Answer Database

K Area ID
Quality 2
Intigration 5
6
7
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
Cost 17
Intigration 18
19
20
21
Intigration 22
23
HR 24
25
26
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28
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32
33
HR 34
35
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HR 45
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51
52
53
54
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56
Intigration 57
58
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60
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62
63
64
Communication 65
HR 66
67
68
HR 69
Pro Res 70
Risk 71
Pro Res 72
Pro Res 73
HR 74
Scope 75
Quality 76
Pro Res 77
HR 78
Communication 79
HR 80
Cost 81
Scope 82
Intigration 83
Pro Res 84
Pro Res 85
Pro Res 86
Pro Res 87
Pro Res 88
HR 89
Pro Res 90
Pro Res 91
Pro Res 92
Pro Res 93
Pro Res 94
Pro Res 95
Pro Res 96
Pro Res 97
Pro Res 98
Pro Res 99
Pro Res 100

Pro Res 101
Pro Res 102
Pro Res 103
Pro Res 104

Communication 105
Pro Res 106
Pro Res 107

Pro Res 108
Procurement 109
Pro Res 110

Pro Res 111
Pro Res 112
Pro Res 113
HR 114
Pro Res 115
Pro Res 116
Pro Res 117
Pro Res 118
Pro Res 119
Pro Res 120
Pro Res 121
Pro Res 122
Pro Res 123
Pro Res 124
Pro Res 125
Pro Res 126

Pro Res 127
Pro Res 128

Pro Res 129
Intigration 130
Pro Res 130

Pro Res 131
Pro Res 132
Communication 133
Pro Res 134
Pro Res 135

Pro Res 136
Pro Res 137
Pro Res 138
Pro Res 139
Pro Res 140
Pro Res 141
Pro Res 142

Pro Res 143
Pro Res 144
HR 145
HR 146
Pro Res 147
Pro Res 148
Pro Res 149

Pro Res 150
Pro Res 151
Pro Res 152
Quality 153
Pro Res 154
Pro Res 155
Procurement 156
Procurement 157
HR 158
Quality 159
Pro Res 160
161
Cost 162
Risk 163
HR 164
HR 165
Communication 166
Procurement 167
Pro Res 168

Procurement 169
Intigration 170
HR 171
172
Risk 173
Pro Res 174
175
Intigration 176
177
Pro Res 178
179
180
181
182
183
184
185
186
Intigration 187
Intigration 188
Intigration 189
190
191
192
Intigration 193
194
Intigration 195
196
Cost 197
Intigration 198
199
Risk 200
201
202
203
204
205
Intigration 206
Intigration 207
Intigration 208
209
Intigration 210
Intigration 211
212
213
214
215
216
Intigration 217
Intigration 218
219
220
Intigration 221
Intigration 222
223
Intigration 224
Intigration 225
Intigration 226
Intigration 227
Intigration 228
229
Intigration 230
Intigration 231
Intigration 232
233
234
Intigration 235
Intigration 236
237
238
239
240
241
Intigration 242
Intigration 243
Intigration 244
245
Intigration 246
Intigration 247
Intigration 248
Intigration 249
250
Intigration 251
252
Intigration 253
254
Intigration 255
256
Intigration 257
Intigration 258
259
Intigration 260
Intigration 261
262
Intigration 263
264
Procurement 265
Procurement 266
267
268
269
270
271
Procurement 272
273
274
275
Intigration 276
277
278
279
280
Intigration 281
Intigration 282
Intigration 283
284
285
286
Intigration 287
288
Procurement 289
290
Intigration 291
Scope 292
Scope 293
294
Scope 295
296
Procurement 297
Procurement 298
Scope 299
Risk 300
Scope 301
302
Scope 303
Scope 304
Scope 305
Scope 306
Scope 307
308
Scope 309
Scope 310
Scope 311
Scope 312
313
Scope 314
Scope 315
Scope 316
Scope 317
Scope 318
Scope 319
Time 320
Time 321
Intigration 322
Scope 323
324
Scope 325
Intigration 326
Scope 327
Scope 328
Scope 329
Scope 330
Scope 331
Scope 332
Scope 333
Scope 334
Scope 335
336
Scope 337
Scope 338
Scope 339
Scope 340
Scope 341
Scope 342
Scope 343
Scope 344
Scope 345
Procurement 346
Procurement 347
Scope 348
349
Scope 350
Scope 351
Intigration 352
Scope 353
Scope 354
Scope 355
Scope 356
Scope 357
Procurement 358
Scope 359
Scope 360
Scope 361
362
Scope 363
Scope 364
Scope 365
Scope 366
Scope 367
368
Scope 369
Scope 370
371
HR 372
Scope 373
Scope 374
Intigration 375
Scope 376
Scope 377
Procurement 378
Scope 379
Scope 380
Time 381
Time 382
383
Procurement 384
Scope 385
Time 386
Time 387
Time 388
Time 389
Time 390
Time 391
Time 392
Time 393
Time 394
Time 395
Time 396
Time 397
Time 398
Time 399
Time 400
Time 401
Time 402
Time 403
Time 404
HR 405
Time 406
Time 407
Time 408
Time 409
410
Time 411
Time 412
Time 413
Time 414
Time 415
Time 416
Time 417
Time 418
Time 419
Time 420
Time 421
Time 422
Time 423
Time 424
Time 425
Procurement 426
Procurement 427
Time 428
Time 429
Time 430
Time 431
Time 432
Time 433
Time 434
Time 435
Time 436
Time 437
Time 438
Time 439
Time 440
Time 441
Time 442
Time 443
Time 444
Time 445
Time 446
Time 447
Time 448
Time 449
Time 450
451
Time 452
Time 453
Time 454
Time 455
Time 456
457
Risk 458
Time 459
Time 460
Time 461
Time 462
Time 463
Time 464
Time 465
Time 466
Time 467
Time 468
Time 469
Time 470
Time 471
Time 472
Time 473
Time 474
Time 475
Time 476
Time 477
Time 478
Time 479
Time 480
Time 481
cost 482
Time 483
Time 484
Time 485
Time 486
Time 487
Time 488
Time 489
490
Time 491
Time 492
Time 493
Time 494
Time 495
Time 496
Time 497
Time 498
cost 499
Time 500
501
Time 502
Time 503
Time 504
Time 505
Time 506
Time 507
Time 508
Time 509
Time 510
Time 511
Time 512
Time 513
Time 514
Time 515
Time 516
Pro Res 517
518
Time 519
Time 520
Time 521
Communication 522
523
Time 524
Time 525
Time 526
Cost 527
Time 528
Time 529
Time 530
Time 531
Time 532
Time 533
Time 534
Integration 535
Time 536
Time 537
Time 538
Time 539
Time 540
Time 541
Time 542
Time 543
Time 544
Cost 545
Cost 546
Cost 547
cost 548
Cost 549
Cost 550
Cost 551
Cost 552
Cost 553
Cost 554
Cost 555
Cost 556
Cost 557
Cost 558
Cost 559
Cost 560
Cost 561
Procurement 562
Cost 563
HR 564
Risk 565
Time 566
Cost 567
HR 568
Cost 569
Cost 570
HR 571
HR 572
Cost 573
Time 574
Cost 575
Cost 576
Cost 577
Cost 578
Cost 579
Cost 580
Cost 581
Time 582
Cost 583
Cost 584
Cost 585
Cost 586
587
Cost 588
Cost 589
Cost 590
Cost 591
Cost 592
Cost 593
Cost 594
Cost 595
Cost 596
Cost 597
Cost 598
Cost 599
Cost 600
Cost 601
Cost 602
Cost 603
Cost 604
605
HR 606
Cost 607
608
Cost 609
Cost 610
Cost 611
Integration 612
Integration 613
Cost 614
Cost 615
HR 616
Time 617
Time 618
Time 619
Cost 620
Cost 621
Cost 622
Cost 623
Cost 624
Cost 625
Cost 626
Cost 627
Cost 628
Cost 629
Cost 630
Cost 631
Time 632
Cost 633
Cost 634
Cost 635
636
637
Cost 638
Cost 639
Cost 640
Cost 641
Cost 642
Cost 643
Cost 644
Cost 645
Cost 646
Cost 647
Cost 648
Cost 649
650
Procurement 651
Procurement 652
Cost 653
Cost 654
Cost 655
Cost 656
Cost 657
Cost 658
Time 659
Quality 660
Quality 661
Time 662
Time 663
Time 664
Time 665
Time 666
Time 667
Time 668
Quality 669
Quality 670
Quality 671
Quality 672
Quality 673
674
Quality 675
Quality 676
Quality 677
Quality 678
Quality 679
Quality 680
Quality 681
Quality 682
Quality 683
Quality 684
Quality 685
Quality 686
Quality 687
Quality 688
Quality 689
Quality 690
Quality 691
Quality 692
Quality 693
Quality 694
Quality 695
Quality 696
Quality 697
Quality 698
Quality 699
Cost 700
Quality 701
Quality 702
Quality 703
Quality 704
Quality 705
Quality 706
Quality 707
Quality 708
Quality 709
Quality 710
Quality 711
Quality 712
Quality 713
Quality 714
Quality 715
Quality 716
Quality 717
Quality 718
Quality 719
Quality 720
Quality 721
Quality 722
Quality 723
Quality 724
Quality 725
Quality 726
Quality 727
Quality 728
Quality 729
Quality 730
Quality 731
Quality 732
Quality 733
Quality 734
Quality 735
Quality 736
Quality 737
Quality 738
Quality 739
Quality 740
Quality 741
Quality 742
Quality 743
Quality 744
Quality 745
Quality 746
Quality 747
Quality 748
Quality 749
Quality 750
Quality 751
752
Quality 753
Quality 754
Quality 755
Quality 756
Quality 757
Quality 758
Quality 759
Quality 760
Quality 761
Quality 762
Quality 763
Quality 764
Quality 765
Quality 766
Quality 767
Quality 768
Quality 769
770
Quality 771
Quality 772
Quality 773
Quality 774
Quality 775
Quality 776
Cost 777
Quality 778
HR 779
HR 780
HR 781
HR 782
HR 783
HR 784
HR 785
HR 786
HR 787
HR 788
Time 789
HR 790
Time 791
HR 792
HR 793
HR 794
HR 795
Scope 796
HR 797
HR 798
HR 799
HR 800
HR 801
HR 802
HR 803
HR 804
HR 805
HR 806
HR 807
HR 808
HR 809
HR 810
HR 811
HR 812
HR 813
HR 814
HR 815
HR 816
HR 817
HR 818
HR 819
HR 820
HR 821
Communication 822
HR 823
HR 824
HR 825
HR 826
HR 827
HR 828
HR 829
HR 830
HR 831
HR 832
HR 833
HR 834
HR 835
HR 836
HR 837
HR 838
HR 839
HR 840
HR 841
HR 842
HR 843
HR 844
HR 845
HR 846
HR 847
HR 848
HR 849
HR 850
HR 851
HR 852
HR 853
HR 854
HR 855
HR 856
HR 857
HR 858
HR 859
HR 860
HR 861
HR 862
HR 863
HR 864
HR 865
HR 866
HR 867
HR 868
HR 869
HR 870
HR 871
HR 872
HR 873
HR 874
HR 875
HR 876
HR 877
HR 878
HR 879
HR 880
HR 881
HR 882
Integration 883
Procurement 884
Cost 885
Integration 886
Communication 887
Communication 888
Communication 889
Communication 890
Communication 891
Communication 892
Communication 893
Communication 894
Communication 895
Communication 896
Communication 897
Communication 898
HR 899
900
Communication 901
Communication 902
Communication 903
Communication 904
Communication 905
Communication 906
Communication 907
Communication 908
Communication 909
Communication 910
Communication 911
Scope 912
Communication 913
Communication 914
Communication 915
Communication 916
Communication 917
Communication 918
HR 919
Communication 920
Communication 921
Communication 922
Communication 923
Communication 924
Communication 925
Communication 926
Communication 927
Communication 928
Communication 929
Communication 930
Communication 931
Communication 932
Communication 933
Communication 934
Communication 935
Communication 936
Communication 937
Communication 938
Communication 939
Communication 940
941
942
943
944
945
Communication 946
Procurement 947
Communication 948
Integration 949
950
Communication 951
Integration 952
Integration 953
954
Integration 955
Integration 956
Integration 957
Integration 958
Integration 959
Integration 960
Integration 961
962
Integration 963
964
Integration 965
Risk 966
Risk 967
Risk 968
Risk 969
Risk 970
Risk 971
Risk 972
Risk 973
Risk 974
Risk 975
Risk 976
Risk 977
Risk 978
Risk 979
Risk 980
Risk 981
Risk 982
Risk 983
Risk 984
Risk 985
Risk 986
Risk 987
Risk 988
Risk 989
Risk 990
Risk 991
Risk 992
Risk 993
Time 994
Risk 995
Risk 996
Risk 997
Risk 998
Risk 999
Risk 1000
Risk 1001
Risk 1002
Risk 1003
Risk 1004
Risk 1005
Risk 1006
Risk 1007
Risk 1008
risk 1009
Risk 1010
Risk 1011
Risk 1012
Risk 1013
Risk 1014
Risk 1015
Risk 1016
Risk 1017
Risk 1018
Risk 1019
Risk 1020
Risk 1021
Risk 1022
Risk 1023
Risk 1024
Risk 1025
Risk 1026
Risk 1027
Risk 1028
Risk 1029
Risk 1030
Risk 1031
Risk 1032
Risk 1033
Risk 1034
Risk 1035
Risk 1036
Risk 1037
Risk 1038
Risk 1039
Risk 1040
Risk 1041
Risk 1042
Risk 1043
Risk 1044
Integration 1045
Risk 1046
Risk 1047
Risk 1048
Risk 1049
Risk 1050
Risk 1051
Risk 1052
Risk 1053
Risk 1054
Risk 1055
Risk 1056
Risk 1057
Risk 1058
1059
Risk 1060
Risk 1061
Risk 1062
Risk 1063
Risk 1064
Risk 1065
Risk 1066
Risk 1067
Risk 1068
Risk 1069
Risk 1070
Risk 1071
Risk 1072
Risk 1073
Risk 1074
Risk 1075
Risk 1076
Risk 1077
Risk 1078
Risk 1079
Risk 1080
Risk 1081
Quality 1082
Risk 1083
Risk 1084
Risk 1085
Procurement 1086
Procurement 1087
Procurement 1088
Procurement 1089
Procurement 1090
Procurement 1091
Procurement 1092
Procurement 1093
Procurement 1094
Procurement 1095
Procurement 1096
Procurement 1097
Procurement 1098
Procurement 1099
Procurement 1100
Procurement 1101
Procurement 1102
Procurement 1103
Procurement 1104
Procurement 1105
Procurement 1106
Procurement 1107
Procurement 1108
Procurement 1109
Procurement 1110
Procurement 1111
Procurement 1112
Procurement 1113
Procurement 1114
Procurement 1115
Procurement 1116
Procurement 1117
Procurement 1118
Procurement 1119
Procurement 1120
Procurement 1121
1122
Procurement 1123
Procurement 1124
Procurement 1125
Procurement 1126
Procurement 1127
Procurement 1128
Procurement 1129
Procurement 1130
Procurement 1131
Procurement 1132
Procurement 1133
Procurement 1134
Procurement 1135
Procurement 1136
Procurement 1137
Procurement 1138
Procurement 1139
Procurement 1140
Procurement 1141
Procurement 1142
Procurement 1143
Communication 1144
Procurement 1145
Procurement 1146
Procurement 1147
Procurement 1148
Procurement 1149
Procurement 1150
Procurement 1151
Procurement 1152
Procurement 1153
Procurement 1154
Procurement 1155
Procurement 1156
Procurement 1157
Procurement 1158
Procurement 1159
Procurement 1160
Procurement 1161
Integration 1162
Procurement 1163
Procurement 1164
Procurement 1165
Procurement 1166
Communication 1167
Procurement 1168
Procurement 1169
Procurement 1170
Procurement 1171
Procurement 1172
Procurement 1173
Procurement 1174
Procurement 1175
Procurement 1176
Procurement 1177
Procurement 1178
Procurement 1179
Procurement 1180
Procurement 1181
Procurement 1182
Procurement 1183
Procurement 1184
Procurement 1185
Procurement 1186
Procurement 1187
HR 1188
Integration 1189
Procurement 1190
Procurement 1191
Procurement 1192
Procurement 1193
Procurement 1194
Procurement 1195
Procurement 1196
Procurement 1197
Procurement 1198
Procurement 1199
1200
Procurement 1201
Integration 1202
Procurement 1203
Procurement 1204
Procurement 1205
1206
Procurement 1207
Procurement 1208
Procurement 1209
Procurement 1210
Procurement 1211
Procurement 1212
Procurement 1213
Procurement 1214
Procurement 1215
Integration 1216
Procurement 1217
Procurement 1218
Procurement 1219
Procurement 1220
1221
1222
1223
1224
1225
Scope 1226
Scope 1227
Time 1228
Time 1229
Time 1230
Time 1231
Cost 1232
Time 1233
Cost 1234
Quality 1235
Integration 1236
1237
Quality 1238
Quality 1239
Quality 1240
1241
1242
Risk 1243
Risk 1244
Risk 1245
Procurement 1246
1247
Integration 1248
Time 1249
Cost 1250
Cost 1251
Integration 1252
1253
Communication 1254
Risk 1255
Procurement 1256
Time 1257
Quality 1258
Cost 1259
1260
Integration 1261
1262
Time 1263
Cost 1264
HR 1265
Scope 1266
Communication 1267
1268
Scope 1269
Time 1270
Time 1271
Quality 1272
Scope 1273
Risk 1274
Communication 1275
1276
Integration 1277
Scope 1278
Scope 1279
Integration 1280
Time 1281
Time 1282
Integration 1283
Integration 1284
Risk 1285
Integration 1286
Cost 1287
Cost 1288
Integration 1289
Cost 1290
Time 1291
Time 1292
Integration 1293
Time 1294
Time 1295
1296
Cost 1297
1298
Quality 1299
Integration 1300
Pro Res 1301
Pro Res 1302
Risk 1303
Procurement 1304
Time 1305
Scope 1306
Integration 1307
Time 1308
Risk 1309
Procurement 1310
Procurement 1311
1312
1313
1314
Time 1315
Integration 1316
Cost 1317
Time 1318
Cost 1319
Integration 1320
Integration 1321
1322
Integration 1323
1324
Time 1325
1326
Time 1327
Risk 1328
1329
1330
Integration 1331
Communication 1332
1333
1334
1335
1336
1337
1338
1339
1340
1341
1342
1343
1344
1345
1346
1347
Cost 1348
Quality 1349
Quality 1350
Quality 1351
HR 1352
HR 1353
HR 1354
HR 1355
1356
Communication 1357
1358
Communication 1359
1360
Communication 1361
Communication 1362
1363
Communication 1364
1365
Procurement 1366
Procurement 1367
Scope 1368
Cost 1369
Cost 1370
1371
Scope 1372
HR 1373
HR 1374
HR 1375
HR 1376
Communication 1377
HR 1378
HR 1379
Communication 1380
1381
Risk 1382
Communication 1383
Quality 1384
Procurement 1385
Procurement 1386
Risk 1387
Risk 1388
Quality 1389
Quality 1390
1391
1392
1393
1394
1395
1396
1397
1398
1399
1400
1401
1402
1403
Quality 1404
Time 1405
1406
Procurement 1407
1408
1409
1410
1411
1412
1413
1414
1415
1416
1417
Pro Res 1418
1419
Integration 1420
Integration 1421
Integration 1422
1423
Scope 1424
Scope 1425
Scope 1426
Scope 1427
Scope 1428
Scope 1429
Scope 1430
Scope 1431
Scope 1432
Scope 1433
Scope 1434
Scope 1435
Scope 1436
Scope 1437
Scope 1438
Scope 1439
Scope 1440
Time 1441
Time 1442
Time 1443
1444
1445
1446
Scope 1447
1448
Answer & Explanation
C Did this one catch you? All deliverables must be quantifiable. Managements objective cannot be measured and therefor
needs more work. That means choice A is not correct. All parties rarely agree on all objectives (choice B). All the objectives sho
be met but they must be quantifiable so choice D is not correct. You need to have more discussions with management so you c
make their objective quantifiable.PMP® Exam Prep241011
C Differences in objectives are resolved in favor of the customer. Here the project manager has discussed the issue
with the customer and the customer has made his determination. Its time to move on.PMP® Exam Prep271016
A Requirements must be measurable to ensure they are understood and reachable. This is even more important than
resolving a difference of requirements in favor of the customer because you cannot meet the customers needs if the requireme
are ambiguous.PMP® Exam Prep261011
D Notice that stakeholders have input into what they will be contributing to the project. The role of the project manager is N
to tell people what to do!PMP® Exam Prep26 2691011
C This question shows how important historical information is for adequately planning projects. Notice the wording in the
question. It is looking for an example. The word stakeholder is used in the question but this is not an example of stakeholder
analysis (choice A) nor is it an example of scope management (choice B) as the situation described is from past projects. Such
information can lead to risks (choice D) but this is not an example of risk identification.PMP® Exam Prep900012
A The fact that such a discussion is occurring indicates a lack of clarity as to why the customer requested the 2==c==000
call capacity. Generally a difference in objectives is resolved in favor of the customer. However it is the project managers
responsibility to inform the customer of other options.PMP® Exam Prep260011
B A user of the projects product is always a stakeholder while the others may or may not be.PMP® Exam Prep250011
D Choices A and B are good ideas but they do not solve the problem presented in the question. The WBS (choice A) and
project charter (choice B) do not identify stakeholders. Choice C is a procurement function.PMP® Exam Prep250011
B Choices A and D do not address support for the project. Choice C might be a good idea but it does not address the iss
of obtaining support throughout the performing organization.PMP® Exam Prep250011
D Choice D implies that the whole project repeats every month. Generally the only things that might repeat in a project are
some activities. The whole project does not repeat.PMP® Exam Prep210011
B The stakeholders determine the project requirements and decide whether the project was a success. Choices A C and
are all subsets of stakeholders. PMP® Exam Prep250011
A Earned value (choice B) is a progress reporting tool. Pareto (choice D) is a quality tool. Expert interviews (choice C)
simply provide information from individuals while the Delphi Technique (choice A) leads to consensus of expert opinion and is
therefore best.PMP® Exam Prep87 2610012
B The best answer is stakeholders because it encompasses choices A and D. Scope (choice C) does not fit into the conte
of the question.PMP® Exam Prep250011
B It is imperative that requirements be as clear as possible before the project management plan is finalized. Only problem
solving described in choice B helps achieve this. Choice A is smoothing Choice C is avoidance and choice D is forcing.PMP®
Exam Prep25 2840011
D This can be a tough question unless you realize that the project is being done for the customer. Yes it is hard to say no
our managers.PMP® Exam Prep270011
B Notice that none of the choices include Give her a schedule. First things first! The project charter project
scope statement and other planning activities must be completed before a schedule. The sponsor will receive the schedule as
soon as that part of the planning process is completed.PMP® Exam Prep390011
C Value analysis is a way of finding the least expensive way to do the work.PMP® Exam Prep201 2130015
C This type of issue must be settled early in the project because the content and extent of the entire project management
plan depends on the deliverables and objectives. The best way to resolve the issue is choice C which is a problem solving
method. The other choices are really smoothing or forcing.PMBOK® Guide191012
BThese are all good justifications for a project to be initiated.PMBOK® Guide70011
D A feasibility study addresses whether the project should be done. Its purpose is not to determine team members.PMBO
Guide190011
C Because orders are numerous and of short duration this situation is a process not a project.PMP® Exam Prep221011
A project has a beginning and an end and has a unique product service or result. According to this question the work
products described must be done in sequence indicating that each new work product is dependent on the previous one for the
work to continue. Each of these work products is in reality a separate project and should be managed accordingly. Thus a proje
charter for each work product is required (choice A).PMP® Exam Prep211012
D Choice C is a correct statement but does not relate to the question presented. There is no reason to suspect there were
too many activities or more than one sponsor (choices A and B) but letting a project continue to expand (from 6 to 24 months)
violates choice D.PMP® Exam Prep210011
D Project managers need to have a broad base of experience and knowledge. Therefore the best choice is Candidate
D.PMP® Exam Prep2711017
B A project is temporary and unique. This is an example of a business process that is ongoing and repeatable. Such
processes are best managed in a functional organization.PMP® Exam Prep221011
A In a functional organization the project manager has the least support for the project and has little authority to assign
resources. Choices C and D are forms of weak matrix.PMP® Exam Prep300011
CSometimes questions on the exam can be quite easy. This one tests whether you know how to organize the project
management processes.PMP® Exam Prep370011
C This is the role of the project management office.PMP® Exam Prep230011
C Did this question make you think? Notice how many of the choices twist around the truth to make them incorrect. If you
picked a choice other than C try to figure out why your choice was not correct. Choice A cannot be best because project manag
have less authority in a functional organization than in a matrix organization. Choice B cannot be best because the amount of t
people work on projects depends on the needs of the organization not how the organization is structured. Choice D cannot be b
because functional organizations do not provide flexibility.PMP® Exam Prep281011
D The key word here is cross-disciplinary. Cross-disciplinary means that the project covers more than one department or
technical area of expertise. In such a case a matrix organization is needed with representatives from each department or
discipline.PMP® Exam Prep300011
B The project manager determines the project schedule (choice A) through schedule development. The team and other
stakeholders provide the inputs. Since it is also the project managers role to determine resource needs (choice C) and create
management plans (choice D) these cannot be best. However the team may be involved by providing assumptions and assistin
in WBS creation. Notice how tricky questions can be if you do not read them correctly! Watch for this in other questions. Pay cl
attention to the differences in wording.PMP® Exam Prep250011
B This work has entered the manufacturing stage. Manufacturing is generally considered a process not a project as it is no
temporary. A project charter will not be appropriate here.PMP® Exam Prep221011
C The organization has a direct influence on the project. A participative approach will probably not be as effective in a
hierarchical organization.PMP® Exam Prep270011
A A project charter is created during project initiating. A project manager is assigned during project initiating not after it.PM
Exam Prep2710117
AThe project manager has more power in a strong matrix organization.PMP® Exam Prep280011
DThe project sponsor should not be in charge of the WBS creation (choice A) and there is no indication that there are too many
departments (choice C). Because there are so many people on the team and because the work is apparently broken up into ma
components that have little to do with each other this project is most likely a program (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep221011
C This is the role of the project management office. Although the project manager can get help from other places the proj
management office can provide the most expertise.PMP® Exam Prep230011
C The project manager must facilitate a fair and equitable solution but the customer is the first of equals.PMP® Exam
Prep270011
A Giving stakeholders extras is gold plating (see the Quality chapter). This is not effective stakeholder or quality
management.PMP® Exam Prep260011
D You need to consider the needs of all your stakeholders.PMP® Exam Prep260011
COn most successful projects the stakeholders are actively involved in project management plan creation.PMP® Exam Prep26
930011
DThe project management office can be established to offer services ranging from basic support to total management of all
projects.PMP® Exam Prep231011
A Read the last line and you will find the real question. This is an example of a wordy question. The project manager has t
least authority in a functional organization where the functional manager is king.PMP® Exam Prep280011
CEven with the best of efforts the project management plan may not be finalized when the project work begins. This project ha
taken into account that planning is an interactive and ongoing process.PMP® Exam Prep601011
C Choice A is a communications management plan. Choice B is a quality management plan. Choice D is part of a
procurement management plan.PMP® Exam Prep2760017
C In a weak matrix organization the power resides with the functional manager. When the organization goes to a strong
matrix organization the power shifts to the project manager.PMP® Exam Prep280011
D The description is one of a weak matrix organization where the project manager does not have much power.PMP® Exa
Prep280011
CRemember the definition of a project: temporary and unique. O==a==M are considered on-going activities not temporary.
Therefore such work is not considered a project or part of a project.PMP® Exam Prep710011
BYou might remember a similar question with a different answer. O==a==M activities are not part of projects. The work to colle
data meet with O==a==M to explain the project and other such activities should be included in the project.PMP® Exam
Prep710011
AThe project coordinator reports to a higher-level manager and has authority to make some decisions. The project expediter ha
no authority to make decisions.PMP® Exam Prep280011
ARemember that if the question doesnt state what it is comparing to it is comparing to a functional organization.PMP® Exam
Prep300011
DThe main drawback of the projectized organization is that at the end of the project the team is dispersed but they do not have
functional department (home) to which to return.PMP® Exam Prep280011
B Practice Ritas Process Game in the PMP® Exam Prep book until you fully understand how these fit together.PMP® Exa
Prep37 390011
AThis question tests two areas: your knowledge of stakeholders; and your understanding of the level of stakeholder involvemen
that would justify including the official in meetings. The government official could be a stakeholder but that is not a definitive
reason to include him in meetings. Only choice A justifies the time necessary for such meetings.PMP® Exam Prep250011
B We cannot avoid the stakeholder (choices C and D) because he has a stake in the project. A project manager can say
(choice A) but this does not solve the root cause. There may be some good ideas within those changes. The only choice that
deals with the problem is choice B. Changes are not bad! Changes normally come from lack of input at the beginning of the
project. If we begin effective communication with this stakeholder early (choice B) we stand a much better chance of discoverin
his changes during the planning process when they will have less of an impact on the project.PMP® Exam Prep1020012
CNotice the use of the word detailed. Such a budget should be created during the planning process group.PMP® Exam
Prep390011
B In a weak matrix the functional manager has the power. There is no such thing as a functional matrix and a tight matrix
means co-location.PMP® Exam Prep280012
D Doing the actual work will normally take the most time and resources.PMP® Exam Prep600011
C Because the question talks about priorities among projects this cannot be the role of the project manager (choice A) or t
team (choice D). The sponsor (choice B) provides funding.PMP® Exam Prep230011
DThis is a functional organization with weak project manager authority.PMP® Exam Prep280011
C There is no indication that the situation is not part of the communications management plan (choice A). The project cha
(choice B) has nothing to do with communications. The WBS (choice D) does not show responsibilities. This type of
communication is common in a functional organization (choice C).PMP® Exam Prep280011
CBecause you have two bosses the communications are complex. They COULD also be misleading but if managed well this
would not be a true statement. Thus complex is the most correct answer.PMP® Exam Prep280011
C This is an example of a project expediter position because you not evaluating the change looking for impacts etc. You a
merely implementing others requests. In this case you are acting as the project expediter and the manager is acting as the proj
manager.PMP® Exam Prep280011
BWithout adequate documentation it is impossible to know what was agreed upon and the status of the project.PMP® Exam
Prep951012
A Your communication needs to be correct for the situation. Because situations vary so must your communication
methods.PMP® Exam Prep3050018
D Would you select a choice that said remove the resource==c== like choice A? Why? There is no need for the project
manager to take such drastic action because he would have accounted for the team members level of experience and producti
in the project management plan. Since training for project work is the cost of the project choice B cannot be right. Choice C is n
correct as no impact to the project is referenced in the question. Mentoring (choice D) is the only logical choice and work that a
project manager may be frequently called on to perform.PMP® Exam Prep2801017
AAnything not specifically included in the deliverables is excluded. The full and satisfactory delivery of project deliverables mar
the end of the work and the beginning of closure.PMP® Exam Prep691011
BRe-planning (choice A) is uncalled for by the situation described. A project is complete when all work including all project
management work is complete and the product of the project not just deliverables accepted. The lessons learned are project
management deliverables so choice C cannot be correct. Proper work must be done not just a date passed for a project to be
complete so choice D cannot be best.PMP® Exam Prep691012
A Ask yourself what is the root cause problem? Your first action would be to find out whether working with family member
a common practice in that country (choice A) as there is nothing inherently illegal in this activity. Then you would review
qualifications (choice B). Choices C and D may not be necessary after choices A and B are done.PMP® Exam Prep4211017
A Project managers must deal with potentially unethical situations like the situation described. Choices B and C hide it.
Choice D ignores it. Only choice A deals with it.PMP® Exam Prep4161015
A Notice how you have to read each choice carefully to get the correct answer? This question is asking how unknown risk
are handled. It should be a reminder that though the risk management process is designed to identify risks not all risks can be
identified. Some will inevitably remain unknown. Thus unknown risks cannot be identified or assessed (choices B and C). A
management reserve is not calculated based on a percentage of known risks (choice D). A management reserve is used for
unknown risks and it is wise to inform management that unknown risks can occur making choice A best.PMP® Exam
Prep3451019
C Did you select choice A? The project managers primary responsibility is to complete the project he was chartered and
approved to complete. He also has a secondary responsibility to make sure the project is still necessary or determine whether
needs to change based on the customers needs (choice A). Notice that choices B and D are always part of a project managers
professional and social responsibility but choice C is the primary responsibility.PMP® Exam Prep4201012
B It is the PMOs responsibility to prioritize the companys projects. When prioritization is clear it is easier to allocate
resources among projects.PMP® Exam Prep231011
A Company procedures must be followed. This does not mean that extensive procurement procedures will apply. Many
companies have emergency procedures.PMP® Exam Prep2781017
C Based on the information presented there is no reason to try to convince the sponsor to add the work (choices B and D
Though one could let the sponsor know (choice A) the best choice would be to say no. A better choice would be to find the root
cause of the problem but that choice is not listed here.PMP® Exam Prep1231013
A Less than the average weight means there isnt a normal and expected variation in the process. This condition has
occurred seven or more times in a row. The process is out of control.PMP® Exam Prep2501016
D You need to protect your companys interests and limit sellers from gaining information that can be used to their advanta
in subsequent negotiations. You might also wonder what other confidential information the company may try to acquire if you w
to work with them.PMP® Exam Prep41410110
D Always look for the choice that deals with and solves the problem. Choice A is withdrawal. Choices B and C would n
be appropriate until you learn the root cause of the problem.PMP® Exam Prep2851017
D The professional and social responsibility of the project manager requires that the truth be told. Choice A is lying and
unethical. Choice B is not the correct choice because you do not KNOW the project will be late. There is time to fix the problem
Choice C is not correct because there are no cost problems illustrated in the question. As in any report you need to state the
issues and options.PMP® Exam Prep3111018
A Choice C is penalizing the employee and making her lose face. Choices B C and D all involve decreasing the employee
morale. Therefore the best choice and the one that does not waste everyones time is to cancel the meeting get to the root ca
of the problem and then fix it and reschedule the meeting (partially mentioned in choice A).PMP® Exam Prep4111017
D Getting tired yet? Get used to answering questions for four hours before you take the exam. Choice A will not decrease
project costs just costs over the life of the project. It will not solve the problem. Choice B will almost always lead to higher costs
and choice C could affect costs later due to the increased risk. Though it may not be the first choice to think of deleting a test
would decrease costs so it is the best answer. It many also decrease quality but this is not the question.PMP® Exam Prep
2061015
A We assume that proper project management was followed and your opinion was considered during project initiating.
Therefore the best choice would be choice A. You need to provide the work as approved by management.PMP® Exam
Prep4111013
B Notice that the issue of the key team member leaving has already occurred. Although the activity was not on the critical
path it would have impacted a critical path activity if it was not completed within its three-day float. Therefore choice C is not
correct. The best choice is to discover why the problem happened so you can prevent similar situations in the future. Only choi
B looks at the cause of the problem.PMP® Exam Prep3011012
D Project management activities are not optional. Choice D addresses the real problem by giving the client information tha
they may not have. An alternate choice is to explain that project management and its associated costs are reasons for the
companys past performance and success.PMP® Exam Prep36710110
B You need to encourage the client to realize that they have a problem and to finalize their requirements. Choice A is
withdrawal. Choice C will help only after the fact. Choice D is a penalty.PMP® Exam Prep41710110
A Choice A is clearly a bribe.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
B This is the definition of what is NOT a bribe.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
A Working under these rules would be a clear violation of the fundamental right to nondiscriminating treatment. You should
not open the plant in that location.PMP® Exam Prep4140111
B Ethics questions are tough because they push the envelope of project management. Choice A disregards activities that
might be legal in another country but are illegal in your own country. Choice C does not work because each country has its own
laws. I hope choice D is not your choice.PMP® Exam Prep4140017
C This is not a case of doing nothing (choice A). But neither can you jump in and start looking at cost or determine that the
practice is not allowed without first identifying the common practices in that country.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
A This type of payment is not a bribe.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
B Payments for nonroutine government actions are bribes and should not be paid.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
C This is a fee for service paid to a government official and is therefore not a bribe.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
B This type of payment is common and allowable.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
C Although it might be common practice it is best described as a bribe.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
C Although some of the other choices might result in a fine bribes can result in jail time.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
C Whenever you are uncertain whether a payment is a bribe you should discuss the situation with legal counsel.PMP®
Exam Prep4140015
A In this situation the company might have to pay large fines. It is best to ask for legal advice.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
D Such payments however small are bribes and could incur millions of dollars in fines for the company including fines fo
the project manager and possibly even jail time.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
A The company code of conduct should cover items such as bribes guidelines for situations and other business
practices.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
C Only government officials can collect routine government fees.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
D Choice D is more ethical and demonstrates good faith. Why spend time in negotiations?PMP® Exam Prep41400110
B A common practice in another country does not make it a fair practice.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
C The project managers primary obligation is to the construction firm and not to the design firm while still employed by th
construction firm. There is a conflict of interest in this case. The project managers failure to fully disclose his new position and
continuing to negotiate and approve bids on behalf of his current employer is not appropriate.PMP® Exam Prep41400110
D The communications management plan should cover all phases of the project.PMP® Exam Prep3080118
B Choice C is not possible as the previous project manager may have left the company or he may be busy with new
projects. It is a form of withdrawal. Moving ahead (choice D) also withdraws from the problem and withdrawal is not the best
choice. There are two problems described here; the project is behind and the sponsor does not know it. There seem to be two
possible right answers choices A and B. Which is the best thing to deal with? Certainly it would be to work to get the project on
schedule but look at what choice A says. It limits the effort to restructuring the schedule and does not consider other options
such as cutting scope that might more effectively deal with the problem. Choice A is too limiting. What if the sponsor would agr
to change the due date? The best choice in THIS situation is to inform the sponsor of the revised completion time estimate.PM
Exam Prep4130012
B Project managers have a professional and social responsibility to ensure that any conflicts of interest do not compromis
the legitimate interests of the customer. The project manager knows that the customer will benefit from the information and mu
present it.PMP® Exam Prep4130012
C Professional and social responsibility requires the investigation of any instance where the legitimate interests of the
customer may be compromised. If such a compromise is found action must be taken.PMP® Exam Prep4130015
D It is not common for alternatives to be discussed at the bidder conference. They may be included in bids or proposals a
discussed later.PMP® Exam Prep38500110
C As the project manager it is your professional and social responsibility to ensure that company policies are followed
throughout the project.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
D Choice B does not problem solve it is more like withdrawal.PMP® Exam Prep4210012
B Professional and social responsibility includes looking after the customers best interests. Therefore choice A cannot be
best. In this case the schedule and scope are already approved and all changes must go through the change control process.
Therefore choices C and D cannot be best.PMP® Exam Prep1030012
B It is never appropriate to carry on private discussions regarding the status of any bids with a bidding party. All
communications between the solicitor and the bidders must be formal and open to all parties.PMP® Exam Prep41400110
C Contacting the employees manager and arranging a meeting is the best way to handle this discreetly and effectively.
This does not consist of project-related activities so resolution of the issue is not within the jurisdiction of the project
D Presenting anything besides your original estimate to allocate more to the budget is inaccurate and calls into question y
competence and integrity as a project manager. The customer should list potential changes and risks to your estimate. If the co
and risks are justified you can increase the budget.PMP® Exam Prep1990015
C Choices A and B are unethical. Choice D is still not necessarily telling the truth. Choice C not only describes the problem
but also provides you with a chance to show your plan of action to resolve the problem.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
A As a project manager it is your responsibility to provide criteria to the contracts department based on the project needs
and to protect your project along the way. Choice B is not practical. Choice C will increase the chance of incorrect results durin
the evaluation. Choice D is not correct project management practice.PMP® Exam Prep3850012
C This is a common occurrence on many projects. When you take the exam always assume that a change requires
evaluation and formal change (choice C) unless it says otherwise. The request from the customer is a change and should be
handled as a change. Choices A and D could be done but only after evaluation and customer approval and as part of choice C
Choice B could be done only if the situation was identified as a risk and included in the reserve.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
B It is professional and social responsibility to disclose conflicts of interest to the customer management and others.PMP®
Exam Prep4130012
D The sooner such discoveries are made known to other project managers the better you can improve the capabilities of
colleagues in your company. It is part of a project managers professional and social responsibility to build such capabilities. Th
discoveries should also be documented in the status report (choice B) especially if that report has a wider distribution.PMP® Ex
Prep4160012
B Though it is certainly true that conflicts must be disclosed (choice D there is no indication that this is the most important
thing to keep in mind. The only option that applies is the need to balance the different needs and objectives of all the parties. It
should be obvious that these may be different.PMP® Exam Prep250011
D Professional and social responsibility dictates that you should confront the situation first with the other project manager
(choice D) to find out if the other project is really on schedule and thereby confirm or deny your information. Choice A or C wou
be the second step if choice D validates your concern. Choice B would be a more likely choice if it referred to an earlier step in
risk. But choice D remains the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep4190012
D Any software created by a company is owned by that company. As nothing is said about a license agreement the other
project manager probably does not have the right to send it to you nor do you have the right to use it. Choice A is not the best
choice in this situation since you might not have the right to use the software at all. Since this issue deals with legal rights you
might have selected choice B but it is not the best choice as you and your company can be liable for infringing on the project
managers companys rights. It is best to send it back and then clarify (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep4130012
C This is a common problem on projects that many inexperienced project managers handle by doing choice B or D. If you
estimates are accurate you are ethically bound to stand by them (choice C). Managements only option to cut cost is to support
project managers looking for alternatives related to the components of the triple constraint. Choice A does not address the iss
at hand costs.PMP® Exam Prep1990012
B You need to follow Company Bs procedures while you try to influence improvement via the change management
processes.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
B The only allowable or ethical choice is B. You cannot accept the gift or any gift of the magnitude of a car.PMP® Exam
Prep4140012
B The project manager must manage professional and social responsibility.PMP® Exam Prep4110012
B Any document created by someone else should be considered copyrighted information. Asking permission would be the
best choice.PMP® Exam Prep4130012
B Since it is illegal ethically you must refuse to make the payment.PMP® Exam Prep4140015
A A lot of people choose D however in this situation there is an impact to the critical path. That makes the best choice A.
Once completed the project manager can find out the reason for the delay. Imagine this situation as a fire. First put it out then f
out why it occurred.PMP® Exam Prep1540012
D There could be an apparent conflict of interest in the offer. Your employer may waive such conflicts but it is best to spe
with the management of your company. If they refuse and you want to participate in the offer you would most likely need to leav
your current position.PMP® Exam Prep4130012
B All theft must be reported.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
A Do not violate copyright laws.PMP® Exam Prep4130012
D Both choices A and D could have prevented the outcome but D is the only one that would ensure you were not sitting in
meeting with a document that had not been reviewed.PMP® Exam Prep4140018
B You need to wait until management approves the effort.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
D You want to present options to your boss therefore D is the best answer. Answer A is a violation of copyright law and
unethical. Answers B and C dont really solve the problem.PMP® Exam Prep4160012
D You should offer your assistance without doing the work.PMP® Exam Prep4160012
B Choice A puts your interests over those of your company so it cannot be the best choice. There is no indication that the
labor dispute has caused any problems so there is no need to cancel its work (choice C) or cease doing business with the
company (choice D). The best choice would be to inform others in your company.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
B The project manager is neither empowered nor competent to determine the legality of company procedures. NOTE: The
is an important distinction between practices and procedures. All unethical practices should be reported. For example a projec
manager must report an act of fraud. Fraud is not a company procedure (normally). However a project manager is not in a
position to determine whether company procedures comply with existing law.PMP® Exam Prep4130012
B The ethical way to proceed is to inform management and remove yourself to avoid even the appearance of
impropriety.PMP® Exam Prep4130012
D If you retain the intellectual property rights you can reuse the work without issue. If not you cannot reuse your efforts with
company B.PMP® Exam Prep4130012
B Choice A does not solve the probem it just prevents it from getting bigger. Choice C is incorrect and may cause addition
liability. Although insurance (choice D) would cover the risk it is best to recall product and fix the problem in all instances (choic
B).PMP® Exam Prep4140012
C Confidential information should be respected (not disclosed to third parties without the express approval of the client). If
you picked choice A remember that the clients own the confidential information. See not all professional and social responsibi
questions are tough!PMP® Exam Prep4140012
C You must report the activities.PMP® Exam Prep4130012
C Nothing in this question says the other hotel is cheaper than the companys hotel chain. Did you read it that way? An
employee does not have the option of whether to follow company policy. Nor generally can a manager override company policy
(choice A). Only the owner of the policy can do that. A project manager must follow policy; therefore it is best to use the
companys hotel (choice C).PMP® Exam Prep4130012
D If you picked ignoring you should reread the book PMP® Exam Prep. Ignoring is not a conflict resolution technique.PMP
Exam Prep2850017
B Both parties are giving up something. This is a compromise.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
C This is an ethical question. One generally needs to work within the laws and customs of the host country.PMP® Exam
Prep4140012
B Choices A and D ignore the customers best interests. Any delays would have already been resolved with other change
orders so choice C is not appropriate. The ethical solution is to talk with the customer (choice B). You might still be able to win
incentive fee and find a mutually agreeable solution. Think of the good will that will come from telling the customer.PMP® Exam
Prep4140012
B These professional and social responsibility questions are getting tough arent they? Think about what you should be
doing. Choice B is the most ethical.PMP® Exam Prep4130111
D This situation tests ethics. Choice A is gold plating and should not be done without the customers approval. Choice B is
even worse because it provides no additional benefit to the customer. Choice C in theory provides benefit to the customer if th
more expensive equipment provides value but it should not be done without customer approval.PMP® Exam Prep41301110
D Sometimes facing the problem sooner is better than facing it later. Besides it may not be that much of a problem.PMP®
Exam Prep4190012
A Choices B C and D do not solve the problem while choice A does. Choice B is unethical. Choice C violates the rule to
report honestly.PMP® Exam Prep4130014
D Can you explain why choices A and B are unethical? Choice C simply withdraws from the problem and is therefore not th
best solution. The only possible choice is D. That choice would involve quality and other experts to find a resolution.PMP® Exa
Prep4130016
A Since you have signed a confidentiality agreement the only allowable choice is A.PMP® Exam Prep4130012
C You should have noticed that only choices A and C involve more people than just the project manager. Since this is an
issuing involving everyone everyone should be involved. Choice A may be a good idea in all cases; however it does not
specifically address cultural issues. Therefore the answer must be C.PMP® Exam Prep4210012
A There is always a way to decrease costs on the project. How about offering to feature the seller in your next television a
The best choice is A.PMP® Exam Prep38700110
B This is a tough but common situation. Choice B is commonly done. Even though a letter of intent is not binding in a cour
law it does make the seller feel more comfortable about expending funds before a contract is signed. Notice how much of the
question is extraneous. Expect questions on the exam that are wordy distracting from the real problem at hand and have who
paragraphs of information that is irrelevant to the real problem.PMP® Exam Prep38200110
D You should look for a choice that solves the problem. Choice A is not assertive enough for a project manager. Also you
need more information before talking to your manager. Choice B might be nice but it does not address the customers concerns
with the project. Changing the baseline (choice C) is not ethical under these circumstances. Problem solving begins with definin
the causes of the problem. Therefore choice D is the only answer.PMP® Exam Prep2860017
C Choice A does not follow the rule to protect the best interests of the customer. Choice B does not solve the problem.
Choice D will cause a default of contract. Although the deliverable meets the contractual requirements it is best to bring the
problem to the customers attention (choice C) so an option that does no harm can be found.PMP® Exam Prep4130016
C Choice A does not address cultural issues. Choices B and D may help the situation but only choice C deals directly with
the issue.PMP® Exam Prep4210012
D Choice A is incorrect because the project life cycle is used in the WBS not created from the WBS. Choice B is not alway
correct statement. The project management process applies to all projects so choice C cannot be true. Whereas the project
management process describes what you do to manage the project the project life cycle describes what you need to do to
complete the work. Therefore choice D is correct.PMP® Exam Prep310011
A The issue here is cost. Ask yourself which choice helps evaluate cost performance. Notice choice D the project budget.
This deals with cost but not performance as there is nothing to compare against the budget listed here. There is no compariso
a previous budget or a comparison of actual to budget. Therefore choice D cannot be best. The only choice that addresses cos
and performance is A.PMP® Exam Prep2070115
A Did you notice that this project has already begun? Risk management is a required element of project management. Yo
must complete the risk management process starting with risk management planning making choice A the correct choice.PMP
Exam Prep3320019
A As project managers spend 90 percent of their time communicating the correct choice must be A.PMP® Exam
Prep3010017
C Choice A is smoothing choice B is problem solving and choice D is forcing.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
DThe best choice is D. If informal verbal communication does not solve the problem choice A is the next best choice. This does
not mean that you do not keep records of the problem but this question is asking about communication between two
parties.PMP® Exam Prep3050018
A Choices C and D are good ideas but not the key objective. Negotiations should be win/win so choice B is not the best
choice. A fair and equitable price (choice A) will create a good working atmosphere. Otherwise you will pay later on change
orders.PMP® Exam Prep38700110
A The first thing that should come to mind is whether this is an ethical situation and whether it violates any company rules
laws. If it does not violate any of these it would be best to check qualifications (choice A). There is no justification to rate choice
B C or D higher than any other choice.PMP® Exam Prep38300110
B Every project must be closed as administrative closure provides benefit to the performing organization. This makes
stopping work (choice C) not the best choice. Choices A and D do not solve the problem?they just postpone dealing with it.PMP
Exam Prep39500110
A It is the role of the change control board to review and approve changes. That board may include people representative
all of the other choices. The contracting office signs any approved changes.PMP® Exam Prep1060012
A It is important that the new seller understand who is who on the project (choice A). Choices B and C would be parts of th
contract. Choice D might occur after choice A but it is not first.PMP® Exam Prep2670017
CChanges made by the customer should be paid for by the customer and not require the use of sellers reserves (choice A).
Saying no (choice B) should not be a first choice. Choice D does not completely address the problem. It is unlikely that the
requested changes could all be accomplished without impacting cost. Sometimes the best way to resolve a problem is to sit do
with all parties discuss the issues and find a solution that works for everyone.PMP® Exam Prep1030012
A Notice that this is a problem that has occurred rather than a problem that has just been identified. Following the right
process is part of professional and social responsibility. Because an unidentified problem or risk occurred it is important to perfo
choices B and C. However they are not your first choices. You might need to inform management (choice D) but this is reactiv
not proactive and not the first thing you should do.PMP® Exam Prep3500019
A This is a question about problem solving. The project manager needs to analyze the problems and identify what caused
them before making a decision.PMP® Exam Prep970012
AThe project manager should not necessarily prevent all scope or cost changes (choices B and C) and the sponsor is not invol
in all changes (choice D). Changes found early will have less of an impact on the project. Thus choice A is best.PMP® Exam
Prep1020012
B Integration refers to combining activities not team members (choice D). Could the project manager smash two team
members together and create one big team member? (I just wanted to see if you are still laughing about this PMP thing!)PMP®
Exam Prep850012
BGenerally the lower life cycle cost should be selected. The extra cost (choice A) may not be costs of your project. The ratios in
choices C and D are fictitious.PMP® Exam Prep 2000015
C Here you should decline the offer. You would also want to report the offer to your boss to avoid any indication of
impropriety. Choice C is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep4140012
AChoice B would help improve subsequent phases but would do nothing for control and deliverables. Choice C would help con
each phase but would not control the integration of the phases into a cohesive whole. Choice D would help but not help both
control and deliverables for each phase. Effective project management requires a life cycle approach to running the project.
Choice A is the only answer that covers both control and deliverables.PMP® Exam Prep910011
C Major constraints is another way of saying triple constraint. Only choice C accurately reflects the triple constraint. PMP
Exam Prep240011
B This situation implies that there are six areas concerned with this project. In addition to added communications
requirements you should be concerned with competing needs and requirements impacting your efforts on configuration
ACreate WBS consists of subdividing major project deliverables (scope) into smaller more manageable work packages. Activity
definition defines the activities that must take place to produce those deliverables.PMP® Exam Prep391012
D Historical records are not generally used for life cycle costing (choice A) lessons learned (choice B) or creating status
reports (choice C).PMP® Exam Prep900012
C Because you have no experience you will have to look at the experience of others. This information is captured in the
historical records from previous projects.PMP® Exam Prep900012
DThis question deals with the proper creation of the project management plan. The final plan contains more information than w
is listed in this question. Therefore it is the final plan and not the components that require authorization. Otherwise there is extr
work for everyone. This makes choice D the correct answer.PMP® Exam Prep940012
D A project manager must manage a project. If all activities are delegated chaos ensues and team members will spend m
time jockeying for position than completing activities.PMP® Exam Prep851012
A You and the team need to work through the project planning processes and then decide what the impact of the cost and
schedule requirements will be on the project. You would not accept the requirements without proper evaluation.PMP® Exam
Prep940012
B The project management plan is the only choice that meets the objectives described.PMP® Exam Prep940012
D Lessons learned from previous projects may be an input to the project management plan they are not part of it.PMP®
Exam Prep940012
DThe project scope statement is created during the planning process group. All the other choices are parts of project
initiating.PMP® Exam Prep390011
CThe only choice that addresses gathering integrating and disseminating information is choice C. The communications
management plan (choice B) deals with who will be communicated with when and in what format.PMP® Exam Prep92 308001
DThe project management plan contains more than just a schedule management plans a budget (choice A) and the project
managers plan for managing and controlling e.g. management plans (choice B). The project charter (choice C) is not part of the
project management plan.PMP® Exam Prep940012
A Be careful on these questions. They try to divert your attention with talk about a quality project etc. Focus on the questio
You need a preliminary project scope statement first.PMP® Exam Prep920012
DIf we were to rephrase the question it is asking Who creates the project management plan? The best answer is that project
management plans are created by the project manager but require input from the team.PMP® Exam Prep930012
C As with any project you need to focus on the needs of the stakeholders. By understanding their needs you will be far
ahead in developing a structured approach that fits their needs. Generally there is no problem with doing both activities.PMP®
Exam Prep250012
AThe project manager should be named early in the project during project initiating if possible.PMP® Exam Prep600011
D A change control procedure is not required to obtain estimates but without the other three choices you cannot develop th
estimates. You need the WBS to define the activities the network diagram to see the dependencies and the risks to determine
contingencies. NOTE: These are high level risks not the detailed risks we identify later in the planning process group.PMP® Ex
Prep1990015
B You want to be prepared. Therefore you create the change control system before you need it in the planning process
group.PMP® Exam Prep950012
CThe project management plan contains more than just a bar or Gantt chart and the project managers plan for completing the
work. It includes all the documentation that went into creating and planning the project approved by the stakeholders.PMP® Ex
Prep930012
C The biggest concern must be the risks that other projects may cause to yours. It would be better to prevent those problem
in risk response planning (choice C) than to just spend effort controlling scope (choice A).PMP® Exam Prep3411019
C All projects even those that do not have a completion date (yes they do exist) should be planned and have a schedule if f
no other reason than to control the project and prove project success. However because there is no end date the schedule sho
allow for resources being removed and other such delays making choice C the best choice. Many people select choice A but th
is no reason to suspect that that a brief project scope statement is a problem on the project. Did you select choice B? This is an
action often taken by less experienced project managers who do not realize the value of planning a project. One might plan to
accomplish the project as time allows but planning should still occur so that among other things the team knows what should be
done by whom. Choice C is a better answer than choice B. What about choice D? Making a list is another activity of inexperien
project managers. Look for examples of bad project management in choices on the exam. They are designed to weed out thos
who know real project management from those who do not.PMP® Exam Prep560012
CWhen answering a question like this one look at all the different parts of the situation to determine which if any are problems.
this case the project charter was agreed to; that is excellent. It looks like project planning was also done well. You have even
checked to make sure stakeholders still agree to the plan. Ask yourself what problem could remain? We know personality confl
are the least frequent sources of conflict so choice A cannot be the best. Notice the two parts of choice B effective sponsor an
high priority. These do not necessarily relate to each other although the statement indicates that they do. This should be a
warning that this choice could not be best. If the problem described in choice D exists management plans should have account
for it and eliminated or dramatically reduced the problem so this could not be the best choice. Expectations (choice C) are
unspoken requirements and are often more critical to a projects stakeholders than the stated ones. Unless these expectations
identified and recorded there is likely to be a high level of dissatisfaction with the project.PMP® Exam Prep261011
CChoices B and D are essentially delaying the situation. Instead the project manager should try to prevent the situation by
showing the consequences if the resources are not available (choice C). This is a more effective strategy than saying but you
gave them to me==c== as in choice A.PMP® Exam Prep1031012
A The components of the triple constraint are scope time cost quality risk and customer satisfaction. This question talks
about a change in scope. It would be most important to look for impacts to other parts of the triple constraint. After that is
completed impact to subsequent work packages would be evaluated.PMP® Exam Prep240011
C Make sure you realize that the project manager can move from integrated change control to project exectuing. Therefor
choices A and D are not exceptions. A project schedule (choice B) is part of a project management plan and is needed before
executing. Corrective actions are an output of the direct and manage project execution process making choice C the
exception.PMBOK® Guide920012
B A vast majority of the projects budget will be expended during the project executing process group.PMBOK® Guide5600
D Getting acceptance of the project management plan would have meant acceptance of project planning assumptions pro
planning decisions regarding alternatives chosen communication among stakeholders key management reviews the baseline fo
progress measurement and project control.PMP® Exam Prep941012
A A single high-level executive can end an entire project if he or she is not satisfied with the results even if that person has
choice been only tangentially involved in the project. It is critical to ensure that all of the final decision makers have been identif
early in a project in order to ensure that their concerns are addressed.PMP® Exam Prep1020012
D The other impacts to the project should be evaluated first. Such impacts include cost quality scope risk and customer
satisfaction. Once these are evaluated the change control board if one exists can approve or deny the change.PMP® Exam
Prep1030012
B The most correct answer here is team buy-in. Without buy-in the team is not motivated to perform.PMP® Exam
Prep940012
D As you work on a project you need to constantly reevaluate the project objectives and how the project relates to other
concurrent projects. Is your project still in line with corporate objectives? If the other project will impact yours you need to be
proactive and work on options now.PMP® Exam Prep1030012
CBefore you can do anything else you have to know what YOU are going to do. Developing the management strategy will prov
the framework for all the rest of the choices presented and the other activities that need to be done.PMP® Exam Prep920012
DThe system contains processes and tools to allow you the project manager to know the status of your project at all times.PMP
Exam Prep910012
CThe project manager is an integrator. This is a question about your role as an integrator and communicator.PMP® Exam
Prep850012
BChoices A and C are common errors inexperienced project managers make. These activities are not the way a project is
planned. Choice D relates only to risk making it not as inclusive as choice B. The project management plan is used to guide the
project and it is the project managers integration role.PMP® Exam Prep850012
BDirecting (choice A) occurs while the project management plan is being created. During project executing the project manage
should be focused on integrating the work of others into a cohesive whole. This is more important than just coordinating (choice
or leading (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep610011
C Integration can be done during choices A and B but it is most important when you reach key interface points in the proje
You must orchestrate the coming together of the results.PMP® Exam Prep850012
B The schedule baseline is there for you to determine how the project is progressing. Follow your change management
process and continue to track against your baseline.PMP® Exam Prep950012
A The use of the word only here implies that integrated change control has already been done thus eliminating choices B
and C. The change control board is the selected representative of the stakeholders so choice D cannot be the right choice. Onc
reviewed the board formally rejects or approves changes.PMP® Exam Prep1060012
BChanges are not listed in the project scope management plan (choices A and D) or in the project charter (choice C). The corr
answer is B.PMP® Exam Prep1030012
C Although there are elements of poor scope management and project charter the best choice is C.PMP® Exam Prep850
A Most often projects outsourced outside of the country encounter communication and time zone barriers. The procureme
process should have assured the project manager that the sellers were skilled.PMP® Exam Prep850012
D Before anyone can be notified the change must be finished. That means looking for time cost quality risk and customer
satisfaction impacts. Choice C would occur after other impacts are found.PMP® Exam Prep1030012
D The change control system should already have methods of making changes described.PMP® Exam Prep950012
A The change control system must also include procedures to handle changes that may be approved without prior review
example as the result of emergencies.PMP® Exam Prep951012
D First you need to find out why the customer is not happy. Then meet with the team and determine options.PMP® Exam
Prep1030012
B A project manager must evaluate the situation before making a decision. In this case the project manager would need t
know more about the added functionality before a decision can be made about what to do.PMP® Exam Prep1031012
D The best way to deal with this problem is to discover the root cause. Only choice D does that.PMP® Exam Prep103001
AIt seems like all of these are good ideas but choice A helps discover errors and changes and could therefore be considered th
best choice.PMP® Exam Prep261011
C The change control board not management approves all changes.PMP® Exam Prep1060012
D Project managers should be proactive. The only proactive answer here is preventing unnecessary changes.PMP® Exam
Prep1020012
A Remember the question asked for methods to control changes not just deal with them. Choice A is the most
proactive.PMP® Exam Prep1030012
DSometimes certain classifications of changes get automatic approval on a project and do not need a change control boards
approval. For example in an emergency changes should be made by the project manager without the change control board.
Therefore choice D is better than choice B.PMP® Exam Prep950012
CSuch actions should be documented. Since such documents become part of the historical records database choice C is
correct.PMP® Exam Prep990012
A Rejected change requests are an input to monitor and control project work.PMBOK® Guide950012
D Integrated change control requires coordinating changes across knowledge areas. For example a proposed schedule
change will often affect cost risk quality and staffing.PMP® Exam Prep1001012
BRemember that control relates to measurement.PMP® Exam Prep970012
B Although the issue relates to scope integrated change control procedures should be followed.PMP® Exam Prep950012
AThe change control system must also include procedures to handle changes that may be approved without prior review for
example as the result of emergencies.PMP® Exam Prep950012
C You want the process to be formal so changes dont just happen. You manage them. You want them documented for
historical purposes so there is an audit trail indicating why you made the changes.PMP® Exam Prep950012
BFirst you need to understand the scope of the change so you and the team can evaluate the impact. Next you present the
options to the change control board. The change control board then decides whether to include the change and its correspondi
impacts in the project.PMP® Exam Prep1030012
B This question includes many common errors regarding baselines. It is important to realize that delays or cost increases
(choices A and C) do not automatically result in changes to baselines. Changes can be made to the baselines but only when th
are officially approved.PMP® Exam Prep960012
B The person requesting the change usually formulates the change (choice D) and creates a change proposal (choice A).
performing organization usually creates the procedures regarding changes (choice C). The change control board reviews reque
for changes evaluates both the positive and negative impacts and then approves or rejects the changes.PMP® Exam
Prep1060012
A Notice that choice A could be said to include all the other choices. Thus choice A is the best answer.PMP® Exam
Prep850012
DA change control system consists of the processes and procedures that allow smooth evaluation and tracking of changes.
Lessons learned (choice D) are reviews of the processes and procedures to improve them; they are not part of the system.PMP
Exam Prep950012
C The sponsor issues the project charter and so he should help the project manager control changes to the charter. The
primary responsibility lies with the sponsor.PMP® Exam Prep890012
A If many changes are being requested and made it indicates that the scope definition was incomplete. A thorough review
the project scope with the stakeholders will help identify where problems exist and allow you to focus on fixing them. Only after
that is done can one look at the higher-level document (the project charter choice D). Forms (choice B) or procedures (choice C
do not deal with the root cause of the changes.PMP® Exam Prep1030012
D Read the questions carefully. Dont miss the impact of the words NOT and BEST in the question. Even though it may not
directly affect the time or cost to the project you need to look at all the impacts of a change on other components of the triple
constraint. The change may increase risk reduce quality etc.PMP® Exam Prep1040012
D The first thing is always to evaluate the impact of the change on the project (choice D). A good thing to do next might be
see what the contract states and then meet with the customer (choice B). Doing choice A first might be too drastic and choice C
really means doing nothing. Your actions in this case might be different than if the carpet was not already installed.PMP® Exam
Prep1040012
CDo you remember what to do when there is a change? Evaluate first. The use of the word only shows that evaluation was do
The words what options are chosen show that compressing the schedule (choice A) and cutting scope (choice B) have also b
done. The next step is to consult with the sponsor before the client (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep891012
B The first action would be to formally document the requirements and then follow the project change control process.PMP
Exam Prep950012
resources.Revise the project management plan.Evaluate impact.Request change control board involvement.BOnce the change
has been made you need to update the documents affected by the change all of which are included in the project management
plan.PMP® Exam Prep1040012
B Who does each activity (choices A and D) is managed with the schedule and responsibility assignment matrixes. When
each activity is done (choice C) is managed with the project schedule. A work authorization system is used to coordinate when
and in what order the work is performed so that work and people may properly interface with other work and other people.PMP
Exam Prep950012
CThe best answer is the proactive answer choice C. You need to do more than just monitor and track changes (choice B); you
have to work on influencing the causes of change.PMP® Exam Prep850012
B The project manager is asking how to make a change. The procedures forms sign-offs and other similar requirements fo
handling changes should have already been determined in the change control system (choice B). Because they werent the pro
manager will waste valuable work time trying to figure it out after the fact.PMP® Exam Prep950012
DNotice that the first paragraph is extraneous. Also notice that the question states that the change has already been made. Yo
actions will be different than if the change had not been made. It is the project managers job to investigate impacts as the proje
manager is the only one who can tell how a change impacts the project as a whole. Choices A B and C could all be done but th
do not address the immediate concern. Choice D is the best answer since it begins the project managers analysis of the impac
to the project as a whole by finding out what analysis has already been done. He can then determine how he must finalize the
analysis as it applies to the entire project. Can you see that?PMP® Exam Prep1040012
C The first action is to evaluate the impact of a change. Only choice C is the appropriate type of evaluation.PMP® Exam
Prep1040012
C First you need to understand what change has taken place and then evaluate the impact and options. (Note that this is a
example of gold plating.)PMP® Exam Prep1040012
CA benefit cost analysis (choice B) might have been completed during project planning but it did not relate to the change. A
project sponsor (choice D) is not generally involved in changes within the project. Compiling the information necessary for a
benefit cost analysis (choice A) is a form of estimating and it is best if the person doing the work creates the estimates.PMP®
Exam Prep1030012
D Choices A B and C are in the definition of baselines. The WBS (choice D) is created before the project management
D Choice A is a measurement of the project and would not reflect approved changes. Scope verification (choice B) deals
with obtaining formal acceptance from the customer. Choice C might address how to handle changes but does not reflect
approved changes. Changes made via the change control system will be documented in some part of the project management
B Look again at this question. It does not provide details of what is wrong. A project manager must understand what led to
problems with team dynamics project scope etc. in order to decide what to do and with whom to meet to resolve the problem. O
choice B deals with evaluation. If you got this one wrong you should understand this for two reasons. First many project manag
jump to action without evaluating. Second you will see other questions you may get wrong for the same reason. One cannot me
with the sponsor until the reasons for the problems are known. Notice that choices C and D include meeting with the entire team
is more appropriate to meet only with the team members involved.PMP® Exam Prep1031012
B Meeting the baseline is one indicator of project success.PMP® Exam Prep950012
APerformance measures are determined earlier in the project so they can be used to measure progress during the project.PMP
Exam Prep690011
A Notice that this question asks about the use of a tool of project management. Many people can learn from a book what a
lessons learned document is but questions like this can more readily be answered if you actually use the tool and know from
experience its value. Ask yourself about the other tools of project management. Why are they beneficial? The BEST use of
lessons learned is choice A. There are other tools that are better for accomplishing the things listed in the other choices.PMP®
Exam Prep31000110
D The best answer is stakeholders as their input is critical for collecting all the lessons learned on each project. The term
stakeholders includes all the other groups.PMP® Exam Prep31100110
B The PMO determines whether a project supports the organizations strategic plan and can authorize exceptions to projec
not linked to the strategic plan.PMP® Exam Prep231011
DBecause the CEO is the sponsor choices A and B would not be good first choices. Choice B might be done after choice D.
Choice C is often done before a project is selected.PMP® Exam Prep870112
BProduct acceptance criteria is a part of the preliminary project scope statement.PMP® Exam Prep890012
BThese are reasons projects are initiated.PMBOK® Guide810011
CChoices A and B are not correct because deliverables are part of the project charter which is created before the work is
completely defined and planning occurs. Since deliverables are determined in part by the customer choice D cannot be
D Choice A is incorrect as the change would not impact the entire project management process only contracting. Loyalty
the project (choice B) would be gained not lost in a decentralized environment. In a decentralized contracting situation there is
less focus on maintaining the skill or expertise of the contracting function making choice D the best answer.PMP® Exam
Prep36900110
A Constrained optimization uses mathematical models. Linear programming is a mathematical model.PMP® Exam
Prep910012
A This is a question about project selection. In order to interpret the information you need to know what each item is. A 12
percent IRR (choice A) is a more quantified benefit than a BCR of 1.3. You need more information to understand what the BCR
1.3 will mean on the project. Thus it is impossible to determine whether the BCR of 1.3 is better than an IRR of 12 percent. The
is not enough information provided to support recommending or not recommending choices C or D. This leaves only choice A w
a 12 percent return as providing a clear benefit. PMP® Exam Prep2151012
BThe items listed might lead to changes but they are not changes themselves so choice A cannot be best. These items may be
considered when creating a WBS but they are not components of a WBS (choice C). A market demand (choice D) would not be
logical reason to outsource. As choice B lists good justifications for projects to be initiated it is the best answer.PMBOK®
Guide810011
B This question can be tricky especially if you have spent so much time studying that you have forgotten some good proje
management practices. A quick look at Ritas Process Charts in the PMP Exam Prep book might draw you to conclude that the
FIRST thing would be to start planning. Wouldnt it be smart to make sure what you have in the preliminary project scope
statement and project charter are clear and complete before moving on? This is why choice B is the best choice.PMP® Exam
Prep1260012
DThese are two broad categories of project selection methods.PMP® Exam Prep910011
CThe project manager must be assigned during project initiating.PMP® Exam Prep560011
CThe project charter is issued by the sponsor. The project manager may have a role in its creation.PMP® Exam Prep891012
A The project charter documents the project description and need of the client.PMP® Exam Prep890012
A The project charter is issued by the sponsor.PMP® Exam Prep890012
B The best thing to do would be to show the impact. This is the only choice that prevents future problems - always the bes
choice. The other choices just pretend the problem does not exist.PMP® Exam Prep890012
A Outputs of the initiating process group are project charter and preliminary project scope statement.PMP® Exam
Prep390012
A Determining the product description should be a giveaway. This process is addressed in the project charter so we must
in project initiating. Expect many questions that ask when something occurs in the project management process.PMP® Exam
Prep390012
CThe exam will ask questions like this to make sure you know the benefits you should be getting out of the process and tools o
project management. The details of what needs to be done (choice A) are found in the WBS dictionary. The names of team
members (choice B) are included in responsibility assignment matrix and other documents. Project history (choice D) is found i
the lessons learned and other project documents.PMP® Exam Prep890012
DThis question may seem simple but it is really testing if you know what is a correct project charter. Choices A and B do not co
until project management planning after the project charter. A project charter may include the names of some resources (the
project manager for example) but not detailed resources (choice C).PMP® Exam Prep880012
A Many people mistakenly include things that come after the preliminary project scope statement (e.g. project scope
statement (choice B) and schedule (choice C) in the preliminary project scope statement. These items come after the prelimina
project scope statement. The business need (choice D) is in the project charter.PMP® Exam Prep920012
D The project charter is needed before planning and execution of the work can begin.PMP® Exam Prep390011
A Since the question talks about creating choice D cannot be a good choice. One needs to know the contract one is to
manage in order to create a contract management plan so choice B is too early in the project management process. It is only
after the contract is signed (choice A) that enough might be known to create a contract management plan.PMP® Exam Prep92
38900110
B A project scope statement (choice B) is generally created in project planning.PMP® Exam Prep390011
D Performance measurement baselines are developed during project planning. The others are parts of a preliminary proje
scope statement. Expect to see many questions that ask when something occurs in the project management process.PMP®
Exam Prep390012
D Work not in the WBS is outside the scope of the project.PMP® Exam Prep1270013
A The project scope statement (choice B) is an output of scope definition. The work breakdown structure (choice C) is an
output of create WBS. Requested scope changes (choice D) are an output of scope control.PMP® Exam Prep1251013
B When you look at this question you might see three right answers (choices A B and C). Scope verification (choice D)
involves obtaining acceptance of the completed project scope. One could be looking at alternative choices when creating a pro
charter in the initiating process group (choice A) however this is not part of the scope management process. You could be also
looking at alternatives when creating a project scope management plan (choice B) or while creating the project scope statemen
scope definition (choice C). To choose between these look for the time when you identify alternative approaches the MOST. T
answer is during scope planning making choice B the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep1250003
D Choice D is the best choice. Inspection is a tool used during monitoring and controlling.PMP® Exam Prep1260013
ALimits on what options you have to complete the project are called constraints.PMP® Exam Prep240011
B Notice the wording of choice D. The connection between claims and questions is not a valid one in contracts. You might
connect actions of the buyer and claims errors in the contract and claims but not questions and claims. Choices A and C are
usually included in the contract but based on the situation they are not the MOST important. The situation describes an unclea
scope of work and the need for quality. Therefore the most important thing is to make sure a buyer conducted performance rev
is included in the contract.PMP® Exam Prep39300110
D When the seller has more expertise than the buyer the contract statement of work should describe performance or
function rather than a complete list of work. In any case the contract statement of work should be as detailed as possible.PMP
Exam Prep37600110
B The WBS is an input to all of these choices. However team buy-in (choice B) is a direct result of the WBS creation proce
while the other choices use the WBS to assist in their completion. The best answer is B.PMP® Exam Prep1290013
B The Delphi Technique uses experts and builds to consensus; therefore expert opinion is the chief characteristic.PMP®
Exam Prep3350019
B Did you say project initiating? If so you did not read the question. It did not refer to the preliminary project scope stateme
just the project scope statement. Tricky I know. Do you hate me yet? And you were worried about long wordy questions!PMP®
Exam Prep1250013
B Management by objectives tries to focus all activities on meeting the companys objectives. If the projects objectives are
in line with the companys objectives the project may be impacted or cancelled.PMP® Exam Prep240011
B In scope definition organizational process assets are required before the project scope statement can be completed. Th
include historical records of previous projects including their scope statements and may also include processes and
templates.PMBOK® Guide1091013
C The WBS is used in many different processes but is not integral to quality assurance.PMBOK® Guide125 159 182 2720
B After the customers input the performing organizations project team is responsible for scope baseline preparation. The
baseline includes the WBS WBS dictionary and project scope statement.PMP® Exam Prep1250013
B The project scope management plan is created as part of scope planning.PMP® Exam Prep1250013
D Remember that scope definition is when the project scope statement is created. Activity duration (choice A human
resource planning (choice B) and cost estimating (choice C) are all done after scope definition. Only scope planning (choice D)
occurs before scope definition. See Ritas Process Chart in the book PMP Exam Prep.PMBOK® Guide700013
B Quality requirements are not an input to creating the WBS.PMBOK® Guide1130113
C Decomposition is done during create WBS.PMP® Exam Prep1280013
B The WBS is hierarchical; therefore each lower level is made of all the parts of the upper level segment. The first level
should be your project life cycle not products (choice A). The WBS is not listed in chronological order (choice C) nor should
functional areas (choice D) organize it.PMP® Exam Prep1280013
A Smaller pieces allow for more accurate estimates are used to track the project against actuals and are used to assign
resources using a resource assignment matrix. Therefore choice A is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep1280013
D The heuristic (rule of thumb) we use in project decomposition is 80 hours. It doesnt matter how experienced the team
members are. You need this level of reporting to manage the project effectively.PMP® Exam Prep1820013
BThe important words here are project work packages. This indicates that a WBS has already been created. If it said project
deliverables==c== the answer would have been choice A.PMP® Exam Prep1311013
C The lowest level of the WBS is a work package which can be performed by more than one person.PMP® Exam
Prep1280013
C Decomposition is the process of logically subdividing the project into smaller pieces. Therefore it is used to develop the
WBS.PMP® Exam Prep1310013
A Dont forget that the team needs to help you with the WBS. This helps you obtain team buy-in from the people who do th
work.PMP® Exam Prep1290013
C If you picked project charter (choice B) remember that the project charter is a high-level document. Because the WBS
dictionary (choice C) is much more detailed it would provide more help in controlling gold plating.PMP® Exam Prep1320013
A The team is needed because they are the technical experts on the project and know better than the project manager wh
needs to be done.PMP® Exam Prep1290013
C The numbering system allows you to quickly identify the level in the work breakdown structure where the specific elemen
found. It also helps to locate the element in the WBS directory.PMP® Exam Prep1290013
C Choices A and B make use of already determined resource requirements. Resources are determined based on the
needs of the project and those needs are in the activity list.PMP® Exam Prep1501014
C Schedule development occurs after these activities.PMP® Exam Prep1540014
D The project charter is completed prior to the development of the project management plan.PMP® Exam Prep890012
D The work breakdown structure is designed to show all the work that is required to produce the project output as well as
other project-specific activities. It should include enough detail to allow you to manage the project with the resulting work
packages.PMP® Exam Prep1300013
B A weak matrix project organization is the most likely reason that teams are falling behind because the functional manag
is moving people without working with the project manager. In this type of organization the functional manager has more power
than the project manager.PMP® Exam Prep280011
B The project scope management plan describes how requested scope changes will be managed.PMP® Exam Prep1250
B OK so I have fun driving you crazy but arent you learning something? Be very careful as this simple question may uncov
many gaps in your knowledge. The question is really asking The project priority has become lower what should you do? Altho
projects should relate to the companys objectives many do not. Why would you decrease costs (choice A)? In order to do so yo
must decrease scope or quality. Nothing here indicates that this is required. You are still chartered to do the same project. One
cannot arbitrarily change the CPI (choice C); if you improve the performance of the project you would thereby change the CPI.
Choice D is a made-up term. The only choice is to extend the schedule and allow flexibility to accommodate the delays and oth
risks a low priority adds to the project.PMP® Exam Prep231012
A A change request is the most effective way of handling the disconnect between what users actually want and what
management thinks they want.PMP® Exam Prep1341013
A Quality control checks for correctness scope verification checks for acceptance.PMP® Exam Prep1341013
C The key aspect of scope verification is acceptance of the deliverable.PMP® Exam Prep1340013
D Such a review compares the deliverable to the requirements. The project manager might have misunderstood and it wo
be best to check before talking to the team member.PMP® Exam Prep1341013
B Did you think that this question had two right answers (choices A and B)? Look again at the wording of choice A. It is no
common that all deliverables will need to be audited. Auditing less frequently (choice C) or calling the inspection by another nam
(choice D) do not solve the real problem.PMP® Exam Prep1251013
D A team member should have flexibility at the work package level to make some changes as long as they are within the
overall scope of the WBS dictionary.PMP® Exam Prep1341013
D Sensitivity analysis has nothing to do with scope verification.PMP® Exam Prep1340013
C Since the project management plan is completed before scope verification choice A cannot be best. Since scope
verification does not deal with time but rather acceptance choice B cannot be best. Since scope verification does not occur befo
scope planning choice D cannot be best. Only the statements in choice C are completely correct making that the best
choice.PMP® Exam Prep1330113
A Choices B C and D are inputs to scope verification.PMBOK® Guide1050013
D Option D treats all team members with respect and preserves an individuals integrity while identifying gaps in the projec
scope statement. It also allows the project manager to interpret body language of those who misunderstood.PMP® Exam
Prep1350013
A Scope verification deals with acceptance by the customer. Without this acceptance you will not be able to move into the
next project phase.PMP® Exam Prep1340013
D A project manager cannot be responsible for the customers inspection process (choice A) only his own. Network diagra
changes (choice B) will not affect the root cause of this problem. An apology (choice C) might be in order later after the root cau
is found. The best choice of those provided is to review scope verification (choice D) as that process deals with acceptance by
stakeholders.PMP® Exam Prep1330013
A Informal changes to project scope and plan are probably the chief cause of schedule slippage cost overruns and project
team member frustration. Effective scope control is critical to the success of a project.PMP® Exam Prep1351013
A Scope verification is the process of verifying completeness of the work. Therefore you need deliverables (choice A) to u
in the analysis. Organizational process assets (choice B) is an input to earlier parts of the scope management process but not
scope verification. Formal acceptance (choice C) and change requests (choice D) are outputs of scope verification not
inputs.PMP® Exam Prep1340013
A Much of the work on the project is dictated by the project scope statement. Any imprecision in such a key document will
lead to differing interpretations.PMP® Exam Prep1260013
B The project manager should validate with the customer that the change will add value and follow change processes.PM
Exam Prep1350013
B Scope management ensures that the appropriate scope is done.PMP® Exam Prep1230013
C It is product verification that occurs at the end of the project (choice A). Scope verification is done during the monitoring
and controlling process group so choices B and D cannot be correct. The description of scope verification defines it as being do
at the end of each phase (the end of design implementation) making choice C the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep1340013
A A WBS does not show dates or responsibility assignments (choices B and C). Those are included on the bar chart and
possibly in the communications management plan. The business need (choice D) is shown in the project charter. Never though
that a WBS could be shown to the customer? Made you think! Of course it could be used for that purpose. In this situation the
product and project scope are being fine tuned. It would save the project manager time to effectively manage progressive
elaboration if the WBS were used to assist. The WBS helps ensure everyone understands the scope of the work.PMP® Exam
Prep1310013
A Notice the use of the term contract statement of work This is used to refer to the part of the project work that will be do
by a seller. It is unethical to ignore scope verification as it will add risk that the project will not meet the customers needs.
Therefore choice A is the best answer. In a real-world situation one would probably work with the customer to efficiently handl
verification so as to cause as little disruption as possible.PMP® Exam Prep39010110
C In choice A the contract could be wrong or the customer could be wrong but this would have/should have been discover
earlier if proper project management was followed. If you picked choice B you have forgotten that a seller cannot issue a chan
order (although he could request one). Did you select choice D? If so remember that project management is not about making
every decision with ALL the team members. Choice C involves meeting with the appropriate team member. If such a problem h
arisen it could mean something was wrong in the WBS dictionary or in how the team member completed the work.PMP® Exam
Prep13310110
B The output of scope verification is customer acceptance of project deliverables. The other choices all happen during proj
planning well before the time that scope verification takes place.PMP® Exam Prep1330013
A The best answer is the need for management to support the objectives.PMP® Exam Prep240011
B Scope verification is done at the end of each phase of the project. If it is not done you risk delivering something in the ne
phase that is not acceptable to the customer.PMP® Exam Prep660113
B Scope verification requires acceptance by the customer. If they are not happy you must find out why and remedy the
situation if the project is to meet their needs. It is important to evaluate why they are unhappy in order to determine a course of
action. Only choice B relates to evaluation. The other choices could happen after choice B.PMP® Exam Prep1340013
A Activity lists (choice B) may list the work package they relate to but they do not contain detailed descriptions of the work
packages. The preliminary project scope statement (choice C) may contain project scope but it does not describe the work a te
member is assigned. The project scope management plan (choice D) describes how scope will be planned managed and
controlled. It does not include a description of each work package. The WBS dictionary defines each element in the WBS.
Therefore descriptions of the work packages are in the WBS dictionary.PMP® Exam Prep1320012
D Scope verification focuses on customer acceptance of a deliverable while product verification is focused on making sure
the work is completed satisfactorily.PMP® Exam Prep134 3950013
B The question asks about identifying work. Only choice B relates to identifying work as a work breakdown structure is use
define all of the work required to complete the project.PMP® Exam Prep1280013
B The rules of the Delphi Technique are: keep the experts identities anonymous do not bring the experts together in the
same room and build consensus.PMP® Exam Prep3350013
B This is a definition of scope management.PMP® Exam Prep750013
C Choice A is never the first resort to solve such problems because the project manager loses credibility and performance
using overtime. This would likely create a cost impact on the project or impact other projects or other work. Choice B is a good
idea but does not address the time problem. Choice D is not viable as other resources are not available. The best choice in thi
situation is to consider cutting the scope (choice C).PMP® Exam Prep1351013
C A project manager must always evaluate the situation and identify options before a decision can be made. Choices A an
B are not appropriate options. C is the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep39300110
B You can expect many questions dealing with changes on the exam. Generally you look for impacts to the components
the triple constraint (choice B) even if the project is ahead of schedule and/or under budget. You cannot do choices A or C un
choice B is done. There is no such thing as a configuration change board (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep1351013
C This is a question with more than one right answer. The question is really asking which is MOST important. The easiest
way to deal with these questions is to look for the choice that will have the biggest impact on the project. Choice A is important
but look again at choice C. It is a method of recording the change like choice A but it is more specific and detailed. Be careful
about choices like D. Changes are not bad and should not generally be prevented.PMP® Exam Prep1250013
A Changes must be formally controlled using the change control system.PMP® Exam Prep1030013
C A poor communications management plan is not likely to cause the volume of changes in this instance.PMP® Exam
Prep1031012
B A submittal that does not meet the requirements should not be accepted.PMP® Exam Prep1341013
C Though it is a correct statement choice A cannot be the answer because it does not deal with control. Since scope
planning occurs before scope control choice B cannot be the answer. Since controlling the schedule is not the best way to cont
scope choice D is not the best answer. The control processes do not act in isolation. A change to one will most likely affect the
others. Therefore choice C is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep1351013
C Notice the use of the terms product and project scope and how they mean different things? Choice C is the best optio
since a change to any part of the product or project should be evaluated for impacts to other parts.PMP® Exam Prep1230013
D Deliverables are accepted in scope verification.PMBOK® Guide1200013

C A project manager should ensure they give the customer what they asked for; no more or no less. Even though in this ca
it had no negative effect on cost or schedule it may have adversely affected other areas of the project such as quality. There w
no opportunity to complete integrated change control before the change was made.PMP® Exam Prep1230013
D The project manager must identify the stakeholders document their needs wants and expectations then manage and
influence expectations to ensure project success. (Since the project is already in the planning process group this should have
already taken place.) Choice A is a control function related to gaining customer acceptance. Choice B relates to looking for
multiple impacts of changes. Choice C creates a project scope management plan.PMP® Exam Prep250011
A If the scope change had been properly recorded the change impact could have been addressed immediately.PMP® Exa
Prep1350013
C Recommended corrective actions are outputs of scope verification and scope control.PMBOK® Guide1130013
BChoice A would be hard to do if you do not have a correct project scope statement. Documenting (choice C) is reactive. Did
think choice D is the best choice? Then you have chosen action too severe for the situation. This is a question about problem
solving which begins with defining the causes of the problem. It is better to evaluate before taking action. You must get comple
requirements before starting work. At issue here are the different project scope statements. How different? you should ask
yourself. Thats what choice B addresses.PMP® Exam Prep950012
B Generally a contractor can work for whomever they choose so choice C is not correct. However it would not be ethica
them to divulge confidential information about the competitor or your company. B is the best choice. Choice A would be the
second choice because you would lose the contractors skill on the project. Choice D is not practical in most companies.PMP®
Exam Prep3800017
A Though there could be other reasons than those presented choice A is the best characterization. A good work breakdow
structure identifies each work package so that each can be properly assigned thus reducing the possibility that the same work w
be done by more than one resource.PMP® Exam Prep1290013
B The team member is suggesting an enhancement that is outside the project charter. Scope management involves focus
on doing the work and only the work in the project management plan that meets the needs of the project charter. The project
manager is performing scope management.PMP® Exam Prep1230013
A In this case all the choices are correct. You would need to evalute the change (choice D). Depending on the change yo
may need to meet with the team (choice C). Meeting with the customer to obtain more information (choice B) is also a good
choice. Since all these actions should be part of the change control process the best anwer is choice A.PMP® Exam
Prep1030012
B Do not jump into the problem without thinking. The customer only notified the project manager that they want to make a
change They did not describe the change. The project manager would need to understand the nature of the change and have
time to evaluate the impact of the change before doing anything else. Of these choices the first thing to do is to determine what
the change (choice B) and then meet with the team (choice A) but only if their input is required. The project manager should no
just say no (choice C) until he knows more about the possible change. He also should not go to management (choice D) withou
more information.PMP® Exam Prep1350013
B You need to first understand the change before you can evaluate it. In this instance verbal communication is not likely to
provide enough information to evaluate. Once you understand the change you can work with the team to determine the impact
and options.PMP® Exam Prep1350013
D Ideally there is a change control system in place that should be followed to make changes in the project.PMP® Exam
Prep10300110
C Choices A B and D are processes in the monitoring and controlling process group. This situation asks how to prevent th
problem. This would have been done during the planning processes (choice C) as the project deliverables are defined in scope
planning. Good planning reduces the likelihood of a similar situation by including the right people and spending adequate time
clarifying the project scope.PMP® Exam Prep1250013
C The baseline changes only with approved changes.PMP® Exam Prep960013
D It is not practical to limit the scope of the changes. Each change request needs to be evaluated as a separate entity.PM
Exam Prep1820014
A Since the project manager has found a problem with the schedule performance and proposed a course of action to
improve the performance she is recommending a corrective action. If you picked choice C remember that verification deals with
customer acceptance not taking corrective action.PMP® Exam Prep1810014
C Did you notice that the first paragraph is extraneous? The trick here is to determine what the question is asking and igno
the extraneous data. An end-of-phase review meeting is the same as an administrative closure meeting when a phase of the
project is closed out. Cancelling the project has the most impact on the project team and project direction and therefore would b
the most difficult.PMP® Exam Prep851012
B Notice that the question asks where you are in the project management process. Ritas Process Chart in the book PMP
Exam Prep will help you understand the project management process and where you are in that process. Many people select
choice A but the project cannot be complete because formal acceptance has not been achieved and other closure activities ha
not been performed. Such closure activities are so critical that a project cannot be finished without them. In our real world man
project managers are so busy that they forget the value of closing. This question tests that knowledge. The project is in the clos
process group and choice B is the correct answer.PMP® Exam Prep39 39501110
A Anything missed in the WBS should be added. However such changes should be evaluated in integrated change control
The change could then be added to a network diagram (choice C) and an estimate (choice D). Change orders (choice A) start
after the project management plan is approved not during planning.PMP® Exam Prep1261013
B Read questions such as this as when you are done with activity definition what do you have? PMBOK® Guide1270014
D A network diagram is part of activity sequencing not activity definition.PMBOK® Guide1270014
A Organizational process assets include historical information. Such information about previous projects should be conside
while defining project activities especially information about errors and omissions on previous projects.PMBOK® Guide127001
A GERT is the only diagramming technique that allows loops.PMP® Exam Prep1490014
B Project network diagrams are schematic displays of the logical relationships among activities.PMP® Exam Prep147001
A The question implies a finish-to-finish relationship between activities. The arrow diagramming method (choice B) does no
support these types of relationships. Choice C is not a diagramming method and choice D is a made-up term.PMP® Exam
Prep1470014
A Based on lessons we learned from past projects or from our past experience we prefer to do activities in a certain order.
Choice B talks about external dependencies. Choice C refers to mandatory dependencies. Choice D is not a reason for
dependencies.PMP® Exam Prep1490014
A The only relationship allowed is finish-to-start.PMP® Exam Prep1480014
C The arrows show the activities (choice B) and the nodes depict the dependencies between the activities (choice C).PMP
Exam Prep1480014
C By definition free float (or slack) is the time an activity can be delayed without impacting the early start of its
successor.PMP® Exam Prep1590014
D By definition the most correct answer here is the project completion date.PMP® Exam Prep1590014
B Analogous estimating (choice A) can be used when you have done similar work previously. Monte Carlo analysis (choic
C) is a schedule development technique. Parametric estimating (choice D) includes the use of past history and productivity rate
for the work which would not be available if you had not done the activity before.PMP® Exam Prep1540014
B Choices A C and D apply only to activity-on-arrow diagrams. Choice B is the only correct answer.PMP® Exam
Prep1470014
C Since the dependency is required it could not be discretionary (choice A) and therefore must be mandatory. No mention
made that the dependency comes from a source outside the project so external (choice B) is not correct. Scope dependency
(choice D) is not a defined term. The key word in this question is requires. The question defines a mandatory dependency.PM
Exam Prep1490014
A There are four relationships: finish-to-start finish-to-finish start-to-finish and start-to-start.PMP® Exam Prep1470014
C Free float and total float (choices A and B) are the time an activity can be delayed without impacting the next activity or
entire project. CPM (choice D) is an estimating method not waiting time. Therefore lag (choice C) is the correct answer.PMP®
Exam Prep1490014
D A critical path can run over a dummy but dummies are not always on the critical path.PMP® Exam Prep1480014
B The situation is neither mandatory (choice A) nor driven by an external source (choice C). A rule of thumb (choice D) is
something that can be used consistently. This situation is a unique occurrence. The situation is a suggestion or a preferred
method so choice B is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep1490014
C Total float and free float (choices A and B) are the time an activity can be delayed without impacting the entire project o
the next activity. CPM (choice D) is a network analysis technique not waiting time. Choice C is the correct answer.PMP® Exam
Prep1490014
D A project manager can rarely tell or direct that project resources be assigned. Most frequently on projects the functional
manager owns the resources.PMP® Exam Prep2781017
D Both critical paths have durations of 16 weeks. Since 16 is the longest duration of paths you have two critical paths.PMP
Exam Prep158 - 1700014
A Activities A and F have float and are not on the critical path.PMP® Exam Prep1591014
C The wider the range between the optimistic and pessimistic estimates in a three-point estimate the more uncertainty the
estimator has.PMP® Exam Prep1540014
B By the time this activity is taking place activity sequencing (choice A) scope definition (choice C) and creating a project
charter (choice D) would be completed.PMP® Exam Prep1550014
D The two paths you have in this question are Start 1 2 3 End and Start 1 4 End. Path Start 1 2 3 End would take 1 + 4 + 5
days or 10 days to complete. Path Start 1 4 End would take 1 + 10 days or 11 days to complete. A trick to calculating this quick
is to carefully draw the network diagram list all the possible paths and then determine how much time each path would take.PM
Exam Prep158 - 1700014
D A heuristic is a rule of thumb. Examples are cost per line of code cost per square foot of floor space etc.PMP® Exam
Prep1530014
C Did you notice how difficult this question was to read? Such wording is intentional to prepare you for interpreting questio
on the real exam. Looking at this situation you see that there are three paths through the network. They are Start A C E F End
a duration of 40 + 35 + 10 + 22 or 107 Start A C D End with a duration of 40 + 35 + 30 or 105 and Start B D End with a duration
25 + 30 or 55. If the duration of activity B changes from 25 to 37 the activity will take 12 hours longer. As the activity is only on t
third path it will only change the duration of that path from 55 to 55 + 12 or 67 hours. Since the duration of the critical path is 10
hours the delay with activity B will have no impact on the project timeline or the current critical path.PMP® Exam Prep158 -
1701014
D Scope verification is the formal acceptance of the project scope by the stakeholders. Since it occurs after planning it
cannot be used in estimating.PMP® Exam Prep1520014
D Schedule development includes all work and uses all inputs needed to come up with a finalized realistic schedule. One
would need time reserves (choice D) in order to complete a schedule. All of the other items are parts of schedule control and
occur after schedule development.PMP® Exam Prep1540014
C Think of schedule development as all the work necessary to finalize the schedule. All the activities listed other than choi
C are parts of other processes.PMP® Exam Prep1430014
A The question is really asking What is done after activity duration estimating All of the activities listed except choice A ar
done before activity duration estimating.PMBOK® Guide1251014
B You need to select an activity on the path with activity G. This will allow activity G to begin and finish earlier meeting the
milestone.PMP® Exam Prep1731014
A The estimates received in the project management process before the final schedule are based on how much or how lo
will it take. It is also important to check when on a calendar basis the work can be done.PMP® Exam Prep1551014
B Notice that you need to know what each choice is in order to determine the best answer. With Monte Carlo analysis you
can perform what if drills.PMP® Exam Prep1791014
A The two paths you have in this question are Start 1 2 3 End and Start 1 4 End. Path Start 1 2 3 End would take 1 + 4 + 5
days or 10 days to complete. Path Start 1 4 End would take 1 + 8 days or nine days to complete. Carefully draw the network
diagram list all the possible paths and then determine the duration of each path.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1701014
D The near-critical path is the path closest in length to the critical path; in this case A B F G H J ==c==K.PMP® Exam
Prep1591014
D The activities common to the critical paths are the most likely to change; these are activities D E and L. However activity
cannot change because its duration is one day and cannot be reduced to . Therefore the answer is choice D.PMP® Exam
Prep158 - 1701014
B This question is asking you about the process of project management. Think about Ritas Process Game in the book PM
Prep. Choice A activity sequencing has already been done in creating the network diagram. Choice C scope verification occurs
during control. Choice D is a made-up term.PMP® Exam Prep39 1541014
D Answer D is the most correct answer. The schedule management plan is an output of schedule development and is the
repository for plans for schedule changes.PMP® Exam Prep1451014
B A Monte Carlo analysis provides the ability to compute the probability of completing a project on a specific day.PMP®
Exam Prep1790014
A In this situation there are four things that could be done but the question is asking for the BEST thing. It would be
unnecessary for the PM to find out why the other team member was not included (choice D) because the situation says the
meeting was held by the project manager. He would have determined the attendees and would already know why the team
member was not invited. If you have worked with issue logs you know that their description is often updated and that a need to
update a description (choice C) should not be considered to be a problem. The real problem here is that a seemingly significan
letter cannot be found. In a contract situation every letter e-mail and even telephone conversation logs are indexed and archi
for future use. Therefore choice B should not be necessary. The greater issue is that the records management system might n
be functioning to the needs of the project. It might not be of the quality needed for the project. This makes choice A the best
choice.PMP® Exam Prep393001 10
C Since they are already involved in a buyer-conducted performance review (did you realize that?) choice D is not the bes
choice. The issues discussed here do not come with a huge negative impact to the project nor do they violate the contract so
choice B is too extreme an action. Though records of events and a record of the meeting should be maintained a records
management system is a set of processes to be followed related to collecting records not the actual work of collecting the reco
so choice A is unnecessary. The best output of the meting would be to correct problems and that is choice C.PMP® Exam
Prep39300110
B Activities A B C G H J K are activities on the critical path and their duration is 44.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
A The actions being discussed are part of the schedule management plan.PMP® Exam Prep1450014
B PERT uses a weighted average to compute activity durations.PMP® Exam Prep1560014
B Schedule compression means shortening the duration of the project.PMP® Exam Prep172 - 1730014
A This question is really saying Which of the following do you not need before you develop your final schedule? A schedu
baseline is an output of schedule development.PMBOK® Guide1250014
D Choice D is an output of schedule development.PMBOK® Guide1250014
A Crashing leads to a shorter schedule not a longer one (choice B). Doing more activities in parallel (choice C) relates to f
tracking. Though crashing tries to minimize cost impact it can result in increased cost. However this does not mean there will b
added schedule risk (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep1730014
A Fast tracking means making more activities happen at the same time. Therefore the result is a decrease in project
duration.PMP® Exam Prep1730014
B Have you ever seen this term before? Lets assume you have not and are trying to guess the answer. Choice A deals wi
completion rather than resources. If you were performing resource allocation why would you be delaying it (choice C)? Wouldn
choice D mean resource allocation? Therefore it is not likely to be reverse resource allocation. The correct answer is choice
B.PMBOK® Guide1471014
C Assuming the project manager is meeting the project objectives and constraints sponsor approval of a detailed schedule
(choice A) is not as critical as that of functional managers. The customer (choice D) does not need to approve the detailed proj
schedule just the end date and any milestones they might impose. The team (choice B) would at least have provided their
estimates. Getting functional managers to approve will also indirectly get team members approval. Remember that the book PM
Exam Prep says to assume a matrix organization. If functional managers knew what each of their people were doing the
timeframe and when they were on the critical path resource problems would not be as frequent. Approval of the schedule by
functional managers provides the most benefits.PMP® Exam Prep1561014
A It is an activity-on-arrow diagram because the time estimates are on the arrow. Did you jump ahead and start to draw a
network diagram to answer this question? Why? Be careful to not anticipate the question on the actual exam. You will not have
time to waste.PMP® Exam Prep1480014
D This recent historical data (part of organizational process assets) provides the most unbiased and least subjective basis
the development of the initial project schedule.PMBOK® Guide1430014
C Choice A is the same thing as create a network diagram. Choice B is done during the monitoring and controlling process
group not during project planning. Since a schedule is an input to risk management choice D comes after choice C and so it is
the next thing to do. The only remaining choice is C.PMP® Exam Prep1540014
A The work described is part of schedule development. Corrective actions (choice B) occur later during schedule control.
Activity duration estimates (choice C) and creation of a milestone list (choice D) are done earlier. Only choice A is an output of
schedule development.PMP® Exam Prep1721014
D The question is really asking What is done after activity duration estimating? Choices A and B are done before activity
duration estimating. Duration compression (choice D) occurs before finalizing the schedule (choice C) and is therefore the best
answer.PMP® Exam Prep1720014
D Did you get tricked into looking at the length of each activity to calculate project length? The start is the beginning of Jul
and the end is the end of the year making the maximum duration six months.PMP® Exam Prep1591014
C Leveling resources (choice B) generally extends the schedule. Monte Carlo analysis (choice D) does not directly addres
the constraints of this situation. To compress the schedule you could either crash or fast track. However the situation says that
network diagram cannot change. This eliminates the fast tracking option (choice A) leaving choice C as the best answer.PMP®
Exam Prep1730014
D Getting the maximum duration compression for the least cost is defined as crashing. PMP® Exam Prep1730014
C Float is the time an activity may be delayed from its early start without delaying the project finish date. Choice A is a cor
statement but not a schedule development technique. Choice B refers to a network diagramming technique not a schedule
development technique. Building in buffer time to the project (choice D) would not be cost effective.PMP® Exam Prep1590014
D Notice how this question is similar to others in this program? This is intended to prepare you for similar questions on th
exam. Choices B and C should have already been completed. The situation described is within the schedule development proc
of time management. Choice A is the next time process after schedule development but schedule development is not finished.
Final approval (choice D) of the schedule by the stakeholders is needed before one has a project schedule.PMP® Exam
Prep1560014
B Resource leveling usually extends (vs. shortens choice A) the project. It does not necessarily require gaining outside
resources (choice C) or add cost (choice D). It does constrain the project to only using the available resources.PMP® Exam
Prep1790014
D The critical path does not change if the scope is the same. A more aggressive deadline simply means the project is two
weeks behind.PMP® Exam Prep1590014
C Fast tracking (choice B) would affect time and cost. Monte Carlo and life cycle costs (choices A and D) do not directly d
with resources. Leveling (choice C) is the only one that will definitely affect resources.PMP® Exam Prep1790014
CThe three paths you have in this question are Start 1 2 3 End Start 1 2 5 and Start 1 4 5 End. Start 1 2 3 End would take 4 + 8
5 days or 17 days to complete. Start 1 2 5 End would take 4 + 8 + 3 days or 15 days to complete. Start 1 4 5 End would take 4
+3 days or 15 days to complete. Carefully draw the network diagram list all the possible paths and then determine how much ti
each path would take.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
B All of these choices could be said to be correct. Which is the MOST correct? Activities on the critical path require more o
the project managers attention because delays in these activities will create a delay in the entire project. Since delay has the
largest potential to hurt the project choice B is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep1591014
A The standard deviation is computed by (P - O)/6. Therefore (18 - 12)/6 = (6)/6 = 1.PMP® Exam Prep1560014
C Using the early start and finish the activity would begin at the start of day 3 and end at the end of day 9. It would take al
days 3 4 5 6 7 8 and 9; or seven days duration.PMP® Exam Prep1600014
B The PERT calculation is (P + 4M + O)/6. So this result would be be [9 + (4 x 8) + 1]/6 = (9 + 32 + 1)/6 = 42/6 = 7. You ha
to memorize the formula.PMP® Exam Prep1560014
A The calculation for float is late start minus early start (LS - ES) or late finish minus early finish (LF - EF). Float for this
activity would be 13 - 3 = 10 or 19 - 9 = 10.PMP® Exam Prep1600014
B In the project management process the project budget (choice A) project management plan (choice C) and detailed risk
assessment (choice D) come after the schedule. The only answer that could be an input is the WBS.PMP® Exam Prep390011
A Notice how many choices are half right? Monte Carlo could help you know that an estimate for an activity needs to chan
but not what the activity estimate should be (choice B). Monte Carlo is a simulation (choice C) but it simulates time not order o
activities. Monte Carlo can be used to prove things to management (choice D) but its main focus deals with time not staff. Risk
can be assessed using Monte Carlo analysis (choice A). By considering the inputs to the PERT estimates and the network
diagram you can obtain a better overview of the overall project risk.PMP® Exam Prep1790019
D This question tests whether you know how to solve problems especially if you are one of those project managers who h
not realized that an unrealistic schedule is something you should deal with before beginning work. Since cutting product scope
affects the customer choice A has a great negative effect and is therefore not best. A project managers job is to determine opti
for meeting any end date or time therefore choice B cannot be correct. Working overtime (choice C) is expensive and
unnecessary when there are so many other choices that could be selected first. Choice D could have the least negative effect o
the project.PMP® Exam Prep1720014
B Though having three critical paths COULD require more people (choice C) or cost more (choice D) the answer that is
definitely and always true is B. Because you need to manage three critical paths there is more risk that something could happe
delay the project.PMP® Exam Prep1630014
B Though lessons learned (choice A) are extremely valuable you can create a schedule without them. Scope verification
(choice C) and schedule control (choice D) occur later. Without the network diagram you cannot build a schedule.PMP® Exam
Prep1540014
B Project management software is not designed to do a good job of creating a WBS. It cannot create a complete project
management plan with all its sub-plans nor can it manage a complete project. It is designed to create and control
schedules.PMP® Exam Prep1430014
A Past history is being used to calculate an estimate. Monte Carlo (choice D) relates to what-if analysis. Choice B uses th
time estimates per activity. One could use past projects to come up with the estimate (choice C) but the best answer is choice A
because an estimate such as hours per installation is a chief characteristic of parametric estimates.PMP® Exam Prep1530014
D This question does not specify what type of float. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without
impacting the end date of the project. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without impacting the early sta
of the next activity. The only choice matching either of these definitions is choice D.PMP® Exam Prep1590014
D The activity described has float because there is a difference between the early start and late start. An activity that has
float is probably not on the critical path. There is no information presented about lag (choice B) or progress (choice C) so choic
is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep1590014
A You may or may not need your customers (choice B) or your bosss (choice C) input but you will definitely need to includ
an analysis of risk. Choice A is broader than choice D and therefore is better.PMP® Exam Prep1730014
B Time estimates for the activities should be created by the team and should not be added. Some activities may take plac
concurrently. Therefore choice B must be the correct answer.PMP® Exam Prep1471014
B The bar chart (choice C) may show an end date but it is not used to determine dates and show progress. The project
charter (choice D) may include any required end dates but not a logical determination of how long the project will take. The
network diagram (choice B) takes the work packages from the work breakdown structure (choice A) and adds dependencies. T
dependencies allow us to look at the various paths through the diagram. The longest duration path is the critical path. Choice B
the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep1470014
D Baselines are created during project planning and are used to measure project performance.PMP® Exam Prep1810014
Start C D E B End is the longest path.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700114
D Without external date constraints an activity on the critical path has no float.PMP® Exam Prep1590014
A LS - ES = 16 - 14 = 2 or you could use LF - EF = 18 - 16 = 2. Using either formula will give you the correct answer.PMP
Exam Prep1600014
C Notice that this question forces you to draw a network diagram find the critical path and then determine the effect a chan
will have on the project. Expect many such questions because many project managers do not use network diagrams understan
float or manage the critical path. Exam question writers know this is a prevalent error. The answer to this question? The duratio
of the critical path changes to be 21. The critical path is now Start?C?D?E?F?End.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
D Activities on the critical path almost always have no float.PMP® Exam Prep1590014
D You would want to fast track activities on the critical path in order to save time. Your choices would be activities D G or
I.PMP® Exam Prep1730014
A The critical path is Start B F G End.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
C The longest path is Start-E E-End.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
B An activity of 40 when all others are far shorter would imply that the activity might be too large to properly manage
estimate and control.PMP® Exam Prep1520014
D Choice D is the better choice as it is not on the critical path.PMP® Exam Prep1591014
B CBIf you got this question wrong you might be having trouble reading the questions. Crashing activity AB (included in
choice A) would be the least expensive option. However the wording of the question excluded it from being allowable due to th
constraint of doing it in the agreed-upon way. By crashing either activity FD (choice B) or activity BC (choice D you would spen
$20 000. However with activity BC you would save five months rather than the four requested. Choice B is the best
answer.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1701014
A The new activity is added to the critical path making it easy to compute the new duration. The critical path is
Start?A?B?C?G?H?J?K which equals 44. Adding 5 makes it 49.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1701014
B Choices B and D are close but B is the better choice. Because this is an issue that goes across the organization it is up t
the sponsor to make the decision and up to the project manager to provide the information for the decision to be made. This is
example of evaluating before making a decision.PMP® Exam Prep2011015
D For activity E before the change (using the zero method) the ES is 7 and the LS is 11. After the change the ES is 7 and
LS is 9. The change will use two of the four months of float for activity E but will not affect the critical path. Choice D is the bette
of A and D. Choice A is just looking at the fact of E being on the critical path before the change. Choice D looks at both before
after adjustments have been made and that E still has float and thus still not on the critical path.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 170101
B Did the distracters in this question trick you? You are adding a dummy so choices A and D are incorrect. In this case the
would be no effect on the critical path with this change but that is not what the question asked. It asked for the effect on the
PROJECT. More interdependencies on a project increase the need for communication.PMP® Exam Prep1481014
A Crashing is a cost/schedule trade-off. Since the project manager is not worried about her budget but is worried about tim
crashing is the most logical solution. Fast tracking (choice B) involves increased risk and so is not appropriate in this case.PMP
Exam Prep1730014
C There are now two critical paths making the project more risky.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
D Choice A cannot be correct because activity F still needs to be done. Choice B is definitely not correct because there is o
one critical path. Choice C cannot be correct because activity A will actually lose float with a change to activity B. This leaves o
choice D. In this exercise the critical path had been Start C D E B End for a total of 18. If B gets finished in 3 instead of 5 then t
length of that path is now 16. Start C D E F End is also 16. Therefore with the change to activity B the path would be completed
16 instead of 18.PMP® Exam Prep106 - 1180014
C You would pick the activity with the most float activity H.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
B You would pick the activity with the most float so that the inexperienced team member would not delay the project as he
learning. Of the choices given activity E has the most float.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
BConcurrent relates fo fast tracking. Since activity G is the only one of these on the critical path completing the two in parallel w
have no effect on the critical path.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700004
D Delaying an activity on the critical path will delay the whole project.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
C This change increases the length of that path to 30 months but it does not change the critical path that is Start-E E-
End.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
D It is important to find the least expensive option. To save four weeks you would choose activities A and C.PMP® Exam
Prep158 - 1700014
B Activities A and C are the least expensive and it would cost an additional U.S. $6000 to crash them.PMP® Exam
Prep1730014
D Activities AB and CFActivities AB and GHActivity BCCSimply pick the option with the lowest cost.PMP® Exam
Prep1730014
A Choice A is the least expensive choice of the critical path activities. Activity BC (choice D) is not on the critical path. Sinc
has float crashing it would not shorten the project.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
C The duration of the critical path is 117 months less the five months saved resulting in a new duration of 112 months.
NOTE: You did not need to refer to the table. Dont do more work than you need to.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
C Since the resource is 50 percent as productive he will take twice as long to do the same work. This makes the duration o
activity G 16 instead of eight and increases the critical path by eight to a total of 52.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
A A payback period is the amount of time it takes to recoup the investment in a project.PMP® Exam Prep2150015
A Benchmarks are the results of past projects of this type. They provide a means to compare your project to past
history.PMP® Exam Prep2430014
BThe first issue here is whether the team member has done something that will have a negative impact on the project as a who
The second issue is whether the communications management plan and WBS are appropriate. Therefore choice B would be fir
followed by A C or D.PMP® Exam Prep1030012
A The evaluation of the impact of the project being late on other aspects of the company (choice B) is not the project
managers job. Working faster (choice C) may not be possible and will impact other projects and other work. Redistributing the
schedule (choice D) does not solve the problem it just improves communication of the problem. Look again at the words in cho
A. Taking such action may not be the best way to handle the problem but it is the best choice of those presented.PMP® Exam
Prep1721014
B You dont want to jump the gun and say that you are unable to meet the date (choice D) until after you have evaluated b
crashing and fast tracking the project. Here the answer is to fast track or do more activities in parallel (choice B).PMP® Exam
Prep1730014
C You do not necessarily need to change the schedule unless of course the delay is more than the activitys float.PMP® Ex
Prep1591014
B Adjusting the project schedule work calendar will provide the most reasonable and fastest estimate of the potential futur
weather related schedule impact allowing the project manager to perform a reasonable risk analysis of the potential
problem.PMP® Exam Prep1821014
B You do not know if you have a problem until you reexamine the detailed schedule including the new information and see
whether or not the original schedule can still be met. This work is done during schedule development.PMP® Exam Prep173001
B Crashing often results in increased cost and fast tracking usually increases risk. However both are methods of duration
compression.PMBOK® Guide751014
A A schedule change control system can include the paper systems and approvals for authorizing changes. The project
manager is normally not the approval authority (choice B) nor are all changes approved (choice C). Impact analysis (choice D)
should be done before approval.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
A Did you get lost looking at all the numbers presented in this question? Notice that there are no calculations required sim
an understanding of what the problem is. Many project managers try to solve problems that are not within their area of control.
This question describes schedule management which is a responsibility of the project manager.PMP® Exam Prep1430114
A Corrective action is anything done to bring expected future schedule performance in line with the project management p
Such action should always be an output but the other choices may not.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
B Did the use of the word resources in the question cause you to select choice A? If so you were tricked! The situation
described is best thought of as what-if analysis.PMP® Exam Prep1790014
B Simulations can be used to assess the feasibility of meeting scheduled dates under adverse conditions. Choice B would
you know there is a problem before doing any of the other choices.PMP® Exam Prep1790014
A Earned value minus planned value equals schedule variance.PMP® Exam Prep2070014
B Cutting resources from an activity (choice A) would not save time nor would moving resources in the way described (cho
C). Removing an activity from the project (choice D) is a possibility but since the dependencies are preferential and the risk is lo
the best choice would be to make more activities concurrent (choice B) as this would have less impact on the project.PMP Exa
Prep1730014
C If EV is lower than PV it indicates less work is occurring than was scheduled resulting in schedule slippage.PMP® Exam
Prep2070014
A If there is available budget crashing the schedule is the best option. Overtime is not the first option when it is possible to
use project management and crashing techniques.PMP® Exam Prep1730014
B When the project is completed early the project manager should report that the project came in ahead of time and expla
WHY. This is a success! If there was proper project planning this should occur because an expected risk did not materialize.
Choice D is unethical.PMP® Exam Prep4131014
AA change control system created in the planning process group must look across the project and not focus on just one area. I
must include procedures for controlling each area. Choice A is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep970012
C A milestone shows the completion of a series of activities or work packages. Therefore it takes no time of its own. With th
in mind choice C is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep1490014
C Project planning (choice A) would use both types of charts. Team members (choice B) need to see details and so they
need a bar chart rather than a milestone chart. Risk analysis (choice D) COULD make use of both charts. A milestone chart is
used instead of a bar chart for any situation where you want to report in a less detailed way (choice C). Bar charts can scare
people with their complexity and often show too much detail to be worthwhile on a management level. Milestone charts are mo
effective for reporting to management.PMP® Exam Prep1800014
C First you need to meet with the team to determine the impact on the project and evaluate alternative solutions. Once you
come up with recommendations you can present them to management and the customer.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
B The bar chart is the tool that shows the schedule at a detailed enough level for discussion with the team.PMP® Exam
Prep1800018
BIt is the project managers responsibility to manage the project scope completion within budget and reserves.PMP® Exam
Prep1000012
A Because you are no longer within your budgeted time and cost you must obtain change control board approval to affect
change.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
D If the activity is on critical path you must treat it differently than an activity that is not on the critical path. First evaluat
(choice D) then possibly do choice A and choice C.PMP® Exam Prep1580014
D Because you are no longer within your budgeted time and cost you must obtain change control board approval to affect
B The problem must be evaluated first. We know the schedule variance but not the cost variance. Therefore choice B is fir
possibly followed by choice C.PMP® Exam Prep2071015
A You need to communicate issues with the stakeholders. This includes all the others answers.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
D The bar chart (or Gantt chart) is designed to show a relationship to time. This is best used when demonstrating progres
status as a factor of time.PMP® Exam Prep1800014
B Network diagrams do an excellent job of showing activity dependencies. Although most software shows dependencies o
bar charts they are difficult to read and therefore not of as much value as network diagrams.PMP® Exam Prep1500014
C The best alternative would be fast tracking or doing activities in parallel. This provides focus on the critical path. Meeting
with management to review scope would be of no help since this has already occurred.PMP® Exam Prep1731014
C Resource leveling refers to keeping the number of resources the same and letting time and cost be flexible.PMP® Exam
Prep1790014
A There are only two choices related to scheduling: A and C. Choice C however is a diagramming technique that deals wit
the relationship between activities not schedule flexibility.PMP® Exam Prep1580014
C Standard deviation is a range that an estimate can vary +/- from the mean. The project needs to be done in 40 days and
the schedule calls for 38 days so the project float is 2 days. With a standard deviation of two days the project will take 38 +/- 2
days or 36 to 40 days. Therefore project float could be 0 to 4 days.PMP® Exam Prep1561014
B The impact has already been determined so choice A is not correct. Crashing or fast tracking (choice C) would have
already been done to determine the impact. Changing the project management plan (choice D) only hides the problem and is
unethical.PMP® Exam Prep1031012
D Rebaselining (choice A) hides performance problems rather than managing issues as they occur. Choice C may need to
be done but it is not proactive. Choice B is not a bad choice but it cannot be done without knowing why there was a delay. Imag
that a resources skills are not what you have been led to believe and that resource is working on another activity later in the
project. If you crash or fast track activities involving that resource the problem could recur. Identifying the root causes of the de
(choice D) will help determine what to do about them.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
C Schedule definition (choice A) involves creating the schedule not comparing. Leveling (choice B) deals with resources an
three-point estimating (choice D) is a method of estimating. Choice C best fits the description given.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
D Detailed estimates (choice A) have nothing to do with the situation described. Project management plans (choice B) will
have more detail than is necessary for the situation described and may distract from the conversation if used in this situation. B
charts (choice C) are usually only for the team. The best answer is choice D because milestone reports present the right level o
detail for upper management.PMP® Exam Prep1800014
B SPI = EV/PV. In this case SPI = 24==c==000/30==c==000 or 0.8. An SPI of 0.8 indicates that you are behind
schedule.PMP® Exam Prep2070014
C There is no reason to think the project is going well or poorly based solely on float.PMP® Exam Prep158 – 1700014
A Choice D is not correct. Reread it. The risk of completion has not changed. The project will still be completed just later th
planned.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
C Activity C is not on the critical path and the change is not great enough to change the critical path.PMP® Exam Prep158
1700014
B This question is really asking what you use a network diagram for. The primary purpose of a network diagram is to show
logical relationships.PMP® Exam Prep1500014
A Crashing (choice B) changes the resources on the project. Knowing where the project has float (choice C) and what the
mandatory dependencies are (choice D) helps determine where to move resources and thus decrease schedule. Value analysi
relates to cost.PMP® Exam Prep2010014
D Value analysis is a way of making sure that the least expensive way is found to do the work.PMP® Exam Prep2010015
A The higher the benefit cost ratio the better.PMP® Exam Prep2160015
C This formula measures benefits to costs not just profit. Payback is equated to benefits here.PMP® Exam Prep2160015
D The law of diminishing returns has nothing to do with choosing between projects. Notice that this question requires you to
understand that projects should be systematically selected and that the selection should be based on some formal evaluation o
all projects available. Many project managers have little experience or knowledge of the activities such as this that go on during
project initiation. Though there are not many questions on the exam on project initiation a little study can help you get many of
these questions right even if you are not currently involved in initiating projects in your company.PMP® Exam Prep2160015
D Choices A and B are types of costs and do not relate to giving up another. Choice C is a way to determine todays valu
a future cash flow and does not deal with the quoted phrase. The definition of opportunity cost includes the cost of choosing on
project and giving up another and thus it is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep2160015
B The opportunity cost is the value of the project that was not selected; the lost opportunity.PMP® Exam Prep2160015
C Remember the internal rate of return is similar to the interest rate you get from the bank. The higher the rate is the bette
the return.PMP® Exam Prep2150015
D The concept is how long will it take to get back your initial investment from this project. The faster you get your money b
the faster you can reinvest that money in another endeavor. The shorter the time the better or choice D.PMP® Exam
Prep2140015
A The number of years is already included in the calculation of NPV. You simply pick the project with the highest NPV.PM
Exam Prep2140015
A Sunk costs (choice B) are expended costs. Value analysis (choice C) involves finding a less costly way to do the same
scope of work. A direct cost (choice D) is directly attributable to an activity.PMP® Exam Prep2160015
A There are no calculations required. It is simply the value of the project(s) you did not select.PMP® Exam Prep2160015
B You should pick the higher number.PMP® Exam Prep2140115
A Pick the lower number.PMP® Exam Prep2140015
A The only estimate that is usually made in the initiating process group is the rough order of magnitude estimate. This
estimate is accurate to -50 percent to +100 percent.PMP® Exam Prep2040015
B Because net present value is the value in todays dollars of different cash flows the project with the highest NPV is the b
one. The number of years is included in the NPV calculation.PMP® Exam Prep2140015
B We convert a future cash flow into a value today. This allows us to DIRECTLY compare two future cash flows.PMP® Ex
Prep2140015
D Remember project length is incorporated when computing NPV. You would choose the project that provides the most va
in this case the project with the highest NPV.PMP® Exam Prep2140015
C After 20 days the lease cost will be $150 x 20 = $3 000. To buy the cost will be $2 000 + $50 x 20 = $3 000.PMP® Exam
Prep37110110
A This is another question asking about the process of project management.PMBOK® Guide1250015
B A project decreasing in priority would be a cause for lack of support but choice A says increased. You could argu
that the functional manager did not have a good schedule (choice C) but her excuses do not relate to time or schedule issues.
WBS (choice D) does not include resources. The project charter officially authorizes the project. If it existed the project would c
more weight and have support from senior managers. Functional managers should approve project management plans involvin
their staff. For these reasons choice B is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep2701017
D Since there is no one individual assigned the better estimate can be obtained using the imput of multiple experts. The
Delphi Technique gains a consensus of expert opinions. In this case it would be better than using an average (choice B) which
what many people choose.PMP® Exam Prep3350019
B This question tests your knowledge of project management terms. Resource selection (choice A) sounds like a good
choice based on the wording of the question however it is a made-up term. Many people are surprised to learn that there are
made-up terms on the exam. These are easy to spot if you have had good basic training in project management before you tak
the exam. The trick here is to remember If you have had good project management training and you see a word on the exam t
you have never seen before chances are it is not the correct answer. PMP® Exam Prep1500014
C You need to realize that the activity described is human resource planning. Project organizational charts are an output
an input to that activity. Choices A and B could be considered inputs to almost every activity.PMP® Exam Prep2751015
B The project schedule remains preliminary until resource assignments are confirmed.PMP® Exam Prep2700017
C Worried about the word outputs? Use logic here. What will you have when you are finished with human resource
planning? Do not confuse human resource planning with the time management process of activity resource estimating which is
represented in choice C. Keep in mind that the staffing management plan is created as part of human resource planning and
updated as part of acquire project team.PMBOK® Guide2030015
D Procedures for the rental and purchase of supplies and equipment are found in the organizational policies.PMP® Exam
Prep1990015
B Here is a trick. Ask yourself in what part of the project management process is the situation occurring. These are
monitoring and controlling activities. Now you can eliminate choices. Human resource planning (choice C) occurs during the
planning process group. Acquire project team (choice D) occurs during the executing process group. This leaves only choices A
and B. Managing conflicts does not sound like performance reporting so choice B is the only remaining choice.PMP® Exam
Prep2811017
A Choice B is resource leveling choice C is activity resource estimating and choice D is part of a WBS dictionary.PMP®
Exam Prep2860017
B A cost baseline must include a contingency reserve for risks. It does not include a management reserve (choice C).
Choices A and D should have been completed earlier.PMP® Exam Prep2041015
C Remember that analogous estimates are top-down high-level estimates. Therefore choices A and B cannot be correct.
The project manager needs more than an analogous estimate to determine whether or not the project will meet the schedule
(choice D). It is a benefit to know managements expectations of how much the project will cost so that any differences between
the analogous estimate and the detailed bottom-up estimate can be reconciled in the planning processes. The best choice is
C.PMP® Exam Prep1530014
C Analogous estimating is used most frequently during the planning processes not the executing processes (choice B). Yo
do not need to use historical costs (choice D) for an analogous estimate. Therefore choice C is the correct answer.PMP® Exam
Prep2030015
C PMAParametric estimates use a mathematical model to predict project cost or time.PMP® Exam Prep1530015
B The overall project budget (choice A) may be included in the project charter but not the detailed costs. Even small proje
(choice C) should have a budget and schedule. It is not impossible to create a project budget before the project management p
is created (choice D). It is just not wise as the budget will not be accurate.PMP® Exam Prep2041015
A Accuracy is always important but since the preliminary project scope statement has just been received the project has n
yet been planned. Therefore although some of the choices are not blatantly wrong it is best to estimate in a range.PMP® Exam
Prep2030015
C Choice A could be done but historical information is not enough. Choices B and D are not correct because you are still in
project initiating. You have not yet identified activities nor do you have a schedule model. It is best to provide estimates based o
an understanding of this project so the best answer is choice C.PMP® Exam Prep2041015
B You use the PERT calculation (P + 4M + O)/6) to compute a weighted average of the totals which in this case equals U.
$273333. This number represents the mean (or 50 percent point). Therefore the probability of the project coming in at U.S.
$273333 is 50 percent. The probability of U.S. $270000 (since it is less than the mean) is less than 50 percent.PMP® Exam
Prep1560015
D Choice A is an inappropriate action. Choice B is an incorrect statement. Choice C describes management reserves. Dur
the risk management process you determine appropriate cost contingency reserves for risk events. The sum of these reserves
should be added to the total project estimate to cover the cost of risk events happening.PMP® Exam Prep2041015
B Parametric estimating does not make use of estimates from the team.PMP® Exam Prep1530014
D The exam will ask you what the tools of project management contain in order to test whether you really understand them
This question is almost impossible to guess correctly.PMP® Exam Prep2000015
B This question is asking When you finish estimating costs what do you have? Many people who do not realize that
estimates should be in a range pick choice C. Choice B is more correctly part of the cost management plan and the change
control system.PMBOK® Guide1621015
A This is a tricky question. In order to pick the best answer you need to realize that analogous estimating is a form of expe
judgment. Notice choice C \ determine why\ sounds like a good idea but look at the rest of the sentence. Analogous estimates
not accurate. Reading every word of this choice helps eliminate it.PMP® Exam Prep2030015
D Project performance reviews occur in cost control not cost budgeting.PMBOK® Guide1670015
A Choice B generally comes from the sponsors work. Choice C is a rationale for the project manager NOT to prepare the
estimate. Choice D is an incorrect statement.PMP® Exam Prep2040005
A Since team members should create the activity cost estimates whenever possible choices B and D cannot be correct.
Choice C makes no sense.PMP® Exam Prep1990015
D Funding limit reconciliation most likely will affect the project schedule since work will need to be moved to when funds w
be available.PMP® Exam Prep2050015
B Choices A and C occur during cost budgeting. Choice D occurs as part of cost control.PMP® Exam Prep2020015
A Because one needs project details to estimate this way the effort expended will be greater with bottom-up
estimating.PMP® Exam Prep2020015
C Choice A is too general. The estimates are already created in this example so the answer is not B. The answer is not D
cost control because the baseline has not been created. The correct answer is choice C.PMP® Exam Prep2040015
A Although all choices could cause difficulty only choice A makes estimating impossible.PMP® Exam Prep1971015
C We need to know that double declining balance is a form of depreciation. That eliminates choice D. We also know that
double declining balance is a form of accelerated depreciation eliminating choices A and B. Therefore C is the correct
response.PMP® Exam Prep2170015
C To find the answer look for things that would cause a poor estimate. A project management plan (choices A and D) com
after the creation of estimates. Risk assessment (choices B and D) normally occur after estimating.PMP® Exam Prep1990015
D Life cycle costing looks at operations and maintenance costs and balances them with the project costs to try to reduce t
cost across its entire life.PMP® Exam Prep2000015
C A fixed cost is a non-recurring cost that will not change as the project progresses. Note the additional information unrela
to the question. It was added as a distracter.PMP® Exam Prep2010015
D The only problem in the data provided is the cost. Therefore choice D is the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep2070015
A Bottom-up refers to estimating based on the details of the activities.PMP® Exam Prep2020015
B The order of magnitude estimate has this range and is done during the initiating process group.PMP® Exam Prep20400
D A great deal of work is needed to fine tune a project so that you can get a definitive estimate. PMP® Exam Prep2040015
D Fringe benefits are included in overhead and are part of indirect costs.PMP® Exam Prep2010015
A Straight line depreciation uses the same amount each time period.PMP® Exam Prep2170015
D This estimate has a wide range. It is done during project initiating when very little is known about the project.PMP® Exa
Prep2040015
BThis question is designed to determine whether you understand that estimates should be in a range and what are the standar
ranges.PMP® Exam Prep2040005
D A risk analysis (choice A) may help but not as much as a resource-limited schedule (choice D). A responsibility
assignment matrix (choice B) shows who is responsible for what as does a responsibility chart (choice C). They will not help yo
manage the project with limited resources. Only D will help meet the defined need.PMP® Exam Prep1791017
D The only incorrect choice is choice D as it is part of cost estimating.PMBOK® Guide1670015
C This question gives examples of things outside of a project managers control. It is the role of the sponsor to define the
initial project and protect it from changes.PMP® Exam Prep851012
A The larger the BCR SPI and CPI the better. A project with high priority normally holds more senior commitment.PMP®
Exam Prep2071015
B Sunk costs (choice B) are expended costs. The rule is that they should not be considered when deciding whether to
continue with a troubled project.PMP® Exam Prep2160015
A The lowest benefit cost ratio should be selected for termination.PMP® Exam Prep2150015
A A project without a charter is a project without support. The information provided for the other projects does not justify
selecting them. Even the number of resources is not relevant since the number of resources for the new project is not
supplied.PMP® Exam Prep890012
B Choices A and C do not solve the underlying problem. Choice D is unethical. Choice B includes looking at the problem a
anticipating similar future problems.PMP® Exam Prep2000012
C If the costs are more than expected under a fixed price contract the seller must pay those costs. Cost risk refers to the
person who will have to pay for the added cost if costs escalate. Because the price is fixed the seller will have to pay any
increased costs out of their profit. Naturally this does not include increased PRICE due to change orders. A fixed price contract
and the PRICE could be changed with change orders.PMP® Exam Prep3760015
C A cost baseline is an output of cost budgeting.PMP® Exam Prep2040015
C The staffing management plan describes when resources will be brought onto and taken off the project.PMP® Exam
Prep2760017
C Negative float indicates you are behind. Although choice B is technically correct it is not the best answer because it
essentially means Do nothing and ask for more time. Fast tracking an already risky project (choice D) only puts the project in
worse shape.PMP® Exam Prep2591014
A Dont be confused by the early discussion of schedule compression. The question is asking whether adding resources
provides a constant increase in work effort. The law of diminishing returns says that for each additional resource you will NOT
realize the same increase in benefit that you realized from the previous resource.PMP® Exam Prep2160014
C Earned value questions ask for a calculation or an interpretation of the results. See the tricks under this topic in the boo
PMP Exam Prep.PMP® Exam Prep2070014
B With normal distribution the mean indicates you have a 50 perent chance of being over or under your estimate. Since yo
have only a 15 percent chance of being over you are above (or to the right of) the mean.PMP® Exam Prep1970015
A Look for the choice which would have the least negative impact in this situation. You would not need to meet with the
sponsor to do choice B. Choices C and D always have negative effects. The choice with the least negative impact is choice
A.PMP® Exam Prep2061015
D To answer this question you must look for a choice that would take longer and cost more. If you picked choice A reread
It says scope was changed not necessarily added to. If the change was to reduce the scope it might also have reduced cost.
Though it would take time to handle the event described in choice B the impacted activity might not be on the critical path and t
might not affect time. Choice C would definitely add cost but not necessarily time. Only choice D would negatively affect both ti
and cost.PMP® Exam Prep2070015
A Variable costs (choice A) change with the amount produced so choice A is the correct answer. Fixed costs (choice B) d
not vary with the amount produced. Direct costs (choice C) could be either fixed or variable and thus would not be the best
answer. Sunk costs (choice D) is money already spent.PMP® Exam Prep2010015
B Setup costs do not change as production on the project changes. Therefore they are fixed costs.PMP® Exam
Prep2010015
D Ask yourself in what part of the process correction action is done. If you have played Ritas Process Game in the book P
Exam Prep you know it is monitoring and controlling process group. Now determine which choice is also done during control an
you will select choice D.PMBOK® Guide1710015
D Vendor bid analysis (choice A) and analogous estimating (choice B) are tools for cost estimating. Earned value
management (choice C) is a part of performance measurement analysis in cost control. By the process of elimination activity
resource estimating is the correct response. It is part of time management.PMP® Exam Prep1500015
D Recommending corrective actions (choice B) and possible updates to the cost baseline (choice C) result from the activit
described they are not concurrent with it. Monitoring costs are part of change control but not part of creating the change contro
system (choice A).PMBOK® Guide1760015
B The key word here is used. Did you read it as created and select choice A? Choices C and D occur during project
planning rather than project monitoring and controlling as described by the situation.PMP® Exam Prep2060015
A An estimate at completion is an output of forecasting (choice A). It can be used during all of the other choices.PMP® Exa
Prep2060015
D A project manager must always evaluate the situation before making a decision.PMP® Exam Prep2060015
D If you thought the answer was B reread it. It says schedule. There is no way to know if the schedule was bad.PMP® Ex
Prep2160015
A This is a simplified way to track activity completion and therefore earned value rather than asking for percent
complete.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
D The payback period is how long it will take the company to recoup the investment in the project.PMP® Exam Prep21500
D The CPI is less than one so the situation is bad. Choice D is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep2070015
C Based on current information what will be the total cost of the project at completion?PMP® Exam Prep2060015
A This question focuses on how to control costs not estimating. Choice B deals with scope choices C and D deal with
estimating only.PMP® Exam Prep2060015
AIf you thought choice B would be the first choice think of how much time it would take to review a purchase order with a new
seller. Choice D deals with time not cost. Since the seller had the right to increase price this risk should have been identified an
reserve created.PMP® Exam Prep2420009
A You are training the team on skills required for the project. The cost is directly related to the project and thus a direct
cost.PMP® Exam Prep2010015
D This question is asking for the formula for EAC which is BAC/CPI. Notice how you will have to remember the formula to
the questions correct.PMP® Exam Prep2070015
B Schedule variance is calculated by EV - PV or $30000 - $29000 = $1000PMP® Exam Prep2070015
D Schedule performance index is computed by EV/PV = 300 000/375000 = 0.8. This means that you are progressing at a
rate of 80 percent of what you planned.PMP® Exam Prep2070015
A A question like this is the reason you need to understand what each term means in common terminology. EV is $3 000 A
is $4000 cost variance is $3 000 - $4 000 = ($1 000).PMP® Exam Prep2070015
D Notice that you need to know the definition of value analysis to answer this question. Also notice that the other choices
could be considered correct by someone who does not know the definition.PMP® Exam Prep2010015
B The life cycle cost will provide the picture of the total cost of the project. It includes project costs and operations and
maintenance costs.PMP® Exam Prep2000015
B The variable and direct costs are most affected by the size and scope of the project. Indirect costs are usually computed
a percentage of direct costs.PMP® Exam Prep2010015
B How can changing the depreciation (choice A) affect the total cost of the project? A benefit cost ratio (choice C) is too
vague to help eliminate specific project costs. Sunk costs (choice D) are expended costs and can never be recovered.PMP®
Exam Prep2010015
D Labor rates (choice A resources used (choice B) and poor communications (choice C) could all have contributed to the
cost overrun. Lag relates to waiting time.PMP® Exam Prep1490015
C Actual costs are used to measure CPI and there is no reason to use SPI in this situation so choices A and B are not
correct. Using past history (choice D) is another way of saying analogous. The best way to estimate is bottom-up (choice C).
Such estimating would have improved the overall quality of the estimate.PMP® Exam Prep2030015
C Choice C describes costs that are directly attributable to the project or that vary with the amount of work
accomplished.PMP® Exam Prep2010015
C In choice C the costs are substantially higher than the benefits. Therefore management should be the most concerned
about this project.PMP® Exam Prep2070005
B To solve: 240D = 6800 + 70D. 170D = 6800. D = 40. See the discussion in the book PMP Exam Prep.PMP® Exam
Prep37100110
A To solve: 150D = 2000 + 50D. 100D = 2000. D = 20. Therefore it is cheaper to lease.PMP® Exam Prep37100110
D CV = EV - ACPMP® Exam Prep2070015
A EV is the value of the work completed. In this case one side is done ($11 x 125 = $1375) 75 feet of the second side is do
($11 x 75 = $825) and the culvert is complete ($500) for a total of $2700. Since the AC is $2700 CV = $0. You are budget
neutral.PMP® Exam Prep2061015
A CPI = EV/AC. In this case CPI = 24000/22000 or 1.09. A CPI of 1.09 indicates that you are under budget.PMP® Exam
Prep2071015
A This question does not say if the information is estimated or actual but it does use the word NEVER. The cost performan
index is determined based on performance. Therefore it would never be determined during project planning. The other choices
could be determined as estimates.PMP Exam Prep2070015
A EV is earned value or the budgeted cost of the work performed. In other words the value of the work completed in terms
what you budgeted (your baseline).PMP® Exam Prep2060015
A Earned value analysis is a great reporting tool. With it you can show where you stand on budget and schedule as well a
provide forecasts for the rest of the project.PMP® Exam Prep2060015
C A work package is considered 50 percent complete when it begins and gets credit for the last 50 percent only when it is
completed. Remember that there is also an 80/20 rule used in quality.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
D This can be a tricky question in that most project managers dismiss the need to focus on quality. Quality cost and sched
should be considered of equal importance unless specific project objectives make any one of them most important. Quality cos
schedule scope risk and other factors may be prioritized differently on each project.PMP® Exam Prep2420016
C Developing specifications should come from a technical expert. The only choice listed that meets that description is
engineering. Not every question on the exam will require that a project manager do the work.PMP® Exam Prep2350016
B Choice A is reactive making it not the best. Choice C cannot be best because it is generally the responsibility of the pers
completing the work package to define the activities needed. Choice D cannot be best because this is not necessarily a change
is a further breakdown of the project work. The project managers role is to make sure all work is needed and that there is no go
plating. This is what choice B says making it the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep1460014
A Planning cannot continue if the team does not know enough about so many work packages making choice C impractica
and choice D ineffective. Choice B might help but the detailed project scope would be included in the project scope statement
created during choice A.PMP® Exam Prep1460014
C The project scope statement is created based on the preliminary project scope statement and input from the sponsor.
Therefore the answer is choice C ask the sponsor.PMP® Exam Prep1460014
C This question is testing your knowledge of important standard terms in project management.PMP® Exam Prep1460014
D This question is testing your understanding of why certain project management activities should be done. Since we are
planning (activity definition is done in planning) it is better to try to meet all objectives not just (choice B) or schedule (choice C)
Choice A is not relevant.PMP® Exam Prep1460014
A The end user is least likely to know the specific activities that must be accomplished to complete the work package.PMP
Exam Prep1460014
D The project schedule is developed after activity definition. Did you remember that the team (choice C) can be involved in
activity definition?PMBOK® Guide1270014
A This question is worded strangely! Get used to it because you will have many instances where it will take you two minute
figure out what the question is asking let alone come up with the best answer.PMBOK® Guide1270016
A The team is addressing potential problems so they must be in quality planning.PMBOK® Guide1920016
D Notice the question says will contribute? The situation is looking forward. The project manager is involved in the desig
of experiments which is included in quality planning.PMP® Exam Prep2411016
A Even though it is occurring during the execution of the project determining what standards to use is part of quality plann
We sometimes need to fall back into planning during other parts of a project. In planning we determine what quality standards a
applicable to the project and how to implement and control them.PMP® Exam Prep2411016
D The key words here are potential problems. They are looking into the future and therefore must be in quality
planning.PMP® Exam Prep2480016
C Choices A and B should have been done during the initiating process group. Choice D is part of the planning process
D Work results (choice D) would occur during quality management not before quality planning.PMBOK® Guide1840016
B A scatter diagram is a quality control tool.PMBOK® Guide1840016
C Inspection (choice C) is an aspect of quality control rather than quality planning.PMBOK® Guide1840016
B Validated deliverables are an output of perform quality control.PMBOK® Guide1820016
A Benchmarking is the common term for a performance measurement standard. Sampling might be a way to obtain this
benchmark.PMP® Exam Prep2430016
A Quality management should be performed regularly and in parallel with other planning processes throughout the
project.PMP® Exam Prep2420016
A Choices B and C are components of a quality management plan. The quality management plan is part of the project
management plan. The best answer is the quality management plan.PMP® Exam Prep2430016
C Design of experiments helps determine the combination of variables that most improves quality.PMP® Exam Prep24300
B Did you get this wrong? If so you proabably misread it. The question is asking for inputs to quality AS A WHOLE. In othe
words What must you have before you can do quality management? Checklists cannot be the correct answer since it is part o
the quality process not an input to it. Make sure you read questions carefully on the exam. Many people get this type of questio
confused with questions that ask Which of the following are inputs to any part of the quality process or Which of the following
are inputs to quality planning. PMBOK® Guide1820016
C The key words here are identifying the quality standards. PMP® Exam Prep2410016
C Choices A and B cannot be the best because there can be a cost impact (or time risk etc ) of exceeding expectations or
adding extras. Since a project should meet requirements choice C is best.PMP® Exam Prep2370016
B You need to know what happens in each part of the quality process. This one is easy - quality planning. On the exam yo
will also need to know what happens in perform quality assurance and perform quality control.PMP® Exam Prep2430016
A Experiments are a method for R==a==D (choice D) but the most correct answer is choice A. Proper design allows you to
find those factors that have the most impact on quality. It allows the project manager to focus attention on the factors that are
most important.PMP® Exam Prep2430016
D Look for the proactive approach. When we plan for quality it improves quality which is less expensive over the long run.
Note: You may spend more initially for increased quality but you will save through reduced rework etc.PMP® Exam Prep23901
B Though each person working on the project should check their own work as part of any project the project manager
ultimately has the responsibility for quality on the project as a whole.PMP® Exam Prep2390016
B Know the term so you will be able to answer questions that deal with this concept. Choices A C and D may sound good
they are made-up terms.PMP® Exam Prep2390016
D Quality cannot be inspected in; you must plan for and execute a quality strategy. Increasing inspection is the only answe
that is not proactive.PMP® Exam Prep2390016
D In quality planning you are defining quality for the project and determining how quality will be measured. Benchmarking
looks at past projects for improvement ideas and sets guidelines from which to measure quality performance.PMP® Exam
Prep2430016
D The team is looking for benchmarks. Benchmarking is done in quality planning.PMP® Exam Prep2430016
B Select sellers (choice B) is part of procurement management. Parametric estimating (choice C) and the Delphi Techniqu
(choice D) can be used in quality management.PMBOK® Guide1820016
D If the project manager was planning (rather than doing) such activities the answer would be B.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
B Perform quality assurance involves determining whether standards are being followed. This would be the least effective
since it does not address the specific problem described in the question.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
C Choice A is not productive since it does not solve the problem. An analogous estimate (choice B) looks at past history o
other projects. This would not be appropriate to determine how the current project is going. The quality management plan (choi
D) does not provide results. Quality assurance (choice C) helps to determine if the project will satisfy the relevant quality
standards.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
A Scope verification is performed during project monitoring and controlling making choice B incorrect. Choice C is also an
untrue statement. Scope verification is provided to the customer not the team makig choice D incorrect.PMP® Exam Prep1340
A Quality audits (choice A) are structured reviews of quality management activities performed to identify lessons learned t
can be applied to this and other projects. Choices B C and D are tools and techniques that apply to quality control rather than
quality assurance.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
D Choices A B and C could be root causes of decreased cost. Choice D would not be done until A B and/or C are
done.PMP® Exam Prep2061015
D A report of quality management activities will provide confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality
standards.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
B The key word here is overall Quality control (choice D) is wrong because we are not addressing the specific work
performance (i.e.: the table is too short). Quality assurance needs to be done to make sure standards and processes were
followed.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
C This question is similar to others in this program but not exactly the same. You may also see this occur on your exam.
Carefully read the questions! Though quality problems (choice A) MAY lead to quality assurance efforts they are not a MUST.
Quality improvement (choice B) is a result of perform quality assurance not an input. Rework (choice D) is an output of perform
quality control. That leaves only quality control measurements (choice C) which are inputs to perform quality assurance.PMP®
Exam Prep2450016
D With a just-in-time environment supplies are delivered when you need them and not before. Therefore you have little or
inventory.PMP® Exam Prep2390016
D Memorize the numbers for 1- 2- 3- and 6 sigma.PMP® Exam Prep2470016
B As you increase quality there will be associated benefits for the project. Some of these benefits are increased productivi
increased cost effectiveness decreased cost risk and improved morale.PMP® Exam Prep2400016
A This is an example of gold plating. You should provide ONLY what the customer asked for. The team does not know if t
change will provide benefit to the customer. Focus efforts on fulfilling the requirements.PMP® Exam Prep2390016
C Quality assurance of which an audit is part focuses on processes procedures and standards. Though ISO may be thoug
of as a standard audits are not required and so choice A cannot be best. The seller cannot generally control or review the
customers process so choice B cannot be best. Choice D is more representative of a cost audit than a quality audit so cannot b
the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
B The perform quality assurance process is the process in which we do quality audits to make sure we are using the corre
processes. Choice C is quality planning and choice D is perform quality control.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
B All the other choices are costs of nonconformance to quality.PMP® Exam Prep2400016
A The length of time it takes to test a whole population is one of the reasons to take a sample.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
C The words satisfies the needs are your clue that the answer relates to quality.PMP® Exam Prep2370016
A Quality is addressed during all parts of the project not just during planning (choices B and C). Planning for quality (choice
is before the fact not after the fact.PMP® Exam Prep2390016
D The question states that internal measures have already been created. Therefore external ones are needed. Only choice
helps benchmark externally.PMP® Exam Prep2430016
B Standard deviation is the measurement of a range around the mean. Therefore choice B must be the best answer.PMP
Exam Prep2460016
C The plan described is the quality management plan. Since the quality management plan is included in the project
management plan changing the quality management plan will also change the project management plan.PMP® Exam
Prep2420016
C The only choice listed that makes sense and is an official input to perform quality assurance is choice C. This question i
similar to others in this program but not exactly the same. You may also see this occur on your exam. Carefully read the questi
!PMBOK® Guide1820016
A Did you notice the situation is occuring during completion of project work? Choices B and C occur earlier. Choice D doe
not deal with the quality of the end product of the project it deals with quality problems that arise.PMP® Exam Prep2441016
B Performance of work packages (choice A) is done after project planning. Since the previous project manager did not fini
planning choice D should not be next. Risk identification (choice C) sounds like a good choice however identify quality standard
(choice B) occurs before choice C. The best answer is B.PMP® Exam Prep2410016
C Although quality planning usually occurs during project planning it can occur during project execution when there is a
A Quality audits are a necessary part of quality assurance to improve project performance quality.PMP® Exam Prep24400
A The team should reevaluate whether the quality standards are valid. This is part of the perform quality assurance
process.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
A Determining what standards to use is part of quality planning. Dont get fooled that this situation is occurring during proje
executing.PMP® Exam Prep2410016
B Any instance where there is an evaluation of the quality standards is part of quality assurance.PMP® Exam Prep244001
C The question could be read as What do you do first to deal with this situation? You might do choices A B or C when fir
assigned as project manager but only creating a control chart (choice C) deals with the problem presented.PMP® Exam
Prep2491016
C The group is analyzing an actual defect. They must be in perform quality control.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
D A project manager must always evaluate the situation before recommending a corrective action or a change.PMP® Exa
Prep2451016
C Choice A is only a possibility if you have proof that another company could do the inspection with less damage. Choi
B is effectively saying inspect them all==c== and that would destroy all production. Decreasing the cost of quality (choice D)
would only make the quality issues greater. The best choice is C inspect a sample of the satellites.PMP® Exam Prep2451016
A Inspection (choice A) is part of quality control. Only a quality management plan is not an output of quality
control.PMBOK® Guide1820016
D The control limits are set based on the companys quality standard and indicate the acceptable range.PMP® Exam
Prep2500016
B Choice A couldnt be right as the process is not assigned a cause the data point is. Read the questions carefully!PMP®
Exam Prep2500016
A Tools and techniques for perform quality control include flowcharting statistical sampling Pareto charts control charts an
inspection.PMBOK® Guide1820016
D Inspections may be conducted at any level including the project team and at any time throughout the product developm
They are used to prevent defects from being delivered to the customer.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
B The group is using organizational process assets to improve their project. Although the incident just occurred it was on
another project. They are in quality planning.PMP® Exam Prep2410016
B The key word here is overall. Quality control (choice D) is wrong because we are not addressing the specific performan
of an activity.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
D Statistical sampling is part of perform quality control.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
C Quality audits (choice A) and work performance information (choice B) would lead up to the performance issues being
identified. Changing the quality baseline (choice D) is a very serious action that should be taken only after lots of discussion an
approvals. It is more likely that recommended corrective actions would be the result.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
D This question describes a defect that has already occurred; therefore it is part of quality control.PMP® Exam Prep24500
D Quality audits are part of perform quality assurance.PMP® Exam Prep2440016

C This question is similar to others in this program but not exactly the same. You may also see this occur on your exam.
Carefully read the questions! In this case we are in quality assurance. An output of perform quality assurance is recommended
corrective action (choice C). Since the purpose of quality management is to improve quality quality problems (choice A) could n
be an output of any of the quality processes. Choice B is an input to perform quality assurance and choice D occurs during
perform quality assurance?it is not an output of it.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
C Quality attributes are the measurements that determine if the product is acceptable. They are based on the characterist
of the product for which they were designed.PMP® Exam Prep2490016
B The fishbone diagram is a tool that we use to help stimulate thinking (brainstorming) to create an atmosphere conducive
open sharing of thoughts and to gather our thoughts in a cohesive way. It can be used during planning to determine how to rea
a quality objective or during analysis to determine the cause of defects.PMP® Exam Prep2480016
D Choice A relates to Pareto charts. Choices B and C relate to fishbone diagrams. Only choice D relates to control
charts.PMP® Exam Prep2490016
A Choices B and C relate to fishbone diagrams. Choice D relates to control charts. Only choice A relates to Pareto
charts.PMP® Exam Prep2490016
A A Pareto chart helps you pick the most frequent problems and determine which problems to focus your attention on
(choice A). The result is a higher quality project. It can be used to look at past problems not to predict future ones (choice
C).PMP® Exam Prep2490016
A Notice in this question that there is a lot of data not relevant to answering the question? Expect these distracters to occu
almost every question on the exam. Quality should produce a decrease rather than an increase in cost risk as a result of less
rework so choices B and C can be eliminated. Quality should also provide increased cost effectiveness due to less rework. This
eliminates Choice D leaving the best answer choice A.PMP® Exam Prep2400016
C The rule of seven applies here. If you have seven data points in a row on the same side of the mean statistically the me
has shifted calling for action to correct the problem.PMP® Exam Prep2500016
A It is the project managers job to take action to address this situation. Therefore choice A is the least effective option. Th
other choices could help the project manager discover the reason for the problem.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
A Quality is defined as conformance to requirements and specifications. The best answer here is when the requirements
have been met (choice A). We do not achieve quality if we exceed expectations get a verbal OK or stop adding features reques
by the customer.PMP® Exam Prep2370016
C A process is out of control when a point falls outside the upper or lower control limits on a control chart (choice C) or wh
seven consecutive data points fall on the same side of the mean. This term refers to control limits not human resource issues
(choice A). Choice B is an example of in control. Choice D is not a relevant data point.PMP® Exam Prep2500016
C The control limits are more constraining than the specification limits. Control limits are how you measure your process
quality. Specification limits are how the customer measures quality. Therefore choices A and B cannot be best. Since the point
on the chart are not calculated statistically but are based on actual measurements choice D cannot be best.PMP® Exam
Prep2490016
B The situation described would occur as part of quality control not quality assurance (choice B). The question specifically
describes control limits which are only a part of control charting (choice C). Corrective action (choice D) is needed but it is not
described here.PMP® Exam Prep2490006
C The control limits are the dashed lines above and below the mean. Choice C is the only answer to address this correctly
Since control limits are the measure you use to determine quality it follows that your quality should exceed your customers nee
Otherwise you probably would not do the work.PMP® Exam Prep2500016
B The fishbone diagram (choice B) is used to stimulate thinking and determine the cause of defects and look for solutions
problems. The 50/50 rule (choice A) is used for estimating work package completion. A control chart (choice C) displays results
over time of a process. A Pareto chart (choice D) displays causes of problems and the frequency of occurrence.PMP® Exam
Prep2480016
B These are two other names for the fishbone diagram.PMP® Exam Prep2480016
D The Pareto chart is based on the 80/20 rule. It displays causes of problems and the frequency of occurrence. If you wer
fix 20 percent of the root causes of problems you would eliminate 80 percent of all the problems encountered.PMP® Exam
Prep2490016
D A flowchart (choice A) does not show order of importance. A fishbone diagram (choice B) identifies possible causes of
problems. A control chart (choice C) displays process results over time.PMP® Exam Prep2490016
B A sample refers to measuring a small part of a larger group to determine the quality level of the entire group.PMP® Exa
Prep2450016
B Choice A is not correct because they are true events. Choice C is incorrect because statistical independence deals with
two events not being linked. Choice D is incorrect because just in time refers to inventory levels. By definition two events that a
mutually exclusive cannot happen on the same trial.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
B Choices A and C are already stated because the two items are listed as problems. They may be true but they are not
answers to the question. It would be best to determine if the problems are related (choice B) before planning what to do about
them.PMP® Exam Prep2460016
A The question indicates the two problems are unrelated. Therefore they require separate solutions.PMP® Exam
Prep2460016
A Here one table is tested for quality; it is therefore a sample of a larger set.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
A If quality is improved the chance of rework decreases along with the associated costs.PMP® Exam Prep2400016
B Improved focus on quality as in choice B can improve the quality process.PMP® Exam Prep2400016
C Choices A and B would only make the problem worse. Choice D would help you see how much of a problem you have b
would not solve the problem. Only a quality audit (choice C) leads to solving the problem.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
D You can use the WBS (choice C) in many ways to control quality. The other choices are official quality control tools exce
for life cycle costing (choice D) which has nothing to do with quality.PMP® Exam Prep2000016
B Although some of these tools can be used in quality planning taken as a whole they are ALL used only in perform qualit
control.PMP® Exam Prep2470016
A The mean (choice A) is the correct answer. The specification limits (choice B) are above and below the mean. The rule o
seven (choice C) indicates that a process is out of control. The upper and lower control limits (choice D) are above and below t
mean but are within the specification limits.PMP® Exam Prep2500016
B The customers definition of quality is indicated on the control chart by the specification limits.PMP® Exam Prep2500016
A There is no rule of two; it is the rule of seven.PMP® Exam Prep2490006
B The key to this question is non-random. It is referring to the rule of seven.PMP® Exam Prep2500016
A Inconsistency and nonpredictability are indications that the process is out of control.PMP® Exam Prep2500016
C The definition of the rule of seven says that there are seven or more sequential data points that fall on the same side
the mean. This indicates that the process is out of control.PMP® Exam Prep2500016
A A data point that requires you to determine the cause of the problem calls for a special cause (choice A). Gold plating
(choice B) is providing the customer more that what they asked for. A rule of seven (choice C) is not just a single data point and
thus not correct even though it also requires an assignable (special) cause. A specification limit (choice D) is the customer-defi
requirements for quality.PMP® Exam Prep2500016
A Data points outside the control limits indicate the process is out of control and production should be stopped until a solu
is found.PMP® Exam Prep2500016
B Trend analysis examines project results over time to evaluate performance.PMP® Exam Prep2490016
B EV is determined from a total budget of $10000 and a five week duration. Each week would be $2000. Therefore for two
weeks of completed work we have an EV of $4000. CV = EV - AC CV = $4000 - $2000 = $2000. Positive means you are under
budget.PMP® Exam Prep2070015
B Gold plating a project wastes time and probably cost. It makes the project unsuccessful.PMP® Exam Prep2390116
B Though the sponsor may help plan some of the activities (choice A) it is not his exclusive duty. Some project constraints
(choice C) come from the sponsor but they should be considered necessary. The project management plan (choice D) is create
by the team and approved by the sponsor and other management. Since the project objectives are stated in the project charter
and it is the sponsor who issues the project charter choice B is the correct answer.PMP® Exam Prep2670117
D Whereas a job description (choice C) describes a persons primary job the responsibility assignment matrix (choice D)
describes the persons responsibilities on the project.PMP® Exam Prep2750017
B The key words here are first two weeks. When you first organize a team you need to provide the direction. After they
become self-motivated you could use one of the other leadership styles.PMP® Exam Prep2830017
C Resource leveling refers to maintaining the same number of resources on the project for each time period. Leveling has
nothing to do with assigning activities or managing meetings.PMP® Exam Prep1791017
C Meeting project requirements is the most important attribute of those presented.PMP® Exam Prep2751017
B This question tests if you understand that functional managers generally own or control the resources on projects. It
would not be professionally responsible to try to keep a resource if he can be replaced without hurting the project (choice A).
Choice C cannot be best because it is not the resources job to find a replacement. Choice D cannot be best as waiting might
impact the project. By talking to the functional manager the project manager can find out if the team member will be selected fo
the other project and see if there really is a problem.PMP® Exam Prep2701117
B The issue here is managing people. Only the staffing management plan helps manage people.PMP® Exam
Prep2761017
D The only choice here that does not make sense is choice D. Determining probability would not be appropriate in the
situation described.PMP® Exam Prep2651017
C The project manager must ensure that the necessary skills are developed as part of the project.PMP® Exam Prep28000
B Tight matrix refers to locating the offices for the project team in the same room (co-located). Co-location will help in build
the team.PMP® Exam Prep2800017
A Remember that the WBS is the basis for making estimates and assigning resources. Therefore the WBS is the correct
C Dont forget that according to Herzbergs Theory salary (choice A) is not a motivating agent. Linkage (choice C) is very
important to make the reward valuable to both the receiver and those who did not receive it. This is more important than giving
choice of reward (choice B) or presenting the reward in public (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep2770017
A Many people select choice D because they do not realize that human resource planning relates to assigning roles and
responsibilities. The resource requirements are determined in activity resource estimating and human resources are acquired i
acquire project team.PMP® Exam Prep1501014
A Time is shown in a schedule or bar chart. The responsibility assignment matrix maps specific resources against the wor
packages from the WBS.PMP® Exam Prep2750017
C A reward needs to be specific to the activities at hand to maximize the effect. Although the existing company reward
system (choice A) may work one created specifically for the project will address project-specific objectives and motivators. Cho
C is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep2760017
B It is important to understand peoples motivations so you can effectively manage and motivate them. This is part of th
develop project team process. Choices C and D occur later in the project management process. Choice A is to see if you can s
laugh. Expect to see a few questions on the real exam that are so strange you will have to laugh.PMP® Exam Prep2760017
A The responsibility assignment matrix maps who will do the work. The resource histogram (choice B) shows the number
resources used in each time period. In its pure form a bar chart (choice C) shows only activity and calendar date. An
organizational chart (choice D) shows who reports to whom.PMP® Exam Prep2750017
B Choice A is incorrect since the WBS is not broken down into one-person activities. The WBS does not provide names o
resources (choice C) or a hierarchy of resources (choice D) but rather a hierarchy of work packages. Therefore choice B is the
correct answer.PMP® Exam Prep1280013
B Did you forget that in a matrix organization the functional manager controls the resources?PMP® Exam Prep2700017
C A project organizational chart shows resources and their responsibilities.PMP® Exam Prep2750017
A A histogram is a bar chart where each bar represents the percent of time the resource is working. Each bar shows one u
of time (e.g. a week a month etc.). It does not show usage for each activity (choice B).PMP® Exam Prep2760017
A Time is shown on a schedule or bar chart. The responsibility assignment matrix maps specific resources against the wor
packages from the WBS. On a resource histogram the use of resources is shown individually or by groups over time.PMP® Ex
Prep2760017
D Although choice A might help it is not the best choice. Choice B really means spend the most time checking the work.
Since it is after the fact and reactive it is not the best choice for this situation. Choice C would only make things worse. Choice
the correct answer.PMP® Exam Prep2760017
B Generally when two people have a problem they need to resolve it themselves. However the issue here is what happe
next. The project manager is responsible for communicating what needs to happen next.PMP® Exam Prep2710017
C Diversity can enhance a project if planned and coordinated throughout the project.PMP® Exam Prep4210017
B Reward and expert are the best sources of power. Reward is not listed as a choice.PMP® Exam Prep2821017
C A responsibility assignment matrix is a correlation between activities and resources. Resources are assigned to accomplis
each activity. The matrix shows all the activities and resources for a project.PMP® Exam Prep2750017
D The histogram is a set of bars that depict when a resource is being used and to what level.PMP® Exam Prep2760017
B The responsibility assignment matrix (choice A) shows resources and activities. The project organizational chart (choic
C) shows organization. The Pareto chart (choice D) is a quality tool and does not show resources. The resource histogram sho
resource usage over time in a column format.PMP® Exam Prep2760017
A Many people select choice D. Did you? If so reread this question and try to figure out what you missed before reading
Although you may feel like quitting you must continue. Why would you need to talk to each team members boss (choice B)?
Choice C is not the responsible thing to do and it does not solve the problem. Choice D is not the best as the project manager
should have gotten the teams buy-in to the project during project planning. It is WAY too late to do six months into the project.
One of the powers you can use as project manager is reward power. Rewards used properly bring the objectives of the team in
line with the projects.PMP® Exam Prep2761017
C It is best to deal with the problem directly before using withdrawal (choice A) penalizing (choice B) or meeting with
managers (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep2850017
B Know your conflict resolution techniques. Here we are problem solving. Problem solving and compromising are consider
to be the two best techniques in that order.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
C Rewards used correctly bring the teams objectives in line with each other and with the project.PMP® Exam Prep282001
D The project manager would have analyzed skills as part of his resource management planning so there is no need for
choice A. Although choice B might be a good idea it does not solve the problem at hand the team member. The cost of such
training for team members is borne by the project making choice D a better answer than choice C.PMP® Exam Prep2800017
D Simply revising the bar chart (choice A) does not act on the problem. Going to the sponsor (choice B) is also not an in
step. Sympathy is fine but the team is looking for leadership. A delay in decision making (choice C) is unacceptable with the
project already behind schedule. Talking to the functional manager (choice D) is the best initial choice.PMP® Exam Prep27010
D Did you realize the activities may or may not be on a critical path.PMP® Exam Prep2871017
D Problem solving normally takes more time but it gets buy-in from everyone generating a more lasting solution.PMP® Ex
Prep2850017
C Choces A and D are parts of manage project team. Choice B is part of human resource planning. Develop project team
involves training and other activities that make team members more capable of doing their jobs. Therefore you expect
performance improvements to result.PMBOK® Guide2120017
C Choice A refers to projects not individuals. The actions described are generally required and not gold plating (choice B).
Team building (choice D) is more correctly thought of as a result of using rewards.A reward and recognition sysem involves for
management action to promote desired behavior.PMP® Exam Prep2760017
B Projects often need their own reward systems to affect performance. Project managers should create such a system fo
each project.PMP® Exam Prep2761017
C The job of the project manager includes providing or obtaining project-specific training for team members. This kind of
training is a direct cost of the project.PMP® Exam Prep2740017
B After a team member completes project work it is the project managers job to provide input to the team members manag
regarding performance appraisals. PMP® Exam Prep2810017
D The staffing pool description (choice A) tells the project manager who is available. The WBS (choice B) describes wha
work needs to be done and what skills are required. The staffing management plan (choice C) describes the project managers
plans for staffing the project. Reward systems (choice D) are only relevant after the team is created.PMP® Exam Prep2760017
D People from different cultures with different cultural values and beliefs stress the importance of understanding both the
basic definitions and the areas of cultural impact. As project managers we need to have good communication skills and a
willingness to adapt to other cultures.PMP® Exam Prep3080018
B Within reason the technical experts (generally the team members) should resolve the issue. It is unlikely that there w
be an opportunity to compromise on the selection of a seller.PMP® Exam Prep2690017
C Since the engineer has knowledge of the situation and has experienced problems like this before he would be more
knowledgeable than others on the team. This would be expert power.PMP® Exam Prep2820017
B The act of both parties giving something defines compromise.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
A There is always the option to simply postpone dealing with the issue until later. This is withdrawing.PMP® Exam
Prep2850017
A Formal power is based on your position.PMP® Exam Prep2820017
D When someone is given the job of project manager they will have formal reward and penalty power. But just having the
position does not make the project manager either a technical or project management expert.PMP® Exam Prep2820017
D Employees who believe that their efforts will lead to effective performance and who expect to be rewarded for their
accomplishments will stay productive as rewards meet their expectations. This is expectancy theory.PMP® Exam Prep2870017
A Herzberg has hygiene factors both start with an H. You need to memorize them.PMP® Exam Prep2880017
C The best time is when it is needed and that might happen any time during the project.PMP® Exam Prep2790017
D Those having the problem should resolve the problem. Having had to crash the critical path several times implies that te
D has already dealt with these problems. In this case the two team leaders need to meet. The extent of this situation requires th
project managers involvement as well.PMP® Exam Prep2840017
C According to Theory X people cannot do anything without supervision. They will try to get away with everything if you ar
not careful. Know the two theories Theory X and Theory Y.PMP® Exam Prep2880017
D Dont be fooled because personality is on the list. Schedule conflict is the number one source. Know the top four:
schedules project priorities resources and technical opinions.PMP® Exam Prep2840017
D This question is asking which of the FOLLOWING is the highest. Self-actualization is not listed so the next best cho
is esteem.PMP® Exam Prep2880017
A Those having the problem should resolve the problem. In this case the two team members should work out the problem
Because it is impacting the project the project manager needs to participate.PMP® Exam Prep2840017
C Just because a person is good in his technical field does not mean he will also be a good project manager.PMP® Exam
Prep2780017
B Know the top four sources (schedules project priorities resources and technical opinions) so you can answer questions
such as this one. Dont be fooled because personalities is on the list. It is last.PMP® Exam Prep2840017
B Team members are harder to motivate if their loyalty is to their functional organization rather than to the project
team.PMP® Exam Prep2760017
A Know the difference between Theory X and Theory Y.PMP® Exam Prep2880017
C Do not get confused by the wordiness of the question. Ask yourself what is the best way to resolve any conflict and you
can get the answer. Most of the situation is a distracter. Problem solving and compromising are the two most important conflict
resolution techniques. Conflict management is a key general management skill.PMP® Exam Prep2840017
C Performance issues are senior and functional managements responsibility - usually the manager who supervis
the resource.PMP® Exam Prep2700017
D Choice A is inappropriate since it is the functional managers responsibility. Choice B is not problem solving it is more lik
avoidance or withdrawal something that is not usually best. Choice C is a penalty as it is discussed at a team meeting. By sayin
that this person has participated in? the question is saying that you as the project manager have done everything in your pow
already. There is even a reward system in place. Therefore it is time to ask for help from management. Functional managemen
responsible for addressing individual performance problems.PMP® Exam Prep2701017
B Conflicts need to be resolved by those experiencing the problem not the whole team. Choice C should be unnecessary
does not solve the root cause. The question seems to lead one to think the project manager should solve it but there is an even
better answer. Without knowing the details of the problem choice B is a better choice than choice A.PMP® Exam Prep2840017
A Generally the best forms of power are reward or expert. The project manager has not had time to become a recogniz
expert in the company (choice D) and reward is not included as a choice here. This leaves formal power (choice A) as the only
logical answer.PMP® Exam Prep2820017
B Choices A and D would be done before giving rewards. Be careful if you chose team building (choice C). This situation
does not involve the team and the manager is not encouraging the team member to work better with the team.PMP® Exam
Prep2760017
C Penalty power refers to removing some benefit.PMP® Exam Prep2820017
A Choice A represents reward power and is always one of the most effective choices especially if there is room in the
project budget. Choice B is penalty power and is the least effective choice. Although choice C is also reward power the people
who are receiving the reward are not in the position to assist with the specific problems listed in the question. Expert power (ch
D) is generally a good choice although in this case the expertise is technical and the project manager may not be the technical
expert on the project.PMP® Exam Prep2820017
B In a strong matrix environment the project manager has more power than the functional manager and may be able to ma
resource decisions on her own. However Choice A is incorrect as this is not a resource decision; it is a technical one and techn
issues are managed by the team members managers. A benchmark analysis (choice C) provides information about the method
and performance used by other companies and departments. However it would be better to look for internal expertise before
spending time on such a time-consuming activity. It is not wise for a project manager to suggest a compromise (choice D) when
the issue is a technical one. The only viable choice is B.PMP® Exam Prep2841017
B During project planning (choice B) the project manager informs the team about what will be done for project managem
planning. In project initiating (choice A) they receive information. In project executing (choice C) they assist the team and during
project monitoring and controlling (choice D) they make sure the project is completed according to plan.PMP® Exam
Prep2830017
C During project executing (choice C) the project is mostly defined the team knows what to do and the team has helped
define what has already been done. Therefore the project manager does more coaching.PMP® Exam Prep2830017
B The most common source of conflict is not personalities. If you picked choice A it shows that you do not have up-to-dat
training in conflict management techniques. You have a common hole in your project management knowledge.PMP® Exam
Prep2830017
A Personalities are the least common source of conflict so choices B and C are not correct. See the PMP Exam Prep b
for a discussion on the major sources of conflict.PMP® Exam Prep2840017
A Confronting means the same thing as problem solving. Did you miss the warning about this in the PMP Exam Prep
book?PMP® Exam Prep2850017
A This question is really asking What is the best way to resolve conflict Problem solving is not listed so we need to go to
second best answer compromising (choice A).PMP® Exam Prep2850017
B Compromising (choice A) is lose-lose but it is not the worst choice. Smoothing (choice C) does not solve the problem
Do you wonder if forcing (choice B) is worse than withdrawal (choice D)? Withdrawal is a good thing to do when people need ti
to contemplate or get less annoyed. Forcing demands that others do what one person thinks should be done and therefore bre
animosity.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
D Choice D is an example of compromising.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
D This is an example of conflict and a choice of conflict resolution techniques. The project manager is withdrawing.PMP®
Exam Prep2850017
B In this situation the project manager is problem solving or confronting the problem.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
D The issue is postponed; this is an example of withdrawal.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
C Choice D the most common incorrect answer ignores the issue. Here the project manager is not ignoring. The project
manager is saying the issue is valid but he/she does not think it will be a real problem later.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
A Quality plans (choice C) should already be in place and informing management (choice D) will not help the situation.
Smoothing will emphasize that everyone agreed on a plan and that the team should have confidence in that plan.PMP® Exam
Prep2850017
A The project managers decision is to find a middle ground. This is compromise.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
A A corner office is a perk whereas health benefits are a fringe benefit.PMP® Exam Prep2870017
C Expect to be tested on definitions.PMP® Exam Prep2870017
C Will it improve efficiency to have the records in many locations? Then Choice A is not correct. Choice B only talks about
the tools a war room refers to the team. In choice D only senior management is together a war room is for the team.PMP® Exa
Prep2800017
A Maslow created a pyramid to show the hierarchy of needs. I know you dont want to memorize these. Do it for the exam
you can get some easy questions right.PMP® Exam Prep2880017
C McGregor devised the Theories of X and Y. These are easy questions so you have time for the harder ones.PMP® Exa
Prep2870017
C McGregor devised the theories of X and Y. These are easy questions so you have time for harder ones.PMP® Exam
Prep2870017
D Herzberg talks about hygiene factors both start with an H. Save time for the network questions.PMP® Exam Prep28800
A These relate to Maslows hierarchy of needs.PMP® Exam Prep2880017

A This is the essence of Maslows theory.PMP® Exam Prep2880017
C This is the essence of McGregors Theory X and Theory Y.PMP® Exam Prep2870017
D This is the essence of Herzbergs hygiene factors.PMP® Exam Prep2880017
D This is the essence of Herzbergs hygiene factors.PMP® Exam Prep2880017
A This is the essence of McGregors Theory X and Theory Y.PMP® Exam Prep2870017
C This answer is not wrong because self-actualization is not listed. Reread the question. It asks which of the FOLLOWING
is the highest. Of the choices listed C is the highest.PMP® Exam Prep2880017
A This answer is not wrong because self-actualization is not listed. Reread the question. It asks which of the FOLLOWING
is the highest. Of the choices listed A is the highest.PMP® Exam Prep2030017
C Delaying the issue is called withdrawal.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
B Problem solving is considered to be the best way to resolve conflicts.PMP® Exam Prep2850017
A Due to the high need for coordination it is best to centralize the project management and control processes. PMP® Exa
Prep2800017
B Most project managers realize they have input into the employees records even if the employee does not report directly
them. This activity is completed as part of closure.PMP® Exam Prep2811017
C The project manager is responsible for obtaining upper management buy-in to provide adequate resources set realistic
schedules and promote team building.PMP® Exam Prep2741012
C Here the only skilled third party is an arbitrator.PMP® Exam Prep38900110
C This question is full of choices that are not correct project management actions. If you picked the wrong answer look ag
at the choices and try to determine what you are missing. Whatever it is it will show up more than once on the real exam! To
answer the question you must first realize that it is never appropriate for a project manager to just cut estimates across the boa
(choice B). The project manager should have created an estimate with realistic work package estimates that do not include
padding. Then if costs must be decreased the project manager can look to cut quality decrease risk cut scope or use cheape
resources (and at the same time closely monitoring the impact of changes on the project schedule). One of the worst things a
project manager can do is to start a project while knowing that the time or cost for the project is unrealistic. Therefore choice A
cannot be best. Notice that choice D suggests adding additional resources. That would cost more. Choice C involves evaluatin
looking for alternatives and then going to the sponsor to tell him the impact of the cost cutting.PMP® Exam Prep2040015
A Notice that this question uses the words describes and prevent. Taken together they should tell you the project is in th
planning process group. This eliminates choices B C and D. Coordination and conflict prevention relate to develop project plan
and preventing rework is part of quality planning. Conflict relates to communications management plans.PMP® Exam Prep931
ACommunications planning involves identifying communication requirements including the identification of any communication
preferences. In this situation you remind the sponsor indicates that the information is being communicated according to the pl
However the plan does not reflect the needs of this stakeholder.PMP® Exam Prep3031018
CChoice A cannot be correct because the question states that all stakeholders received the information. Choices B and D do n
address the root cause of the problem. The problem presented here shows that there is something missing in the communicati
management plan. The best answer is to review the communications management plan in order to prevent future problems and
find any instances of similar problems.PMP® Exam Prep3080018
DForecasts are an output of performance reporting.PMBOK® Guide2220018
BA communications management plan includes a determination of what information needs to be collected and when.PMP® Ex
Prep3030018
BOccasionally you will find an easy question on the exam; at least I hope you found this question easy. Did it improve your
confidence?PMP® Exam Prep3030018
D Feedback is a tool to improve communication not a communication blocker. PMP® Exam Prep3120018
AMemorize this number 90 percent.PMP® Exam Prep3010018
DAlthough the information is found as a sub-plan to the project management plan (choice A) the communications management
plan (choice D) is the best answer because it directly answers the question.PMP® Exam Prep3080018
D Choice D includes all of the other choices. Stakeholders can be project assets who perform project work provide expert
advice and remove roadblocks. Because they are involved in the project you should consider their needs when creating a
communications management plan.PMP® Exam Prep3080018
A communications management plan can attempt to control communications but the project manager needs to have open
communications with everyone. This is the only way to inform the appropriate people of the project status and to adequately
control the project.PMP® Exam Prep3080018
D To ensure clear concise communications the project manager must manage communications by deciding what form of
communication is best.PMP® Exam Prep3050018
CAll reports and diagrams are communications tools. This question asks you to pick the most appropriate quality tool to help
communications. An Ishikawa diagram (choice C) also called a cause and effect diagram is more appropriate than the Pareto
chart (choice B) since you are trying to determine the causes. Once causes are known and you have data on occurrences the
data can be displayed in a Pareto chart.PMP® Exam Prep2480018
C Choices A and D assume the delay and over-expenditure are the faults of the foreman. This may or may not be the cas
The project manager needs to understand the cause without being judgmental; the objective is to complete the project on time
and within budget. The project manager will need the collaborative help of his foreman and must continue to build trust. Choice
B Notice the phrasing of this question most likely NOT do. Expect to see questions worded on the exam in ways that ca
cause you to misinterpret them. You will also see questions about things we forget to do in the real world. Who has time==c==
you might say to determine if each problem is really solved? One could respond with Who has time not to do this? Who has t
to deal with the same problem twice? The final steps of problem solving include: implement a decision review it and confirm th
the decision solved the problem.PMP® Exam Prep2871007
BDid you realize that the project manager is part of the communication channels? Therefore there are actually four stakeholder
to begin with and six channels of communication. The question is asking how many total channels of communication you have
with a team of five people. The formula is [N ?(N - 1)]/2 or (5 ?4)/2 = 10.PMP® Exam Prep3070018
BThe root cause of this problem is an inadequate communications management plan. Though created by the project manager
should like the rest of the plan be bought into by the team. Choices A and C are creative ideas but unfortunately do not solve th
root cause of the problem. Choice D is penalty power and not the first choice of what to do.PMP® Exam Prep3080018
A Many people select choice B but the question asks for the purpose of such meetings. Team members reporting on what
they are doing may best be done outside of meetings. The main purpose is choice A.PMP® Exam Prep3071018
BMeetings by definition are communications tools. There are other ways to determine status and make and authorize changes
The project manager must use meetings to communicate effectively.PMP® Exam Prep3070018
level is enhanced.conflict occurs.senior management is displeased.CThe major result of communication blockers and
miscommunication as a whole is conflict.PMP® Exam Prep3120018
DChoices C and D both include nonverbal communication which represents 55 percent of communication. Choice D adds
paralingual communication (pitch and tone) and is thus the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep3040018
BReports help distribute information not just report on progress.PMP® Exam Prep3090018
BEverything that we do is more formal in a contract environment than in other project activities. Because choice B deals with
contracts it is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep3050018
A When we talk about contracts everything that we do is more formal than in other project activities. Records are also
important thus the need for written communication.PMP® Exam Prep3050018
C You want to document the change to be sure that everyone gets the message but it does not require formal
communication.PMP® Exam Prep3050018
BBecause of the differences in culture and the distance between team members formal written communication is needed.PMP
Exam Prep3050018
D The term stakeholder encompasses all the other choices. In this case it is the best answer since the WBS can be used
(but does not need to be used) as a communications tool for all stakeholders to see what is included in the project.PMP® Exa
Prep860013
B Nonverbal communication carries 55 percent of the message you send. With this much at stake nonverbal communicat
is of major importance.PMP® Exam Prep3040018
A Nonverbal communication carries 55 percent of the message you send.PMP® Exam Prep3040018
D Understanding the receivers perspective allows you to direct the communication to meet his needs.PMP® Exam
Prep3040018
BWritten communication allows your words to be documented and they will go to everyone in the same form. When there are
complex problems you want everyone to receive the same thing.PMP® Exam Prep3050018
D Choice A is not a rule for effective meetings. Since there is no indication that the meeting was not scheduled in advanc
(choice B) or that there isnt a purpose (choice C) these cannot be the best answers. Discussed at random implies no agenda
(choice D). If an agenda is issued beforehand people will follow the outline and should not need random discussions.PMP® Ex
Prep3070018
C The communications management plan helps people understand what needs to be communicated to whom when and
what methods.PMP® Exam Prep3080018
A The longer one waits to make a decision the greater the impact on the components of the projects triple constraint. PM
Exam Prep2860017
A Having more resources does not generally make it HARDER to use reward power (choice B). Choice C is an incorrect
statement. Choice D does not make sense so it cannot be the correct answer. This leaves only choice A.PMP® Exam
Prep3070018
AThe key words here are performance over time. A forecasting report (choice B) looks only to the future. A status report (choi
C) is generally static (relating to a moment in time). A variance report (choice D) looks at specific project items or activities
compared to the plan. The only choice that addresses performance over time is a trend report (choice A).PMP® Exam
Prep3110018
B The key word here is future. A trend report (choice A) addresses past performance. A status report (choice C) is
generally static (relating to a moment in time). A variance report (choice D) looks at specific project items or activities. The only
choice that looks to the future is a forecasting report (choice B).PMP® Exam Prep3110018
DThis situation describes the need to compare. A trend report (choice A) shows performance over time. A forecasting report
(choice B) looks only to the future. A status report (choice C) is generally static (relating to a moment in time). The only choice
compares project results is a variance analysis (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep3110018
B The formula is [N x (N - 1)]/2 where N is the number of people. The original team included 12 members including you f
total of 66 communication channels. The new analyst increases the number of people to 13 and the number of communication
channels to 78 for a total increase of 12 new communication channels. The fact that the analyst will be working directly with the
testing sub-team does not reduce the number of communication channels.PMP® Exam Prep3071018
B The formula is [N x (N - 1)]/2. Therefore [9 x (8)]/2 = 36. This question is really asking How many total communication
channels are there? PMP® Exam Prep3070018
D The formula is [N x (N - 1)]/2. Therefore 6(5)/2 = 15. Watch for questions that ask how many MORE communication
channels there are.PMP® Exam Prep3070018
C The formula is [N x (N - 1)]/2. Here you have to figure out how many more. Therefore 5(4)/2 = 10 8(7)/2 = 28 and finally
- 10 = 18.PMP® Exam Prep3070018
C The formula is [N x (N - 1)]/2 or (7 x 6)/2 = 21 communication channels.PMP® Exam Prep3070018
AKeep in mind that this question is asking for the total number of communication channels not how many more. The formula is
x (N - 1)]/2 or (18 x 17)/2 = 153 channels of communication.PMP® Exam Prep3070018
D Keep in mind this question is asking for how many new channels of communications there are not how many in total.
Practice reading questions correctly. The formula is [N x (N - 1)]/2or (5 x 4)/2 = 10 and (7 x 6)/2 = 21. 21 - 10 = 11 more channe
of communication.PMP® Exam Prep3070018
D The professional and social responsibility of the project manager requires that the truth be told. Choice A is lying and
unethical. Choice B is not the correct choice because you do not KNOW the project will be late. There is time to fix the problem
Choice C is not correct because there are no cost problems illustrated in the question. As in any report you need to state the
issues and options.PMP® Exam
BThe overriding measurement of what information to accumulate and communicate on a project is whether that information
contributes to the success of the project. The required information would take time away from the project and not provide adde
value.PMP® Exam Prep3111018
D The project managers responsibility is to provide truthful project information. He or she should thereafter discuss the
impacts of their actions with the team members. If that does not work the next step is to report it to their functional
managers.PMP® Exam Prep311 4130018
DNote the use of the word meetings in the question. Meetings are communications tools.PMP® Exam Prep3080018
A With proper planning you will be able to communicate effectively and accurately. In this case you are not gathering the
correct information needed to report to the client.PMP® Exam Prep3030018
BA wordy question; expect longer. Trends are found by comparing current to a baseline. A trend report shows areas needing
attention based on the time analysis.PMP® Exam Prep3110018
D You need to tailor the reports to meet the needs of all of your stakeholders and not just one. Find out what each needs a
address those needs. This should be outlined in the communications management plan.PMP® Exam Prep3110018
B Your communications management plan outlines the stakeholders reporting needs and how you plan to meet those
needs.PMP® Exam Prep3080018
CMany project managers spend all their time while the work is being done issuing and using status reports. Great project
managers know these are necessary but are not a replacement for properly managing a project. By interacting with the team
watching what is going on and listening to the team members you will find out sooner than later what the real status of the pro
is. Reports are normally a week or two behind the actual work causing a delay in reacting to problems. Therefore choice C is th
biggest disadvantage.PMP® Exam Prep3110118
B The key word is quickly. The status report (choice A) is too detailed for a quick look. The forecast report (choice C) on
looks into the future. The progress report (choice B) will summarize project status.PMP® Exam Prep3110018
BThe word formal in this question relates to gaining customer sign-off. Until the customer formally accepts the projects produc
you do not have acceptance.PMP® Exam Prep710012
BThe team will be looking for new jobs or trying to extend the length of the project so they have work for a longer period of
time.PMP® Exam Prep1071011
C A phase or project must be formally closed and accepted.PMP® Exam Prep711011
CFirst you need to document the reasons why the customer will not sign off acceptance. Once you understand the issues you c
work with the team to resolve them.PMP® Exam Prep700011
A This question tests whether you realize that project closure can occur at the end of each project phase (if you have
them) as well as at the end of the project.PMP® Exam Prep710011
CPerformance reporting is a control feature and is also done during closure to report the final performance of the project.PMP®
Exam Prep3110018
D Choice A is not correct because contract closure occurs during closing. The opposites of choices B and C are correct.
Choice D is best since only contract closure involves an audit.PMP® Exam Prep39500110
BPerformance reporting during closure is to show progress made on projects not activities (choice A). Approval is not needed t
start the lessons learned (choice C). Such reports are used to gain formal acceptance not to show that it has been achieved
(choice D).PMP® Exam Prep3110018
D Did you pick choice A? Then you may have forgotten that scope verification is done during the monitoring and controlling
process group not the closing process group. The other plans (choices B and C) are created earlier in the project. The lessons
learned (choice D) can only be completed after the work is completed.PMP® Exam Prep3100012
C The project risk management plan is created in the planning process group of a project.PMP® Exam Prep3950012
AYou are trying to learn from both mistakes and successes. If you understand the variances and their causes you can try to av
them in the future.PMP® Exam Prep3100018
C You want to capture data at the end of each phase of a project. If you wait until the end you may forget important
information.PMP® Exam Prep1070012
A The biggest problem is retaining team members until closure of the project. People start looking for their next project an
leave before administrative closure is complete.PMP® Exam Prep300012
B Contract closure may happen before the project as a whole is complete.PMP® Exam Prep3950012
D You need your team to do the work of project closure.PMP® Exam Prep400012
D Benefit cost analysis (choice D) is done earlier in the project to help select between alternatives. All the other choices ar
done during closing. Therefore choice D must be the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep1060012
D They are collected throughout the project but are only archived during closure.PMP® Exam Prep710012
D Choice A refers to lessons learned and choices B and C are always part of closure. When project closure occurs at the
of the project (as opposed to at the end of a phase) the project management plan would not need to be updated (choice D).PM
Exam Prep700012
D The risk audit is done during monitoring and controlling not closure.PMP® Exam Prep1070012
B Lessons learned help to avoid future pitfalls and use the good ideas of past projects. This leads to improvements in futu
projects.PMP® Exam Prep3100012
B A lessons learned document describes more than just the decisions made (choice A). It should help recall what went rig
wrong progress etc.PMP® Exam Prep690012
AThe project management plan and project charter (choices B and C) are products of earlier steps in the project management
C All the project documentation goes into the archives. Therefore it must be completed. The archive is the last thing to cre
before releasing the team.PMP® Exam Prep710012
DScope verification occurs during the monitoring and controlling process of the project not at the end. A similar activity during
closure is product verification.PMP® Exam Prep710012
C Operations and maintenance usually occur after the project is completed.PMP® Exam Prep710012
D If a risk event happens how will we deal with it and continue with the project? We may need to identify alternative ways
sequencing the work. These alternatives are described in the contingency plan.PMP® Exam Prep3440019
A The expected monetary value is probability times impact. In this case you multiply the probabilities together and then
multiply the impact. 0.20 x 0.10 x 0.20 x $1000 = $4.PMP® Exam Prep3380019
A There is no indication that any other areas have a problem. For such a project the project manager should have identifie
more than six risks.PMP® Exam Prep3341019
D This is a decision tree. Know your tools their uses advantages and disadvantages.PMP® Exam Prep3390019
C This situation is occurring during project planning. Planning must be completed before moving on. Determining the risk
rating of the project (choice A) is done during qualitative risk analysis and should have already been done. Choice B is work th
is done during project executing. Project risk reassessment (choice D) occurs during risk monitoring and control the next step
the risk process after response planning. But the question does not ask what is next in the risk management process just what
next. Only choice C comes after risk in project planning. Do you know the order of planning yet?PMP® Exam Prep3440019
D Frequently risk management is portrayed as such a complicated area that people dont even know where to begin. A sim
spreadsheet listing risks and who is responsible for addressing them will be far more beneficial to a project than a complex tool
methodology that no one uses. choices A and B are standard procedures an are expected to be done on all projects. Choice B
has been done. However the most important is choice D. Note that choice D encompasses choices A and C.PMP® Exam
Prep3321019
A You need to know the risk process!PMP® Exam Prep3410019
A Specific risks need to be identified before the project manager can take action to affect those specific risks.PMP® Exam
Prep3340019
C The activities of qualitative risk analysis are probability and impact definitionn assumptions testing and probability and
impact matrix development.PMP® Exam Prep3361019
B Stakeholders (choice A) are involved in risk identification. Workarounds (choice C) are created later in the risk process. R
response planning must include the involvement of all risk response owners and possibly others. This makes choice B the corr
C It is not possible nor practical to develop a response strategy for all risks.PMP® Exam Prep3430019
B A risk rating matrix is created during qualitative risk analysis.PMP® Exam Prep3360019
C Project management plan updates are one of the outputs of risk response planning.PMP® Exam Prep3440019
A If you know the tolerances of the stakeholders you can determine how they might react to different situations and risk
events. You use this information to help assign levels of risk on each work package or activity.PMP® Exam Prep3330019
C Some risks from qualitative risk analysis will be candidates for further study in quantitative risk analysis.PMP® Exam
Prep3370019
A This is the definition of the risk response planning tool avoidance
D The Delphi Technique is most commonly used to obtain expert opinions on technical issues the necessary project or
product scope or the risks.PMP® Exam Prep3380019
D Did you realize that this situation is taking place during the initiating process group? Choices B and C are created in the
project planning process and so are not yet available. Therefore we are left with deciding if choice A or choice D provides the
greater value. Since the information gained in choice D is more specific to your company it is the best choice.PMP® Exam
Prep3350019
B Brainstorming interviewing and Delphi are techniques that could be used. Due to the global spread of the project
brainstorming is not feasible.PMP® Exam Prep3350019
B Team members (choice A) will have knowledge of the project and the product of the project and will thus have a lot to
contribute to risk responses. Those responsible for risk templates (choice C) will be able to provide the templates from past
projects (historical records) and therefore will be very important. Key stakeholders (choice D) will know more about the technica
working of the project to help plan What are we going to do about it? so choice D is not likely to be the least important. The
sponsor (choice B) may have the least knowledge of what will work to solve the problems. Sponsors need to be involved in the
project and help identify risks. They may even approve the response plans created by others but they would not generally be
major contributors to response plans. This makes B the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep3420019
A Choice A is an output of risk response planning. Choices B and C occur during risk monitoring and control and choice D
already been done in risk planning.PMP® Exam Prep3440019
D Risk response planning receives input of prioritized risk ratings.PMP® Exam Prep1400019
B Risk monitoring and control (part of choices A and D) means measure against a plan so it does not use the project sco
statement. Risk response planning (parts of choices C and D ) works with identified risks and so does not use the project scope
statement.PMP® Exam Prep2391019
D The outputs of this step are certainly a list of risks (choice A) and triggers (choice B). Risk response owners (choice C)
comes under risk response planning. However it is an understanding of the risks that is important to be able to qualify and/or
quantify them.PMP® Exam Prep3350019
B You need to realize that you are completing qualitative risk analysis. Choice A occurs during risk response planning
Choices C and D occur during quantitative risk analysis and risk response planning.PMP® Exam Prep3370019
A This question essentially asks What is an output of qualitative risk analysis Only Choice A meets that criteria. Choices B
and C are parts of risk response planning. Choice D occurs during quantitative risk analysis.PMP® Exam Prep3370019
A Expected monetary value is 0.1 x $10000 or $1000. Insurance cost plus the deductible amount are less than the expect
monetary value of the risk event.PMP® Exam Prep3381019
C The answer is calculated as follows: (100 x 0.4) + (200 x 0.4) + (300 x 0.2)PMP® Exam Prep3390019
D Three-point estimating takes into account the risk of not meeting your date.PMP® Exam Prep1540014
C If you cannot determine an exact cost impact of the event use qualitative estimates such as Low Medium High etc.PMP®
Exam Prep3360019
D Project status reports (choice D) can be an input to risk management. However when completing risk management for
first time you would not have project status reports. Therefore project status reports are not always an input to risk
D Insurance premiums come into play when you determine which risk response strategy you will use.PMP® Exam
Prep3360019
A Did you realize this question describes secondary risks? Identifying secondary risks is good and expected while complet
risk response planning. With that in mind the best thing to do is choice A.PMP® Exam Prep3450019
A Resource leveling (choice B) involves analysis of the number of resoures used. Choice C occurs before the team is
selected. Choice D occurs after the team has been selected. The team is trying to respond to a risk by changing a resource. Th
answer is choice A.PMP® Exam Prep3410019
B In risk identification (choice A) we make a list of risks. In quantitative risk analysis (choice B) we assess the impact and
probability that the event will happen. In risk response planning (choice C) we plan our responses to the risk events. In risk
monitoring and control (choice D) we monitor and execute the responses.PMP® Exam Prep3370019
A Requested changes (choice B) is an output of risk monitoring and control. Probability and impact matrix (choice C) is
adopted during risk management planning. Probability of achieving objectives (choice D) is determined during quantitative risk
analysis.PMP® Exam Prep3440019
B To mitigate risk (choice A) we either reduce the probability of the event happening or reduce its impact. Many people thin
of using insurance as a way of decreasing impact. However mitigating risk is taking action before a risk event occurs. Acceptan
of risk (choice C) does not involve such action as purchasing insurance. Avoidance of risk (choice D) means that we change th
way we will execute the project so the risk is no longer a factor. Transference is passing the risk off to another party.PMP® Exa
Prep3420019
B Did you notice there is no such term as choice A? A risk rating matrix (choice C) only helps identify probability and impac
Trends (choice D) can only be analyzed when the work is ongoing. The situation described is taking place during project planni
The purpose of data quality assessment (choice B) is to test the value of the data.PMP® Exam Prep3360019
B Some of the other choices are correct statements but do not answer the question.PMP® Exam Prep3340019
D The process they have used so far is fine except the input of other stakeholders is needed in order to identify more
risks.PMP® Exam Prep3320019
C This is an example of what some people consider to be a question with two right answers. Obviously choice D is not corr
Choices A and B are included in choice C. So choice C is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep3410019
A Risk mitigation reduces either the probability or the impact of negative risk events (threats).PMP® Exam Prep3420019
B All the choices listed except choice B are examples of transference or avoidance.PMP® Exam Prep3420019
A Of all the choices listed in the question risk avoidance is missing. The only choice that relates to risk avoidance is choice
A Choice C was done already as part of risk response planning. All remaining risks that one decides not to do something
about should be documented and revisited later.PMP® Exam Prep3440019
D This question is asking What is a secondary risk? Only choice D provides that answer.PMP® Exam Prep3450019
D The only other factor to help determine risk reserves that would come after risk response strategies would be the
determination of secondary risks.PMP® Exam Prep3450019
D Choice A could be done but it is not a pressing issue based on the situation provided. Choice B could also be done but n
until risk planning is completed. It is always important to carefully complete a project charter choice C but there are other issue
needing detailed attention in this situation so choice C cannot be best. Since this project has never been done before and the
will be a large cost outlay it would be best for the project manager to spend more time on risk management. Risk identification
the most proactive response and would have the greatest positive impact on the project.PMP® Exam Prep3440019
B These are outputs of qualitative risk analysis.PMP® Exam Prep3360019

C These are all completed during quantitative risk analysis.PMP® Exam Prep3370019
D Risk response planning receives input from the risk response owners.PMP® Exam Prep3410019
D Since risk response planning focuses on previously identified risks and risk monitoring and control measures project
performance they do not need to make use of organizational process assets.PMBOK® Guide2390019
A This question relates real-world situations to the risk types. Did you realize that the entire first paragraph is extraneous?
Based on the question you cannot delete the work to avoid it nor can you insure or outsource to transfer the risk. This leaves
acceptance as the only correct choice.PMP® Exam Prep3430019
C A risk rating matrix is developed by a department or a company to provide a standard method for evaluating risks. This
improves the quality of the rating for all projects. It should not be changed (choice A) as this would make it impossible to compa
the risk of one project to another. Therefore choice C is best.PMP® Exam Prep3360019
B Expected monetary value is probability times impact. Take into account all risks including positive ones. The calculation
(0.2 x $30000) + (0.1 x $12000) - (0.25 x $8000).PMP® Exam Prep3380019
D A contingency reserve covers specific project risks - the known unknowns. The calculation is (0.5 x $100000) + (0.3 x
$20000). Therefore the answer is D. It is common practice to add management reserve for unknown unknowns especially whe
there are only two identified risks.PMP® Exam Prep3450019
A The expected monetary value takes into account the probability and the impact. The calculation is (0.2 x 14) + (0.1 x 21)
(0.5 x 14).PMP® Exam Prep3380019
A The expected monetary value takes into account the probability and the impact. The calculation is: (0.05 x 21) + (0.5 x 56
(0.3 x 28) The last part is subtracted because it represents an opportunity and should be balanced against the threat.PMP® Ex
Prep3380019
C Generally project risks are identified after you have the WBS (choice B) the project charter is created (choice D) and be
scope verification. It must happen after each change.PMP® Exam Prep3340019
C Transference is a risk response strategy.PMP® Exam Prep3420019
C Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by EMV = Probability x Impact. We need to compute both positive and
negative values and then sum them. 0.6 x $100 000 = $60 000. 0.4 x ($100 000) = ($40 000). Expected Monetary Value = $60
000 - $40 000 = $20 000 profit.PMP® Exam Prep3381019
C Expected monetary value is computed by multiplying the probability times the impact. In this case EMV = 0.9 x $10000 =
$9000.PMP® Exam Prep3380019
A Remember that the word avoid (choice C) does not mean prevent from happening Rather it means eliminate the cause
Such risks are normally handled by purchasing insurance. Deflect is another word for transfer PMP® Exam Prep3420019
C The quantitative risk analysis process aims to analyze numerically the probability of each risk and its consequence on
project objectives. These risks are then diminished if possible in risk response planning. Here the word may is critical to let you
know that you are in quantitative risk analysis rather than risk response planning.PMP® Exam Prep3370019
B Dont feel too silly. Many people miss this one. No calculation is needed. If there is a 20 percent chance in any one mont
the chance in the fourth month must therefore be 20 percent.PMP® Exam Prep3380019
B Risks change throughout the project. You need to review risks at intervals during the project to ensure that noncritical ris
have not become critical.PMP® Exam Prep3370019
D A decision tree allows you to make an informed decision today based on probability and impact analysis. You can decide
based on the expected monetary value of each of your options.PMP® Exam Prep3400019
D The question asks for the appropriate risk mitigation strategy. The risk described is of such magnitude that choice A wo
not have enough of a clear effect on the risk. Choice B might decrease cost risk but not other types of risks. You might still hav
deaths. Classroom training choice C might also reduce the probability of the risk occurring but it is not the best or most
appropriate choice. Because of the company s safety record and the impact of the risk choice D is the only appropriate
C A risk with a low consequence is generally not worth the money to insure against it or to reduce the consequence.
Therefore choices A and D are not the best. Many people pick choice B however avoid means eliminate the threat by eliminatin
the cause not make sure the risk does not occur. A risk with a low consequence is generally not worth such effort.PMP® Exam
Prep3370019
B This risk must be an opportunity.PMP® Exam Prep3430019
B In qualitative risk analysis the impact and probability of each risk is determined.PMP® Exam Prep3360019
A Did you notice that this risk is an opportunity?PMP® Exam Prep3430019
B A team meeting would not usually include assigning activities (choice C) or estimating (choice D). These would have
already been done during project planning. Reviewing an action item list (choice A) might be important but not as important as
reviewing risks. Action items have less impact on the project than risks.PMP® Exam Prep3481119
A Cost increases (choice B) and contract disputes (choice C) will not necessarily interfere with schedule. Notice the words
post-implementation in choice D. It will not definitely interfere with the project schedule. Choice A is the only one that deals wit
time delay.PMP® Exam Prep1551119
C Lack of an adequate test environment limited testing and likely unavailability of the resource are all risks that should hav
been identified early in the project and for which response strategies should have been developed.PMP® Exam Prep3341019
D The expected monetary value of the first risk is 0.3 x $3 000 000 or $900000. The expected monetary value of the secon
event is 0.3 x –1 600000 or -$480000. The expected monetary value of the third risk is 0.2 x -($1800000 - $500000) or -$26000
The total of all three potential risk events is $900000 - $480000 - $260000 or $160000.PMP® Exam Prep3381019
B A known unknown is a risk that we can identify as possibly happening. Risk identification for a business within the flood
zone of a river should include the possibility of a flood.PMP® Exam Prep3451019
D There is no indication that the two days of training is a problem so choices A and B are not correct. Choice C would not
the best thing to do.PMP® Exam Prep3480019
D Risk can be effectively managed but not completely eliminated.PMP® Exam Prep3410019
C Recollections are less reliable than other documented results.PMP® Exam Prep900012
C The risk is the loss of data due to a power outage. Choice A is not related to mitigating the problem. It transfers the risk
reserve fund (choice B) is acceptance and would help address the cost factors after the power failure but would not reduce the
probability or impact of it. Avoiding the hurricane by scheduling the installation at a different time (choice D) mitigates the powe
outage risk but could have a large negative impact on the project schedule and so is not the best choice. The better choice of t
mitigation options (choices C and D) is to monitor the weather and know when to implement the contingency plan. It is relevant
that this is a two-year project. If the project was shorter choice D may have been a more appropriate choice.PMP® Exam
Prep3420019
A Retainage is the planned withholding of funds under contract.PMP® Exam Prep3420019
C Choice A is wrong. It is certainly true that some form of contracting process (choice B) must be allowed but it is not the
reason the choice would not be effective and there is no conflict of interest in this case (choice D). Understand that not all risk i
transferred using a contract (choice C).PMP® Exam Prep3420019
C Accepting a risk can be passive (what happens happens) or active (creating contingency plans). Choice C is the result o
transference not acceptance.PMP® Exam Prep3430019
C This question includes a lot of things that could be done. Before you read on look again at the choices. The project
manager need not focus on holding more meetings and the team should not solve ALL problems (choice A). Executing the proj
management plan (choice B) is not as proactive as choice C. Sensitivity analysis (choice D) is done during quantitative risk
analysis. Only identifying more risks (choice C) gets to the root cause of the problem.PMP® Exam Prep3491012
B You would need to analyze the problem before you would talk to the sponsor (choice A). You could not mitigate the risk
(choice C) until you qualified the risk. A workaround (choice D) is an unplanned response to risk that is occurring. This risk is
identified not occurring so there is no need to take action by creating a workaround. Qualifying the risk (choice B) will give you
indication of how great the risk is. That information will help you determine how to proceed.PMP® Exam Prep3490019
A Risk is so important that it must be discussed at all team meetings.PMP® Exam Prep3490019
D Since this was an accepted risk nothing was done in planning to diminish the impact of the risk. All of the risks would hav
been communicated to the sponsor. Because of this many people choose to notify the sponsor (choice A). However the first
thing to do would be to see if this changes any other expected impacts making choice D the best choice.PMP® Exam
Prep3490019
C The network diagram shows where activities converge from many activities to one activity or diverge from one activity to
many activities. These are bottlenecks that increase the risk of the central activity.PMP® Exam Prep3311019
A Transference by contract or insurance is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep3420019
B There are many things that the project manager must be doing during this step. However the risk response owners are
ones to take action when an identified risk occurs (choice A) workarounds are not planned (choice C) and risk response owner
are not assigned to identify risks (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep3421019
B The risk management plan (choice B) identifies how risks will be managed on the project.PMP® Exam Prep3320019
A This project has deviated so far from the baseline that updated risk identification and analysis should be performed.PMP
Exam Prep3341019
C This one drove you crazy didnt it? Reread the question! When you look at the ranges of each choice you will see that choice
is ten days choice B is eight days and choice C is seven days. The range of estimates with the smallest range is the least risky
Therefore the answer is C. The words +/- 3 sigma are extraneous. Practice reading questions that are wordy and have extrane
data.PMP® Exam Prep3371019
D Not all questions will be difficult. The level of uncertainty in scope increases based on the scale of effort required to iden
all the scope. For larger projects it is more difficult to catch everything.PMP® Exam Prep3270019
B Risk monitoring and control involves executing the risk response plan in order to respond to risk events over the course
B Because cost increase has already occurred it makes more sense to inform stakeholders of actual events.PMP® Exam
Prep3490019
B The project management plan can be changed as a result of the actions needed to manage risks.PMP® Exam
Prep3500019
A The risk response plan is a living document that will be changed and updated over the life of the project.PMP® Exam
Prep3490019
B Workarounds are unplanned responses to risks that were previously unidentified or accepted.PMP® Exam Prep350001
C Risk management cannot proceed without a prioritized list of risks.PMP® Exam Prep3370019
D First you want to determine what the risk entails and the impact to the project then determine what actions you will take
regarding the risk.PMP® Exam Prep3360019
D The project management plan contains more than just the risk response plan. All the other answers are direct results of
risk management.PMBOK® Guide2390019
A Risk control procedures (choice B) encompass all of risk management not just contingencies. Workarounds (choice C)
their definition are unplanned. Responses can be based on probability analysis or just gut feel so choice D is too narrow an
answer. Thus choice A is the correct answer.PMP® Exam Prep3440019
C This is a recurring theme. First you should evaluate the impact of the change. Next determine options. Then go to
management and the customer.PMP® Exam Prep3360019
C Since the impact of the risk has changed you need to ensure that the response is still appropriate for the situation.PMP®
Exam Prep3490019
C Contingency reserves adress known unknowns and are managed by the project manager versus management reserves
which address unknown unknowns and are managed by senior management.PMP® Exam Prep3450019
B As new risks are identified it is important to repeatedly update your risk management plan including quantifying risks an
developing planned responses as appropriate. At this point you dont have enough information to stop work on the prototype
(choice A) and you cant decide to mitigate a risk (choice C) until you quantify it. A workaround (choice D) is not appropriate
because you have not been impacted by the risk yet.PMP® Exam Prep3491019
D The owner should be looking for triggers and implementing the risk response strategy.PMP® Exam Prep3440019
B The only choice that is part of the same step as risk response planning.PMP® Exam Prep3450019
B The only choice that computes probabilities of events happening on specific days is Monte Carlo analysis.PMP® Exam
Prep3390019
C Risk avoidance removes the risk from the project.PMP® Exam Prep3420019
C As we devise responses to the identified risks we create new risks. These risks are the secondary risks. They are identi
during risk response planning and we must determine whether we will respond to these additional risks.PMP® Exam
Prep3450019
C The risk response owner is assigned to carry out responses and must keep the project manager informed of any
changes.PMP® Exam Prep3440019
B The only source of potential conflict listed here is choice B. The other choices are either wrong (choice C) or are not sour
of conflict.PMP® Exam Prep3500019
A The first choice would be to review the risk. Reserves may or may not be used as in choice D.PMP® Exam Prep3500019
C Choice A is not correct because the events are true events. Choice B is not correct because by definition two events that
mutually exclusive cannot happen on the same trial. Choice D is incorrect because just in time refers to inventory levels. Choic
is correct because statistical independence deals with two events not being linked.PMP® Exam Prep2470016
C Overtime (choice D) is never one of the first options in project management because there are many other ways to hand
such problems. A reserve is designed to cover specific risk events previously identified and measured in the risk management
process. Many people select choice B but reread the question. You would not look for ways to cut 14 days. The expected
monetary value of the new risk event is only 5.6 days (40% x 14 days = 5.6). The only viable choice is C.PMP® Exam
Prep3460019
D Assessment refers to the first few steps of risk management. These steps must be repeated throughout the project
whenever there is a change to the project or a new risk is identified.PMP® Exam Prep3380019
D A workaround refers to determining how to handle a risk that occurs but is not included in the risk register. The project
must be in risk monitoring and control if risks have occurred.PMP® Exam Prep3500019
A There are certain basic things that should go into all contracts; an arbitration (or dispute resolution) clause is one of them
Imagine a situation where you have a dispute but no plan already agreed to in the contract!PMP® Exam Prep39000110
A This is not a core competency of the company. There is time and data for a detailed contract statement of work. In this
case it is better to shift risk to another company.PMP® Exam Prep37310110
C You need experts to assist in creating the terms and conditions of the contract and other experts to finalize the contract
statement of work. These activities are done during plan contracting.PMBOK® Guide27200110
A Remember that the procurement process is more formal and thus requires more formal processes. Ensuring all bidders
receive the same information in writing eliminates the problem of bias in presenting the opportunity.PMP® Exam Prep3850011
B Fixed price contracts are used for well-defined products.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
D Many people read plan contracting as determine what to contract for when it really means create procurement
documents The WBS would have the least impact on the procurement documents. It does impact choices A B and C.PMP®
Exam Prep37800110
D Tools and techniques for plan purchases and acquisitions include make-or-buy analysis expert judgment and contract t
selection making choices A B and C all things that could be done first. Creating terms and conditions of a contract is done dur
plan contracting after plan purchases and acquisitions so choice D is not done first.PMP® Exam Prep37800110
D Of the options given the only contract that limits fees for large projects with limited scope definition is cost plus fixed
fee.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
B Notice that much of this question is irrelevant? Did you also notice that the words make-or-buy decision were not used
the question? Instead the question used the definition of make-or-buy. Watch out for this on the exam. A make-or-buy decision
needed before the rest of the procurement process can occur. It therefore must be one of the earlier steps of the procurement
C Choice C is the only correct response.PMBOK® Guide27200110
C Bidder conferences are held to provide all bidders a clear and common understanding of the work required.PMP® Exam
Prep38500110
C Evaluation criteria are used to rate or score proposals.PMBOK® Guide27200110
A The contract statement of work (choice A) is correct. Procurement documents (choice B) are an output of plan contractin
Proposals (choice C) are an output of request seller responses. Contracts (choice D) are an output of select sellers.PMBOK®
Guide27200110
D The contract statement of work is created during the plan purchases and acquisitions and is an output of that procureme
process.PMBOK® Guide27200110
A The evaluation criteria are created during plan contracting.PMP® Exam Prep37800110
C The evaluation criteria are the primary tools for evaluating potential sellers and should be used by the entire team in ord
to make a selection.PMP® Exam Prep38600110
D The seller creates his proposal during request seller responses but it is not received and reviewed until select
sellers.PMP® Exam Prep38600110
C The project manager should attend the bidder conference so choice A is incorrect. Did you select choice B because th
question referred to a concern about scope? Then read the choice again. It talks about negotiation and negotiation occurs afte
the seller is selected not during the bidder conference. The contract manager usually holds the bidder conference so choice D
incorrect. Choice C describes one of the many challenges of a bidder conference and is therefore the best answer.PMP® Exam
Prep38500110
C Party B is only required to deliver what is defined in the contract.PMP® Exam Prep38900110
C Many people miss the fact that a contract includes a contract statement of work (choice A). To have a contract you mus
also have acceptance (choice B). One set of signatures is not enough; you must have sign-off (i.e acceptance) from both parti
so choice D is only partially correct. The address of the seller (choice C) is not required and therefore is the exception.PMP®
Exam Prep38900110
B In a cost reimbursable contract the buyer pays all costs. If there is a fixed fee added to the contract the buyer pays the
actual costs and the fixed fee $10 000 in this example.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
A One factor in determining the contract type to use is the level of detail in the scope. In this case we have little detail. A fi
price contract (choice C) is not the best due to the high risk to the seller and probable high cost bid. Therefore a cost plus fixed
gives the buyer the freedom to determine what they want while the contract is in process with no contract changes. The risk res
with the buyer.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
B In plan contracting we create the documents that will be sent out during request seller responses. The request for propo
is one of those documents.PMP® Exam Prep37800110
C The make-or-buy decision (choice A) is made in the plan purchases and acquisitions process. We create a request for
proposal in the plan contracting process.PMP® Exam Prep37500110
C Incentives are meant to bring the objectives of the seller in line with those of the buyer. That way both are progressing
toward the same objective.PMP® Exam Prep38100110
B Although you have used this contractor before how can you be sure they are qualified to do the new work since it is no
exactly like the previous work? This is the risk you are taking.PMP® Exam Prep38300110
C As the project manager you know what the project risks are. You need to make sure that provisions are included in the
contract to address these risks.PMP® Exam Prep36700110
A Often the seller is required to inform the buyer of anything that is missing or unclear in the bid documents (choice B). It i
the buyers best interest to discover missing items since it will save the buyer money and trouble to correct the problem early. B
documents must contain terms and conditions and evaluation criteria (choice C) as well as all the work that is to be done
including the contract statement of work (choice D). This is so the seller can price the project and know what is most important
the buyer. Choice A is an important point for the real world and is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep37900110
B This is short duration and a small dollar amount. T&M is a good choice for staff augmentation.PMP® Exam Prep372001
C This is a large effort. No contract statement of work can be developed and expertise cannot be found internally. CPIF
would be an incentive to the vendor to perform on or ahead of schedule.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
D An award fee contract apportions bonus to the seller based on performance
D Performance requirements describe the performance required by the customer not the functionality. They do not precis
describe everything that needs to be done.PMP® Exam Prep37700110
A It is generally better to do the work yourself if using an outside company means you have to turn over proprietary data to
the other company.PMP® Exam Prep37100110
A Terms and conditions should be the result of a risk analysis. This means the project manager has been assigned and ha
completed the risk management process before the contract is drafted. Contracts are risk mitigation tools!PMP® Exam
Prep38000110
A Answering sellers questions (choice B) occurs during request seller responses the contract and RFP (choices C and D
are created during plan contracting.PMP® Exam Prep37000110
A Although a contracting officer works for another department (choice B) that should not account for the situation presente
in this question. Choice C is not correct because the most common situation is the opposite of what is described. Choice D is n
correct because the question is talking about the execution of a contract not its creation.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
AThis is another question about the process of project management. Remember that every project has a product service or res
Some of those could be intangible. The product of the project is created during project executing.PMP® Exam Prep600111
B As a project manager you want to develop a relationship during negotiations that will last throughout the project.PMP®
Exam Prep38700110
D Negotiation occurs during select sellers.PMP® Exam Prep38600110
C Any time that a seller does not perform according to the contract the project manager must take action. The preferred
choice might be to contact the seller and ask what is going on but that choice is not available here. Therefore the best choice
to let him know he is in default (choice C).PMP® Exam Prep38100110
C The key aspect of this situation is that time is of the essence. Therefore the negotiations must be finished as soon as
possible making choice D incorrect. A reserve (choice B) is created based on risks not on negotiation. Negotiations are more
effectively centered on risks to lower the price than on profit margins.PMP® Exam Prep38700110
C The independent estimate is most concerned with cost and comparing cost estimates with in-house estimates or with
outside assistance.PMP® Exam Prep38700110
C Expect many questions on the exam that require you to know in what part of the procurement process activities are
done.PMP® Exam Prep38500110
C Giving a time limit to the negotiation is an example of deadline.PMP® Exam Prep38700110
A Changes in resources used would generally not be part of a fixed price contract.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
B Look again at the question. Ask yourself How many computers does the contract say? Did you read it as twenty? This i
an example of a conflict in the contract. The intent of the contract can be determined by remembering that words are more bind
than numbers. Therefore you should return the five extra computers.PMP® Exam Prep39410110
B The team members should not be requesting deliverables from the seller. However since they did you must pay for the
and review the procedures with the team.PMP® Exam Prep39310110
B This course of action follows both the terms of the contract and general ethical behavior. It also allows the project mana
the most options in mitigating the potential project time and cost impacts.PMP® Exam Prep39210110
B This is a question that looks for your understanding of the term breach and its impact on your project. In this situation
seller has NOT breached the contract; he has not failed to meet a deliverable. It says he is having trouble meeting it. Until a
breach occurs you do not need to take legal action. Therefore choice A would not be the best option. Many people pick choice
but this is not correct because it does not deal with the problem it simply says You must find them anyway Choice D is not
correct since you still need the effort completed and moving into closure will not provide the required deliverable. This leaves
choice B which implies that since the contract has not been breached the best thing to do would be to prevent the breach. You
could help the seller find other resources. They may be found internally or you may have a better understanding of the availab
of resources in your area.PMP® Exam Prep38910110
A A project manager must understand the legal implications of her actions. A contract is a legally binding document. Choic
B involves just making notes. It does nothing to resolve the issue so it cannot be best. There is no reason for the buyer to
terminate (choice C) just because the seller does not want to continue. A signed contract is legally binding. If you selected choi
D first the seller could be taking such action as stopping work removing resources or otherwise negatively impacting the proje
while you are holding the meeting. It is best to first remind the seller that they are legally bound to continue. You could follow up
that action with choice D.PMP® Exam Prep38810110
B Sellers are generally required under contract to keep working unless told otherwise. This rule makes choice B the best
C Choice C is the most proactive in that the project manager begins to take action at the same time that the specifications
are being investigated. Based on the situation described the impact on the project is unknown. Having the seller change their
project management plan (as in choice B or D) will have a definite impact on the project. It is better to investigate first.PMP® Ex
Prep39310110
A Choice C would have been done the first time there was a problem not now. Because this is a small piece of the projec
and you have a low confidence level it would be best to remove the seller from the project.PMP® Exam Prep382 38910110
C This will probably be a force majeure.PMP® Exam Prep38110110
A Did you pick choice C? Remember a project manager does not have the authority to issue change orders but must
request them from the contracting officer. Since nothing in this question relates to changing seller costs choice D would not be
best. Nor can the project manager accept shipments that do not meet the requirements of the contract (choice B). Imagine a
shipment meets the project manager s needs but not the quality specifications or other requirements of the contract. This may
help you understand why choice A is the best.PMP® Exam Prep39310110
C A contract statement of work may be revised and refined as it moves through procurement.PMP® Exam Prep37900110
C Did you notice that the question described change requests not changes from other sources? Each of these change
requests should be weighed to determine the benefits and the impact on the project. The criteria should be laid out in the
procurement and change management plans. There is nothing here to suggest that changes should be made to decrease the c
or schedule (choices A and B). Changes might be approved by a change control board so choice D is not always correct. The
best answer is to approve changes which benefit the project (choice C). For example a change might cause a cost increase or
schedule change but still result in an overall benefit to the quality of the project.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
A Did the issue of cost described in this situation cause you to select choice D? Then you might not realize that a cost
change control system (choice D) applies to the project whereas the contract change control system (choice A) applies to the p
of the project that is contracted. The contract change control system includes a method for controlling cost on the contract.PMP
Exam Prep39200110
CSuch communications must be in writing as they are changes to the contract.PMP® Exam Prep3060018
A This will be a hard question for many people. Generally ANY part of the contract not performed is some kind of breach
the contract. In order to maintain control a letter should be sent. Choice B is incorrect because if it is in the contract you have
already determined that the report is needed. You can rarely suspend payments (choice C) as that would make you in breach o
your contract and make you equally wrong. Choice D might be done after sending a letter but not before. The best answer is
choice A.PMP® Exam Prep38110110
C Choice A is too passive for a project manager. Choice B means replacing the seller. It could be done but would probably
result in a large time delay. Choice D is not ethical if it is done without the consent of the seller. This leaves only choice C.PMP
Exam Prep39200110
A The situation described is probably a force majeure. The appropriate response to a force majeure is to extend the contra
(choice A). If you picked choice B it may have been because you remember that any time the seller does not perform to the
contract a letter should be sent. However this is an exception where it is not the sellers fault. Choice C might be the second
choice. Choice D is not proactive.PMP® Exam Prep38100110
B A time and material contract is usually quick to execute since the contract and scope are brief.PMP® Exam Prep372001
C If it is not in the contract (which includes the specifications a change order is needed to acquire it.PMP® Exam
Prep39300110
C The project manager must be involved to protect the relationship between the company and the seller.PMP® Exam
Prep39200110
B Special provisions take precedence over general provisions.PMP® Exam Prep38000110
C Your company has breached a part of the contract and you will have to suffer the consequences (a claim for additional
time and cost). You must talk to security to determine what it is going to take to get your people access to the property.PMP®
Exam Prep39300110
D This situation is outside your authority to control. You should therefore bring enough information to management that th
can make a determination as to what to do.PMP® Exam Prep39300110
B Although many people select choice D it does not solve the problem of the error. The best thing to do is to evaluate
(choice B). Until that is done you do not know if it is better to obtain new bids (choice A) or to negotiate with the seller (choice
C).PMP® Exam Prep39300110
A Contract documentation includes requested and approved contract changes. A contract change is required to put in plac
the new limits.PMP® Exam Prep39300110
D Choices A B and C will help to reduce changes. Choice D is the only option that causes changes.PMP® Exam
Prep39300110
C This situation illustrates the importance of making sure all deliverables are clearly stated in the contract. Without that cla
one can spend day after day dealing with ambiguity. Choices A and D are not proactive. Choice B is not appropriate if the
component is not in the contract. Only choice C involves evaluating the situation.PMP® Exam Prep37700110
B The first thing you should do is refer to the contract to determine what it states about the diameter of the culvert. Then a
for a change order (choice C) if needed.PMP® Exam Prep37700110
B Choice A would have a cost and lost profit impact on your company. Choice C is not ethical. If you are under contract y
can generally never stop work so choice D is not acceptable. The project manager needs to be proactive in ensuring that
everyone completes his or her activities (including the customer). Since your company is under contract to provide a product y
will need to ensure that your contractual obligations are fulfilled. In contract situations it is best to follow up serious verbal
discussions with a letter (choice B).PMP® Exam Prep38900110
D The key to answering this question is to understand that this is a severe situation with many problems?so many problem
that it is clear the contract is not serving either party. Meeting with the customer (choice A) has already been done. Choice B is
a long-term solution and choice C (saving time) does not address the problem of unclear scope. This is why it is best to start a
over (yes this happens in the real world) rather than the other choices. When a contract no longer serves the needs it was
intended to serve it can be renegotiated if the appropriate parties agree to this. D is the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep3830011
D You always need to follow the change control process. You cannot arbitrarily decide to refuse to pay claims. Reserves
should be used for identified risks and not used arbitrarily.PMP® Exam Prep39300110
A Only a work authorization system helps with integrating work packages into a whole. A work authorization system helps
ensure that work is done at the right time and in the right sequence.PMP® Exam Prep950012
D A breach of contract occurs when part of the contract is not performed. In this example the breach is the lack of monthly
acceptance tests.PMP® Exam Prep38100110
B Choices A C and D are all advantages of decentralized contracting. With centralizing contracting you increase the
companys expertise in contracting allowing individuals to learn from each other.PMP® Exam Prep36900110
A If the seller goes bankrupt you will no longer have a source for that material. You must deal with this risk.PMP® Exam
Prep38400110
A Recognize that the contract administrator has power regarding the contract while the project manager needs to look ou
the specific needs of the project. This will cause conflict when the projects needs change and the administrator doesnt want to
make changes.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
D This is an example of privity. Because Companies A and C have no legal relationship Company A cannot direct Compa
C. The smart thing to do is for the project manager of Company A to call the project manager from Company B and have him
communicate the directive from Company A.PMP® Exam Prep3820018
A Procurement is a very formal process. Changes need to be fully documented and signed by both parties.PMP® Exam
Prep38900110
C Choices A and B deal with roles and responsibilities and communications. Choice D prevents misinterpretations and
therefore has value. Choice C could be done by the team themselves on some projects and may not be necessary.PMP® Exa
Prep38900110
B The only way to change the cost plus fixed fee contract is to negotiate a change to the contract normally in the form of
change orders. Change orders should include an additional fee if additional work is added to the contract.PMP® Exam
Prep37200110
C Once signed a contract is binding. Generally the inability to perform get financing or one partys belief that the contract
null and void does not change the fact that the contract is binding. If however both sides agree to terminate the contract the
contract can move into closure and it is considered completed.PMP® Exam Prep38900110
A Setting a specific time to end negotiations is using the deadline technique.PMP® Exam Prep38700110
D You will see long wordy questions consisting of many paragraphs on the exam but do not let them worry you. Sometim
the briefer questions are harder. To answer this question you need to know what a record management system is and that it
would not be used to keep track of negotiations. The negotiation process is not a document.PMP® Exam Prep39300110
A If you had trouble with this one you might remember that the questions are asked from the buyers perspective unless
otherwise noted. In this case the seller has the most cost risk and the buyers risk is lower.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
B Profit is factored into the hourly rate. Therefore profit is increased for each hour worked. If many hours are used profit c
be higher than a fixed bid contract.PMP® Exam Prep37500110
A To the seller it is known but this question is from the buyers perspective. You do not know what profit the seller include
the contract.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
C Since there can be changes in any form of contract choice A is not the best answer. There are always good ideas
(changes) that can add benefit to the project so choice B cannot be the best answer. In choice D the word eliminate implies t
changes will not occur. As that is not true this cannot be the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
D You need to find out if there are already change control plans and procedures in place. If so you will want to use them
rather than creating your own.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
A Notice that choice B is really saying halt ALL payments Halting all payments would be a breach of contract on the buye
part. Choice C is too severe and cannot be done unilaterally. Choice D does not solve the problem presented. A choice that sa
Halt payments on the disputed amount would probably be the best answer but it is not offered. The best answer is A.PMP®
Exam Prep38200110
B Choice B does not refer to nonpayment of all payments due. It could refer to nonpayment of smaller payments. But wait
why even look at it this way? Generally only the buyer can terminate a contract. Why would the buyer terminate if they are the
ones who are paying?PMP® Exam Prep38200110
A Choices B and C can help you identify risks. Weaknesses in seller procedures (choice D) can affect the project. Review
the sellers procedure will help you determine where you should spend more time managing. Choice A should have been
evaluated if it is important at all before the seller was selected. If the color was not acceptable it is likely the project requireme
were adjusted.PMP® Exam Prep38600110
A Centralized contracting usually means harder access and less loyalty. The contracting officers can return to their
department when they are not working on the project so no home does not apply.PMP® Exam Prep36900110
C In this case the other side is getting ready to leave or withdrawing from the negotiations.PMP® Exam Prep38800110
C When you must begin work immediately without a contract statement of work the most appropriate choice is time and
material.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
C Both systems include procedures so choice A is not correct. A contract control system requires more not less
documentation so choice D is not correct. A trend analysis (choice B) is not usually part of either system. This leaves only cho
C. Contracts are legal documents and therefore generally require more sign-offs.PMP® Exam Prep39300110
C The form of the deliverables for a specific portion of the project should have been reviewed and clarified during the plan
purchases and acquisitions process.PMP® Exam Prep37710110
B Here we are tying together the concepts of standard deviation and contracts. Using the concept of standard deviation w
find that the cost of this project will vary at one standard deviation from $1.8M to $2.2M. Since this is not insignificant there
would appear to be some ambiguity with the project definition. As we are not totally sure of the scope we would not pick a fixed
price option (choice A or C). Of the two CR options you need to select the better of the two. Cost plus percentage of costs (cho
D) is probably the worst type of contract to use as there is no incentive for the seller to control costs. This leaves only choice B
cost plus fixed fee contract.PMP® Exam Prep37210110
A This question deals with a make-or-buy decision. Since this project involves an important project for the company key
aspects of it should be retained in-house. Therefore an ad hoc basis (choice D) is not appropriate nor is completely using outsi
services (choice C). In this case the development work (choice B) would be done in-house as the company has expertise. Only
choice A is viable.PMP® Exam Prep2791017
A Performance is compared against the project management plan or the project baselines.PMP® Exam Prep950012
C If you follow the proper project management process you ALWAYS have good definition of scope (choice A). In this
situation you are in a time crunch. Both good scope definition and incentives are required to make it happen. Which provides t
better answer? Along with good scope definition you need the seller to feel your need for speed. Incentives bring the sellers
objectives in line with the buyers and thus would be the MOST helpful. Good scope definition alone does not ensure speed.PM
Exam Prep37600110
D During request seller responses you normally answer questions submitted by the sellers. Risk identification (choice A)
done before the procurement process begins as procurement is a risk mitigation and transference tool. Submittals (choice B) i
another name for deliverables that are sent during contract administration. Contract changes (choice C) may be made in select
sellers and contract administration.PMP® Exam Prep38500110
A In a fixed price contract the seller has the cost risk and therefore wants to completely understand the contract statemen
work before bidding.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
B Due to the lack of detailed scope you should not select a fixed price contract (choice A). Because the buyer wants to be
full control the time and material contract (choice B) is the best option.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
D The time and material contract is the easiest to negotiate and allows for rapid turnaround. If you didnt have the time
constraint you would select a fixed price contract.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
B The most important issue is the level of detail in the contract statement of work. If you have a design contract statement
work a fixed bid contract is possible. Without this level of detail the risk is high for the seller and thus the price is higher.PMP®
Exam Prep37100110
D The product of the project is completed at the end of the project.PMP® Exam Prep39500110
B A procurement audit is essentially a lessons learned. Since all work and closure activities are completed any results wil
not change the status of the project from being complete.PMP® Exam Prep39500110
B Did you choose A? You missed the point. Your company needs to be able to gain expertise. That cannot be well done u
the project is completed. The question is saying that the company gets large value in finishing. Perhaps they can sell the finishe
product to someone else? Based on what is described completing the project (choice B) will meet your company objectives an
gain you the expertise you need if the client agrees and proprietarty client data is not require to complete the work. The second
best choice is to move to closure (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep39510110
C If the seller completes the work specified in the contract statement of work the contract is considered complete. That do
not mean the same thing as contract closed. Contract closure must still occur. However in this situation the contract work is
completed. Tricky!PMP® Exam Prep39510110
AIf it was possible and effective to hire two sellers to do the work it would already have been part of the plan.The other choices
given the specifics of the situation could help.PMP® Exam Prep39300010
C Terminating a contract puts it into the project closure.PMP® Exam Prep39400110
D Only with formal acceptance can the project manager be sure the project work is really complete.PMP® Exam
Prep1330012
D A procurement audit is a structured review that would flush out issues and identify lessons learned.PMP® Exam
Prep39500110
C Archiving and documenting lessons learned are part of administrative closure.PMP® Exam Prep39500110
C The normal response to a force majeure is to give an extension of time (choice D ) not to terminate. However this force
majeure seems to have had such an impact that the construction company cannot go on.PMP® Exam Prep39400110
BAdministrative closure is performed at the end of each phase of the project. Outputs are consistent regardless of the
phase.PMP® Exam Prep3950012
C This question is asking for the output of the procurement process as a whole not an output of the pieces within the
process. The procurement process should lead toward formal acceptance of the product of the project making choice C the be
choice. Be careful to properly read questions on the exam!PMP® Exam Prep39600110
D A customers meeting minutes have no impact on disputes that arise; therefore they are not required.PMP® Exam
Prep39300110
C Remember that PMIs definition of an audit is different. According to PMI audits are used to improve the processes.PMP
Exam Prep39500110
A The customer signed for the work specified in the contract. If that work is complete they may not add scope unless the
formal change management process approves the change. At this late date it would be better to complete this contract and be
a new one.PMP® Exam Prep39500110
D You could deduct the cost of the deliverable (choice A) but the situation does not say that you have been invoiced for the
costs. It may not be within the project manager s area of control to simply cut the deliverable (choice B). If you did not need it i
should not have been in the contract. However if it were to be deleted there should be a corresponding decrease in cost time
etc. The best choice that upholds the contract is to require that the deliverable be completed (choice D).PMP® Exam
Prep39500110
C Quality is defined as conformance to requirements. If inspection work is not performed as required in the contract you a
not meeting the projects quality standards.PMP® Exam Prep39500110
A You must follow the contract in handling a dispute situation. It is the only way to legally conclude the contract.PMP® Exa
Prep39500110
B This is a change to the contract. Procedures are the same as work. If the work changes a change order should be
issued.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
D If the contract is terminated the project needs to enter closure. You need those results for historical purposes.PMP® Ex
Prep39500110
A Kickoff meetings (choice B) occur during project planning. Quality assurance (choice C) occurs during project executing. A
scope verification plan (choice D) is created earlier in the project and used during project monitoring and controlling not closing
types of closure must make sure that the actual product of the project meets the requirements for the product. Therefore choice
is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep107 3950012
D A procurement audit includes what went right and wrong for the purposes of creating historical records and improving
future performance.PMP® Exam Prep39500110
C Many people do not close out a project properly. Choice C includes the components of choices A B and D and is theref
the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep39500110
B Though a reserve might be decreased for the project overall when one of its contracts enters closure the risk rating of t
project (choice A) may not be affected. Choice C should have been done during select sellers. Although choice D may be a
concern during contract administration it is not common during closure. Choice B audit sellers cost submittals is part of the
procurement audit and is a required aspect of contract closure.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
A A question like this is really asking for the purpose of the tool or action. You can answer it if you understand the tool or
action.PMP® Exam Prep39500110
C Iterations (choice B) cannot begin until the risks are identified qualified quantified and responses developed. These the
create the need to revise the WBS and other parts of the project management plan. A bar chart (choice D) would have been do
during the creation of the schedule so it cannot be the next thing. Communications requirements (choice C) and quality standa
are needed before risks (especially risks relating to communications and quality) can be determined (choice A).PMP® Exam
Prep390011
CBecause a project done in a matrix organization involves people from across the organization communications are more
complex.PMP® Exam Prep280011
BIn a functional organization the functional manager is the team members boss and probably also the project managers
boss.PMP® Exam Prep300011
A In a projectized organization the entire company is organized by projects giving the project manager the most power.PM
Exam Prep280011
execution.develop project charter.schedule development.BApproved corrective action is an output not an input of most of the
control functions (choice A). It cannot occur before the project management plan is developed (choices C and D).PMP® Exam
Prep960012
A Choice C is not generally true. The WBS is not only needed in order to have a contract every project must have a WBS.
Risks can be identified using various methods. Therefore choice D is an incorrect statement and not the best answer. Choice A
preventing work from being forgotten (slipping through the cracks) is ONE of the reasons the tool is used.PMP® Exam
Prep1290013
C The project scope statement (choice A) describes work on a high-level basis. Work packages need to be specific to
enable team members to complete their work with less gold plating. The product scope (choice B) would not tell team members
what work is assigned to them. The team should have a copy of the schedule (choice D) but a schedule will not show them wha
work is included in each of their work packages. Work packages are described in the WBS dictionary (choice C). NOTE: Do no
think of the WBS dictionary as a dictionary of terms.PMP® Exam Prep1320013
C Choice A is not best as the standard deviation tells you the amount of uncertainty or risk involved in the estimate for the
activity. An estimate can have a wide range (choice B) and still be accurate if the item estimated includes risks. Choice D cann
be the best answer since there is no such thing as a pad in project management. An estimate might be inflated but it is becaus
risks not padding.PMP® Exam Prep1580014
C This is another question that asks about problem solving. Only choice C relates to evaluate. Choices B and D do not tr
solve the real problem. Choice A is just an untrue statement.PMP® Exam Prep1730014
A You need to draw a network diagram for this question. The diagram has two paths: Start 1 2 3 End and Start 1 4 End. T
length of the first path is 10 and the second is nine making the first path critical and the duration of the critical path 10. Notice th
almost every other answer someone could pick is also listed?PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
B You need to draw a network diagram for this question. This diagram has two paths: Start?1?2?3?End and Start?1?4?En
The original length of the first path is 10 and the second is 9 making the first path critical and the length of the critical path 10. I
Activity 4 now takes 10 weeks instead of 8 the critical path would change to Start?1?4?End and be 11 weeks long.PMP® Exam
Prep158 - 1700014
C When you look at earned value many of the terms have similar definitions. This could get you into trouble. Since EAC
means the estimate at completion choice C is the best answer. Choice D is the definition of ETC estimate to complete.PMP®
Exam Prep2070015
C The key to this question is the phrase \ constant number used each month.\ Only leveling choice C has such an effect o
the schedule.PMP® Exam Prep1790014
B Asking percent complete is not a best practice since it is usually a guess. Often the easiest work is done first on a projec
throwing off any percentage calculations of work remaining. It may be a good thing to use the 50/50 rule as in choice C. Howev
the 50/50 rule is not necessarily included in the progress report and the second part of the sentence is incorrect. The life cycle
cost cannot be lower than the project cost as the life cycle cost includes the project cost. Choice D is often done by inexperienc
project managers who know of nothing else. Not only does it provide little information but also it cannot be used to predict the
future. Choice B is the best answer since it looks at the past uses this information to estimate future costs.PMP® Exam
Prep2060015
C A Pareto chart (choice A) might help the project manager decide which problems to focus on but does little to find the ro
cause of problems. Though the project is troubled there is nothing to use conflict resolution techniques with (choice B) because
the real problem has not been identified. Trend analysis (choice D) does not deal with root causes; it deals more with predicting
the future. The best choice is C.PMP® Exam Prep2480016
D Benefit cost analysis (choice D) is done earlier in the project to help select between alternatives. All the other choices ar
done during closing. Therefore choice D must be the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep390012
B Look at the wording of the choices and you will see that this question is talking about a contract situation. To find the be
answer think about the rules for contract closure. Choice A seems like a good choice until you remember the importance of get
acceptance in writing (formal acceptance). Making sure the customer is satisfied is certainly a good thing but that satisfaction m
turn into formal acceptance in order for a contract to be closed out. Therefore choice C cannot be best. Choice D cannot be the
best choice as it does not include formal acceptance required to close a contract. Each project is different and may have differe
requirements for closure. Lien waivers export certificates warranty and guarantee information might need to be received before
contract can be closed. These unique needs of the project would be included in the contract making B the best choice.PMP®
Exam Prep1070012
A As a general rule one cannot say that quality (as defined in the question) is either of high or low cost (choices B and C) o
that it provides the minimum price (choice D). It does give the customer what the customer wanted which may not be the lowes
highest cost. Therefore the best answer is A.PMP® Exam Prep2370016
C The key phrase here is will be used. The team is looking to the future of what quality will be on the project and therefor
must be in quality planning choice C.PMP® Exam Prep2480016
B Choice A is done as part of quality control. Choices C and D are done as part of quality planning or control (depending o
how they are used). This leaves only choice B which must be the best answer as process analysis IS part of quality assurance.
Watch out for double-negative questions like this on the exam!PMP® Exam Prep2440016
BNotice that the choices for this question include the definitions for many of the control tools. Such questions can easily confus
you if you do not remember why you use each of the tools. Choice A refers to the function of a Pareto chart. Choices C and D
refer to the many responsibility charts and therefore cannot be the best answers.PMP® Exam Prep2480006
DIn a matrix organization each team member reports to the project manager and the functional manager. Team members may
therefore be worried about choices A B and C. Since the same fringe benefits are given to all employees no matter what work t
do choice D is the exception.PMP® Exam Prep300011
B This is a tricky question. Risks are identified during risk identification naturally but newly emerging risks are identified in r
monitoring and control.PMP® Exam Prep3340019
D A change to the project charter is not always necessary. In fact a change to the charter is a fundamental change to the
project and may require a major adjustment to all aspects of the project management plan. There are many reasons the other
choices could happen as a result of risk. Since a contract can only be created after risks are known (a contract is a tool to trans
risks) it is common sense that choice A cannot be the exception.The project management plan (choice B) could change to inclu
a modified WBS and new work packages related to mitigating risk. The communications management plan (choice C) could
change as a way to address a risk. Choice D is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep3420019
A Risks are identified (choice B) during risk identification and risk monitoring and control. Prioritized risks (choice C) are
documented during qualitative and quantitative risk analysis. Impacts (choice D) are generally determined during quantitative ri
analysis. The best answer is A.PMP® Exam Prep3440019
D The seller does not have the choice to start over. The contract that exists is binding. Both parties could agree to start ove
but this is a drastic step.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
D A project control system (choice D) is set up during the planning process group not during project executing. Did choice
confuse you? A WBS is created in project planning but can be used to help manage the project during project executing. The
wording here was not creating the WBS but using the WBS. PMP® Exam Prep960012
A How long did it take you to read this question? Expect long-winded questions on the exam. Take another look at the
choices before you continue reading. Did you notice that each of the choices occurs during a different part of the project
management process? This question is essentially asking if the new work should be added to the existing project. There may b
many business reasons to try to do this but from a project management perspective major additions to the project are generally
discouraged. In this case the question is trying to imply that the new work is a self-contained unit of work has no overlap with th
existing work and needs a different skill set. Therefore it is generally best to make it a new project. The first step to answering t
question is to realize that the work should be a separate project. The second step is to look at the choices and see which relate
to initiating a new project. Choice D is done during project executing. Choice C is done during project monitoring and controlling
Choice B sounds like the best choice but only if you did not realize that the new work should be a separate project. The key wo
are develop the preliminary project scope statement. Such work is only done during project initiating.PMP® Exam Prep21001
C This is one of the two-stage questions you will find on the exam. First you need to draw the network diagram and find th
critical path then make a decision. The diagram has four paths: Start-A A-D D-End = 12 Start-B B-E E-End = 12 Start-C C-F F
End = 11 Start-C C-E E-End = 15 The critical path is 15 (Start-C C-E E-End) and runs across the dummy (yes that can happen
Without any other information to suggest another alterative it is best to try to shorten the longest activity on the critical path
activity E-End (choice C). You may have selected activity A-D (choice B) because it is the longest activity but notice that
shortening it will not change the length of the project. You may not have understood a dummy and tried to look for the longest p
that does not include a dummy. If you did you would have found that Start-B B-E E-End and Start-A A-D D-End are the sam
length.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
C This is a professional and social responsibility/procurement/cost question. The situation described involves a claim. The
best thing to do would be to get supporting information to find out what happened and take corrective action for the future. Afte
choice C and negotiation choice A would most likely occur. Choice D is unethical. Choice B is a meeting with YOUR managem
and should not occur until you have all the information.PMP® Exam Prep1970015
A This is one of those questions that combines topics from various knowledge areas. Did you fall into the trap of calculating
the float for Z? The amount of float for one activity and the number of stakeholders does not tell you anything in this case so
choices B and D cannot be the best answers. The CPI is greater than one and the SPI is less than one. Therefore the thing to b
most worried about would be schedule.PMP® Exam Prep2070015
B A project manager must be more in control of the project than choices C and D reflect. Choice A is a common error man
project managers make. Instead the project manager should be controlling the project throughout the completion of the
project.PMP® Exam Prep1810012
DThough all the choices seem like good ideas there is only one best. Usually these questions can be reworded to What do you
do next? Integrating (choice B) is a great idea but not all projects have another project with which to integrate. The project
manager cannot move on (choice C) until the project is actually completed. That means that administrative closure must occur.
The only choice that relates to administrative closure is choice D. Once administrative closure is done then throw a party!PMP®
Exam Prep1070012
AQuestions like this can drive one crazy. Although it asks for the most important thing there are many choices that are reasona
correct. In questions like this look for the most immediate need. In this case the team member is in a manufacturing environme
That means that communications will most likely be blocked by noise. In order to have the issue at hand taken care of the
communication it is best for the project manager to use choice A.PMP® Exam Prep3130018
B When a new risk is identified it should go through the risk management process. Choice A cannot be the best choice as
you first need to determine the probability and impact of the risk and then try to diminish impact through risk response planning
Only after these efforts should you add reserves. Choice C addresses only costs when there could also be a time impact. This
choice also ignores risk response planning work. Choice D cannot be the best choice because it is better to determine reserves
based on a detailed analysis of risk. Therefore the best choice is B.PMP® Exam Prep3380019
A Choice B cannot be correct since the customer may be involved in lessons learned and procurement audits and would
certainly be involved in formal acceptance. Choice C cannot be correct since both contract closure and administrative closure
involve the return of property. Contract closure is done only once at the end of the contract so choice D cannot be correct.
Choice A is correct because contracts are closed out before the project is closed out with administrative closure.PMP® Exam
Prep39500110
A Estimates should be done by those doing the work whenever possible therefore choice B is not correct. Historical
information is not too old (choice C) to use in estimating nor is the critical path taken into account (choice D) when an activity is
first estimated. It is important to realize that proper estimating is done in a range in order to increase the accuracy of the
estimate.PMP® Exam Prep1540014
B Though all of these choices are correct things to do the question asks what to do first. What is the most immediate
problem? Isnt it most urgent to find out whether the concrete footings meet your project requirements? Choice A could be done
but it does not address the immediate concern. Choice C is excellent and is something many project managers might never thi
of doing. However it does not address the immediate problem. Choice D is also not taking action to solve the problem. Are the
concrete footings adequate? Only choice B will help you answer that.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
C This question has many right answers. Choice A cannot be best because the team does not need to include anyone fro
senior management. Having a quality representative (choice B) could be a good idea but you do not know if there is a quality
department in this company. It is possible that the project manager or some other team member could have responsibility for
quality depending on the needs of the project. It is always a good idea to do team building (choice D) but of all the choices is th
one best? No. Without doing choice C the project could be severely impacted where it would probably be only slightly impacted
because of a lack of team building (remember that they have already done some and the team is working well together). Choic
is something a lot of people forget. The project must take into account what will happen after the project is completed. This mea
that the cost of maintaining the product must be considered as part of the project. The impact of not doing this is the greatest a
is thus the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep2000015
CThis question is asking for the most important of the choices. Think about what is involved in integration ? project manageme
plan development project management plan execution and integrated change control. In order to integrate the project compone
into a cohesive whole (integration) communication is key when one activity will interface with another one team member will
interface with another and any other form of interfacing. Choices B and D are only parts of the monitoring and controlling proce
group while integration includes more than control. Choice A falls under project management plan execution.PMP® Exam
Prep850012
A Integration is a key responsibility of the project manager so choice A is the best answer.PMP® Exam Prep850012
DYou may not understand this question until you review the book PMP Exam Prep. Come back to it. This question tries to
integrate a lot of information and test your ability to discern what information is relevant to the question. Though some figures to
calculate float are provided (choice A) there is no information to say that the float is a problem. Most projects have hard-to-get
resources (choice B). The question does not give an indication that having hard-to-get resources is a problem. CPI (choice C) i
greater than one so cost is not something to worry about. SPI is less than one so choice D is the best answer.PMP® Exam
Prep2060012
A This question tests your knowledge about a number of topics. There can often be more than one critical path (choice B)
you might adjust to decrease risk and have only one critical path. Choice C uses the word will. The network diagram may cha
or it may not depending on the amount of schedule reserve and the reason for the change to the schedule. You can have nega
float (choice D) if you are behind schedule. Only choice A is correct.PMP® Exam Prep1720014
A It can be confusing to differentiate earned value terms from each other. The definition presented here is for EV or earne
value so choice A is the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep2060015
D It is the sponsors role to prevent unnecessary changes and to set priorities between projects. The situation described in
this question implies that such work is not being done and the project manager must therefore go to the root of the problem; the
sponsor.PMP® Exam Prep2670017
D The work breakdown structure allows communication vertically and horizontally within the organization as well as outsid
AThe project status needs to be known by many people. Therefore it is best to make this type of communication in writing so th
it can be transmitted to many people. It is also formal in that it is an official report of the project. Therefore choice A is the best
ANotice how choices B and C contain some statements that are true as well as some that are not. In choice B the WBS makes
use of the knowledge gained while creating the product description is true but the product description is an input to initiating
making choice B not the best answer. In choice C the statement that The communications management plan is included in the
project management plan is true but the WBS is created after the project charter. Again not a completely correct choice. The
product description contains the customers requirements not the sponsors so choice D cannot be best. Choice A is a correct
statement.PMP® Exam Prep550011
C Since one needs to have a product description before one can do product analysis choice A cannot be best. Choice B is
related to quality planning. Choice D is quality assurance.PMP® Exam Prep1260013
C Why choice C you might ask? Think about which choice has the least impact on the project and the company. Choices
and D will have negative impacts on the project. In addition they require outside approval. Choice B is never a good first option
The choice states that the project will be late. In reality the project manager still has time to get the project back on track. Cho
C is entirely within the project managers control and does not generally require outside approval. Watch out for questions that a
you to pick what to do when there is a change.PMP® Exam Prep1721014
B It is best to compress the schedule using all the resources you have before asking for additional resources therefore cho
B must be best. Choices C and D are not correct first options. Choice A is a good rule of meetings but nothing in the question
should lead you to believe that this was not done.PMP® Exam Prep1700014
B Quality improvements are not a tool of perform quality assurance so choice A cannot be best. They are identified through
measurement and analysis in additional to experience (choice C). Quality improvements can come from more than the custome
and the project manager (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep2440016
C There are many pieces of data in this question that are distracters from the real issue. Though it is common to have to
costs (choice A) and add resources to a project (choice D) nothing in the question should lead you to think these will be require
this situation. Customers do not generally approve the project scope (what you are going to do to complete their requirements)
instead they approve the product scope (their requirements) so choice B cannot be best. Since the requirements are a measur
the completion of the product of the project (choice C) not having completed requirements makes such measurement impossib
This is why choice C is the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep1260013
B Since a project manager should deal with a problem rather than passing it off to someone else choice A would not be
best. Choice C should not be necessary unless the reserve referenced in choice B is used up and more will not be authorized b
the change control board. Choice D cannot be best since a lower priority project is not likely to be assigned more resources.PM
Exam Prep3450019
C This question has many distracters. Choice D could not be best because there is no indication that the agenda was
inadequate. The situation does not indicate that the boss was not aware of the situation (choice B). He could have been aware
the problem of schedule delay and still based on the situation done the same thing. Why? The project manager did not correctl
interpret the magnitude of the customers anger and did not correctly receive the communication. The problem was that the
customer was angry and it was a bad communication choice to try to explain why the schedule was delayed. It might be best to
withdraw. The customer was not ready to listen. After withdrawal it would be best to review the change control system because
is obvious something was missed in communicating changes and their effect on the customer.PMP® Exam Prep3120018
BThe range for the order of magnitude estimate in choice A is not correct. Looking again at the procurement process will tell yo
that choice C cannot be best. Did you choose D? Notice how it is partially correct: Cost estimates are best created by the pers
doing the work but also partly wrong: the detailed project cost budget is created by management. The detailed budget is crea
by the project manager with input from the team so this cannot be best. Choice B is best. Notice the difference between quality
assurance and scope verification.PMP® Exam Prep2440012
B A project manager should be looking at where changes are coming from and doing whatever is necessary to limit the
negative effects of change on the project. He needs to find the root case so future changes may be avoided.PMP® Exam
Prep950012
C One could do choice A but there is no reason to think that the boards rejection would not contain an explanation already
since providing that information is commonly done. Suggesting that a change process that circumvents the change control boa
authority will be followed (choice B) would not be ethical. There is no reason to think that approval processes are not already in
place (choice D). A rejected change should be recorded for historical purposes in case the idea is resurrected later and for othe
reasons.PMP® Exam Prep1040013
B Integrated change control includes looking for impacts to cost (choice A). Submitting the change to the change control
board (choice C) would have been done before the baselines and plans were adjusted. Adjusting the project management plan
(choice D) implies that the work breakdown structure would have been updated as well. Many people forget to notify stakehold
of changes and how the changes will affect them. Choice B is important and the best answer here.PMP® Exam Prep1350013
B One of the ways to check if a change should be approved is to determine whether the work falls within the project chart
If not it should be rejected assigned to a more appropriate project or addressed as a project of its own.PMP® Exam Prep89001
C First notice that this question is asking about work that needs to be completed. A dummy involves no work and should
therefore not be included in the answer. For this reason choice A cannot be correct. Also notice that this is an activity-on-arrow
diagram (illustrated by identifying an activity using two names (e.g. Start-A). Only choices A and C use the correct format of
identifying activities on an activity-on-arrow diagram so B and D are not correct answers. Choice C is the best answer.PMP®
Exam Prep158 - 1700014
C Did you notice that there is more than one correct answer? Dont you hate that? What makes choice C better than the
other choices is that it deals with the immediate problem at hand. Before trying to decrease time it would be best to know how
much time you need to decrease. Performing choice C will tell you time impact and thus allow you to determine D. Choice C
comes before choice D.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
D Outputs of administrative closure include archives lessons learned and project closure. However some project resource
(people computers telephones) must be used to perform these activities. Once completed the project can release its resources
Therefore choice D is best.PMP® Exam Prep720012
B Notice how the choices are similar to each other? Simply look at the first part of each choice scope control focuses on ?
and see which of the two versions of the first part of the statement is correct. This then eliminates choices A and D. Then read
second part of each choice. Only choice B is completely correct. Choice C is partially correct and partially incorrect.PMP® Exam
Prep101 1350012
C Since risk responses are not created during risk management planning choice A cannot be best. An unknown risk (choi
B) is more properly handled with a workaround than additional risk responses. A risk that will reoccur (choice D) would not requ
additional responses. Any time that a risks impact is greater than planned requires rethinking and that awful recordkeeping that
goes with project management making choice C the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep3490019
A The number of risks identified (choice B) is dependent on the project so choice B cannot be the best. There is a belief th
a project management plan should be complete before starting work (choice C) but there are no standards that say it should be
percent complete or any other such number. That would also depend on the project. Milestones (choice D) might be a helpful
control tool but they are not used to help plan the project to the project charter. This statement makes no sense. Since the
project is lower priority it would be wise to limit control activities to the needs of the project making choice A the best choice.PM
Exam Prep970012
A Since a project control system is created during planning choice B cannot be best. Though choice C may be a correct
statement there is nothing in the situation described or in standard project management practice that would say taking a holida
would be a problem with contracts. Team meetings (choice D) are scheduled as needed by the project and frequency is
determined during project planning. Why is choice A correct? The project manager should understand reasons that a project ca
be under budget so he can determine when to take action and what action to take.PMP® Exam Prep2060015
A You should ask yourself which of the choices would be interepreted to mean that work was not done. A schedule
performance index (SPI) of less than 1 could mean that work was not done but there could be other reasons. When you combin
cost and schedule you can clearly see that the reason the project has progressed more slowly than planned is probably due to
work not getting done. This makes choice A the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep2061015
A Adding more people (choice B) would increase cost. Since there is a less costly solution this would not be the best choic
Many project managers make the mistake of just adding meetings (choice C) but there is usually a more effective and less cos
use of time. Though phases (choices D) would help these are usually larger pieces than milestones. Did you know that adding
milestones (choice A) is a control feature? If a milestone is completed on time and on budget the project manager has some
measure of the status of the project.PMP® Exam Prep1490012
A Remember that for variances negative is bad. In this situation both the variances are negative. To answer the question fi
look for which one of the four choices exhibits negative variances for both cost and schedule. Choice B exhibits negative varian
for cost and positive variance for schedule. Choice C exhibits positive variance for cost and negative variance for schedule.
Choice D exhibits positive variances for both. Only choice A exhibits both cost and schedule variances as negative.PMP® Exam
Prep2070015
A Did you notice that many of the choices here misuse terms? A near-critical path is one close in length to the actual critic
path. If it were to have less float it would delay the project so choice B is not best. A delay in an activity that is on the critical pa
(choice C) will generally delay the project. A mandatory dependency (choice D) is one that requires an activity to be done befor
or after another activity. An activity with free float can be rescheduled without impacting the rest of the project making A the bes
B Since an activity with float will not affect the project duration as long as any delay is not greater than the float choice A
could not be best. Choice C cannot be best as this situation is not related to scope just time. An activity with free float means it
has time where it can be delayed without impacting the next activity. Therefore choice D cannot be best. Any delay in when an
activity is to be completed will most likely impact resources.PMP® Exam Prep1590014
D Choices A and B are not best as they are not assertive enough actions for proper project management. If you picked one
these be wary you might need more project management training. Choice C says go to the customer before you go to
management which is inappropriate. This leaves choice D.PMP® Exam Prep1030012
A Think of what you would do in the real world. Many project managers just ask for more resources or more time (choices
and C) a sign they need better project management knowledge. Adding resources will add cost. Selecting choice D shows that
you need a better understanding of project management because this should be the last choice. Compressing the schedule let
you get more done with the resources and time that you already have on the project. It is almost always the first thing to do whe
there is a delay generated from within the project. Asking for an extension of time is generally the best thing to do only when
scope is added to the project.PMP® Exam Prep1720014
A One must evaluate before making a decision (choice A). Even if dealing with the problem was not within the project
managers authority it is still her job to do the evaluation. This is also why choices B and C are not the best choices. They come
after evaluation. Contingency reserves (choice D) are to be used to accommodate the risks previously identified so that cannot
best.PMP® Exam Prep1820014
CFast tracking the project adds risk as more activities are done in parallel.PMP® Exam Prep1730012
B A fulltime team member who completes her work sooner than planned could be forced to wait for the start of her next
activity. Since she is full time she would have to be paid for time not working.PMP® Exam Prep2060015
A All the choices except choice A are done during the project executing process group.PMP® Exam Prep660011
A Choice B might help make sure things get done on time and that people know what work they need to do and when but
not related to quality. Choice C is looking backward. It is reactive so it is not the best choice. Choice D deals with when people
be moved on and off the project. It does not deal with quality. Choice A is a better answer because it directly deals with
quality.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
B Since an extension of time (choice A) affects time not cost. It would not be the best choice. Though C might be the end
result it is too early to make such a suggestion especially since the work completed on the project would probably be wasted.
you selected choice D you might need a lot more project management training because this is the worst choice. Cutting 10
percent is arbitrary and leads to increased estimates in the future. It is better to deal with details of each activity and find real co
savings. You might not have selected choice B as it means going back to the customer. This should always be the last choice.
However this situation explains that the project manager already attempted to cut costs in ways that do not affect the
customer.PMP® Exam Prep1351012
C A project manager must follow certain ethical standards. People who send out questions from the actual PMP exam are
effect diminishing the value of passing the exam. Choice B is an easier choice but it does not address the violation. The best th
to do would be to report the violation of PMIs Code of Professional Conduct to PMI as required by PMI.PMP® Exam Prep4130
C Many people would want to do nothing. However any person who does not provide accurate and truthful information on
their application to PMI violates PMIs Code of Professional Conduct and PMI should be informed.You would not address this
yourself (choice B). It is not your responsibility to do so.PMP® Exam Prep4130011
D All choices are generally correct. Which is best more importantly which deals with the problem listed here? The only real
issue here is prototyping being able to fulfill more requirements. The CPI benefit cost ratio and standard deviation change do n
represent problems so choices A B and C are not necessary. When something like this happens many people neglect to look
risk impacts.PMP® Exam Prep3321019
B Generally in contracting situations a change control board might review and approve or reject a change but only the
contracting officer has the authority to sign a change.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
A Notice that the question uses the word must? Many of these choices could be impacts but the only certain impact of a
scope change is a schedule change to shorten or lengthen subsequent activities.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
A A change in cost may not affect the time a project takes to complete (choice B). There is nothing in the question to sugg
that the methods to find and make changes (choice C) are faulty. Choice D is a made-up term. When such a problem occurs it
important to see if anything else has been forgotten (choice A).PMP® Exam Prep1270013
B
A The SPI of 0.893 should tell you that you need to improve schedule performance but why focus on activity R (choice B)?
An activity with float is not on the critical path and making it shorter will not improve schedule performance. If you selected choi
C did you assume that such calls were not expected and that the time to handle them was not planned in? There is no reason t
think that this is a problem. With a CPI of 1.05 there is no reason to cut costs (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep1731014
C The sponsor is not required to see non-critical risks (choice A) but should see the residual ones. Quantitative risk analys
(choice B) would not need to be done if the risk was rated low in qualitative risk analysis. Contingency risks are a made up term
making choice D not correct. What the project manager did not do was look at how the new risk might affect existing contingen
plans or the ranking for the existing risks.PMP® Exam Prep3491019
D In a contracting situation generally only the contracting office has the authority to sign changes. Sometimes the project
manager has certain expanded authority to sign in the event of an emergency. However an increase in cost is generally not
considered an emergency. Choice A is not appropriate since in this case a contracting officer must sign a change. Reporting
(choice B) will take too long and should not be necessary. An extension (choice C) will not help in this situation.PMP® Exam
Prep39200110
D This could be an example of a change to contract language where the project manager was not actively involved. There
no need to do A or B as the contracting officer generally has the authority to approve change orders. Though C is a good idea
is not an immediate need based on the information provided. The question does not state that the impact of the change on proj
time cost quality and/or risk has been completed making choice D best.PMP® Exam Prep39200110
BRules for when a change should formally be made are discussed or set up during project planning and must follow any compa
policies. These plans would be included or referenced in the projects change control system.000012
DConfiguration management involves making sure that everyone is working off the same documents.PMP® Exam Prep950012
A The issue here is the ability to record and keep track of changes not gathering requirements so choice B cannot be best
There is nothing to say that there isnt a change control board in place (choice C). The problem as described here could still occ
even with a change control board. Choice D contains made up terms and so cannot be best. Only choice A addresses the
problem. Recording and tracking changes is part of change control and may overlap with the project scope management
A The situation described does not give any indication that there is a problem with documentation (choice B) that the work
authorization system is faulty (choice C) or that risks are not being properly managed (choice D). The best choice is therefore
D The creation of a project control system is done during project planning. Variances are measured during project monitor
and controlling.PMP® Exam Prep640012
D Calculating estimate to complete is done as part of the monitoring and controlling process group.PMP® Exam
Prep2060015
C This question requires you to understand a lot of terms. In order to fast track one needs to make two critical path activiti
parallel otherwise the project length might not be shortened. Choice C is the only situation that might not account for why this
occurred.PMP® Exam Prep1730014
C If work was planned but not done at the time it was scheduled to be completed funds allocated for that cost would rema
unspent making the project under budget until the work is completed and paid for. It is possible that making up for the work no
being done on time could result in the need to crash the project or work overtime in which case the project could later end up o
budget for the activity.PMP® Exam Prep2060015
A became a higher priority resources would be shifted to it not from it so choice B cannot be best. Did you select choice C
D? These might seem correct if you did not realize that errors and delays must be made up by the project manager by adjustin
future activities. The first thing to do when Choices Choices C or D occur is to work within the project constraints. One would no
jump right into moving resources. Choice A is therefore the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep1720012
C In this situation the project is doing well of the details show major problems. Even the cost variance of -$500 is small.
Which of the following should a project manager do when the project is going well? Since the second phase of the project could
generally not have started without closing out the first phase choice A could not be best. There is no reason to believe that fast
tracking is necessary (choice B) as the project is not delayed. Choice D should have already been done as part of the planning
process group. This is old information that would have been known at that time. With everything going well on the project the o
choice that makes sense is to review the management plans for the project.PMP® Exam Prep921012
C A work authorization system (choice A) helps tell the team when work should begin on work packages. A change contro
system (choice B) helps track approve or reject and control changes. A project management information system (PMIS - choic
D) helps the project manager know how the project is going. Only a configuration management system (choice C) addresses
controlling documents.PMP® Exam Prep950012
D Think about this one again before reading on. Choice B has already been done in this situation. If you selected work
overtime (choice C) you might be in trouble. Overtime is rarely the first choice as it impacts all other work in the company that t
team might be working on and causes burnout. Is there any better option? Here the project has been adjusted and adjusted to
point that the very reason the project is being done (the business case as in choice D) should be looked at to determine if the
project is still viable and worth going to the customer or working overtime.PMP® Exam Prep891012
D Half the project is done and half the cost has been expended. The answer is simple. Or is it? In fact you do not know w
was planned so you cannot answer this question.PMP® Exam Prep2060012
D One cannot simply choose to take a different path through a network or logic diagram (choice C) as the critical path is
found by calculating the longest path. Did you know that a dummy has no duration? Adding a lag will extend a path in the diagr
(choice B). Though choice A could be done why jump to such action if there is project float available that is larger than the adde
lag? Therefore the best choice is D.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
B.CDid you notice that all four choices could logically be done? Then why is C the best choice? To answer this question ask
yourself what is the biggest issue. In this case the biggest issue is the material delay for activity D since activity D is on the criti
path. This makes choice C the best choice. If you picked choice A read carefully as you would be solving the wrong problem! T
most immediate problem described here is not the past difficulty getting acceptance of the project management plan. Doing cho
B is wise but not immediately; you have a delay to deal with first. The same can be said for choice D. A delay may require the
reassignment of resources but you do not yet know if the delay will impact the schedule. Study this question well. Knowing wha
choices are appropriate when a change occurs depends on the situation described and is an important skill for a project
B Many people forget to make use of the tools of project management planning while the project work is ongoing. Do not
make that mistake. A network diagram does help you track flow but it should be the flow of the work not information (choice A).
The network diagram has nothing to do with cost (choice C) or reward systems (choice D). The network diagram helps you kno
when work on the project should be done and in what order.PMP® Exam Prep1470014
C Since a risk response owner does implement contingency plans choices A and D cannot be best. Choice B is not practi
What was needed is early warning that the risk might occur. The project manager might be looking for such a trigger and then
make sure everyones plans are in place. He should have been watching the weather (choice C). Remember a risk that you hav
taken the time to create a contingency plan for is one that will have a large impact on the project. This is worth the project
managers oversight.PMP® Exam Prep3490019
BThe wording of this question can be confusing. Reserve (choice A) is mentioned in the situation but the project manager is no
dealing with reserves in the actions he is taking. Choice C involves meeting with the customer to gain formal acceptance so it
cannot be the best choice. Choice D cannot be the best choice since the project manager is trying to make something good
happen not dealing with a negative impact or threat that may or may not occur. The project manager is working to make a posi
impact on the project more likely to occur therefore choice B is best.PMP® Exam Prep3270019
BThere are many things the project manager could do. Choice A is not the best choice as the other project manager might not
an experienced mentor. His advice might not be adequate to help this project manager. Choice C is reactive while a project
manager should be proactive. Choice D is not the best choice. It would be helpful but does not specifically address the issues i
this situation. If the PMO is contacted the project manager can receive the knowledge of many project managers historical
information from many projects and have the assistance of someone whose job it is to help.PMP® Exam Prep231011
B Choice A could be done but notice that it is not proactive? It would be helpful to get to the root cause of why this
department always comes up with such ideas or changes after the project begins. However this is not the immediate problem t
change is and therefore choice A is not best. The type of project organization described is a matrix organization. There is not
anything inherently wrong with such an organization nor is there anything wrong in this particular situation that would require it
be changed so choice C cannot be best. The departments history makes choice D something that should definitely be done bu
the proposed change needs more immediate attention. Only choice B begins integrated change control by looking at the impac
one change on other components of the triple constraint. PMP® Exam Prep1030012
D Sometimes complex problems are caused by not doing simple things. The data in the first paragraph once you read the
choices is completely extraneous. The troubled activity has float and so does not need immediate attention. Choice A may not
necessary if the amount of float will not be exceeded by the delay. of the choices suggest investigating if the
amount of float is enough to cover any delay caused by the trouble whatever it is. Rather the choices take one in different
directions. Choice B should have already been done before the project began. Choice C cannot be best as replacing team
members does not solve the root cause of the problem. Could there be something that the project manager is doing wrong or
could be doing that she is not that would solve the problem without losing resources? Wouldnt it be more effective to discover t
root cause of those team members concerns so that the problem does not surface again later? The creation of an issue log wil
the troubled team members know that their concerns have been heard are noted and will be resolved. This might be enough to
stop them from leaving and avoid project delays and confusion if new team members must be added. This makes choice D the
best answer.PMP® Exam Prep2820018
BMany of these choices could be done but ask yourself what is the most effective thing to do? The party may well generate
lessons learned and recording them (choice A) would certainly be a good idea but the question asked what to do first. There is
more immediate issue; the manager. Choice C could also be useful but it would require taking time of all the stakeholders when
there is only one stakeholder the manager who definitely has an issue. Besides a good project manager would be holding regu
meetings with the stakeholders already. Choice D might be a good idea as the manager apparently is not communicating with t
project manager. However this would not absolutely make sure the manager does communicate. The manager is in effect say
that he is not getting the information he needs. His lack of needed information is causing him to suggest more meetings. Too
many meetings are a problem on projects. The concept of information distribution (choice B) is to determine who needs what
information and to plan how to get it to them. A great project manager does not just add meetings but solves the real problem in
the best way. That might take the form of changing a report or sending existing reports to different people rather than adding
meetings. For these reasons choice B is best.PMP® Exam Prep3090008
CThis is a question which can be thought of as having more than one right answer. It does not. There are many things that the
project manager can do but what should be done? The company policies are managed by the project management office and t
project manager should make sure the stakeholders have clear information and send them directly to the authority on company
policies for project management.PMP® Exam Prep230011
D Once again it is important here to look for the choice that would solve the real problem. There is no reason to think that
training (choice A) management oversight (choice B) or a need for more processes (choice C) are factors contributing to the
number of changes. The root cause would be that stakeholders were missed and therefore their requirements were not found.
Those stakeholders are now causing changes to accommodate their needs. The best choice is D.PMP® Exam Prep260011
BThe project life cycle does incorporate a methodology?for doing the work?so choice A cannot be best. It is the product life cyc
that spawns many projects so choice C cannot be best. Project management activities are described in the project managemen
process so choice D cannot be best. The project life cycle is different for each industry so choice B is the best answer.PMP®
Exam Prep310011
AStakeholders can be identified throughout the project management process groups. However the earlier stakeholders are
identified the better for the project. If all of the stakeholders needs and requirements are taken into account before plans are
finalized and project work is begun fewer changes will be needed later in the project when they will be more costly.PMP® Exam
Prep250011
D Notice the question asks which is NOT an input to the initiating process group. Did you read it correctly? The project sco
statement (choice D) is an output of the planning process group. Did you select choice A? Companies should have processes i
place for hiring resources reporting and managing risks on projects (to name only a few). Does yours?PMP® Exam Prep39001
DThe preliminary project scope statement is created during the initiating process group. Therefore the question is asking what
done next in either the initiating process group or the planning process group. For this type of question you should look at the
choice that occurs closest to the process group you are in. Choice A is done during the executing process group. Choices B an
are done during the monitoring and controlling process group. Choice D is the best choice as it is part of the planning process
A High-level project constraints are determined during the initiating process group.PMP® Exam Prep390011
BLook at the order of planning the project the team has chosen. Though understanding the sponsor (choice A) might sound like
good idea the sponsor is a stakeholder and understanding them is part of stakeholder analysis. That should have occurred befo
the creation of a WBS. In planning the project the project scope is defined (choice C is another name for finalize the project sco
statement) and would come before creating a WBS. Choice D cannot be best as that work does not come next in the process.
Other work like creating a network diagram should be completed before risk can effectively be done. Only activity list (choice B
comes after the WBS and WBS dictionary.PMP® Exam Prep390011
BThis question is asking which of the choices is the most effective way to move through the planning process. Choice A skips t
important steps of finalizing the scope and other activities. High-level assumptions are determined during the initiating processe
and all the risks are documented during the planning processes making choice C incorrect. Metrics are part of the quality
management plan making choice D incorrect. Choice B is best as the activity list is created immediately before the network
diagram.PMP® Exam Prep390011
D Notice that this question asks about product verification not scope verification. Scope verification is done during project
monitoring and controlling and product verification is done during project closing.PMP® Exam Prep390011
CEven though the measurement was not identified in planning the project manager would still have to investigate the variance
determine if it is important. Therefore the project manager is in the project monitoring and controlling process group.PMP® Exa
Prep390011
C If you chose another part of the project management process you probably forgot that the situation needs to be
evaluated by the project manager before recommending a change or entering integrated change control.PMP® Exam Prep390
CThis situation does not describe an actual measurement (a monitoring and controlling activity) but rather a meeting occurring
during project executing talking about control issues.PMP® Exam Prep390011
DIs this a hard question? The whole discussion of the team member and his actions is a distracter. The real problem is not that
the team member is being uncooperative. He is asking a question that many team members want to ask in the real world. How
can I tell you how things are going if I do not know what work I am being asked to do? The real problem is the lack of a WBS an
work packages otherwise the team member would not have to ask such a question. Choice A cannot be the answer because th
project manager is not losing resources (what is implied by getting the managers buy-in). Though a reward system (choice B)
would help with cooperation the real problem here is not cooperation. Choice C cannot be the answer because it does not solv
the problem at hand (not knowing what the team member is to do). It solves another problem. If you chose C be very careful! Y
can get 10 to 20 questions wrong on the exam simply because you do not see the real problem!PMP® Exam Prep390011
A The cost accounts are included in the project cost estimate and the management reserve is added to that to come up w
the cost baseline. Thereafter the management reserve is added to come up with the cost budget. Therefore only choice A is
C Read this question as What is not part of quality audits? Validated defect repair is done in quality control and so it is no
part of quality audits which are done during quality assurance.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
C Measuring is part of the perform quality control process. Did you select choice B? The question asked what part of the
quality process are you in not what part of the project management process are you in.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
D What? you say. Yes D is the best answer. Lets take a look as this question could be said to have four right answers.
Choice A might be a good idea but has two problems. It may not be needed on the project and it does not deal with the problem
hand the policy that is slowing things down. Choice B is not the best choice as the project manager already has heard the opin
on many other occasions. It is already confirmed. Choice C is just being reactive. A good project manager will find the root cau
and deal with that even if it means attempting to improve the companys policies and processes. This is continuous improvemen
Because there are several activities affected by the policy it would serve the project better to get to the root cause of the proble
and solve it.PMP® Exam Prep2390016
A Improving schedule performance ( choice B) relates to getting the project completed sooner. Though it would seem to
always be a good idea to improve schedule performance this projects performance is fine. The schedule has been approved as
is. It would be better for the project manager to spend more time controlling the project to make sure it finishes according to pla
than to improve schedule performance. If you chose C ask yourself why. There is nothing wrong with the schedule performanc
of the project that would require an extension. Did you think that the best way to deal with the complaining stakeholder was to g
him more time? How do you know the team members activities are on the critical path? It is always important to gain formal
acceptance from the customer as it provides an opportunity for the team to check if everything is going well. It is always good id
to get such acceptance in writing. Choice D could be done but there is a more important problem that takes precedence here.
Read on. The only thing glaringly wrong in this situation is that the team member is complaining. If you read the situation
completely you will notice that the team member was involved and approved the project management plan including his own
involvement in the project. Since the responsibility assignment matrix has not changed the team member has not even been
assigned different duties since the project began. There must be something else causing the team member to complain. The
project manager should investigate and find out what part of the reward system is ineffective.PMP® Exam Prep2760017
C Here is a situation where all four choices could be done. Choice A could be done but does not solve the root cause of
problem described. Choice B merely dismisses the concerns of the team member and might cause anger. A team building
exercise would take planning and so could not be done right away. Remember the sponsor might be attending the next meetin
and at least one team member might not attend because of past problems. The best thing to do would be to set up new ground
rules for the team governing behavior (choice C) and then plan a team building exercise (choice D).PMP® Exam Prep2800017
A Questions like this can drive one crazy on the exam because it is easy to get confused. The best thing to do is to loo
the two terms used here (project performance appraisals and team performance assessment) and review in your mind what ea
means BEFORE looking at the choices. Choices B C and D list aspects of team performance assessments. Only choice A is
correct. Project performance appraisals deal with how each team member is performing work rather than how well the team is
working together.PMP® Exam Prep2810017
B Notice the phrasing of this question most likely NOT do. Expect to see questions worded on the exam in ways that ca
cause you to misinterpret them. You will also see questions about things we forget to do in the real world. Who has time==c==
you might say to determine if each problem is really solved? One could respond with Who has time not to do this? Who has t
to deal with the same problem twice? The final steps of problem solving include: implement a decision review it and confirm th
the decision solved the problem.PMP® Exam Prep2871017
AChoice B includes the concept of cost to trick you into selecting it if you are unsure of the real answer. There is no indication t
the costs are trending in any particular direction. There is no reason to think that performance reviews should turn up more
adjustments (choice C). The project manager should always use good judgment (choice D) and nothing in this question talks
about judgment regarding variances so this cannot be the best choice. In this situation the project manager is making great
working conditions better. According to Herzbergs theory fixing bad working conditions will help you to motivate but making goo
ones better will not improve motivation. You need to focus on the motivating agents and not the hygiene factors.PMP® Exam
Prep2880017
DHere again is a question with more than one right answer. Would asking for something in writing be the best way to
communicate here? In this particular situation asking for the concern to be in writing might alienate the stakeholders. Therefore
choice A cannot be best. The issue log (choice C) is where the issue should be listed but the situation does not say if the projec
manager knows what the stakeholders concern is. Therefore C cannot be the best choice. Why not B? Notice the use of the wo
all stakeholders. Why bother other stakeholders with this problem when the project manager already knows there may be som
concern of stakeholder A and B to address not all stakeholders. Choice B refers to making a presentation. Presentations are
formal verbal. This problem would likely require informal verbal communication in order to discover the real problem. Choice D
therefore the best choice.PMP® Exam Prep3120018
CThis is a very confusing question. Notice all the distracters that may or may not be relevant? Since most projects have their
schedule compressed by the project manager during project planning choice A is not a logical reason and so cannot be the bes
choice. Issue logs can be used on smaller projects making choice B not the best choice. The number of critical (or hard to get)
resources noted in choice D has no bearing on the need to rework the project charter. Since it does not make logical sense it
cannot be the best choice. Take a look at projects 2 and 3 again. In the second project the product of the project was not used.
This implies many things including the possibilities that either the project manager did not identify the requirements of all the
stakeholders or that the business need of the project changed dramatically and the project manager did not notice. This is a ma
flaw in the project managers abilities. In the third project there were 25 concerns of the stakeholders that were not addressed
before the project was completed. Again this shows a major lack of project management knowledge. The needs of the
stakeholders and not just the sponsor must be taken into account on all projects. This makes choice C the best choice.PMP®
Exam Prep3120012
BSince there is no information about the sponsor or his needs in this situation and nothing presented here relates to sponsors
choice A cannot be best. Choice C cannot be best as it is not a correct statement. One watches both predecessor and success
activities. Choice D cannot be best as the attendance at the party and the issue at hand are not related. Often forgotten in
communications management plans are the bosses of team members (functional management since of course you remember
that we are assuming a matrix organization). Including the bosses of team members in communications planning requirements
gathering risk and other areas of project management helps make the project better. In addition it helps the boss manage his o
resources effectively. If the functional manager of the team member assigned to the predecessor activity had been included he
would have known when the team member was needed to do work for the project and the impact if any of delay. The
communications management plan might also have included a method to communicate potential delays. For these reasons cho
B is best.PMP® Exam Prep3080018
DSometimes complex problems are caused by not doing simple things. The data in the first paragraph once you read the choic
is completely extraneous. The troubled activity has float and so does not need immediate attention. Choice A may not be
necessary if the amount of float will not be exceeded by the problem. of the choices suggest investigating if the
amount of float is enough to cover any delay caused by the trouble whatever it is. Rather the choices take one in different
directions. Choice B should have already been done before the project began. Choice C cannot be best as replacing team
members does not solve the root cause of the problem. Could there be something that the project manager is doing wrong or
could be doing that she is not that would solve the problem without losing resources? Wouldnt it be more effective to discover t
root cause of those team members concerns so that the problem does not surface again later? The creation of an issue log wil
the troubled team members know that their concerns have been heard are noted and will be resolved. This might be enough to
stop them from leaving and avoid project delays and confusion if new team members must be added. This makes choice D the
best answer.PMP® Exam Prep3120008
BMany of these choices could be done but ask yourself What is the most effective thing to do? The party may well generate
lessons learned and recording them (choice A) would certainly be a good idea but the question asked what to do first. There is
more immediate issue?the manager. Choice C could also be useful but it would require taking some of all the stakeholders time
when there is only one stakeholder?the manager?who definitely has an issue. Besides a good project manager would be holdin
regular meetings with the stakeholders already. Choice D might be a good idea as the manager apparently is not communicatin
with the project manager. However this would not absolutely make sure the manager does communicate. The manager is in
effect saying that he is not getting the information he needs. His lack of needed information is causing him to suggest more
meetings. Too many meetings are a problem on projects. The concept of information distribution (choice B) is to determine who
needs what information and plan how to get it to them. A great project manager does not just add meetings but solves the real
problem in the best way. That might take the form of changing a report or sending existing reports to different people rather tha
adding meetings. For these reasons choice B is best.PMP® Exam Prep3090018
DNotice that this question talks about what the team member should do? It is important for the project manager to understand t
team members role and possibly even instruct team members on how to work on projects and what is expected of them. Choic
A B and C have one thing in common. They involve the team member asking the project manager to do something. In reality it
may very well be the team member who will come up with a solution (such as decreasing the scope of the activity fast tracking
specific suggestions about changes to predecessor activities). Therefore choice D is the best choice. But ask yourself how do y
run your projects? Which is better your way or this way? Lastly please note that recommended corrective actions can come fro
the team or stakeholders in addition to the project manager.PMP® Exam Prep2860018
D Why would choice D be the action not to take? Isnt it similar to choice A? Yes and no. This issue should be over but sin
there were so many meetings and arguments about the requirements being removed it is unlikely that the issue will be dropped
the stakeholders. However since it has not come up again and the project was started six months ago spending time in a meet
is excessive. The other choices are easier and have less impact on the project and are therefore things that could be done.PM
Exam Prep250011
DThe pitch and tone of voice (choice A) is not relevant here as the project manager could not even hear what was being said.
There were no issues recognized after the conversation so could be added to the issue log (choice B). This issue
not related to communications requirements so choice C cannot be best. Saying I am not sure I properly heard what you said
during the conversation or asking for the message to be repeated back to the sender would have prevented this problem. This
makes choice D the best option.PMP® Exam Prep3040018
BThe wording of this question can be confusing. Reserve (choice A) is mentioned in the situation but the project manager is no
dealing with reserves in the actions he is taking. Choice C involves meeting with the customer to gain formal acceptance so it
cannot be the best choice. Choice D cannot be the best choice since the project manager is trying to make something good
happen not dealing with a negative impact or threat that may or may not occur. The project manager is working to make a posi
impact on the project more likely to occur therefore choice B is best.PMP® Exam Prep3270009
B Choice A cannot be best because cutting scope decreases profits on this type of contract. Choice C cannot be best as
CPFF contracts generally do not limit fee increases. Choice D cannot be best as the fee in a CPFF contract is usually paid out
a continuous basis during the life of the project. One of the ways to change the profit in a cost plus fixed fee contract is to invoic
for items not chargeable to the project (choice B).PMP® Exam Prep37200110
A If you got this question wrong reread it. You need to audit invoices in all contract types so how do you choose? Look for
answer that is BEST. In this case it would be the choice that requires the greatest effort Invoices need to be audited in a fixed
price contract because the seller could be charging you before they pay out the money thus taking the payment and investing
until they need to pay it out. A T M contract (choice B) should be for small dollars and short duration (remember that a T M
contract has no incentive to finish) so it does not have a great risk. Choices C and D cannot be best because the risk to the buy
is limited ? they are still only going to pay the contract price. In a CPFF contract the buyer pays all costs. The seller could be
charging the buyer for costs that should not be allocated to the buyer. Because of the size and dollar amount of these type of
contracts and because the risk to the buyer is great CPFF contracts need the most auditing. Since this question asked for whic
one you do not want to use the answer must be choice A.PMP® Exam Prep37200110
A The scope baseline includes the WBS WBS dictionary and the project scope statement. Therefore choice A is the only
correct choice.PMP® Exam Prep1250013
D Saying No more changes is not likely to be effective. All the other choices could be done.PMP® Exam Prep2060015
B Final funding limit reconciliation would have been done after fast tracking.PMP® Exam Prep2050015
AThe project scope management plan is not part of the scope baseline.PMP® Exam Prep1250013
B Notice that there are many things the project manager could do listed in the choices. The question asks what is the BES
thing to do NEXT. Though they are great things to do choices A and D are not next. Choice C would be done as part of integra
change control. Management of the change is not complete when scope control is completed. It is important to look at the impa
of the change on other parts of the project such as time and cost. Therefore choice B is the best thing to do next probably follow
by C and then D and A.PMP® Exam Prep1350013
A Team performance assessment (choice B) is an output of develop project team. Recommended preventive actions
(choice C) are outputs of manage project team. Project staff assignments (choice D) are outputs of acquire project team.PMBO
Guide2030017
D Did you notice the word control used in the question? Develop project team and information distribution (choices A and
are executing activities. The harder choice is between choices C and D. Choice C is a communications process whereas the
question is talking about managing people.PMP® Exam Prep2810017
A Many processes have an output of requested changes. Choice B is half right. Choices C and D are completely incorrect
Remember that the entire choice must be correct.PMBOK® Guide215 2311017
B Notice this question aks for the main purpose. This is the same thing as asking for that dreaded output. Ground rules
(choice A) are tools of the develop project team process. Acquiring resources (choice C) is a tool of acquire project team. Roles
and responsibiities (choice D) are outputs of human resource planning.PMP® Exam Prep2810017
AThough all could help the question is asking about additional activity. In other words Where should the project manager spen
extra time? The most pressing need is in the area of communications.PMP® Exam Prep3030018
A Sending data without pointing out the issue (choice A) does not mean the communication will be adequately decoded
the recipient. The other choices are more effective communication in this instance.PMP® Exam Prep2771017
B Notice that there are multiple right answers. However removing the team member (choice A) is too drastic. By this tim
you would have built a team through team building. Removing one person might drastically change team dynamics. Though
choices C and D could be done they involve taking action without knowing the reason there was a problem. Choices C and D m
not solve the problem and the same problem could resurface. Only choice B gets to the root cause.PMP® Exam Prep2870017
C Information is a key word here to tell you it is communications management (choice C).PMP® Exam Prep3010018
B Risk monitoring and control (included in choices A and D) measures against the project management plan not the proje
scope statement. Risk response planning (included in choice C) works with identified risks and so does not utilize the project
scope statement.PMBOK® Guide2390009
C A watchlist is made up of low priority risks that qualitative risk analysis has determined are too low priority or low impact
move further in the risk process.PMP® Exam Prep3370019
A The company change process or change control board would control whether or not the sponsor needed to sign the
change in this situation. Nothing in the question or the field of project management could lead you to believe that choices C or D
are necessary. Only choice A gets to the root of the problem.PMP® Exam Prep3040018
C Many people would pick choice A. It is proactive but choice C mentions root cause and the probable effect of dealing wi
the problem. If a problem with quality occurs again some other project constraint(s) must change to accommodate fixing the
problem. Choice B is partially correct (allow schedule to slip) but may not need to occur because the project manager might be
able to compress the schedule in other areas. Besides cutting cost does not necessarily cause the schedule to slip. Choice D
not best because a quality problem is most likely to create additional cost rather than cut cost.PMP® Exam Prep2450016
D The key to answering this question is to understand the situation. This is a common purchase that your company has a
good amount of experience with. Therefore it is less likely that the contract statement of work was unclear (choice A). If the ite
called a commodity purchase it means that it is readily available (like purchasing paper for a copy machine) therefore it is unli
that choice B could have occurred. Errors in calculations (choice C) could always occur but sellers are particularly careful abou
errors since errors can severely impact them. This situation describes more sellers trying to win the work than ever before. It
describes sellers offering extras and trying to win favor for a commodity purchase. Something must be up. These are indication
that there has been a change in the marketplace. The project manager should investigate an error in calculation but the most
likely reason is choice D because of the number of bids received and the more valuable services offered at a lower cost.PMP®
Exam Prep39710110
C The requirement to provide PMPs is a screening system. A system to minimize personal prejudice is a weighting
system.PMP® Exam Prep38600110
A Though many project managers might try to turn threats into opportunities only choice A is clearly an opportunity.PMP®
Exam Prep3370019
A Identifying root causes is part of risk identification.PMP® Exam Prep3370019
B Discovering nonvalue activities is part of process analysis: implementing the process improvement plan. Many people
choose to perform a quality audit (choice C). However performing a quality audit relates to determining whether we are using th
right processes and whether those processes are effective rather than improving processes.PMP® Exam Prep2440016
C To answer this question you must first realize that this is not necessarily a bad situation. Many projects have repeated
work. Therefore choice A is eliminated. There could be some benefit to having the same resource do all the work packages
however this may not be practical. The question asks for what MUST the project manager do and they do not need to do choic
There is no benefit to scheduling the work packages close to each other so D cannot be correct. Choice C provides the knowle
gained from the earlier work packages to be used by the later work packages making the later ones faster and easier. Therefor
AAll of the choices except A occur during the executing process group.PMP® Exam Prep550011
B Choice A occurs during the planning process group as part of creating the project scope statement. Since you must alre
have problems in order to determine their root cause choice C must occur during the monitoring and controlling process group
initiating. Choice D occurs during the closing process group.PMP® Exam Prep550011
DChoice A occurs during the closing process group. Choices B and C occur during the monitoring and controlling process
A Many people select choice B but it is a project initiating function. Choice B does not say determine the team or
determine the skill sets needed. Choices C and D take place as part of the monitoring and controlling process group.PMP® Ex
Prep580011
C Not all projects require improved quality (choice A). Many people think that closing procedures (choice B) along with all
other procedures are developed in the planning process group. In fact these procedures are created in closing. Choice D would
occur during the monitoring and controlling process group.PMP® Exam Prep540011
BHigh-level stakeholders (choice A) are determined as part of the initiating process group. Choices C and D take place during
executing process group. Choice B is what goes on during a kickoff meeting which is part of project planning.PMP® Exam
Prep250011
BSince a project manager should not spend much time babysitting or checking up on team members choice A is not part of the
project management process at all. Choices C and D are part of the monitoring and controlling process group.PMP® Exam
Prep620011
AChoices B C and D take place as part of the monitoring and controlling process group.PMP® Exam Prep630011
DChoices A B and C take place as part of the monitoring and controlling process group.PMP® Exam Prep630011
C Choices A and D take place during the executing process group. Since the product of the project is only completed whe
the project is complete choice B must take place during the closing process group.PMP® Exam Prep650011
A Choice B is part of the closing process group. Choice C occurs during the initiating process group. Since choice D is a
planning function it must take place during the planning process group.PMP® Exam Prep660011
C Choices A B and D all take place during the executing process group.PMP® Exam Prep650011
B Choices A C and D are monitoring and controlling functions. Many people get tricked by choice C. Closing involves form
acceptance of the project. Acceptance of deliverables should occur throughout the project.PMP® Exam Prep700011
A The situation described would occur as part of quality control not quality assurance (choice B). The question specifically
describes control limits which are only a part of control charting (choice C). Corrective action (choice D) is needed but it is not
described here.PMP® Exam Prep2490016
C Concurrent relates to fast tracking. Since activity G is the only one of these two activities on the critical path completing
two in parallel will have no effect on the critical path.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
C When you look at this question you might see three right answers (choices A B and C). Scope verification (choice D)
involves obtaining acceptance of the completed project scope. One could be looking at alternative choices when creating a pro
charter in the initiating process group (choice A); however this is not part of the scope management process. You would not be
looking at alternatives in scope planning (choice B) since you are defining the processes procedures and controls you will be u
in the scope management process. Identifying scope alternatives would happen in the scope definition process (choice C) in
which you are deciding the best way to deliver the features and functions required in the product scope by defining the project
scope.PMP® Exam Prep1250003
D If it was possible and effective to hire two sellers to do the work it would already have been part of the plan.The other
choices given the specifics of the situation could help.PMP® Exam Prep39300110
CThe project manager or the project management team determines how best to accomplish the project.PMBOK® Guide30011
AAs the project life cycle progresses more information becomes available allowing the team to manage the project to a more
detailed level.PMBOK® Guide80011
BAs more information about the project becomes known further iterations of the planning process result in more detailed and
specific management plans.PMBOK® Guide80011
COperational work is that which is ongoing to sustain an organization.PMBOK® Guide70011
A Choice A is an example of a business process that is ongoing and repeatable.PMBOK® Guide70011
D The triple constraint is includes project scope time and cost. These constraints must be balanced by the project team i
planning and execution of the project. Other constraints on a project include quality risk and customer satisfaction.PMBOK®
Guide80011
A By definition risk is the uncertainty of some aspect of the project.PMBOK® Guide80011
C Choice A cannot be correct as scope can be identified throughout the project not just during initiating. Since any and a
changes cannot be eliminated in their entirety choice B cannot be the correct choice. Status meetings (choice D) are not a ma
focus of managing a project. The reason for such meetings controlling the project could be considered a focus of project
management but that is not the choice given.PMBOK® Guide80011
A The other choices are all examples of application area knowledge.PMBOK® Guide120011
B Did you select choice C? If so you missed the word unrelated. Programs are groups of related projects.PMBOK®
Guide160011
B Though there are many criteria for when a phase is completed only choice B is included on this list. Work for each phas
must be inspected and accepted before the phase can be closed out.PMBOK® Guide220012
A Stakeholders must be identified and involved at the beginning of the project in order to determine their requirements an
expections. Remember that if this is not done early the results may be expensive changes and/or dissatisfaction later in the
proejct.PMBOK® Guide210012
A The best description of a stakeholder is one that includes choices B C and D as all of these are included in the definitio
of stakeholders. Since each stakeholder can positively affect the project (getting work done sooner identifying risks etc.) or
negatively affect the project (though delay scope added later in the project etc.) the correct choice is A.PMBOK® Guide23001
D In a functional organization employees are divided into departments such as marketing and engineering. Projects in a
functional organization generally only involve one department.PMBOK® Guide280012
C Did you know that there will be made-up terms and misused terms that seem to fit such as tight matrix on the exam? D
not get confused when you see a term that you have not been exposed to before.PMBOK® Guide300012
D The role of the PMO is defined by its parent organization.PMBOK® Guide320012
C All five process groups are addressed in each project. It is the responsibility of the project manager to determine the lev
of attention to spend on each process groupPMBOK® Guide410013
A Authorizes means officially starts a project. That occurs during the initiating process group.PMBOK® Guide410013
B Although it is iterated and updated throughout the project the project management plan is developed in the planning
process group.PMBOK® Guide700013
B Activity definition (choice A) occurs during the executing process group. Perform quality control and scope verification
(choices C and D) occur during the monitoring and controlling process group.PMBOK® Guide450013
D Scope verification is a part of the monitoring and controlling process group.PMBOK® Guide620013
B Contract closure occurs during the closing process group.PMBOK® Guide660013
C Quantitative risk analysis occurs during the planning process group.PMBOK® Guide540013
C The executing process group is where work is done to produce the product of the project.PMBOK® Guide550013
A The project charter is the basis for the entire project. Therefore it must be created and approved first.PMBOK®
Guide450013
C During the monitoring and controlling process group project performance is measured and needed changes are identif
and approved.PMBOK® Guide590013
A Activity cost estimates resource calendars and the project schedule are inputs to cost budgeting. You are involved in th
cost budgeting process which takes place in the planning process group.PMBOK® Guide510013
D The project charter gives authorization to begin a project or project phase. The project charter is approved in the initiatin
process group.PMBOK® Guide450013
C Work must be planned before it is done or checked.PMBOK® Guide390013
B Executing focuses on getting the work done.PMBOK® Guide390013
A Develop preliminary project scope statement (choice A) occurs in the initiating process group.PMBOK® Guide480013
C These processes all occur during the executing process group of the project.PMBOK® Guide560013
D All of these processes are parts of monitoring and controlling.PMBOK® Guide630013
C Corrective actions are approved or rejected in integrated change control but implemented corrective actions are an out
of direct and manage
A Monitor and control project work occurs during integration. Human resource planning (choice B) is part of human resour
management perform quality assurance (choice C) is part of quality management and performance reporting (choice D) is par
communications management.PMBOK® Guide940014
D Management plans document how the team will manage on a more detailed level. Examples of management plans inclu
project scope schedule cost quality and risk management plans.PMBOK® Guide890014
D The project managers leaving or reassignment is not a valid reason for terminating a project.PMBOK® Guide50011
C Scope verification (choice A) involves customer acceptance of project deliverables. Strategic planning (choice B)
addresses the overall mission and goals of the organization. Quantitative elaboration (choice D) is a made-up term.PMBOK®
Guide60011
A A project is temporary and unique. The project is complete when the defined project objectives have been met.PMBOK®
Guide50011
B The work of completing the project scope is accomplished during the executing process group.PMBOK® Guide550013
A Contract administration which includes making sure both parties to the contract meet their contractual obligations is a p
of the monitoring and controlling process group.PMBOK® Guide650013
There are three critical paths.The project will be delayed.The project is riskier.Activity D will be delayed.CThere are now two cri
paths making the project more risky.PMP® Exam Prep158 - 1700014
PMP® Exam Prep3420019
project execution.PMBOK® Guide930014

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K Area ID

Pro Res 100

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D Deliverables are accepted in scope verification.PMBOK® Guide1200013

D Quality audits are part of perform quality assurance.PMP® Exam Prep2440016

A These relate to Maslows hierarchy of needs.PMP® Exam Prep2880017

B These are outputs of qualitative risk analysis.PMP® Exam Prep3360019

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