glycolysis c) Glycogenesis d) Gluconeogenesis e) None of the above 57.Release stored energy from carbohydrates III-Glycogenolysis is an example of carbohydrates catabolism reaction a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 56.b) Glucose + glucose c) Glucose + galactose d) Frutose + frutose e) Galactose + galactose 54.

Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins? a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin c) Niacin d) Pyridoxine e) Folic acid 62.d) The breakdown of sugar into lactate e) The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources 58.Correct statements regarding RNA messenger may include: a) Carrier activated aminoacids to the ribosome b) Specifies aminoacids sequence templant for protein synthesis c) Enable DNA fragments to be joined d) Synthesize RNA e) Carrier the genetic information for all the other cells 60.Which of the following reactions is controlled by the pancreatic hormone INSULIN? a) Glycogenolysis b) Glycolysis c) Glycogenesis d) Gluconeogenesis e) Anaerobic glycolysis 59.Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin: a) Iron b) Zinc c) Cobalt d) Magnesium e) Calcium 61.Which of the following is the most important vitamin in pregnancy? a) Cyanocobalamin b) Folic acid .

c) Pantothenic acid d) Pyridoxine e) Niacin 63.Which of the following vitamin has its chemical structure related to PABA? a) Cyanocobalamin b) Folic acid c) Pantothenic acid d) Pyridoxine e) Niacin 65.Which of the following vitamin is the precursor of collagen synthesis? a) Vitanin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D e) Vitamin E 67.Which of the following vitamin is derivated from the amino acid tryptophan? a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin c) Niacin d) Pyridoxine e) Folic acid 64.Vitamin that requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine: a) Cyanocobalamin b) Folic acid c) Pantothenic acid d) Pyridoxine e) Niacin 66.Correct statements concerning vitamin E include: .

RNA mensager and RNA ribosome are types of RNAs.It is absorbed from the small intestine III.B : Interstitial fluid is situated between parts or in the interspaces of a tissue therefore outside the cells. 6. RNA transferase.Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids? a) Nucleotides b) Nucleosides c) Monosaccharides d) Purines e) Amino acids 69.Widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 68.C : Vitamin A. 4.C : DNA ligase is an enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined.I.C : All vitamins B and vitamin C are water-soluble.It is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues II.A : Arginine is an essential amino acid responsible for N.A : Glycine reaction is a reaction mediated by acetyl Coenzyme A. E and K are fat-soluble vitamins. 7. D. Sodium is the most abundant element outside the cells therefore in the interstitial fluid.A : Iron is the most abundant metal ion in human body. 3. . 2. 8.Proteins are formed from: a) Purines b) Carbohydrates c) Amino acids d) Monosaccharides e) Nucleosides CORRECT ANSWERS 1.E : All. 5.

C : Addition of competitive inhibitor in an enzymatic reaction does not alter the rate of reaction. 19.B : Glycerol and fatty acids are the end products of hydrolysis of fixed oils.D : Pyruvic acid is the end product of anaerobic reactions 31.C : CO2 and H2O are the end products of aerobic reactions. 35.E : Glycine is not an essential amino acid. positive and negative. 32.D : Folic acid is a vitamin B9 that has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based on its pteridine ring.C: Purine is the end product of uric acid. 38. 17.5 to 5.B : Jenus green is a laboratory test that detects the presence of mitochondria in the living cell . DNAs differ only in the presence of Thiamine instead of uracil.A : The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in RNAs only. 25-B : Vitamin D3 man be classified as hormone 26. 16. 18.C : Histadiol.E : Enzymes are proteins or biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions. 27.C : Bradykinin is the strongest endogenous analgesic-pain producer in human body. 21. Michaelis-Menten theory describes the enzymatic reactions.A: Zwintter ion is a neutral ion with two charges. 12. usually in a single gene. cysteine.E: Enzymes of Kreb’s cycle.C : Lecithin is a phospholipid 29. 28. 37. enzymes of respiratory pathway as well cytochrome oxidase and enzymes of fatty acid cycle are present in the mitochondria structure of the cell.B : Vitamin A is formed from retinoic acid that is formed from beta-carotene.A : Insulin is a hormone that acts on cell wall 13. 23.0mEq/L.A: Vitamin C does not interfere with absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver. that reacts neutrally with a substrate.E : Enzymes are biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions that maintain human life process.B : Endoplasmic reticulum is a shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall. aspartame and glutamine are examples of non-essential amino acids 33. 36.D : The most essential vitamin for breast-feed babies is vitamin D.C : Normal sodium serum in human body range between 135 to 147mEq/L 11. 10.D : Mutation is a permanent transmissible change in the genetic material.B : Urea is the end product of proteins. They are called catalyst because are never altered during a reaction.9. 14. and accelerate reactions by lowering the energy of the transition state. 15.A : Proteins are formed by a reaction between amino acids called condensation between peptid bonds.C : Uracil is only present in RNAs.D : Glucose is the main carbohydrate present in the human blood. 34. 24. 30. 22. 20.E : The Michaelis-Menten equation-Enzymatic reactions will appears ZERO order when Km approaches Vmax and FIRST order when the substrate concentration is smaller than Km.B : Normal potassium serum in human body range between 3.

52.D : Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by release of energy stored from carbohydrates. 63.C: β-carotene is the precursor of vitamin A. 46.C : ATP-Creatine phosphokinase reaction is the most important enzymatic reaction in muscular contraction.B: Folic acid is one of the most important vitamin to be taken by women that is planning to get pregnant. however maltase is disaccharide and cellulose is a polysaccharide carbohydrate.A: Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide. 49. 61. 65. 43. 42.C : Niacin is derivate from the amino acid tryptophan. formation of urobilinogen.D : Glycin is a non-essential amino acid and important precursor of hemoglobin.B: Transferase enzymes catalyzes reactions involved in the transfer of one group to other group 55.B: RNA messenger specifies amino acids sequence templant for protein synthesis.A : The non-protein portion of hemoglobin consists of ferrous complex of protophorphirin IX. thiamine is only present in DNAs molecule.39. 51. increase in temperature and addition of chemical reagents in. 50. shaking. 48.D : Gluconeogenesis is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Kreb’s cycle metabolites is an anabolic process called. It happens in the liver and skeletal muscle from glucose consumed in the diet its synthesis is controlled by the pancreatic hormone insulin 58.E : Protein derivative products are very sensible and may suffer disnaturation by exposure to air. however maltase is disaccharide and cellulose is a polysaccharide carbohydrate. 40.C : Potassium is the most predominant intracellular element while sodium is the most predominant extracellular element. 41.B : Folic acid is a vitamin that has its chemical structure similar to PABA structure.D: Maltase and cellulose are both carbohydrates not synthesized during human metabolism.C: B12-cyanocobalamin has a cobalt molecule in the center of its structural molecule.E : Keratin is a scleroprotein that also can be called albuminoid.B: Heparin is a polysaccharide carbohydrate naturally synthesized in the body.B: Glycogenesis is the transformation of glucose to glycogen.A: Beriberi is caused by deficiency of thiamine. glucose and fructose 54. 53.B : The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in reticulum Endothelial. 64. 47.B : Thiamine is the only pyrimidine base not present in RNA sequence.A: Cyanocobalamin is not properly absorbed from the gastro intestinal tract therefore it requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine . formation of biliverdin and non-oxidative cleavage of phorphirin ring 44. 57. 59.A: Maltase and cellulose are both carbohydrates not synthesized during human metabolism.A: DNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of DNA.C : Glycogenesis is an anabolic reaction that transforms glucose to glycogen in the liver and it is controlled by insulin. 60.E : The degradation of hemoglobin in mammal involve formation of bile pigments. Glycogenolysis and glycolysis are examples of carbohydrates catabolism reaction 56. The transformation reaction happens in the liver by oxidation. 45. 62. during pregnancy and in breast-feeding.

pyrazine ring. 69. b. purine ring. It is widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent 68. pteridine ring. c. 2 Enkephalins are peptides that: .A: Nucleotides are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids.C: Proteins are formed from amino acids by condensation of peptide bond ‫: من مواضيع عمر بن الخطاب‬ 5000 ‫سؤال للبورد الكندي‬ ‫رد مع اقتباس رد مع اقتباس‬ 01-08-2008 09:23 AM #3 ‫عمر بن الخطاب‬ ‫عضــــو‬ ‫ : تاريخ التسجيل‬Aug 2008 ‫القامة : كينيا‬ ‫ : النوع‬Male 22 : ‫المشاركات‬ 0 : ‫معدل التقييم‬ ‫ عمر بن الخطاب‬is an unknown quantity at this point ً ‫عمر بن الخطاب غير متواجد حاليا‬ Share (3) Biomedical Sciences (25&#37. d. pyrimidine ring.E: Vitamin E is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues and well absorbed from the small intestine. pyridine ring.C: Vitamin C is the precursor of collagen synthesis.) 1 Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the: a. 67. e.66.

c. b. c. Neisseria. III duodenum. Plasmodium. b. calciferol.a. mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery. unable to hydrolyse polysaccharides. thiamine. have narcotic antagonist activity. a nucleic acid. b. e. II ileum. c. e. e. retinol. 7 The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the: I jejunum. Corynebacterium. d. d. are found only in the central nervous system. cause blood vessel wall relaxation. 5 Diphtheria is caused by: a. 3 ?-Carotene is the precursor of: a. b. changed chemically in a reaction. c. mesenteric vein ? portal vein. riboflavin. e. b. e. . 4 An enzyme is: a. d. haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein. an oligopeptide. d. exert actions resembling those of opiates. Shigella. gastric vein ? hepatic vein. retinoic acid. a catalyst. c. transmit pain impulses. Vibrio. d. haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava. 6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver: a.

c. e. e. b. II and III only e. I. I only b. a. III only c. II and III 8 Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of: a. I only b. acetylcholine in the motor cortex. I and II only . gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways. d. III only c. 25 L. III only c. II and III only e. 10 L. I. 11 Diseases which are viral infections include: I poliomyelitis. c.a. 9 In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"? I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle II Celiac ganglia III Circular muscles of the iris a. 15 L. I and II only d. noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons. III Legionnaires' disease. b. I and II only d. dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway. II rabies. I only b. d. 5 L. serotonin in the brain stem. II and III 10 The blood volume of the average adult is approximately: a. 20 L.

III synthesized from glycine. III Mycoplasma pneumoniae. it may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. I. II and III only e.4? a. III only c. I only b. II found primarily in interneurons. it may develop as a granulomatous inflammation. Pharmaceutical Sciences (55%) 15 If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7. II and III only e.d. what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 8. large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate. I only b. c. b. 10% b. d. II and III 13 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is: I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. I and II only d. lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development. II and III 14 All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation. I. a. II Haemophilus influenzae. it may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis. a. 30% .4. II and III 12 Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include: I Escherichia coli. e. II and III only e. EXCEPT: a. I and II only d. I. III only c.

has a large volume of distribution. glucuronide conjugates. glutathione conjugates. 17 In cardiovascular physiology. 19 Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of: a. a. EXCEPT: a. I only b. c. b. d. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution. is basic. II and III 18 Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma. II and III only e. c. III the intraluminal pressure. 90% e. is acidic but not protein bound. 50% d. d. glutamate conjugates. d. b. if the drug: a. 100% 16 All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct.c. is protein bound. LaPlace's law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to: I the length of the vessel. water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation. e. c. . e. III only c. b. II the radius of vessel. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials. glycine conjugates. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature. I. has a small volume of distribution. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass. I and II only d.

sulfate conjugates. II and III only e. II myoglobin. b. c. b. calcium ion channel. potassium ion channel. aniline and piperazine rings. I and II only d.P . III cytochrome oxidase. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings. I only b. I. 21 Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain: a. 22 Carbon monoxide binds to: I hemoglobin. aniline and piperidine rings. sodium ion channel. c. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings. I only b. II and III only e. nicotinic ion channel. d. I and II only d. include: I ascorbic acid.S. I. II and III 24 Diazepam Injection U. e. d. III only c. e. II and III 23 Antioxidants. a. III only c. aniline and pyrrolidine rings. II sodium bisulfite. which mechanistically act as reducing agents.e. 20 Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the: a. a. III citric acid. chloride ion channel.

III benzyl alcohol. when Km approaches Vmax. affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption. affected by the extent of absorption only. II propylene glycol. c. b.5% Water for Injection qs 100% In the formulation given above. d. d.Diazepam 5 mg/ml Ethanol 10% Propylene glycol 40% Benzyl alcohol 1. . when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration. the parameter “Cmax” is: a. the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s): I ethanol. tautomeric activities. I. affected by the rate of absorption only. III only c. b. II and III 25 Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. b. 26 The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order: a. electron-withdrawing effects. c. affected by both rate and extent of absorption. I and II only d. a. I only b. when Vmax is much smaller than Km. They are present in these structures specifically because of their: a. c. e. when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km. II and III only e. e. sizes and shapes. enzymatic activities. electron-donating effects. 27 With respect to bio*****alence. d. when Vmax is much larger than Km.

4. b. to increase the drug's release rate. to improve the appearance of the tablet. 5. c. the only significant parameter. 6. to mask the taste of the drug. 5 and 4 h (hours). e. 6. b. bioisosteres.8 h. 9. b. Hydroxyl 3 d. The mean half-life is: a. to protect the drug from stomach acid. d.0 h. 28 Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol? a. d.0 h. Hydroxyl 2 c. Hydroxyl 1 b. positional (structural) isomers. e. e. enantiomers. 5. Hydroxyls 1 and 2 29 The above structures are related to one another as: a. Hydroxyl 4 e. 31 Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following. EXCEPT: a. rotamers. to mask the odor of the drug. 5. homologs. c. c. d. 32 Which of the following factors would be important in determining the concentration of drug that would be reached in the cerebrospinal fluid for treatment of meningitis? I Oil/water partition coefficient II Binding to plasma protein III pKa of the drug .0 h.e.4 h. 30 Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3.

Binding agents may be added dry or in solution. I only b. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet. III the type of ointment base. I. Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression. d. II the presence of surfactants in the formulation. III only c. c. Polymorphism e. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst. b. 36 Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that: I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester oxo group. Deliquescence b. II and III 33 Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture? a. Condensation 34 Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include: I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule. I and II only d. I and II only d.a. II and III only e. Hygroscopicity d. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily. III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced . e. III only c. I only b. a. Efflorescence c. II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity. II and III only e. I. II and III 35 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation? a.

b. d. Hexachlorophene b. greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with moderate renal failure. 75 mg q6h.5 mg q6h. II and III 37 Which of the following is an azo dye? a. c. c.25 mg q6h. e. 40 Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity: a. nitrazepam. Methenamine d. entero-hepatic recycling is significant. II and III only e. the drug is extensively metabolized. c. the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue. e. b. b. I and II only d. diazepam. Phenazopyridine e. d. I only b. a. 25 mg q6h. the drug is not bound to plasma proteins. III only c. 125 mg q12h. oxazepam. If the normal dosage schedule for dicloxacillin is 125 mg q6h. I. . Nalidixic acid 38 If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume that: a. Nitrofurantoin c. 39 Approximately 50% of dicloxacillin is excreted unchanged in the urine.by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity. 62. a patient with renal function 20% of normal should receive: a. 31.

B c. C d. a. c. c. prolactin release. I only b. a. inhibition of microsomal enzymes. II the thigh. enhanced platelet aggregation. I. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to hydrolysis. blockade of dopamine receptors. e. d. e. A b. 41 The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. II and III only e. clonazepam. blockade of catecholamine re-uptake. displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin.d. 45 All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or . III only c. b. D e. triazolam. I and II only d. E 42 Biceps muscles are part of: I the arm. III the rib cage. b. induction of microsomal enzymes. e. II and III 43 The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of phenothiazines is thought to be due to: a. 44 Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) include: a. inhibition of liposomal enzymes. improvement of cholinergic transmission. blockade of enkephalinergic neurons. d.

b. atropine. Reacting at the cholinergic receptor e.by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult. III pubis. Combining with acetylcholine b. c. e. Spironolactone d. d. Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase c. III only . phenylephrine. e. histamine. Acetazolamide e. EXCEPT: a. Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase d. c. EXCEPT: a. isoproterenol. dry skin. Hydrochlorothiazide c. diarrhea. I only b. phentolamine. 48 The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms? a. 46 Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na&#177. II ischium. d. b. flushed appearance. Furosemide b. mydriasis. Amiloride 47 Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms. a.H+ exchange system of the renal tubule? a. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending 49 The skeletal structure of the hipbone includes the: I ilium. delirium and restlessness.

III only c. e. I. 52 Acarbose smooths and lowers: a. I only b. II and III 50 Pernicious anemia is: a. d. b. treated by parenteral administration of folic acid. pupil. II and III only e. postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. b. preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. II and III only . blind spot. e. preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. e. d. 51 The optic disk is also called the: a. c. c. treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12. c. caused by dietary iron deficiency. I and II only d. postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. preprandial and postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. 53 Autoimmune disorders include which of the following? I Graves' disease II Systemic Lupus Erythematosus III Osteoarthritis a. macula lutea.c. I and II only d. prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B12 supplement. b. cornea. d. iris. due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12.

II and III 54 Acute hemorrhagic gastritis is commonly seen with: a. carcinoma of the stomach. The molecular weight of lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) is 74. 16 c. chronic alcoholism. is to receive lithium therapy with a regimen of lithium carbonate 600 mg q8h. 8 b. d. H. 24 d.6 L/h) and the biological half-life is 18 h. a. II T cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process. 56 The number of millimoles of lithium (Li+1) that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. III Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product. III only c. II and III Questions 56 to 57 inclusive refer to the following: KJ. Travellers' diarrhea. a 23 year-old female. The total body clearance of lithium is 0. 48 57 The number of milli-*****alents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. 32 e. 16 c. I. pylori bacterial infections. I and II only d. carcinoma of the colon. 24 . 8 b. 55 True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include which of the following? I Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy. I. b.e. II and III only e.44 mL/s (1. e. I only b. c.

d. a. e. I and II only d. 32 e. III only . II and III only e. a. I only b. I. b. III only c. I only b. II and III only e. d. II has carbonic anhydrase inhibitor activity. a solubilizer. sodium metabisulphite is included as: a. I and II only d. I only b. a cosolvent. III only c. II and III 59 In some parenteral formulations. an emulsifier. III the total receptor concentration. I. III include the aldosterone antagonists. 48 58 The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by: I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant. III is useful in the treatment of glaucoma. II the free drug concentration. II may cause intracellular alkalosis. c. a chelator. II and III 61 Dorzolamide: I has a sulfonylurea structure. an antioxidant. a. 60 Potassium-sparing diuretics: I exert their effect in the proximal tubule.

I. II and III only e. II and III 63 Which of the following agents may cause pulmonary toxicity? I Amiodarone II Bleomycin III Ramipril a. enalapril. I and II only d. I and II only d. e. II and III 64 An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is: a. II and III 62 True statements regarding transcription include which of the following? I The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA polymerase. III only c. I. II The genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of mRNA is translated into a protein structure. ramipril. II and III only e.c. III only c. I only b. fosinopril. b. lisinopril. d. II and III only e. a. I and II only d. 65 Which of the following agents is NOT associated with the toxic . quinapril. I only b. III The information carried in the gene sequence is transferred to RNA. c. I.

chemical ionization (CI). 69 MT. His manager. d. Pharmacy Practice (20%) 68 The ethical principle of veracity requires that: a. b. electron impact (EI) ionization. we do good to patients. enhanced tissue accumulation. remove or prevent harm. He is well-trained and welcomes new learning opportunities. e. c. II negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project. we act with fairness.effect of Stevens-Johnson syndrome? a. a pharmacy technician. atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI). fast atom bombardment (FAB) ionization. b. 67 The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful in the identification of compounds of unknown structure is called: a. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body. now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him. c. we avoid. Cotrimoxazole c. Amoxicillin d. electrospray ionization (ESI). d. we act with honesty. III provide support and followup as required. e. e. post-antimicrobial effect. Phenobarbital e. should: I discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project. b. higher peak-trough differences. has worked in a community pharmacy for 5 years. without deception. reduced renal clearance. . d. Warfarin b. c. we respect the rights of others to make choices. Lamotrigine 66 Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to: a.

II and III only e. fluid retention. III only c. and acquisition cost. EXCEPT: a. 73 When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of nitrate tolerance. hypertension. Drug D. c. Drug A. and drug D). d. the hospital must consider a drug's efficacy. all with equal efficacy. Drug C. d.a. II and III 70 Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects? a. headache. Calcium carbonate b. have recently become available.25once daily14C$5. Drug E. e. which has been available for several years.50QID14B$2. associated workload. I and II only d. 72 In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary. true statements include: . I. Drug B. b. e. Aluminum silicate 71 Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral contraceptives include all of the following.00BID7D$2. drug C. I only b. depression.25BID7E$2 . Currently the hospital stocks drug E. constipation. Data for the medications is as follows: DrugCost/DayDosing FrequencyTreatment Duration (days)A$2. c. drug B. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A. b. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate c. Magnesium hydroxide d.25QID7 The most appropriate choice for the hospital is: a. Calcium sulfate e.

Balance sheet b. 76 Erythromycin: I is effective against gram-positive cocci. III only c. pc. Income statement e. I. III can increase gastrointestinal tract motility. aa. II and III 74 Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year? a. I only b. I and II only d. e. II is a macrolide antibiotic. a. III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate medication. II and III 77 Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. ic. Statement of changes in financial position d. b. If . II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on metoprolol.I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate. Statement of investments c. c. d. III only c. Statement of equity 75 The Latin abbreviation for "before meals" is: a. ac. II and III only e. II and III only e. cc. a. I. I and II only d. I only b.

c.250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1. 79 The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the development of detailed policies and written procedures for employees to observe at all times is referred to as: a.0% w/w. 25. c. sterile water. c. b. d. autocratic. participative. salbutamol. b. e. .25 g/mL). Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). aminophylline. 81 Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n): a. d.8% w/w. c. adrenaline. b.5% w/w. d.0% w/w. diphenhydramine. anti-inflammatory agent. consultative. 78 Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be: a. antipyretic agent. 23. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). acetazolamide. e. analgesic agent. 80 The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with: a. b. e. d. 16. c. distilled water. b. 20. bureaucratic. benevolent. 12.7% w/w. e. the concentration of AOT in the solution is: a.

25%. 84 In an adequately powered.d. provide only analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. are more effective when given with allopurinol. are effective because they are uricosuric agents. 85 In an adequately powered. 15%. lowered resistance to infection. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. a specific serious side effect (i. 82 In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. 10%. c. the salicylates: a. only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. 83 Prednisone may produce all of the following effects. stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement. c. randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years. e. Based on these results. d.5% of the study sample. 50%. In the patients who receive a placebo. skeletal muscle weakness. randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years. d. c.45% experience the same side effect. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the study period is: a. b. d. e. . e. b. agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid. EXCEPT: a. sodium retention. the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is: a. b. the desired clinical outcome (i. specifically reverse the cause of the disease. 40%. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug.e. peptic ulceration. only 0. e. 15.e. hypoglycemia. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0. uricosuric agent.

c. c. 2000. b. b. II Take with plenty of fluids. I. in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap. in a warm. a. with the original cotton. c. I and II only d. 87 Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension include which of the following? I Shake well before using. Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following? a. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours. dry place. sumatriptan may be used for the second headache. d. in a plastic vial with a childproof cap. III only c. in the refrigerator. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later. 150. d. I only b. e. 86 The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine patient. II and III 88 A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication: a. III Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions. II and III only e. no other medication can be used for 24 hours. e. d. If relief is not achieved. ergotamine may be used. 200. 89 Factors that determine bio*****alence of two brands of a drug . sumatriptan may be repeated. e. If no relief is achieved in two hours. 20. The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets.b.

III pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations. a. c. b. III only c. act with fairness. instil one drop into the right eye twice daily.25% drops Mitte: 15 mL Sig: gtt. III decreases the force of myocardial contraction. without deception. e. e. I only b.include: I the taste of the preparations. i o. 92 Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it: I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds. BID On the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read: a.d. II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction. III only . II and III only e. allowing people access to pharmacy care. avoid. II the physical appearance of the preparations. placing the benefit of the patient above all else. I only b. a. c. act with honesty. shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice daily. b. 91 Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that pharmacists: a. I and II only d. d. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice daily. d. remove or prevent harm from people. respect the rights of patients to make choices. instil one drop into the left eye twice daily. apply one drop into both eyes twice daily. I. II and III 90 Rx Timolol 0. do good to patients.

I and II only d. II and III only e. I. Take two tablets twice daily (56 tablets). II and III 93 The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy: Losec&#174. Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets) The next section includes an EXAMPLE OF THE CASE SCENARIO FORMAT. SM’s previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides. Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets). in which there are two or more questions in sequence. e. Take one tablet twice daily (28 tablets). began prophylactic treatment for Travellers' Diarrhea. d. Take one tablet twice weekly (4 tablets). Shortly thereafter she complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears. Doxycycline d. . 94 Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's complaints? a.c. black stools and a black tongue. Cotrimoxazole c. Loperamide 95 Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea include: I Bacteroides fragilis. you must base your choice on the patient-specific information presented in the case. while vacationing in Mexico. Questions 94 to 96 inclusive refer to the following: SM is a 34 year old female who. c. When choosing your response to questions in the case scenario format. that are related to the patient information provided in the (bolded) stem shown at the top of the case. b. Bismuth subsalicylate b. Amoxicillin e. 20 mg S: Take 1 tab BID M: 2 weeks Which of the following is correct labelling for this prescription? a.

I only b. b. pteridine ring. II cotrimoxazole. I and II only d. However. individually. II and III only e.II Escherichia coli. Please note that these questions are reviewed and updated periodically. III amoxicillin. pyrazine ring. II and III Answers Evaluating Examination Sample Questions The following sample questions are not intended or designed to be a sample examination. these questions are intended to be representative. of the types of questions found on the Evaluating Examination. III only c. in format and phrasing style. III Shigella sp. and do not represent an exact model of the Evaluating Examination in terms of difficulty and proportion of topics. They also illustrate a variety of the subject areas contained in the examination blueprint. I and II only d. II and III only e. *d. I. III only c. Biomedical Sciences 1 Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the: a. I. purine ring. . c. a. a. I only b. II and III 96 Drugs shown to be effective in the prevention of Travellers' Diarrhea. pyrimidine ring. which might have been prescribed for SM include: I doxycycline.

thiamine. unable to hydrolyse polysaccharides. d. . d. retinoic acid. c. calciferol. d. c. e. retinol. Shigella. c. have narcotic antagonist activity. 7 The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the: *I jejunum. e. *e. *b. haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein. c. cause blood vessel wall relaxation. d. a catalyst. Vibrio. *d. an oligopeptide. pyridine ring. gastric vein ? hepatic vein. Plasmodium. transmit pain impulses. Neisseria. c. b. a nucleic acid. Corynebacterium.e. 5 Diphtheria is caused by: a. e. 4 An enzyme is: a. e. *b. exert actions resembling those of opiates. b. haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava. 6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver: a. changed chemically in a reaction. 3 ?-Carotene is the precursor of: *a. b. 2 Enkephalins are peptides that: a. riboflavin. mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery. are found only in the central nervous system. mesenteric vein ? portal vein.

acetylcholine in the motor cortex. b. e. c. 10 L. II and III 8 Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of: a. III Legionnaires' disease. I. I and II only d. 25 L. I only *b. 11 Diseases which are viral infections include: *I poliomyelitis. III only c. I only b. I and II only d. 9 In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"? I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle II Celiac ganglia *III Circular muscles of the iris a. III only c. *II rabies. e. I. I only . 5 L. II and III only e. *d. gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways. a. c. noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons. 15 L. b. serotonin in the brain stem. d. II and III 10 The blood volume of the average adult is approximately: *a. 20 L.*II ileum. a. *III duodenum. II and III only *e. dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway.

III only c. Pharmaceutical Sciences 15 If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7. *II Haemophilus influenzae. *e. I. large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate. III synthesized from glycine. II and III 13 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is: *I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. *II found primarily in interneurons. a. it may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. a. II and III 12 Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include: I Escherichia coli. I. II and III only e. I. lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development. I and II only d.b. I only b. III only *c. EXCEPT: a. II and III only e. b.4? a. I and II only *d. I and II only d. *III Mycoplasma pneumoniae. III only *c. c. 10% . II and III only e.4. d. what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 8. II and III 14 All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation. it may develop as a granulomatous inflammation. it may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis. I only b.

*d. 50% *d. water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation. has a small volume of distribution. is acidic but not protein bound. glycine conjugates. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass. b. d. *II the radius of vessel. 19 Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of: *a. is basic. glucuronide conjugates. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature. I. e. c. LaPlace's law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to: I the length of the vessel. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials. c. I only b. c. if the drug: *a. 17 In cardiovascular physiology. b. *III the intraluminal pressure. . is protein bound. I and II only *d. e. has a large volume of distribution. III only c. 30% c.b. EXCEPT: a. II and III 18 Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma. glutathione conjugates. II and III only e. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution. 100% 16 All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct. 90% e. b. a.

II and III only e. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings. II and III only *e. III only *c. c. III only c. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings. *b. d. sulfate conjugates. d. II and III 23 Antioxidants. *II myoglobin. glutamate conjugates. aniline and piperidine rings. I. b. which mechanistically act as reducing agents. include: *I ascorbic acid. nicotinic ion channel. calcium ion channel. aniline and piperazine rings. I only b. a. a. potassium ion channel. c. *II sodium bisulfite. II and III . 22 Carbon monoxide binds to: *I hemoglobin. I and II only d. 21 Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain: a. *e. 20 Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the: a. e. I only b. I and II only d. chloride ion channel. e. I. III citric acid. aniline and pyrrolidine rings. *III cytochrome oxidase.d. sodium ion channel.

S. I. a. affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption. III benzyl alcohol. b. enzymatic activities. electron-donating effects. affected by the rate of absorption only. II and III only e. *e. . e. when Vmax is much smaller than Km. d. when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km. I only b. d. c. when Vmax is much larger than Km. sizes and shapes. III only *c. when Km approaches Vmax.5% Water for Injection qs 100% In the formulation given above. c. affected by the extent of absorption only.P Diazepam 5 mg/ml Ethanol 10% Propylene glycol 40% Benzyl alcohol 1. I and II only d. the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s): *I ethanol. They are present in these structures specifically because of their: a. *II propylene glycol. c. b.24 Diazepam Injection U. II and III 25 Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. 27 With respect to bio*****alence. electron-withdrawing effects. when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration. 26 The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order: *a. tautomeric activities. the parameter “Cmax” is: a. b.

Hydroxyl 4 e. d. *c. rotamers. affected by both rate and extent of absorption. 9. to mask the odor of the drug. 4. to improve the appearance of the tablet. 6. 28 Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol? a. to mask the taste of the drug. 5 and 4 h (hours). 6. c.0 h. enantiomers. 32 Which of the following factors would be important in determining the concentration of drug that would be reached in the cerebrospinal fluid for treatment of meningitis? . The mean half-life is: a. 5. b. Hydroxyls 1 and 2 29 The above structures are related to one another as: a. positional (structural) isomers. b. 30 Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3. 5. Hydroxyl 3 d. Hydroxyl 1 *b. e.4 h.0 h. *c.*d. bioisosteres. d. b. *d. e. 31 Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following. e. e.8 h.0 h. Hydroxyl 2 c. EXCEPT: a. to protect the drug from stomach acid. the only significant parameter. homologs. to increase the drug's release rate. 5.

Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression.*I Oil/water partition coefficient *II Binding to plasma protein *III pKa of the drug a. Polymorphism e. II and III 33 Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture? a. I only b. II and III 35 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation? a. I only b. Hygroscopicity d. a. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution. 36 Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that: I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester oxo group. III only c. d. II and III only *e. Deliquescence *b. *b. c. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily. . Efflorescence c. *II the presence of surfactants in the formulation. I and II only d. III only c. e. *III the type of ointment base. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst. II and III only *e. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet. Condensation 34 Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include: *I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule. I and II only d. I. I.

the drug is extensively metabolized. 62. Methenamine *d. d. Phenazopyridine e. a. c.5 mg q6h. I only b. II and III 37 Which of the following is an azo dye? a. II and III only e. entero-hepatic recycling is significant. Nalidixic acid 38 If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume that: *a.*II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity. I. 125 mg q12h. the drug is not bound to plasma proteins. Hexachlorophene b. e. 39 Approximately 50% of dicloxacillin is excreted unchanged in the urine. 40 Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity: . c.25 mg q6h. b. III only c. I and II only *d. Nitrofurantoin c. e. greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with moderate renal failure. 31. *d. 25 mg q6h. *III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity. b. If the normal dosage schedule for dicloxacillin is 125 mg q6h. 75 mg q6h. a patient with renal function 20% of normal should receive: a. the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue.

D e. A b. III only *c. blockade of enkephalinergic neurons. prolactin release. *c. E 42 Biceps muscles are part of: *I the arm. inhibition of microsomal enzymes. d. nitrazepam. d. diazepam. *II the thigh. clonazepam. *c.a. I. inhibition of liposomal enzymes. 41 The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. b. a. e. C d. blockade of dopamine receptors. induction of microsomal enzymes. II and III 43 The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of phenothiazines is thought to be due to: a. triazolam. b. 44 Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) include: a. improvement of cholinergic transmission. B *c. II and III only e. b. blockade of catecholamine re-uptake. e. a. I only b. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to hydrolysis. III the rib cage. I and II only d. c. oxazepam. .

. dry skin. b. diarrhea. EXCEPT: a. Reacting at the cholinergic receptor e.H+ exchange system of the renal tubule? a. Amiloride 47 Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms. phenylephrine. 48 The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms? a. Furosemide b. Acetazolamide e. c. b. e. histamine. Combining with acetylcholine b. *II ischium. flushed appearance. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending 49 The skeletal structure of the hipbone includes the: *I ilium. EXCEPT: a. atropine. Spironolactone *d. delirium and restlessness. *e. enhanced platelet aggregation. 46 Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na&#177.*d. phentolamine. c. e. *d. d. displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin. Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase d. isoproterenol. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase *c. 45 All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult. mydriasis.

postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. cornea. preprandial and postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. c.*III pubis. e. treated by parenteral administration of folic acid. iris. d. d. II and III 50 Pernicious anemia is: a. due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12. macula lutea. 52 Acarbose smooths and lowers: a. 53 Autoimmune disorders include which of the following? *I Graves' disease *II Systemic Lupus Erythematosus III Osteoarthritis a. prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B12 supplement. I and II only d. pupil. 51 The optic disk is also called the: *a. *d. c. b. preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. II and III only *e. e. c. I only . b. blind spot. I only b. treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12. caused by dietary iron deficiency. *b. I. postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. III only c. e. a.

II and III only e. I and II only d. II and III only e.6 L/h) and the biological half-life is 18 h. I and II only d. The molecular weight of lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) is 74. 32 e. II and III 54 Acute hemorrhagic gastritis is commonly seen with: *a. 56 The number of millimoles of lithium (Li+1) that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. I. III only *c. c. H. carcinoma of the stomach. pylori bacterial infections. I only b. Travellers' diarrhea. III Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product. II and III Questions 56 to 57 inclusive refer to the following: KJ. I. 48 57 The number of milli-*****alents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is: . III only *c. a. chronic alcoholism. carcinoma of the colon. d. 24 d. 8 *b.b. a 23 year-old female. is to receive lithium therapy with a regimen of lithium carbonate 600 mg q8h. e. 55 True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include which of the following? *I Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy. 16 c.44 mL/s (1. b. *II T cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process. The total body clearance of lithium is 0.

. a solubilizer. 60 Potassium-sparing diuretics: I exert their effect in the proximal tubule.a. d. III only c. e. II and III 61 Dorzolamide: I has a sulfonylurea structure. c. b. 8 *b. III only *c. 48 58 The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by: *I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant. a. a chelator. I and II only *d. *III include the aldosterone antagonists. I only b. an emulsifier. sodium metabisulphite is included as: *a. II and III only e. *II the free drug concentration. III the total receptor concentration. 24 d. an antioxidant. *II has carbonic anhydrase inhibitor activity. 16 c. a. a cosolvent. II and III 59 In some parenteral formulations. II and III only e. 32 e. *II may cause intracellular alkalosis. I. I only b. I. I and II only d.

*III is useful in the treatment of glaucoma. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only *d. II and III only e. I, II and III 62 True statements regarding transcription include which of the following? *I The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA polymerase. *II The genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of mRNA is translated into a protein structure. *III The information carried in the gene sequence is transferred to RNA. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only *e. I, II and III 63 Which of the following agents may cause pulmonary toxicity? *I Amiodarone *II Bleomycin III Ramipril a. I only b. III only *c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III 64 An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is: a. enalapril. *b. fosinopril. c. lisinopril.

d. quinapril. e. ramipril. 65 Which of the following agents is NOT associated with the toxic effect of Stevens-Johnson syndrome? a. Warfarin b. Cotrimoxazole *c. Amoxicillin d. Phenobarbital e. Lamotrigine 66 Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to: a. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body. *b. post-antimicrobial effect. c. enhanced tissue accumulation. d. reduced renal clearance. e. higher peak-trough differences. 67 The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful in the identification of compounds of unknown structure is called: a. atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI). b. chemical ionization (CI). *c. electron impact (EI) ionization. d. electrospray ionization (ESI). e. fast atom bombardment (FAB) ionization. Pharmacy Practice 68 The ethical principle of veracity requires that: a. we respect the rights of others to make choices. *b. we act with honesty, without deception. c. we avoid, remove or prevent harm. d. we do good to patients. e. we act with fairness. 69 MT, a pharmacy technician, has worked in a community pharmacy for 5 years. He is well-trained and welcomes new learning opportunities. His manager, now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him, should:

*I discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project. *II negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project. *III provide support and followup as required. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only *e. I, II and III 70 Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects? a. Calcium carbonate b. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate *c. Magnesium hydroxide d. Calcium sulfate e. Aluminum silicate 71 Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. fluid retention. b. headache. c. hypertension. *d. constipation. e. depression. 72 In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the hospital must consider a drug's efficacy, associated workload, and acquisition cost. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C, and drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become available. Currently the hospital stocks drug E, which has been available for several years. Data for the medications is as follows: DrugCost/DayDosing FrequencyTreatment Duration (days)A$2.50QID14B$2.25once daily14C$5.00BID7D$2.25BID7E$2 .25QID7The most appropriate choice for the hospital is: a. Drug A. b. Drug B. c. Drug C. *d. Drug D.

*III can increase gastrointestinal tract motility. Statement of equity 75 The Latin abbreviation for "before meals" is: *a. III only c. II and III only e. I and II only . Statement of investments c. *III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate medication. Balance sheet b. 76 Erythromycin: *I is effective against gram-positive cocci. *II is a macrolide antibiotic. II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on metoprolol. Drug E. cc.e. 73 When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of nitrate tolerance. I only b. c. pc. ac. e. Statement of changes in financial position *d. true statements include: I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate. b. I only *b. aa. d. a. Income statement e. a. I and II only d. ic. I. II and III 74 Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year? a. III only c.

0% w/w. d. d. d. diphenhydramine.25 g/mL). 12.0% w/w. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). 25. *c. I. the concentration of AOT in the solution is: a. c. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). II and III 77 Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. .5% w/w. b. benevolent. c. 79 The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the development of detailed policies and written procedures for employees to observe at all times is referred to as: a. aminophylline. 80 The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with: a. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). e. acetazolamide.7% w/w. b. *b. sterile water. e. 78 Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be: a. 20. c. d. *e. bureaucratic. autocratic. 16. 23. adrenaline. *b.8% w/w. e. distilled water. consultative. salbutamol. II and III only *e. 81 Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n): a. participative. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1.d. analgesic agent.

b. e. 40%. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample.e. *e. *d. provide only analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. Based on these results. sodium retention. c. 50%. lowered resistance to infection. antipyretic agent. skeletal muscle weakness. *b. a specific serious side effect (i. 85 In an adequately powered. anti-inflammatory agent. 15%. only 0. b. c. 83 Prednisone may produce all of the following effects. uricosuric agent. the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least . *c. are effective because they are uricosuric agents. are more effective when given with allopurinol. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0. d. stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement. 84 In an adequately powered.5% of the study sample. agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid. the desired clinical outcome (i. 10%.e. d. d. In the patients who receive a placebo. 25%. e. randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years. specifically reverse the cause of the disease. hypoglycemia.45% experience the same side effect. the salicylates: a. randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years. e. peptic ulceration. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the study period is: a. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug. 82 In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. c.b. only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. EXCEPT: a.

The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets. 15. II and III only *e. 86 The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine patient. in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap. 20. a. If relief is not achieved. I and II only d. III only c. no other medication can be used for 24 hours. d. If no relief is achieved in two hours. I.one patient is: a. with the original cotton. *III Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions. e. *c. in the refrigerator. d. sumatriptan may be used for the second headache. c. II and III 88 A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication: a. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later. *d. I only b. ergotamine may be used. b. c. 2000. 200. Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following? a. in a plastic vial with a childproof cap. sumatriptan may be repeated. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours. b. 150. *II Take with plenty of fluids. *e. . b. 87 Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension include which of the following? *I Shake well before using.

shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice daily. dry place. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice daily. e. II and III only e. do good to patients. *a. apply one drop into both eyes twice daily. II the physical appearance of the preparations. *c. BIDOn the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read: a. act with honesty. I. a. III only c. d. remove or prevent harm from people. *III pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations. 92 Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it: *I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds.25% dropsMitte: 15 mLSig: gtt. I and II only d. III only . without deception. b. II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction. act with fairness. respect the rights of patients to make choices. b. avoid. placing the benefit of the patient above all else.e.d. I only *b. 91 Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that pharmacists: a. d. i o. II and III 90 Rx Timolol 0. in a warm. allowing people access to pharmacy care. instil one drop into the left eye twice daily. *c. 89 Factors that determine bio*****alence of two brands of a drug include: I the taste of the preparations. I only b. e. instil one drop into the right eye twice daily. III decreases the force of myocardial contraction.

I. in which there are two or more questions in sequence. I and II only d. . Questions 94 to 96 inclusive refer to the following: SM is a 34 year old female who. II and III 93 The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy: Losec&#174. Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets). Doxycycline d. Bismuth subsalicylate b. When choosing your response to questions in the case scenario format. Amoxicillin e. e.c. while vacationing in Mexico. Loperamide 95 Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea include: I Bacteroides fragilis. began prophylactic treatment for Travellers' Diarrhea. c. SM’s previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides. Shortly thereafter she complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears. II and III only e. that are related to the patient information provided in the (bolded) stem shown at the top of the case. Take two tablets twice daily (56 tablets). Take one tablet twice daily (28 tablets). 20 mg S: Take 1 tab BID M: 2 weeks Which of the following is correct labelling for this prescription? a. Take one tablet twice weekly (4 tablets). Cotrimoxazole c. Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets) The next section includes an EXAMPLE OF THE CASE SCENARIO FORMAT. b. black stools and a black tongue. 94 Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's complaints? *a. you must base your choice on the patient-specific information presented in the case. *d.

*III Shigella sp. II and III only e. a.Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by: I-Corticosteroids II-Menopausa III-Grave’s disease a) I only . I. I only b. I and II only d. III amoxicillin. I only b. I. *a.*II Escherichia coli. II cotrimoxazole. which might have been prescribed for SM include: *I doxycycline. I and II only *d. II and III Top of Form Delete Reply Forward Bottom of Form (4) BONES AND JOINT COMPLICATIONS 1. III only c. II and III 96 Drugs shown to be effective in the prevention of Travellers' Diarrhea. II and III only e. III only c.

b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 2.: Sulphametoxazole) can take all of the following medications.A patients with allergy to Sulphonamides (i. EXCEPT: a) Penicillin b) Lidocaine c) Celecoxib d) Clindamycin e) Tetracycline 3.Prevents hypercalcemia by inhibiting the transport of Ca intro extra cellular fluid and by increasing the renal clearance of calcium III.It is a vitamin D derivative a) I only .It secretion is normally stimulated during feeding.All of the following are examples of DMRA-Disease Modifying Antirheumatic Agents. particularly of high calcium meals II. EXCEPT a) Methothrexate b) Sulfasalazine c) Organic Gold Compounds d) Sulfinpyrazone e) Penicillamine 4.e.Calcitonin is mainly classified as hormone liberated by thyroid gland.Which of the following statements is/are right regarding CALCITONIN I. Which stimulate the release of calcitonin? a) Hypercalcemia b) Hypocalcemia c) Hypophosphatemia d) Hyperphosphatemia e) High concentration of Vit. D 5.

Mercapturic acid II.The level of which drug should be adjusted during treatment with allopurinol I.Theophillin III.An oral chelating agent used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: a) Allopurinol b) Sulphinpyrazone c) Indomethacin d) Penicillamine e) Methotrexate 9.In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates: a) Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement b) Specifically reverse the cause of the disease c) Provide only analgesic effect .Anticoagulants a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 7.Uricosuric agents are used in gout treatment by inhibiting the uric acid re-absorption in the proximal tubules.b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 6. the best example of a uricosuric agent is: a) Allopurinol b) sulphinpyrazone c) Indomethacin d) Penicillamine e) Methotrexate 8.

Importance of Vitamin D in osteoporosis: I.Increase the absorption of calcium from the small intestine II.Drug that inhibits xanthine oxidase and affect the metabolism of 6-mercaptopurine: a) Sulfinpyrazone b) Allopurinol c) Penicillamine d) Purinethol e) Celecoxib 12.Normally occurs in patients with rheumatoid arthritis III.Antacids containing aluminum and magnesium may interfere with proper activity of vitamin D.The best vitamin D analog to treat osteoporosis is calcitriol III.Intra-articular means: a) In the joint space b) In the tissues space c) In the spinal fluid .Synovial cell proliferation inside of a joint II. a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 11.d) Are effective because they are uricosuric agents e) Are more effective when given with allopurinol 10.Pannus is an inflammatory exudates characterized by: I.An immunologic complication a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 13.

Colchicines.Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid . is a derivative of: a) Uric acid b) Purine c) Pyridine d) Pteridine e) Urate salts 18.Allopurinol. can give false results of: a) Glucose b) Uric acids c) Urates d) Ketones e) RBCs 15.The use of indomethacin in gout treatment: a) Inhibit the acute gout arthritis inflammation by inhibition of prostaglandin formation b) Inhibits tubulin synthesis c) Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid d) Inhibit uric acid synthesis e) Inhibit the reabsorption of uric acid by the kidney 17.Goals of gout treatment may include: I.d) In the spinal column e) In the dermis 14. a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. a widely drug used in gout treatment.Colchicine is used as anti-inflammatory agent in the acute treatment of: a) Osteoporosis b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Osteomyelites d) Gout e) Pressure atrophy 16.Reduce inflammation during acute attacks II.

Allopurinol.Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints II. EXCEPT: a) Increase in protrombin time b) Hypersensitivity rashes c) GIT intolerance d) Peripheral neuritis e) Necrotizing vasculitis 21. xanthine oxidase inhibitor. a) I only b) III only .Use of estrogen in osteoporosis: I. used in gout treatment may produce all the following side effects.Estrogen enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss II.Reduce the conversion of purine to uric acid a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 19.Characteristics of GOUT.III.It is a type osteoporosis a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 20.Estrogen is useful in treat osteoporosis associated to menopause III.The joint inflammation is caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals III.Estrogen is not effective at increasing bone mass that has already been lost. a group of disorders of purine and pyrimidine metabolism may include: I.

Antimalarial drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis as DMRA-Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drug a) Chloroquine b) Quinine c) Sulfasalazine d) Hydroxycloroquine e) Primaquine 24.c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 22.Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by: a) Loss of joint movements b) Loss of bone mass c) Imbalance of uric acid d) Hormonal imbalance e) All are correct 23.5mg once a week b) 15mg once a week c) 7.Which is the correct start dose of methothrexate in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis? a) 7.5mg daily d) 15mg daily e) 22mg once a week 25.Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include: a) With meals b) In emptying stomach c) With plenty of water d) With orange juice e) Before bedtime .

menopause and Grave’s disease. 4.E Comments: Allopurinol may inhibit enzymatic metabolism of anticoagulants.D Comments: Sulphynpyrazone is an uricosuric acid agent used in the treatment of gout. 6.26. lowering plasma calcium and phosphate levels.E Comments: Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by the loss of bone mass. It is a hormone elaborated by the thyroid gland in response to hypercalcemia.Diflunisal is most likely to be prescribed for the treatment of: a) Wilson’s disease b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Cysteinuria d) Psoriasis e) Hansen’s disease 1. 2. leading to potentiation of the anticoagulant effect.C Comments: There is a cross-sensitivity drug interaction between sulphonamides and celecoxib 3.C Comments: Calcitonin is not a vitamin D derivative.A Comments: Calcitonin is a hormone elaborated by the thyroid gland in response to hypercalcemia.Which of the following agents is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered to have aspirin sensitivity? a) Ibuprofen b) Acetaminophen c) Gold therapy d) Azathioprine e) Cyclophosphamide 27. Mercapturic acid dosage should be reduced with concomitant use with allopurinol because it induced inhibition of xanthine oxidase decreasing metabolism of mercapturic acid and potentiating . Example: Corticosteroids. 5. Substances or conditions that alter the metabolism of bones may predispose or aggravated osteoporosis.

D Comments: Allopurinol and sulphynphyrazone are only used in gout treatment. Antacids interact with vitamin D in many ways.E Comments: Osteoporosis is characterized by the loss of bone mass.E .C Comments: Pannus is an inflammatory exudates overlying the lining layer of synovial cells on the inside of a joint. 13. usually occurring in patients with rheumatoid arthritis or related articular rheumatisms.C Comments: Salicylates in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis provides only analgesic effect by reducing prostaglandin synthesis. Vitamin D supplements have been used in the treatment of osteoporosis because vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium that is essential to reduce bone loss. and sometimes resulting in fibrous ankylosis of the joints. 9. Indomethacin can be used in rheumatoid arthritis however as NSAID and Methotrexate is used as DMRA agent. 11. 14.therapeutic and toxic effects. 8. Allopurinol decrease theophyllin clearance resulting in increased serum theophyllin concentrations 7.B Comments: Allopurinol and indomethacin are used in gout treatment however not as uricosuric agent but as xanthine oxidase inhibitor and NSAID respectively. 10.A Comments: Intra-articular is normally referred to a kind of injection given within a joint. Methotrexate is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis as DMRA agent.B Comments: Allopurinol inhibit xanthine oxidase enzyme therefore the conversion of 6-mercaptopurine to uric acid inhibiting the uric acid synthesis-formation 12. magnesium containing antacids may lead to hypermagnesemia and aluminum containing antacids have its levels increased leading to aluminum bone toxicity when currently used with vitamin D.

Increase the renal clearance of uric acid by inhibiting the reabsorption of uric acid by the kidney and 3Reduce the conversion of 6-mercaptopurine to uric acid by inhibition of the enzyme xanthine oxidase. It may also cause decrease in platelet count. macrophages and leukotrienes migration to the affected joint. 19.Comments: Colchicine may cause false-positive test results of red blood cells-RBC and hemoglobin in urine.B Comments: Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by the loss of bone mass. 22. which may lead to destruction and severe crippling of joints.B Comments: Allopurinol is a purine derivative working as xanthine oxidase enzyme inhibitor responsible for the conversion of 6-mercaptopurine to uric acid. It is the most common of the metabolic bone diseases and is an important cause of morbidity in elderly. 2.E Comments: The gout disease is normally controlled by three different mechanisms: 1. 17. 16. 15. peripheral neuritis and necrotizing vasculitis. 18. recurrent characteristic arthritis induced by deposit of crystals in and around the joint of the extremities.D Comments: Cochicine is only used in gout treatment.C Comments: Gout is a group of disorders of purine and pyrimidine metabolism.A Comments: Indomethacin is a potent NSAID that inhibits the acute gout arthritis inflammation by inhibition of prostaglandin formation and inhibition of crystals phagocytes by macrophages. It has no effect on uric acid therefore it is used just in the acute treatment of gout by inhibiting the migration of leukocytes. . phagocytes and leukotrienes B4 to the affected joint.A Comments: Main side effects of allopurinol therapy include: Steven-Johnson’s hypersensitivity rashes reactions. gastro-intestinal intolerance.E Comments: Estrogen is widely used to prevent bone loss after menopause. 20. 21.Control the inflammatory response by inhibition of leukocytes. It is manifested by hyperuricemia. Estrogen can enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss but does not increase bone mass that has already been lost.

. Share (5) CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM 1.K+ and Cl-. 24.B Comments: Diflunisal is a NSAID used for both acute and chronic anti-inflammatory treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.23. 7. Antidiuretic characterized for the decrease of Na+. Quinine and hydroxycloroquine are antimalarial agents and alternatively used in prophylaxis and treatment of muscle cramps leg and rheumatoid arthritis respectively. increased 15mg per week after 6 weeks.C Comments: Gould therapy would be the best choice for this particular patient because the other drugs may have cross-sensitivity with aspirin and/or induce brochospasm. 25.D Comments: Cloroquine and primaquine are normally used together only in the treatment and prevention of malaria.5mg every 12hours for 3 doses given as a course once weekly. 27.A Comments: Methotrexate is a Disease-Modifying rheumatoid arthritis agent normally used orally.5mg once a week or 2.B Comments: In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis penicillamine should be administrated in an empty stomach. if necessary. Improvement of the condition may take up to 2 to 3 months of therapy 26.

Myocardial Infarction b. hydrochlorthiazide d. ADH B. Acetazolamide b. high VD d. high concentration of drug in systemic circulation e. 3.280 Osm/mL e.Patient with renal failure and normal liver function is showing sensitibility to the drug. 280 mOsm/100 mL 5. spirinolactone c. Digoxin is cardiac digitalis widely used in CV which toxicity in increased by: . Which increase water permeability at collecting tubules? A. bleeding from the GIT c. Antithrombolytic agents are contraindicated in: a. high concentration of drug protein c. 280 Osm/L c. Normal osmotic blood pressure in a healthy adult is: a. Hydrochlorthiazide C. high accumulation of metabolite b. Aldosterone D.a. 280 mOsm/mL d. furosemide e. hyperchloremic patient d. Triamterene E. Spirinolactone 6. triamterene 2. 280 mosm/L b. this means that: a. high accumulation of drugs in tissues 4.

embolism b. do not respond to any stimulus e. all of the above 9. pyrimidine structure c. pyrrolidine 8. aneurism c. receive the strongest stimulation b. purine group d. it is relaxed but is able to respond to stimulus c. O e. a. Quinidine III. Cholestyramine 7. none of the above 11. Erythromycin II. a thiazide diuretic have an identical molecular group very important in their structure known as: a. AB d.When would you advise patient that he may suffer from hypertension and he may need to a doctor. The pharmacy monitor shows BP 100/160 III. A man with blood group AB can receive blood from: a.I. Abnormal persistent dilation of blood vessel is known as: a. B c. His meter shows 80/120 10. A b. During absolute refractory period the myocardial fiber. sulphonamide group b. I. emphysema . Acetazolamide. His blood monitor shows BD 100/160 II. a carbonic anhydrase diuretic and hydrochlorthiazide. responds to the most sensible stimulus d.

both have anticoagulant properties b. all are correct 15. artherosclerosis 12. Nifedipine II. Warfarin.Red blood cells are originated from erythrocytes and have a half-life of 120 days (4 months) II. It has anticoagulant properties that inhibit the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and fibrinogen to fibrin III. warfarin has activity in vivo & in vitro c. Deficiency of Vit. Verapamil III. Platelets are involved in blood clot and have half-life of 7 days III. Diltaizem 16. An embolism can be a clot or a foreign material transported in the circulation 13. Obstruction of a blood vessel by a mass transported in the circulation III. Important characteristics regarding the blood formed elements may include: I. Adjunct therapy with heparin . an anticoagulant agent has its effects increased by: I. Platelets are originated from myoleoriocytes 17. It has antithrombin III as its co-factor 14. organic acid present naturally in many tissues especiallyin lungs and liver II.d. Abnormal dilation of blood vessel II.K II. Which of the following statements regarding Heparin is right: I. Heparin has activity only in vivo d. It is a mucopolysaccharide. Heparin and warfarin are very popular anticoagulant agents. Correct statements regarding embolism include: I. Heparin has activity in vivo & in vitro e. RBC. What is wrong regarding heparin and warfarin a. starvation e. Which of the following calcium channel blockers cause bradycardia: I.

orthostatic hypotension d. Adjunct therapy with salicylates 18. cimetidine d. tachycardia b. During inspiration the lowest blood pressure in supine position is: a. lisinopril e. genfibrozil c. warfarin 20.Heparin III. bradycardia c. Losartan 22. vena cava b. aorta artery d. pulmonary artery . All are drugs that decrease LDL except: a. A patient with deep vein thrombosis can be treated by: I. pravastatin 19. internal carotid artery c. simvastatin e. captopril c. One of the biggest cautions in using ∂ -blockers is the development of: a. clofibrate b.III. sciatic artery e. Alpha blockers are readily used in CV complications. enalapril b. increase in cardiac output 21. hypotension e. All of the following are ACE inhibitors except: a. ramipril d. Streptokinase II.

23. 4-6 L b. Which of the following diuretics is used to block Na/H exchange system of the remal tubule.Which of the following theories relates the tension. of the total body weight of a healthy adult. Fick’s Law b. 10 L e. Henderson Law 24. Indapamide b. Nitrates are esters of nitrous and nitric acid II. III. 27. Ahhrenius c. Nitrates relaxes vascular smooth muscle and in addition relax bronchial. Newtonian Law e.How much of these percentage are represented approximately in liter of blood a. 15 L 26. Ouabain c. gastrointestinal and uterine smooth muscles. La Place’s Law d. a. biliary. kidney e. lungs c. Nitrates are mainly used in angina treatment. 7-10 L c. 7-8 L d. liver b. Nitrates are prodrugs and must be denitrated to exert their therapeutic effect. heart 25.The blood weighs 7 to 8&#37. radius of vessel and intraluminal pressure achieved in a blood vessel wall: a. acetazolamide . spironalactone d. True statement regarding nitrates: I. heart d. The first ******** where blood is present in case of left ventricular failure a.

Dobutamine is a direct acting inotropic agent parenterally used in cardiac emergencies and characterized by: I. Ventricular tachycardia E . collecting tubule e. A . Increased glomerular filtration. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist diuretic that competes with aldosterone at: a. What kind of arrhythmia can be caused by an increase in temperature. early collecting tubule d. ouabain e. atrial fibrillation C . causing hyperchloremic is: a. end of collecting tubule 31. proximal tubule b. acetazolamide b. very useful in myocardial infarction II. amiloride c. Aspirin 32. amiloride 28. Ventricular premature depolarization B . Examples of drug affecting platelet aggregation may include: I. Clopidogrel III. renal blood flow and sodium excretion 30. Example of diuretics that ↑ levels of Cl-. early distal c. Increased myocardial contractility. none of the above .e. paroxysmal arrhythmia D . furosemide d. Ticlopidine II. Increased cardiac output III. hydrochlorthiazide 29.

Glycosides are widely used in the treatment of CHF. ∂ -adrenergic blocker B . II. hypoglycemia c. polypeptides c. sugars b. ∂ & β adrenergic blocker 34. hyperuricemia 35. all are correct 37. hyponatremia d. result in poor pump function III. Vit K d. hypercalcemia e. All are side effect of hydrochlorthiazide except: a. CHF is a cardiac disorder which: I. Glycosides molecular structure consist of steroidal nucleon and: a. β blockers are the 1st treatment for CHF 36. carbohydrates d. hypokalemia b. Prazosin is a sympathetic agent used in hypotension acting as: A . Drugs that may affect the normal activity if the warfarin include: a. Result from any cardiac disorder that impairs the ability of the ventricle to deliver adequately quantity of blood to the metabolizing tissues. proteins e. acetaminophen e. e . β adrenergic blocker C. Ibuprofen b. Aspirin c.33. . d.

it can be given orally 43. It will not cross blood brain barrier cause of CNS effect b. Bradycardia and orthosthatic hypotension are characteristic side effect of: I. It produce dose dependent increasing cardiac output and renal perfusion d.38. Stenosis is : a. guanebenz II. vasodilation 42. increase in cardiac output c. high pressure in blood vessel 39. nifedipine 41. Cardiac output at rest a. hydralazine III. muscle e. diltiazem II. Calcium channel blockers that may cause myocardial infarction as side effect include: I. accumulation of cholesterol in blood vessel d. narrowing of blood vessel e. it will not increase blood pressure e. liver c. fat 40. Which of the following diuretics may show a uricosoric activity . verapamil III. lungs b. An important advantage of using dopamine in cardiac shock may include: a. dilatation of blood vessels b. it has no effect on ∂ & β receptor c. kidney d.

a. triamterene e. exercise b. furosemide c. chlorothiazide 44. captopril 47. ACE inhibitor b. spirinolactone b. a diabetic patient suffering from hypertension is having enalapril. Calcium Channel blocker d. It is derivated from snake venom II. losartan c. However he is complaining from severe dry cough that we can associate as a side effect of the enalapril. hot places . It is an alternative to heparin 45. The use of sildenafil together with atenolol may result in: I. Ancrod. are antithrombolytic agent that is characterized by: I. nitrates 48. Visual disturbances 46. chlortalidone d. a. indapamide e. It depletes fibrinogen III. β blocker c. Hypotension III. digitalis e. Which would be the best choice for changing this medication. tremor II. a cardiovascular complication characterized by oxygen insufficiency may be aggravated by all of the following except: a. Drug of choice when treating hypertension in a diabetic patient may include: a. Ramipril b. amlodipine d. Angina.

overweight 49. β blocker b. Propanolol b. Digoxin c. Diastolic pressure is the lowest arterial pressure during cardiac cycle III. hydralazine e. hydroxyzine 52. Correct statement regarding blood pressure may include: I. Systemic Lupus or erythomatus lupulus may be a side effect of: a. Drugs used in the treatment of hypertension associated with renal failure may include: I. anger e. Coronary Heart Disease c. Myocardial Infarction b. ∂ blocker c. Which best describe the properties of labetalol a. Furosemide III. Digitalis is contraindicated in the treatment of: a. β-2 blocker 53. ∂ & β 1 blocker d. Atenolol 50. Hydrochlorthiazide II. β non selective & ∂ blocker e. cyclophosphamide d. cold places d.c. Diastolic pressure is crucial in verifying if a person suffers of high blood pressure . congestive Heart Failure d. venous congestion 51. Arrythmia e. Systolic pressure is the highest arterial pressure during cardiac cycle II.

Which is the most commonly user lubricant? Ans .alpha pheto protein is elevated in which condition? Ans.what is the mode of action of orlistat? Q5.glidant Q4.AGE OVER 65 III.I ONLY Q6. Liver chrosis Q3.what is the absolute contraindication of antithrombolytic drugs? K type I. HDL (high density lipoproteins) are (6) Evaluation exam July 2004 Q1.54. Cholesterol I. VLDL (very low density lipoproteins) are formed in the liver II. LDL (Low density Lipoprotein) are formed from VLDL and carry LDL cholesterol that is the bad cholesterol III.which drug can be given in the mild to moderate hypertesion whith chf? a.GI BLEEDING II.which improve the flow properties of powder? Ans.ISCHEMIC ATTACK ANS.beta blocket .mg stereate Q2.

Q11. Q14. B Q7.b.which drug reduce the production of urate? Ans.which drug cause the reabsorption of ca++ Ans.carbacol has one more ch3 group Q16.5ht id receptor agonist Q12.caffine . which stucture resemble to gaba? Ans Q9.hydrochlorothiazide ans.allopurinol Q15. Q8.what is extravasation? Ans.what is the English meaning of colyrum? Ans.HKATPASE pump blocker Q13.which condition cause the eryctile dysfunction? a. what is the mode of action of fiestride? Ans.what is the structure similarity of carbacol and bethanecol? Ans.mode of action of omeprazole/ Ans. Eye wash Q10.ca cahnnel blocker c.mode of action of sumtriptan? Ans.

cyp3a4 Q26. Q27.pinpoint pupil Q21.cyp3a4 Q24.which metabolic enzyme is most abundant in human being? Ans.b.what is the structure similaritry of antihistamine? Ans.smoking Q17.which is not the side effect of morphine? Ans.flase positive error Q18.what is the metabolite of alcohol? Ans.mercaptepuric acid is metabolise by which metabolism? Ans.which drug cause agranulocytosis? Ans.hydrolysis Q25.which enzyme in mostly use for drug metabolism? Ans.what is type one error? Ans. Q20.rifampin Q22.what is the structure difference between amphetamine and dopamine? Ans.aldehyde .which phase 1 metabolsim occour in stomach> Ans.what is the metabolism of salicylic acid? Ans. Q23. Q19.

which is not the part of lymphatic system? Ans.which hormone sustain the action of corpus lutum after pregnenacy? Ans. 70mg/week .acth hormone is secreted from which part of brain? Ans.what is the similiraity hemoblogulin and cyp3a4 enzyme? Ans. See shargel Q30. Q33.where the opoid receptor r found? Ans.progesterone Q34. Thyroid gland Q31.anterior pituitary Q32. Q35.both have heam group Q29.Q28.what r the different types of hernia? Ans. Q36.what would happen reaction between ab+ if u add a more? Ans. what r the different types of burns? Ans.what is the dose of alandronate? Ans.

denatrurisation of protein? Ans.dermatitis ans I only Q45.whch drug is given in excresise induced asthma? Ans.what is the composition of insulin? .who quote the price of otc drugs? Ans.Q37.what r the causes of osteoporosis? Ans.leg cramps iii.filgristim Q46.short acting b2 agonist Q40. Q44. Q39.nosocomia infection is caused by which organism? Ans.rash ii.what is emphysemia? Ans.what is influenza vaccine? Ans.s aureu Q42.toxic shock syndrome is caused by which organism? Ans.which is the side effect of raloxifine? K type i.which drug is approved in Canada as monoclonial antibody? Ans.live attenuated vaccine Q41. Q43. Pharmacist Q47.destruction of the air way Q38.

Don.problems on t1/2? Q56.moade of action of coxii inhibitor? Ans.doc of athlete foot? Ans. Q52.whiach statement is true regarding the storage of insulin? Ans.t freeze 49.problem on crclerance? Q57.problems on relative risk reduction? Ans.pyrogen test . Q51.tolnaftate Q50.which maintains the integrity of skin? Ans.Ans70/30 48.what is lymus amibicite test? Ans.problems on auc? Q55. Q53. Q59.Which drug cause the photosensitivity? Ans.what is salicylate toxicity? Ans.respiratory alkalosisi Q54.see pebc exam booklet every year these questions repeate Q58.which is most stable penicillamine? Ans.

structure similarity between clozapine and chlorpromazine? Ans. Nitrates Q62.Q60.which is the ophthalmic antioxidant? Ans? See leonshargel otc cahper of eye and ear an memorise all the antioxidants use din eye preparartion.which hormone does not secrete the secretion in stomach? Ans. It contain sugar moiety Q64. Q63. Q67.maximum blood supply goes to which organism? Ans.what is not the requirement of otc solution? Ans.what is the moratlity measurement for smoking? Ans see leon shargel Q61.in left ventricular failure he max blood supply goes to which organism? Ans.which is the contraindication of metformin? Ans Q70.lungs Q66.which drug causes venous pooling? Ans. . Q68.structure of digoxin? Ans. Q69.what is isotonic solution? Ans. Liver Q65.

which statement is true regarding loading dose? Ans.problem on inventory turn over? Ans.counceling of ant scabies drugs? Ans. Megakereblast Q72. Ecoli . Q79.what is the life span of platelets? Ans.which is the main organism of uti during pregnancy? Ans.which statement is used to see the profitibilty of pharmacy? Ans. Income statement Q80. Q76.which is not a metabolizing enzyme? Ans. Q75.Q71. Any stimuli Q81. To achieve steady state concentration Q77.during absolute refractory condition heart muscles does not respond? Ans.7-11 days Q73.problems on isotonacity? Ans. Q74.which is the precursor of platelets? Ans. Q78.which statement is true regarding aids? Ans.

Triazolam Q91.edta is used in which toxicity? Ans.pyouria and bacteuria causes? Ans uti Q84.what is another name of herpes simplex virus? Ans.which is the shortest acting bzd? Ans. Q83.preservative Q90. what is the treatment? Ans.bezylconium chloride is used as eye? Ans.which enzyme is responsible of rna replication? .what is the meaning of qlay? Ans. Flouroquinolone.lead Q88.what do u mean by pharmacoeconomic? Ans. Q89. Q87. Shingles Q86.bzd and barbiturates acts on which receptor? Ans bzd receptors Q92.pressuer atrophy Q85.which is used in propellants? Ans.causes of bed sores? Ans.quality adjusted life per year Q93.Q82.

Ans.

Q94.gas gangere is caused by whaich organism? Ans.

Q95.which statement is true regarding moa and tyramine? Ans. Hypertensive crisis

Q96.insulin demand increase in which condition? Ans. Exercise

Q97.which is most potent pain mediator? Ans.bradykinin

Q98.what are the factors which aggravates osteoporisis? Ans.

Q99.which drug should be given in the asthmatic shock syndrome? Ans.epeniphrine

Q100.which condition does not occour in hypovolmia? Ans.odema

Q101.which changes the colour of urine and feces? Ans.rifampin

Q102.which drug can be given in acute asthma? Ans.b2 agonist

Q103.what is thixotrophy? Ans.

Q104. whiach statement is true raegaring amphoterecin b?

Ans. It is inactive orally

Q105.what is present in inner most layer of plaque? Ans.

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1.An enzyme is a substance which acts as a catalyst. 2.A substance found commonly in fermented foods which can be toxic when MAO inhibitors are used is tyramine. 3.MAO is classified as an enzyme. 4.The anticonvulsant carbamazepine interferes with thyroid function test. 5.An excess of nitrogenous waste in the blood causes azotemia. 6.Vitamin C may give a false + glucose with Tees – Tape. 7.The heat labile factor in the vitamin B complex is thiamine. 8.Vitamin K is necessary for formation of prothrombin. 9.The average life of a red blood cell is about 4 months. 10.The precursor of vitamin A are carotenes. 11.The feeding of vitamin B12 to pernicious anemia patients overcomes the lack of extrinsic factor. 12.Vitamin E is used occasionally as an antioxidant. 13.Death due to cyanide poisoning results from cyanide inhibiting cytochrome oxidase. 14.Phenobarbital stimulates hepatic microsomal enzymes. 15.Vitamin D has a structure similar to the steroids. 16.End product of anaerobic respiration is lactic acid. 17.Mitochondria is the power house of the cell. 18.The major hallucinogenic component of marijuana is tetrahydrocanabinol(THC). 19.Coenzyme A or aryl transferase is involved in glycine conjugation.

20.GABA functions as a neurotransmitter. 21.Inositol triphosphate can act as second messenger. 22.Myxedema is a malfunction of thyroid. 23.The effect of vasopressin on the kidney is that it is antidiuretic. 24.Absence of antidiuretic hormone in the body causes diabetes insipidus. 25.The enzymes involved in ethanol metabolism are primarily alcohol dehydrogenase. 26.The end product of purine metabolism is primarily uric acid. 27.Vitamins act as coenzyme for metabolic processes. 28.Uracil is not found in DNA molecule. 29.Ketone bodies accumulate due to long or acute starvation and hypoglycemia. 30.The rich source of vitamin A is fish liver oil. 31.Vitamin D3 acts as a hormone. 32.The Michaelis – Menten equation will appear first order when the substance concentration is much smaller than Km. 33.Concentration of a drug is helpful in calculating volume of distribution.

34.During constant rate of intravenous infusion at steady state condition, rate of elimination equals constant rate of infusion. 35.Metabolism of a drug which is mainly metabolized in liver depends on intrinsic clearance and blood flow. 36.Rate of elimination is decreased by increased renal reabsorption. 37.The relative bioavailability of a drug product can be determined by comparing AUCs and total drug urinary excretion. 38.Drug products can also be evaluated by comparing curves of serum concentration vs time. The most important parameters for comparison that can be obtained from such curves are peak concentration, time of peak concentration and total AUC. 39.The area under the serum concentration – time curve represents the amount of the drug absorbed. 40.The excretion of a weakly acidic drug (eg, pKa of 3.5) will be more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine because the drug will exist primarily in the ionized form, which cannot be easily reabsorbed. 41.If a fixed dose of a drug that is eliminated by first order kinetics is administered at regular intervals, the time required to achieve a steady state plasma level depends only on the half life of the drug. 42.The volume of distribution of a drug is a mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in the body and the concentration of drug in the blood. 43.If a drug appears in the feces after oral administration, parenteral administration of the drug may determine the contribution of the biliary system to the amount of drug in the feces. 44.Low clearance drugs are affected by increase in plasma protein binding by slow process. 45.Rate of reaction for first order kinetic is dc/dt = -kc. 46.To maximize its bioavailability, pencillin G should be given on an empty stomach 1 hour before meal. 47.Biological half life does not influence the rate of absorption from solutions to any significant extent.

Ammonium chloride is an example of acidifying agent.The difference between peak and trough concentrations is greatest when a drug is given at dosing intervals much longer than the half life. 69.9% bound to plasma proteins when the attending total plasma bilrubin concentration is 9mmol/L (0. 57.According to pharmacokinetics degradation of insulin occurs in the liver. 71.5 mg/L).In gravimetric analysis.Hexaresorcinol of larger particle size is better than resorcinol. stationary phase is non polar and mobile phase is polar. Chi square test and Latin square are statistical techniques for clinical trials.With respect to bio*****alance. 63.1 – methyl cyclopentane is not an isomer of hexane.Dimethyl formamide is used in the assay of non – aqueous titration of sulfonamides.48.A drug replaced from protein binding undergoes metabolism. o/w partition coefficient and pKa of the drug are important factors in determining the concentration of drug which would be reached in the CSF treatment of meningitis.The reaction between phenol and aqueous solution of NaOH is considered acid – base reaction.Physiochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include the partition coefficient of the drug molecule.Most drugs are metabolized or eliminated from the body by first order kinetics. bilirubin is 99.If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10ml/min then one may assume that the drug is extensively metabolized. 67. 61. 56. 51. mode and median are same the population is uniformly distributed.Nitrites (organic cyanides) are hydrolyzed to acids when they are heated with aqueous base or acids. 53. 70.In HPLC. 64. dried and weighed is to ensure that certain potential impurities remain behind in solution.F test.From the original dye N – dealkylation metabolism occurs. the cellulose fibers have a strong affinity for the water in the solvent system and have a weak affinity for the organic solvent in the solvent system. if the drug is basic. 59. This implies that the amount of drug metabolized or eliminated changes with time and is dependently only on the concentration of drug in the blood.1% of total plasma bilirubin is not protein bound. 54.In paper chromatography.In a gravimetric analysis. the parameter Cmax is affected by both rate and extent of absorption. 73. the purpose of carrying out a chemical reaction to form an insoluble derivative which is then filtered off. 74. pH is adjusted to avoid the precipitation of impurities and facilitate maximum precipitation. 49. 60. 58. 72. 66.Pyconometer is an instrument which measure weight of the same volume of different liquids.Drug excreted by tubular excretion is penicillin.Amorphous means no specific size and shape. 62. 52.Binding to plasma protein. 50. . 68. 55.Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma. shows pharmacological effect and good renal clearance.If the mean. the presence of surfactants in the formulation and the type of ointment base.Two solids melting at room temperature are eutectics. 65.In 3 months old Jamey Scott. This means that 0.

76.Absorption of water is increased by adding a solvent & the process is called partition coefficient.Potency of penicillin is expressed in international of units per mg. .Structure activity relationship of antihistaminic must have terminal tertiary amine and hydrocarbon must have one or more than one aryl or hetero aryl group or its *****alent.Primary amine undergoes acetylation. 91. 95. 99. 100. 85.H2C = CH. 81. 79.99mTc does not eliminate from the lungs in 30 days.Co – precipitate occurs by adding rapidly precipitant. 105. M represents the slope of the line.4. 104.Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the pteridine ring.Much of formation of prodrugs is by bioactivation. 90% of the drug will be ionized at pH 8.If pKa of phenobarbitone is 7.The temperature above which all the concentrations of a solute are soluble in water is called critical solution temperature.is called a vinyl group. 78.Order of dissociation in water is COO->COOH->OCH3>CH3.4.The molecular structure of clonidine contains a heterocyclic ring which is best described as imidazoline. 103.lne-x is –x.Cellulose retains water in paper chromatography. 77.Phenazopyridine is an azo dye. 92. 98.NH4 + OH.75. 101. 96.A carbon atom that has four different groups attached to it is an asymmetric carbon atom. is an example of neutralization.Conformational isomer means rotation around a single bond.Disintegration of dx/x is lnx.= NH3 + H2O. 88. then azeotrope will distill faster. 106. 89.The equation for a straight line is a = mx + b. 94. 84. They are present in these structures specifically because of their electron withdrawing effects. 83. 80. 102. 87.Azeotropic mixture of two volatile liquids in which the azeotrope has a higher vapor pressure than the individual component.2 – butene has geometric isomerism. a pyridine and pyrrolidine.Structurally. caffeine belongs to a class of nitrogen bases called purines.Free radicals are H2O2. is called deamination. O2 and OH. 93. 97. 86.CH3CH2NH is more amphiprotic. 90.The reaction R – CONH – R = RCOOH + NH2R. 82.In sulfonamide titration the role of dimethyl formamide is basic solvent.Ninhydrin is used to identify amino acids.Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfonamides.Nicotine is a nitrogen containing base with two types of heterocyclic rings.Two immiscible layers are separated by fractional distillation.

132. 121. 124.Determination of iodine value depends upon addition of iodine at the double bond of fatty acids. 119. methylene chloride is added and before extraction 0. 110. 131. 127. when the mean. 2p1.In HPLC particle size affect resolute. 2s1. 134.For a radio isotope to be useful as an scanning agent. if 95% is standard deviation. 137.In assay of epinephrine – HCl.HPLC resolute means scanning of one analyte from others in substance mixture. tablet is crushed. organic phase is moving and silica gel is stationary.The rate of zero order reactions is independent of concentration. 117.Most of the local anesthetics are esters of p – aminobenzoic acid. 138.A line parallel with X – axis will have zero slope. change in pH upon addition of strong acid or base is due to common ion effect.In TLC.1 NaOH is added.In TLC. 130. 112.Enantiomorphs are two isomers that rotate plane polarized light equal amounts in the opposite direction.Capacity of a buffer to resist. dissolved in HCl.At excited state Boron is 1s2.In statistics. the error is 2.When atmospheric pressure is equal to the vapor pressure it is called boiling point. 129. 136. 122. organic phase is moving and silica gel is stationary.Cyclohexane is not an isomer of hexane. the distribution is called normal. 126. 109.Mechanism of resolution of organic solvent in TLC depends on capillary action. 135.In assay of amphetamine in plasma it can be extracted by ether. 113. 114. .In paper chromatography cellulose fibers have increase affinity for water and decrease affinity for organic solvents. 128. 116. 111. 108.Dipole bond does not exist in ester – ester linkage. 115. 118.Aromatic amines and hydrazides are metabolized by acetylation.Hydrolysis of fixed oil gives glycerol + free fatty acids.Electrophoresis is used to separate proteins – amino acids.2 – butene gives cis – trans isomerism. median and mode are the same.Pyridium is an azo dye. 120.In statistics. filter to extract to form base.Capillary action takes place in TLC. 123.Superimposible is not true about optical isomers. 125.Most of the local anesthetics are esters of p – aminobenzoic acid.5.Soap is a form of sodium salt of fatty acid.107.Benzodiazepine can be metabolized by reduction. transmission must be gamma rays. 133.The error is always smaller than the standard deviation.

organism is isolated after taking mid stream urine.Staph. stains blue and have teichoic acid in their cell wall while gram negative bacteria stains red. penicillins should be continued for 10 days. 146. 166. 152. 155. 160. 158.Nosocomial infection can be prevented by using aseptic procedures.Iodine is used in Lugol’s solution.Boric acid is used in Collyrium.Organism of Nosocomial infection is Klebsiella pneumoniae. Pneumoniae are gram positive cocci.Zinc undecylenate is used in Desenex.A drug used as a preventative when travelling to areas in which malaria is endemic is chloroquine phosphate.In UTI.Neisseria gonorrheae is gram – negative organism. CD4 can be detected in blood of patients. 164. 163. 165.Cell membrane is a common damage to both human and bacterial cells with the use of antibiotics.Glyceryl guaiacolate is used in Robitussin. 157.In HIV.Limulus amebecyte is a pyrogen test.Zirconium salt is used in Ziradryl. 144. macrophages and monocytes act as reservoir for virus to protect it from body immune system and T cells are destroyed.The drug of choice for vaginal trichomoniasis in a nonpregnant woman is metronidazole. 151.IgG is the most prevalent immune globulin in the body.Mycoplasma are resistant to antibiotic penicillin because it has no cell wall. 150. 161. 153. aureus and Strept.The causative organism of syphillis is Treponema pallidum. 148. 147. INSHAALLAH 154.Cloxacillin is both acid and penicillinase resistant. 149. 156.In streptococcal infections.Grignard reagent usually contains Mg. . 145.139. 162. 159.Tinactin contains tolnafate. 143.Schistosoma mansoni causes liver cirrhosis. 142. 140.Staph. aureus has techoic acid in its cell wall.Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi.Ampicillin is acid resistant but penicillinase sensitive. 141.Difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria is gram +ve.Clostridium and enterobacter are example of anaerobic organisms.

In UTI.Meningitis is caused by Neisseria meningitidis. 185.Leukotrienes are chemical mediators and are derivative of arachidonic acid. 176. chocolate.Chloroquine is given weekly intervals as a prophylactic for malaria. The second messenger or system allows signals from cell surface receptors to be converted and amplified into a cellular response. the organism mostly involved is E. wearing tight clothes. 177. peptidoglycan in their cell wall.Undulant fever is caused by microorganisms of the genus brucella. 170.Tinea is a yeast.Internal carotid artery supplies blood to the brain. 178. 183.Popliteal is present in knee (back space of the knee). 169. 171. 190. viriden.Pyoderma is a pus forming skin infection. 187.Alpha hemolysis is characteristic of scarlet fever strains of streptococci.Gas gangrene is commonly caused by clostridia.Life of platelet is 7 – 10 days. result from the refluxof gastric *******s into the stomach.In Canada the infection of eye in neonates is due to Chlamydia trachomatous and is treated by silver nitrate eye wash.167.Precursor of platelet is megakaryoblast.Inositol triphosphate is the second messenger in cell membrane produced by phospholipase C. 174.Glucagon counteract the action of insulin. Heartburn is aggrevated by several factors. 168. 181. occurs at night.Diphtheria is caused by cornybacterium diphtheriae. coli.Causative organism for endocarditis is Strept.Ferments lactose and sucrose with gas production does not apply to Salmonella.The Sabin vaccine is superior to Salk vaccine because it can be administered orally. lying down or bending over and high fat.Toxic shock syndrome is due to Staph. neuropathy. 173. 179. 193. spicy products. 186.Retinopathy. including.In case of dental problem. 175. 182. 191. 180. caffeine and smoking.Gram negative bacteria retains red color and have lipopolysaccharide. cause is due to Streptococus viriden. 188. typhi.Heartburn is an esophageous symptom. .Koplik’s spots are associated with measles. 189. 172.The disease vericella is commonly known as chickenpox. INSHAALLAH 184. and coronary artery disease are all complications of diabetes. 192. aureus.

194.Tetrodotoxin is a highly neurotoxic substance, its ingestion results in malaise and dizziness followed by ataxia, convulsions, respiratory paralysis and death. 195.Nicotinic cholinergic receptors are regulating ion channels. 196.Addison’s disease is a syndrome resulting from insufficient production of hormones from the cortex of the adrenal gland (glucocorticoids & mineralocorticoids). 197.An aneurysm is bulging of the wall of an artery, a vein or the heart. 198.The precursor of collagen is vitamin C. 199.Lack of ACh causes Alzheimer’s disease. 200.At rest the B. P. is lowest with supine position in arteries, venules and vena cava. 201.The common bile duct drains bile into the second part of the duodenum 202.When parietal cells are stimulated, they secrete HCl and intrinsic factor. 203.The most important complication of venous thrombosis is pulmonary embolism with resultant infarction. 204.The ability of hemoglobin to carry oxygen decreases in CO poisoning, CO2 and iron poisoning. 205.Osmotic pressure of blood is 280 mOsm/L.

INSHAALLAH

206.In cardiovascular physiology, LaPlace’s law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to the radius of vessel and the intraluminar pressure. 207.Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the sodium ion channel. 208.Enkephalins are peptides that exert actions resembling those of opiates. 209.The pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver is mesenteric vein to portal vein. 210.Schizophrenia is characterized by long - standing paranoid delusion. 211.Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by a thiamine deficiency. 212.Possible causes of hypercalcemia include malignancy and Paget’s disease. 213.The most likely causes of ventricular arrhythmias are potassium depletion and magnesium depletion. 214.The outer layer of the eye is composed of the cornea. 215.Patients with noninsulin dependent mellitus usually have tissue resistance and reduced number of insulin receptors. 216.A normal creatinine clearance for an adult male is 120 mL/minute. 217.Tinea versicolor is a fungal infection of the stratum corneum. 218.The layer of skin that has the greatest effect on percutaneous absorption of drugs is stratum corneum. 219.Possible cause of secondary hypertension include renal disease, oral decongestant and fenfluramine. 220.Grave’s disease may be characterized by hyperthyroidism. 221.Gamma globulin is a protein fraction of the blood.

222.Crohn’s disease is a disease of the colon. 223.Progressive fibrosis and scarring of the liver are known as cirrhosis. 224.Major constituents of bile are micelles. 225.Hodgkin’s disease is usually centered in the lymphatic system. 226.Rods are responsible for night vision. 227.Addison’s disease is caused by dysfunction of adrenal cortex. 228.Fibrinogen is synthesized mainly in the liver. 229.The effect of the antidiuretic hormone is to increase the rate of resorption of water by the kidney. 230.An endocrine gland that plays an important role in calcium metabolism is parathyroid. 231.A major factor in control of sodium excretion by the kidney is aldosterone. 232.Melanin and smooth muscle are not found in dermis. 233.Edema is the excessive accumulation of the watery fluid in the tissues. 234.Coronary artery receives blood from aorta. 235.A substance that naturally occurs in the body is called endogenous. 236.Colon has the most basic pH. 237.Intrinsic factor is present in parietal cells of blood. 238.Ascites means peritoneal retention of fluid. 239.Schiatic nerve supplies muscles to the calf and back of thigh, skin of lower calf and the upper surface of foot. 240.Epistaxis is bleeding of nose. 241.Glutathione protects cell integrity. 242.Causes of tachycardia are increased temperature, stimulation of heart autonomous nerves and toxic condition. 243.In the post menopausal therapy, conjugated esterogen carry the risk of endometrial cancer. 244.Arrythmia with respiration and inspiration is called paroxysmal arrythmia. 245.When left ventricle valve has been blocked, lungs get more blood. 246.Hernia is a protrusion of the peritonium. 247.Compared to interstitial fluid, plasma has higher concentration of protein. 248.Onset of CHF (left) is manifested by accumulation of blood in lungs. 249.CHF (right) is manifested by blood accumulation in vena cava. 250.In a cell network runs throughout the cytoplasm responsible for enzymatic reaction is endoplasmic reticulum. 251.Parietal cell intrinsic factor is vitamin B12. 252.In organ transplant, the rejection is due to infiltration of T – cells. 253.Normal blood flowing through the body contains prothrombin.

254.Structure of intestine consists of jegenum, ileum and duodenum. 255.Liver receives maximum cardiac output (27%) at rest. 256.Adrenal gland does not secrete in GIT. 257.The brain receives most of the blood supply from internal carotid artery. 258.50% of the normal blood plasma protein is albumin. 259.Skeletal muscle is not included in dermis. 260.During inspiration low blood pressure is in vena cava. 261.Signs and symptoms of tardive dyskinesia are oral buccal signs. 262.Epilepsy is the result of GABA deficiency.

INSHAALLAH

263.Thyroid is not a part of lymphatic system. 264.Gravida is the number of times someone has become pregnant. 265.Methyl alcohol causes toxicity to retina. 266.Greater absorption in small intestine than in stomach is due to greater surface area. 267.Urine, skin and sweat glands help in regulating the body temperature. 268.Hemorrhage, ascites and jaundice are complications of cirrhosis. 269.Nerves in the human body that transmit their impulses by releasing ACh are known as cholinergic nerves. 270.Insulin has a pharmacodynamic effect at cell surface due to interaction with receptors. 271.A drug used to treat delirium tremens is chlordiazepoxide. 272.Pyrivenum is an antehelmintic. 273.Allopurinol must be used with care with mercaptopurine. 274.Prostaglandins and Tamoxifen are used to terminate pregnancy. 275.Antineoplastic drugs are given by i.m. and i.v. routes in chemotherapy. 276.Piroxicam decreases prostaglandin synthesis. 277.Addiction does not occur in case of antitussive doses of codeine. 278.Cortisone is a modified antirheumatic drug. 279.Giving a vasoconstrictor one hour before introducing anesthesia means; decrease blood supply enhance long action of anesthesia, decrease side effects and give smoother and good induction of anesthesia.

Pancuronium is a competitive inhibitor of Ach. 291.Nifedipine.Ascorbic acid causes a positive Coomb’s test. having side effects like dizziness. and verapamil are calcium channel blockers that cause peripheral edema. 305. 307. pharmacist give him methadone.Acetaminophen is given to the patient for antipyretic and analgesic action. lithium carbonate is given.Magnesium hydroxide is a non systemic antacid with cathartic side effect 295. 300.Cortisone does not cause hypoglycemia. hyperthermia and CNS effects.Side effects of local anesthetics due to amide cause convulsion. 299. 284.Clonidine causes rebound hypertension.Oxazepam is an intermediate acting benzodiazepine.In maniac depression.Trimethoprim acts synergistically with sulfonamides. is an Angiotensin II receptor inhibitor. 310. 297.Sumatriptan is a serotonin agonist act by 5 – HT cell membrane receptor type.Losartan. 282. hyperglycemia. 281. 289.Thiopental sodium crosses the BBB rapidly. 304. 296.Side effects of thiazide diuretics are hypokalemia. 294.Weak acid (acetic acid) can be given in base poisoning. hyperurecemia. It is used in mold to mild hypertension and contraindicated in pregnancy. 290. 286.Toxicity of acetaminophen is hepatic cirrhosis. hyperlipidemia. 311.Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist acts on GABAA receptor.Contraindication of oral contraceptive is pregnancy. diltiazem. muscle weakness or neck membrane.Action of inhalation anesthetic is based upon concentration in brain.An oral antifungal agent is griseofulvin. 283.Celebrex (Celecoxib) is a NSAID drug acts by inhibiting cyclooxygenase II. 309.Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor.Feldene (Piroxicam) can be given once a day. hyponatremia and hypercalcemia.Extrapyramidal symptoms are side effects of neuroleptics 288.280. 293. 302.Long-term use of corticosteroid causes Cushing’s syndrome and osteoporosis. inhibits.Morphine tolerant patient needs analgesia. 285.Gastrointestinal disturbances are the side effects of indomethacin.Furosemide is classified as loop diuretic. 292. 308. . 298.Benzodiazepine acts on GABAA receptor.Malignant hyperthermia can be caused by general anesthetics.Nalbuphine produces opioid withdrawal symptoms if given to morphine dependent patients. both the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone – secreting effects. 303. 301. 287. 306.

318. 314.312.Acetazolamide. 329.The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with adrenaline.Flumazenil is a specific antagonist for diazepam. 328. 339. 323. the drug used in the thrombolysis is streptokinase.Mechanism of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid include displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin. gasoline and organic acids poisoning there should be no emesis.Salicylaism is also called as Reye’s Syndrome. 333. Therefore not use in Parkinsonism.Acetaminophen is least used in acute gout.Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain pyrrolidine and piperidine.Pernicious anemia is treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12.In circular muscles of the iris. . 316.In absence of embolism. primarily effective against bacteria & adequately absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract. 321. 315.Neuroleptics act by inhibiting dopamine receptor.Erythromycin estolate. 340. 327.Sumatriptan’s efficacy in migraine therapy is attributed to selective 5 – HT1 agonist. 330.Short acting benzodiazipine is triazolam. 324. 337.K+ ATPase.Viagra (Sildenafil citrate) is contraindicated in patients who are on any form of nitrate drug therapy.Omeprazole acts by inhibiting H+. 326. 325.The major metabolites of diazepam have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity. 338. the pharmacological action of nicotine is not described as nicotine.Pepto-Bismol causes black stools. is a macrolide antibiotic.Chemical classification of nifidipine is dihydropyridine.Phenylephrine does not increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult. a diuretic acts by blocking the Na+ .Metabolism of local anesthetic takes place in liver.Acetazolamide causes hypochloremia.Sulfinpyrazone is used as a uricosuric agent.Anticholesterol drug for pregnant women is cholestyramine. 320. 317. 331. 313.In bleach.Diarrhea is not a sign of atropine poisoning.Cetrizine is histamine 1 antagonist. 336. 334.Best antidote for mercury poisoning is sodium formaldehyde sulfoxylate and egg albumin is given in emergency.Vincristine acts by inhibiting spindle formation in cell division. 322. 332.H+ exchange system of the renal tubule. 335. 319.

360. 354.An example of pure narcotic antagonist is naloxone HCl (Narcan).Phenobarbital is a microsomal enzyme inducer. 359. It is believed to act as a miotic. Nasalcrom.Ondanesetron (Zofran) is indicated for use as an antiemetic agent. 357. 344.Aminophylline is used most frequently in asthma. 345. constriction of capillaries.A uricosuric drug is one that promotes excretion of uric acid in the urine.A drug that is effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal syndromes and in the prevention of delirium tremens is chlordiazepoxide (Librium). 362.Methadone is not an addicting drug. coronary vasoconstriction and increased motility of bowel are all characteristics of vasopressin. 366. 350.Methysergide is a serotonin antagonist.After oral administration.Iron is required by the body to maintain normal oxygen transport. 342.The primary site of action of triamterene (Dyrenium) and spirolactone (Aldactone) is the distal tubule. 367. He should consult with the physician if the medication record indicates that the patient has a peptic ulcer. 347.Rifampin is a first line drug to treat tuberculosis. 346. .Carbon monoxide exerts its effects primarily by decreasing the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.Stimulation of gastric secretion is not an effect of atropine on the human body.The anti – inflammatory effect of aspirin is due to inhibition of synthesis of prostaglandins.341.Acid rebound most likely to occur with the use of large doses of calcium carbonate. 353. 349. 352. 351.Thiazide diuretics may produce an increase in blood levels of uric acid and glucose. 358. 348.Cromolyn sodium (Intal.Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) is an agent that can best be described as an antiestrogenic.Pilocarpine is employed in the treatment of glaucoma.A pharmacist receives a prescription order for indomethacin (Indocin) capsules. 364.Fluorouracil (Adrucil) is classified as an antimetabolite.Antidiuretic effect. 363.Clofibrate is used to lower blood lipid levels.The thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of uric acid. 355.Dicloxacillin is the most useful in the treatment of an infection caused by beta – lactamase – producing staphylococci.Phentolamine (Regitine) is used to prevent local necrosis from norepinephrine infusions. 365. 361.Carbamazipine (Tegretol) is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia. the greatest amount of iron absorption occurs in the duodenum. 368. 356. 343. Opticrom) is a drug that is a stabilizer of sensitized mast cells.

Doxycycline (Vibramycin) has the longest duration of action. 383.Polycarbophil can be used to treat both constipation and diarrhea. 394.A liquid whose viscosity is increased when stress is applied is classed as dilatant. 373. 379.During ovulation.The toxicity of methanol is due to its conversion in the body to formic acid and formaldehyde. 376.Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary gland.Emulsions made with tween are usually o/w.Acetylcysteine is an agent used clinically as a mucolytic.Heparin is the fastest acting anticoagulant. 393.Sulfones such as dapsone are employed commonly in the treatment of leprosy. 389. 388.Parkinsonism is probably due to too little dopamine in the brain. 399.Heparin therapy is best controlled with clotting times. 384. 395.Penicillins are believed to exert their antibacterial effect by inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis.Epinephrine may be added to local injections of lidocaine HCl in order to prolong its effect. 391. 401.Epinephrine HCl is used intravenously in a concentration 1:1000.Colchicine is used mainly to treat gout.The mechanism explaining the clinical picture observed in carbon monoxide poisoning is a chemical union of the carbon monoxide with the hemoglobin of the red blood cells.The emetic action of morphine is due to stimulation of emetic chemoreceptor trigger zone.Alcohol in the body is oxidized to CO2 and water.Hyperstat IV (diazoxide) is used mainly in treating emergency reduction of blood pressure. 375. 374.Ritodrine (Yutapar) is used to control preterm labor.Terbutaline has a preference for stimulation for Beta 2. 380.A very common side effect of morphine is constipation. 377.Streptomycin can cause eighth cranial nerve damage. 400.369. 378.EDTA is an antidote for lead.As an antiarrhytmic drug. 398.Pilocarpine produces constriction of pupil of the eye. 372. 386.The greatest threat from morphine poisoning is respiratory depression. 385. 387. 390. 370.A specific narcotic antagonist is nalorphine.Gold (metal) has been found useful in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. 371. 382. peak plasma concentrations of the FSH and LH will reached.Methanol may cause blindness. procainamide is most similar in action to lidocaine. 381. 397.Epinephrine is often included in the administration of local anesthetics because it delays diffusion of the anesthetic from the site of injection. .Stimulation of gastric secretion is a pharmacologic action of histamine. 392. 396.

418. 413. 417.Sodium chloride 0.The solubility of a chemical in a given solvent is influenced by many factors that are dielectric constant. 422. 406. 408.Tablet hardness range is normally 3.Large apparent volume of distribution is the first evidence that a drug is being stored in tissues.Colostomy pouches are classified by an open Vs closed designs and size of stoma. 404. 429. effects on dissolution rate of drugs and reduction of interfacial tension.Ascorbic acid possesses antioxidant properties. . 419. 420.Sodium lauryl is a wetting agent.Oxytocin is used to induce labor.Edetate is a chelating agent.A suspension is not a suitable dosage form for intravenous. 405. pH of solution.Fatty tissues and protein tissues frequently store drugs.The process of grinding a substance to a very fine powder is termed as trituration.Glycerin is the most hygroscopic liquid.The type of flow in which the viscosity of a liquid increases with agitation is dilatant.If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at the pH of blood it will penetrate the BBB slowly.The major mechanism of degradation of drugs in the GIT is hydrolysis. 428.Surface active agents tend to enhance absorption due to effects on biological membrane. 410. 416. 423. pKa of the chemical and solubility parameters. 411.Methotrexate should never be used concurrently with aspirin.The most common disintegrator in compressed tablets is starch.Plasma protein binding slows the process of biotransformation.An example of nonionic surfactant would be sorbitan monopalmitate. 414. 407.402.Passive diffusion is usually slow. 415. 430. 421. 412. 409.Glucagon may be used as a diagnostic agent in radiographic examination of the GIT. 424.The form of water most commonly used as a solvent during the manufacture of parenterals is water for injection USP.Oxidation is not a major pathway or type of biotransformation. 426.Penicillin G undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GIT. 403. 427. 425.9% injection is the most appropriate for an IV admixture of ampicilin (500mg/50mL).5 –7 kg.Freons are fluorinated hydrocarbons.The HLB system is used to classify surfactants.The HLB system is most applicable for the classification of nonionic surfactant.

441. osmotic pressure. 438.The ideal antiseptic concentration of ethyl alcohol is 70 %.An ingredient that is added to a tablet formula to improve flow properties into a die for compression is known as glidant. 432. lower of freezing point and lowering of vapor pressure are all colligative properties of solution.An osmotic solution has the same osmotic pressure as blood. 452. 434. 448.Splitting off of the face of a tablet is called capping.Sodium bisulfite is an antioxidant.Starch is not used primarily as a diluent in tablet formulations.Elevation of boiling point.The function of papain in a soft contact lens product is to remove proteinaceous residues. 440. 435. 455. 453.Colligative properties are useful in determining tonicity. 433. 436.Aggregation of the suspending agent is called micelles. 456.Another name for methadone is metaphenone.Surfactants are characterized by the presence of water solubilizing and fat solubilizing groups in the same molecule 454.Constipation is a side effect of cimitidine.The decay of radioactive atoms occurs as a first order reaction. 444.A substance that is often used to subcoat tablets is shellac. 445.99mTc is considered to be an almost ideal isotope for medical applications and is commercially available as a radioisotope generator. INSHAALLAH 449. 437.Prostaglandin E2 is used in the form of vaginal suppositories. 457. 442. 446.Poorly manufactured tablets may result in splitting off of the surface of the tablet.An excellent choice of diluent for a compressed vaginal tablet formulation would be lactose. 447.Simethicone relieves flatulence primarily because of defoaming action. 451.431.A second method for adjusting solution to isotonicity is based upon freezing point depression.Penicillamine is often classified as a chelating agent.Riopan product is a chemical combination of aluminum and magnesium hydroxide. .An antidote for heparin overdosage is protamine sulfate. This phenomenon is known as picking. 450. 458.Aluminum acetate is used as astringent in hemorrhoids. 443. increasing viscosity by adding shear-thickening agent and reducing the particle size.Cheese is contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.Gamma radiations have the greatest penetrating power.In a suspension settling of particles can be overcome by adding non-ionic SAA. 439.

Most frequently used binders are cellulose. should be compatible with ingredients and should be washed off easily.Non-aqueous antioxidant includes vitamin E. ethyl alcohol is used and propylene glycol is added to prepare i.Poly (dl – acetic acid) does not undergo degradation. 475. 460.Mottling is uneven distribution of color.Role of mineral oil in sulfur ointment is levigating agent.Burrow’s solution is aluminum acetate. 474.v.Usually metabolites are having low o/w partition coefficient.Acidic drugs in plasma bind with albumin and basic drugs bind with alpha acid glycoprotein. injection. starch. 473.. 462. 478.Increase in viscosity by increasing in rate of shear is called dilatancy. 483.n gel preparation bentonite is not used to increase the viscosity. 485. . 482. 468.Solid to gas is called sublimation without changing into liquid state. 470. 465.Burrow’s solution is astringent. if the radial nerve is damaged wrist drop will be effected. PVP.Bentonite magma is a suspending agent.Glycerin in pharmaceutical preparations is used as humectant. ascorbic acid and EDTA. In this solution propylene glycol acts as cosolvent and inhibitor of fermentation. 479. 467. 481. 472. lactose. 476.Ampicillin dissolved in 5% dextrose can be kept for 4 hours before use. 469. 464.A person is using long crutches. 471.Better bioavailiability of injection can be achieved by rubbing.Most frequently used fillers in tablets are dextrose.Triethanolamine stearate is an emulsifying agent. 466. sucrose and mannitol. 486.Aqueous antioxidant includes sodium bisulfite.Intra – arterial injection is given in artery.Suspension is a two-phase system in which the internal or disperse phase is solid and the external or continuous phase is liquid.A number of studies have been done on patient counseling methods. 463.Levigating agent should form a smooth paste. 484.459. 4 hours in dextrose and 8 hours in saline solution.In the solution of diazepam. 480.Usually metabolites are having low o/w partition coefficient. Both verbal and written directions have been suggested.When less than the average pharmacist cares it is called negligence. glucose.If we increase the binder in tablet manufacturing then hard granules will be formed and tablet will not be easily disintegrated. 461. 477.

502.The most efficient /powerful anti oxidant is d . 498.Ice application decreases the absorption at injection site. 503.Sterilization of certain hormone is done by radiation.Thixotrophy is the term used for liquids.Methyl paraben and propyl paraben are used together because both act synergistically.487. 510. 494. 491.A paste containing karaya gum powder is utilized in ostomy patients to protect skin from stomal effluent. 504. pyrogen free and free of particles. it means 200 mg of zinc oxide will displace 50 mg of theobroma oil.When zinc oxide suppository of 200 mg is prepared where correctional factor is 4.Sterilization of articles with ethylene oxide requires aeration with air.In parenteral preparation the major contamination is in equipment. nitroglycerin ointment provides a more prolonged effect. 512. sodium lauryl sulfate. 488.1 T qid pc & hs means one tablet four times a day (after meals & at bed time).Benzyl alcohol 5% is used as solubilizer in oily preparation.White ointment.The dissolution rate of nitrofurantoin tablets would be decreased by increasing the force of compression during tableting.Sterilization of articles with ethylene oxide requires sterility. which flow freely if recently stirred. 489. 513. .c. which has polymorphic properties.p.Pharmacoeconomics has been defined as the description and the analysis of the cost of the drug therapy to healthcare systems and society.Efflorescence means loss of moisture. 493.Surface active agent for contact lense improves wettability. 490. 497.Pharmaceutical care has been defined as the responsible provision of drug therapy for the purposes of achieving definite outcome.Particle size of aerosol suspension is usually 0. cetosteryl alcohol.Triethanolamine stearate is an emulsifying agent. 492.Income statement is used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year. local anesthetics. 507. 508. means after meals.Dispersion of oil globules in aqueous vehicle is called emulsion. 501. 495. Pharmacist will advise him a stool softener (Docusate sodium).Compared to the sublingual tablet.10 – 1 millmicron. 499.Suppository base.A person comes to the pharmacist complaining hard stool after every 2 or 3 days. but gel when left undistributed. ointments and ophthalmic solutions. is theobroma oil (cocoa butter).Liquid paraffin is emollient laxative. 506.tocopherol. 509. 496. INSHAALLAH 500. 511. water and mineral oil are examples of w/o emulsion. 505.

alcohol acts as cosolvent.P.22nm.If electron withdrawing group is in the vicinity of a weakly acidic drug then pKa will decrease. 532.Alpha serum fetoprotein is increased in pancreatitis. 531. 523.Mevalonyl coenzyme A is accumulated in patient with megaloblastic anemia in folic acid deficiency and cyanocobalamine deficiency. 543.Transdermal patch releases drug by diffusion.Complication of liver cirhhosis is ascites.Difference between interstitial fluid and plasma is protein quantity.Acceptable turnover rate of prescription is 5%. 534.O.When alcohol and water acts together. which mechanistically act as reducing agents include ascorbic acid and sodium bisulfite. 527.Mercaptopurine is metabolized by glucoronic acid oxidation.IM injection is preferred over IV injection to avoid capillary damage.Enols are tautomeric forms. 541. 529. 528.Viscosity can be increased by adding thixotropic gel. 519.In hepatic insufficiency bilirubin increases and albumin decreases.Oral metal chelator used in rheumatoid arthritis is auranofin. 530.Biceps are present in arm muscle. 538. 535.Low molecular weight substance combines with high weight substance by heptane protein conjugation process. 533. 518. 516.Mechanism of action of sulfinpyrazone is inhibition of platelet granule synthesis and prostaglandin synthesis which prevents platelet aggregation. 521. 537. 517.The pore size of bacterial filter is 0.Congestive heart failure is not a complication of ischemic heart disease. 524. 536.Pigmentation of skin does not affect absorption of drug through skin. 515.Dissolution is increased by the temperature.Congestive heart failure represents a hypervolemic state. 525.Allupurinol increases the level of mercaptopurine by inhibiting its metabolism (allupurinol – inhibition of xanthine oxidase increases the serum concentration of mercaptopurine).Long use of antiepileptic drugs and folic acid deficiency cause megaloblastic anemia. 542. 544.514.Insulin preparation can be kept at room temperature for 30 days. GI bleeding and encephalopathy.*** 522. 526. 539.Antioxidants.Diaper rash in small babies can be treated by zinc oxide cream(zincofax). 520.S means point of sale in pharmacy.A drug accumulates in a dose of 200 mg with a half life of 2 hours given every 8 hours.Factor responsible for transfer of drug across the placental barrier is molecular size of the drug not the lipid solubility. .Pannus is superficial vascularization of cornea with infiltration of granular tissue. 540.

an increase in the dose will effect in accumulation in the body. 565. Buffers are usually prepared by weak acid and salt of a weak acid or weak base and salt of the weak base.Heme group and oxidation is a similarity between hemoglobin and cytochrome molecule. 546.Horizontal HEPA filters are used in laminar flow for the preparation of cancerous drugs. 570. 553. 550.If a drug is 90% protein bound.Salicylaism is a side effect at the dose of inflammation. 562. INSHAALLAH 548. 569. 559.Peripheral edema is a result of right ventricular failure.Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. 547. vitamin D intoxication and excessive calcium intake.Causes of hypercalcemia are hyperthyroidism. b1. D1 and D2 receptors.Loop diuretics act on the ascending loop of Henle.b2.Aldosterone secretion is controlled by ACTH.Pannus is a particular indication of arthritis.Vitamin E is used as solvent in oily injection. 564. 551. Paget’s diseae. glomerulonephritis and UTI represent bacteriuria and pyouria. 566. 549.Dopamine acts on a1.Hernia is at the junction of gastroesophageal and in the strangulated hernia there is no blodd supply. 572.If a female has not hemophilia and his husband is suffering from hemophilia then the male child will not be hemophilic. 555.The excretion of a weak acid is increased by NaHCO3. 567. thiazide diuretics. . 560.Glutathione is a cell stabilizer enzyme. 554. 573. Pharmacist will advise patient to keep taking this medication and refer patient to physician before making any decision.Cocaine is used as a local anesthetic and vasoconstrictor during ENT procedures.Alprastidil (PGE2) is used for erectile dysfunction. inhibiting the transport of NaCl out of the tubules into the interstitial tissue.Mechanism of action of simvastatin is inhibition of HMG CoA reductase inhibitor.Nephrotic syndrome.Amitryptilline and imipramine are also used in nocturnal child enuresis. 571. 561. 558.Hashimoto’s thyroiditis (autoimmune disease) is hypothyroidism. Calcium reabsorption in distil convulated tubule is due to parathyroid hormone.Prolong treatment adverse effect like pulmonary fibrosis is because of Idoxuridine. 556. 563.Zafirlukast is a leukotriene antagonist and used for asthma. 552. 568. 557.W/O emulsion have 1 – 9 HLB.Permanent alveolar destruction occurs in emphysema.A patient comes to the pharmacy taking metformin 500 mg and ask pharmacist about the dose reduction.545.

Methionine is an essential amino acid.Pelvis. 589.A decrese in ADH means increase thirst and polyurea. 585. increased glucagons secretion and decreased insulin secretion. 584. 592.INSHAALLAH 574. ethmoid bone. b and d cells. deep vein thrombosis. 590. 597.Retinoic acid (Vitamin A) is used in acne. parotid gland.Nitroglycerin and isorbide cause venous pooling. seizure epilepsy.Antidiuretic hormone is secreted from posterior pituitary. 586.Oral contraceptives cannot be given in liver dysfunction. 582. histamin. 593. 575. leukotriene.Bleomycin causes pulmonary fibrosis. INSHAALLAH .Calamine lotion (8%) is used to treat poison ivy.Acarbose (Precose) is an alpha glucosidiase inhibitor.Epinephrine and norepinephrine cause hyperglycemia by increased glycogenolysis. glucose intolerance and hypokelemia. 587. Paget’s disease and osteoporosis.Cholestyramine is a bile acid resin positively charged ammonium polymers.Pancreatic cells are a. 581. 591. 595. 576. find rapidly in dividing cells and a change in genotype. 580.The name of blind spot is optic disk. inhibits post prandial rise of blood glucose and decrease absorption of starch in the intestine. 579.Cholestyramine acts by binding negatively charged bile acids in the small intestine forming insoluble complexes that then excreted in feces. 578. 583. frontal bone and occipital bone all are skull bone.Pharmacist will refer patient in blurred vision.Mutagensis is change in DNA.Etidronate (Didronel) is a biphosphonate. breast cancer and pregnancy. ischium and pubis are all pelvic bone. bile duct and ******* of the stomach all fall in the duodenum. used for malignancy associated with hypercalcemia.Advantages of sustained release tablets are compliance to patients and decreased side effects.Morphine is a drug of choice in myocardial infarction. 588. 594.Long use of hydrocortisone cause decrease resistance to disease. 577.Bradykinin.Adrenal gland. PGs and interleukin – 1 are algesic. 596.Maxillary bone.

Very soluble means less than one part.Creatinine in plasma is detected in renal functional test.Polar solvents those made up of strong dipolar molecules have hydrogen bonding. 608.If a drug has a high o/w partition coefficient or a high membrane /buffer partition coefficient then it will be absorbed more rapidly across cell membranes and tissues barriers.The most commonly used solvents in HPLC are hexane. relieve anxiety and prevention of post – operative complications.Sinusitis is caused by Hemoph. Pneumonia. I.Diazepam has active metabolite (half – life 8 hours).In chemotherapy of cancer.Deficiency of vitamin D causes rickets and and its effects increase in presence of vitamin C.V. and oral.Benzalkonium acts as preservative and bactericidal. 613. 602. Influenza and Strept. 618. 611. its long use then stopping cause seizures and it changes the normal sleep pattern. the death is due to left ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. 624.Passage of ointment through skin depends on partition coefficient.The best method to instill eye drops is to pour drops in lower sac. 601.M. 621.In gout patient pain is treated on the priority basis.Calamine contains combination of magnesium or zinc with ferric oxide. isooctane. 600. IX.Preanesthetic medication means smooth induction of anesthesia. after giving N – acetylcysteine. .Epidermal cells when exposed to UV radiation convert a steroid related to cholesterol into vitamin D3. 622.Mechanism of action of warfarin is competitively antagonism of vitamin K and it takes 48 – 72 hours. the mortality is safe and can be waited for 10 – 12 hours. 603.By – pass is not a condition of heart inflammation. 607. He is brought to emergency with a very high level of sugar. The treatment would be crystalline zinc insulin suspension. 625. 619. 612.Extravasation means escape or discharge (blood) from a vessel into the tissue. INSHAALLAH 620. 606. 614. methanol and water. 616. 615. 610. X and protein C and S. acetonitrile..Vitamin K is an essential cofactor for synthesis of clotting factors II. 605.Oral iron preparations are normally preferred. 599. 617.In paracetamol (acetaminophen) toxicity.In digoxin.Toxicity of paracetamol is due to active metabolite (N – acetyl – p – benzoquinone). This product is absorbed and after processing released from liver.A patient is having type I diabetes and severely dehydrated.Glomerulous clearance is detected by creatinine. 609. VII.598. 623.Urinary tract infection is more common in pregnant women.Mode of action of heparin is potentiation the action of antithrombin III which activates thrombin and other factors especially Xa involved in clotting factors. the routes of administration are I. 604.

628. C4 and D4. drug inactivation.3-dihyrdo pyridine is nifidipine bed sores are caused by pressure atrophy structure of bethancol & carbacol(difference) structure difference b/w amphetamine and dopamine short acting anesthetic is thiopental sumatriptan is indole derivative sumatriptan is 5HT1-receptor antagonist antidote for Alprazolam is Flumazanil antidote for cabon monoxide is Oxygen .Leukotrienes are derivatives of arachidonic acid and classed are B4.how long the therapy will last(8 days) Which medicine should be taken in empty stomach (sucralfate) POS means (point of sale) Transition metal is (Cu /Co) Which artery supplies blood to brain (internal carotid & Vertebral) Which drug doesn’t causes opoid withdrawal syndrome (Nalbuphene) DIN(drug identification number) questions related to dispencing of schedule drugs paralex of liquid may be minimized by seeing it straight to the level of eye UTI of women(what should pharmacist do in councilling) numerical on inventory turn over AT II receptor anatomist is LOSATAN which organism causes UTI(gram. potassium sorbate sorbic acid.Emphysema means abnormal dilation of the air spaces lying beyond the terminal bronchioles accompanied by destruction of their walls. propyl gallate and benzalkonium chloride. 629.626.Neoplastic cells can defend themselves in several ways including increased DNA repair.Common preservatives are chlorobutanol. decreased drug accumulation and alternative metabolic pathway (8) The physician prescribed prednisolone 40 mg stat & taper 5 mg daily . changes in target enzymes.bacilli) endocarditis caused by stphyllococus aureaus 1. 627.

30/70) benzodiazepines act on GABA-a receptor meprosin low lipid ibuprofen can be used in children flumazanil is antidote for benzodiazepine AB-blood group can accept blood from every body .60/40.ninhydrin is used for detection of amino acids which drug inhibit lipoxygenase pathway(Zafirlukast) Nosocomial infection is caused by staphylocus aureas clymada infection in Canada (in childrens eye) Mg stereate is used as a glidient / lubricant question son marketing of drugs which drug is used for prophylaxis of TB(isoniazid) Ca++ is absorbed by the distal tubules in metabolic acidosis the level of bicarbonate is increase hasimoto disease is hypothyroidism I131 is used for screening of Hypothyroidism Parkinson disese caused by decrease in the level of dopamine trituration is particle size reduction pulverization with intervention is used to reduce the particle size of camphor non allergic asthma is caused by exercise angina s aggravated by coitus hypertensive crises caused by MAO inhibitor amphotericin B is hydrophilic interaction of sildefanil and Tylenol which drug is not aminoglycoside( Vancomycin) diabetis test is glycosylated Hb cytochrome is not an enzyme which cytochrome is most abandon in the body (CYP3A4) buccal route have not the large surface area nasal route is high capillary permeability and blood supply T-cells rejection is treated with Prograf(Tacrolimus) non allergic asthma is caused by excercize benign prostrate hyperplasia / Prostrate cancer timsulosin is used ratio of aerobic & Anaerobic in colon (90/10.

3tab weekly prograf (tacrolimus) kills T-cells sumatriptan is 5HT1a receptor antagonist in gas chromatography the carrier is gas reasons for hyper calcemia ligase bind DNA-receptor together ratio of albumin and protein in the body methyl alcohol causes blindness asthamatic child has been given prednisolone ACTH is released bythe pituitary pilocarpine causes miosis in job deligation boss tells employees what to do medicine which are female products (for councilling the pharmacist should take the pt along with partner to private place) steroid side effects streatre is lubriacant lithium is used in manica depression antidote of warfarrin is vitamin –K salting out –rapid stirring and cooling heat sterilization relates questions vitamin –D is also act as a hormone cimitidine is not used to treat allergy ( as it is H2-receptor antagonist) celebrex (celecoxib) is COX-II inhibitor . don’t change the dose cream for nappy rash is zinc oxide megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of vitamin B12 and folic acid mineral oil is used as a laxative and it decrease the absorption on oil soluble vitamins insulin can be kept outside refrigerator for 30 days pantoprazole is not an H2-receptor antagonist(it is proton pump inhibitor) Hepatitis –A is not transfer from person to person drug of abuse are(caffeine.Tylenol and codeine.and biscodyl) methotrexate dose is 25 mg .glycosylated hemoglobin used to measure blood glucose leval teratogenic effect occurs between 3-9 weeks nasal pathway increases blood supply if kidney function is greater than 20&#37.

O3 question related to net income sciatic nerve supplies to all foot region colligative properties depend on number if particles what is eutectic mixture questions related to pharmacy turn over cholystasis is liver infection during ovulation the level of FSH and LH are increase cromylin is used in allergic treatment loratidine is a non sedative anti histamine ADH act on distal convulated tubules angina is not caused by warm weather aspirin is hydrolysed by hydrolysis penicillamine is a chelating drug COPD is measured by PEFR (Peak Expiratory Flow Rate) treatment of CO poisioning is Oxygen what is embolism osmotic pressure of blood is 280 mm Hg enalapril is ACE-inhibitor rate limiting step in transdermal delivery system is diffusion methotrexate should not be taken with foilc acid in elderly every thing gose down except serum cretinine .mesoprostol is prostaglandin E1 antagonist soft capsules has sorbitol in them what is burros solution herpes simplx is chicken pox mechanism of action of benzodiazepines trituration decresses the particle size of substances what are lipid levels in the healthy individuals aneurism is the narrowing of the blood vessels efflorescent is loss of moisture herpes transfer by lesions type I error is false positive blood pressure in borderline hypertension is 160/100 free radicals are H3O.

Patient has a relevant increase in his asthma symptoms due to environmental allergies. What would you advise as an adjunct medication to treat his symptoms? a) Oral corticosteroids b) Higher dose of corticosteroid inhalers c) Salmeterol d) Sodium cromoglycate e) Anticholinergic agents . He is currently having salbutamol and fluticasone inhalers.serum cretinine is measured by glomerular filtration rate similarity between hemo globin and cytochrome is heme vitamin that is heat labile is thiamine iron mainily absorbed in duodenum bone that is not a maxillary bone is hynoid thyroid is not a part of lymphatic system staph.aureus causes anaphylactic shock UTI us caused by gram negative bacilli main organisms in gut is anaerobic bacteria stratum corneum is the rate limiting step in skin drug absorption water for injection has no pyrogens degrees of burns define pharmacoecnomics bioactivitaion is the activation of prodrug amoxicillin is the only chewable antibiotic transdermal patch should be apply to non hairy area ionized drug are not reabsorbed vitamin C is water soluble vitamin also work as an antioxidant what is ampheprotic (10) RESPIRATORY COMPLICATIONS 1.

Nasal route has more blood vessels III.Nicorette II.Nicoderm III.Advantages of nasal route over oral route absorption of drugs may include: I.2.Zyban a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 3.Treatment of smoke withdrawal symptoms may include which of the following? I.Nasal route has a higher surface area II.Condition characterized by a reversible form of airflow obstruction is known as: a) Aneurism b) Emphesema c) Embolism d) Cirrhose e) Jaundice 5.Nasal route has a higher onset of absorption a) I only .Which of the following vitamins is depleted in the blood by smoke? a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin D e) Vitamin A 4.

Inflammation of the tongue II.It can be a chronic condition of the tongue seen in pernicious anemia.b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 6.Example of leukotriene antagonist drug include: a) Salbutamol b) Ipratropium c) Zafirlukast d) Montelukast e) C and D are right 8.Which is not a drug used for smoke cessation? a) Nicotine polacrilex b) Transdermal nicotine patches c) Nicotine sublingual tablets d) Bupropion e) Buspirone 7.Correct statements regarding glossitis include which of the following? I.Which reaction can ozone cause in the lungs? a) Oxidation b) Hydration c) Reduction d) Complexation e) Hydrolysis 9. a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only .Characterized by presence of pinkish-red central lesions on the dorsal surface of the tongue III.

Non-steroidal drug with anti-inflammatory proprieties II.e) All are correct 10.Intal-Sodium cromoglycate is characterized by which of the following statements? I.They can be used in prophylaxis of asthma and allergic rhinitis III Used in asthma only a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 11.Drug of choice in the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may include: a) Salbutamol b) Ipratropium c) Salmereol d) Sodium cromoglycate e) Fluticasone 12.Asthma is a condition of respiratory tract that may be aggravated by: a) Allergens b) Cold weather c) Execise d) Emotion e) All are correct .Chronic progressive lower airway destruction causing reduced pulmonary inspiration and expiratory capacity is known as: a) Asthma b) Bronchitis c) GERD d) COPD e) CHF 13.

Examples of drug(s) that may precipitate asthma include all of the following. EXCEPT: a) Airway obstruction and inflammation b) Destructive changes in the alveolar walls c) Thickened smooth muscle of airway d) Mucosal edema e) Narrowed lumen of airway 18.All of the following are pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma.The MOST well known characteristic symptom of asthma include: a) Wheezing b) Mucosal edema c) Cough .14. EXCEPT: a) Aspirin b) β-Blockers c) Ipratropium d) NSAIDs e) Cholinergic drugs 17.Which of the following is considered as the best treatment of asthma? a) β2-agonists b) β-Blockers c) α-agonists d) Anticholinergic drugs e) Cholinergic drugs 15.Which of the following agents or combinations may be appropriated to treat severe intermittent asthma? a) High doses of inhaled corticosteroid b) Long acting β2-agonists c) Short acting β2-agonists d) Oral corticosteroids e) Combination of all the above medication 16.

EXCEPT: a) Suppress the inflammatory response b) Decrease production of inflammatory mediators c) Decrease airway responsiveness to inflammation d) Relieve brochocontriction e) Increase β-agonist receptors response 22.Salbutamol is short acting β2-agonists that may be used in the treatment of which of the following asthma type? a) Mild asthma b) Emergency asthma c) Severe intermittent asthma d) Moderate asthma e) All kind of asthma 21.All are examples of drugs used in the treatment of bronchoconstriction.d) Chest tightness e) Tachycardia 19.Drug considered as the drug of choice in a specific asthma emergency treatment include: a) Salmeterol b) Adrenaline c) Albuterol d) Cortisone e) Zafirlukst 20.All are correct concerning the action of corticosteroids in asthma status. EXCEPT: a) Beclometasone b) Sodium cromoglycate c) Flunisolide d) Fluticasone e) Budesonide 23.All are examples of corticosteroids inhalers used in asthma. EXCEPT: a) β2-agonists .

Example of methyl xanthine used in the treatment of respiratory complications include: a) Theophyllin b) Terbutaline c) Ipratropium d) Zafirlukast e) Salmeterol 27.Best drug used in the prevention of exercise-induced asthma may include: a) Long acting β2-agonists b) Short acting β2-agonists c) Anticholinergics d) Leukotriene modifiers e) Corticoids 25.b) Anticholinergic c) Methyl xanthenes d) Xanthine oxidase inhibitors e) Leukotriene modifiers 24.All are β2-agonists used as brochodilators in the treatment of bronchospasm.Agents considered as precursor of leukotriene include: a) Tyrosine b) Cyanide c) Arachidonic acid d) Prostaglandins e) Histamine . EXCEPT: a) Albuterol b) Salmeterol c) Terbutaline d) Pindolol e) Levalbuterol 26.

28.Drug known as the new relative cromolyn like drug include: a) Cromolyn sodium b) Cromoglycanate sodium c) Cromolyin disodium d) Disodium cromoglycanate e) Nedocromil sodium .Chronic treatment a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 29.Acute treatment II.Indication of leukotrienes modifiers in the treatment of asthma includes which of the following? I.Prophylaxis III.

1.C Comments: Nicoret and nicoderm are nicotine replacement therapy for smoking cessation. 5.D Comments: Sodium cromoglycanate would be the best choice because it is a safe anti-inflammatory inhaler for children and very useful in treating environmental allergy and asthma prophylaxis.E Comments: Zafirlukast and montelukast are classics leukotriene antagonists used in the oral treatment of asthma 8. 3. 6. . therefore their use avoid the smoke withdrawal effect. Cirrhoses and jaundice are liver related complications.C Comments: Buspirone is an atypical anxiolitic agent used to treat anxiety disorders.D Comments: Although nasal route has a smaller surface area than intestine drugs administrated by nasal route will have faster onset of action due to large quantity of blood vessels in the nasal route.A Comments: Ozone is a gas that may cause irritation and toxicity of pulmonary system. 7.A Comments: Smokers have more tendencies to vitamin C depletetion rather than other vitamins 4. The main reaction of ozone in the body is oxidation.B Comments: Aneurysm is an abnormal dilatation of a blood vessel while embolism is an obstruction of airway by a mass transported in the circulation. 2.

9.C Comments: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic drug that be used in adjunct treatment of asthma. 11.E Comments: Severe intermittent asthma treatment is best done by short and long-acting β-agonists plus inhaled and oral corticosteroids. mast cell stabilizer used in asthma prophylaxis and as antiallergic agent.C Comments: Sodium cromoglycanate is an anti-inflammatory. weather. 14. nonsteroid inhaler. 17.D Comments: COPD-Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease 13.A Comments: Inhalated short-acting β-agonists are the most effective drugs available for all the kinds of asthma treatment. exercise.E Comments: Glossitis is an inflammatory disease of tongue of unknown etiology characterized by multiple annular areas of desquamation of the filiform papillae on the dorsal surface of the tongue. normally seen in pernicious anemia. 10. 16. Usually presenting pinkish-red central lesions. 15.B Comments: Ipratropium is a cholinergic antagonist used as the drug of choice in the treatment of COPDChronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease by blocking the brochoconstriction caused by activation of the parasympathetic nervous system. drugs and so on.E Comments: Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airway that may be induced by allergens. occupational exposure. 12.B Comments: Destructive changes in the alveolar walls are characteristics of a respiratory complication called “Emphysema” . emotion.

24. 23. 20. 19.A Comments: Mainly symptoms of asthma are: Wheezing.D Comments: Pindolol is a β-blocker used mainly in the treatment of hypertension.B Comments: Xanthine oxidase inhibitor is mainly used in the treatment of gout. shortness of breathing. tachypnea and pulses paradoxus. 25. a fast acting β-agonist.E Comments: Salbutamol is a fast acting β-agonist and considered the drug of choice in all kind of asthma.B Comments: Salbutamol. cough.C Comments: Albuterol is the fastest acting β-agonist used in the treatment of bronchocostriction emergencies-asthma. . 26.18. 21. tachycardia. antiallergenic and mast cell stabilizer drug.A Comments: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic drug used in COPD as the drug of choice.B Comments: Sodium cromoglycanate is an anti-inflammatory. is the most effective drug in the prevention of exerciseinduced asthma.D Comments: The use of corticosteroids in asthma suppresses the inflammatory response and decreases the airway hyperesponsiveness by decreasing the production of inflammatory mediators and mucus production. 22. chest tightness.

Which of the ff is benzodiazepine antagonist a)naloxone b)physostigmine c)flumazenil d)naltrexone e)penicillamine .E Comments: Nedocromil sodium is the new relative cromolyn like drug acting in a very similar way as sodium cromoglycanate does.Antidote for mercury may include a)Dimercaprol b)EDTA c)Detoroximine d)Naloxone e)succimer 2.C Comments: Cysteinyl leukotrienes are products of arachidonic acid metabolism. 29. (11) TOXICOLOGY 1.D Comments: Leukotriene modifiers are approved for oral prophylaxis and chronic treatment of asthma.27. 28. Leukotriene modifiers drugs inhibit leukotriene synthesis by inhibiting 5-lipoxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotriene.

myoglobin III.Alkalinizaiton of urine with sadium bicarbonate II.Salicylate poisoning treatment include which of the following I.Charcoal every 6 hours Ans: a) I only b)III only .carbon monoxide can be highly toxic because it can easily binds with I.Acetaminophen toxicity most well known complication is a)cardiovascular failure b)pulmonary edema c)CNS lethargy d)Liver necrosis e)Sedation 6.3.cytochrome oxidase Ans: a)I only b)III only c)I & II d)II & III e)All of the above 5.What would be the best treatment for cyanide poisoning a)antivena b)sodium thiosulfate c)acetylcycteine d)oxygen therapy e)sadium bicarbonate 4.hemoglobin II.Decontamination with syrup of IPECAC until 30 mins overdose III.

c)I & II d)II & III e)All of the above 7. Can be recognised as Atropine poisoning except: a)Dry skin b)Mydriasis c)Flushed appearance d)Diarrhea .Hyperphopotemia can be best treated with a)Magnesium Hydroxide b)Calcium Carbonate c)Aluminum Hydroxide d)Sodium bicarbonate e)Sodium phosphate 8.Uses in decontamination procedure during toxic treatment.The organophosphate commonly found in insecticeds are thought to act by which mechanism a)Combining with acetylcholine b)Potentiating the action of acethycholinesterase c)Forming a very stable complex with d)Reaching at the cholinergic receptor e)Preventing release of ecetylcholine from nerve ending 10.It has an expectorant effect when small doses are administered III. Ans . All of the above 9.All of the ff.It has an emetic effect when large dose are administered II.Correct statement regarding Ipecac may include I.

Agents a)Topical antipruritic b)Antihistamines c)Systemic corticosteroids 13. while he was brushing his teeth.N-actyly cysteine may be the antidote of choice for which of the following agents a)Aspirin b)Warfarin c)Digoxin d)Lead e)Acetaminophen Ans: All of the above .Poison ivy can be treated by which of the ff.A patient is stabilized with heparin as . The pharmacist can advice him to take a)Ascorbic Acid b)Vitamin K c)Protamine sulfate d)Quinolone 14.e)Delirium 11.Antidote for Atropine poisoning include a)Physostigmine b)Aminophylline c)Pralidoxine d)Flunazeril e)Dimercaprol 12. After 1 hr of administration he exhibited bleeding from his gums.

The toxicity of methyl alcohol due to formation a)ketones .Dimercaprol best antidote forelemental mercury inhalation poisoning II.Treated by decontamination of supportive therapy III.Management if toxicity of digoxin toxicity may include I.15.Death due to cyanide poisoning a)Cyanide . V. Cardiac disrythmia.Naloxone is best antidote for which of the ff overdose agents a)opioid b)heavy metal c)benzodiazepine 17.RBC complex formation b)Cyanide – HB complex formation c)Cyanide inhibiting cytochrome oxidase d)Cyanide increasing Hb levels e)Coronary vessel oclusion 19. anorexia & confusion II.Penicillamine is alternative when mercury GI absorption Ans.They form stable complex excreted renally III.May cause heart failure.Dimercaprol + mercury combination include I.Treated with digoxin specific overdose known as FAB antibodies Ans: All of the above 18. All of the above 16. N.

Central stimulation in the brain 22.Gasoline III.Excessive production of CO2 II.Vomiting is contraindicated in poisoning is due to: I.Bleaching II.Grayish mouth & loose of teeth are toxic symptoms of a)Fe salts poisoning b)Cu poisoning c)Pb poisoning 23. Salicylate toxicity excessive respiration is due to I.b)formaldehyde c)free alcohol radicals d)ethylene e)aldehyde 20.Pulmonary inhalation III.Light petroleum .Acetaminophen toxicity is due to a)oxidation stress b)active metabolite c)free radical chain d)reactive metabolite e)reduction of metabolite 21.

Bicarbonate & insulin administration can shift K from extra to intracellular III.Amphetamine overdose can be best treated with a)Salicylates b)Benzodiazepines c)Barbiturates d)Naloxone e)Vit B & C 26.Enema of kayexolate (exchange resin) as dialysis helps to remove excess of K from the body 27.Cardiovascular drug that overdose can cause cyanide intoxication include a)Nitrates b)Nitroglycerin c)Nitroprusside d)Isosorbide e)Isosorbide dinitrate 28.True statement regarding treatment of hyperkalemia I.If change in ECG is detected give Ca to counteract the excess of K on heart II.24.Universal antidote is a mixture of a)Activated charcoal b)Mg Oxide c)Tannic Acid 25.Lead poisoning can be treated by a)BAL – Dimercaprol b)EDTA .

Atropine used as antidote for a)organophosphate b)heavy metals c)salicylates d)iron 31.c)Penicillamine 30.Treatment of tricyclic antidepressant dose can be done by all of the ff except a)Control seizure & cardiotoxicity b)Addition of phenytoin or benzodiazepine to control seizure c)Activated charcoal can be used d)MAO antidepressant can help to overcome patient seizure e)Control acidosis with administration of sodium bicarbonate 32.Isoniazide antidote .Specific antidote for snake bites a)Detroxamine b)Aucord c)Antivenom d)Naloxone 33.Best treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning a)alkalinization of urine b)Oxygen therapy c)Supportive therapy d)Acidification of urine e)Gastric lavage 34.

a)Vitamin A b)Vitamin B6 c)Vitamin B12 d)Folic acid e)Vitamin E 35. II.Administration of naloxone 38.Administration of thiamine 100mg IV push III.Decontamination includes a)Gastric lavage b)Emesis .Warfarin antidote a)Vit K b)Heparin c)Protamine d)Vit E 36.management in treating patient with depressed mental status include I.Treat hypoglycemia with 50mL of dextrose 50&#37.Major first step in intoxication & poisoning in the supportive care treatment that involve a)Detoxification b)Decontamination c)Hydration d)Toxicology lab test e)Evaluation & support of vital treatment (airway.B.C) 37. circulation A. breath.

c)Administration of Activated charcoal d)Administration of adsorbant e)All of the above 39.Intravenous calcium administration is used in which situation a)verapamil overdose b)cocaine overdose c)verapamil overdose & kyperkalemia d)hyperkalemia e)nifedipine overdose ANSWERS TOXICOLOGY 1A 2C 3B 4E 5D 6E 7C 8E 9C 10D 11A 12E 13C 14E 15E 16A .

17E 18B 19B 20D 21A 22B 23E 24E 25E 26E 27C 28E 29B 30A 31D 32C 33B 34B 35A 36E 37E 38E 39C .