Iso 8859 1''FMS

Sample Paper FMS 2005
Please read the Instructions for the test carefully
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.
2. Use only a HB pencil to fill in the Test Booklet and the Answer sheet.
3. This booklet contains 26 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after the signal to start is given, verify that all
pages are printed properly.
4. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide
rules, drawing instruments, Calculators, (including watch calculators), cellular phones, pagers, Digital or any other
devices or loose paper. These should be left outside the room.
5. Ensure that your personal data has been correctly entered in the Answer sheet on both the sides.
AT THE START OF THE TEST
6. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet.
7. This Test Booklet contains 26 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify
that all the pages are printed properly and are in order.
HOW TO ANSWER
8. In all there are 175 questions. All the Questions carry 4 Mark each. You will be given TWO hours to complete the
test.
9. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and
answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to
each question.
10. All the Questions carry Four marks each. Wrong answer one negative mark.
11. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.
12. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.
AFTER THE TEST

13. At the end of the test remain seated till the invigilator collects your Application Form-cum-Answer sheet from your
seats. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, “You may leave now.”. The invigilator will make the
announcement only after collecting the Application Form-cum-Answer sheets from every candidate in the room.
14. You may retain the test booklet with you.
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Bulls Eye Sample Paper FMS 2005
DIRECTION for questions 1 to 8: Each of the following questions consists of a word printed in capital letters,
followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phrase that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word in
capital letters.
1. KITSCH
1. uproariously funny 2. tasteless 3. trend-setting 4. offensive
2. OEUVRE
1. an artist’s first work 2. masterpiece 3. latest work 4. entire body of work
3. BARBITURATE
1. tonic 2. sedative 3. cleaning agent 4. sharp object
4. PERNICKETY
1. fussy 2. greedy 3. wholesome 4. spiteful
5. HALCYON
1. foreign 2. happy 3. tiring 4. mazelike
6. BRASSERIE
1. lingerie shop 2. restaurant 3. airline crew 4. souvenir
7. TARN
1. meadow 2. tall tale 3. meadow 4. mountain lake
8. CANASTA
1. dance step 2. card game 3. card board box 4. savoury dish
DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 18: In each of the following questions, a word printed in Capital letters is followed
by four numbered words or phrases. Choose the one, which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital
letters.
9. SCAD
1. allocation 2. restraint 3. dearth 4. provision
10. LIMBER
1. orderly 2. gloomy 3. sturdy 4. stiff
11. OBLIQUITY
1. straightforwardness 2. conformity 3. praise 4. self-righteousness
12. SPUNK
1. success 2. loss of prestige 3. lack of intelligence 4. consider thoughtfully
13. STILTED
1. tentative 2. informal 3. verbose 4. senseless
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14. PREVARICATE
1. state truthfully 2. postulate 3. emphasize 4. consider thoughtfully
15. BILK
1. reduce in size 2. make famous 3. renovate 4. pay in full
16. CAVIL
1. discern 2. disclose 3. introduce 4. commend
17. NETTLE
1. disentangle 2. mollify 3. magnify 4. muffle
18. SPLENETIC
1. lackluster 2. heartless 3. cordial 4. constant
DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 23: In each of the following questions, a related pair of words are linked by a
colon, followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair, which is mot like the relationship expressed in the original
pair in capital letters.
19. CAPTAIN : SHOAL ::?
1. lawyer : litigation 2. pilot : radar 3. doctor : hospital 4. soldier : ambush
20. MENDACITY : HONESTY ::?
1. truth : beauty 2. courage : fortitude 3. courage : cravenness 4. turpitude : depravity
21. SHALE : GEOLOGIST ::?
1. aster : botanist 2. obelisk : fireman 3. love : philologist 4. reef : astrologer
22. AUGER : CARPENTER ::?
1. seam : seamstress 2. apron : chef 3. awl : cobbler 4. cement : mason
23. APOSTATE : RELIGION::?
1. potentate : kingdom 2. jailer : law 3. traitor : country 4. teacher : education
DIRECTIONS for questions 24 to 28: Each question consists of sentences, which has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath each sentence are four sets of words, labelled (1) through (4).
Choose the word or set of words that when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
24. Perhaps because something in us instinctively distrusts such displays of natural fluency, some readers
approach John Updike’s fiction with _______________.
1. bewilderment 2. suspicion 3. veneration 4. recklessness
25. We were amazed that a man who had been here to force the most _____________ of public speakers could, in
a single speech, electrify an audience and bring them cheering to their feet.
1. masterful 2. auspicious 3. pedestrian 4. accomplished
26. Despite the mixture’s ______________ nature, we found that by lowering its temperature in the laboratory we
could dramatically reduce its tendency to vaporize.
1. volatile 2. resilient 3. insipid 4. acerbic
27. In one shocking instance of _____________ research, one of the nation’s most influential researchers in the
field of genetics reported on experiments that were never carried out and published deliberately ___________
scientific papers on his nonexistent work.
1. comprehensive --- abstract 2. theoretical --- challenging

3. fraudulent --- deceptive 4. erroneous --- impartial
28. Her novel published to universal acclaim, her literary gifts acknowledged by the chief figures of the Harlem
Renaissance, her reputation as yet _______________ by envious slights, Hurston clearly was at the
___________ of her career.
1. undamaged --- ebb 2. untarnished --- zenith 3. unmarred --- brink 4. untainted --- extremity
29. Mr. Modi runs a prosperous company. He is quite disappointed with his two sons, Anil and Sunil, who are
simple graduates. He believes that neither of them presents the potential of having the ability to take control of
his company. He thinks both of his children lack common sense. The belief formulates from the opinion that:
1. Even a person who is not brilliant can control a company, if she or he has been able to obtain an MBA.
2. In order to run a company, a person needs common sense.
3. Sunil and Anil are ignorant to the experience of controlling a company.
4. If Sunil showed any sign of common sense, he would have the ability to aid Anil in controlling the
company.
30. In the year 2000, the Road Accident Research Agency (RARA) concluded that Tej brand motorcycles are
safer to ride than Teevra brand motorcycles. RARA based the conclusion on the ratio of number of rider
injuries to the number of riding hours for each brand of motorcycles from 1996 through 1999. Yet for
identically designed motorcycles manufactured since 2000, the number of rider injuries has been twice as
great among riders of Tej as among riders of Teevra. Therefore, RARA’s conclusion would have been
different for the period since 2000. Which of the following is an assumption that, if true, supports the claim
that RARA’s conclusion would have been different for the period since 2000?
1. Soon after RARA had issued its report, customer demand for Tej increased more rapidly than did consumer
demand for Teevra.
2. Of all the motorcycles ridden in the period since 2000, the percentage of Tej ridden was twice the
percentage of Teevra ridden.
3. For the period since 2000, the number of riding hours of Teevra totalled at least half the number of riding
hours for Tej.
4. Prior to 2000, Teevra owners were more likely than Tej owners to report the injuries they sustained while
riding their motorcycles.
DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 33: Answer should be based on the information given below:
The After-Sales Service Manager of White Goods Appliances Limited is making up an assignment roster for three
Technician Teams in the city of Indraprastha. Each team will be assigned to one of the sectors of the city: Sector
Pratham, Sector Dwitiya, and Sector Tritiya. Each team will consist of two of the following technicians:
Nagabhushanam, Phaneesh, Ramaswamy, Swaminathan, Tirthankar and Visheshwar. Each technician will be assigned
to exactly one team. Ramaswamy, Tirthankar and Visheshwar have each completed a special electro-mechanical
appliance maintenance training programme; Nagabhushanam, Phaneesh and Swaminathan have not. Nagabhushanam,
Phaneesh and Ramaswamy each have at least five years of job experience; Swaminathan, Tirthankar and Visheshwar
do not. The Service Manager must observe the following restrictions in making up the assignment roster:
• Each team must include at least one technician who has completed the special training.
• Each team must include at least one technician who has at least five years of job experience.
• Nagabhushanam must be assigned to Sector Pratham or Sector Dwitiya.
31. If Phaneesh is assigned to Sector Dwitiya, which of the following must be true?
1. Tirthankar is assigned to Sector Pratham

2. Swaminathan is assigned to Sector Tritiya
3. Visheshwar is assigned to Sector Dwitiya
4. Visheshwar is assigned to Sector Tritiya.
32. The Service Manager CANNOT make an acceptable roster that assigns:
1. Phaneesh to Sector Pratham and Visheshwar to Sector Tritiya

2.Ramaswamy to Sector Pratham and Tirthankar to Sector Dwitiya
3. Swaminahan to Sector Pratham and Nagabhushanam to Sector Dwitiya
4. Nagabhushanam to Sector Dwitiya and Phaneesh to Sector Tritiya
33. If Tirthankar is assigned to Sector Tritiya, which of the following must be true?
1. Phaneesh is assigned to Sector Pratham

2. Ramaswamy is assigned to Sector Dwitiya
3. Tirthankar is nagabhushanam’s partner
4. Nagabhushanam is Visheshwar’s partner.
DIRECTIONS for questions 34 to 37: Answer should be based on the information given below:
An inexperienced Yoga teacher, posing as an expert on Yogic Exercises (asanas) prescribed a schedule of exercise
programme for a pupil. Choosing from exercises Anubittasana, Bhujangasana, Chakrasana, Dhanurasana, Sukhasana,
Tadasana, Ushtrasana and Vyagrasana, the pupil must perform a routine of exactly five different asanas each day. In
any day’s routine, except the first, exactly three of the exercises must be the ones that were included in the routine done
on the previous day, and any permissible routine must also satisfy the following conditions:
• If Anubittasana is in a routine, Ushtrasana cannot be done in that routine

• If Bhujangasana is in a routine, Sukhasana must be one of the exercises done after Bhujangasana in that
routine
• If Chakrasana is in a routine, Ushtrasana must be one of the exercises done after Chakrasana in that routine
• The fifth exercise of any routine must be either Dhanurasana or Tadasana
34. If one day’s routine is Anubittasana, Bhujangasana, Vyagrasana, Sukhasana and Tadasana, each of the
following could be the next day’s routine, EXCEPT:
1. Bhujangasana, Chakrasana, Ushtrasana, Sukhasana, Tadasana

2. Bhujangasana, Sukhasana, Ushtrasana, Vyagrasana, Dhanurasana
3. Vyagrasana, Sukhasana, Tadasana, Ushtrasana, Dhanurasana
4. Vyagrasana, Sukhasana, Dhanurasana, Anubittasana, Tadasana
35. Which of the following is true of any permissible routine?
1. Anubittasana cannot be done third 2. Bhujangasana cannot be done third

3. Chakrasana cannot be done fourth 4. Tadasana cannot be done fourth
36. If the pupil chooses Chakrasana and Vyagrasana for the first day’s routine, which of the following could be
the other three exercises chosen?
1. Anubittasana, Sukhasana, Tadasana 2. Bhujangasana, Dhanurasana, Ushtrasana

3. Bhujangasana, Sukhasana, Ushtrasana 4. Sukhasana, Dhanurasana, Vyagrasana
37. If Chakrasana is the third exercise in a routine, which of the following CANNOT be the second exercise in
that routine?
1. Bhujangasana 2. Dhanurasana 3. Sukhasana 4. Tadasana
38. Mukesh has purchased a device that the manufacturer claims will reduce the fuel consumption in his
motorcycle. After a month has passed, Mukesh determines that his mileage currently rests at 50 kmpl.
Mukesh’s best friend, Anil, owns the exact same make and model of motorcycle, and has calculated his
mileage at 60 kmpl. Anil’s motorcycle does not have the device that Mukesh purchased one month ago.
Mukesh then makes the conclusion that the manufacturer of the device’s claim is not true. Which of the
following statements would cause Mukesh’s conclusion to be weakest?
1. Though Mukesh has the same make and model of the motorcycle, Mukesh’s bike is 4 years older
2. Mukesh was driving in the city, whereas Anil drives the highway
3. Before buying the device, Mukesh had never before calculated the mileage of his bike.
4. Anil lied, he actually only gets 45 kmpl.
DIRECTIONS for questions 39 to 42: Answers should be based on the information given below:
In the District of Saptanatya, there are exactly seven towns: jatajatin, Kayanga, Lezim Mudivettu, Nautanki, Ojapali
and Pandvani. All existing and projected roads in this district are two-way and run perfectly straight between one town
and the next. All distances by the road are distances from the community theatre called Nrityamandap at the centre of
the town to the Nrityamandap to another town. Kayanga is the same distance by road from Jatajatin, Lezim and
Mudivettu as Ojapali is from Nautanki and Pandvani. The following are all the currently existing roads and connections
by road in Saptanatya:
39. Which of the following is a town from which exactly two other towns can be reached by road?
1. Jatajatin 2. Lezim 3. Mudivettu 4. Nautanki
40. It is possible that the distance by road from Nautanki to Ojapali is unequal to the distance by road from:
1. Jatajatin to Kayanga 2. Kayanga to Lezim 3. Nautanki to Pandvani 4. Ojapali to Pandvani
41. If a proposed road, named Bharatnatyam Marg were to be built from Jatajatin to Ojapali, then the shortest
distance by road from Mudivettu to Nautanki would be the same as the shortest distance by road from
Pandvani to
1. Jatajatin 2. Kayanga 3. Lezim 4. Nautanki
42. If two projected roads were built, one Bharatnatyam Marg from Jatajatin to Ojapali, and another
Chakiarkoothu Marg from Lezim directly to Pandvani, then each of the following would be complete list of
towns lying along one of the routes that a traveller going by road from Kayanga to Nautanki can select,
EXCEPT
1. Jatajatin, Ojapali 2. Jatajatin, Pandvani

3. Jatajatin, Ojapali, Pandvani 4. Lezim, Pandvani, Ojapali
43. Government of a certain country recently issued employment figures in that country. The figures showed that
in 2000, the public sector and the private sector each employed the same number of people. But between 2000
and 2004, according to the government, total employment decreased in the public sector more than it increased
in the private sector. If the unemployment rate in this country was the same in both 2000 and 2004, which of
the following statements must be true about the country?
1. In 2004, more people sought work in the private sector than in the public sector
2. The number of people counted by the government as unemployed was the same in 2000 and 2004
3. Fewer people were in the labour force, as counted by the government, in 2004 than in 2000
4. The competition for the available work increased between 2000 and 2004.
A chess tournament is taking place at the college club, and the players at all four of the tables are engaged in their
fourth game against their prospective opponents. The players with white pieces are: Shahrukh, Sanjay, Saif and Shakti.
The players with black pieces are: Salman, Sunny, Sunil and Sohail. The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, and 1.5:1.5 (Note:
Tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player). Hints: (i) The player who is using the white pieces at table 4
is Shakti; however, the current score at table 4 is not 2:1. (ii) Saif is playing at the table to the right of Sohail, who has
lost all of his games until now. (iii) Sunil, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game. (iv)
Salman is leading his match after his last three games. (v) Sanjay is playing against Sunny.
44. What table is Sohail playing at, and what is the score at that table?
1. Table 1, 2.5:1.5 2. Table 2, 3:0 3. Table 2, 2.5:1.5 4. Table 3, 2:1
45. Whose score is highest?
1. Salman 2. Saif 3. Sunny 4. Sunil
46. Which player has black pieces and the lowest score?
1. Salman 2. Sunny 3. Sunil 4. Sohail
47. Who is the winning player at Table 4?
1. Salman 2. Shakti 3. Shahrukh 4. Sanjay
48. A claim-processing company has two office buildings within a business area of the city but the buildings differ
with regard to facilities and the pleasantness of the physical environment of the offices. By analyzing the
productivity records of these offices, the HR department noted that the productivity of the employees in the
more pleasant office building was 32 per cent higher than in the other office. As the background of employees
in both offices was comparable, the HR department concluded that more pleasant work environment leads to
better productivity. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion of the HR
department?
1. On average, less-productive employees spend no fewer hours per day at their office than do their more-
productive colleagues in the other building
2. More productive employees do not work any more hours than their less productive colleagues
3. The more productive employees are generally rewarded by being transferred to the more pleasant office
4. Unpleasant work environment makes people less motivated to work hard than more pleasant surroundings
do
At the crowded annual sale of Indian Handloom Sarees, there were five ladies in the queue. Each of the lady customers
bought something different. The first names of the customers were Asha, Kavita, Usha, Sadhna and Lata. Their last
names were Bhonsle, Sargam, Krishnamurthy, Mangeshkar and Uthoop. The available sarees were: Kanjeevaram Silk
Saree, Paithani Silk Saree, Gadwal Silk Saree, Sambalpuri Cotton Saree, and Tangail Cotton Saree. Hints: (i) Usha
Krishnamurthy was served later than the customer who requested the Tangail Cotton Saree, but before Mrs.
Mangeshkar. (ii) The second customer was Sadhna. (iii) The Gadwal Silk Saree was purchased by the customer directly
after Kavita. (iv) Lata was the woman who bought the Sambalpuri Cotton Saree; she was served after Asha. The
Kanjeevaram Silk Saree was requested by Mrs. Uthoop. (v) Mrs. Sargam was the third in line. The fourth customer in
the line bought the Paithani Silk Saree.
49. What was purchased by the third person in line?
1, Kanjeevaram Silk Saree 2. Gadwal Silk Saree

3. Tangail Cotton Saree 4. Paithani Silk Saree
50. What was the last name of the person who purchased the Gadwal Silk Saree?
1. Uthoop 2. Bhonsle 3. Sargam 4. Mangeshkar
51. What place was Lata in the queue?
1. First 2. Third 3. Fourth 4. Fifth
52. The Quality Control department of a chip manufacturing company received proposals from two firms for
installation of two separate inspection systems – J and K. These systems are based on different principles, and
they are equally efficient in detecting 98% of product flaws. But both systems suffer from a problem of
wrongly rejecting 4% of flawless products. Since false rejections are very costly, the QC departments argued
that money could be saved by installing both the systems, instead of either one or the other, and rejecting only
products found flawed by both. This argument is mot strengthened by which of the following assumptions?
1. Whichever system performs the second inspection needs to inspect only products rejected by the first
system
2. The flawless products that system J rejects are not the same products, piece for piece, which system K
rejects
3. In their price-range, systems P and Q together are the least error-prone and cost-efficient inspection systems
in the market
4. It is more costly to accept a flawed product than to reject a flawless one
53. While travelling to China, a low ranking Indian official asked a Chinese official why Chinese people are so
inscrutable. The official looked calm and friendly, responding in a gentle voice that he much preferred to think
upon his race as inscrutable than of his race as wanting in perspicacity. Of the following statements, which
best describes the Chinese official’s comment?
1. What a person lacks in perception may be a result of the carelessness of the observer, instead of the
obscurity within the object being observed
2. If India and China were ever to understand one another, there will need to be a much better cultural
understanding
3. All people are inscrutable, not just the Chinese
4. The Chinese distrusts Indians
The National Museum Curator at Kolkata must group nine sculptures – Q, R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, and Z – in 2 table spots
numbered consecutively from 1-12. The sculptures must be in three groups, each group representing a different period
of Indian civilisation. The groups must be separated from each other by at least one unused table spots, but unused table
spots cannot occur within group. Three of the sculptures are from Indus Valley Civilisation period (3000 BC – 1500
BC), two are from Maurya Empire period (322 BC --- 185 BC) and four are from Gupta Dynasty period (320 AD ---
540 AD). Hints: (i) T, V, W are all sculptures from the same period; (ii) R & T are sculptures from different periods;
(iii) Q & X are Indus Valley Civilisation period sculptures; (iv) Y is a Maurya Empire period sculpture; (v) Table 5 is
always empty.
54. If the sculptures are placed in reverse chronological order by periods, the unused table spaces could be:
1. 1, 6, and 9 2. 1, 5, and 10 3. 5, 8, and 12 4. 5, 9, and 10
55. If the Gupta Dynasty sculptures are placed on Tables 1-4, which of the following cannot be true?
1. X is placed on Table 12 2. Y is placed on Table 9

3. Table 8 is unused 4. Q is placed on Table 6
56. If the first five sculptures, in numerical order of tables are Q, Z, X, Y, and R, which of the following must be
true?
1. Two unused tables separate the Harappan period and Maurya period
2. Two unused tables separate the Maurya period and Gupta period
3. S is placed on Table 11
4. Either Table 1 or Table 4 is unused
57. Lata stated, “My family physician Dr. Vaid informed that he would be performing a blood test on me when I
visit him today. I know that I will feel pain today”. The above statement depends on which of the following
assumptions?
1. The use of a needle always causes pain in the patient

2. In the past, Lata has experienced pain at the family doctor’s
3. The doctor will have to try different needles to perform the test
4. Dr. Vaid will have a hard time finding the patient’s vein
58. Mr. Fevicol said “When I went fishing the other day, every fish I caught was a Betki, and every Betki I saw I
caught”. Of the following statements listed below, which one can be concluded from the observations of Mr.
Fevicol?
1. Betki was the only fish that Mr. Fevicol saw while he was fishing
2. While Mr. Fevicol was fishing, no other fish was caught by him
3. All of the fish that Mr. Fevicol saw he caught
4. Mr. Fevicol did not see any other fish while he was fishing
In a design studio for Kulu Shawls, different colourful borders are created by using thick woolen threads. There are
threads of exactly six different solid colours – Red, Yellow, Blue, Green, White and Black. Threads are used in the
borders according to the following rules:
• Each border must contain at least five threads of at least three different colours.
• At most, two threads in a border can be Black.
• At most two threads in a border ca be White.
• There can be at most one thread of each of the other colours in a single border.
• If one thread is Red, then one thread must be Yellow.
• If one thread is Blue, then no thread can be Green.
59. The maximum number of threads that can be used in a border is
1. 8 2. 7 3. 6 4. 5
60. If a White thread and a Blue thread must be among the threads chosen for a particular border, any of the
following pairs of threads would complete the border, EXCEPT:
1. Black thread and a second White thread 2. Yellow thread and second White thread
3. Yellow thread and a Black thread 4. Red thread and a Black thread.
61. If there is an additional requirement that Blue must be used if Yellow is used, which of the following must be
true?
1. No border contains more than five threads 2. Red is always used if Blue is used
3. No border contains fewer than six threads 4 . G reen is never used if Red is used
62. A priest asked the parishioner: “Do you speak to the devil and follow his biddings?” The
parishioner said, “Yes”. The priest replied: “You must be lying. Nobody who is in league with the
devil tells the truth”. Why can the priest’s behaviour be considered paradoxical?
1. He was the one who asked the question, but he refused to accept the answer
2. While he is questioning the parishioner about possible association with the devil, he doesn’t
actually believe in the dark lord
3. Me relied upon the answer of the parishioner in order to reject his response
4. He accused the parishioner of being league with the devil, but later changed his story.
63. Mr. Vishwakarma, the car mechanic said. “All of the two door cars that I have repaired have always had 8
cylinders, so all 2 door cars must have 8 cylinder engines”. What is the basis of author’s argument?
1. Generalization 2. Syllogism 3. Deduction 4. Ambiguity
Seven friends have qualified in the preliminary round of a quiz contest. From these seven, two teams must be
formed—an Orange team and a Blue team, each team consisting of exactly three contestants. No contestant can be
selected for more than one team. Based on the scores of the preliminary round, team selection is subject to the
following restrictions:
• Joginder cannot be in the same team as Kulvinder.

• Ravinder cannot be in the same team as Sukhvinder
• If Arvinder is in the Orange team, Ravinder if selected, must be on the Blue team
• If Mohinder is in the Orange team, Kulvinder must be selected for the Blue team.
64. If Mohinder is in the Orange team, which of the following, if selected, must also be on the Orange team?
1. Arvinder 2. Joginder 3. Ravinder 4.Tejinder
65. If Arvinder is selected for the Orange team and Tejinder is not selected for either team, then which of the
following CANNOT be a member of the Blue team?
1. Joginder 2. Kulvinder 3. Mohinder 4. Sukhvinder
In the colourful town of Rang Barshe, office areas are named through colour codes. Mr. Gupta is a courier who uses a
motorcycle to pick up letters from some banks to deliver to other banks. His area is restricted to certain network of
streets. In the network, there are two-way streets connecting each of the following pairs of areas: Red with Orange,
Red with Yellow, Red with Blue, Orange with Indigo, Blue with Indigo, and Indigo with Violet. There are also
one-way streets going from Orange to Green, from Yellow to Orange, and from Green to Yellow. There are no other
streets in the network and the streets do not intersect.
To make a trip involving pickups and deliveries, Courier Gupta always takes a trip that passes through fewest of the
areas from Red to Violet. Gupta’s home is in Yellow area; letters can be picked up from Andhra Bank at Red area,
Bharat Bank at Blue area, Canara Bank at Green area. Deliveries are given to Dena Bank at Orange area, Exim bank at
Indigo area, and Federal Bank at Violet area.
66. If starting from homo, Gupta is to make pickups for Federal Bank from Andhra Bank and Canara
Bank ( i n either order). The first two intermediate areas on his route, beginning with the first must lie
1. Red and Orange 2. Orange and Red 3. Orange ant! Green 4. Green and Orange
67. If starting from the Bharat Bank, the courier is to pick up letter at either at Andhra Bank or at Canara Bank
(whichever stop makes him go through fewest of the areas) and then is to go to Federal Bank, the first
two areas lie reaches after Bharat Bank, beginning with the first, must be
1. Red and orange 2. Red and Yellow 3. Green and Orange 4. Indigo and Orange.
68. If the courier is to make a trip starting at the Federal Bank, next going to Canara Bank for a pick up, and
then ending with the delivery at the Exim Bank, the first two intermediate points on his route, beginning
with the first, can be:
1. Yellow and Red 2. Yellow and Green 3. Indigo and Orange 4. Indigo and Blue.
A Business School publishes three issues of their research Journal in a year. The Editor decided that the upcoming three
issues— April, August and December—would carry articles written by seven most reputed Professors of the School. Each of
the seven authors (T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z) will have at least one article published, but some may have more than one article
published. The following restrictions apply to the publication of the articles:
• Each of the issues being prepared must contain at least two articles.
• Only these seven Professors’ articles can appear in the upcoming April. August and December issues
• No author may publish in each of two consecutively published issues or twice in the same issue.
• If an article by T appears in an issue, then an article by U must also appear in that issue.
• If an article by W appears in an issue, then an article by Y must appear in the immediately preceding issue.
• An article by Y cannot be published in an issue that contains an article by Z
69. If April issue consists exclusively of articles by T and U, then August issue can consist exclusively of articles
by which of the following group of authors?
1.Vand X 2. V and Y 3. W and Z 4. V, Y, and Z
70. If April issue consists exclusively of articles by U, V, and Z, then the August issue must contain an article by
which of the following authors?
1. W 2. X 3. Y 4. Z
71. If December issue consists exclusively of articles by U, V, and W, the August issue must have consisted of
articles by which of the following groups of authors?
1 .Tand Z 2. U and Y 3.X and Y 4. X and Z
DIRECTIONS for questions 72 to74: Answers should be based on the information given below:
The intelligence branch of the police was keeping an eve on four suspected lady terrorists—M. Meenakshi, Razia
Rabat, Sharmila Singh, Theresa Tenzing --- and their movements in and out of a building. They discovered a
pattern and made the following observations:
• No suspect ever enters or leaves the building together with another suspect.
• Each of the suspects enters, and later leaves the building, only once every day.
• No suspect ever leaves the building in the same order -first, second, third and fourth in which she
entered the budding.
• Both in entering the building and leaving it, Razia Rabat is always earlier than Sharmila Singh.
www.hitbullseye.com P 10
72. On a certain day, on which the two suspects who enter the building first are also the two suspects who
leave it first, the last two suspects to enter the building could be:
1. M. Meenakshi and Razia Rabat 2. M. Meenakshi and Theresa Tenzing

3. Razia Rabat and Sharmila Singh 4. Razia Rabat and Theresa Tenzing
73. If, on a certain day, Meenakshi and Theresa enter the building second and third, respectively and Meenakshi
also leaves the building before Theresa does, the order in which the suspects leave the building, from first to
fourth, must be:
1. Meenakshi, Razia, Sharmila, Theresa 2. Meenakshi, Razia, Theresa, Sharmila

3. Razia, Meenakshi, Sharmila, Theresa 4. Razia, Sharmila, Meenakshi, Theresa
74. On a day on which Razia Rabat enters the building second and Theresa Tenzing enters it third, which of
the following must be true?
1. Razia leaves the building first 2. Meenakshi leaves the building first
3. Meenakshi leaves the building third 4. Theresa leaves the building second
Six horses—with the names “Aparajit”, “Bahadur”, “Chetak”, “Dhundumar”, “Pakshiraj”, and “Vijay” are entered in a
race. The starting gate is divided into exactly seven starting positions numbered consecutively 1 through 7. Seven
jockeys—also numbered 1 through 7—are eligible to ride in the race. Each jockey’s number corresponds to the
numbered position in the starting gate from which that jockey, if assigned to a horse, will ride. Exactly one jockey
will not be assigned to any horse, and the starting gate position corresponding to that jockey’s number will remain
vacant for the race. Jockeys will be assigned to horses and the horses will run from starting gate positions in accordance
with the following restrictions:
• Either Aparajit or Chetak must be ridden by Jockey 1.

• Pakshiraj must be ridden by Jockey 4 or else by Jockey 5.
• Bahadur and Pakshiraj must have at least one horse separating the two of them in starting gate.
• Chetak must run from a starting gate position with a lower number than the starting gate position from
which Vijay runs.
75. If the horses finish the race, from first to last, in exactly the order 6,5,4,3,2, and 1 (corresponding
to the number of their jockeys), and if Bahadur is the horse that wins the race then each of the following horses
could have been among the top three finishers in the race EXCEPT
1. Chetak 2. Dhundumar 3. Pakshiraj 4. Vijay
76. If Jockey 5 is the one jockey not assigned to any horse, which of the following could be true?
1. Aparajit is ridden by Jockey 4 2. Vijay is ridden by Jockey 6
3. Bahadur is ridden by Jockey 6 4. Chetak is ridden by Jockey 7.
77. If Dhundumar is incapable of running the race and no replacement horse is found, and if the horses that
do run finish the race, from first to last, in the order 1,2,4,6, and 7 (corresponding to the numbers of their
jockeys) which of the following must have finished last in the race?
1. Aparajit 2. Bahadur 3. Chetak 4. Pakshiraj
78. If Chetak runs from starting gate position 5 and if starting gate position 6 is vacant, which or the
following must be true?
1. Vijay starts from starting gate position 2 2. Aparajit starts from starting gate position
3. Pakshiraj starts from starting gate position 3 4. Dhundumar starts from starting gate position 3
DIRECTIONS for questions 79-102: Read passage-1, and answer the questions given below the passage. Answers
should be based on the author’s views or inferences drawn from the given passage.
PASSAGE - 1
Early books on business strategy aimed to structure and codify the many documentary histories and memoirs of business
leaders. They contained precious little theory or models drawn from economics or other social sciences. They do contain
many good ideas but few frameworks in which to place them. There was limited guidance as to when and where anyone
idea would or would not work. Just because an idea was useful in one company at one moment in time does not mean it will
always work. Gradually ideas and models emerged that provided the necessary structure to the chaos of anecdotal
memories. First we need to distinguish between corporate and business level strategy. At the corporate level businesses need
to ask themselves fundamental questions such as ‘Which business should we be in?’ At the business level a business needs to
ask itself, ‘How do we compete?’ It is at this latter level that we position our thinking. The organization has decided
that it will compete in a certain market and is seeking ways to optimize what it does in pursuit of its goals, in other words
what its strategy should be. How we think about business strategy has evolved and changed as new and better ideas have
become more widely known and accepted and as the needs of business have changed. Business strategy has had many
definitions but these are two that give a sense of what is involved irrespective of where we are in time: ‘Strategy is about
matching the competencies of the organization to its environment. A strategy describes how an organization aims to meet its
objectives’.
The changing environment for any business can be understood by assessing the main factors that create change in a
marketplace: political (including legislative), economic, social and. technological trends. If strategy is about matching
your business to the opportunities and challenges of the environment then it pays to understand what that means and
how the environment is changing and likely to change in the future. A company’s ability to match itself to its environment
can be assessed in turn by listing its main strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats, the now familiar SWOT analysis.
PEST and SWOT analyses have become the logical starting points for any business looking to appraise itself and to define
or redefine its strategy. How a company matches itself to its environment is left to its management to decide. We believe that
it is time to identify better ways in which any organization can identify how to match itself to the changing needs and views of
the most important part of its environment, its customers. We also believe that management needs to look more inside their
organizations to find the answers to the challenges presented by their environment. A third definition of strategy explains
why commercial organizations should invest time and money in creating a strategy: ‘A successful strategy is one that
achieves an above average profitability in its sector’. We also believe that any approach to strategy must be capable of
demonstrating that it can guide a business organization to above average profitability or at least to an increase in
profitability. For not-for-profit organizations the performance measures will be very different. A business
school might aim merely to break even but measure itself by the number of students it educates. A charity might
measure i t s total giving or a ratio of donations to income. A church might measure itself by the size of its
congregation. Performance measures that are relevant to commercial business can be applied to any type or style
of organization.
While companies still use SWOT and PEST analyses, other strategic tools have become dated as business has changed in its
nature. A century ago the multinational was the exception on the corporate landscape. Most business were small and local
and this is still true in many countries and in many sectors to this day. In markets where competition is fragmented and the
main competitors are small, a relatively unsophisticated business plan, one that concerns itself solely with the business itself
and its immediate market, is likely to be more than adequate. Gap analysis is still a relevant technique that can focus the
management of such organizations into thinking about the main issues they face, specifically how to bridge the gap
between their existing financial performance and where they would like the business to be in the future. If the gap is wide
and if the recent performance has been poor it is likely that the company will have to reinvent itself and to find a different
answer to the question ‘What business are we in?’ Used in conjunction with a PEST and SWOT analysis a firm can construct
a clear sense of direction. By identifying and costing various projects that will help to fill the strategic planning gap, it can
create a strategic plan. The value of gap analysis lies in its simplicity, but it has one key weakness. It ignores
competition. It also lacks any model to help management decide what to do or how to appraise their ideas as to how to fill the
planning gap. But first there is a question on the way strategies actually evolves. Is it via the purposive analysis implied by Gap,
SWOT and PEST analyses?
There has been a lively debate as to whether ‘strategy’ is something that senior management can decide upon and impose
upon an organization or whether strategies emerge from within an organization, guided by managers rather than decided
by them. Many argue that specific strategies tend to emerge, rather than be created, in larger organizations because many
new and different strategies are constantly being created and acted upon routinely through the interaction between the firm
and its customers or even suppliers. An order might arrive from another country and before it knows it the firm is in the
export business. An existing customer, impressed by-what the firm has done in the past in supplying one product or service,
asks it to provide another outside its normal scope of operation. It does so successfully and finds itself in a new business. This
idea of a business almost lurching from one opportunity to another may appeal, but the analogy of strategy as evolution where
a series of often random events occur, a tiny minority of which change the business because they produce sustained sales or
profit, is not too far from reality. Indeed some have argued that you can apply this thinking outside of the firm, one
business species thrives as it adapts to a changing environment while another is wiped out when its main source of
nourishment declines.
In reality businesses do, indeed must, try to formalize their strategies, to take control of their own destiny. The problem is how?
The best answer will probably be a combination of direction and evolution. From the top or centre will come an analysis and
formal plan. This will include the financial objectives of the firm, as there is no sense in delegating those. The contribution
from lower down the organization, the bottom up component can include the source of options to be analysed. The role of the
planner is to select the best options so that the firm has a clear direction to follow. The worst possible situation is where the
company is actively trying to pursue more than one competing strategy at the same time. It does not work. The problem
with such thinking is that it leaves the role of strategy formulation somewhat in limbo. On the one hand we are saying
that strategy is about having a clear understanding of how the organization is planning to meet its objectives. On
the other we are arguing the value of allowing radical ideas to emerge from the customer interface, somewhere
not always regarded as the place where strategy is formed. So just where do we stand on the issue of who are
responsible for strategic management? What is best left to the senior team in our view are decisions about which
markets to be in, whether to enter country X this year or next, whether to acquire Company Y or to divest Division
A, what we labelled earlier as corporate level strategy. Our focus is on market strategy, what organizations should
do to manage their way in markets they arc already in and intend to stay in. For the first type of decision we
concede the need for a centralized function that makes decisions. For the second type of role we will argue that
managers should create a framework and set objectives and then let the organization get on with meeting those
objectives.
The strategy process is about flows of ideas and instructions up and down the organization. There will be two distinct flows in
any business, the financial planning flow and the strategic planning flow. They interact and often conflict. A typical financial
objective might be to achieve a 24 per cent return on assets employed each year. A typical vision statement is more qualitative
and more long-term, to be market leader in a specific field. Underpinning the company vision will be a strategy that gives
practical form to that vision. At the same time it explains how the company expects to achieve its financial goals and
objectives. All too often it is far from clear in written plans how the strategy will deliver the required financial
performance. Tactics are the shorter term, day-to-day matters that will be of relevance to many employees, for example a
sales target of four customer calls a day, a production plan for 50 tonnes of product. Money is required to fund the business
and to meet day-to-day expenditure. Typically a financial budget is prepared for every part of an organization. Individual
budgets are totalled and compared with the revenue forecasts to judge the viability of the plan.
Those reading this who have prepared budgets and forecasts know only too well that preparing them is an art as well as a
science. The art comes in not leaving yourself with too little fat, in slightly over forecasting a budget and under forecasting a
revenue stream. Those reading this who manage those who prepare budgets and forecasts recognize that managers ‘suffice’
rather than maximize profit, and probably have a number of ways of ensuring that both forecasts and budgets appear
challenging while still being feasible. There is a danger in our experience of believing one’s own forecasts. Senior managers
spend time and effort making sure that the next year’s plan looks sound because revenue and expenditure balance. But what
appears on paper is no more than a wish list. If the organization is in a stable environment then a simple extrapolation from
last year is adequate. In such a case the financial flow will dominate management thinking. In situations where the
environment is more fluid and less predictable then rigidity creates myopia. Organizations in the service sector have to be
prepared to change, often on a daily basis to respond to shifts in what their customers want or in what their competition are
doing. Visionary companies often out-perform financially driven ones because there is not a reliance upon budgeting and
forecasting, there is often not enough time to do such things as the business is too concerned with how it can cope with the
opportunities that are there in the market and that can never be predicted. Having a rigid top down approach can stifle
the very essence of organization’s ability to succeed. Senior management’s role is to set targets, let middle and junior
managers decide or at least influence how to meet them. As organizations become more complex and physically larger, it
becomes more impossible for one person at the top to be able to manage down’. Education standards have risen but companies
can ignore the potential they recruit, trying to control what they should be letting free, lacking the framework that will guide
employees to achieve without detailed manuals on what to do and how to do it.
An approach can be adopted that is not budget driven in the sense that the firm relics upon replicating what it did
last year, but not so fret’ and easy so that senior management lose all control over what is happening. The balance
between the two flows in terms of the relative power they have in the organization is interesting to observe. Some
companies have a good strategy. Profitability is almost taken for granted. The debate is more about how much profit to
return to shareholders, how much to invest, and what the staff bonus scheme should payout this year. In other
companies financial management is all-powerful. It needs to be, as the business has not discovered a position in its
market that it can use to achieve above average profitability, most probably because it lacks an effective strategy. It
lurches from one financial crisis to another. Many businesses survive in this way for years, but the better employees
leave for better paid and more satisfying jobs elsewhere. Even among some apparently better performing organizations
employee turnover can be an issue. Here financial performance has been gained at the expense of employees. Employees
leave, disliking the uncaring attitude to both staff and to customers that means they care little for their employer.
Over the years a number of models have been produced largely from academic research that companies can use to improve
their chances of achieving’ above average profitability. The strategic decision-making in an organization is guided by a
model, a simplified picture of what makes for success in business. So what are these models and how useful have they proven
to be? By the 1980s businesses realized that they needed more sophisticated tools to help them construct valid strategies. The
main problems to be faced in their markets were not so much the trends identified by their trend analyses but by the less
predictable, actions of their competitors. Take the retail sector as a good example. In the 1950s there were few countries in
the world where concentration levels in the retail sector were high. By the 1990s most developed nations had food retail
sectors that were dominated by a small number of players. At the same time such companies owned more than one
retail business and strategies were needed for each market.
79. Which of the following is a true statement?
1. An idea found useful in one company at one time will always work in other companies
2. An idea found useful in one company at one time may not work in other companies.
3. An idea found irrelevant in one company at one time will work in other companies
4. A useful idea will always remain relevant for all companies at all times
80. According to the passage,
1. Anecdotal memories created chaos

2. Useful ideas emerged fairly rapidly to deal with business strategy
3. Gradual emergence of ideas confused the business strategists
4. Sudden emergence of ideas created confusion among the business strategists
1. Recent literature aims to codify documentary histories on business strategy

2. Recent books aim to document memoirs of business leaders
3. Many documentary histories were codified in early books on business strategy
4. None of the above
82. According to the author of the passage,
1. There is no difference between business and corporate level strategy

2. We cannot differentiate business from corporate strategy
3. Business should be based on questions raised at the corporate level
4. Strategy is based on the questions raised at the business level
83. Which of the following is not a true statement?
1. Early hooks on business strategy contained very little theory

2. Early books on business strategy contained many models drawn from social sciences
3. Early books on business strategy contained litt l e or no theory derived from social sciences
4. Early books on business strategy contain many good ideas
84. It is true that
1. business strategy has not changed for many years

2.not many new ideas have become widely known to influence our business strategy
3. not many new ideas have become widely known as the needs of business have changed
4. new ideas have changed our business strategies
1. there cannot be many definitions of business strategy

2. there are only two definitions of business strategy
3. there are many definitions of business strategy
4. no definition of business strategy is an accurate description
86. We can understand the changing environment of a business by
1. analysing the factors affecting the market

2. assessing the political, economic, social and technological trends
3. Both of the above
87. SWOT analysis is a process
1. which tests a company’s ability to cope with the environment

2. which helps a company to appraise itself
1. customer is a part of the environment

2. customer defines the business environment
3. business environment shapes the customer
4. business strategy moulds the customer
1. Commercial organizations should invest time and money in creating strategy

2. Commercial organizations should not invest in time and money in creating strategy
3. A successful strategy should lead to profitability
4. Performance measures that are relevant to commercial organizations are also applicable to not-for-profit
organisations
90. According to the passage SWOT analysis
1. has become dated tool 2. is not a tool used by companies any more
3. is a tool still used by companies 4. has become redundant

1. A century ago most businesses were multinational
2. A century ago most businesses were big
3. A century ago most businesses were local
4. Multinational businesses were common until the end of last century
92. According to the passage, Gap analysis
1. is no more relevant
2. bridges the gap between the present and the future
3. identifies the difference between the present performance and the future vision
1. Gap analysis is a fairly complex process 2. Gap analysis has no weakness

3. Gap analysis has many weaknesses 4. None of the above
1. Specific strategies often evolve

2. Specific strategies are always created
3. Strategies are constantly created through interaction between customers and suppliers
4. Strategies are dictated to the customers and suppliers
95. The businesses must formalise their strategies by
1. controlling and monitoring 2. direction and evolution

3. planning and analysis 4. All of the above
1. Strategy demands a clear understanding of the future

2. Strategy should encourage radical ideas to emerge from customers
3. Organisation should be clear as to how it plans to achieve its goals
4. All of the above
97. The author of the passage focuses on
1. corporate strategy 2. market strategy 3. Both of the above 4. None of the above
98. According to the passage, the financial planning flow
1. and the strategic planning flow mean the same

2. should be based on strategic planning flow
3. and the strategic planning flow do ever interact
4. and the strategic planning flow conflict with each other
1. organisations which perform well do not experience employee turnover

2. employee turnover could be an issue even in organisations which perform well
3. organisations which perform well faces employee turn over more acutely than others
4. financial performance should be considered more important than employee turnover
1. in a stable environment organisation should be prepared to change

2. in a fluid environment planning is not required
3. in a stable environment financial flow will dominate management thinking
4. in a fluid environment rigid plans often work well
101. The passage suggests that
1. Senior management should not set targets

2. Senior managers should set targets
3. Junior management should not be asked to meet the targets
4. Middle managers cannot lie asked to influence as how to meet targets
102. Which of the following is a tactic?
1. specific production plan for a specific product

2. a sales target for a specific day
DIRECTIONS for questions 103-115: Read passage-2 and answer the questions given below the passage. Answers
PASSAGE - 2
The view of some was that the media had built Gerald Ratner only to knock him down. Dealing well with the media is central
to both reputation building and defence, but the main lesson from this example is that detail matters. One further lesson might
be that the real philosophy of the company was revealed in the jokes of its leader. Jewellery is a high involvement
purchase. Ratner appealed to the less well off, to whom a few pounds spent on a pair of gold earrings, was still a substantial
sum. Poking fun at the product demeaned the purchase and the purchaser. One interpretation of Gerald Ratner’s humour was
that he was all too cynical in his approach to business, to his customers and to his staff. The reputation of one company can
affect another it is associated with. As alliances and partnerships become more common, the danger of a partner causing
damage to your own reputation grows. There have been a number of examples where problems with a component have given
difficulties to the company whose products contain an item clearly branded by a partner.
Ford is one of the largest motor vehicle companies in the world. By 2000 the Ford stable included other car names such
as Mazda, Volvo, Jaguar. Bridgestone-Firestone was also huge in its own right as a tyre manufacturer. Serious problems were
experienced with owners of certain styles of Ford vehicle fitted with certain Firestone tyres. The tyres could shred in use
causing the vehicle to topple. Deaths were reported from Saudi Arabia, and North and South America. Fourteen million
tyres were recalled. Ford accounted for 5 per cent of Firestone’s business. The recall would cost US$ 450 million and take
some considerable time to implement. The real issue between the two companies was that of blame for the deaths and
injuries associated with the tyres. The Firestone brand had suffered from a large recall in the 1970s. While the two
multinationals scrapped in the media over the safety records of tyres and vehicles, both brand names risked damage.
Finally in 2001, Ford and Firestone announced they were to end a business relationship that had begun when Harvey
Firestone had agreed to supply tyres for Henri Ford’s model T. The reputation issues that this example highlights include
that Ford, whose dealers would be primarily responsible in law to customers for product quality, presumably felt that they
benefited by having a Firestone brand on the tyres it put on to its vehicles, rather than say a Ford branded tyre. Firestone
would in turn presumably prefer to supply Ford with a branded tyre. The issue of who might be ultimately responsible for
any personal injury claims is beyond the scope of our discussion. Needless to say, Ford blamed the tyres design while
Firestone the design of the vehicle. Both reputations are likely to have suffered. Two corporate giants fight it out while those
who have bought the suspect vehicle had to wait and worry before their tyres are replaced.
Intel’s marketing strategy is to appeal over the heads of the computer manufacturer and directly to the consumer. The ‘Intel
inside’ sticker became as important to have on your computer as any maker’s brand name. Two million Pentium chips sold
before July 1994 contained a problem in their floating-point circuitry. A professor of mathematics at an American college
first discovered the problem. He contacted the chip manufacture that took their time to get back to him. Frustrated, he
went on to the Internet to see if others had experienced the same problem or whether their chips made the same error.
They had and they did. Intel first offered to replace the suspect chips but only if the user could prove that the type of
calculations they did encompassed the type of error situation being complained of. They argued that very few
users would ever experience the problem. It was only when IBM stopped shipping machines with the faulty chips
that Intel changed their minds. As one user pointed out, IBM were a blue chip company who could not afford
to have their own reputation damaged by the idea that one of their machines might make a mistake. Intel then
offered to replace all chips at a total estimated cost of $306 million. CEO Andy Grove admitted, ‘I don’t think
we understood the psychology of the marketplace as well as we should have. Millions of consumers who
think they are entitled to judge it better than we are, and we were insensitive to that. The perfect chip takes an
infinite time-to develop’. IBM’s role in the Intel affair is an interesting one. At limited cost to them but at
great cost to Intel they could pressure a business partner. Indeed IBM felt that they needed to pressure their
business partner into a reputation defence action to protect the IBM name. By having to admit being in the
wrong, Intel risked its own reputation.
Michael Porter’s five forces model was introduced as an example of a strategic model. One of the insights from the model
is the importance of the relative bargaining power of suppliers and customers. This is usually assessed by the relative
concentrations in both groups. Thus if there are a limited number of large customers and a large number of small
suppliers the balance of power in the typical relationship will tend to favour the customer. In most businesses where
the customer is a member of the public the balance of power favour the supplier. This balance can be affected by the threat
of the customer to publicise any wrong doing of the supplier. Governments tend to legislate to protect consumers from
rogue suppliers. Another way for consumers to exercise more influence over a large business is through pressure groups
of one kind or another.
103. According to the passage
1. It was a unanimous view that the media promoted Gerald Ratner only to pull him down
2. Some people thought that the media promoted Gerald Ratner only to pull him down
3. Nobody thought that the media promoted Gerald Ratner only to pull him down
104. The author of the passage believes that
1. it is not important how you deal with the media

2. media should not be entrusted with reputation building
3. details do not matter as much as the PR
4. reputation depends on how you deal with the media
1. Jewellery is a high risk business 2. Jewellery is a high involvement purchase

3. Ratner focussed on the high end of spenders 4. Ratner poked fun at the product
106. According to the passage, Ratner was
1. a serious person 2. a humorous person

3. not at all cynical in his approach to business 4. not at all cynical in his approach to his customers
107. Which of the following cannot be assumed from the passage
1. Reputation of a company cannot be affected by another with which it is associated

2. Reputation of a company can be affected by another with which it is associated
3. A partner can damage your own image
4. Partnerships are common these days
1. Owners of Ford cars never experienced a serious problem

2. Several owners of Fort cars fined with certain tyres reportedly met with fatal accident
3. No accidents were reported by owners of Ford vehicles
4. No vehicles filled with Firestone tyres reportedly met with Anal accidents
1. Firestone accounted for a major part of Ford’s business

2. Firestone and Ford had nothing to do with each other
3. A major portion of Ford vehicles were fitted with Firestone tyres
4. Only a small number of Ford vehicles were fitted with Firestone tyres
1. Firestone had never faced a problem of recall

2. Firestone had regular problems of recall
3. Firestone faced a major problem of recall once earlier
1. Ford and Firestone ended business relationship in 1990

2. Ford had entered into business with Firestone ever since the first Ford car
3. Firestone did not blame Ford at any stage
4. Ford never blamed Firestone at any stage
1. The dealers of Ford vehicles were against putting Firestone tyres on Ford vehicles
2. The dealers o Firestone tyres were not in favour of putting their tyres on Ford vehicles
3. The dealers of Ford vehicles preferred putting Firestone tyres on Ford vehicles
4. The dealers of Ford vehicles were indifferent to the brand of tyres put on Ford vehicles
1. Intel is a computer manufacturer 2. Pentium chips are manufactured by IBM

3. Intel is big brand name 4. Intel competes directly with IBM
1. Intel refused to supply chips to IBM 2. IBM stopped buying chips from Intel
3. IBM offered to pay damages to Intel 4. Intel refused to replace the chips in IBM computers
1. Andy Grove is the chairman of IBM

2. Andy Grove is the chairman of Intel
3. In the Intel episode IBM suffered a huge loss
4. In the IBM episode Intel did not suffer much damage
DIRECTIONS for questions 116—125: Read passage-3, and answer the questions given below the passage. Answers
PASSAGE - 3
The traditional image of PR itself could do with some improvement. In Sheridan’s play The Critic written in 1871, a
character named Mr. Puff describes himself as a practitioner in panegyric, a professor in the art of puffing. His job involves
him in promoting various businesses or individuals in the newspapers by advertisements or by placing articles. As such he
represents the forerunner and a parody of both the advertising and public relations agency, l i e is presented as an
unscrupulous rogue, capable of saying anything in his own or in his clients’ favour. He catalogues four
principles of this profession: the puff direct, the puff collateral, the puff collusive and the puff oblique all of which
involve some form of misrepresentation. If this lampoon of the public relations and advertising industries is
somewhat cruel it still reflects a general view that persists to this day that what appears in press releases, in
articles in the press, and in advertising should be treated with suspicion. The term ‘spin doctor’ has crept into the
English language to describe someone with the verbal gymnastic skills to make the most negative of incident
reflect well on his or her client by turning the sense of the piece.
However the media guarantee the continuation of the press release. Despite the insistence of most journalists to the contrary,
the media will sometimes reproduce press releases with little or no original work by the journalist they are supplied to.
Second, press mentions are by far a cheaper way to promote a business than direct advertising, ensuring that this method of
marketing communications will continue to be important. An operational problem in using PR is the lack of control the
business has over what actually appears in print. The journalist who is creating an original story will act as a gatekeeper
between the PR office and the media. But the main issue with PR for us is whether the function is evolving into a Reputation
Management role. At present, PR inside an organization is either a subset of marketing or an adjunct to a corporate function or
a specialism that is outsourced. The PR manager probably has background m journalism or the media. PR is a function
that is rarely seen as strategic in nature. While there may be an overarching sense of supporting the corporate image,
much of PR is short-term and tactical in nature. That said there are many examples where PR can affect an organization or its
products in the medium to long term.
Product endorsement in the media can be worth more than its weight in gold. A good review by a fashion writer can make or
break a designer. A good review in the literary section of a Sunday newspaper can make or break a new novel. The
mention of a particular wine on a cookery programme on the television can see sales rocket the following day. Jeremy
Clarkson would be well known to the British public for his engaging reviews of cars on a television programme dedicated to
motoring. He is also a journalist and writes for the Sunday Times, middle to upper market paper. In 2000 he reviewed a new
version of Ford’s Mondeo. The Mondeo is a four-door saloon and is in a competitive sector of the market where most of the
large car manufacturers have one or more models. There are two reputations at stake here, that of Ford and that of the
Mondeo sub-brand, the associations with the corporate name overlaying those of the product brand of Mondeo.
116. According to the author, PR
1. should be seen as a strategic function 2. PR has been always seen as a strategic function
3. PR should not be seen as a strategic function 4. PR will always remain a strategic function
1. There is no sense of supporting the corporate image

2. Most of PR is long-term in perspective
3. PR can never affect the products in the medium to long term
4. PR can affect an organisation and its products
118. According to the passage, “puff” is
1. characteristic of all critics 2. a practitioner of witchcraft

3. an acronym for advertising 4. a character in the play
119. According to the author of the passage, ‘puff’
1. is the forerunner of PR agency 2. is the brand manager

3. represents a highly dignified image 4. stands for honesty and integrity
120. Which of the following does the author of the passage not mean?
1. There is some amount of misrepresentation in all press releases

2. Advertising is treated with suspicion
3. PR amounts to verbal gymnastic skills
4. PR reflects the true picture of companies
1. The media always reproduce the actual reality

2. The media sometimes reproduce press release which have no bearing on original material
3. Press releases are as expensive as direct advertising to promote business
122. According to the author of the passage,
1. Business has often no control over what appears in the media

2. The journalist ensures that what appears in the media is approved by the business
3. The journalist who creates a story is often employed by the business
4. The media is an extension of the business organization
123. The main concern of the passage is whether PR
1. has grown to assume the role of reputation management

2. is a subset of marketing
3. is an adjunct to a corporate function
4. is a function that is outsourced
1. Product endorsement is more than the weight of gold

2. The worth of product endorsement is more than that of gold
3. Product endorsement is better than a good review by a fashion writer
4. Product endorsement in the media is a very valuable process
125. Which of the following attributes may be associated with Jeremy Clarkson?
1. A fashion writer 2. A film critic 3. Sunday Times journalist 4. None of the above
126. The value of
 0.943 × 0.943 − 0.943 × 0.057 + 0.057 × 0.057 

 0.943 × 0.943 × 0.943 + 0.057 × 0.057 × 0.057 
1. 0.886 2. 1.1286 3. 0.32 4. None of these
127. What is the ratio whose terms differ by 40 and the measure of which is 2 ?
7
1. 16:56 2. 14:56 3. 15:56 4. 16: 72
128. In covering a distance of 30 km. Amit takes 2 hours more than Suresh. If Amit doubles his speed, he would take 1
hour less than Suresh. Amit’s speed is:
1. 5 km/hour 2. 7.5 km/hour 3. 6 km/hour 4. 6.25 km/hour
129. 21 mango trees. 42 apple trees and 56 orange trees have to be planted in rows such that each row contains
the same number of trees of one variety only. Minimum number of rows in which the trees may be
planted is:
1. 20 2. 17 3. 15 4. 3
130. If the ratio between the roots of the equation lx2 + nx + n = 0 is p : q, then the value of
p q n is:
+ +
q p l
1. 4 2. 3 3. 0 4. –1
a b
131. Let − = x : y. If (x – y) =  a + b  , then x is equal to:
b a b a
a+b a+b a−b

1. 2. 3. 4. None of these
a b a
132. Value of k for which (x-1) is a factor of (x3 - k) is:
1. –1 2. 1 3. 8 4. –8
133. The altitude of equilateral triangle of side 2 3 cm is:
1. 3 2. 1 cm 3.
3 4. 3 cm
cm cm
2 2 4
134. The sum of the ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five years of ago, the product of their ages was 4 times the
father’s age at that time. The present ages of the father and son respectively are:
1. 35 years, 10 years 2. 36 years, 9 years 3. 39 years, 6 years 4. None of these
135. a b c a +b + c
= = , then = ?
3 4 7 c
1. 1 2. 1 3. 2 4. 7
7 2
136. If log10 (x2 - 6x + 45) = 2, then the values of x are:
1. 6, 9 2. 9, -5 3. 10, 5 4. 11, -5
137. If k-2, 2k + 1 and 6k + 3 are in G.P.. the value of k is
1. 7 2. 0 3. 3 4. –2
138. A circular disc of area 0.49 Π square meters rolls down a length of 1.76 km. The number of revolutions it makes is:
1. 300 2. 400 3. 600 4. 4000
139. A 4 cm. cube is cut into 1 cm. cubes. The total surface area of all the small cubes is:
1. 96 cm2 2. 24 cm2 3. 384 cm2 4. None of these
140. If log10 125 + log10 8=x, then x is equal to:
1. –3 2. 3
1 3. 4. 0.064
3
141. A man covers a certain distance on scooter. Had he moved 3kmph faster, he would have taken 40 minutes
less. If he had moved 2kmph slower, he would have taken 40 minutes more. The distance (in km) is:
1. 20 2. 36 3. 37.5 4. 40
142. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days; B and C in 15 days; C and A in 20 days. In how many days can A
alone do it?
2
1. 30 2. 24 3.15 4. None of these
3
143. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the river is running at 1 kmph, it takes him 75 minutes to row to a
place and back. How far is the place?
1. 2.5 km 2. 3 km 3. 4 km 4. 5 km
144. The area of the largest circle that can be drawn inside a rectangle with sides 7m by 6m, is:
2 2 8 2 2 2
1. 28 m 2. 64 m 3. 59 m 4. None of these
7 39 3
145. The sum of all even natural numbers less than 100 is:
1. 2450 2. 2272 3. 2352 4. 2468
146. Two trains running in the same direction at 40 kmph and 22 kmph completely pass one another in 1 minute.
If the length of the first train is 125 m, the length of the second train is:
1. 125 m 2. 150 m 3. 175 m 4. 200 m
147. The solution of the equations 3 x − y + 1 = 2 x + y + 2 = 3 x + 2 y + 1 is given by

3 5 6
1. x=2, y=l 2. x=l, y=l 3. x=-l, y=-l 4.x=l, y=2
148. The area of a rectangle gets reduced by 9m2 if its length is reduced by 5m and breath is increased by 3m. If we
increase the length by 3m and breath by 2m, the area is increased by 67 m2. The length of the rectangle is:
1. 9 m 2. 15.6 m 3. 17 m 4. 18.5 m
149. A dinner party is to be fixed for a group of 100 persons. In this party, 50 persons do not prefer fish, 60 prefer
chicken and 10 do not prefer either chicken or fish. The number of persons who prefer both fish and chicken is:
1. 20 2. 30 3. 40 4. 10
150. There are two examination halls, P and Q. If 10 students are sent from P to Q, then the number of students in
each room is same. If 20 students are sent from Q to P, then the number of students in P is double of that in Q.
The number of students in P and Q respectively are:
1. 60, 40 2. 70, 50 3. 80, 60 4. 100, 80
151. The average of marks obtained in 120 students was 35. If the average of passed candidate was 39 and that
of failed candidates was 15, the number of candidates who passed the examination is:
1 . 100 2. 110 3. 120 4. 150
152. Consider the following statements:

A. If ax = b, by = c, cz = a, then xyz = 0
B. If p = ax , q = ay , (py qx) = a 2, then xyz = 1
C. If xa = yb = zc and ab + bc + ca = 0, then xyz = 1
Of these statements:
1. A and B correct 2. B and C are correct 3. Only A is correct 4. A and C are correct
153. If 90 % of A = 30% of B and B = x % of A, then the value of x is:
1. 900 2. 800 3. 600 4. 300
154. In an examination, 52% of the candidates failed in English, 42% in mathematics and 17% in both. The number of
those who passed in both the subjects is:
1. 83% 2. 23% 3. 64% 4. 55.5%
155. For a sphere of radius 10 cm, what percent of the numerical value of its volume would be the numerical value of
the surface area?
1. 26.5% 2. 24% 3. 30% 4. 45%
a
156. If 0 . 04 × 0 . 4 × a = 0.4 × 0.04 × b , then is:
b
1. 0.016 2. 0.16 3. 1 4. 16
157. Five bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 7, 8, 9, and 12 seconds. How many
times they will toll together in one hour, excluding the one at the start?
1. 3 2. 5 3. 7 4. 9
158. If x, y and z are real numbers such that x < y and z < 0, then the statement which is true is
 x  y z  z
1. xz < yz 2.  <  3.   >   4. xz > yz
z  z  x  y
159. If a number of two digits is k times the sum of its digits, then the number formed by interchanging the digits
is the sum of the digits multiplied by:
1. 9 + k 2. 10-k 3. ll- k 4. k-l
160. When simplified the product  2 − 1   2 − 3   2 − 5 .......... ........  2 − 997  is:

 3  5  7  999 
5 1001 1 1001
1. 2. 3. 4.
999 999 1001 3
161. A certain job was assigned to a group of men to do in 20 days. But 12 men did not turn up for the job and
the remaining men did the job in 32 days. The original number of men in the group was:
1. 32 2. 34 3. 36 4. 40
162. The ratio between the rates of walking of A and B is 2 : 3 and therefore A takes 10 minutes more than the time
taken by B to reach the destination. If A had walked at double the speed, he would have covered the distance in
1. 15 minutes 2. 20 minutes 3. 25 minutes 4. 30 minutes
163. A dishonest dealer sells his goods at the cost price and still earns a profit of 25 % by under weighing. What weight
does he use for a kilogram?
1. 750 gm 2. 800 gm 3. 825 gm 4. 850 gm
164. Profit after selling an article for Rs. 425 is the same as loss after selling it for Rs. 355. The cost of the article is:
1. Rs. 385 2. Rs. 390 3. Rs. 395 4. Rs. 400
165. If 3 x – 3 x - 1 = 18, then the value of xx is:
1. 3 2. 8 3. 27 4. 216
 1  1
If  x + 4  = 322, the value of  x −  is:
4
166.
 x   x
1. 4 2. 6 3. 8 4. 3 2
167. If x 1 / 3 + y 1 / 3 + z 1 / 3 = 0,then
1. x + y + z = 0 2. (x + y + z)3 = 27 xyz 3. x + y + z = 3 xyz 4. x 3 +y 3 + z 3 =0
3 (12+ n ) × 9 ( 2 n −7 )
168 The value of is:
35 n
1 9 1 2
1. 2. 3. 4.
3 13 9 3
16 9. 2 , 3 4 and 4 6 in ascending order are:
1. 2, 3
4,4 6 2. 4
6 ,3 4 , 2 3. 2 ,4 6 ,3 4 4. 4
6 , 2 ,3 4
170. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5:1. On adding 5 litres of water, the ratio of milk and water
becomes 5:2, The quantity of milk in the original mixture is:
1 . 16 litre 2. 22.75 litres 3. 25 litres 4. 32.5 litres
171. S varies directly as R varies and T varies inversely as R varies. At a time R = 20, S = 40 and T = 10. If R
is changed to 10, then the value of T will he:
1. 20 2. 10 3. 40 4. 80
The value of 1 − x ÷ 1 + x ×
4 2
172. 1 is:
1+ x x x (1 − x )
1
1. 2. 1 + x 3. 1 – x2 4. 1
x
173. If ax = b, by = c and cz = a, then xyz equals:
1. abc 2. 1 3. 1 4. None of these

abc
174. The value of  1 + 1 

1+
1 
1+
1 
1+
1  is:
 x + 1   x + 2   x + 3   x + 4 

1. 1 + 1 2. 1 3. x + 1 4. x + 5
x + 5 x + 5 x + 5 x +1
175. A rectangular carpet has an area of 60m2. Its diagonal and longer side together equal 5 times the shorter side. The
length of the carpet is:
1. 5 m 2. 12 m 3. 13 m 4. 14.5 m
Sample Paper FMS 2005

Key, Explanations & Analysis
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Answer Key to Sample Paper FMS 2005

1. 2 46. 4 91. 3 136. 4
2. 4 47. 1 92. 3 137. 1
3. 2 48. 3 93. 4 138. 2
4. 1 49. 3 94. 1 139. 3
5. 2 50. 2 95. 2 140. 2
6. 2 51. 4 96. 4 141. 2
7. 4 52. 1 97. 3 142. 1
8. 2 53. 1 98. 3 143. 2
9. 3 54. 3 99. 2 144. 1
10. 3 55. 2 100. 3 145. 1
11. 1 56. 4 101. 2 146. 3
12. 4 57. 1 102. 3 147. 2
13. 2 58. 2 103. 2 148. 3
14. 1 59. 2 104. 4 149. 1
15. 4 60. 4 105. 2 150. 4
16. 4 61. 4 106. 2 151. 1
17. 2 62. 3 107. 2 152. 2
18. 3 63. 1 108. 2 153. 4
19. 4 64. 3 109. 4 154. 2
20. 3 65. 4 110. 1 155. 3
21. 1 66. 1 111. 2 156. 1
22. 3 67. 1 112. 3 157. 3
23. 3 68. 3 113. 3 158. 4
24. 2 69. 2 114. 2 159. 3
25. 3 70. 3 115. 2 160. 4
26. 1 71. 3 116. 1 161. 1
27. 3 72. 2 117. 4 162. 1
28. 2 73. 1 118. 3 163. 2
29. 2 74. 1 119. 1 164. 2
30. 4 75. 1 120. 4 165. 3
31. 2 76. 3 121. 4 166. 1
32. 1 77. 2 122. 1 167. 2
33. 4 78. 2 123. 1 168. 3
34. 4 79. 2 124. 4 169. 3
35. 3 80. 1 125. 3 170. 3
36. 2 81. 3 126. 4 171. 1
37. 1 82. 4 127. 1 172. 4
38. 4 83. 2 128. 1 173. 3
39. 4 84. 4 129. 2 174. 4
40. 3 85. 3 130. 1 175. 2
41. 3 86. 3 131. 2
42. 2 87. 3 132. 2
43. 1 88. 1 133. 4
44. 2 89. 2 134. 2
45. 1 90. 3 135. 3
Explanations to Sample Paper FMS 2005

Q. Answer Explanation
No. Key
Q 1-18: Dictionary work
1. 2
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
5. 2
6. 2
7. 4
8. 2
9. 3 Scad means abundance, opposite would be shortage, or dearth.
10. 3 Limber is lithe, flexible, opposite would be sturdy.
11. 1 Obliquity is deviation, opposite would be straight.
12. 4 Spunk is courage, mettle; opposite would be timidity.
13. 2 Stilted is stiff and unnatural; opposite would be informal.
14. 1 Prevaricate is evasive or equivocate; opposite would be truthful.
15. 4 To bilk is to cheat; opposite would be pay in full.
16. 4 Cavil is to object, opposite would be to commend.
17. 2 Nettle is to irritate; opposite would be to mollify.
18. 3 Splenetic is bad tempered; opposite would be cordial.
19. 4 Captain avoids shoal, soldier avoids ambush.
20. 3 The words are opposites.
21. 1 Geologist studies shale; botanist studies aster.
22. 3 Tools of the trade.
23. 3 One renounces the other.
24. 2 Because it disturbs, the word should be suspicion.
25. 3 We were amazed because an ordinary (pedestrian) speaker spoke very well.
26. 1 vaporize – volatile are matching.
27. 3 shocking matches with fraudulent and deceptive.
28. 2 universal acclaim means that she was at her peak.
29. 2 Mr Modi believes that common sense is necessary to run a company, that is why he is
disappointed with his sons since they lack common sense.
30. 4 If the reporting of injuries was less, then the report conclusions would have been different.
31. 2 We get the following pairs: RS, TV, VP. If P = 2, then N must be at 1, hence RS = 3.
32. 1 If P = 1 and V = 2 then N = 3, which violates the third condition.
33. 4 from Q. 31.
34. 4 The order is V, S, D, A, T
35. 3 If C = 4, then U = 5, which violates the last condition.
36. 2 U must be in the group, and either D or T must be included too.
37. 1 If C = 3, U = 4 and D/T = 5. If B = 2, then S must come after 2, which is impossible.
38. 4
39. 4
We get the foll diagrams: M O N
K L
J P
From N, 2 towns, namely O and P can be reached.
40. 3 From the above, NO ≠ PN.
41. 3 MN = MKJON. If each length = 1, then MN = 4. Now route from P to L = POJKL = 4.
42. 2
43. 1 Directly inferred from the given fact, since employment in private sector increased.
44. 2 Condition (ii) says that Sohail lost all 3 games, hence his score should be 0-3.
45. 1 Highest could be Shah Rukh or Salman.
46. 4 from Q. 43.
47. 1
48. 3 When more productive employees are transferred, it means atmosphere is a result of, and not a
cause of productivity.
49. 3 We get the foll order:
1 Kavita U K
2 Sadhna B G
3 Asha S T
4 UK P
5 Lata M S
Now all the questions can be answered.
50. 2 from the above
51. 4
52. 1 By both systems, flawless products rejected are 4% of 4% = 0.16%.
53. 1
54. 3 The positions are: Gupta (1-4), vacant = 5, Maurya (6-7) vacant = 8, Indus (9-11), vacant = 12.
55. 2 Y cannot be on 9 as there would be no place to fix 3 objects.
56. 4 QZX have to be together. They can start from table 1 or 2.
57. 1
58. 2
59. 2 WW BB RY, B or G = 7.
60. 4
61. 4 If we use RBY, then G cannot be used.
62. 3
63. 1
64. 3 If M is on the team, then we can have any combination of TASJ or R on the team.
65. 4 If A is in Orange, the other members can be (two out of) MSJ. Then Blue team can have RKMJ
(R/S).
66. 1 We get the foll diagram:
A DB XM BB
B = R = O = I = B
‫׀׀‬ ‫׀׀‬
Y G V
Home CC FB
To go to AB, one must pass through R and O.

67. 1 from the above
68. 3 From FB, he has to go to I and O.
69. 2 Y must be published in August, otherwise there would be no place for W. The only correct choice is (2).
70. 3 Same as Q 69.
71. 3 None of U, V, W can be repeated, and Y must be in the selection.
72. 2 R cannot be later than S. Only choice (2) satisfies this condition.
73. 1 The order for entry is: RMTS. Then order for leaving can only be MRST.
74. 1 Order for entry is MRTS. For leaving, S cannot be 4, so she must be 2 or 3. In that case, R must be 1.
75. 1 If B = 6, then P = 4 or 5. Since C<V, then C cannot occupy 4 or 5, hence C cannot be in top 3 positions.
76. 3 Since 5 is closed, P = 4. If A = 1, then V can be on any of 6, 7 or 3. Similarly B can be at 6, 7 or 2.
77. 2 We can have C = 1, then P = 4. In this case, both A or B could be 7.
78. 2 If C = 5, A has to be at 1.
79. 2 “Just because an idea was useful in one company at one moment in time does not mean it will always
work.”
80. 1 Directly stated (1st para): “Gradually ideas and models emerged that provided the necessary structure
to the chaos of anecdotal memories.”
81. 3 First line: “Early books on business strategy aimed to structure and codify the many documentary
histories and memoirs of business leaders.”
82. 4 “At the business level a business needs to ask itself, ‘How do we compete?’ It is at this latter level
that we position our thinking.”
83. 2 In the second line, the author says that they contained “precious little theory or models drawn from
economics or other social sciences.” Hence statement (2) is not true.
84. 4 “How we think about business strategy has evolved and changed as new and better ideas have
become more widely known and accepted and as the needs of business have changed.”
85. 3 “Business strategy has had many definitions but these are two that give a sense of what is involved
irrespective of where we are in time.”
86. 3 First line of the second paragraph answers this question.
87. 3 Explained in the second paragraph: “A company’s ability to match itself to its environment can be
assessed in turn by listing its main strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats, the now familiar
SWOT analysis.”
88. 1 It is stated that “any organization can identify how to match itself to the changing needs and views of
the most important part of its environment, its customers.”
89. 2 Clearly stated: “…commercial organizations should invest time and money in creating a strategy.”
90. 3 SWOT analysis, as stated in the passage, is “the logical starting points for any business…” hence (3).
91. 3 “A century ago the multinational was the exception… Most business were small and local.”
92. 3 “Gap analysis is still a relevant technique that can …specifically how to bridge the gap between
their existing financial performance and where they would like the business to be in the future.”
93. 4 The passage says that gap analysis has “one key weakness.” Hence we cannot say that is one or
many weaknesses.
94. 1 “…the analogy of strategy as evolution where a series of often random events occur… is not too far
from reality.” Hence we can say that strategies often evolve.
95. 2 The passage answers the question of how to formalise strategies by answering, “The best answer
will probably be a combination of direction and evolution…”
96. 4 The paragraph on strategy mentions clarity of objectives, radical ideas and clarity, hence (4).
97. 3 Clear upon reading of the passage.
98. 3 “…the financial planning flow and the strategic planning flow. They interact and often conflict.”
99. 2 Directly stated: “Even among some apparently better performing organizations employee turnover
can be an issue.”
100. 3 “If the organization is in a stable environment… In such a case the financial flow will dominate
management thinking.”
101. 2 Very simple, the other choices are illogical. Anyway it is clearly stated in the passage: “Senior
management’s role is to set targets…”
102. 3 “Tactics are the shorter term, day-to-day matters … for example a sales target of four customer calls a
day, a production plan for 50 tonnes of product.”
103. 2 First line of the passage: The view of some was…”
104. 4 Second line of the opening paragraph: “media is central to both reputation building and defence…”
105. 2 Directly stated in first paragraph.
106. 2 He was humorous and poking fun.
107. 2 “The reputation of one company can affect another it is associated with.”
108. 2 Second paragraph.
109. 4 “certain styles of Ford vehicle fitted with certain Firestone tyres…” It can be inferred that small
numbers of Fors vehicles were fitted with Firestone tyres.
110. 1 It is stated that a brand recall had taken place in 1970s.
111. 2 “a business relationship that had begun when Harvey Firestone had agreed to supply tyres for Henri
Ford’s model T.”
112. 3 “Ford, whose dealers … presumably felt that they benefited by having a Firestone brand on the tyres
it put on to its vehicles…”
113. 3 “The ‘Intel inside’ sticker became as important to have on your computer as any maker’s brand
name…”
114. 2 “It was only when IBM stopped shipping machines with the faulty chips…”
115. 2 Andy Grove is mentioned as CEO of Intel.
116. 1 It is said that PR is rarely a strategic function but it can affect an organisation in medium to
long term.
117. 4 “many examples where PR can affect an organization or its products…” second last paragraph.
118. 3 “forerunner and a parody of advertising…”
119. 1 from Q 118.
120. 4 The job of the PR person is to make “the most negative of incident reflect well on his or her
client,” hence it does not reflect a true picture.
121. 4 Second paragraph: “the media will sometimes reproduce press releases with little or no original
work …”
122. 1 “the lack of control the business has over what actually appears in print…”
123. 1 “But the main issue with PR for us is whether the function is evolving into a Reputation Management
role.”
124. 4 Third paragraph: “Product endorsement in the media can be worth more than its weight in gold…”
125. 3 Directly stated in the last paragraph.
126. 4 The expression is of the form: (a2 – ab + b2)/(a + b)(a2 – ab + b2) = 1/(a + b). Here a = 0.943 and b
= 0.057. The expression 1/(a + b) = 1/1 = 1.
127. 1 The answer choices are wrong. The ratio which has the measure of 2/7 with a difference of 40 is
16 : 56.
128. 1 Let the speeds of Amit and Suresh be a and s respectively. Then, equating the time we get: 30/s +
2 = 30/a. Also, 30/s – 1 = 30/2a. Solving these equations, we get 30/a – 30/2a = 3; or a = 5.
Alternately we can work from the choices if A = 5, then he takes 6 hours, while S takes 4 hours. If
A = 10, then he takes 3 hours, which is less than S by 1.
129. 2 To contain the same number of trees in each row, we need the HCF of 21, 42 and 56. This is 7.
Hence number of rows = (21 + 42 + 56)/7 = 119/7 = 17.
130. 1 The best way (and the shortest) to do this sum is to think of a quadratic equation, say x2 + 4x + 4
= 0. Then p/q = 1 and n/l = 4. The given term then becomes √p/q + √q/p + √n/l = 1 + 1 + 2 = 4.
131. 2
132. 2 Using remainder theorem, if (x – 1) is a factor of (x3 – k), then x = 1 should satisfy the given term,
hence 1 – k = 0; or k = 1.
133. 4 Side = 2√3. Then, using Pythagoras, we get AD2 = AC2 - DC2 ⇒ (2√3)2 – (√3)2 = 9. Hence AD =
√9 = 3. A
2√3
√3
B D C
134. 2 Working from the choices, using choice (2): five years ago their ages were 31 and 4 respectively.
Product is 4 times the father’s age. Hence answer is (2).
135. 3 Let a/3 = b/4 = c/7 = k. Then, (a + b + c)/c = (3k + 4k + 7k)/7k = 14k/7k = 2.
136. 4 If log10 (x2 – 6x + 45) = 2, then (x2 – 6x + 45) = 100 ⇒ x2 – 6x – 55 = 0 ⇒ (x - 11)(x – 5) = 0, or
x = 11 or – 5.
137. 1 If a, b c are in GP, then b2 = ac. Hence (2k + 1)2 = (k – 2)(6k + 3). Solving the equation, we get:
2k2 – 13k – 7 = 0 ⇒ (2k + 1)(k – 7) = 0; hence k = 7.
138. 2 Area πr2 = 0.49π ⇒ r = √0.49 = 0.7 m. Circumference = 2 × 22/7 × 0.7 × n = 1760 m, where n is
the number of times that the disc rotates. Hence, n = 1760/4.4 = 400.
139. 3 Total number of smaller cubes = 43 = 64. Surface area of small cubes = 64 × 6 = 384.
140. 2 log10 (125 × 8) = x ⇒ 10x = 1000, hence x = 3.
141. 2
142. 1 Adding up the work for one day, we get 2A + 2B + 2C = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20 = 12/60 = 1/5⇒ A +
B + C = 1/10. A = A + B + C – (B + C) = 1/10 – 1/15 = 1/30 ⇒ A does it in 30 days.
143. 2 From the give data, speed up = 4 and speed down = 6. Then time = D/4 + D/6 = 5/4 hrs, where D
is the distance. Solving the equation, we get D = 3.
144. 1 Radius of the largest circle that can be drawn in the rectangle of 7 × 6 will be 3. Area = 9π = 28
2/7.
7
145. 1 The even numbers form an AP with a = 2, d = 2 and n = 49. Sum = n/2 (2a + (n – 1)d) = 49/2
(100) = 49 × 50 = 2450.
146. 3 Let the length of the second train be x. Then distance to be covered = (125 + x). Speed = 40 – 22
= 18 km/h or 5 m/s. Then time taken = (125 + x)/5 = 60 ⇒ x = 175.

147. 2 Simply substitute from the given choices. When x = 1, y = 1, then all the terms become 1.
148. 3 Let length be x and breadth be y. We get 2 equations: (x – 5)(y + 3) = xy – 9, and (x +3)(y + 2) =
xy +67. Solving the two equations, we get x = 17.
149. 1 If x is the number of people who prefer both, then 60 + 50 – x = 90. Hence x = 20.
150. 4 Work from the choices. 100 – 10 = 80 + 10 and 100 + 20 = 2 × (80 – 20). Hence (4).
151. 1 Let x be the number of pass candidates. Then total marks = 39x + (120 – x) × 15 = 120 × 35.
Solving the equation, we get x = 100.
152. 2 A is wrong, since xyz = 1. B and C are true.
153. 4 90%A = 30% B ⇒ B = 3A, or B = 300% of A.
154. 2 Total fail = 35 + 17 + 25 = 77 Hence pass = 100 – 77 = 23.
E 3 1 2 M
155. 3 Reqd. ratio = (4πr2)/(4/3 πr3) where r = 10 ⇒ 3/10 = 30%.

156. 1 Squaring both sides we get 0.016a = (0.016)2 × b; hence a/b = 0.016.
157. 3 The bells would toll together at LCM of 6, 7, 8, 9, 12, which is 504 seconds. Number of times =
3600/504 = 7.
158. 4 If x < y, then multiplying both sides by a negative quantity will reverse the inequality.
159. 3 Take an example: 42 = (4 + 2) × 7, so k = 7. Then 24 = (4 + 2) × (11 – 7).
160. 4 The expression becomes 5/3 × 7/5 × 9/7 × … × 1001/999. The terms get crossed out to leave
1001/3.
161. 1 Let the number of men be x Then total work = 20x = (x – 12) × 32. Solving, we get x = 32.
162. 1 Speed ratio = 2 : 3. Hence time ratio = 3 : 2. Then, 3x – 2x = 10. This means that A takes 30
minutes. If he walks double, then he will take half the times, i.e.15 minutes.
163. 2 If the value of the goods is 100, then he gets 125 for them with a 25% profit. If he gets 1000 (for a
kg) then CP = 800.
164. 2 Let CP = x. Then, 425 – x = x – 355. Hence x = 390.
165. 3 Substitute x = 1, 2 3. We find the equation satisfied by x = 3 since 33 – 32 = 18. Hence xx = 33 =
27.
166. 1  1 
2
Adding 2 on both the sides and finding square root you get  x 2 + 2  = (18) 2 . This implies x2
 x 
+ 1/x2 = 18. Now subtracting 2 from both the sides and getting the square root you get
2
 1 2
 x −  = (4) . This gives you answer as 4, which is given in the first option.
 x
167. 2 x1/3 + y1/3 + z1/3 = 0, (x1/3)3 + (y1/3)3 + (z1/3)3 = 3x1/3 y1/3 z1/3 (if a+b+c = 0 then a3+b3+c3 = 3abc)
x + y + z = 3x1/3 y1/3 z1/3. Therefore, (x+y+z)3 = 27xyz.
168. 3 Reducing the expression to base 3 we get: (312 × 3n × 34n)/(314 × 35n) = 1/32 = 1/9.
169. 3 Raising all the terms to power 12, we get 26, 44, 63 = 64, 256, 216 and the correct order would be
64, 216 and 256.
170. 3 Milk = 5x water = 1x. Adding 5 of water, we get: 5x/(x + 5) = 5/2. Solving the equation, we get x
= 25.
171. 1 Resolving the given data, we get R = kS/T. Then 20 = (k × 40)/10, or k = 5. Now R = 10, then 10
= 5 × 40/T; hence T = 20.
172. 4 The expression is: (1 – x4)/(1 + x) × x/(1 + x2) × 1/x(1 – x). Solving the terms we get (1 – x4)/(1 –
x4) = 1.
173. 3 axyz = a, hence xyz = 1.
174. 4 The expression becomes: (x + 2)/(x + 1) × (x + 3)/(x + 2) × (x + 4)/(x + 3) × (x + 5)/(x + 4). All
the terms get cancelled out, leaving (x + 5)/(x + 1).
175. 2 Work from the choices. If l = 12, then b = 5. Also, 13 + 12 = 5 × 5 = 25. Hence (2).

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Sample Paper FMS 2005

Please read the Instructions for the test carefully

AFTER THE TEST

1. uproariously funny 2. tasteless 3. trend-setting 4. offensive

1. an artist’s first work 2. masterpiece 3. latest work 4. entire body of work

1. tonic 2. sedative 3. cleaning agent 4. sharp object

1. fussy 2. greedy 3. wholesome 4. spiteful

1. foreign 2. happy 3. tiring 4. mazelike

1. lingerie shop 2. restaurant 3. airline crew 4. souvenir

1. meadow 2. tall tale 3. meadow 4. mountain lake

1. dance step 2. card game 3. card board box 4. savoury dish

1. allocation 2. restraint 3. dearth 4. provision

1. orderly 2. gloomy 3. sturdy 4. stiff

1. straightforwardness 2. conformity 3. praise 4. self-righteousness

1. success 2. loss of prestige 3. lack of intelligence 4. consider thoughtfully

1. tentative 2. informal 3. verbose 4. senseless

1. state truthfully 2. postulate 3. emphasize 4. consider thoughtfully

1. reduce in size 2. make famous 3. renovate 4. pay in full

1. discern 2. disclose 3. introduce 4. commend

1. disentangle 2. mollify 3. magnify 4. muffle

1. lackluster 2. heartless 3. cordial 4. constant

19. CAPTAIN : SHOAL ::?

1. lawyer : litigation 2. pilot : radar 3. doctor : hospital 4. soldier : ambush

20. MENDACITY : HONESTY ::?

1. truth : beauty 2. courage : fortitude 3. courage : cravenness 4. turpitude : depravity

21. SHALE : GEOLOGIST ::?

1. aster : botanist 2. obelisk : fireman 3. love : philologist 4. reef : astrologer

22. AUGER : CARPENTER ::?

1. seam : seamstress 2. apron : chef 3. awl : cobbler 4. cement : mason

23. APOSTATE : RELIGION::?

1. potentate : kingdom 2. jailer : law 3. traitor : country 4. teacher : education

1. bewilderment 2. suspicion 3. veneration 4. recklessness

1. masterful 2. auspicious 3. pedestrian 4. accomplished

1. volatile 2. resilient 3. insipid 4. acerbic

1. comprehensive --- abstract 2. theoretical --- challenging

1. Tirthankar is assigned to Sector Pratham

1. Phaneesh to Sector Pratham and Visheshwar to Sector Tritiya

1. Phaneesh is assigned to Sector Pratham

• If Anubittasana is in a routine, Ushtrasana cannot be done in that routine

1. Bhujangasana, Chakrasana, Ushtrasana, Sukhasana, Tadasana

35. Which of the following is true of any permissible routine?

1. Anubittasana cannot be done third 2. Bhujangasana cannot be done third

1. Anubittasana, Sukhasana, Tadasana 2. Bhujangasana, Dhanurasana, Ushtrasana

1. Bhujangasana 2. Dhanurasana 3. Sukhasana 4. Tadasana

1. Jatajatin 2. Lezim 3. Mudivettu 4. Nautanki

1. Jatajatin to Kayanga 2. Kayanga to Lezim 3. Nautanki to Pandvani 4. Ojapali to Pandvani

1. Jatajatin 2. Kayanga 3. Lezim 4. Nautanki

1. Jatajatin, Ojapali 2. Jatajatin, Pandvani

1. Table 1, 2.5:1.5 2. Table 2, 3:0 3. Table 2, 2.5:1.5 4. Table 3, 2:1

45. Whose score is highest?

1. Salman 2. Saif 3. Sunny 4. Sunil

1. Salman 2. Sunny 3. Sunil 4. Sohail

47. Who is the winning player at Table 4?

1. Salman 2. Shakti 3. Shahrukh 4. Sanjay

49. What was purchased by the third person in line?

1, Kanjeevaram Silk Saree 2. Gadwal Silk Saree

1. Uthoop 2. Bhonsle 3. Sargam 4. Mangeshkar

51. What place was Lata in the queue?

1. First 2. Third 3. Fourth 4. Fifth

1. 1, 6, and 9 2. 1, 5, and 10 3. 5, 8, and 12 4. 5, 9, and 10

1. X is placed on Table 12 2. Y is placed on Table 9

1. The use of a needle always causes pain in the patient