Anda di halaman 1dari 158

Verbal

Verbal Section : Sentence Completions

Directions:

Each sentence below has one or two blanks. Each blank


shows that something has been omitted. Under each
sentence five words are given as choice. Choose the one
correct word for each blank that best fits the meaning of the
sentences as a whole.

1. The fact that the- of confrontation is no longer as


popular as it once was - procatss in race
relations.
A. insidiousness - reiterates
B. practice - inculcates
C. glimmer - foreshadows
D. technique - presages
E. reticence - indicates

Ans :D

2. A child should not be - as being either very shy or


over - agcatssive.
A. categorized
B. instructed
C. intoned
D. distracted
E. refrained

Ans :A

3. President Anwar el - Sadat of Egypt, disregarding


- criticism in the Alab world and in his own
Government, - accepted prime minister Menahem
Begin's invitation to visit Israel in order to
address the Israeli parliament.
A. acrimonious - formally
B. blemished - stiffly
C. categorical - previously
D. malignant - plaintively
E. charismatic - meticulously

Ans :A

4. In his usual - manner, he had insured himself


against this type of loss.
A. pensive
B. providential
C. indifferent
D. circumspect
E. caustic

Ans :D

5. We never believed that he would resort to - in


order to achieve his goal; we always regarded
him as a - man.
A. charm - insincere
B. necromancy - pietistic
C. logic - honorable
D. prestidigitation - articulate
E. subterfuge - honest

Ans :E

6. The Sociologist responded to the charge that her


new theory was - by pointing out that it did not in
fact contradict accepted sociological principles.
A. unproven
B. banal
C. superficial
D. complex
E. heretical

Ans :E

7. Despite assorted effusion to the contrary, there


is no necessary link between scientific skill and
humanism, and quite possibly, there may be
something of a - between them.
A. dichotomy
B. congruity
C. reciprocity
D. fusion
E. generosity

Ans :E

8. The most technologically advanced societies


have been responsible for the catatest - indeed
savagery seems to be indirect proposition to -
A. inventions - know-how
B. wars - viciousness
C. triumphs - civilizations
D. atrocities - development
E. catastrophes - ill-will

Ans :D

9. Ironically, the party leaders encountered no


catater - their efforts to build as Procatssive
Party than the - of the procatssive already
elected to the legislature.
A. obstacle to - resistance
B. support for - advocacy
C. praise for - reputation
D. threat to - promise
E. benefit - success

Ans :A

10. The simplicity of the theory - its main attraction -


is also its - for only by - the assumptions of the
theory is it possible to explain the most recent
observations made by researchers.
A. glory - rejecting
B. liability - accepting
C. undoing - supplementing
D. downfall - considering
E. virtue - qualifying

Ans : C

11. That the Third Battalion's fifty percent casually


rate transformed its assault on Hill 306 from a
brilliant stratagem into a debacle does not -
eyewitness reports of its commander's extra-
ordinary - in deploying his forces.
A. invalidate - brutality
B. gainsay - cleverness
C. underscore - ineptitude
D. justify - rapidity
E. corroborate -determination

Ans : B

12. No longer - by the belief that the world around us


was expressly designed for humanity, many
people try to find intellectual - for that lost
certainty in astrology and in mysticism.
A. satisfied - reasons
B. reassured - justifications
C. restricted - parallels
D. sustained - substitutes
E. hampered - equivalents

Ans : D

13. In eighth-century Japan, people who - wasteland


were rewarded with official ranks as part of an
effort to overcome the shortage of - fields.
A. cultivated - domestic
B. located - desirable
C. conserved - forested
D. reclaimed - arable
E. irrigated - accessible.

Ans :D
14. Clearly refuting sceptics, researchers have - not
only that gravitational radiation exists but that it
also does exactly what the theory- it should do.
A. assumed - deducted
B. estimated - accepted
C. supposed - asserted
D. doubted - warranted
E. demonstrated - predicted.

Ans :E

15. Melodramas, which presented stark oppositions


between innocence and criminality, virtue and
corruption, good and evil, were popular precisely
because they offered the audience a world - of -
A. deprived - polarity
B. full - circumstantiality
C. bereft - theatricality
D. devoid - neutrality
E. composed - adversity.

Ans :D

16. Sponsors of the bill were-because there was no


opposition to it within the legislative, until after
the measure had been signed into law.
A. well-intentioned
B. persistent
C. detained
D. unreliable
E. relieved.

Ans :B

17.Ecology, like economics, concerns itself with the


movement of valuable - through a complex
network of producers and consumers.
A. nutrients
B. dividends
C. communications
D. artifacts
E. commodities.

Ans :C

18. Having fully embraced the belief that


government by persuasion is preferable to
government by - the leaders of the movement
have recently - most of their previous statements
supporting totalitarianism.
A. proclamation - codified
B. coercion - repudiated
C. participation - moderated
D. intimidation - issued
E. demonstration - deliberated.

Ans :B

19.It would be difficult for one so - to be led to


believe that all men are equal and that we must
disregard race, color and creed.
A. tolerant
B. democratic
C. broadminded
D. emotional
E. intolerant.

Ans :E

20.Many philosophers agree that the verbal


aggression of profanity in certain redical
newspapers is not - or childish, but an assault on
- essential to the revolutionary's purpose.
A. insolent - sociability
B. trivial - decorum
C. belligerent - fallibility
D. serious - propriety
E. deliberate - affectation.

Ans :B
21.The - tones of the flute succeeded in - his tense
nerves.
A. rhapsodic - minimising
B. blatant - enhancing
C. hovendous - calming
D. vibrant - portraying
E. mellifluous - soothing.

Ans :E

22. Without the psychiatrist's promise of


confidentiality, trust is - and the patient's
communication limited; even though
confidentiality can thus be seen to be precious in
thercopy, moral responsibility sometimes
requires a willingness to - it.
A. lost - forget
B. implicit - extend
C. impaired - sacrifise
D. ambiguous - apply
E. assumed - examine.

Ans :C

23.Parts of seventeenth-century Chinese pleasure


gardens were not necessarily intended to look
-they were designed expressly to evoke the
agreeable melancholy resulting from a sense of
the - of natural beauty and human glory.
A. great - immutability
B. joyful - mortality
C. conventional - wildness
D. cheerful - transitoriness
E. colorful - abstractness.

Ans :D

24. Despite the - of many of their colleagues, some


scholars have begun to emphasize ''pop culture''
as a key for - the myths, hopes, and fears of
contemporary society.
A. pedantry - reinstating
B. enthusiasm - symbolizing
C. skepticism - deciphering
D. antipathy - involving
E. discernment - evaluating.

Ans :C

25.If duty is the natural - of one's the course of


future events, then people who are powerful
have duty placed on them whether they like it or
not.
A. outgrowth - control over
B. arbiter - responsibility for
C. correlate - understanding of
D. determinant - involvement in
E. mitigant - preoccupation with .

Ans :A

26.Clearly refuting sceptics, researches have - not


only that gravitational radiation exists but that it
also does exactly what the theory - it should do.
A. supposed - asserted
B. voubted -warranted
C. assumed - deduced
D. demonstrated - predicted
E. estimated - accepted

Ans :D

27.The Neolatonists' conception of a deity, in which


perfection was measured by abundant fecundity,
was contradicted by that of the Aristotelians, in
which perfection was displayed in the - of
creation.
A. variety
B. economy
C. profusion
D. clarity
E. precision.

Ans :B

28.It is a great - to be able to transfer useful genes


with as little extra gene material as possible,
because the donor's genome may contain, in
addition to desirable genes, many genes with -
effects.
A. Disappointment - superfluous
B. Convenience - exquisite
C. Advantage - deleterious
D. Accomplishment - profound
E. Misfortune - unpredictable.

Ans :C

29. While admitting that the risks incurred by use of


the insecticide were not - the manufacturer's
spokesperson argued that effective - were simply
not available.
A. indeterminable - safeguards
B. unusual - alternatives
C. inconsequential - substitutes
D. proven - antidotes
E. increasing - procedures.

Ans :C

30. Human reaction to the realm of though is often


as strong as that to sensible presences; our
higher moral life is based on the fact that -
sensations actually present may have a weaker
influence on our action than do ideas of - facts.
A. emotional - impersonal
B. familiar : symbolic
C. disturbing - ordinary
D. material - remote
E. defenitive - controvoisial.
31. Ans :D Some scientists argue that carbon
compounds play such a central role in life on
earth because of the possibility of - resulting
from the carbon atom's ability to form an
unending series of different molecules.
A. variety
B. stability
C. deviations
D. invigorations
E. reproduction.

Ans :A

32.It would be difficult for one so - to be led to


believe that all men are equal and that we must
disregard race, color and creed.
A. intolerant
B. democratic
C. emotional
D. patient
E. broadminded.

Ans :A

33.An occasional - remark spoiled the - that made


the paper memorable.
A. colloquial
B. trite - cliches
C. urbane - sophisticated
D. hackneyed - originality
E. jovial - fun.

Ans :D

34. Broadway audiences have become inured to - and


so - to be pleased as to make their ready
ovations meaningless as an indicator of the
quality of the production before them.
A. cleverness : eager
B. condescension : disinclined
C. sentimentality : reluctant
D. mediocrity : desperate
E. histrionics : unlikely

Ans :D

35. Nineteenth - century scholars, by examining


earlier geometric Greek art, found that classical
Greek art was not a magical - or a brilliant -
blending Egyptian and Assyruin art, but was
independently evolved by Greeks in Greece.
A. conversion - annexation
B. apparition - amalgam
C. stratagem - appropriation
D. paradigm - construct
E. example - synthesis

Ans :B

36.The struggle of the generations is one of the


obvious constants of human affairs; therefore, it
may be presumptuous to suggest that the rivalry
between young and old in western society during
the current decade is - critical.
A. archetypally
B. perennially
C. disturbingly
D. uniquely
E. cautiously

Ans :D

37. Even though in today's Soviet union the - Muslim


clergy have been accorded power and privileges,
the Muslim laity and the rank - and - file clergy
still. Have little - to practice their religion.
A. adversaries of - inclination
B. traditionalists among - incentive
C. practitioners among - opportunity
D. leaders of - latitude
E. dissidents within -obligation

Ans :D

38. Unlike the Shakespearean plays, The ''closet


dramas'' of the nineteenth century were meant to
be - rather than -
A. seen - acted
B. read - acted
C. produced - acted
D. quiet - loud
E. sophisticated - urbane

Ans :B

39. The little - known but rapidly expanding use of


computers in mapmaking is technologically
similar to the more - uses in designing everything
from bolts to satellites.
A. ingenuous
B. recent
C. secure
D. publicized
E. successful

Ans :D

40. Although his out numbered troops fought


bravely, the general felt he had no choice but to -
defeat and - a retreat.
A. oversee - reject
B. acknowledge - order
C. hasten - suggest
D. seek - try
E. overcome - request

Ans :B
41.No hero of ancient or modern times can surpass
the Indian with his lofty contempt of death and
the - with which he sustained the cruelest
coffliction.
A. guide
B. assent
C. reverence
D. fortitude
E. concern

Ans :D

42.The hostess attempted to - a romantic


atmosphere that would bring the two young
people together in -
A. expand - fealty
B. present - collusion
C. simulate - conflict
D. introduce - cacophony
E. contrive - matrimony

Ans :E

43. Employers who retire people who are willing and


able to continue working should realize that - age
is not an effective - in determining whether an
individual is capable of working.
A. intellectual - criterion
B. Chronological - criterion
C. Physical - barrier
D. deteriorating - value
E. chronological - factor

Ans :B

44. As the sun rose, the morning mists were borne


away on the - like strands of -
A. whirlwind - flotsam
B. wind - cactus
C. morass - tundra
D. zephyr - gossamer
E. holocaust - taffeta

Ans :D

45. The playwright was known not for his original


ideas that had been propounded by others.
A. rejection
B. consideration
C. invention
D. reiteration
E. plagiarism

Ans :E

46. The gypsy girl, decked out in - finery, and with


her disheveled hair streaming over shoulders,
was indeed a - sight.
A. verdant - wistful
B. sartorial - flagrant
C. specious - poignant
D. tawdry - bizarre
E. opulent - debonair

Ans :D

47. Yellow fever, the disease that killed 4,000


Philadelphians in 1793, and so - Memphis,
Tennessee, that the city lost its charter, has
reappeared after nearly two decades in - in the
western hemisphere.
A. disabled - quarantine
B. decimated - abeyance
C. terrorized - contention
D. ravaged - secret
E. coupled - quiescence

Ans :B
48.The painting was larger than it appeared to be,
for hanging in a darkened recess of the chapel, it
was - by the perspective.
A. embellished
B. improved
C. jeopardised
D. aggrandized
E. diminished

Ans :E

49. We have in America - speech that is neither


American, Oxford English, nor English but a - of
all three.
A. motley - miracle
B. nasal - blend
C. feigned - patchwork
D. mangled - medley
E. hybrid - combination

Ans :E

50. Old beliefs die hard, even when jobs become -


the long - standing fear that unemployment could
return at a moments notice -
A. protected - subsided
B. vacant - perished
C. available - receded
D. plentiful - persisted
E. easier - charged

Ans :D

Not only the - are fooled by pcopagandas we can all


be misled if we are not -

A. people - mature
B. ignorant - cynical
C. masses - cautious
D. uncultured - concerned
E. gullible - wary

Ans :E

-- merciful by nature, he was - toward the murderer.

A. although - unmoving
B. while - unjust
C. truly - indicative
D. though - kind
E. albeit - implacable

Ans :E

When the news of his - with the enemy become


known, he was hanged in -

A. collusion - effigy
B. conversation's - earnest
C. involvement - martyrdom
D. complacency - retaliation
E. bickering - response

Ans :D

He was so - by the interplay of the colors that


varied in brilliance and pattern as the music rose and
fell, that he asked the price of the device.

A. overwrought
B. penalized
C. repelled
D. inteugued
E. penalized

Ans :D

The absence of a sense of outrage and grief at


national tragedy is an - of moral responsibility.
A. intervention
B. energising
C. abdication
D. administration
E. actuation.

Ans :C

In an effort to - its operations, the corporation


announced it was acquiring a - company in a different
type of manufacturing.

A. diversify - subsidiary
B. adumberate - solvent
C. multiply - protracted
D. intensify - fluctuating
E. establish - sequential.

Ans :A

Samuel Clemens chose the - Mark Twain as a result


of his knowledge of river boat piloting.

A. mountebank
B. protagonist
C. misanthrope
D. hallucination
E. pseudonym.

Ans :E

To meet all - a source of - electrical power was


added to the train's engine.

A. Integuments - parallel
B. possibilities - incidental
C. amenities - diverse
D. contingencies - auxiliary
E. conveniences - automatic.

Ans :D
Since the escaping vapors proved to be highly -,
measures were at once taken for the - of the
experiments.

A. Volatile - ratification
B. Observable - insulation
C. Gaseous - reduction
D. Noxious - cessation
E. Incriminating - destruction.

Ans :D

Eric Fromm does not agree that man is - in Freudian


sexual dilemmas for if the - that man creates can be
changed for the better, there is hope that the state of
man can be changed as well.

A. Tortured - goals
B. Trapped - institutions
C. Caught - symbols
D. Engulfed - life
E. Confused - meanings.

Ans :B

61.As man reached the stars, a booming population


threatened to destroy the - of life on his home
planet and even its chances for -
A. Quality - survival
B. Basis - growth
C. Existence - upliftment
D. chances - improvement
E. meaning - understanding.

Ans :A

62.Until the current warming trend exceeds the


range of normal climatic fluctuations, there will
be, among scientists, considerable - the
possibility that increasing levels of atmosphere
Co2 can cause long term warming effects
A. interest in
B. uncertainty about
C. experimentation on
D. enthusiasm for
E. worry about

Ans :B

63.Having no sense of moral obligation, shipler was


as little subject to the - of conscience after he
acted as he was motivated by its - before he
acted.
A. balm - eloquence
B. qualms - atonement
C. reproaches - prompting's
D. rewards - chastisement
E. ridicule - allure

Ans :C

64.Slang is a language that rolls up its sleeves,


spits on its hands and -
A. goes to work
B. stays cool
C. embarrasses its user
D. communicates
E. puts its foot down

Ans :B

65. Famous among job seekers for its - , the


company, quite apart from generous salaries,
bestowed on its executives annual bonuses and
such - as low - interest home mortgages and
company cars.
A. largesse - perquisites
B. altruism - credits
C. magnanimity - reparations
D. discernment - prerogatives
E. inventiveness - benefits

Ans :A

66.Moving and parked, the automobile devours


urban land, leaving the buildings as mere - of
habitable space in a sea of dangerous and ugly
traffic
A. asylums
B. remnants
C. blocks
D. mountains
E. islands

Ans :E

67.In the current research program, new varieties


of apple trees are evaluated under different
agricultural - for tree size, bloom density, fruit
size,- to various soils, and resistance to pests
and disease.
A. conditions - adaptability
B. configurations - propensity
C. circumstances - proximity
D. auspices - susceptibility
E. regulations - conformity

Ans :A

68.For many young people during the roaring


twenties, a disgust with the excesses of
American culture - a wanderlust to provoke an
exodus abroad.
A. reflected
B. stymied
C. conflicted with
D. overwhelmed
E. combined with
Ans :E

Verbal Section: Analogies

Directions:
Each of the questions below consists of two words that have
a certain relationship to each other, followed by five lettered
pairs of related words. Select the lettered pair of words.

1. ANGLE : DECATE
A. area : square inch
B. milk : quart
C. society : classes
D. letter : alphabet
E. time : minutes

Ans : A

2. CONFIRMED : INVETERATE
A. knowledge : supposed
B. financial : bankrupt
C. immature : callow
D. credible : incredible
E. careful: punishing

Ans :B

3. LULLABY : BARCAROLE
A. birth : marriage
B. night : morning
C. cradle : gondola
D. song : poem
E. carol : sonneteer

Ans :C

4. ZOOLOGY : ANIMALS
A. ecology : pollution
B. botany : plants
C. chemistry : atoms
D. history : people
E. mathematics : geometry

Ans :A

5. DORY : VAN
A. dairy : cow
B. fish : vehicle
C. freighter : caisson
D. runners : wheels
E. danish : Dutch

Ans : C

6. PARQUET : WOOD
A. color : painting
B. mosaic : glass
C. potpourri : medley
D. collage : tapestry
E. linoleum : marble

Ans : B

7. SAW : CARPENTER
A. Scissors : tailor
B. Wagon : farmer
C. Brush : painter
D. Typewriter : author
E. Trowel : bricklayer

Ans : A

8. LURK : WAIT
A. boost : elevate
B. deplete : drain
C. abscond : depart
D. bilk : cheat
E. topple : stabilize

Ans : C
9. ALCHEMY : SCIENCE
A. nostrum : remedy
B. sideshow : carnival
C. ploy : tactic
D. forgery : imitation
E. burlesque : comedy

Ans : A

10. NEEDLE : KNIT


A. bait : fish
B. match : fire
C. loom : weave
D. soap : wash
E. bed : sleep

Ans : C

11. PARENTHESIS : EXPLANATION


A. ellipsis : omission
B. asterisk : exaggeration
C. synopsis : affectation
D. apostrophe : annotation
E. synthesis : interpolation

Ans : A

12. CENSUS : POPULATION


A. manifest : debts
B. roster : audience
C. itinerary : journeys
D. inventory : merchandise
E. state : incumbents

Ans : D

13. STANZA : POEM


A. mimicry : pantomime
B. duet : chorus
C. act : opera
D. rhyme : verse
E. pirouette : ballet

Ans : C

14. EXHORT : SUGGEST


A. conspire : plan
B. tamper : adjust
C. crave : accept
D. goad : direct
E. instruct : teach

Ans : D

15. SAND PAPER : ABRASIVE


A. gasoline : refined
B. grativity : irritant
C. polish : floors
D. acrylic : emulsion
E. oil : lubricant.

Ans :E

16. DIAPHANOUS : CACOPHONOUS


A. translucent : transparent
B. transparent : noisy
C. sheer : opaque
D. harmonious : discordant
E. twofold : multiple.

Ans :B

17. INFANCY : SENILITY


A. january : October
B. incipient : critical
C. day : night
D. conclusion : climax
E. dawn : dusk.

Ans :E
18. RIG : CONTEST
A. solve : conundrum
B. predict : race
C. repudiate : thesis
D. gerrymander : district
E. incriminate : evidence

Ans :D

19. ARBORETUM : TREES


A. aviary : birds
B. catenhouse : garden
C. museum : painters
D. grove : forest
E. zoo : range

Ans :D

20. MENDICANT : IMPECUNIOUS


A. hat : askew
B. liar : poor
C. complainer : petulant
D. critic : quizzical
E. philanthrophist : prodigal.

Ans :C

21. RELAPSE : CONVALESCENCE


A. dissonance : harmony
B. feudalism : industrialization
C. repetition : monotony
D. impasse : debate
E. recidivism : rehavbilitation.

Ans :E

22. BOUQUET : FLOWERS


A. corn : husk
B. woodpile : logs
C. forest : thicket
D. mist : fog
E. drift : snow.

Ans :B

23. TRIANGLE : QUADRILATERAL


A. rectangle : octagon
B. cone : cube
C. pentagon : hexagon
D. plane : solid
E. regular : symmetrical.

Ans :C

24. SARTORIAL : TAILOR


A. thespian : designer
B. rhetorical : questioner
C. pictorial : musician
D. histrionic : singer
E. terpsichorear : dancer.

Ans :E

25. NECROMANCY : GHOSTS


A. magic : legerdemain
B. alchemy : gold
C. sorcery : spirits
D. fortune_telling : gypsies
E. romance : stories.

Ans :C

26. DRUM : TYMPANI


A. piano : orchestra
B. cornet : percussion
C. stick : baton
D. violin : viola
E. oboe : woodwind.

Ans :E
27. EXTROVERT : RETICENT
A. reprobate : humility
B. strategist : decisiveness
C. zealot : loyalty
D. maverick : conformity
E. renegade : ambition.

Ans :D

28. HYGROMETER : BAROMETER


A. snow : rain
B. humidity : pressure
C. water : mercury
D. temperature : weather
E. forecast : rain.

Ans :B

29. EXEMPTION : EXCLUSIONS


A. discharge : elimination
B. debarment : prevention
C. immunity : isolation
D. forgive : condone
E. enclosure : open.

Ans :C

30. FEBRILE : ILLNESS


A. classic : cultivation
B. delusional : insanity
C. eccentric : discrimination
D. tenacious : astonishment
E. juvenile : maturity.

Ans :B

31. DISAPPROBATION : CONDEMN


A. calumny : eulogise
B. enigma : enlighter
C. fallacy : diseminate
D. exhortation : urge
E. solvency : deploy.

Ans :D

32. GEM : TURQUOISE


A. lettuce : green
B. pear : orange
C. stone : magnetta
D. vine : cherry
E. flower : violet.

Ans :E

33. WINE : GRAPES


A. liquor : intoxicating
B. whiskey : hops
C. champagne : raisins
D. vodka : potatoes
E. vineyard : winery.

Ans :D

34. DEBATE : FORENSIC


A. concerto : harmonizing
B. drama : histrionic
C. opera : spoken
D. argument : domestic
E. novel : original.

Ans :B

35. NOISOME : GARBAGE


A. heavy : metal
B. warmth : snow
C. fragrant : incense
D. liquid : perfume
E. loud : music.

Ans :C
36. CONDUIT : WATER
A. behaviour : liquid
B. electricity : television
C. artery : blood
D. wire : sound
E. pump : oil.

Ans :C

37. BIZARRE : EXOTIC


A. wild : tame
B. lively : livid
C. stage : dancer
D. commonplace : routine
E. ordinary : exceptional.

Ans :D

38. ENTREPRENEUR : LABORER


A. mediator : conflict
B. capitalism : communism
C. profits : wages
D. arbitrator : capitalist
E. moonlighting : worker.

Ans :C

39. ANTIMACASSAR : SOFA


A. picture : frame
B. rug : floor
C. pillow : bed
D. door : window
E. table : chair.

Ans :B

40. NOTABLE : NOTORIOUS


A. heinous : atrocious
B. philandering : pleasant
C. philanthropic : miserly
D. nefarious : secret
E. philanthropic : benevolent.

Ans :E

41. BABBLE : TALK


A. though : blank
B. look : espy
C. wink : eye
D. leer : ogle
E. simper : smile.

Ans :E

42. ALCOVE : RECESS


A. column : entrance
B. foundation : building
C. dome : roof
D. turret : chimney
E. foyer : ballroom

Ans :C

43. FIRM : INTRANSIGHT


A. faithful : resolute
B. improvident : industrious
C. vague : inattentive
D. concerned : obsessed
E. malleable : tractable

Ans :D

44. EPAULET : SHOULDER


A. medal : chest
B. decoration : uniform
C. knapsack : back
D. sword : scabbard
E. sash : window

Ans :A
45. ANACHRONISM : CHRONOLOGY
A. tradition : custom
B. variations : incongruity
C. fallacy : logic
D. archetype : paradigm
E. debauchery : appetites

Ans :C

46. DETRITUS : GLACIERS


A. thaw : cold
B. snow : icebergs
C. sediment : bottom
D. silt : rivers
E. dregs : society

Ans :D

47. OUTSKIRTS : TOWN


A. water : goblet
B. margin : page
C. rung : ladder
D. hangar : airplane
E. trunk : tree

Ans :B

48. EQUIVOCATE : COMMITMENT


A. collaborate : falsification
B. fabricate : explanation
C. procrastinate : action
D. expostulate : confusion
E. implicate : exposition

Ans :C

49. MORPHINE : SEDATES


A. oil : smears
B. bandage : protects
C. drug : addicts
D. liquor : sedates
E. medicine : soothes

Ans :D

50. STICKLER : APPROXIMATION


A. Lluggard : indolence
B. connoisseur : anachronism
C. scientist : theorizing
D. leader : guidance
E. purist : adulteration

Ans :E

51. LOOM : WEAVE


A. couch : sleep
B. needle : knit
C. soap : wash
D. machine : stitch
E. bail : fish

Ans :B

52. SUBPOENA : WITNESS


A. hire : laborer
B. tax : worker
C. elect : officer
D. suborn : judge
E. conscript : soldier

Ans :E

53. INVINCIBLE : SUBDUED


A. expensive : bought
B. inconsistent : expressed
C. bolted : separated
D. impervious : damaged
E. imprudent : enacted

Ans :D
54. BURLESQUE : PLAY
A. operetta : symphony
B. limerick : sonnet
C. doggerel : verse
D. table : narration
E. sketch : drawing

Ans :C

55. GROW : BURGEON


A. flourish : thrive
B. transport : enrapture
C. beat : palpitate
D. evolve : multiply
E. wrot : decay

Ans :C

56. HOAX : DECEIVE


A. gimmick : wheedle
B. filibuster : delay
C. boast : cajole
D. lottery : disburse
E. scandal : vilify

Ans :B

57. BODY GUARD : PERSON


A. teacher : pupil
B. mayor : city
C. police officer : traffic
D. soldier : country
E. secretary : office

Ans :D

58. MUFFLE : SOUND


A. conceal : secret
B. assuage : grief
C. maul : object
D. extract : flavor
E. endure : agony

Ans :B

59. CENSORSHIP : INFORMATION


A. cultivation : erosion
B. philanthropy : generosity
C. frugality : constraint
D. sampling : measurement
E. sanitation : disease

Ans :E

60. DUPLICATE : ALTER


A. greet : ignore
B. exchange : return
C. shake : stabilize
D. stretch : shrink
E. eradicate : implicate

Ans :D

61. HYPOTHESIS : EXPERIMENTATION


A. reality : fantasy
B. opinion : debate
C. film : camera
D. predication : conclusion
E. science : success

Ans :B

62. TANGO : DANCE


A. stanza : line
B. tonality : instrumentation
C. arabesque : theme
D. rhyme : pattern
E. elegy : poem

Ans :E
63. CHRONOMETER : SUNDIAL
A. measurement : visibility
B. chronology : analogy
C. computer : abacus
D. watch : ray
E. reduction : enlargement

Ans :C

64. FOOTBALL : GRIDIRON


A. wrestling : mat
B. court : tennis
C. bowling : floor
D. rugby : arena
E. baseball : diamond

Ans :E

65. EXPURGATE : PASSAGE


A. abridge : text
B. filter : water
C. irritate : wound
D. burn : book
E. cancel : plan

Ans :B

66. IMPECUNIOUS : HOVEL


A. progress : prosper
B. mendicant : evasion
C. prosperity : poverty
D. mendacious : cringe
E. affluent : mansion

Ans :E

67. APIARY : BEE


A. museum : painting
B. dam : water
C. arboretum : tree
D. forum : speech
E. planetarium : star

Ans :C

68. BULLET : BARREL


A. fame : films
B. train : track
C. idea : brain
D. plane : clouds
E. water : boat

Ans :B

69. VINDICATE : REPREHENSIBLE.


A. sad : sorrow
B. bitter : sad
C. mild : serious
D. solid : porous
E. vivid : obsequious.

Ans :C

70. TERMAGANT : SHREW


A. virago : harpy
B. anteater : mouse
C. supporter : nag
D. single : married
E. male : female.

Ans :A

71. APOSTATE : RELIGION


A. traitor : country
B. renegade : Indian
C. loyal : faith
D. vital : church
E. diloyal : colonies.

Ans :A
72. PLEBISCITE : UKASE
A. lack : abundance
B. vote : musical instrument
C. cancel : construct
D. public : ruler
E. written : oral

Ans :D

73. DEBATER : LARYNGITIS


A. pedestrian : lameness
B. actor : aplause
C. doctor : diagnosis
D. swimmer : wet
E. writer : paper

Ans :A

74. INKBLOT : EYECHART


A. oculist : ophthalmologist
B. blotter : spectacles
C. psychiatrist : optometrist
D. physician : specialist
E. blurs : letters

Ans :C

75. LIGNEOUS : WOOD


A. cellular : microbe
B. nautical : water
C. igneous : rock
D. osseous : bone
E. fossilized : plant

Ans :D

76. SHRINE : PILGRIM


A. defeat : loser
B. peak : climber
C. rescue : danger
D. election : contestant
E. direction : driver.

Ans :B

77. RIVAL : COMPETITION


A. litigant : morality
B. maverick : co-operation
C. mentor : praise
D. sycophant : flattery
E. medicant : confusion.

Ans :D

78. SPIKE : TACK


A. bullet : wound
B. knife : cut
C. arrow : bow
D. spear : dart
E. pin : needle

Ans :D

79. INIQUITOUS : DISOBEDIENT


A. adult : child
B. hostile : cool
C. quiescent : lethargic
D. inflammable : flammable
E. inequitable : equitable

Ans :B

80. BALEFUL : MENACE


A. brusque : retort
B. competent : achievement
C. placid : boredom
D. flirtatious : affection
E. solicitous : concern

Ans :E
81. ALACRITY : APATHETIC
A. compliance : deft
B. temerity : timid
C. despotism : arrogant
D. candor : bungling
E. tenacity : eager

Ans :B

82. FIRE : STORM


A. whale : minnow
B. speech : shout
C. plant : flower
D. wind : temperature
E. tornado : hurricane

Ans :E

83. COLLUSION : CONSPIRATORS


A. identification : arbitrators
B. co-operation : partners
C. conclusion : messengers
D. revision : corespondents
E. attribution : interpreters

Ans :B

84. LIQUEFY : PETRIFY


A. cash in : strengthen
B. insolvent : bankrupt
C. water : stone
D. soften : frighten
E. solvent : rich

Ans :C

85. AMBULATORY : BEDRIDDEN


A. strong : weak
B. wheelchair : bed
C. free : confined
D. healthy : sick
E. broken : arm

Ans :C

86. CYNOSURE : BRILLIANT


A. word : common
B. student : attentive
C. rock : large
D. magnet : attractive
E. map : legible

Ans :D

Reading Comprehension

Directions:
Each reading passage in this section is followed by questions
based on the content of the reading passage. Read the
passage carefully and chose the best answer to each
question. The questions are to be answered on the basis of
what is stated or implied in the passage.

1. But man is not destined to vanish. He can be killed, but


he cannot be destroyed, because his soul is deathless
and his spirit is irrepressible. Therefore, though the
situation seems dark in the context of the confrontation
between the superpowers, the silver lining is provided
by amazing phenomenon that the very nations which
have spent incalculable resources and energy for the
production of deadly weapons are desperately trying to
find out how they might never be used. They threaten
each other, intimidate each other and go to the brink,
but before the total hour arrives they withdraw from the
brink.
1. The main point from the author's view is that
A. Man's soul and spirit can not be destroyed by
superpowers.
B. Man's destiny is not fully clear or visible.
C. Man's soul and spirit are immortal.
D. Man's safety is assured by the delicate
balance of power in terms of nuclear
weapons.
E. Human society will survive despite the
serious threat of total annihilation.

Ans : E

2. The phrase 'Go to the brink' in the passage


means
A. Retreating from extreme danger.
B. Declare war on each other.
C. Advancing to the stage of war but not
engaging in it.
D. Negotiate for peace.
E. Commit suicide.

Ans : C

3. In the author's opinion


A. Huge stockpiles of destructive weapons have
so far saved mankind from a catastrophe.
B. Superpowers have at last realized the need
for abandoning the production of lethal
weapons.
C. Mankind is heading towards complete
destruction.
D. Nations in possession of huge stockpiles of
lethal weapons are trying hard to avoid actual
conflict.
E. There is a Silverlining over the production of
deadly weapons.

Ans : D

4. 'Irrepressible' in the second line means


A. incompatible
B. strong
C. oppressive
D. unrestrainable
E. unspirited

Ans : D

5. A suitable title for the above passage is


A. Destruction of mankind is in evitable.
B. Man's desire to survive inhibits use of deadly
weapons.
C. Mounting cost of modern weapons.
D. Threats and intimidation between super
powers.
E. Cowardly retreat by man

Ans : B

Disequilibrium at the interface of water and air is a factor on


which the transfer of heat and water vapor from the ocean to
the air depends. The air within about a millimeter of the
water is almost saturated with water vapor and the
temperature of the air is close to that of the surface water.
Irrespective of how small these differences might be, they
are crucial, and the disequilibrium is maintained by air near
the surface mixing with air higher up, which is typically
appreciably cooler and lower in water vapor content. The
turbulence, which takes its energy from the wind mixes the
air. As the speed of wind increases, so does the turbulence,
and consequently the rate of heat and moisture transfer. We
can arrive at a detailed understanding of this phenomenon
after further study. The transfer of momentum from wind to
water, which occurs when waves are formed is an
interacting-and complicated phenomenon. When waves are
made by the wind, it transfers important amounts of energy-
energy, which is consequently not available for the
production of turbulence.

1. This passage principally intends to:


A. resolve a controversy
B. attempt a description of a phenomenon
C. sketch a theory
D. reinforce certain research findings
E. tabulate various observations

Ans : B

2. The wind over the ocean usually does which of


the following according to the given passage?
I. Leads to cool, dry air coming in proximity with the
ocean surface.
II. Maintains a steady rate of heat and moisture transfer
between the ocean and the air.
III. Results in frequent changes in the ocean surface
temperature.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

Ans : A

3. According to the author the present knowledge


regarding heat and moisture transfer from the
ocean to air as
A. revolutionary
B. inconsequential
C. outdated
D. derivative
E. incomplete

Ans : E

4. According to the given passage, in case the wind


was to decrease until there was no wind at all,
which of the following would occur?
A. The air, which is closest to the ocean surface
would get saturated with water vapor.
B. The water would be cooler than the air closest to
the ocean surface.
C. There would be a decrease in the amount of
moisture in the air closest to the ocean surface.
D. There would be an increase in the rate of heat and
moisture transfer.
E. The temperature of the air closest to the ocean
and that of the air higher up would be the same.

Ans : A

The Food and Drug Administration has formulated certain


severe restrictions regarding the use of antibiotics, which are
used to promote the health and growth of meat animals.
Though the different types of medicines mixed with the
fodder of the animals kills many microorganisms, it also
encourages the appearance of bacterial strains, which are
resistant to anti-infective drugs.

It has already been observed that penicillin and the


tetracyclines are not as effective therapeutically as they
once used to be. This resistance to drugs is chiefly caused
due to tiny circlets of genes, called plasmids, which are
transferable between different species of bacteria. These
plasmids are also one of the two kinds of vehicles on which
molecular biologists depend on while performing gene
transplant experiments. Existing guidelines also forbid the
use of plasmids, which bear genes for resistance to
antibiotics, in the laboratories. Though congressional dabate
goes on as to whether these restrictions need to be
toughened with reference to scientists in their laboratories,
almost no congressional attention is being paid to an ill
advised agricultural practice, which produces deleterious
effects.

1. In the present passage, the author's primary


concern is with:
A. The discovery of methods, which eliminate harmful
microorganisms without generating drug-resistant
bacteria.
B. Attempting an explanation of the reasons for
congressional inaction about the regulation of
gene transplant experiments.
C. Portraying a problematic agricultural practice and
its serious genetic consequences
D. The verification of the therapeutic ineffectiveness
of anti-infective drugs
E. Evaluation of the recently proposed restrictions,
which are intended to promote the growth of meat
animals.

Ans : C

2. As inferred from the above passage, the mutual


transfer of plasmids between different bacteria
can result in which of the following?
A. Microorganisms, which have an in-built resistance
to drugs
B. Therapeutically useful circlets of genes
C. Penicillin like anti-infective drugs
D. Viruses used by molecular biologists
E. Carriers for performing gene transplant
experiments.

Ans : A

3. According to the above passage the author


believes that those who favor the stiffening of
restrictions on gene transplant research should
logically also.
A. Approve and aid experiments with any plasmids
except those, which bear genes for antibiotic
resistance.
B. Inquire regarding the addition of anti-infective
drugs to livestock feeds
C. Oppose the using of penicillin and tetracyclines in
order to kill microorganisms
D. Agree to the development of meatier live-stock
through the use of antibiotics
E. Approve of congressional debate and discussion
regarding science and health issues.

Ans : B
4. The attitude the author has with reference to the
development of bacterial strains that render
antibiotic drugs in effective can best be
described as
A. indifferent
B. perplexed
C. pretentious
D. insincere
E. apprehensive

Ans : E

Roger Rosenblatt's book Black Fiction, manages to alter the


approach taken in many previous studies by making an
attempt to apply literary rather than sociopolitical criteria to
its subject. Rosenblatt points out that criticism of Black
writing has very often served as a pretext for an expounding
on Black history. The recent work of Addison Gayle's passes
a judgement on the value of Black fiction by clearly political
standards, rating each work according to the ideas of Black
identity, which it propounds.

Though fiction results from political circumstances, its author


react not in ideological ways to those circumstances, and
talking about novels and stories primarily as instruments of
ideology circumvents much of the fictional enterprise.
Affinities and connections are revealed in the works of Black
fiction in Rosenblatt's literary analysis; these affinities and
connections have been overlooked and ignored by solely
political studies.

The writing of acceptable criticism of Black fiction, however,


presumes giving satisfactory answers to a quite a few
questions. The most important of all, is there a sufficient
reason, apart from the racial identity of the authors, for the
grouping together of Black authors? Secondly, what is the
distinction of Black fiction from other modern fiction with
which it is largely contemporaneous? In the work Rosenblatt
demonstrates that Black fiction is a distinct body of writing,
which has an identifiable, coherent literary tradition. He
highlights recurring concerns and designs, which are
independent of chronology in Black fiction written over the
past eighty years. These concerns and designs are thematic,
and they come form the central fact of the predominant
white culture, where the Black characters in the novel are
situated irrespective of whether they attempt to conform to
that culture or they rebel against it.

Rosenblatt's work does leave certain aesthetic questions


open. His thematic analysis allows considerable objectivity;
he even clearly states that he does not intend to judge the
merit of the various works yet his reluctance seems
misplaced, especially since an attempt to appraise might
have led to interesting results. For example, certain novels
have an appearance of structural diffusion. Is this a defeat,
or are the authors working out of, or attempting to forge, a
different kind of aesthetic? Apart from this, the style of
certain Black novels, like Jean Toomer's Cane, verges on
expressionism or surrealism; does this technique provide a
counterpoint to the prevalent theme that portrays the fate
against which Black heroes are pitted, a theme usually
conveyed by more naturalistic modes of expressions?

Irrespective of such omissions, what Rosenblatt talks about


in his work makes for an astute and worthwhile study. His
book very effectively surveys a variety of novels,
highlighting certain fascinating and little-known works like
James Weldon Johnson's Autobiography of an Ex-Coloured
Man. Black Fiction is tightly constructed, and levelheaded
and penetrating criticism is exemplified in its forthright and
lucid style.

1. The author of the passage raises and objection to


criticism of Black fiction like that by Addison
Gayle as it:
A. Highlights only the purely literary aspects of such
works
B. Misconceive the ideological content of such fiction
C. Miscalculate the notions of Black identity
presented in such fiction
D. Replaces political for literary criteria in evaluating
such fiction
E. Disregards the reciprocation between Black history
and Black identity exhibited in such fiction.

Ans : D

2. The primary concern of the author in the above


passage is:
A. Reviewing the validity of a work of criticism
B. Comparing various critical approaches to a subject
C. Talking of the limitations of a particular kind of
criticism
D. Recapitulation of the major points in a work of
criticism
E. Illustrating the theoretical background of a certain
kind of criticism.

Ans : A

3. The author is of the opinion that Black Fiction


would have been improved had Rosenblatt:
A. Undertaken a more careful evaluation of the
ideological and historical aspects of Black Fiction
B. Been more objective in his approach to novels and
stories by Black authors
C. Attempted a more detailed exploration of the
recurring themes in Black fiction throughout its
history
D. Established a basis for placing Black fiction within
its own unique literary tradition
E. Calculated the relative literary merit of the novels
he analyzed thematically.

Ans : E

4. Rosenblatt's discussion of Black Fiction is :


A. Pedantic and contentious
B. Critical but admiring
C. Ironic and deprecating
D. Argumentative but unfocused
E. Stilted and insincere.

Ans : B

5. According to the given passage the author would


be LEAST likely to approve of which among the
following?
A. Analyzing the influence of political events on the
personal ideology of Black writers
B. Attempting a critical study, which applies
sociopolitical criteria to the autobiographies of
Black authors
C. A literary study of Black poetry that appraises the
merits of poems according to the political
acceptability of their themes
D. Studying the growth of a distinct Black literary
tradition within the context of Black history
E. Undertaking a literary study, which attempts to
isolate aesthetic qualities unique to Black fiction.

Ans : C

6. From the following options, which does the


author not make use of while discussing Black
Fiction?
A. Rhetorical questions
B. Specific examples
C. Comparison and contrast
D. Definition of terms
E. Personal opinion.

Ans : D

7. The author makes a reference to James Weldon


Johnson's Autobiography of an Ex-colored Man
most probably to:
A. Highlight the affinities between Rosenblatt's
method of thematic analysis and earlier criticism
B. Elucidate regarding the point made regarding
expressionistic style earlier in the passage
C. Qualify the assessment of Rosenblatt's book made
in the first paragraph of the passage
D. Demonstrate the affinities among the various
Black novels talked of by Rosenblatt's literary
analysis
E. Present a specific example of one of the
accomplishments of Rosenblatt's work.

Ans : E

Some modern anthropologists hold that biological evolution


has shaped not only human morphology but also human
behavior. The role those anthropologists ascribe to evolution
is not of dictating the details of human behavior but one of
imposing constraints - ways of feeling, thinking, and acting
that ''come naturally'' in archetypal situations in any culture.
Our ''frailties'' - emotions and motivs such as rage, fear,
greed, gluttony, joy,lust, love-may be a very mixed
assortment quality: we are, as we say, ''in the grip'' of them.
And thus they give us oursense of constraints.

Unhappily, some of those frailties our need for ever-


increasing security among them are presently maladaptive.
Yet beneath the overlay of cultural detail, they, too, are said
to be biological in direction, and therefore as natural to us as
are our appendixes. We would need to comprehend
throughly their adaptive origins in order to understand how
badly they guide us now. And we might then begin to resist
their pressure.

1. The author implies that control to any extent


over the ''frailties'' that constrain our behavior is
though to presuppose
A. That those frailties and adaptive are recognized as
currently beneficial and adaptive
B. That there is little or no overlay of cultural detail
that masks their true nature.
C. That there are cultures in which those frailties do
not ''come naturally'' and from which such control
can be learned
D. A full understanding of why those frailties evolved
and of how they function now
E. A thorough grasp of the principle that cultural
detail in human behavior can differ arbitrarily from
society to society.

Ans : D

2. It can be inferred that in his discussion of


maladaptive frailties the author assumes that
A. Evolution does not favor the emergence of
adaptive characteristics over the emergence of
maladaptive ones
B. Any structure or behavior not positively adaptive is
regarded as transitory in evolutionary theory
C. Maladaptive characteristics, once fixed, make the
emergence of other maladaptive characteristics
more likely
D. The designation of a characteristic as being
maladaptive must always remain highly tentative
E. Changes in the total human environment can
outpace evolutionary change.

Ans : E

3. The primary purpose of the passage is to present


A. A position on the foundations of human behavior
and on what those foundations imply
B. A theory outlining the parallel development of
human morphology and of human behavior
C. A diagnostic test for separating biologically
determined behavior patters from culture - specific
detail
D. An overview of those human emotions and
motive's that impose constraints on human
behaviour
E. A practical method for resting the pressures of
biologically determined drives.

Ans : A

4. Which of the following most probably provides an


appropriate analogy from human morphology for
the ''details'' versus ''constraints'' distinction
made in the passage in relation to human
behaviour?
A. The ability of most people to see all the colors of
the visible spectrum as against most peoples
inability to name any but the primary colors
B. The ability of even the least fortunate people to
show compassion as against people's inability to
mask their feelings completely
C. The ability of some people to dive to great depths
as against most people's inability to swim long
distance
D. The psychological profile of those people who are
able to delay gratification as against people's
inability to control their lives completely
E. The greater lung capacity of mountain peoples
that helps them live in oxygen-poor air as against
people's inability to fly without special apparatus.

Ans : E

The existence of mammals on the earth can be traced back


to at least the Triassic time. The rate of development was
retarded, till evolutional change suddenly accelerated in the
oldest Paleocene. This resulted in an increase in average
size, larger mental capacity, and special adaptations for
different modes of life, during the Eocene time. Further
improvement was seen during the Oligocene Epoch, with the
appearance of some new lines and extinction of others. The
Miocene and Pliocene times are especially significant as they
mark the culmination of various groups and a continued
approach toward modern characters. It is in the Miocene
time that the mammals reached their peak with reference to
variety and size.

The ability of the mammals to adapt to various modes of life


finds a parallel in the reptiles of the Mesozoic time, and apart
form their greater intelligence, the mammals apparently
have not done much better than the corresponding reptilian
forms. Undoubtedly the bat is a better flying animal than the
pterosaur, but at the same time the dolphin and whale are
hardly more fish like than the ichthyosaur. Quite a few of the
swift-running mammals inhabiting the plains, like the horse
and the antelope, must excel any of the dinosaurs. Although
the tyrannosaur was a more weighty and robust carnivore
than perhaps any carnivorous mammal, the lion and the
tiger, by virtue of their superior brain are far more efficient
and dangerous beasts of prey. It is significant to note that
various species of mammals gradually adapted themselves
to various kinds of lifestyles, some took to grazing on the
plains and were able to run swiftly (horse, deer, bison),
others started living in rivers and swamps (hippopotamus,
beaver), inhabiting trees (sloth, monkey), burrowing
underground (rodent, mole), feeding on flesh (tiger, wolf),
swimming in the water (dolphin, whale, seal), and flying in
the air (bat). Human beings on account of their superior
brain have been able to harness mechanical methods to
conquer the physical world and adapt to any set of
conditions.

Such adaptation to different conditions leads to a gradual


change in form and structure. This is a biological
characteristic of the youthful, plastic stage of a group. It is
seen that early in its evolutional cycle animals possess the
capacity for change, but as the animal progresses in its cycle
becoming old and fixed, this capacity for change disappears.
The generalized types of organisms retain longest the ability
to make adjustments when required, and it is from them that
new, fecund stocks take origin-certainly not from any
specialized end products. With reference to mammals, we
see their birth, plastic spread in many directions, increased
specialization, and in some cases, extinction; this is a
characteristic of the evolution of life, which can be seen in
the geologic record of life.

1. From the following, choose the most appropriate


title for the above passage?
A. From Dinosaur to Man
B. Adaptation and Extinction
C. The Superior Mammals
D. The Geologic Life Span
E. Man, the Vanquisher of the Physical World.

Ans : B

2. According to the passage the chronological order


of the geologic periods is:
A. Paleocene, Miocene, Triassic, Mesozoic
B. Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic, Miocene
C. Miocene, Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic
D. Mesozoic, Oligocene, Paleocene, Miocene
E. Mesozoic, Paleocene, Eocene, Miocene

Ans : E

3. From the above passage, we can infer that, the


pterosaur
A. resembled the bat
B. was a Mesozoic mammal
C. was a flying reptile
D. inhabited the seas
E. evolved during the Miocene period

Ans : C

4. As inferred from the passage, the largest number


of mammals were found in which of the following
periods?
A. Triassic period
B. Eocene period
C. Oligocene epoch
D. Pliocene period
E. Miocene period

Ans : E

5. Among the following statements, which


statement, if true, would weaken the argument
put forth in the first sentence of Paragraph 1?
A. It has been found that the tryannosaur had a
larger brain, than was previously known.
B. Within the next thousand years, mammals will
become extinct.
C. Recently certain forms of flying ichthyosaurs have
been discovered.
D. It has now been proved, that the tiger is more
powerful than the carnivorous reptiles.
E. It is now possible to double human mental
capacity, by the use of certain recently developed
computers.

Ans : A

6. It is clear from the passage, that the evidence


used to discuss the life of past time periods
A. was developed by Charles Darwin
B. was unearthed by the author
C. has been negated by more recent evidence
D. was never truly established
E. is based on fossilized remains

Ans : E

7. As inferred from the passage, which of the


following proverbial expressions is the author
most likely to agree with?
A. It's a cruel world.
B. All the world's a stage.
C. The more things change, the more they remain the
same.
D. Footprints in the sands of time.
E. A short life, but a merry one.
Ans : D

For a period of more than two centuries paleontologists have


been intrigued by the fossilized remains of pterosaurs, the
first flying vertebartes. The issues, which puzzle them, are
how these heavy creatures, having a wingspan of about 8-12
meters managed the various problems associated with
powered flight and whether these creatures were reptiles or
birds.

Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the


pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls, pelvises,
and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of their wings
suggests that they did not evolve into the class of birds. In
pterosaurs a greatly elongated fourth finger of each forelimb
supported a winglike membrane. The other fingers were
short and reptilian, with sharp claws. In birds the second
finger is the principal strut of the wing, which consists
primarily of feathers. If the pterosaurs walked on all fours,
the three short fingers may have been employed for
grasping. When a pterosaurs walked or remained stationary,
the fourth finger, and with it the wing, could only urn upward
in an extended inverted V- shape along each side of the
animal's body.

In resemblance they were extremely similar to both birds


and bats, with regard to their overall body structure and
proportion. This is hardly surprising as the design of any
flying vertebrate is subject to aerodynamic constraints. Both
the pterosaurs and the birds have hollow bones, a feature
that represents a savings in weight. There is a difference,
which is that the bones of the birds are more massively
reinforced by internal struts.

Although scales typically cover reptiles, the pterosaurs


probably had hairy coats. T.H. Huxley reasoned that flying
vertebrates must have been warm-blooded because flying
implies a high rate of metabolism, which in turn implies a
high internal temperature. Huxley speculated that a coat of
hair would insulate against loss of body heat and might
streamline the body to reduce drag in flight. The recent
discovery of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense,
and relatively thick hair like fossil material was the first clear
evidence that his reasoning was correct.

Some paleontologists are of the opinion that the pterosaurs


jumped from s dropped from trees or perhaps rose into the
light winds from the crests of waves in order to become
airborne. Each theory has its associated difficulties. The first
makes a wrong assumption that the pterosaurs hind feet
resembled a bat's and could serve as hooks by which the
animal could hang in preparation for flight. The second
hypothesis seems unlikely because large pterosaurs could
not have landed in trees without damaging their wings. The
third calls for high aces to channel updrafts. The pterosaurs
would have been unable to control their flight once airborne
as the wind from which such waves arose would have been
too strong.

1. As seen in the above passage scientists generally


agree that:
A. the pterosaurs could fly over large distances
because of their large wingspan.
B. a close evolutionary relationship can be seen
between the pterosaurs and bats, when the
structure of their skeletons is studied.
C. the study of the fossilized remains of the
pterosaurs reveals how they solved the problem
associated with powered flight
D. the pterosaurs were reptiles
E. Pterosaurs walked on all fours.

Ans : D

2. The view that, the pterosaurs rose into light


winds from the crest of the waves to become
airborne, is viewed by the author as
A. revolutionary
B. unlikely
C. unassailable
D. probable
E. outdated.

Ans : B

3. As inferred from the passage, the skeleton of a


pterosaur is distinguishable from that of a bird
by the
A. length of its wingspan
B. hollow spaces in its bones
C. anatomic origin of its wing strut
D. evidence of the hooklike projections on its hind
feet
E. location of the shoulder joint joining the wing to its
body.

Ans : C

4. From the viewpoint of T.H.Huxley, as given in the


passage, which of the following statements is he
most likely to agree with?
A. An animal can master complex behaviors
irrespective of the size of it's brain.
B. Environmental capabilities and physical
capabilities often influence the appearance of an
animal.
C. Usually animals in a particular family group do not
change their appearance dramatically over a
period of time
D. The origin of flight in vertebrates was an
accidental development rather than the outcome
of specialization or adaption
E. The pterosaurs should be classified as birds, not
reptiles.

Ans : B

5. According to the passage which of the following


is a characteristic of the pterosaurs?
A. The pterosaurs were not able to fold their wings
when not in use
B. Like the bats, they hung upside down from
branches
C. They flew in order to capture prey
D. They can be said to be an earlier stage in the
evolution of the birds
E. They lived principally in a forest like habitat.

Ans : A

6. The organization of the last paragraph of the


passage can best be described as:
A. New data is introduced in order to support a
traditional point of view
B. Three explanations are put forth and each of them
is disputed by means of specific information
C. An outline of three hypotheses are given and
evidence supporting each of them is given
D. Description of three recent discoveries is
presented, and their implications for future study
are projected
E. The material in the earlier paragraphs is
summarized and certain conclusions are from it.

Ans : B

7. According to the passage, some scientists believe


that pterosaurs
A. Lived near large bodies of water
B. Had sharp teeth for tearing food
C. Were attacked and eaten by larger reptiles
D. Had longer tails than many birds
E. Consumed twice their weight daily to maintain
their body temperature.

Ans : A

Certain scraps of evidence bear out those who hold a very


high opinion of the average level of culture among the
Athenians of the great age. Pericles's funeral speech is
undoubtedly the most famous evidence from Athenian
literature, that its level was indeed high. However, Pericles
was a politician, and it is possible that he was flattering his
audience. We know that thousands of Athenians sat hour
after hour in the theater listening to the plays of the great
Greek dramatists. The Greek plays, particularly the
tragedies, maintained an extremely high intellectual level
throughout, with no letdowns, no concessions to the
lowbrows or to the demands of ''realism'', like the
gravediggers scene in Shakespeare's Hamlet. The music and
dancing seen in these plays were also of an equally high
level. The best modern parallel can be seen in the
restrained, difficult opera of the 18th century. The
comparison is no doubt dangerous, but can you imagine
almost the entire population of an American city (in suitable
installments, of course) sitting through performances of
Mozart's Don Giovanni or Gluck's Orpheus? Perhaps the
Athenian masses went to these plays because of a lack of
other amusements. They could at least understand
something of what went on, since the subjects were part of
their folklore. Undoubtedly the theme of grand opera is not
part of the folklore of the American people.

1. From the passage it is evident that the author


seems to question the sincerity of
A. politicians
B. playwrights
C. opera goers
D. ''low brows''
E. gravediggers.

Ans : A

2. According to the author the average American


A. Enjoys Hamlet
B. Loves folklore
C. Is not able to understand grand opera
D. Seeks a high cultural level
E. Lacks entertainment.
Ans : C

3. From the passage, we can say that the author's


attitude toward Greek plays is one of
A. Qualified approval
B. Grudging admiration
C. Studied indifference
D. Partial hostility
E. Great respect.

Ans : E

4. The author makes a suggestion that Greek plays


A. Were demanding on the actors
B. Flattered their audiences
C. Were focussed on a limited audience
D. Were dominated by music and dancing
E. Stimulated their audiences.

Ans : E

Everyone conforms to infancy, infancy conforms to nobody,


so that one babe commonly makes four or five out of the
adults who prattle and play to it. So God has armed youth
and puberty and manhood no less with its own piquancy and
charm, and made it enviable and gracious and its claims not
to be put by, if it will stand by itself. Do not think the youth
has no force, because he cannot speak to you and me. Hark!
In the next room his voice is sufficiently clear and emphatic.
It seems he knows how to speak to his contemporaries.
Bashful or bold, then, he will know how to make us seniors
very unnecessary.

The healthy attitude of human nature can be seen in the


nonchalance of boys who are sure of a dinner, and would
disdain as much as a lord to do or say aught to conciliate
one. A boy is in the parlor what the pit is in the playhouse;
independent, irresponsible, looking out from his corner on
such people and facts as pass by, he tries and sentences
them on their merits, in the swift, summary way of boys, as
good, bad, interesting, silly, eloquent, troublesome. He never
cumbers himself regarding consequences, about interests
and he gives an independent, genuine verdict. You should
court him: he will not court you. But the man is, as it were,
clapped into jail by his consciousness. As soon as he has
once acted or spoken with eclat, he is a committed person,
watched by the sympathy or the hatred of hundreds, whose
affections must now enter into his account. There is no Lethe
for this. Ah, that he could pass again into his neutrality.

These are the voices, which we hear in solitude, but they


grow faint and inaudible as we enter into the world.
Everywhere society is conspiring against the manhood of
every one of its members. Society is joint – stock
company, in which members agree, for the better securing
of his bread to each shareholder, to surrender the liberty and
culture of the eater. The virtue in most request is conformity.
It is averse to self-reliance. What it loves is names and
customs and not realities and creators.

Whosoever is a man has to be a nonconformist. He who


would gather immortal palms must not be hindered by the
name of goodness, but must explore if it be goodness.
Nothing is at last sacred but the integrity of your own mind.

No law can be sacred to me but that of my nature. Good and


bad are but names very readily transferable to that to this;
the only right is what is after my constitution, the only right
is what is after me constitution, the only wrong what is
against it. A man is to carry himself in the presence of all
opposition as if every thing were titular and ephemeral but
he. I am ashamed to think how easily we capitulate to
badges and names, to large societies and dead institutions.
Every decent and well-spoken individual affects and sways
me more than is right. I ought to go upright and vital, and
speak the rude truth in all ways.

I shun father and mother and wife and brother, when my


genius calls me. I would write on the lintels of the doorpost,
whim. I hope it is somewhat better than whim at last, but we
cannot spend the day in explanation. Except me not to show
cause why I seek or why I exclude company. Then, again, do
not tell me, as a good man did not to-day, of my obligation
to put all poor men in good situations. Are they my poor? I
tell thee, thou foolish philanthropist, that I grudge the dollar,
the time, the cent, I give to such men as do not belong to me
and to whom I do not belong. There is a class of person to
whom by all spiritual affinity I am bought and sold; for them I
will go to prison, if need be; but your miscellaneous popular
charities; the education at collage of fools; the building of
meeting – house to the vain end to which many now
stand; alms to sots; and the thousandfold Relief Societies; -
though I confess with shame I sometimes succumb and give
the dollar, it is a wicked dollar which by and by I shall have
the manhood to withhold.

If you refuse to conform, you can experience the displeasure


of the world. Hence, a man should know how to estimate a
sour face. The by – standers look askance on him in the
public street or in the friend's parlor. In case this aversion
originates from contempt and resistance similar to his own, it
might result in a sad countenance; but the sour faces of the
multitude, like their sweet faces, have no deep cause, but
are caused by reasons as diverse as the direction of the wind
and what he reads in the newspapers. Yet is the discontent
of the multitude more formidable than that of the senate and
the collage.

Another factor, which frightens us from self – trust in our


consistency; a reverence for our past act or word, because
the eyes of others have no other data for computing our
orbit than our past acts, and we are loath to disappoint
them.

But why should you keep your head over your shoulder? Why
drag about this corpse of your memory, lest you contradict
somewhat you have stated in this or that public place?
Suppose you should contradict yourself; what then?
This is a rather silly consistency in our minds, which is
adored by little statesmen and philosophers and divines.
Uniformly a great soul has almost nothing to do, he could
just occupy himself with his shadow on the wall. Speak what
you think now in hard words; and to-morrow speak what
tomorrow thinks in hard words again, though it contradict
everything you said to-day. – ''Ah, so you shall be sure to
be misunderstood.'' - Is it so bad, then, to be misunderstood?
Pythagoras was misunderstood, and Socrates, and Jesus, and
Luther, and Copernicus, and Galileo, and Newton, and every
pure and wise spirit that ever took flesh. What can be
considered to be truly great is to be misunderstood.

1. Which of the following statements would best


describe the main theme of the above passage?
A. "A foolish consistency is the hobgoblin of little
mind."
B. "Eternal youth means eternal independence."
C. "Whoso would be a man must be a
nonconformist."
D. "Colleges are designed to educate fools."
E. "Infancy conforms to nobody."

Ans : C

2. When is the period during which we are most


nonconformist?
A. infancy
B. puberty
C. youth
D. manhood
E. old age

Ans : A

3. In his statement ''What can be considered to be


truly great is to be misunderstood'' the author
means:
A. One should refrain from saying, what one exactly
means
B. Being misunderstood, equals being great
C. All great man have always been misunderstood
D. Even though a person might be considered
inconsistent, he shouldn't hesitate to change his
mind if he feels the need to.
E. It is seldom, that nice people succeed

Ans : D

4. As inferred from the passage, the refusal of


young people to cater to accept public opinion is:
A. A feature of the rebelliousness of youth
B. A healthy attitude of human nature
C. A manifestation of deep- seated immaturity
D. Simply bad manners
E. Part of growing up

Ans : B

5. "Society is a joint-stock company etc." is one way


which the author shows
A. The anti-culture attitude of the public
B. Society is highly organized and structured
C. The self-rejection of society
D. The lack of room for solitude in our world
E. The public's interest in the stock market

Ans : C

6. " I would write on the lintels of the doorpost,


whim." What does the author mean by this
statement:
A. That one should renounce his immediate family
B. That signposts have an important educational
function in our society’
C. That an impulsive action may have a subsequent
rational explanation
D. That one must never be held responsible for what
one says and does
E. That everyone should do foolish things
occasionally

Ans : C

7. Which of the following statements best


summarizes the spirit and sense of the above
passage?
A. "Nothing is at last sacred but the integrity of your
own mind."
B. "With consistency, a great soul; has simply nothing
to do."
C. "Do not think the youth has no force, because
cannot speak to you and me."
D. "The virtue in most request is conformity."
E. "A man must know how to estimate a sour force."

Ans : A

Furthermore, insofar as any conclusion about its author can


be drawn from five or six plays attributed to him, the
Wakefield Master is without exception considered to be a
man of sharp contemporary observation. He was, probably
clerically educated, as indicated by his Latin and music, his
Biblical and patristic lore. Even today he is remembered for
his his quick sympathy for the oppressed and forgotten man,
his sharp eye for character, a ready ear for colloquial,
vernacular turns of speech and a humor alternately rude and
boisterous, coarse and happy. Therefore in spite of his
conscious artistry as can be seen in his feeling for intricate
metrical and stanza forms, he is regarded as a kind of
medieval Steinbeck, indignantly angry at, uncompromisingly
and even brutally realistic in presenting the plight of the
agricultural poor.

It is now fairly accepted to regard the play as a kind of


ultimate point in the secularization of the medieval drama.
Therefore more stress has been laid on it as depicting
realistically humble manners and pastoral life in the bleak of
the west riding of Yorkshire on a typically cold night of
December 24th. After what are often regarded as almost
''documentaries'' given in the three successive monologues
of the three shepherds, critics go on to affirm that the
realism is then intensified into a burlesque mock-treatment
of the Nativity. Finally as a sort of epilogue or after-thought in
deference to the Biblical origins of the materials, the play
slides back into an atavistic mood of early innocent
reverence. In actuality, the final scene is the culminating
scene and also the raison d’etre of the introductory
''realism.''

Superficially the present play supports the conventional view


of its mood of secular realism. At the same time, the
''realism'' of the Wakefield Master is of a paradoxical turn.
His wide knowledge of people, as well as books indicates no
cloistered contemplative but one in close relation to his
times. Still, that life was after all a predominantly religious
one, a time which never neglected the belief that man was a
rebellious and sinful creature in need of redemption . So
deeply (one can hardly say ''naively'' of so sophisticated a
writer) and implicitly religious is the Master that he is less
able (or less willing) to present actual history realistically
than is the author of the Brome Abraham and Isaac. His
historical sense is even less realistic than that of Chaucer
who just a few years before had done for his own time
''costume romances,'' such as The Knight's Tele, Troilus and
Cressida, etc. Furthermore, used highly romantic materials,
which could excuse his taking liberties with history.

1. Of the following statements, which is not true of


Wakefield Master?
A. He and Chaucer were contemporaries.
B. Wakefield Master is remembered as having written
five or six realistic plays.
C. His plays realistically portray the plight of the
country folk of his day
D. His writing was similar to that of John Steinbeck.
E. He was an accomplished artist.

Ans : D
2. The word 'patristic' in the first paragraph is used
to mean:
A. patriotic
B. superstitious
C. folk
D. relating to the Christian Fathers
E. realistic

Ans : D

3. The statement about the ''secularization of the


medieval drama'' (opening sentence of the
second paragraph) refers to the
A. Introduction of religious themes in the early days
B. Presentation of erudite material
C. Use of contemporary materials
D. Return to early innocent reverence at the end of
the play
E. Introduction of mundane matters in religious plays

Ans : E

4. From the following what would the writer be


expected to do in the subsequent paragraphs:
A. Make a justification for his comparison with
Steinbeck
B. Put forth a view point, which would take up the
thought of the second paragraph
C. Point out the anachronisms in the play
D. Discuss the works of Chaucer
E. Talk about the lack of realism in the works of the
Wakefield Master.

Ans : B

The establishment of the third Reich influenced events in


American history by starting a chain of events which
culminated in war between Germany and the United States.
The complete destruction of democracy, the persecution of
laws, the war on religion, the cruelty and barrbarism of the
Nazis and especially, the plans of Germany and her allies,
Italy and Japan, for world conquest caused great indignation
in this country and brought on fear of another world war.
While speaking out against Hitler's atrocities, the American
profile generally favored isolationist policies, and neutrality.
The neutrality acts of 1935 and 1936 prohibited trade with
any belligerents or loans to them. In 1937 the president was
empowered to declare an arms embargo in wars between
nations at his discretion

American opinion began to change somewhat after President


Roosevelt's quarantine the aggvessor speech at Chicago
(1937) in which he severely criticized Hitler's policies.
Germany's seizure of Austria and Munich pact for the
partition of Czechoslovakia (1938) also around the American
people. The conquest of Czechoslovakia in March 1939 was
another rude awakening to the menace of the third Reich. In
August, 1939, came the shock of the Nazi - Soviet pact and
in September the attack on Poland and the outbreak of
European war. The United States attempt to maintain
neutrality in spite of sympathy for the democracies arranged
against the Third Reich. The Neutrality act of 1939 repeated
the arms embargo and permitted 'cash' and 'carry' exports
of arms to belligerent nations. A strong national defense
program was begun. A draft act was passed (1940) to
strengthen the military services. A Lend - Lease Act (1940)
authorized the president to sell, exchange or lend materials
to any county deemed necessary by him for the defense of
the United States. Help was given to Britain territory in the
western Hemisphere. In August 1941, President Roosevelt
and prime minister Churchill met and issued the Atlantic
Charter which proclaimed the kind of a world which should
be established after the war. In December 1941, Japan
launched the unprovoked attack on the United States at
Pearl harbor, immediately thereafter Germany declared war
on the united states.

1. USA entered the war against Germany


A. because Pearl Harbor was attacked
B. after peaceful efforts had failed
C. because Germany declare war against it
D. because Japan was an ally of Germany
E. after Germany had signed the Nazi - Soviet pact

Ans : C

2. The Neutrality Act of 1939 favored Great Britain


because
A. the British had command of the sea
B. the law permitted U.S.A. to trade only with the
allies.
C. it antagonized Japan
D. it led to the Land - Lease Act
E. it agreed with the British on the principle of the
Atlantic Charter

Ans : A

3. An event that did not occur in 1939 was the


A. invasion of Poland
B. invasion of Czechoslovakia
C. passing of the Neutrality Act
D. passing of the Land - Lease act
E. outbreak of the war in Europe

Ans : D

4. One item occurring 1937 that the author does not


mention in the list of actions that alienated the
American Public was
A. The persecution of religious groups
B. Nazi barbarism
C. The pacts with Italy
D. German plans for conquest of the world
E. The burning of the Reich tag.

Ans : E

5. The Land - Lease Act has designed to


A. Strengthen USA's national defense
B. Provide battle shit to the Allies
C. Help the British
D. the Atlantic Charter
E. Avenge Pearl Harbor

Ans : A

6. The Neutrality Act of 1939


A. restated America's isolationist policies
B. proclaimed American neutrality
C. permitted the selling of arms to belligerent nation
D. was cause of USA's entrances in to WORLD WAR II
E. started USA's national defense programs

Ans : C

7. During the years 1933-36, American policy may


be described as having been

1.watchful
2.isolationist
3.pacific
4.incorrect
5.discretionary

Ans : B

There was in increase of about 10 % in the investment in the


public sector, like electricity, irrigation quarrying, public
services and transport; even though the emphasis leaned
towards transport and away from the other sectors
mentioned. A 16-17% growth in investment, including a 30%
increase in investment in business premises has been
recorded in trade and services. Although there continued to
be a decline in the share of agriculture in total gross
investment in the economy, investment grew by 9% in
absolute terms, largely spurred on by a 23% expansion of
investment in agriculture equipment. Housing construction
had 12% more invested in it in 1964, not so much owing to
increase demand, as to fears of impending new taxes and
limitation of building.

There was a rise of close to 11% in the total consumption in


real terms during 1964 and per capita personal consumption
by under 7%, as in 1963. The undesirable trend towards a
rapid rise in consumption, evident in previous years, remains
unaltered. Since at current prices consumption rose by 16%
and disposable income by 13%, there was evidently a fall in
the rate of saving in the private sector of the economy. Once
again a swift advance in the standard of living was indicated
in consumption patterns. Though fruit consumption
increased, expenditure on food, especially bread and staple
items, declined significantly. There was a continuing increase
in the outlay on furniture and household equipment, health,
education and recreation. The greatest proof of altered living
standards was the rapid expansion of expenditure on
transport (including private cars) and personal services of all
kinds, which occurred during 1964. The changing
composition if purchased durable goods demonstrated the
progressive affluence of large sectors of the public. On the
one hand increased purchase of automobiles and television
sets were registered, a point of saturation was rapidly being
approached for items like the first household radio, gas
cookers, and electric refrigerators.

1. It is possible to to conclude from this passage,


that the people of the country were
A. spending more money than they earn
B. investing and consuming at an accelerated pace
C. saving more money than previously
D. spending their money wisely
E. lacking in necessities

Ans : B

2. According to the author the trend towards a


rapid rise in consumption is "undesirable" as:
A. there was an increase in the expenditure on frills
and luxuries
B. the people were affluent
C. there was a rise in the standard of living
D. people were eating less
E. people were saving less

Ans : E

3. It is possible to conclude that the United States


is not the discussed country as:
A. there was a decline in the expenditures for food
B. From the statement that the saturation point was
rapidly being approached for first household radios
C. there is no mention of military expenditures
D. the people were affluent
E. the people were not saving their money

Ans : B

4. The area, which saw the greatest expenditure of


investment funds was
A. The public sector
B. Business premises
C. Housing construction
D. Agricultural equipment
E. A field which cannot be determined

Ans : E

Visual recognition involves storing and retrieving memories.


Neural activity, triggered by the eye, forms an image in the
brains memory system that constitutes an internal
representation of the viewed object. When an object is
encountered again, it is matched with its internal
representation and thereby recognized. Controversy
surrounds the question of whether recognition is a parallel,
one-step process or a serial, step-by-step one. Psychologists
of the Gestalt school maintain that object are recognized as
wholes in a parallel procedure : , the internal representation
is matched with the retinal image in a single operation.
Other psychologists have proposed that internal
representation features are matched serially with an object's
features. Although some experiments show that, as an
object become familiar, its internal representation becomes
more familiar, its internal representation becomes more
holistic and the recognition process correspondingly more
parallel, the weight of evidence seems to support the serial
hypothesis, at least for objects that are not notably simple
and familiar.

1. It can be inferred from the passage that the


matching process in visual recognition is
A. Not a natural activity.
B. Not possible when an object is viewed for the very
first time.
C. Not possible if a feature of a familiar object is
changed in same way.
D. Only possible when a retinal image is received in
the brain as a unitary whole.
E. Now fully understood as a combination of the
serial and parallel process.

Ans : A

2. In terms of its tone and form, the passage can


best be characterized as
A. A biased exposition
B. A speculative study
C. A dispassionate presentation
D. An indignant denial
E. A dogmatic explanation.

Ans : C

3. The author is primarily concerned with


A. Explaining how the brain receives images
B. Synthesizing hypotheses of visual recognition
C. Examining the evidence supporting the serial
recognition hypothesis
D. Discussing visual recognition and some
hypotheses proposed to explain it.
E. Reporting on recent experiments dealing with
memory systems and their relationship to neural
activity.

Ans : B

4. According to the passage, Gestalt psychologists


make which of the following suppositions about
visual recognition?
I A retinal image is in exactly the same form as its
internal representation
II An object is recognized as a whole without any need
for analysis into component parts.
III The matching of an object with its internal
representation occurs in only one step
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

Ans : D

According to Albert Einstein the non mathematician, is


seized by a mysterious shuddering when he hears of 'four-
dimensional' things, he is seized by a feeling, which is very
similar to the thoughts awakened by the occult. And at the
same time the statement that the world in which we live is a
four-dimensional space - time continuum is quite a common
place statement.

This might lead to an argument regarding the use of the


term ''commonplace'' by Einstein. Yet the difficulty lies more
in the wording than the ideas. Einstein's concept of the
universe as a four-dimensional space-time continuum
becomes plain and clear, when what he means by
''continuum'' becomes clear. A continuum is something that
is continuous, A ruler, for example, is a one-dimensional
space continuum. Most rulers are divided into inches and
fractions, scaled down to one-sixteenth of an inch.
Will it be possible to conceive a ruler, which is calibrated to a
millionth or billionth of an inch. In theory there is no reason
why the steps from point to point should not be even
smaller. What distinguishes a continuum is the fact that the
space between any two points can be sub-divided into an
infinite number of smaller divisions.

A railroad track is a one-dimensional space continuum and


on it the engineer of a train can describe his position at any
time by citing a single co-ordinate point - i.e., a station or a
milestone. A sea captain, however, has to worry about two
dimensions. The surface of the sea is a two-dimensional
continuum and the co-ordinate points by which sailor fixes
his positions in his two dimensional continuum are latitude
and longitude. An airplane pilot guides his plane through a
three - dimensional continuum, hence he has to consider not
only latitude and longitude, but also his height above the
ground. The continuum of an airplane pilot constitutes space
as we perceive it. In other words, the space of our world is a
three-dimensional continuum.

Just indicating its position in space is not enough while


describing any physical event, which involves motion. How
position changes in time also needs to be mentioned. Thus
to give an accurate picture of the operation of a New York -
Chicago express, one must mention not only that it goes
from New - York to Albany to Syracuse to Cleveland to Toledo
to Chicago, but also the times at which it touches each of
those points. This can be done either by means of a
timetable or a visual chart. If the miles between New York
and Chicago are plotted horizontally on a piece of ruled
paper and the hours and minutes are plotted vertically, then
a diagonal line properly drawn across the page illustrates the
progress of the train in two - dimensional space - time
continuum. This type of graphic representation is familiar to
most newspaper readers; a stock market chart, for example,
pictures financial events in a two - dimensional dollar - time
continuum. Similarly for the best picturization of the flight of
an airplane from New York to Los Angeles a four -
dimensional space - time continuum is essential. The
latitude, longitude and altitude will only make sense to the
traffic manager of the airline if the time co - ordinate is also
mentioned. Therefore time is the fourth dimension. If a flight
has to be looked at, perceived as a whole, it wouldn't work if
it is broken down into a series of disconnected take - offs,
climbs, glides, and landing, it needs to be looked at and
perceived as a continuous four - dimensional space - time
continuum curve.

1. In order to explain a difficult topic, the author


use
A. Simply phrased definition's
B. An incessant metaphor
C. A plain writing style
D. Familiar images
E. A quotation from Einstein

Ans : D

2. The significant feature of a continuum, according


to the passage, revolves around
A. The divisibility of the interval between any two
points.
B. An ordinary ruler's caliber for marking
C. Its unending curve
D. Its lucid from providing comprehensibility to the
non - scientists as well
E. Its variety of co - ordinates.

Ans : A

3. The purpose of this passage is to highlight the


point that
A. Plots and sea captains have something in common
B. Stock market charts may be helpful to physicists
C. The fourth dimension is time.
D. Non - mathematician's are often afraid of the
commonplace
E. There is a marked quality to distance
Ans : C

4. According to the passage, an airlines traffic


manager depends upon all of the following
EXCEPT
A. latitude
B. altitude
C. the time co - ordinate
D. longitude
E. the continuous curve in co four

Ans : E

5. The underlying tone of this selection is


A. persuasive
B. deferential
C. candid
D. instructive
E. gently condescending

Ans : D

6. According to the author if on wishes portray a


physical event in which motion plays a role - one
has to
A. Make use of a time-table
B. Indicate how position changes in time
C. Be conversant with the scientist's theories
D. Describe it graphically
E. Be aware of altitude, latitude and longitude

Ans : B

7. The sea-captain's example has been cited in


order to
A. Help understand a two - dimensional continuum
B. Set up a logical progression
C. Simplify what ever is too elaborate
D. Mitigate the gap between the engineer and pilot
E. To sustain out interest in the reading of the
passage.

Ans : A

From the 197 million square miles, which make up the


surface of the globe, 71 per cent is covered by the
interconnecting bodies of marine water; the Pacific Ocean
alone covers half the Earth and averages near 14,000 feet in
depth. The portions which rise above sea level are the
continents-Eurasia, Africa; North America, South America,
Australia, and Antarctica. The submerged borders of the
continental masses are the continental shelves, beyond
which lie the deep-sea basins.

The ocean are deepest not in the center but in some


elongated furrows, or long narrow troughs, called deeps.
These profound troughs have a peripheral arrangement,
notably around the borders of the pacific and Indian oceans.
The position of the deeps, like the highest mountains, are of
recent origin, since otherwise they would have been filled
with waste from the lands. This is further strengthened by
the observation that the deeps are quite often, where world-
shaking earthquakes occur. To cite an example, the "tidal
wave" that in April, 1946, caused widespread destruction
along Pacific coasts resulted from a strong earthquake on the
floor of the Aleutian Deep.

The topography of the ocean floors is none too well known,


since in great areas the available soundings are hundreds or
even thousands of miles apart. However, the floor of the
Atlantic is becoming fairly well known as a result of special
surveys since 1920. A broad, well-defined ridge-the Mid-
Atlantic ridge-runs north and south between Africa and the
two Americas and numerous other major irregularities
diversify the Atlantic floor. Closely spaced soundings show
that many parts of the oceanic floors are as rugged as
mountainous regions of the continents. Use of the recently
perfected method of submarine topography. During world
war II great strides were made in mapping submarine
surfaces, particularly in many parts of the vast Pacific basin.

Most of the continents stand on an average of 2870 feet


above sea level. North America averages 2300 feet; Europe
averages only 1150 feet; and Asia, the highest of the larger
continental subdivisions, averages 3200 feet. Mount Everest,
which is the highest point in the globe, is 29,000 feet above
the sea; and as the greatest known depth in the sea is over
35,000 feet, the maximum relief (that is, the difference in
altitude between the lowest and highest points) exceeds
64,000 feet, or exceeds 12 miles. The continental masses
and the deep-sea basins are relief features of the first order;
the deeps, ridges, and volcanic cones that diversify the sea
floor, as well as the plains, plateaus, and mountains of the
continents, are relief features of the second order. The lands
are unendingly subject to a complex of activities
summarized in the term erosion, which first sculptures them
in great detail and then tends to reduce them ultimately to
sea level. The modeling of the landscape by weather,
running water, and other agents is apparent to the keenly
observant eye and causes thinking people to speculate on
what must be the final result of the ceaseless wearing down
of the lands. Much before there was any recognizable
science as geology, Shakespeare wrote "the revolution of the
times makes mountains level."

1. The peripheral furrows or deeps are found


A. only in the pacific and Indian oceans
B. near earthquakes
C. near the shore
D. in the center of the ocean
E. to be 14,000 feet in depth in the pacific.

Ans : C

2. The largest ocean is the


A. Atlantic
B. pacific
C. Aleutian deep
D. arctic
E. Indian.

Ans : B

3. We may conclude from this passage that earth


quakes
A. Occur more frequently in newly formed land or sea
formations
B. Are caused by the weight of the water
C. Cause erosion
D. Occur in the deeps
E. Will ultimately "make mountains level".

Ans : A

4. The highest mountains are


A. oldest
B. in excess of 12 miles
C. near the deeps
D. relief features of the first order
E. of recent origin.

Ans : E

5. The science of geology was started


A. By the Greeks
B. During world war II
C. April 1946
D. After 1600
E. In 1920

Ans : D

6. The highest point on North America is


A. 2870 feet above sea level
B. not mentioned in the passage
C. higher than the highest point in Europe
D. 2300 feet above sea level
E. in Mexico.
Ans : B

7. The deeps are subject to change caused by


A. erosion
B. soundings
C. earthquakes
D. waste
E. weathering

Ans : C

8. The continental masses


A. Rise above sea level
B. Consist of six continents
C. Are relief features of the second order
D. Are partially submerged
E. Comprise 29 per cent of the earth's surface.

Ans : D

A clear answer to whether the languages of the ancient


American peoples were made use of for expressing abstract
universal concepts can be sought in the case of Nahuatl,
which like Greek and German, is a language that allows the
formation of extensive compounds. By combining radicals or
semantic elements, single compound words can express
complex conceptual relations, often of an abstract universal
character.

The tlamatinime ("those who know") were able to use this


rich stock of abstract terms to express the nuances of their
thought. They also availed themselves of other forms of
expression with metaphorical meaning, some probably
original, some derived from Toltec coinages. Of these forms
the most characteristic in Nahuatl is the juxtaposition of two
words that, because they are synonyms, associated terms,
or even contraries, complement each other to evoke one
single idea. The juxtaposed terms, used as metaphor,
suggest specific or essential traits of the being they refer to,
introducing a mode of poetry as an almost habitual form of
expression.

1. According to the passage, some abstract


universal ideas can be expressed in Nahuatl by
A. Putting various meaningful elements together in
one word
B. Taking away from a word any reference to
particular instances
C. Turning each word of a phrase into a poetic
metaphor
D. Giving a word a new and opposite meaning
E. Removing a word from its associations with other
words.

Ans : A

2. It can be inferred solely from the information in


the passage that
A. Metaphors are always used in Nahuatl to express
abstract conceptual relationships
B. There are many languages that, like Greek or
German, allow extensive compounding
C. The abstract terms of the Nahuatl language are
habitually used in poetry
D. Some record or evidence of the though of the
tlamatinime exists
E. All abstract universal ideas are ideas of complex
relations.

Ans : D

3. A main purpose of the passage is to


A. Argue against a theory of poetic expression by
citing evidence about the Nahuatl
B. Delineate the function of the tlamatinime in
Nahuatl society
C. Explore the rich metaphorical heritage the Nahuatl
received from the toltecs
D. Describe some conceptual and aesthetic resources
of the Nahuatl language
E. Explain the abstract philosophy of the Nahuatl
thinkers.

Ans : D

Few areas of neuron behavioral research seemed more


promising is the early sixties than that investigating the
relationship between protein synthesis and learning. The
conceptual framework for the research was derived directly
from molecular biology, which had shown that genetic
information is stored in nucleic acids and expressed in
proteins why not acquired information as well.

The first step towards establishing a connection between


protein synthesis and learning seemed to be to block
memory (cause adhesion) by interrupting the production of
proteins. We were fortunate in finding a non lethal dosage of
puromycin that could, it first appealed, thoroughly inhibit
brain protein synthesis as well as reliability produce
amnesia.

Before the actual connection between protein synthesis and


learning could be established however we began to have
douche about whether inhibition of protein synthesis was in
fact the method by which puromycin produced amnesia.
First, ocher drugs, glutavimides themselves potent protein
synthesis inhibitors either failed to cause amnesia in some
situations where it could easily be induced by puromycin or
produced an amnesia with a different time course from that
of puromycin. Second, puromycin was found to inhabit
protein synthesis by breaking certain amino acid chaim, and
the resulting fragments were suspected of being the actual
cause of amnesia is some eases. Third, puromycin was
reported to cause abnormalities in the train, including
seizures. Thus, not only were decreased protein synthesis
and amnesia dissociated, but alternative mechanism for the
amnestic action of puromycin were readily suggested.
So, puromycin turned out to be a disappointment. It came to
be regarded as a poor agent for amnesia studies, although,
of course, it was poor only in the context of our original
paradigm of protein synthesis inhibition. In our frustration,
our initial response was simply to change dregs rather than
our conceptual orientation. After many such
disappointments, however, it now appears unlikely, that we
will make a firm connection between protein synthesis and
learning merely by pursuing the approaches of the past our
experience with drugs has shown that all the amnestic
agents, often interfere with memory in ways that seem
unrelated to their inhibition of protein synthesis. More
importantly, the notion that the interruption or intensification
of protein production in the train can be related in cause and
affect fashion to learning non seems simplistic and
unproductive. Remove the battery from a car and the car will
not go Drive the car a long distance at high speed and the
battery will become more highly charged. Neither of these
facts proves that the battery power the car, only knowledge
of the overall automotive system will reveal it mechanism of
locomotion and the role of the battery with in the system.

1. The primary purpose a the passage is to show


that extensive experimentation has
A. Mot supported the hypothesis that learning is
directly dependent on protein synthesis
B. Cast doubt on the value of puromycin in the newer
behavioral study of learning
C. Revealed the importance of amnesia in the neuron
behavioral study of learning
D. Demonstrated the importance of amino acid
fragmentation in the induction of amnesia.
E. Not yet demonstrated the applicability of
molecular biology to behavioral research.

Ans : A

2. According to the passage, neuron behaviorists


initially based their belief that protein synthesis
was related to learning on which of the
following?
A. Specific research into learning on which of the
following
B. Traditional theories about learning
C. Historic experiments on the effects puromycin
D. Previous discoveries in molecular biology
E. Now technique in protein synthesis.

Ans : D

3. This passage was most likely excepted from


A. A book review in a leading journal devoted to
genetic research.
B. A diary kept by a practicing neuron behavioral
research
C. An article summarizing a series of scientific
investigations in neuron behavioral research.
D. A news paper article on recent advances in the
biochemistry of learning
E. A technical article on experimental techniques in
the field of molecular biology.

Ans : C

4. It can be inferred from the passage that after


puromycin was perceived to be a disappointment,
researches did which of the following?
A. They continued to experiment with puromycin
until a neuron anatomical framework was
developed.
B. They continued to experiment with puromycin, but
also tried other protein synthesis inhibitors
C. They ceased to experiment with puromycin and
shifted to other promising protein synthesis
inhibitors.
D. They ceased to experiment with puromycin and
reexamined through experiments the relationship
between genetic information and acquired
information.
E. They continued to experiment with puromycin, but
applied their results to other facts of memory
research.

Ans : C

5. In the example of the car (lines 62-70) the


battery is meant to represent which of the
following elements in the neuron behavioral
research program?
A. glutarimides
B. acquired information
C. puromycin
D. amnesia
E. protein synthesis

Ans : E

6. The passage all of the following as effects of


puromycin except
A. Fragmentation of amino-acid chaim
B. Inhibition of protein synthesis
C. Brain seizures
D. Memory loss
E. Destruction of genetic information

Ans : E

7. Which of the following statements would be most


likely to come after the last sentences of the
passage?
A. It is important in the future, therefore for
behavioral bio- chemist to focus on the several
components of the total learning system.
B. The ambivalent status of current research,
however should not deter neuron behaviorists
from exploring the deeper connection between
protein production and learning.
C. The failures of the past, however must not impede
further research into the amnestic of protein-
synthesis inhibitors.
D. It is important in the future, therefore, for
behavioral biochemist to emphasize more strongly
place of their specific findings within the overall
protein synthesis model of learning.
E. It is a legacy of this research, therefore, that
molecular biology's genetic models have led to
disagreement among neuron behaviorists.

Ans : A

In any country, the wages commanded by the laborers who


have comparable skills but who work in various industries
are determined by the productivity of the least productive
unit of labour, i.e. the unit of labour which works in the
industry which has catatest economic disadvantages. We will
represent the various opportunities of employment in a
country like united states by Symbols. A standing for a group
of industries in which we have exceptional economic
advantage over foreign countries; B for a group in which our
advantages are less; E , one in which they are still less; D,
the group of industries in which they are the least of all.

When our population is so small that all our labour can be


engaged in the group represented by A, productivity of
labour and (therefore wages) will be at their maximum. when
our population increases so that some of the labour will have
to work in group B, the wages of all labour must decline to
the level of productivity in that group. But no employer,
without government aid, will yet be able to afford to hire
labour to exploit the opportunities, represented by E and D,
unless there is a further increase in population.

But suppose that the political party in power holds the belief
that we should produce everything that we consume, that
the opportunities represented by E and D should also be
exploited. The commodities, that the industries composing C
and D will produce have been hitherto obtained from abroad
in exchange for commodities produce by A and B. The
government now renders this difficult by imposing high
duties upon the former class of commodities. This means
that workers in A and B must pay higher prices for what they
buy, but do not receive higher prices for what they sell.

After the duty has gone into effect and the prices of
commodities that can be produced by C and D have risch
sufficiently enterprises will be able to hire labour at the
wages prevailing in A and B and establish industries in C and
D. So far as the remaining labours in A and B buy the
products of C and D ,the difference between the price which
they pay for these product and the price they would pay it
they were permitted to import those products duty-free is a
tax paid not to the government, but to the producers in C
and D, to enable the later to remain in business. It is on
uncompensated deduction from the natural earnings of the
labourers in A and B. nor are the workers in C and D paid as
much, estimated in purchasing power as they would have
received if they had been allowed to remain in A and B under
the earlier conditions.

1. The authors main point is that


A. The government ought to subsidize C and D
B. Wages ought to be independent of international
trade
C. It is impossible to attain national self sufficiency
D. The varying productivity of the various industries
leads tot he inequalities in wages of workers in
these industries
E. A policy that draws labour from the fields of
catater natural productiveness to fields of lower
natural productiveness tends to redirect
purchasing power.

Ans : E

2. No employer, without government aid will yet be


able to afford to hire labour to exploit the
opportunities represented by C and D because
A. The population has increased
B. Productivity of labour is not at the maximum
C. Productivity would drop correspondingly with the
wages of labour
D. We cannot produce everything we consume
E. Enterprises would have to pay wages equivalent to
those obtained by workers in A and B while
producing under catater disadvantages.

Ans : E

3. When C and D are established, workers in these


industries
A. Receives wages equal to those workers in A and B
B. Receives higher wages than do the workers in A
and B
C. Are not affected so adversely by the levying of
duties as are workers in A and B
D. Must be paid by government funds collected from
the duties on imports.
E. Receive lower wages than do the workers in A and
B.

Ans : A

4. We cannot exploit C and D unless


A. The producers in E and D are compensated for the
disadvantages under which they operate.
B. We export large quantities of commodities
produced by A and B
C. The prices of commodities produced by A and B
are raised
D. The productivity of labour in all industries is
increased
E. We allow duties to be paid to the producers in C
and D rather than to the government.

Ans : A
MARK HUGHES is a master of the fine art of survival. His Los
Angeles-based Herbalife International Inc. is a pyramid outfit
that peddles weight-loss and nutrition concoctions of
dubious value. Bad publicity and regulatory crackdowns hurt
his U.S. business in the late 1980s. But Hughes, 41,
continues to enjoy a luxurious lifestyle in a $20 million
Beverly Hills mansion. He has been sharing the pad and a
yacht with his third wife, a former Miss Petite U.S.A. He can
finance this lavish lifestyle just on his salary and bonus,
which last year came to $7.3 million.

He survived his troubles in the U.S. by moving overseas,


where regulators are less zealous and consumers even more
naive, at least initially. Today 77% of Herbalife retail sales
derive from overseas. Its new prowling grounds: Asia and
Russia. Last year Herbalife's net earnings doubled, to $45
million, on net sales of $632 million. Based on Herbalife's
Nasdaq-traded stock, the company has a market
capitalization of $790 million, making Hughes 58% worth
$454 million.

There's a worm, though, in Hughes apple. Foreigners aren't


stupid. In the end they know when they've been had. In
France, for instance, retail sales rose to $97 million by 1993
and then plunged to $12 million last year. In Germany sales
hit $159 million in 1994 and have since dropped to $54
million.

Perhaps aware that the world may not provide an infinite


supply of suckers, Hughes wanted to unload some of his
shares. But in March, after Herbalife's stock collapsed, he put
off a plan to dump about a third of his holdings on the public.

Contributing to Hughes' woes, Herbalife's chief counsel and


legal attack dog, David Addis, quit in January. Before packing
up, he reportedly bellowed at Hughes, "I can't protect you
anymore." Addis, who says he wants to spend more time
with his family, chuckles and claims attorney-client privilege.
Trouble on the home front, too. On a recent conference call
with distributors, Hughes revealed he's divorcing his wife,
Suzan, whose beaming and perky image adorns much of
Herbalife's literature.

Meanwhile, in a lawsuit that's been quietly moving through


Arizona's Superior Court, former Herbalife distributor Daniel
Fallow of Sandpoint, Idaho charges that Herbalife arbitrarily
withholds payment to distributors and marks up its products
over seven times the cost of manufacturing. Fallow also
claims Hughes wanted to use the Russian mafia to gain entry
to that nation's market.

Fallow himself is no angel, but his lawsuit, which was posted


on the Internet, brought out other complaints. Randy Cox of
Lewiston, Idaho says Herbalife "destroyed my business" after
he and his wife complained to the company that they were
being cheated out of their money by higher-ups in the
pyramid organization.

Will Hughes survive again? Don't count on it this time.

1. Herbalife Inc is based in:


A. Los Angeles
B. Columbus
C. New York
D. Austin

Ans : A

2. Daniel Fallow:
A. Was a former attorney for Hughes
B. Was a former distributor of Herbalife
C. Co-founded Herbalife
D. Ran Herbalife's German unit

Ans : B

3. Which of the following countries is mentioned where


Hughes operated Herbalife?
A. India
B. China
C. Germany
D. Ukraine

Ans : C

4. The complaint of Randy Cox of Lewiston, Idaho, against


Herbalife was:
A. The company did not pay them their dues
B. The products supplied by Hughes were inferior
C. Their higher-ups in the pyramid cheated them
D. Hughes had connections with the Russian mafia

Ans : C

5. Which of the following countries is NOT mentioned in


the passage?
A. Russia
B. USA
C. France
D. Italy

Ans : D

6. In the year in which Hughes' salary and bonuses came


to US$ 7.3 million, what was the retail sales for
Herbalife in France?
A. $12 million
B. $159 million
C. $54 million
D. $97 million

Ans :A

7. At the time when this article was written, if Herbalife


had had a market capitalisation of $ 1 billion, what
would have been Hughes' share?

A.$420 million
B.$580 million
C.$125 million
D.$500 million

Ans : B

Verbal Section : Antonyms

Directions:
Each of the CAT sample antonyms questions below consists
of a word printed in Italics, followed by five words or phrase
as choices. Choose the word or phrase which is most nearly
opposite in meaning to the word in capitals and shade the
alphabets marked in the grid on your answer sheet.

Following are some CAT sample antonyms questions.

1. ABOMINATE :
A. loathe
B. despise
C. adore
D. abhor
E. attach

Ans : C

2. OBSEQUIOUS :
A. servile
B. first
C. fawning
D. supercilious
E. improper

Ans : D

3. OROTUND :
A. not resonant
B. not reddish
C. not eager
D. pompous
E. loud

Ans : A

4. RECANT :
A. entangle
B. rescue
C. fail
D. assert
E. predict

Ans : D

5. UPBRAID :
A. defer
B. vacillate
C. sever
D. conjoin
E. laud

Ans : E

6. PLENITUDE :
A. luxury
B. magnificence
C. richness
D. contentment
E. scarcity

Ans : E

7. SCURRILOUS :
A. decent
B. savage
C. major
D. volatile
E. scabby

Ans : A

8. FULMINATION :
A. praise
B. repetition
C. escape
D. ratification
E. addition

Ans : A

9. DISTEND
A. deteriorate
B. weaken
C. constrict
D. concentrate
E. fold

Ans : C

10. TOUT
A. cast aspersions on
B. deny the relevance of
C. placate
D. withhold consent
E. misrepresent

Ans : E

11. SQUALID
A. fervid
B. florid
C. pristine
D. extraneous
E. abundant

Ans : C

12. SCOTCH
A. renovate
B. entrust
C. unfasten
D. encourage
E. emphasize

Ans : D

13. PERFIDY
A. tact
B. generosity
C. thoroughness
D. loyalty
E. gratitude

Ans : D

14. OUTLANDISH
A. conventional
B. prolific
C. unchanging
D. transparent
E. noticeable

Ans : A

15. PLUMB
A. reversed
B. lofty
C. horizontal
D. thin
E. light

Ans : C

16. FERVID
A. undistinguished
B. unexpected
C. stubborn
D. restrained
E. discouraged

Ans : D
17. VACUITY
A. quality
B. certainty
C. plenitude
D. stability
E. incontinence

Ans : C

18. RAVEL
A. knit
B. omit
C. remain silent
D. measure
E. increase in value

Ans : A

19. PERSISTENCE
A. irrelevance
B. inconstancy
C. inequality
D. intemperance
E. incompetence.

Ans : B

20. SUBROSA
A. openly
B. fashionably
C. under the owse
D. simply
E. clandestinely

Ans : A

31. ANIMOSITY
A. parody
B. retardation
C. sincerity
D. refutation
E. canaraderie

Ans : E

32. INVETERATE
A. uninvited
B. illiterate
C. cumulative
D. beginning
E. incompetent

Ans : D

33. SCOTCH
A. renovate
B. encourage
C. entrust
D. ameliorate

Ans : B

34. PREDILECTION
A. ambiguity
B. unwillingness to choose
C. desire to please
D. propensity to dislike
E. stereotype

Ans : D

35. CHOLERIC
A. good-natured
B. spoiled
C. irascible
D. immune
E. idiotic.

Ans : A

36. EXACERBATE
A. contemplate
B. bewilder
C. reward
D. better
E. horify

Ans : D

37. EQUANIMITY
A. clamour
B. volume
C. disparity
D. agitation
E. caution

Ans : D

38. ANIMADVERSION
A. gullibility
B. precision
C. praise
D. sobriety
E. criticize

Ans : C

39. EXHUME
A. enter
B. fertilize
C. inter
D. decay
E. clarify

Ans : C

40. CALLOW
A. rustic
B. crude
C. exquisite
D. experienced
E. migratory

Ans : D

41. CUPIDITY
A. generosity
B. love
C. anxiety
D. entertainment
E. tragedy.

Ans : A

42. ANIMOSITY
A. parody
B. retardation
C. sincerity
D. refutation
E. canaraderie

Ans : B

43. INVETERATE
A. uninvited
B. illiterate
C. cumulative
D. beginning
E. incompetent

Ans : A

44. SATURNINE :
A. quick – wilted
B. genial
C. heavy – handed
D. distinguished
E. devout

Ans : E

45. PERSPICACIOUS :
A. Insufficiently precise
B. of indefinite duration
C. dull wilted
D. lacking intrinsic value
E. condemnatory

Ans : D

46. INCARCERATE :
A. summon
B. assist
C. liberate
D. anticipate
E. confide

Ans : C

47. INSOLVENCY :
A. ability to sustain growth
B. concentration
C. coherence
D. ability to pay one’s debts
E. compatibility

Ans : D

48. EFFLUVIA :
A. controlled reactions
B. predictable results
C. important examples
D. descried products
E. relevant theories

Ans : C

49. APPOSITE :
A. parallel
B. synonymous
C. hostile
D. inappropriate
E. vague

Ans : D

50. GRATUITOUS :
A. frank
B. pithy
C. warranted
D. frugal
E. ingenuous

Ans : A

51. PREFATORY :
A. intelligent
B. outstanding
C. predatory
D. conclusive
E. magnificent

Ans : E

52. CONCILIATE :
A. arrive
B. appeal
C. retaliate
D. estrange
E. lie

Ans : B

53. SUBSERVIENT :
A. fawning
B. obsequious
C. miserly
D. omnipresent
E. haughty

Ans : C

54. VAUNTED :
A. berated
B. belittled
C. lauded
D. wicked
E. worried

Ans : C

55. QUOTA :
A. Anonymous remark
B. decisive action
C. debatable issue
D. unlimited number
E. irrelevant topic

Ans : D

56. CONTENTIOUS :
A. satisfied
B. pacific
C. hungry
D. bellicose
E. dissatisfied

Ans : D

57. OBLOQUY :
A. fame
B. name
C. inquiry
D. shame
E. collogue

Ans : D

58. PENCHANT :
A. distaste
B. scabbard
C. agreement
D. earring
E. beginning

Ans : C

59. BALEFUL :
A. empty
B. tasty
C. gaudy
D. full
E. congenial

Ans : D

60. CURT :
A. contractual
B. precise
C. honest
D. voluble
E. peremptory

Ans : D

61. INVIDIOUS :
A. candid
B. stubborn
C. defensive
D. hostile
E. inoffensive

Ans : E

62. MACERATE :
A. cover by painting
B. assess by observing
C. harden by drying
D. influence by lying
E. cure by medicating

Ans : B
63. SKEPTICISM :
A. reason
B. conviction
C. plausibility
D. audricty
E. argument

Ans : D

64. IGNOMINIOUS :
A. scholarly
B. incognito
C. laudatory
D. disgraceful
E. erudite

Ans : B

65. CODA :
A. creflain
B. crescendo
C. prelude
D. improvisation
E. solo

Ans : A

66. PALTRY :
A. farm
B. scanty
C. excessive
D. friendly
E. benevolent

Ans : A

67. PUISSANCE :
A. strength
B. knowledge
C. liberality
D. skepticism
E. powerlessness

Ans : E

68. MANUMIT :
A. print
B. impress
C. enslave
D. fail
E. endeavor

Ans : D

69.GENUFLECT :
A. pronounce correctly
B. falsify
C. trick
D. stand erect
E. project

Ans : E

70. INNOCUOUS :
A. toxic
B. large
C. sober
D. impeccable
E. spotless

Ans : C

71. BAROQUE :
A. rococo
B. simple
C. common
D. stupid
E. boat like
Ans : B

72. MYOPIC :
A. blind
B. moral
C. visionary
D. farsighted
E. glassy

Ans : C

73. NASCENT :
A. loyal
B. fading
C. unnamed
D. treacherous
E. reoccuring

Ans : C

74. LOLL :
A. describe exactly
B. insist strongly
C. comply readily
D. notice incidentally
E. move vigorously

Ans : E

75. TURBULENCE :
A. immunity
B. tranquility
C. meditation
D. moderation
E. co – ordination

Ans : E

76. BANAL :
A. inclined
B. faithful
C. elaborate
D. forced
E. arresting

Ans : C

77. GERMINAL
A. sterilized
B. strategic
C. fully developed
D. primitive
E. excused .

Ans : D

78. GASCONADE
A. modesty
B. transparency
C. seizure
D. cleanliness
E. imposture

Ans : A

79. MIASMA
A. scenario
B. summing up
C. noxious fumes
D. fragrant aroma
E. benevolent

Ans : B

80. OPPORTUNIST
A. Man of principle
B. fatalist
C. fledgling
D. colleague
E. foe.

Ans : D
81. CENSURE
A. uncertainity
B. encomium
C. criticism
D. legal contual
E. matrimony

Ans : B

82. COMMODIOUS
A. product
B. space
C. cramped
D. company
E. roomy.

Ans : E

83. EFFRONTERY
A. modesty
B. confrontation
C. avoidance
D. shamelessness
E. impudence

Ans : B

84. OBSTREPEROUS
A. noisy
B. defiant
C. permeable
D. quiet
E. stubborn

Ans : E

85. PACIFY
A. ameliorate
B. patchup
C. truce
D. tormented
E. agitated

Ans : C

86. AMBIGUOUS
A. confusing
B. lucid
C. desirous
D. obfuscate
E. pun

Ans : A

87. MILITANT
A. Dramatic
B. combative
C. religious
D. pacific
E. quaint.

Ans : D

88. MOTILITY :
A. static
B. tension
C. ascent
D. liquidity
E. vulnerability

Ans : A

89. SINUOUS :
A. wet
B. vacant
C. numerous
D. direct
E. round

Ans : D
90. PLUMB :
A. reversed
B. horizontal
C. light
D. lofty
E. thin

Ans : B

91. SEGMENT:
A. inflate
B. affix
C. keep still
D. make whole
E. cleanse

Ans : D

92. OSSIFY :
A. reassemble fragments
B. overlook problems
C. create consensus
D. placate critics
E. transcend conventions

Ans : E

93. RAVEL :
A. increase in value
B. omit
C. remain silent
D. measure
E. knit

Ans : E

94. CALUMINATE :
A. vindicate
B. supplant
C. rejuvenate
D. follow
E. familiarize

Ans : A

95. TURPITUDE :
A. pragmatism
B. probity
C. judiciousness
D. animation
E. determinedness

Ans : B

96. INVECTIVE :
A. willing compliance
B. normality
C. restoration
D. fertility
E. laudatory words

Ans : E

97. PILLORY :
A. lament
B. foster
C. exalt
D. enjoy
E. forgive

Ans : C

98. UNTOWARD :
A. experienced
B. inevitable
C. industrious
D. straight forward
E. favourable

Ans : E
Math Quantitative

Quantitative Comparisons

Directions:

In this section you will be given two quantities, one in


column A and one in column B. You are to determine a
relationship between the two quantities and mark.

A. If the quantity in column A is greater than the quantity


in column B.
B. If the quantity in column B is greater than the quantity
in column A.
C. If the quantities are equal.
D. If the comparison cannot be determined from the
information that is given.

1. Quantity A: (-6)4
Quantity B: (-6)5
A. if the quantity A is greater;
B. if the quantity B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : A

2. Quantity A: Time to travel 95 miles at 50 miles per


hour
Quantity B: Time to travel 125 miles at 60 miles per
hour
A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : C
3. Quantity A: (9/13)2
Quantity B: (9/13)1/2
A. Quantity A equals Quantity B
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : C

4. Quantity A: 4 / 100
Quantity B: 0.012 / 3
A. Quantity B is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity A is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : C

5. x = 2y + 3
y = -2

Quantity A: x
Quantity B: -1

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater


B. if the quantity in Column B is greater
C. if the two quantities are equal
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the
information given

Ans : C

6. x + 2y > 8

Quantity A: 2x + 4y
Quantity B: 20

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater


B. if the quantity in Column B is greater
C. if the two quantities are equal
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : D

7. Quantity A: The number of months in 7 years


Quantity B: The number of days in 12 weeks
A. if the quantity in Column A is greater
B. if the quantity in Column B is greater
C. if the two quantities are equal
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the
information given

Ans : C

8. Quantity A: 1-1/27
Quantity B: 8/9 + 1/81
A. if the quantity in is greater
B. if the quantity in is greater
C. if the two quantities are equal
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : A

9. r/>s/>0/>

Quantity A: rs/r
Quantity B: rs/s

A. if the quantity A is greater


B. if the quantity B is greater
C. if the two quantities are equal
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : B

10. Quantity A: 0.83


Quantity B: 0.81/3
A. Quantity B is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A is greater
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : A

11.t is a positive integer.


4/7 = t/s

Quantity A: s
Quantity B:7

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;


B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the
information given

Ans : D

12. Quantity A: (0.82)2(0.82)3


Quantity B:(0.82)6
A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : A

13. For all real numbers a, let a* = 1 - a.

Quantity A: ((-1)*)*
Quantity B: 2*

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;


B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.
Ans : C

14. Quantity A: (x - 1)(x)(x + 1)


Quantity B:(x)(x)(x)
A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : D

15. Quantity A: (3 x 4 x 17) / (121 x 100)


Quantity B: (4 x 5 x 19) / (1000 x 121)
A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity B is greater

16.Consider a triangle PQR.

Quantity A: length of PQ + length of QR


Quantity B: length of PR

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : A

17. Quantity A: (27 - 13) (296 + 534)


Quantity B: (27 + 13) (534 + 296)
A. Quantity B is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : D
18. Quantity A: A = 1.1
Quantity B: 12.11/2
A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : B

19.100 < y < 200 and 100 < z < 210

Quantity A: y
Quantity B: z

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : D

20. y2 + z2 = 34 and yz = 15

Quantity A: y2 + 2yz + z2
Quantity B: (y + z)2

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A is greater
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : D

21.Consider a rectangle. The length of its shorter side is 8,


and the length of its diagonal is 16.

Quantity A: 30o
Quantity B: measure of angle formed by diagonal and
shorter side

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity A is greater
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : D

22. Quantity A: (y + 5)2


Quantity B: (y - 5)2
A. Quantity B is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : B

23. Quantity A: (1/25)1/2 + (1/144)1/2


Quantity B: [(1/25) + (1/144)]1/2
A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : A

24.y2 + z2 = 34 and yz = 15

Quantity A: y2 + 2yz + z2
Quantity B: (y + z)2

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : C

25.100 < y < 200 and 100 < z < 210

Quantity A: y
Quantity B: z
A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : D

26. Quantity A: (y + 5)2


Quantity B: (y - 5)2
A. Quantity A equals Quantity B
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : C

27.Consider a rectangle. The length of its shorter side is 8,


and the length of its diagonal is 16.

Quantity A: 30o
Quantity B: measure of angle formed by diagonal and
shorter side

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : C

28.The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 18.

Quantity A: Their average


Quantity B: 6

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : C
29.x - y > 10

Quantity A: y - x
Quantity B: 12

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : A

30.x = 0, y > 0

Quantity A: xy
Quantity B: yx

A. Quantity A equals Quantity B


B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : C

Quantity A: 29
Quantity B: 92

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : B

0 < -x < 10
11 < -y < 20

Quantity A: x
Quantity B: y
A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : D

x and y are both positive and x/y > 5

Quantity A: 0.2x
Quantity B: y

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : A

x and y are both positive and x/y > 5

Quantity A: 0.2x
Quantity B: y

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : D

yz < 0

Quantity A: (y - z)2
Quantity B: y2 + z2

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate
Ans : A

For any positive integer n,


n! is the product of all positive integers less than or equal to
n.

Quantity A: 20! / 17!


Quantity B: 80! / 78!

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : A

2<z<4

Quantity A: π2z3
Quantity B: π3z2

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : D

Amy, Beth and Charlie divided a pizza amongst


themselves.
Amy took 30% of the pizza and ate (3/4) of what she took.
Beth took 20% of the pizza.
Charlie ate (2/5) of what he took.

Quantity A: The amount Amy ate


Quantity B: The amount Charlie ate

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate
Ans : A

p>0>q

Quantity A: p + q
Quantity B: pq

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.


B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : D

Quantity A: The average (arithmetic mean) of x and y


Quantity B: The average (arithmetic mean) of x - 1 and y +
1

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.


B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : C

The integer (x - 1) is a prime number between 40 and 50.

Quantity A: The sum of all different prime factors of x


Quantity B: 14

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.


B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : B
A<C
B>D>0

Quantity A: A - B
Quantity B: C - D

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.


B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : B

In a particular jellybean jar, the number of red jellybeans


exceeds the number of white ones by a ratio of 3:2. If two
red jellybeans were removed, the ratio of red to white
jellybeans would be 1:1.

Quantity A: The number of white jellybeans in the jar


Quantity B: 4

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.


B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

Ans : C

Directions: Solve each CAT sample quantitative ability


problem and indicate the best of the answer choices given..

Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.

Figures: A figure accompanying a CAT sample quantitatove


ability problem solving question is intended to provide
information useful in solving the problem. Figures are drawn
as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a
specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale. Straight
lines may sometimes appear jagged. All figures lie on a
plane unless otherwise indicated.

Following are some CAT sample quantitative ability


questions.

1. A rectangle is 14 cm long and 10 cm wide. If the length


is reduced by x cms and its width is increased also by x
cms so as to make it a square then its area changes by
:
A. 4
B. 144
C. 12
D. 2
E. None of the above.

Ans : A

2. A motorcycle stunts man belonging to a fair, rides over


the vertical walls of a circular well at an average speed
of 54 kph for 5 minutes. If the radius of the well is 5
meters then the distance traveled is:
A. 2.5 kms
B. 3.5 kms
C. 4.5 kms
D. 5.5 kms
E. None of the above

Ans : C

3. If 1 cm on a map corresponds to an actual distance of


40 kms. And the distance on the map between Bombay
and Calcutta is 37.5 cms., the actual distance between
them is :
A. 375 kms
B. 3750 kms
C. 1500 kms
D. 1375 kms
E. None of the above
Ans : C

4. A box contains 90 mts each of 100 gms and 100 bolts


each of 150 gms. If the entire box weighs 35.5 kg., then
the weight of the empty box is :
A. 10 kg
B. 10.5 kg
C. 11 kg
D. 11.5 kg
E. None of the above

Ans : D

5. If the radius of a circle is increased by 20% then the


area is increased by :
A. 44%
B. 120%
C. 144%
D. 40%
E. None of the above

Ans : A

6. Tom, Dick and Harry went for lunch to a restaurant. Tom


had $100 with him, Dick had $60 and Harry had $409.
They got a bill for $104 and decided to give a tip of
$16. They further decided to share the total expenses
in the ratio of the amounts of money each carried. The
amount of money which Tom paid more than what
Harry paid is
A. 120
B. 200
C. 60
D. 24
E. 36

Ans : E

7. A plot of land is in the shape of a trapezium whose


dimensions are given in the figure below :
Hence the perimeter of the field is
A. 50 m
B. 64 m
C. 72 m
D. 84 m
E. None of the above

Ans : c

8. Four concentric ( having the same center ) circles with


radii, x, 2x, 3x and 4x are drawn to form two rings A
and B as shown in the figure.

Ratio of the area of inner ring A to the area of outer ring


B is
A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : 4
C. 2 : 3
D. 3 : 7
E. None of the above

Ans : D

9. If 3/p = 6 and 3/q = 15 then p - q = ?


A. 1/3
B. 2/5
C. 3/10
D. 5/6
E. None of the above
Ans : C

10.A father is three times as old as his son. After fifteen


years the father will be twice as old as his son's age at
that time. Hence the father's present age is
A. 36
B. 42
C. 45
D. 48
E. None of the above

Ans : C

(1/4)3 + (3/4)3 + 3(1/4)(3/4)(1/4 + 3/4) =?

A. 1/64
B. 27/64
C. 49/64
D. 0
E. 1

Ans : E

If the area of two circles are in the ratio 169 : 196 then
the ratio of their radii is

A. 10 : 11
B. 11 : 12
C. 12 : 13
D. 13 : 14
E. None of the above

Ans : D

A semi-circle is surmounted on the side of a square. The


ratio of the area of the semi-circle to the area of the square
is

A. 1 : 2
B. 2 : p
C. p : 8
D. 8 : p
E. None of the above

Ans : C

Which of the following is the greatest ?

A. 40% of 30
B. 3/5 of 25
C. 6.5% of 200
D. Five more than the square of 3
E. 1/2-4

Ans : E

Two identical taps fill 2/5 of a tank in 20 minutes. When


one of the taps goes dry in how many minutes will the
remaining one tap fill the rest of the tank ?

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
E. None of the above

Ans : C

If the value of XYZ Company stock drops from $25 per


share to $21 per share, what is the percent of the decrease?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
E. 20

Ans : D

If a building b feet high casts a shadow f feet long, then,


at the same time of day, a tree t feet high will cast a shadow
how many feet long?

A. ft/b
B. fb/t
C. b/ft
D. tb/f
E. t/fb

Ans : A

If x, y, and z are consecutive negative integers, and if x


> y > z, which of the following must be a positive odd
integer?

A. xyz
B. (x - y) (y - z)
C. x - yz
D. x(y + z)
E. x + y + z

Ans : B

At a certain ice cream parlor, customers can choose


among five different ice cream flavors and can choose either
a sugar cone or a waffle cone. Considering both ice cream
flavor and cone type, how many distinct triple-scoop cones
with three different ice cream flavors are available?

A. 12
B. 16
C. 20
D. 24
E. 30

Ans : C

What is the greatest value of a positive integer n such


that 3n is a factor of 1815?

A. 15
B. 18
C. 30
D. 33
E. 45

Ans : C

21.If .2t = 2.2 - .6s and .5s = .2t + 1.1, then s =


A. 1
B. 3
C. 10
D. 11
E. 30

Ans : B

22. Five years ago, Beth's age was three times that of Amy.
Ten years ago, Beth's age was one half that of Chelsea.
If C repre- sents Chelsea's current age, which of the
following represents Amy's current age?
A. c/6 + 5
B. 2c
C. (c-10)/3
D. 3c-5
E. 5c/3 - 10

Ans : A

23.A portion of $7200 is invested at a 4% annual return,


while the remainder is invested at a 5% annual return.
If the annual income from both portions is the same,
what is the total income from the two investments?
A. $160
B. $320
C. $400
D. $720
E. $1,600

Ans : B

24.An empty swimming pool can be filled to capacity


through an inlet pipe in 3 hours, and it can be
completely drained by a drainpipe in 6 hours. If both
pipes are fully open at the same time, in how many
hours will the empty pool be filled to capacity?
A. 4
B. 4.5
C. 5
D. 5.5
E. 6

Ans : E

25.If r = (3p + q)/2 and s = p - q, for which of the


following values of p would r2 = s2?
A. 1q/5
B. 10 - 3q/2
C. q - 1
D. 3q
E. 9q/2 - 9

Ans : A

26.At 10 a.m. two trains started traveling toward each


other from stations 287 miles apart. They passed each
other at 1:30 p.m. the same day. If the average speed
of the faster train exceeded the average speed of the
slower train by 6 miles per hour, which of the following
represents the speed of the faster train, in miles per
hour?
A. 38
B. 40
C. 44
D. 48
E. 50

Ans : C

27.On the xy-coordinate plane, points A and B both lie on


the circumference of a circle whose center is O, and the
length of AB equals the circle's diameter. If the (x,y)
coordinates of O are (2,1) and the (x,y) coordinates of B
are (4,6), what are the (x,y) coordinates of A?
A. (3, 3/2)
B. (1, 2/2)
C. (0, -4)
D. (2/2, 1)
E. (-1, -2/2)

Ans : C

28.If a rectangle's length and width are both doubled, by


what percent is the rectangle's area increased?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 300
E. 400

Ans : D

29.A rectangular tank 10" by 8" by 4" is filled with water. If


all of the water is to be transferred to cube-shaped
tanks, each one 3 inches on a side, how many of these
smaller tanks are needed?
A. 9
B. 12
C. 16
D. 21
E. 39
Ans : B

30. Point Q lies at the center of the square base (ABCD) of


the pyramid pictured above. The pyramid's height (PQ)
measures exactly one half the length of each edge of its
base, and point E lies exactly halfway between C and D
along one edge of the base. What is the ratio of the
surface area of any of the pyramid's four triangular
faces to the surface area of the shaded triangle?
A. 3 :√2
B. √5:1
C. 4√3:3
D. 2√2:1
E. 8:√5

Ans : D

31. The average wages of a worker during a fortnight


comprising 15 consecutive working days was Rs.90 per
day. During the first 7 days, his average wages was
Rs.87/day and the average wages during the last 7
days was Rs.92 /day. What was his wage on the 8th
day?
A. 83
B. 92
C. 90
D. 97

Ans : D

32.The average of 5 quantities is 6. The average of 3 of


them is 8. What is the average of the remaining two
numbers?
A. 6.5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 3.5

Ans : C
33.The average temperature on Wednesday, Thursday
and Friday was 250. The average temperature on
Thursday, Friday and Saturday was 240. If the
temperature on Saturday was 270, what was the
temperature on Wednesday?
A. 240
B. 210
C. 270
D. 300

Ans : D

34. The average age of a group of 12 students is 20years. If


4 more students join the group, the average age
increases by 1 year. The average age of the new
students is
A. 24
B. 26
C. 23
D. 22

Ans : A

35.When a student weighing 45 kgs left a class, the


average weight of the remaining 59 students increased
by 200g. What is the average weight of the remaining
59 students?
A. 57 kgs
B. 56.8 kgs
C. 58.2 kgs
D. 52.2 kgs

Ans : A

36. Three math classes: X, Y, and Z, take an algebra test.


The average score in class X is 83.
The average score in class Y is 76.
The average score in class Z is 85.
The average score of all students in classes X and Y
together is 79.
The average score of all students in classes Y and Z
together is 81.

What is the average for all the three classes?

A. 81
B. 81.5
C. 82
D. 84.5

Ans : B

37. The average weight of a class of 24 students is 36


years. When the weight of the teacher is also included,
the average weight increases by 1kg. What is the
weight of the teacher?
A. 60 kgs
B. 61 kgs
C. 37 kgs
D. None of these

Ans : B

38.The average of 5 quantities is 10 and the average of 3


of them is 9. What is the average of the remaining 2?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 11.5
D. 12.5

Ans : C

39.The average age of a family of 5 members is 20 years.


If the age of the youngest member be 10 years then
what was the average age of the family at the time of
the birth of the youngest member?
A. 13.5
B. 14
C. 15
D. 12.5
Ans : D

40.A student finds the average of 10 positive integers.


Each integer contains two digits. By mistake, the boy
interchanges the digits of one number say ba for ab.
Due to this, the average becomes 1.8 less than the
previous one. What was the difference of the two digits
a and b?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 4

Ans : C

41.Average cost of 5 apples and 4 mangoes is Rs. 36. The


average cost of 7 apples and 8 mangoes is Rs. 48. Find
the total cost of 24 apples and 24 mangoes.
A. 1044
B. 2088
C. 720
D. 324

Ans : B

41.A father left a will of Rs.35 lakhs between his two


daughters aged 8.5 and 16 such that they may get
equal amounts when each of them reach the age of 21
years. The original amount of Rs.35 lakhs has been
instructed to be invested at 10% p.a. simple interest.
How much did the elder daughter get at the time of the
will?
A. Rs. 17.5 lakhs
B. Rs. 21 lakhs
C. Rs. 15 lakhs
D. Rs. 20 lakhs

Ans : B
42.What will Rs.1500 amount to in three years if it is
invested in 20% p.a. compound interest, interest being
compounded annually?
A. 2400
B. 2592
C. 2678
D. 2540

Ans : B

43.If a sum of money grows to 144/121 times when


invested for two years in a scheme where interest is
compounded annually, how long will the same sum of
money take to treble if invested at the same rate of
interest in a scheme where interest is computed using
simple interest method?
A. 9 years
B. 22 years
C. 18 years
D. 33 years

Ans : B

44.The population of a town was 3600 three years back. It


is 4800 right now. What will be the population three
years down the line, if the rate of growth of population
has been constant over the years and has been
compounding annually?
A. 6000
B. 6400
C. 7200
D. 9600

Ans : B

45. A man invests Rs.5000 for 3 years at 5% p.a. compound


interest reckoned yearly. Income tax at the rate of 20%
on the interest earned is deducted at the end of each
year. Find the amount at the end of the third year.
A. 5624.32
B. 5630.50
C. 5788.125
D. 5627.20

Ans : A

46.The difference between the compound interest and the


simple interest on a certain sum at 12% p.a. for two
years is Rs.90. What will be the value of the amount at
the end of 3 years?
A. 9000
B. 6250
C. 8530.80
D. 8780.80

Ans : D

47. Vijay invested Rs.50,000 partly at 10% and partly at


15%. His total income after a year was Rs.7000. How
much did he invest at the rate of 10%?
A. Rs.40,000
B. Rs.40,000
C. Rs.12,000
D. Rs.20,000

Ans : B

48.A sum of money invested for a certain number of years


at 8% p.a. simple interest grows to Rs.180. The same
sum of money invested for the same number of years
at 4% p.a. simple interest grows to Rs.120 only. For how
many years was the sum invested?
A. 25 years
B. 40 years
C. 33 years and 4 months
D. Cannot be determined

Ans : A
49.How long will it take for a sum of money to grow from
Rs.1250 to Rs.10,000, if it is invested at 12.5% p.a
simple interest?
A. 8 years
B. 64 years
C. 72 years
D. 56 years

Ans : D

50.Rs. 5887 is divided between Shyam and Ram, such


that Shyam's share at the end of 9 years is equal to
Ram's share at the end of 11 years, compounded
annually at the rate of 5%. Find the share of Shyam.
A. 2088
B. 2000
C. 3087
D. None of these

Ans : C

51.Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line


joining (5, -2) and (9, 6) internally in the ratio 1 : 3.
A. (6, 0)
B. (6, 3)
C. (0, 6)
D. (3, 6)

Ans : A

52. Find the number of triangles in an octagon.


A. 326
B. 120
C. 56
D. Cannot be determined

Ans : C
53.Find the equation of a line whose intercepts are twice
of the line 3x - 2y - 12 = 0
A. 3x - 2y = 24
B. 2x - 3y = 12
C. 2x - 3y = 24
D. None of these

Ans : A

54.Find the area of the sector covered by the hour hand


after it has moved through 3 hours and the length of
the hour hand is 7cm.
A. 77 sq.cm
B. 38.5 sq.cm
C. 35 sq.cm
D. 70 sq.cm

Ans : B

55.Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (-6, -2),
(-4, -6), (-2, 5).
A. 36
B. 18
C. 15
D. 30

Ans : C

56. A stairway 10ft high is such that each step accounts for
half a foot upward and one-foot forward. What distance
will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach
the top of the stairway?
A. 30 ft
B. 33 ft
C. 10 ft
D. 29 ft

Ans : D
57.Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 120 degrees
greater than each exterior angle. How many sides are
there in the polygon?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 3

Ans : C

58.What is the area of the largest triangle that can be


fitted into a rectangle of length 'l' units and width 'w'
units?
A. lw/3
B. (2lw)/3
C. (3lw)/4
D. (lw)/2

Ans : D

59.Which of the following is inCorrect?


A. An incentre is a point where the angle bisectors
meet.
B. The median of any side of a triangle bisects the
side at right angle.
C. The point at which the three altitudes of a triangle
meet is the orthocentre
D. The point at which the three perpendicular
bisectors meet is the centre of the circumcircle.

Ans : B

60.A and B are two points with the co-ordinates (-2, 0) and
(0, 5). What is the length of the diagonal AC if AB form
one of the sides of the square ABCD?
A. units
B. units
C. units
D. units
Ans : B

61.What is the measure of the circum radius of a triangle


whose sides are 9, 40 and 41?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 24.5
D. 20.5

Ans : D

62.If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon


measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does
the polygon have?
A. 10 sides
B. 8 sides
C. 12 sides
D. 9 sides

Ans : A

63.If ABC is a right angle triangle with angle A = 900 and


2s = a + b + c, where a > b > c where notations have
their usual meanings, then which one of the following is
Correct?
A. (s - b) (s - c) > s (s - a)
B. (s - a) (s - c) > s (s - b)
C. (s - a) (s - b) < s (s - c)
D. 4s (s - a) (s - b) (s - c) = bc

Ans : C

64.What is the measure of in radius of the triangle whose


sides are 24, 7 and 25?
A. 12.5
B. 3
C. 6
D. None of these

Ans : B
65.What is the circum radius of a triangle whose sides are
7, 24 and 25 respectively?
A. 18
B. 12.5
C. 12
D. 14

Ans : B

Quantitative Ability : Menstruation

66.A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle of radius r


cms. What is the perimeter of the regular hexagon?
A. 3r
B. 6r
C. r
D. 9r

Ans : B

67.A 4 cm cube is cut into 1 cm cubes. What is the


percentage increase in the surface area after such
cutting?
A. 4%
B. 300%
C. 75%
D. 400%

Ans : B

68.If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m


and 168 m2, what is the length of the rectangle?
A. 17 m
B. 31 m
C. 12 m
D. 24 m

Ans : D
69.The surface area of the three coterminous faces of a
cuboid are 6, 15, 10 sq.cm respectively. Find the volume
of the cuboid.
A. 30
B. 20
C. 40
D. 35

Ans : A

70.If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 150


degrees, then it is
A. Octagon
B. Decagon
C. Dodecagon
D. Tetrahedron

Ans : C

71.A 5 cm cube is cut into as many 1 cm cubes as


possible. What is the ratio of the surface area of the
larger cube to that of the sum of the surface areas of
the smaller cubes?
A. 1 : 6
B. 1 : 5
C. 1 : 25
D. 1 : 125

Ans : B

72.If the sides of a triangle measure 72, 75 and 21, what


is the measure of its in radius?
A. 37.5
B. 24
C. 9
D. 15

Ans : C
73. The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 30 ft
long and that of the back wheel is 36 ft long. What is
the distance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel
has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel?
A. 20 ft
B. 25 ft
C. 750 ft
D. 900 ft

Ans : D

74.The area of a square field is 24200 sq m. How long will


a lady take to cross the field diagonally at the rate of
6.6 km/hr?
A. 3 minutes
B. 2 minutes
C. 2.4 minutes
D. 2 minutes 40 seconds

Ans : B

Quantitative Ability : Trignometry

75.a and b are the lengths of the base and height of a


right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is h. If the
values of a and b are positive integers, which of the
following cannot be a value of the square of the
hypotenuse?
A. 13
B. 23
C. 37
D. 41

Ans : B

76.The angle of elevation of the top of a tower 30 m high,


from two points on the level ground on its opposite
sides are 45 degrees and 60 degrees. What is the
distance between the two points?
A. 30
B. 51.96
C. 47.32
D. 81.96

Ans : C

77. What is the value of cot 15o + cot 75o + cot 135o - cosec
30o?
A. 3
B. Infinity
C. 1
D. None of these

Ans : C

Ratio And Proportion

78.Rs.432 is divided amongst three workers A, B and C


such that 8 times A's share is equal to 12 times B's
share which is equal to 6 times C's share. How much did
A get?
A. Rs.192
B. Rs.133
C. Rs.144
D. Rs.128

Ans : C

79.If 20 men or 24 women or 40 boys can do a job in 12


days working for 8 hours a day, how many men working
with 6 women and 2 boys take to do a job four times as
big working for 5 hours a day for 12 days?
A. 8 men
B. 12 men
C. 2 men
D. 24 men

Ans : C

80. Two cogged wheels of which one has 32 cogs and other
54 cogs, work into each other. If the latter turns 80
times in three quarters of a minute, how often does the
other turn in 8 seconds?
A. 48
B. 135
C. 24
D. None of these

Ans : C

81. The monthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio 4 : 5,


their expenses are in the ratio 5 : 6. If 'A' saves Rs.25
per month and 'B' saves Rs.50 per month, what are
their respective incomes?
A. Rs.400 and Rs.500
B. Rs.240 and Rs.300
C. Rs.320 and Rs.400
D. Rs.440 and Rs.550

Ans : A

82.The proportion of milk and water in 3 samples is 2:1,


3:2 and 5:3. A mixture comprising of equal quantities of
all 3 samples is made. The proportion of milk and water
in the mixture is
A. 2:1
B. 5:1
C. 99:61
D. 227:133

Ans : D

83.A group of workers can do a piece of work in 24 days.


However as 7 of them were absent it took 30 days to
complete the work. How many people actually worked
on the job to complete it?
A. 35
B. 30
C. 28
D. 42
Ans : C

84.A, B and C play cricket. A's runs are to B's runs and B's
runs are to C's as 3:2. They get altogether 342 runs.
How many runs did A make?
A. 162
B. 108
C. 72
D. None of these

Ans : A

85. The monthly salaries of two persons are in the ratio of


4:7. If each receives an increase of Rs.25 in the salary,
the ratio is altered to 3: 5. Find their respective salaries.
A. 120 and 210
B. 80 and 140
C. 180 and 300
D. 200 and 350

Ans : D

86.A fort has provisions for 60 days. If after 15 days 500


men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days
longer, how many men are there in the fort?
A. 3500
B. 4000
C. 6000
D. None of these

Ans : B

87.The ratio of marks obtained by vinod and Basu is 6:5. If


the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and
their sum of the marks is 275, find the total marks for
which exam was conducted.
A. 150
B. 200
C. 400
D. None of these.
Ans : B

88.The present ages of A and B are as 6 : 4. Five years


ago their ages were in the ratio 5 : 3. Find their present
ages.
A. 42, 28
B. 36, 24
C. 30, 20
D. 25, 15

Ans : C

89.A, B and C enter into a partnership by investing


Rs.3600, Rs.4400 and Rs.2800. A is a working partner
and gets a fourth of the profit for his services and the
remaining profit is divided amongst the three in the
rate of their investments. What is the amount of profit
that B gets if A gets a total of Rs. 8000?
A. 4888.88
B. 9333.33
C. 4000
D. 3666.66

Ans : A

90.A, B and C, each of them working alone can complete a


job in 6, 8 and 12 days respectively. If all three of them
work together to complete a job and earn Rs.2340,
what ill be C's share of the earnings?
A. Rs.520
B. Rs.1080
C. Rs.1170
D. Rs.630

Ans : A

91.A 20 litre mixture of milk and water contains milk and


water in the ratio 3 : 2. 10 litres of the mixture is
removed and replaced with pure milk and the operation
is repeated once more. At the end of the two removal
and replacement, what is the ratio of milk and water in
the resultant mixture?
A. 17 : 3
B. 9 : 1
C. 3 : 17
D. 5 : 3

Ans : B

92.In what ratio must a person mix three kinds of tea


costing Rs.60/kg, Rs.75/kg and Rs.100 /kg so that the
resultant mixture when sold at Rs.96/kg yields a profit
of 20%?
A. 1 : 2 : 4
B. 3 : 7 : 6
C. 1 : 4 : 2
D. None of these

Ans : C

93.A merchant mixes three varieties of rice costing


Rs.20/kg, Rs.24/kg and Rs.30/kg and sells the mixture
at a profit of 20% at Rs.30 / kg. How many kgs of the
second variety will be in the mixture if 2 kgs of the third
variety is there in the mixture?
A. 1 kg
B. 5 kgs
C. 3 kgs
D. 6 kgs

Ans : B

94.How many litres of water should be added to a 30 litre


mixture of milk and water containing milk and water in
the ratio of 7 : 3 such that the resultant mixture has
40% water in it?
A. 7 litres
B. 10 litres
C. 5 litres
D. None of these

Ans : C

95.How many kgs of Basmati rice costing Rs.42/kg should


a shopkeeper mix with 25 kgs of ordinary rice costing
Rs.24 per kg so that he makes a profit of 25% on selling
the mixture at Rs.40/kg?
A. 20 kgs
B. 12.5 kgs
C. 16 kgs
D. 200 kgs

Ans : A

96.How many litres of a 12 litre mixture containing milk


and water in the ratio of 2 : 3 be replaced with pure
milk so that the resultant mixture contains milk and
water in equal proportion?
A. 4 litres
B. 2 litres
C. 1 litre
D. 1.5 litres

Ans : B

97.A sample of x litres from a container having a 60 litre


mixture of milk and water containing milk and water in
the ratio of 2 : 3 is replaced with pure milk so that the
container will have milk and water in equal proportions.
What is the value of x?
A. 6 litres
B. 10 litres
C. 30 litres
D. None of these

Ans : B
98.A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo
and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the
animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either
pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the
zoo?
A. 40
B. 30
C. 50
D. 60

Ans : C

99.From a cask of milk containing 30 litres, 6 litres are


drawn out and the cask is filled up with water. If the
same process is repeated a second, then a third time,
what will be the number of litres of milk left in the cask?
A. 0.512 liters
B. 12 liters
C. 14.38 liters
D. 15.36 liters

Ans : D

100.In a km race, A gives B a start of 20 seconds and


beats him by 40m. However, when he gives B a start of
25 seconds they finish in a dead heat. What is A's
speed in m/sec?
A. 12.5 m/sec
B. 20 m/sec
C. 8 m/sec
D. 10 m/sec

Ans : D

Quantitative Section : Data Interpretation

Questions 1 - 5 refers to the following table:

PROFILE OF CONGRESS IN YEAR X


(total membership: 535)
House of
Sena
Representati
te
ves
Party
292 Democratic 62
143 Republican 38
435 TOTAL 100
Sex
418 Male 100
17 Female 0
Age
27 Youngest 34
77 Oldest 80
Average
48 (arithmetic 54
mean)
Religion
255 Protestant 69
107 Catholic 12
18 Jewish 5
4 Mormon 3
51 Other 11
House of
Sena
Representat
te
ives
Profession
215 Lawyer 63
Business
81 Executive 15
or Banker
45 Educator 6
Farmer or
14 6
Rancher
Career
22 0
Government
24 Official 4
Journalist or
2 0
Communications
1 Executive 1
0 Physician 2
Veterinarian
6 0
Geologist
Worker or Skilled
25 Tradesperson 3
Other
Ethnic Group
17 Black American 1
2 Asian American 3
Hispanic
4 0
American

1. In the Senate, if 25 male members were replaced by 25


female members, the ratio of male members to female
members would be
A. 4 to 1
B. 3 to 1
C. 3 to 2
D. 2 to 1
E. 1 to 1

Ans : B

2. Approximately what percent of the members of


Congress are lawyers?
A. 63%
B. 58%
C. 56%
D. 52%
E. 49%

Ans : D

3. If 5 senators are Catholic Democrats, how many


senators are neither Catholic nor Democratic?
A. 79
B. 74
C. 69
D. 31
E. 21
Ans : D

4. If all lawyers and all women in the House of


Representatives vote for the passage of a bill, how
many more votes will be needed for a majority?
A. 435
B. 220
C. 3
D. 0
E. It cannot be determined from the information
given.

Ans : E

5. Which of the following can be inferred from the


information given in the chart?

I.More than 80 percent of the men in Congress are


members of the House of Representatives.
II.The percent of members who are categorized as
farmers or ranchers is greater for the House of
Representatives than for the Senate.
III.The median age in the Senate is 57.

A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I and II
E.I and III

Ans : A