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Time: 1 h 45 min

Answer all questions. 1 Which error is not a systematic error? A The zero error of a micrometer screw gauge B The error due to the calibration of a thermometer C The end error in the slide wire of a Wheatstone bridge D The error in reading to the smallest scale of a metre rule 2 A stone is thrown vertically upwards from a height of 10.0 m from the ground. If the initial velocity is 5.0 m s1, what is the time taken by the stone to reach the ground? [The acceleration of free fall is 10.0 m s2.] A 0.5 s B 1.0 s C 1.5 s D 2.0 s 3 Three coplanar forces 2.0 N, 4.0 N and 5.0 N acting on a body are shown in the diagram. The resultant force is A 6.9 N at an angle of 19.7 above the x-axis B 6.9 N at an angle of 19.7 under the x-axis C 9.1 N at an angle of 44.2 above the x-axis D 9.1 N at an angle of 44.2 under the x-axis

5.0 N
2.0 N 60 4.0 N x

4 A train has an engine that provides a constant thrust force F when it is accelerating from rest. If the train experiences a dragging force F when moving at speed v, what is the power required to accelerate it? A Fv B Fv C (F F )v D (F + F )v 5 A coin is placed on a horizontal disc at a distance 1.0 m from the axis of rotation. The disc is rotated with an increasing speed. If the coefficient of static friction between the disc and the coin is 0.40, the coin will slip when its speed exceeds A 1.4 m s1 B 2.0 m s1 C 2.2 m s1 D 3.1 m s1 6 A ball of mass m and radius R rolls at a linear speed of u along a horizontal plane without slipping. If the moment of inertia of the ball is 2 mR2, the kinetic energy of the ball is 3 A 1 mu2 B 1 mu2 C 1 mu2 D 5 mu2 3 2 6 6 7 The static frictional force influences sliding movement. When an object is placed on a surface, the resistance to slide the object will increase when A a weight is placed on top of the object B a layer of oil is smeared on the surface C air is allowed between the object and the surface D ball bearings are placed between the object and the surface
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8 Which statement about a satellite of a planet is not true? A A satellite with a larger orbit moves at a lower speed. B The period of a satellite depends on its distance from the planet. C A satellite moves at the same angular speed as the rotation of the planet. D The centripetal force is due to the gravitational attraction between the planet and a satellite. 9 The movement of a spacecraft from X at the surface of Earth Moon X Y the Earth to Y at the surface of the Moon along a straight line XY is shown in the diagram. Which graph represents the variation of the potential energy U of the spacecraft with the distance from X to Y? A U B U C U D U
0 X Y Distance 0 X Y Distance 0 X Y Distance 0 X Y Distance

10 A light platform supported by two identical springs is shown Light platform in the diagram. Spring A mass is placed at the centre of the platform so that the springs are compressed by 3.0 cm. The platform is depressed Floor further by 1.0 cm and then released so that it oscillates up and down vertically. Which graph shows the variation of displacement s of the platform with time t? A B C D
s/cm 1.0 0.5 0 0.5 1.0 t /s s/cm 1.0 0.5 0 0.5 1.0 t /s s/cm 3.0 2.0 1.0 0 1.0 2.0 3.0 t /s s/cm 4.0 3.0 2.0 1.0 0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 t /s

11 An object of mass 2.0 kg undergoes a simple harmonic motion according to the equation x = 5.0 cos 100t, where x is the displacement in metres and t is the time in seconds. What is the frequency and kinetic energy of the object when the displacement is 3.0 m? Frequency A B C D 16 Hz 16 Hz 100 Hz 100 Hz Kinetic energy 160 kJ 250 kJ 160 kJ 250 kJ
x x0 P Q t

12 Two bodies P and Q are oscillated with initial displacement x0. The variation of the displacement x with time t is shown in the graph. A coersive force with frequency f is then applied to P and Q. Which graph shows the variation of amplitude a for P and Q with the frequency f ?
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a P Q

a P Q

Q f

13 The variation of displacement x with time t for a wave is shown in the graph. If the displacement is 1.0 cm at a particular instant, what is the displacement after 2.0 s? A 1.0 cm C 1.0 cm B 0 cm D 1.5 cm

x/cm 1.5 0 1.5 1.0 2.0 t/s

14 A progressive wave of frequency 50.0 Hz overlaps with a reflected wave to produce a standing wave. If the distance between two consecutive nodes is 10.0 cm, the speed of the progressive wave is A 2.5 m s1 B 5.0 m s1 C 10.0 m s1 D 20.0 m s1 15 The diagram shows the shape of a beat wave which is produced by two tones of frequencies f1 and f2, where f1 > f2. If the resultant wave completes four cycles within 0.20 s, what are the values of f1 and f2? f1 A B C D 15.0 Hz 22.5 Hz 40.0 Hz 45.0 Hz f2 5.0 Hz 17.5 Hz 35.0 Hz 35.0 Hz
F Displacement/m 0.50 0 0.20 0.40 Time/s

16 The variation of the intermolecular force F with the separation r between two molecules is shown in the graph. Which statement about the situation at point P is true? A The potential energy is minimum. B The molecule is in a state of equilibrium. C The force is a repulsive force and in its weakest state. D The force is an attractive force and in its strongest state. 17 A 99.0 cm long rod PQ of negligible weight which is supported at both of its ends by two equally long wires X and Y is shown in the diagram. The cross-sectional areas of X and Y are 1.50 mm2 and 3.00 mm2 respectively. The Young modulus of wires X and Y are 1.80 1011 Pa and 1.20 1011 Pa respectively. A weight W is suspended from the rod such that X and Y are stretched. At what distance from P should the weight be suspended along the rod so that it remains horizontal? A 24.6 cm B 42.4 cm C 56.6 cm

X Rod P W

D 74.4 cm

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2009 STPM Physics Papers 1 and 2

18 The pressure of an ideal gas in a vessel of fixed volume is p. If the gas in the vessel is heated so that the r.m.s. speed of its molecules is increased three times the initial value, what is the new pressure of the gas? A 1p B 3p C 3p D 9p 3 19 Which one is not an assumption of the kinetic theory of gases in an ideal gas model? A The motion of molecules is random. B The mass of a molecule is negligible as compared to the mass of gas. C The collision between a molecule and the wall of a container is elastic. D The volume of molecules is negligible as compared to the volume of gas. 20 As a gas undergoes an isothermal expansion, 20 J of heat is supplied to it. What is the change in the internal energy U and the work done W by the gas in this process? U A B C D 20 J 0 0 +20 J W 0 20 J +20 J 0
U/J mol1 6600 6400 6200 6000 5800 280 300 320 T/ K

21 The variation of internal energy U of one mole of an ideal gas with temperature T is shown in the graph. The ratio of the molar heat capacity at constant pressure to the molar heat capacity at constant volume is A 1.40 C 1.67 B 1.42 D 1.71

22 A silver rod and an iron rod of the same mass have densities of 10 500 kg m and 7860 kg m3 respectively. Both rods conduct the same amount of heat in one second when the differences in temperature between the two ends of the rods are the same. If the thermal conductivities of silver and iron are 420 J s1 m1 K1 and 79 J s1 m1 K1 respectively, what is the ratio of the radius of the silver rod to the radius of the iron rod? A 0.38 B 0.61 C 1.64 D 2.63 23 If work W is required to move a charge q from point X to point Y, the potential difference between X and Y is A Wq2 B Wq C W D W q q2 24 When an alpha-particle approaches a 96 Mo nucleus head-on, the closest distance between 42 the alpha-particle and the nucleus is d. If the same alpha-particle approaches a 209 Po nucleus 84 head-on, what is the closest distance between the alpha-particle and the 209 Po nucleus? 84 A 0.5d B 2.0d C 2.2d D 4.0d 25 A battery, a resistor and a capacitor connected in series are shown in the circuit. The charge stored in the capacitor is Q when the current through the circuit is I. The potential difference V in the circuit is Q Q A IR + B IR C C C
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26 The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor will increase by increasing A the separation between the plates B the amount of charge on the plates C the potential difference between the plates D the permittivity of a medium between the plates 27 The resistivity of an ohmic material varies with A current B temperature C electric field D potential difference

28 A machine requires a current of 50.0 A to operate. The machine will breakdown due to overheating if the rate of heat generated per metre length of a copper wire exceeds 2.0 W. What should be the minimum radius of the copper wire in order to avoid overheating? [Resistivity of copper = 2.0 108 m.] A 2.8 mm B 4.0 mm C 5.0 mm D 5.6 mm 29 Two resistors R1 and R3 and a rheostat R2 are shown in the circuit. What happens to the readings of A1, A2 and A3 when the resistance R2 is increased? A1 A Increases B Increases C Decreases D Decreases A2 Decreases Decreases Decreases Decreases A3 Increases Decreases Increases Decreases
6.0 V, 2.0 R1 A1 R2 R3



30 Two resistors 3.0 and 2.0 connected to a 6.0 V cell of internal resistance 2.0 are shown in the circuit. What is the current flowing through the 3.0 resistor in the circuit? A 0.75 A B 1.13 A C 1.88 A D 2.00 A



31 In a moving coil galvanometer with a radial magnetic field, a torque is produced by a current I flowing through a coil. Which graph represents the relationship between and I? A B C D

32 A cylindrical magnet placed along the axis of a circular coil is shown in the diagram. Which movement does not produce any induced e.m.f. at the terminals of the coil when the magnet is moved in the direction of the arrow? A B C


S Magnet


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33 A rectangular coil of width w and length moving at a constant velocity v through a uniform magnetic field B directed perpendicular to v is shown in the diagram. If the magnetic field is confined to a region of width 3w, which graph shows the variation of induced e.m.f. with distance x? A B C

3w v w

w 2w 3w 4w

w 2w 3w 4w

w 0

w 2w 3w 4w

w 0

w 2w 3w 4w

w 0

w 2w 3w 4w

34 In an alternating current circuit, the variation of voltage V and current I with time t for a capacitor can be represented by V = 100 sin 100t and I = 0.1 sin 100t + , 2 where V is in volts, I is in amperes and t is in seconds. What is the capacitance of the capacitor? A 1.6 F B 10 F C 1.6 F D 10 F 35 Which circuit produces full-wave rectification with terminal X being always positive and terminal Y being always negative? A B C D X + X + X + X +

36 Which quantity will increase when a voltage supply of an operational amplifier is increased? A Open-loop gain C Saturated voltage B Closed-loop gain D Frequency bandwidth 37 An operational amplifier circuit is shown in the diagram below.
Rf Ii Ri V V+ + V0 Io


Which expression about the circuit is not true? Rf R V D Vo = 1 + f Vi Ri i Ri 38 The electric field and magnetic field in electromagnetic waves are A 90 out of phase C parallel to each other B mutually dependent D oscillating in the direction of propagation A V V+ B Ii = Io C Vo = 39 If the oscillation equation of the electric field in an electromagnetic wave is y = E0 sin (t kx), the oscillation equation of the magnetic field is A x = B0 sin (t + kx) C z = B0 sin (t kx) B y = B0 sin (t + kx) D z = B0 sin (t + kx)
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40 Where should an object be placed in front of a convex mirror and a concave mirror so that the image formed is virtual? Convex mirror A At a distance less than the focal length B At a distance less than the focal length C At any position D At any position Concave mirror At a distance less than the focal length At any position At a distance less than the focal length At any position

41 Which one is true about the slit separation a, the distance D from slits to the screen and the separation of fringes in a Youngs two-slit experiment? a A Unchange B Unchange C Increase D Decrease D Increase Decrease Unchange Unchange Separation of fringes Increase Increase Increase Decrease
Glass slides Hair t 5.0 cm

42 An air-wedge formed by a strand of hair between two glass slides each of length 5.0 cm is shown in the diagram. The air-wedge is illuminated from above by monochromatic light of wavelength 580 nm. If the separation between two consecutive dark fringes is 0.28 mm as viewed from above, what is the thickness t of the hair? A 2.6 105 m B 5.2 105 m C 1.0 104 m

D 1.6 104 m

43 A photocell consists of a material of threshold frequency f0. If monochromatic light of frequency 3f0 is directed to the photocell, its stopping potential is 3hf0 hf 2hf0 4hf0 B D 0 C A e e e e 44 Proton, electron, deuteron and helium nucleus are particles. If these particles have equal kinetic energy, which particle has the smallest de Broglie wavelength? A Proton B Electron C Deuteron D Helium nucleus 45 Four energy levels of an atom and the line spectrum produced from the electron transitions between the energy levels are shown in the diagrams (a) and (b) respectively. Which transitions produce P and Q lines? P A E4 E3 B E4 E2 C E3 E2 D E2 E1 Q E2 E1 E4 E1 E4 E1 E4 E3
P increasing Q E4 E3 E2




46 When a beam of X-rays of wavelength 3.10 1010 m is directed at a glancing angle of 26.5 to a crystal, a second-order diffraction is observed. What is the interplanar distance of the crystal? A 3.88 1010 m B 6.95 1010 m C 7.76 1010 m D 1.39 1019 m
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47 Which statement is not true of stimulated emission in laser production? A The photon emitted is in phase with the incoming photon. B A photon is emitted when an incoming photon is absorbed. C One incoming photon will cause two photons to be emitted. D The photon emitted moves in the same direction as the incoming photon. 48 A high energy particle which is emitted when a beryllium foil is bombarded by an alpha-particle is a A proton B neutron C beta-particle D gamma-ray photon 49 A Geiger-Muller tube is placed at a certain distance from a source of radioactive. The count rate R is recorded for a long period of time until the count rate from the source is extremely low as compared to the count rate of the background. Which graph shows the variation of the count rate with time t? AR B R CR D R

50 Nuclide 120 P decays into A Q by emitting two -particles and one positron. What are the 81 Z values of A and Z? A A 201 B 202 C 202 D 206 Z 76 76 78 78


Time: 2 h 30 min

Section A [40 marks] Answer all questions in this section. 1 A level circular track of radius 120 m is designed for a car moving at 80.0 km h1. Calculate the minimum value of the coefficient of static friction between the tyres and the track so that the car does not skid. [4 marks] 2 A 12.0 kg block on a horizontal surface with a horizontal force F applied to it is shown in the diagram. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is 0.85. (a) Calculate the minimum value of F to slide the block. (b) If F is 25.0 N, what is the frictional force acting on the block? (c) If F is 125 N, what is the initial acceleration of the block? 3 (a) A wave pulse propagating in a string from left to right is shown in the diagram. Sketch the form of the reflected wave pulse if the end P of the string is tied
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[3 marks] [1 mark] [2 marks]

Rod P

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(i) tightly to the rod, [1 mark] (ii) to a bangle which moves freely along the rod. [1 mark] (b) (i) State the difference between resonant frequency in a closed pipe with that in an open pipe. [1 mark] (ii) If a standing wave in a pipe is not propagated, how could the sound from the pipe still be heard? [2 marks] 4 (a) State a condition for heat conduction in a medium. [1 mark] (b) A good cooking utensil has a high thermal conductivity but a low heat capacity. Explain the significance of these characteristics. [2 marks] (c) A steel cooking pot has an effective surface area of 0.125 m2 and a thickness of 1.0 103 m. Calculate the rate of heat flow through the bottom of the pot if the temperature difference is 690 C. [2 marks] [The thermal conductivity of steel = 66.9 W m1 K1.] 5 (a) On the same axes, sketch graphs of resistivity against absolute temperature for pure metal and superconductor. Label your graphs. [2 marks] (b) A copper wire of radius 1.5 mm and free electron density of 8.4 1028 m3 carries a current of 5.0 A. Calculate the drift velocity of the free electrons in the wire. [3 marks]
30.0 15.0 45.0 Resistivity

Absolute temperature

6 A combination of electrical components in a circuit is shown in the diagram below.

10.0 20.0 F I 4.0 V

Calculate the final current I. 7 (a) State the principle of the production of X-ray. (b) If the potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is 25 kV, calculate (i) the speed of the electron that strikes the target, (ii) the minimum wavelength of the X-ray produced. 8 The main sections of a mass spectrometer is shown in the diagram below.
Ion source

[5 marks] [1 mark] [2 marks] [2 marks]






(a) State the main use of the mass spectrometer. (b) Explain the use of (i) parallel plates P and the uniform magnetic field B1, (ii) the uniform magnetic field B2.

[1 mark] [2 marks] [2 marks]

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Section B [60 marks] Answer any four questions in this section. 9 (a) (i) Define the work done on a body by a force. [2 marks] (ii) Using an equation of linear motion with constant acceleration, show that the work done on a body by a constant force is equal to the change in the kinetic energy of the body. [4 marks] (iii) State the principle of conservation of energy. [1 mark] (b) Two blocks X and Y with masses 6.0 kg and 3.0 kg respectively connected by a string passing over a smooth pulley are shown in the diagram. The base of block X is 4.0 m above the ground while block Y rests on the ground. X If block X is released from rest and the mass of the pulley is 4.0 m negligible, calculate Y (i) the speed of block X just before it strikes the ground, [3 marks] (ii) the distance travelled by block Y to reach maximum height. Explain how your answer will change if the mass of the pulley is not negligible. [5 marks]

10 (a) One mole of a diatomic ideal gas is heated at a constant pressure of 1.01 105 N m2 from 15.0 C to 35.0 C. Calculate (i) the heat absorbed by the gas, [3 marks] (ii) the change in the volume of the gas, [2 marks] (iii) the work done by the gas, [2 marks] (iv) the change in the internal energy of the gas. [2 marks] (b) A diatomic ideal gas in a container has a pressure of 1.01 105 N m2 at 20.0 C. The gas undergoes adiabatic compression until its volume becomes a quarter of its original volume. (i) What is meant by an adiabatic compression? [1 mark] (ii) Determine the final temperature of the gas. [3 marks] (iii) Calculate the work done on the gas. [2 marks] 11 (a) A magnetic field B passing through a horizontal B wire loop PQRS of an area A and making an R R S angle with the plane of the loop is shown in the diagram. P Q (i) Express, in terms of B, A and , the magnetic flux through the loop. [1 mark] (ii) State two alterations which can produce induced e.m.f. in the loop. [2 marks] (iii) If the magnetic flux through the plane of the loop PQRS is reduced, what is the direction of the induced current in the loop? State the law used. [2 marks] (b) (i) Define self-inductance. [2 marks] (ii) An inductor in the form of solenoid has length , cross-sectional area A and total turns N. Show that the self-inductance L is given by L= 0 N 2A , [2 marks]

where 0 is the permeability of free space.

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(c) A 50.0 Hz a.c. generator consists of a coil of N turns and area 2.0 102 m2 which rotates in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. Calculate N so that the root mean square voltage produced is 240 V. [3 marks] (d) (i) At the moment an electric motor is switched on, a large amount of current flows in the armature and causes damage. Why does this happen? [1 mark] (ii) The electric motor is usually connected in series to an inductor to avoid the above situation from occurring. How can the inductor help avoid the damage? [2 marks] 12 (a) (i) What is the characteristic of light which enables y polarisation to occur? [1 mark] (ii) A charged particle oscillating in the y-direction is shown in the diagram. x If the electromagnetic wave propagates in the positive Charge z-direction, state the directions of the oscillation of the z electric field E and magnetic field B components of the electromagnetic wave produced. [2 marks] (b) Unpolarised light with the electric component Polaroid Polaroid of amplitude E0 passing through two E E0 E0 polaroids is shown in the diagram. (i) What is meant by unpolarised light? Polarisation axis [2 marks] Polarisation axis (ii) Explain why, after the light passes through the first polaroid, the intensity of the light is half of its original value even though the amplitude of the electric component of light before and after passing through the first polaroid is the same. [3 marks] (iii) Calculate the angle so that the original intensity of light can be reduced to 25% after passing through both polaroids. [5 marks] (c) Light can be polarised by reflection. A light beam is directed to a glass surface with a refractive index of 1.52. Calculate the incident angle so that the reflection of the light beam is fully polarised. [2 marks]

13 In the Bohr model, an electron of mass m moves in a circular orbit around its nucleus at a speed of nh v= , 2mr where n is an integer, h the Planck constant and r the radius of the orbit. For the hydrogen atom, (a) show that the radius of the nth orbit is given by rn = n2h20 me2 , [3 marks] [2 marks]

where 0 is the permittivity of free space, (b) determine the radius of the smallest orbit, (c) show that the total energy at the nth level is given by En = 1 e4m n2 802h2 ,

[3 marks]

(d) calculate the ionisation energy of the atom, [3 marks] (e) calculate the wavelength of the radiation emitted when the electron makes a transition from the energy level n = 4 to n = 2. Hence, state the type of electromagnetic radiation emitted. [4 marks]
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14 (a) What is meant by nuclear fusion? (b) A fusion reaction is represented by

2 1H

[1 mark]

+ 3H X + 1n + 18.2 MeV. 1 0

(i) Determine nuclide X. [1 mark] (ii) Calculate the atomic mass of X in u. [4 marks] [Atomic mass of neutron = 1.008665 u, atomic mass of deuterium = 2.014102 u, atomic mass of tritium = 3.016049 u and 1 u = 931 MeV.] (c) In the interior of some stars, fusion takes place as two protons experience a head-on collision with a total initial kinetic energy of 1.2 1013 J. (i) Determine the head-on collision energy for each proton. [1 mark] (ii) Show that this fusion could only take place at a very high temperature. [3 marks] (d) The atomic mass of 25Mg is 24.985837 u and the atomic mass of 25 Al is 24.990429 u. 12 13 (i) What is meant by radioactivity? [1 mark] (ii) Which nucleus will decay to the other nucleus? [1 mark] (iii) What type of decay is involved in (c)(i)? [1 mark] (iv) Calculate the energy, in MeV, released in the decay. [2 marks]

SUGGESTED ANSWERS Paper 1 1. D: End error, zero error and calibration error are systematic errors. 2. D: u = 5.0 m s1, a = 10 m s2, s = 10 m Using s = ut + 1 at 2, 10 = (5.0)t 5.0 t 2 2 gives t = 2.0 s 3. A: x-component, Rx = 4.0 + 5.0 cos 60 = 6.50 N y-component, Ry = 5.0 sin 60o 2.0 = 2.33 N R = 6.502 + 2.332 N = 6.90 N Angle above x-axis, = tan1 2.33 6.50 = 19.7o 4. D: Total force required = F + F Total power = (F + F)v 2 5. B: Coin slips when mv = mg r v = gr = (0.40)(9.81)(1.0) m s1 = 2.0 m s1 6. D: Total K.E. = 1 mu2 + 1 I2 2 2 = 1 mu2 + 1 2 mR2 u 2 3 2 R 5 mu2 = 6 7. A: Sliding friction mg 8. C: C is only true for geostationary satellites. C is not true for other satellites. 9. C: At turning point of curve, resultant gravitational force = 0 Majlis Peperiksaan Malaysia 2009 12

Since MEarth > MMoon, turning point is further from Earth and nearer to Moon. 10. B: In S.H.M., displacement is measured from the equilibrium position. Amplitude of oscillation is 1.0 cm. 11. A: 2f = 100, f = 16 Hz, v = A2 x 2 = (100) 52 32 m s1 = 400 m s1 K.E. = 1 mv2 = 1 (2.0)(400)2 J = 160 kJ 2 2 Amplitude of Q decreases faster implies damping of Q is greater. In the graph of a against f, peak of Q is lower and occurs at a lower frequency. Period is 1.0 s. 2.0 s later is after 2 cycles, hence displacement is the same at 1.0 cm. 10.0 cm = 1 , = 20.0 cm, 2 v = f = (50)(0.20) m s1 = 10.0 m s1 Period of beats, T = 0.20 s. Beats frequency, (1) f = 1 Hz = 5.0 Hz = f1 f2 0.20 Frequency of resultant wave (2) = 4 Hz = 20 Hz = 1 ( f1 + f2) 0.20 2 Solving (1) and (2), f1 = 22.5 Hz, f2 = 17.5 Hz Attractive force is negative. Magnitude of attraction is maximum at P. E A TX = X X e l = (1.80 1011)(1.50 mm2) e, l

12. D:

13. C: 14. C: 15. B:

16. D: 17. C:

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(1.20 1011)(3.00 mm2) e l Taking moments about the weight, TX(d) = TY (99.0 d) (1.80 1011)(1.50 mm2) e(d) l TY = (1.20 1011)(3.00 mm2) e(99.0 d) l d = 56.6 cm p = 1 c2, p1 = 1 (3c)2 = 9p 3 3 Mass of the gas = total mass of gas molecules. Isothermal expansion, temperature T = constant, U = 0 Q = +20 J = U + W, W = +20 J CV,m = gradient of graph = 6500 6100 J mol1 K1 310 290 = 20 J mol1 K1 Cp,m = CV + R = (20 + 8.31) J mol1 K1 = 28.31 J mol1 K1 Cp,m /CV,m = 1.42 2 2 Mass = (r 1 )L1 1 = (r 2)L 2 2, 2 L1 2 r2 = L 2 1 r1 = dQ 2 = k1(r 1 ) = k (r 2) L1 2 2 L2 dt r1 r2

Current in 3.0 resistor 2 (1.875) A = 0.75 A = 2.0 + 3.0 31. A: Torque is directly proportional to I. 32. A: No change of magnetic flux through the coil. 33. D: No e.m.f. is induced when the coil is outside the magnetic field, and when it is completely in the field. E.m.f.s induced as the coil enters and leaves the field are in opposite directions. 1 V 34. B: XC = = 0, 2fC I0 C= 35. D:

18. D: 19. B: 20. C:

1 I0 = 1 0.1 F = 10 F 2f V0 100 100

21. B:

22. B:

k2 k1

L1 k = 2 L2 k1

2 1 = 0.61

r2 r1

(79)(7860) r1 = (420)(10 500) r2

23. C: V = work per unit charge (2e)(42e) (2e)(84e) = 24. B: 1 mu2 = , d1 = 2.0d 40 d1 40 d 2 Q 25. A: V = VR + VC = IR + C r 0 A 26. D: C = . When r increases, C increases. d 27. B: For ohmic material, V = constant if I temperature is constant. L 28. A: Power, P = I 2R = I 2 r 2 Radius, r 1/2 (50.0)2(2.0 108)(1) = m (2.0) = 2.8 mm 29. C: When R2 is increased, effective resistance in the circuit increases. A1 decreases, A2 decreases but A3 increases. 30. A: 1 = 1 + 1 gives R1 = 1.2 R1 2 3 Current from cell, I = 6.0 A 2.0 + 1.2 = 1.875 A 13

I in 1st 1/2-cycle I in 2nd 1/2-cycle 36. C: Saturated voltage = voltage of supply 37. D: The circuit is an inverting amplifier. D is for non-inverting amplifier. 38. B: EM waves are transverse waves. E and B are in phase and mutually perpendicular. 39. C: E and B fields are in phase and move in the x-direction which is the direction of wave propagation. 40. C: Convex mirror image virtual for all object distance. Concave mirror image virtual if u < f. 41. A: Fringe separation, x = D a 5.0 = 178.6, 2t = (178.6)(580 109) 42. B: n = 0.028 t = 5.2 105 m 43. C: Kmax = eVs = h(3f0) hf0 = 2hf0 2hf0 Vs = e 44. D: de Broglie wavelength, = h 1 2 h mv = K = , mv 2mK 2

is the shortest if m is the largest. 45. D:

E4 E3 E2 P E1 Q

46. B: 2d sin = n, n = 2 2d sin 26.5o = 2(3.10 1010) d = 6.95 1010 m 47. B: The incoming photon is not absorbed, but stimulates the emission of a photon. Majlis Peperiksaan Malaysia 2009

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48. B: This reaction led to the discovery of neutrons. 49. A: R decreases exponentially, but not to zero because of background count. 0 50. B: 210P 202Q + 24He + +1e 81 76 2

Paper 2 Section A 1. mg = mv2 r v2 (80.0 103/3600)2 = = 0.419 = (9.81)(120) gr 2. (a) Minimum force, F = mg = (0.85)(12.0)(9.81) N = 100 N (b) F = 25.0 N is not able to move the block. Friction = 25.0 N (c) 125 100 = 12.0a a = 2.08 m s2 3. (a) (i)

6. Finally, the capacitor is fully charged and no current flows in the 10.0 resistor. Effective resistance R in the circuit is given by 1 1 1 + = R 30.0 (15.0 + 45.0) R = 20.0 V 4.0 A = 0.20 A Final current, I = = R 20.0 7. (a) X-ray is produced when fast electrons are retarded on collision with a heavy metal. 1 2 (b) (i) mv = eV 2 Speed of electron, v= = 2eV m

2(1.60 1019)(25 103) m s1 9.11 1031 7 = 9.37 10 m s1 hc (ii) min = eV (6.63 1034)(3.00 108) m (1.60 1019)(25 103) = 4.97 1011 m 8. (a) A mass spectrometer is used to determine the mass of ions of different isotopes. (b) (i) As velocity selector: To select ions with a certain velocity. (ii) Magnetic field B2 deflects ions of different isotopes of the same element into different semicircular paths. =

(ii) (i) For the fundamental note, resonant frequency of a closed pipe is half the resonant frequency of an open pipe. (ii) Vibrations of the air column produce sound that is propagated through the air around the pipe. 4. (a) There must be a temperature difference (or temperature gradient) across the medium. (b) High thermal conductivity: Heat flows at a fast rate. Low heat capacity: Small quantity of heat is required to increase its temperature. (c) Rate of heat flow, d dQ = kA dx dt 690 = (66.9)(0.125) W 1.0 103 6 = 5.77 10 W 5. (a) Resistivity
Pure metal Superconductor 0 Absolute temperature


(b) I = nAve Drift velocity, I 5.0 v= = m s1 nAe (8.4 1028)(1.5 103)2 (1.60 1019) = 5.26 105 m s1 Majlis Peperiksaan Malaysia 2009 14

Section B 9. (a) (i) Work on a body by a force F, W = Fs where s = displacement of the body in the direction of the force (ii) Mass of body = m, initial velocity = u After being displaced a distance s by the force F, velocity = v. Work done = Fs (v2 = u2 + 2as, F = ma) 2 2 1 1 v u = (ma) = mv2 mu2 2 2 2a = increase in kinetic energy (iii) Principle of conservation of energy: Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but can be transformed from one form into another. (b) (i) Common acceleration a of the blocks is given by (6.0 + 3.0)a = (6.0 3.0)(9.81) a = 3.27 m s2 v2 = u2 + 2as = 0 + 2(3.27)(4.0) v = 5.11 m s1

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10. (a)

(ii) For Y: After travelling upwards 4.0 m, u = 5.11 m s1, a = 9.81 m s2 At the maximum height, v = 0 v2 = u2 + 2as 5.112 s= m = 1.33 m 2(9.81) Total distance travelled = 5.33 m If the mass of the pulley is not negligible, part of the energy of the blocks would be transformed into rotational kinetic energy of the pulley. Hence the block Y would rise through a shorter distance. 5 (i) For diatomic gas, CV,m = R, 2 5 7 R+R= R 2 2 Heat absorbed, Q 7 = (1)Cp,m(T) = (8.31)(35.0 15.0) J 2 = 582 J Use pVm = RT Initial volume, (8.31)(273 + 15.0) 3 Vm = m 1.01 105 3 = 0.02370 m Final volume, (8.31)(273 + 35.0) 3 V = m 1.01 105 = 0.02534 m3 Increase in volume, V = (0.02534 0.02370) m3 = 1.64 103 m3 Work done by the gas, W = p(V) = (1.01 105)( 1.64 103) J = 166 J Use Q = U + W Change in internal energy, U = (582 166) J = 416 J Adiabatic compression: Compression of a gas without heat entering or leaving the gas, Q = 0. Diatomic gas, 7 = , use TV 1 = constant 5 Cp,m = T2 = (273 + 20.0) (iii) Work done, W = U = U= 5 nRT 2 V1 V1/4

11. (a)

If n = 1, work done = 4508 J (i) Magnetic flux, = (B sin )A (ii) Rotate the coil about an axis parallel to the plane of the coil. Remove the coil from the magnetic field. Reduce or increase the magnetic flux density B. (Any two) (iii) Induced current in the direction PQRSP. Lenzs law states that the direction of the induced current is such as to oppose the change in the magnetic flux linked with the coil. When the magnetic field is reduced, the induced current flows in the direction PQRSP so that the magnetic field in the coil produced by the current is in the original direction of B. (i) From E = L dI , dt self-inductance, E L= (dI/dt) =



e.m.f. induced in the inductor rate of change of current in the inductor (ii) Magnetic flux, N = LI = NBA, and B = 0 I l N LI = N 0 IA l 0N 2A l (c) Maximum e.m.f. induced, E0 = NBA L= R.m.s. voltage produced = NBA = 240 V 2 N= = (d) (i) 2 (240) BA(2 f ) 2 (240) = 360 turns (0.15)(2.0 102)2(50) No back-e.m.f. is induced yet. V Current in armature, I0 = , where V R is the applied voltage, and R is the resistance of the coil. Since R is small, the current I is large and causes the coil to be heated up. When the motor is switched on, the change of current in the inductor produces a back-e.m.f. that reduces the current. Light waves are transverse waves. Direction of EM wave propagation is in the direction of the vector product, E B. Majlis Peperiksaan Malaysia 2009






= 510 K


5 nR(T2 T1) 2 5 = n(8.31)(510 293) J 2 = 4508n J where n = number of moles Work done on the gas = 4508n J 15

12. (a)

(i) (ii)

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Direction of E-field: +y direction, direction of B-field: x direction, or Direction of E-field: y direction, direction of B-field: +x direction
y E B x z v B x


z v y E


(i) Unpolarised light: Oscillations of the E-field (and B-field) are in all possible planes. (ii) Components of the electric field oscillations parallel to the polarisation axis of the Polaroid are transmitted, but components perpendicular to the axis are absorbed. Therefore, only half of the energy is transmitted. (iii) I0 = intensity of unpolarised light Intensity of light transmitted by 1 first Polaroid, I1 = I0 2 Intensity after second Polaroid, 1 1 I cos2 I2 = I0 = I1 cos2 = 2 0 4 cos = 1 2 = 45o Using Brewsters law, tan i = n, refractive index i = tan11.52 = 56.7o mv2 e2 nh = ,v= 2 rn 2mrn 40r n 2 e2 m nh = 2 rn 2mrn 40r n n2h20 rn = me2 Radius is the smallest when n = 1, (1)2h20 r1 = me2 (6.63 1034)2(8.85 1012) m = (9.11 1031)(1.60 1019)2 = 5.31 1011 m Total energy, En = kinetic energy + electric potential energy 1 (e)(e) = mv2 + 2 40rn From 1 e2 mv2 e2 = , mv2 = 2 2 rn 80rn 40r n


14. (a) (b)



13. (a)




e2 e2 me2 = 80rn 80 n2h20 1 e4m = 2 2 n 8h20 Ionisation energy = E1 1 e4m = 2 (1)2 8h20 (1.60 1019)4(9.11 1031) J = 8(6.63 1034)2(8.85 1012)2 = 2.17 1018 J 1 e4m = 2.17 1018 J E1 = 2 (1)2 8h20 1 e4m = 1.356 1019 J E4 = 2 (4)2 8h20 4 1 e m = 5.425 1019 J E2 = 2 (2)2 8h20 hc = E4 E2 = (5.425 1.356) 1019 J (6.63 1034)(3.00 108) = m 4.069 1019 = 4.89 107 m which is visible light. Nuclear fusion: Two small nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus. 2 3 4 1 (i) 1H + 1H 2X + 0n + 18.2 MeV 4 X is 2He. 2 3 4 1 (ii) 1H + 1H 2X + 0n + 18.2 MeV (2.014102 + 3.016049) u = mX + 1.008665 + 18.2 u 931 mX = 4.001937 u (i) Energy of each proton 1 = (1.2 1013) J = 6.0 1014 J 2 3 kT = 6.0 1014 J (ii) 2 Temperature, 2(6.0 1014) K T= 3(1.38 1023) = 2.90 109 K which is very high. (i) Radioactivity is the spontaneous and random emission of radiations from unstable nuclei. (ii) 25 Al decays to 25 Mg, because mass of 13 12 Al > mass of Mg (iii) Positron decay 0 (iv) 25 Al 25 Mg + +1 e 13 12 m = 24.990429 u 31 24.985837 + 9.11 1027 u 1.66 10 = 0.004043 u Energy released = (0.004043)(931) MeV = 3.76 MeV =

Majlis Peperiksaan Malaysia 2009


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