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1 On-condition maintenance of reciprocating engine is covered under A. CAR series D part I C. aircraft rule 72 B. aircraft rule 70 D.

CAR series D part III

2 Aircraft maintenance programme and their approval are covered under A. IAF 60(2) C. CAR series D part II 3 Alert value means A. maximum reliability index C. maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but within the allowable operating range B. minimum reliability index D. None of the above B. IAR 62 D. Both a and c are correct

4 When the operator is in the alert area the RAO will A. monitor the corrective programmes closely to B. keep the DGCA informed of the progress and determine their effectiveness and indicate the effectiveness of the corrective programme necessity of the amendment C. inform the manufacturer of the aircraft for taking corrective action 5 Reliability is a function of A. maintenance C. personal training 6 IAR 60 (2) authorise DGCA to A. specify the standard of balloons maintenance C. specify the standard of aircraft maintenance B. specify the standard of glider maintenance D. None of the above B. basic design D. All of the above D. Both a and b is correct

7 Restoring an aircraft unit to it original design performance level after replacing/re-working parts to a given standard is termed as A. maintenance C. top overhaul 8 An item is judge damage-tolerant A. if structural element or assembly is judged significant because of reduction in aircraft residual strength or loss of structural function C. a and b are correct 9 S.S.I. Are A. ssolid structure items C. significant service instruction 10 S.S.I are A. structural assembly B. structural assembly which is judge significant because of the reduction in aircraft residual strength D. None of the above B. structuallly significant instruction D. structural significant item B. if it can sustain damage & the remaining structure can withstand reasonable load or excessive structural deformation when the damage is detected D. All of the above are correct B. overhaul D. None of the above

C. damage tolerant item

11 On-condition maintenance implies the philosophy A. of fit and forget it C. a and b are correct 12 Condition monitoring implies the philosophy A. of fit and forget it C. Both a and b are correct 13 Substantial damage means A. any damage beyond repair C. any damage necessitating the replacement or extensive repair of any major component 14 Approved maintenance process is monitored by A. hard time maintenance C. Both a and b are correct B. on-condition maintenance D. aircraft mechanical delay & PDR B. any damage which necessitate the replacement of any component D. any damage beyond economical repair B. of fit until failure D. None of the above B. of fit until failure D. None of the above

15 The continuing capability of the aircraft to perform in a satisfactory manner the flight operation for which it was designed is termed as A. maintenance C. airworthiness 16 Hard time maintenance is carried out at A. calendar time C. no. of landing B. no. of cycles D. any one of the above is correct B. condition monitoring D. on-condition

17 In an approved maintenance process, pilot report is computed as A. rate per 1000 hrs of operation/per 100 departures C. rater per 1000 hrs of operation/per 500 departures 18 S.S.I.D contains A. significant structural item, method of inspection and required corrective action C. approved programme to be included in a.c. manual B. supplemental structural inspection document D. None of the above B. rate per 100 hrs of operation/per 100 departures D. any one of the above is correct

19 Every operator shall maintain a continuous record of the engine parameter in a A. tabulated form C. graphical form if feasible or tabulated form B. graphical form D. graphical & tabulated form

20 The engine parameters are recorded under stabilized condition A. during take off C. during ground run B. during landing D. during cruise level flying

21 The life record of all the engine acessories is available in A. T.B.O charts C. Engine log book B. J.L.B. D. O/H procedure sheet

22 Every engine parameter has an alert value which is fixed by A. operator C. RAO B. DGCA D. operator in consultation with RAO

23 Engine overhaul records are preserved for a period of A. one year C. five years 24 Alert values are A. reference values only C. both a and b are correct B. accepting limits only D. None of the above B. two years D. ten years

25 The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded A. in the engine log log book C. by an AME B. in the aircraft log book D. both a and b are correct

26 The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded A. after post overhaul test of the engine B. after the partial/top overhaul or repair of the engine followed by a test run/test flight, as applicable D. All the above are correct

C. at periods approved as per the approved maintenance schedule

27 The daily upliftment of fuel and oil consumption in aircraft fuel and oil register is signed by A. lincensed AME C. Dy QCM B. QCM D. any authorised person

28 The reliability of engines fitted to aircraft is measured in terms of A. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in relation to number of engine flight hours C. the number and nature of all in-flight shut down in relation to number of airframe hours B. the number and nature of all flameouts in relation to number of airframe flight hours D. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in relation to propeller flight hours

29 If the operator's reliability index is above the alert value, he will A. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by the 25th day of the month C. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the 25th day of the month B. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by the 10th day of the month D. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the 10th day of the month

30 Reliability index is A. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per B. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that 1000 hours of engine operation on that particular particular type of airframe and engine type of airframe and engine combination combination C. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per D. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that 100 hours of engine operation on that particular particular type of airframe type of engine 31 Reliability monitoring unit for its functioning will gather information from A. un-schedule maintenance & schedule maintenance C. sampling inspection 32 Alert value is numerically equal to A. 'Mean value' plus "standard deviation" C. 'Mean value' plus "mode value" 33 The requirements to CAR are applicable to all A. schedule airlines C. air taxi operator 34 Alert notice is issued by A. the DGCA C. the QCM 35 A person of issue of ATPL shall have A. 1500 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC C. 1500 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC 36 Validity of ATPL of pilot below 25 years of age is A. 06 months C. 18 months 37 Alert Notice will be issued by the R.M.U. A. to all concerned persons of the organisation B. in duplicate to the RAO B. 12 months D. 24 months B. 2000 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC D. 3000 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC B. the RAO D. the RMU B. private airlines D. All are correct B. 'Mean value' plus "two standard deviation" D. 'Mode value' plus "two standard deviation". B. un-schedule removals D. All the above are correct

C. in duplicate to the RAO on 25th of every month D. Both a and c are correct 38 Organisation approved for manufacture of aircraft is approved in A. category 'A' C. category 'B' B. category 'C' D. None of the above

39 A firm doing processing of aircraft components by electroplating, anodic treatment, metal spraying, heat treatment, etc. is approved in A. category 'A' C. category 'D' B. category 'B' D. category 'F'

40 A firm approved in category 'A' A. carries out maintenance of aircraft C. carries out storage & distribution B. carries out manufacture of aircraft D. carries out manufacture storage & distribution

41 A firm approved in carrying out C of A aircraft is approved in A. category 'B' C. category 'D' B. category 'C' D. category 'E'

42 A firm approved in carrying out FTD of Avionics sets is approved in A. category 'A' C. category 'D' B. category 'E' D. category 'C'

43 A firm approved in carrying out non-destructure test of aircraft approved A. category 'A' C. category 'D' B. category 'B' D. category 'E'

44 An organisation approved in carrying out propeller overhaul is approved in A. category 'C' C. category 'D' 45 Firms approvedin category 'E' A. can carry out maintenance of aircraft C. can carry out training of aircraft personel B. can carry out manufacture of aircraft D. can carry out distribution of fuels B. category 'B' D. category 'E'

46 A firm carrying out chemical analysis physical test and metallurgical tests is approved in A. category 'E' C. category "E & D' B. category 'D' D. All these are correct

47 One copy of all documents used in the system of quality control in respect of activities performed including all incoming certification is preserved for a minimum period of A. one year C. five years B. two years D. ten years

48 Release and rejection notes are preserved for a period of A. six months C. two years 49 Release notes are distributed as follows A. 1st copy to consignee, 2nd copy to organisation records C. 1st copy to supplier, 2nd copy to RAO 50 First copy of 'Rejection note' is issued to A. organisation records C. consignee B. supplier D. RAO B. 1st copy to organisation records, 2nd copy to consignee D. 1st copy to RAO, 2nd copy to supplier B. one year D. five years

51 'Release notes' is signed by A. a person approved by DGCA C. a person named in terms of approval 52 Certificate of approval is cancelled by A. DGCA C. Director of Airsafety B. RAO/DAI D. Both b and c are correct B. a person approved by RAO D. Both a and c are correct

53 To get type approval for an aircraft component equipment including instruments, one should submit the following A. maintenance manual C. type instruction & type service manual 54 Which of the following statement is false? A. in case any conponent or equipment fitted on B. /////the item or component is not removed in a aircraft is due for replacement earlier than the stipulated time.//// FRC is invalid if aircraft validity of flight release certificate issued by suffers any major damage. AME, the FRC automatically ceases to be valid(contd////// C. The validity of FRC is 12 hrs of operation of four days, whichever is earlier D. The pilot can certify pre-flight inspection schedule in respect of an aircraft engaged in nonschedule operation provided he is approved by DGCA B. detailed drawing D. All of the above

55 Approved maintenance organisation, maintaining private aircraft may reflect the arrangement in their A. Maintenance system manual C. Operation manual B. Quality Control manual D. Engineering Organisation manual

56 As per CAR series E part I, storing and distribution of previously certified aircraft goods by a firm is approved in A. category 'C' C. category 'A' 57 Manufacturer means A. an organisation engaged in the manufacture B. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of of airframe, engine, aircraft components or aircraft items of equipment to approved specifications and drawings C. an organisation engaged in the maintenance of aircraft 58 Type certificate means a certificate issued A. to an organisation engaged in the manufacture of particular 'type of aircraft' C. by RAO to signify the design of a type of aircraft, aircraft component or item of equipment B. to a particular type of aircraft or for a series of aircraft D. by DGCA to signify the design of a type of aircraft, aircraft component or item of equipment D. All the above are correct B. category 'D' D. category 'F'

59 An organisation engaged in manufacture of aircraft component issues A. certificate of maintenance C. certificate of approval B. certificate of airworthiness D. certificate of manufacture

60 An organisation desiring approval in category 'B' for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA A. ten specimens of 8"x2"x16swg C. ten specimens of 6"x2"x16swg 61 'Aircraft goods' means A. any part of the soundness and correct functioning of which is essential to the continued airworthiness or safety of the aircraft C. aircraft components or materials, including paints, dopes, thinner, fuel lubricant and special petroleum products intended in use in civil aircraft 62 Certificate of approval A. is a document issued by an approved organisation and defines the scope of organisation C. is a document issued by DGCA to an approved organisation and giving the scope of approval B. is a document issued by an organisation to state its approval in category viz, 'A', 'B' etc. D. Both a & b are correct B. aircraft components and items of equipment B. twelve specimens of 8"x2"x16swg D. twelve specimens of 6"x2"x16swg

D. Both a & b are correct

63 A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components, spares, materials and goods and certifying that the same were obtained from an approved source after manufacture /repair /overhaul is called A. sale certificate C. release note 64 Rejection note is a document A. issued by DGCA to an approved organisation to cover the return of aircraft component received under incoming certificate C. issued by RAO to cover the return of any aircraft component received under incoming release note B. issued by an approved organisation for purpose of advising the details of rejection of certified aircraft goods which fail to meet applicable requirements D. Both a & c are correct. B. release certificate D. None of the above

65 All AME's should be medically checked up by at least MBBS doctor once A. in a year C. in six years B. in two years D. in five years.

66 An organisation seeking approval in any of the categories A to G should A. apply to RAO in duplicate C. apply to DGCA in duplicate along with the enclosures B. apply to DGCA in duplicate D. apply to RAO in duplicate along with the enclosures

67 An organisation seeking approval will normally submit A. two different types of manual C. three different types of manual in three sets B. three different types of manual D. None of the above

68 Three different manuals required for approval of an organisation are A. Q.C. manual, M S Manual, Structural Repair manual C. Q.C. manual, Engine Overhaul manual M S manual 69 Engineering Organisation manual is A. approved by DGCA B. approved by RAO B. Q.C. manual, Structural Repair manual, Engine Overhaul manual D. Q.C. manual, M S manual, Engineering Organisation manual

C. organisational set-up (organisation tree) of the D. approved by operator firm with particular reference to the duties and responsibilities of the various major units of engineering facility like production, quality control e 70 Quality Control manual is approved by A. DGCA C. DGCA in consultation with RAO 71 Maintenance System manual is approved by A. DGCA C. Controller of Airworthiness B. DGCA in consultation with RAO D. RAO in consultation with DGCA B. RAO D. Director Aeronautical Inspection

72 The manner of preparing inspection schedule and assigning periodicity wherever applicable in respect of periodic maintenance of aircraft component is contained in A. Engineering Organisation manual C. M.S. manual B. Q.C. manual D. None of the above

73 Procedure for release of aircraft by 'maintenance' to 'operation' is contained in A. Q.C.manual C. Engineering Organisation manual B. M.S. manual D. Both a and b are correct

74 As per rule 52 of IAR minimum mandatory instruments and equipments required for having single engine are A. altimeter, ASI, RPM indicator C. altimeter, ASI, fire extinguisher B. altimetr, ASI, watch D. altimeter, ASI

75 Installation of FDR is a must for issue/renewal/validity of C of A on A. all turbine engined aircraft C. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 5700 kg and above B. all aircraft above 15000 kg D. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above

76 A sensitive altimeter and electrical power failure indicator is a must on aircraft A. with AUW above 15000 kg and flying in IFR C. intended to cruising above 30000 feet B. manufactured after 30th June 1978 D. on international flight over international waters

77 The installation of CVR is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft with A. piston engines having AUW below 5700 kg C. as in (b) having AUW of 15000 kg or above B. turbine engine having AUW of 5700 kg or above D. None is correct

78 Certification of AME 'R' for flight release on private aircraft may not necessary if ground facilities are not available the certification may be deferred to A. inspection associated with next flight certification C. align with any schedule within 50 hours 79 Mechanical stream means the trades of A. airframe and engines C. instruments and autopilots 80 Avionic stream means the trades of A. radido communication and navigation system C. autopilots and radar systems 81 Concurrent experience means A. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied categories of the same stream B. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied categories of different streams B. electrical and instruments system D. All are correct B. machine and engines D. None is correct B. next 100 hours schedule D. Any one of the above

C. experience acquired simultaneously on engine D. Both b and c are correct and instruments system 82 Recent experience means experience acquired in the preceding A. 24 months C. 6 months 83 AME licence in category 'A' is equivalent to A. ICAO type I licence C. ICAO type III lincece 84 AME licence in category 'D' is equivalent to A. ICAO type I licence C. ICAO type III licence B. ICAO type II licence D. ICAO type IV licence B. ICAO type II licence D. ICAO type IV licence B. 12 months D. 3 months

85 Paper IV of AME licence exam is related to specific type of A. aircraft C. electrical equipment B. engine D. All are correct

86 An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (LA) on aircraft of similar construction will have to show an additional experience of A. three months C. twelve months B. six months D. None is correct

87 An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will have to show on additional experience of A. 12 months with 3 months recent experience C. 6 months with 3 months recent experience B. 24 months with 6 months recent experience D. 6 months

88 An applicant applying for licence on helicopter of AUW below 3000 kg will have to show a total aeronautical experience of four years both on airframe and engine simultaneously out of which A. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 3 month recent experience C. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 12 month recent experience 89 AME licence in category 'B' is given to helicopter A. with AUW below 5700 kg C. with AUW below 3000 kg B. with AUW below 15000 kg D. with AUW below 2000 kg B. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience D. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience

90 Person having valid AME licence covering aircraft below 5700 kg and desirous of having an extension of glider will have to show a recent experience of A. 12 months on particular type of glider C. 3 months on particular type of glider B. 6 months on particular type of glider D. 1 month on particular type of glider

91 AME licence is category 'D' is issued for all piston engines A. below 500 BHP C. below 300 BHP B. below 450 BHP D. below 250 BHP

92 For an extension on turbine engine in category 'C' the candidate should have A. 12 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience C. 24 months experience on type on which 12 months should be recent experience B. 12 months experience on type on which 3 months should be recent experience D. 24 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience

93 For issue of licence in category 'V' the candidate must possess A. a valid RTR (Aero) licence issued by Ministry of B. a licence in category E,I and R Communications at the time of oral-cumpractical test C. BAMEC in category ES, IS, RN and have undergone an approved training course on integrated avionics system 94 Licence in category 'X' is issued for A. overhaul of V.P. propeller C. overhaul of electrical system installed on light aircraft B. overhaul of radio equipment D. Both a and b are correct D. All are correct

95 An applicant may be allowed to appear for paper I, II and III of AME licence examination after he/she has acquired at least A. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience B. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience C. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience D. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience in in relevant category relevant category 96 The licence in category R pertaining to heavy aircraft will be endorsed as A. valid for communication/navigation/radar system installed on the under mentioned aircraft C. 'valid for heavy aircraft' B. HF, VHF, ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/Omega, DME weather radar etc. on particular type of aircraft D. Both a and b are correct

97 Airborne communication system includes A. VHF, HF, CVR, FDR, audio equipment C. VHF, HF, CVR, audio equipment 98 Airborne navigation system includes A. ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/OMEGA and CW hyperblic equipment C. WX Radar, DME, Radio altimeter, ATC transponder 99 Airborne radar system includes A. ADF, WX Radar, VOR/ILS, ATC transponder C. WX Radar, DME, Radio Altimeter, ATC transponder 100 CAR are issued by DGCA A. to amplify any specific aircraft rule for the understanding of the operator C. to meet the technological developments and changes in maintenance concept on sophisticated new generation aircraft 101 The purpose of itnroduction of CAR series C is A. to stipulate the requirement of recording, reporting, investigation, rectification and analysis of defect B. to raise in general the safety consciousness of the operator quality control organisation B. as a statutory requirement, non-compliance of which is a violation D. All above are correct B. ADF, VOR, Radar, VOR/ILS ATC transponder HF D. WX Radar, DME, ATC transponder B. ADF, VHF, HF, FDR, VLF/omega and CW hyperbolic equipment D. WX Radar, VOR/DME, ILS, Radio altimeter, ATC transponder B. VHF, HF, VLF/omega ADF, audio equipment D. VHF, HF, VOR, ILS audio equipment

C. to indicate an analytical approach to reliability D. to introduce a procedure by which operator monitoring during maintenance to insure maintenance standard can be monitored from a safety of operation and timely preventive distance maintenance measures 102 All major defects experienced by an organisation engaged in maintenance/major maintenance A. should only be reported to DGCA in the manner specified in the CAR C. It is necessary for an operator to apprise the manufacturer of major defects to undertake continuous assessment of structural integrity B. may also be reported to the manufacturer of the aircraft / aircraft componentsw for seeking advice to prevent recurrence of defects D. Both b & c are correct

103 Reliability programme followed by the quality control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at A. identifying potential problems C. achieving operational economy 104 An "item of equipment" means A. functionally significant item on aircraft C. it is a self contained unit B. an essential unit on aircraft for safety of aircraft or its components D. a combination of all B. optium utilisation of aircraft D. keeping in force with present day technology

105 The content/scope/frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised A. only when maker so desires C. only when justification based on operator's experience is acceptable to DGCA 106 A critical I.F.S.D means A. engine failure in air beyond pilot's control C. a "shut down" affected by pilot on observing abnormal indication B. any IFSD associated with training flights/test flights D. Both b & c are correct B. only when DGCA so desires D. only after incorporation of a major modification

107 According to CAR series D part II "condition monitoring" component means A. that contains those units and system which may be operating for a limited period C. that contains those units and system which may be inoperative in service for a limited period without affecting the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft B. either approved by DGCA or the QCM of the organisation D. a configuration deviation list (CDL) in respect of transport category aircraft

108 In the event of any damage caused to the aircraft while taxying by an authorised individual it should be promptly intimated to A. owner/operator of the aircraft C. concerned regional/sub regional inspection office B. International Airport authority of India D. Both a & c are correct

109 Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category may be used for A. research or experimental purpose C. carrying passengers/mails/goods or for imparting training B. racing aircraft D. normal category after obtaining permission from DGCA

110 While operating an agricultural aircraft the minimum requirement for preflight inspection A. must be carried before each flight B. may be carried out once before the first flight of the day unless the aircraft is suspected to have suffered from any defect or damage D. None of the above is correcty

C. need not be carried out if the flight release certificate is valid

111 If the defects observed in the aircraft other than public transport aircraft at places other than normal base they may be recorded in the A. defect register which must be carried on board B. loose sheet for ultimate transferring to defect register kept at normal base C. JLB for ultimate transferring to defect register D. All the above are correct

112 As per CAR series 'C' part I the records associated with the defects and their rectification shall be preserved for a period of A. one year C. two years B. six months D. Not required to be preserved

113 In determining the proven 'service life' of an aircraft or any of its component might be the factor that will be kept in view will be the A. area of operation, manufacturer recommendation and applicant's own service experience on similar type of components C. other operator service experience of similar equipment B. number of landings effecting on flight sector I.e. shorthaul and longhaul operation D. All are correct

114 The periodical inspection schedules are prepared by the QCM of the firm and is submitted for approval. This is not applicable in case of A. non-schedule operators C. gliding clubs B. private operators D. schedule operators

115 The application form for change of ownership of aircraft is A. CA 23 C. CA 27 B. CA 28 D. CA 98

116 With effect from 1st Jan 80 passenger safety information briefing card should be provided at every passenger seat by A. schedule operator C. state aircraft B. non-schedule operator D. All the above are correct

117 Deficiency list is to be approved by DGCA. This is applicable to A. schedule operator C. private operator B. non-schedule operator D. Both a & b are correct

118 Alert value means maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but within the allowable operating range which will not cause malfunction to an extent where aircraft safety is in jeopardy. This is applicable to A. all aircraft engines C. turbine engines only B. piston engines only D. small aircraft engine operator only

119 The formal for maintenance of records of fuel and oil uplift and consumption in respect of light aircraft engine is given in A. advisory circular no. 4 of 1976 B. CAR series D part V

C. not given anywhere. The operator has to make D. AME notice no. 1 of 1970 for himself and get it approved by DGCA 120 The grant of approval to an organisation in any category will depend upon A. the request of the applicant C. qualification of QCM/Dy QCM and other technical staff B. capability/capacity to perform the work D. All the above are correct

121 How you will know the mandatory modification status of your aircraft? A. From the pink page of relevant log book C. From the white page of log book B. From the green page of log book D. From the manufacturer

122 All aircraft registered in India must have A. fire extinguisher and defuelling means C. play-card indicating up-to what estent smoking is allowed B. fire extinguisher and first aid Kit, contents of which, has been certified by an AME D. Both b & c are correct

123 As per IAR on aircraft involved in an accident which has major defect A. aircraft engine caught fire during refuelling on the departure day C. under-carriage accidentally retracts during a major inspection 124 Mark the correct statement A. MEL does not include flying controls, complete B. MEL may not include items like galley equipment engine and landing gears entertainment systems, passengers, convenience equipment which do not effect the airworthiness of the aircraft C. not withstanding the MEL, AME need not to certify the aircraft for flight release or a pilot need not to accept the aircraft for flight if it is feared that it is unsafe to do so 125 Scope of approval of an organisation depends on A. the capacity of the firm to undertake the job C. suitable & QCM & Dy QCM B. the equipment available and technical literature D. All the above are correct D. All are correct B. a passenger is badly injured during time of take off D. All the above are correct

126 Only one of the following need not have the approval of the maintenance organisation A. private owner of aircraft C. schedule operator B. non-schedule operator D. aircraft owned by state govts

127 The maintenance schedule of an aircraft organisation is approved by the A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation C. Controller or Director of Airworthiness of the region B. Quality Control Manager of only Indian Airlines and Air India D. Only b & c are correct

128 The dailyreview board meeting is obligatory on the part of schedule operator A. to examine the nature of defect experience on B. to satisfy if rectification action are adequate the previous day C. to decide action on defects of repetitive nature D. to discuss analysis and decide action on defects in co-operation with AID 129 If during an investigation the cause of the defects is attributed to wilful negligence of the aircraft maintenance engineer A. the person concerned is suspended by the QCM immediately C. the Quality Control Manager should be taken in consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of penal action B. the offender is issued show-cause notice D. action by QCM should not be taken in consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of penal action

130 All major defects experienced by an organisation during maintenance should be reported to DGCA A. in the manner specified in CAR B. should also be reported to the manufacturer of the aircraft component for seeking advise on prevention of recurrence of similar defects

C. or it is necessary for an operator to apprise the D. Both a & b are correct manufacturer of only structural defects 131 For effective monitoring of aircraft and engine system for functioning in flight, the crew member should record all necessary parameter readings A. once during each sector of flight C. during climbing phase soon after take off B. only under stabilised cruise condition D. only under emergency condition of flight

132 On public transport aircraft the defects reported by the pilot are recorded in A. jib column II B. flight report book and the aircraft can only be released for further flight when duly rectified by the AME. D. defect register maintained by the Quality Control Manager to ensure corrective action

C. flight report book only when the nature of the defect is major

133 Analytical study of in-flight instrument reading of engine parameters (EGT/EPR/TAS/N1/N2) is intended to A. evaluate alert values C. establish aerodynamic cleanliness B. detect in-service deterioration D. determine reliability index

134 An alert notice in the event of system reliability exceeding alert value is issued by A. manufacturer C. the RMU B. the DGCA D. the QCM

135 Reliability programme followed by the quality control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at A. optimum utilisation of aircraft C. identifying potential areas 136 Aircraft noise level requirements A. are applicable to supersonic aircraft C. may be exempted by DGCA for any aircraft or class of aircrafts B. relate to restriction only in the vicinity of airports D. should have been complied with an aircraft before 21.12.85 B. achieving operational economy D. keeping in pace with present day technology

137 The circumstances under which an aircraft may be released with GPWS as unserviceable will be spelt out in A. M E L C. Flight Manual B. C D L D. M S manual

138 Maintenance procedure for GPWS will be included in A. Quality Control Manual C. Flight Manual B. Maintenance System Manual D. appropriate maintenance schedule

139 The contents of scope and frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised A. only when makers so desire C. only when justification based on operator's experience is acceptable to DGCA B. only when DGCA so desires D. only after the incorporation of a major modifications

140 A major defect investigation A. should not be done in haste C. to pin-point the cause is more important B. should be done with speed for timely preventive/curative action D. any one of the above

141 The purpose behind recording of defects and inflight instrument reading is to achieve A. smooth functioning of the reliability and statistical quality control system C. timely corrective action B. effective monitoring D. All of the above

142 When an aircraft registered outside India is in Indian territory sustains major damage or a major defect is found A. DGCA may prohibit the aircraft from flying B. DGCA should not prohibit the aircraft from flying without concurrence of the appropriate authority of the country of registration of the aircraft D. None of the above is correct

C. instead of prohibiting the aircraft from flying DGCA informs the fact to the country of registration and allows the aircraft to fly 143 Critical shut-down are those A. which cause aircraft structural damage, generate projection or fires adversely effecting the controllability of aircraft C. those which cannot be put down or feathered

B. shut down for test or training

D. Both a and c are correct

144 A current list of all in-flight shut down rate, engine hours flown and reliability index is submitted in a consolidated manner to the RAO A. by the 15th of each month C. by the tenth of each month B. by the end of each month D. None of the above

145 When a new issue of any CAR parts becomes effective A. the earlier parts stand cancelled C. the earlier issue of that particular CAR part stands cancelled B. the earlier issued stands cancelled D. the earlier series stand cancelled

146 At present one copy of each CAR is supplied free to A. all AME's C. all owners/operators of the aircraft B. all pilots D. All the above

147 Reflection of the requirements of the CAR in the quality control-cum-maintenance system manual is the responsibility of the A. operator/owner C. AME 148 When minor changes are made to a CAR part A. a new issue is issued C. an amendment is issued B. a new part is issued D. new series are issued B. head of the organisation D. QCM

149 Whenever a new issue of a CAR part is issued it is given A. an issue number C. issue number along with the date of issue B. a part no D. issue number along with the date of issue & date of effectively

150 The certification to the effect that any servicing, modification, repair, inspection have been carried out in accordance with airworthiness requirements of the DGCA is called A. certificate of maintenance C. certificate of maintenance review 151 Public transport aircraft can A. undertake aircraft work C. carry passengers but not cargo 152 Flight time as per aircraft rules means A. the moment aircraft first moves under its own power for taking off until it comes to rest at the end of the flight C. synonymous to term "chock to chock" B. synonymous to the term "block to block" B. also be a private aircraft D. carry persons or cargo for renumeration B. certificate of flight release D. release note

D. All the above are correct

153 Contracting state as per aircraft rules means any state A. that has signed a bilateral agreement with another state C. which is for the time-being a party to the convention of the ICAO 154 Flight manual is a manual A. associated with the C of A C. associated with the FRC 155 During refuelling of aircraft A. aircraft radio and electrical, radar switches may remain 'ON' C. no special precautions are necessary for ground power supply B. steady parking light and such switches may be operated D. the ground power unit, tractor and similar equipment shall be located outside the defined "danger zone" B. associated with the C of R D. which need not be carried on board B. contracted for a particular condition for carrying passengers D. which is for the time-being a party to the IATA

156 The form used for applications for approcal of firm in any of the categories mentioned in the CAR series E part I is A. CA 180 C. CA 28 157 Mark the correct statement A. A normal category aircraft can be used for only manoeuvre which is suitable for normal category C. Aerobatic category can be used for all categories B. Aerial work aircraft can be used for private and agricultural spraying D. None of the above B. CA 182 D. CA 23

158 On an India registered aircraft a mandatory modification is to be carried in a non-contracting state. The following can carry the modification: A. An approved person of the non-contracting state C. An approved person of contracting state B. A person having qualification recognised by DGCA D. All of the above

159 The following documents have to be carried by all aircraft on all flights: A. C of A, C of R cockpit and emergency check-list B. FRC, JLB C. Route guide D. Both a & b are correct

160 For taxying an aircraft, a person having AME cat 'C' licence should possess the following: A. RT licence if required C. A person should know layout of aerodrome B. Qualified to use radio communications D. a, b & care correct

161 To get a type approval for an aircraft component equipment including instruments should contain the following: A. Maintenance manual C. Types instructions and typed service manual 162 Disposable load is A. Fuel that can be thrown out of the aircraft during emergency conditions C. Empty load and variable load B. All persons and their belongings D. Fuel and oil which is unusable B. Detailed drawings D. All the above

163 Engine power check on ground is done on helicopter by A. an AME having vast experience C. flight crew B. an AME having licence on that engine D. All the above

164 An aicraft which is flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome and coming back without landing at any other place, should carry the following document (I) C of A (II) C of R (III) Cockpit & Emergency check-list (IV) FRC (V) MEL (VI) Route Guide (contd) A. ////(VII) Pilot Crew Licences (VIII) Flight Manual if applicable//// 1,2,3,4 C. 4,5,8,3 B. 2,6,7,3 D. All the above

165 The installation of flight data recorder is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft having A. turbine engines & permissible AUW of 5700 kg B. piston engine and permissible AUW of 5700 kg or or above above C. any type of engine and permissible AUW 5700 D. as in (a) but permissible AUW of 15000 kg or kg or above above 166 A Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is a document A. which contains those units and systems which B. approved by the DGCA. may remain inoperative in service for a limited period. C. which contains those units and systems which may be inoperative in service for a limited period without effecting safety and airworthiness of the airc D. Both (b) & (c) are correct.

167 The quanitity of unusable fuel is required to be determined if not available in the flight manual before A. C of A renewal C. complete overhaul of the aircraft B. type certifcation of aircraft D. no. (a) above, as specified in operation manual

168 Approved maintenance organisation maintaining private aircraft may reflect this arrangement in their A. maintenance system manual C. operation manual B. quality control manual D. engineering organisation manual

169 For information regarding name and address of the owner of the aircraft the document referred to is A. C of A C. type certificate B. C of R D. log book

170 Certificate of flight release shall be preserved for a period of A. one year from the date of issue C. six months from the date of expiry B. six months from the date of issue D. None of the above is correct

171 An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported into India. The minimum standard of manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be A. as laid down in CAA -B CAR secs 'K' & 'D' C. as laid down by australian govt. for agricultural aircraft B. as laid down in FAA -FAR pts 23 & 25 D. Both (a) & (b) are correct

172 The two preventive maintenance processes are known as A. hard time & condition monitoring C. on-condition & condition monitoring B. hard time & conditioning D. on-condition & hard time

173 The minimum conditions to be complied with under aircraft rules, before any aircraft is allowed to be flown are: A. the aircraft has been maintained as per B. Maintenance has been carried out by stipulated maintenance schedules by the DGCA appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person C. Maintenance carried out has been certified by appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person in the specified period D. Aqll are correct

174 One of the following conditions does not result in automatic suspension of C of A A. Whenever an aircraft develops a defect which effects primary structure C. Approved inspection schedules are not completed when due B. Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing D. Whenever "lifted" components are not removed at their stipulated T.B.S.'s

175 Certification of airworthiness of aircraft shows that it is valid for normal category sub-division "Private Aircraft". This aircraft can be used for A. experimental purposes C. aerobatic purposes B. aerial works D. flying executives to their factory without any remuneration

176 A public transport aircraft is categorised in "Normal category" sub-division a) passenger. Can it execute any steep turns? A. No C. Limited bank if specified in flight manual B. Yes D. Angle of bank should not exceed 60 degree due to increase in G-forces

177 A manual associated with C of A containing limitation within which the aircraft is considered to be airworthy is called A. operating manual C. maintenance system manual B. Q C manual D. flight manual

178 'cockpit check-list' and 'Emergency check-list' are applicable as per rules on which of the following category/classification of aircraft. A. For all aircraft engaged in public transport C. For aircraft engaged in non-schedule operation including training aircraft 179 MEL is applicable to aircraft operated by: A. private operator C. schedule & non-schedule operator 180 MEL allows the aircraft to A. keep on flying for unlimited period C. fly from transit station to base station where maintenance facilities exist B. keep on flying for limited period D. All the above are correct B. non-schedule operator D. by all aircraft having C of A B. For state aircraft D. All aircraft registered in India

181 Invoking MEL for a period longer than absolutely necessary will result in A. increased crew load and increased airworthiness C. decreased crew load and increased airworthiness 182 MMEL stands for A. Main Minimum Equipment List C. Master Minimum Equipment List 183 MEL is framed on A. operator experience C. approval by DGCA 184 Deficiency list includes A. wings, flight controls, landing gears C. galley equpment, entertainment system B. complete Engine & its accessories D. none of the above B. the basis of MMEL D. All the above B. Manufacture Minimum Equipment List D. Mandatory Minimum Equipmet List B. increased crew load and decreased airworthiness D. decreased crew load and decreased airworthiness

185 An AME after releasing the aircraft after invoking MEL A. shall inform the pilot of the aircraft of the same C. shall make an entry in the technical log and placard the inoperative system B. shall inform the RAO of the same D. Both (a) & are correct

186 Deficiency list (MEL) is applicable A. to transit station C. only to main base station 187 When an aircraft is flying on MEL A. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing within 24 hours B. the operator has to inform the RAO and DGCA in writing within 24 hours B. to terminal station D. All the above

C. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing D. None of the above within 24 hours if aircraft is released under the purview of MEL from the parent base 188 The MEL pre-amble contains A. procedure for release of aircraft with items of equipment unserviceable as per MEL C. defining the main base and transit stations B. when and where the defects/items will be rectified/replaced D. (a), (b) & (c) are correct

189 Cockpit and Emergency check-list are prepared under the purview of aircraft rule A. 60 A C. 7 B 190 Cockpit check-list means A. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew after the flight B. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew after and before the days of flight B. 62 B D. 70 B

C. a list containing items of inspections/actions D. a list containing items of inspections/actions to to be performed by the flight crew in the order be performed by the flight crew & ground crew in as listed and in the circumstances as indicated the order as listed and in the circumstances as for ensuring safe operation of aircraft indicated for ensuring safe operation of a aircraft. 191 A list containing items of action to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed, whenever emergent situations develop in flight on account of failures/malfunction of aircraft systems/components andrequiringextraalertnessonthepartofflightcrewis A. safety list C. emergency check list B. emergency list D. Cockpit check-list

192 A list containing items of inspections/action to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of aircraft is A. check-list C. emergency check-list 193 Bonded store is a store where A. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting DGCA approval C. material bear evidence of having been received from approved sources B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting evidence of having been received from approved sources D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting manufacturer approval B. cockpit check-list D. safety list

194 Quarantine store is a store where A. airtworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting DGCA approval C. material bear evidence of having been received from approved sources 195 Separate stores are maintained for A. inflammable goods C. propellers B. bearings D. hardwares B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting evidence of having been received from approved sources D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting manufacturer approval

196 Incoming release notes or other equipvalent documents shall be preserved for A. two years C. ten years 197 Release note contains A. a cross reference to the outgoing certification document B. a cross reference to the incoming certification document B. five years D. till the life of covered item

C. details from the outgoing certification of any D. All the above are correct deviation from the approved design document 198 'Chief Instructor' is a mandatory requirement for organisation approved in A. category 'A' C. category 'F' B. category'C' D. category 'G'

199 The 'Pass marks' in approved training school shall not be less than A. 80% C. 60% B. 70% D. 90%

200 In case of re-examination of failed candidate in approved training school the passing mark shall not be less than A. 80% C. 70% B. 90% D. 60%

201 The duration of training period for specialised course for specific aircraft/engines shall be decided by A. DGCA C. manufacturer of aircraft/engines B. RAO D. organisation

202 In an organisation approved in category 'G' during any course the practical training shall not be normally A. less than 50% of total training time C. more than 50% of total training time B. less than 40% of total training time D. more than 40% of total training time

203 A candidate appearing for examination in any approved course should have at least A. 60% attendance C. 80% attendance B. 70% attendance D. 90% attendance

204 The Q.C.M. & Dy Q.C. M. are approved by the A. Chief Engineer of an airline operator C. Managing Director of an organisation B. controller of Airworthiness D. DGCA

205 The maintenance schedule of an aircraft organisation are approved by the A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation C. controller of Director of Airworthiness of the region 206 The component life list is a part of A. Maintenance System manual & may be revised as per maker's recommendation C. Maintenance system manyual and may be revised in concurrence of the DGCA B. Quality Control manual & may be revised as per maker's recommendation D. Quality control manual, once approved by DGCA can be revised by the Quality Control Manager B. Q.C.M of only Indian Airlines & Air India D. Both b and c are correct

207 When any component or item is drawn from the bonded stores by the AME, he should ensure that there is a A. proper release note available C. certificate of safety available B. certificate of maintenance release available D. consignment note available

208 Every Inidian registered aircraft is required to possess A. certificate of Airworthiness. B. current and valid certificate of airworthiness before it is flown.

C. certificate of Airworthiness only for test flight. D. None of the above. 209 To ensure that the aircraft has a current and valid C of A is the responsibiloity of A. D.G.C.A. C. Manufactuere of the Aircraft. B. Regional Airworthiness Office D. Owner/Operator of the Aircraft.

210 The aircraft is mainteined in airworthy condition by subjecting the aircraft & component to A. periodical inspections as approved by D.G.C.A. B. replace "lifed" components at intervals approved by the D.G.C.A. C. carry out repairs/modifications as required by D.G.C.A. 211 It is the responsibility of the owner to A. see his pilots operate the aircraft as per operating limitations B. report all defects encountered in flight or during routine maintenance to A.I.D. D. All the above are correct.

C. record such defects as per procedure specified D. a,b,c are correct in C.A.R. series 'C' 212 Operator co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.I.D. A. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.I.D. C. Both a & b are correct B. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.I.D. in supervising the engineering activities. D. Both a& b are not correct.

213 A.I.D. Officers monitor the airworthiness standards stipulated by D.G.C.A. A. through medium of spot checks C. through the D.G.C.A. B. through investigation of defects reported to them D. Both a & b are correct.

214 Technical officers of R A O may require owners/operators to submit their aircraft/aircraft components for inspection. A. whenever they like C. at a pre-determined stage to ensure compliance with prescribed airworthiness standards B. when the operator / owner is ready D. All the above.

215 The main objective of the Airworthiness authority is to ensure A. design levels of reliability C. promulgation and enforcement of highest achievable standards of airworthiness. B. operating safety of civil registered aircraft D. All are correct.

216 An unintentional landing effected on account of failure/malfunction of an aircraft component or a system is A. forced landing C. normal landing B. heavy landing D. emergency landing

217 The maintenance process requiring assembly inspection of aircraft and aircraft components at fixed period is A. preventive maintenance C. on-condition maintenance B. hard time maintenance D. None

218 The maintenance process for locating and resolving problem areas through analytical study of failure or malfunction not affecting safety of aircraft is called A. hard time maintenance C. condition monitoring B. on-condition maintenance D. preventive maintenance

219 Accomplishment of repetitive (1) visual inspection or (2) physical measurement or (3) in situ/bench test, etc. to determine the continued serviceability of aircraft and aircraft components without having to dismantle them completely and before (contd A. ///such components reach a critical stage in their operation is termed as//// hard time maintenance. C. condition monitoring 220 Preventive maintenance is A. on-condition C. on-condition and hard time 221 Condition monitoring is A. hard time maintenance C. a & b is correct. 222 Preventive maintenance is A. hard time B. work performed at pre-determined intervals to maintain an aircraft, aircraft component or aircraft system in an airworthy condition. D. a, b, c are correct B. preventive maintenance D. None of the above. B. hard line D. condition-monitoring. B. on-condition maintenance

D. preventive maintenance

C. on condition

223 Private operator shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to the D.G.C.A. A. every month C. every nine months B. every six months D. every twelve months

224 Non-schedule operators shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to the D.G.C.A. A. every month C. every six months B. every three months D. every nine months

225 Schedule operators would furnish the information concerning major defect / incident/ accident to the D.G.C.A. A. every month C. every nine months B. every six months D. every year

226 Aerial work operators shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to D.G.C.A. A. every month C. every three months B. every six months D. None

227 Training aircraft operators would furnish the information concerning major defect/ incident /accident to D.G.C.A. A. every month C. every three months B. every six months D. None

228 If the A.I.D. observes adverse 'trends' in performance of aircraft he A. suggests additional preventive maintenance C. suggests incorporation of modifications on mandatory basis. B. proposes varying the frequency of existing preventive maintenance. D. All are correct

229 Despatch reliability is the percentage ratio between A. number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per 1000 Hrs. C. number of services which were despatched in time per 1000 hrs B. number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per number of scheduled service during the period D. number of services which were despatched in time per no. of scheduled service during the period

230 If there is no information concerning individual major defect /incident /accident the operator A. does not have to send any information to R.A.O. C. has to send a "NIL' information 231 CAR is issued under rule A. 133 A C. 133 C B. 133 B D. 62 B B. does not have to send any information to D.G.C.A. D. All the above

232 Procedure for issuing of CAR including amendments, if any, is covered in CAR A. series A part I C. series B part II 233 CAR series A part III refers to A. procedure for issue of CAR C. targets of AID 234 Mark the correct statement A. CAR is issued bearing different series identification serial as I, II, III etc. B. CAR is issued bearing different parts such as A,B,C etc. B. objective of AID D. Both b & c are correct B. series B part I D. series A part II

C. CAR is issued bearing different series D. None of the above identification alphabetical letter such as series A,B,C etc. 235 A current list of all CAR with amendments, is also issued A. at the beginning of each year C. in the middle of each year B. at the end of each year D. Both a & b are correct.

236 When substantial changes are made to a CAR part A. a new issue is issued C. new series are issued B. a new part is issued D. new series and part are issued

237 All pilots before flying as PIC of multi engined aircraft of licensed air transport service shall demonstrate to a check pilot let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in use, variation in speed during descent not to exceed A. 5 MPH above the stipulated speed C. 5 MPH above or below the stipulated speed B. 5 MPH below the stipulated speed D. 10 MPH above or below the stipulated speed

238 While recovering from unusual altitude during pilot check loss in height shall not exceed A. 500 feet C. 1500 feet B. 1000 feet D. 2000 feet

239 The PIC of every aircraft shall before commencing any flight satisfy himself of the A. valid flight release in respect of the aircraft C. engines are developing correct power B. sufficient length of runway is available D. All are correct

240 The responsibility of briefing the passengers of smoking limitation lies with A. PIC C. AME 241 Critical phase of flight includes A. taxying C. all flight operations conducted below 10000 feet except cruise flight B. take off and landing D. All are correct B. Co-pilot D. QCM

242 Duties not required for safe operation of the aircraft includes company required calls made A. for ordering galley supplies C. for promoting airlines B. for confirming passenger's connections D. All are correct

243 No pilot may carry out acrobatic man cover in an aircraft unless A. a crash helmet is worn C. pilots wearing spectacles must weare flying goggles over and above the spectacles B. a headgear is worn D. All are correct

244 Minimum fuel and oil requirements for public transport aircraft is contained in A. CAR series F part II C. CAR series O part II B. CAR series F part III D. CAR series O part III

245 PIC shall ensure that the aircraft carries sufficient amount of fuel for the flight considering A. adverse affects of weather C. emergency that may be expected during the flight B. availability of an alternate aerodrome D. All are correct

246 The fuel and oil carried in the case of propeller driven aircraft when alternate airport is not required shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes

247 The fuel carried in case of propeller driven aircraft (when alternate airport is required) shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned hence to an alternate C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes

248 The fuel carried on turbo jet aircraft (when an alternate aerodrome is not required) shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned C. as in (a) & to fly for 45 minutes B. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes D. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 metres above the destination aerodrome

249 The fuel on board a turbo jet aircraft when no suitable alternate aerodrome is available to fly to which the flight is planned and there-after for a period of A. 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption C. 60 minutes at normal cruise consumption B. 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption D. 120 minutes at normal cruise consumption

250 In computing fuel and oil required for aircraft operation one should consider A. meteorological forecast C. one instruments approach at the destination aerodrome including one missed approach B. anticipated ATC routing and traffic delays D. All are correct

251 Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to A. fly to first point of intended landing C. as in (a) thereafter for 20 minutes B. as in (a) thereafter for 15 minutes D. as in (a) thereafter for 45 minutes

252 Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under IFR condition is to A. fly to first point of intended landing C. as in (b) thereafter for 20 minutes B. fly to first point of intended landing and then to alternate D. as in (b) thereafter for 45 minutes

253 Minimum fuel required for operation of supersonic aircraft A. is same as for turbo prop aircraft C. is same as for helicopter B. is same as for turbo jet aircraft D. None is correct

254 A helicopter with such performance that in case of critical power unit failure it is able to land on the rejected take off aread or safely condinue the flight to an appropriate landing area, depending on the failure occurred is called A. performance class I helicopter C. performance class III helicopter B. performance class II helicopter D. performance class IV helicopter

255 A helicopter with such performance that, in case of critical power unit failure it is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take off or after a defined point before landing, in which (cont'd A. ////(cont'd)case a forced landing may be required is called//// performance class I helicopter C. performance class III helicopter B. performance class II helicopter

D. performance class IV helicopter

256 A helicopter with performance such that in case of power unit failure at any point in the flight profile a forced landing must be performed is called A. performance class I helicopter C. performance class III helicopter B. performance class II helicopter D. performance class IV helicopter

257 All helicopters below 2000 kg AUW must be equipped with A. an accurate time piece showing time in hour minutes and seconds C. as in (b) provide the watch is accurate and shows time in hours, minutes and seconds B. pilot may use his personal watch in lieu of (a) D. All are correct

258 Helicopter operating in IFR condition in addition to instruments in VFR flying shall have A. slip indicator C. landing lights B. position lights D. All are correct

259 Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio equipment capable of receiving signals providing A. guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be effected C. guidance to ATC transponder B. guidance to a point from which instrument landing can be effected D. guidance to WX radar

260 All helicopters intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly deployable means of floatation if distance from land corresponds to more than A. 10 minutes at normal cruise speed C. 30 minutes at normal cruise speed B. 15 minutes at normal cruise speed D. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed

261 Flight data recorders are 'must' for all helicopters A. with AUW of over 7000 kg C. with AUW of over 2700 kg 262 CVR's are must for all helicopter A. with AUW of over 7000 kg C. with AUW of over 2700 kg 263 FDR used on helicopter shall be A. type IV FDR C. type II FDR B. type III FDR D. type I FDR B. with AUW of over 5700 kg D. with AUW of over 2000 kg B. with AUW of over 5700 kg D. with AUW of over 2000 kg

264 FDR used on helicopter shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least A. the last 25 hours of operation C. the last one hour of operation B. the last 10 hours of operation D. the last 30 minutes of operation

265 CVR used on helicopters shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least A. the last 25 hours of operation C. the last one hour of operation 266 Operation of helicopter is contained in A. CAR series F part I C. CAR series O part I B. CAR series F part IV D. CAR series O part IV B. the last 10 hours of operation D. the least 30 minutes of operation

267 Aerodrome operating minima is the limits of usability of an aerodrome for either take-off or landing usually expressed in times of A. MDA/G C. MDA/H 268 An alternate aerodrome A. is always the aerodrome of departure C. is at least 500 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure 269 Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to A. mean sea level C. threshold elevation 270 Decision height (DH) is referred to A. mean sea level C. threshold elevation 271 MDA/H is specified altitude or height in a A. non-precision approach below which descent may be made without visual reference C. precision approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference B. non-precision approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference D. precision approach below which descent may be made without visual reference B. average sea level D. tower elevation B. average sea level D. tower elevation B. may be aerodrome of departure D. is at least 450 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure B. DA/H D. All are correct

272 Civil twilight ends in the A. evening when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree below the horizon C. evening at 6 P.M. B. morning when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree below the horizon D. morning at 6 A.M.

273 The colour of marking of 'break in points' in aircraft shall be A. red C. outlined in white to contrast with the background B. yellow D. All are correct

274 Installation of anti-collision light is applicable to all aircraft issued with C of A for the first time after A. 31-12-1970 C. 01-12-1970 B. 31-12-184 D. 01-12-1984

275 All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on board when flown beyond A. 20 nautical miles away from land C. 100 nautical miles away from land B. 50 nautical miles away from land D. All are correct

276 Flight recorders are not required for aircraft below A. 15000 kg C. 5700 kg B. 7000 kg D. None is correct

277 The radio equipment installed in aircraft registered in India shall A. not be operated in flight unless it has been inspected and certified as being in proper working order by a person authorised by the DGCA C. be operated only by a person who holds appropriate licence issued by DGCA 278 CAR series R Part I pertains to A. aircraft radio equipment C. installation of navigation equipment B. installation of communication equipment D. installation of radar equipment B. be installed and operated with a licence issued by DGCA

D. All are correct

279 While installing anew avionic system on an aircraft in the absence of manufacturer's guidelines the AME 'R' shall make a feasibility study to check that A. empty weight of the aircraft remains same after installation C. loaded weight C.G. remains same after installation B. empty weight C.G. remains same after installation D. C.G. should remain in limit after installation

280 For approval of an avionic installation, in absence of manufacturer's guidelines, AME 'R' shall submit the modification details along with A. six copies of drawing to RAO C. three copies of drawing to RAO B. six copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs) D. three copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs)

281 On comletion of structural and electrical wiring on an aircraft the complete wiring shall be checked for A. continuity C. bonding and insulation B. insulation and continuity D. All are correct

282 The antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper insulation to ensure that A. radio interference is least C. precipitation static interference is minimum B. static interference is maximum D. static interference is minimum

283 After installation of new avionic system on an aircraft the EWCG shall be amended accordingly by A. AME cat 'R' C. AME cat A, C & R B. AME cat A & C D. AME cat 'B'

284 Installation of a new avionic system on an aircraft can be carried out only after obtaining A. the permission from DGCA B. the permit from DGCA

C. short term aeromobile licence from WPC wing D. permanent aeromobile licence from WPC wing of of Ministry of Communications Ministry of Communications 285 CAR series R part III pertains to A. aircraft radio equipment C. maintenance of airborne radio equipment B. installation of aircraft radio equipment D. installation and maintenance of airborne radio equipment

286 Aircraft shall be equipped with radio apparatus as may be specified is required as per IAR A. 9A C. 51 A, sub-rule 3 B. 9 Sub-rule 3 D. Both a and c are correct

287 Maintenance of airborne communication and navigation equipments shall be carried out in accordance with A. CAR series E part II C. CAR series R part II B. CAR series E part III D. CAR series R part III

288 Maintenance check carried out on radio equipments are A. in situ checks & bench checks C. boroscope checks B. bench check only D. NDT checks

289 FRC of a radio communication system installed on a flying training club aircraft is A. valid for 24 hours C. 10 hours or 4 days elapsed time B. 12 hours or 7 days elapsed time D. None is correct

290 FRC of a radio communication/navigation system installed on a flying training club aircraft is A. valid for 24 hours C. valid for 90 days B. valid for 200 hours D. valid for 30 days

291 During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days inspection schedule of radio system it is a must to carry out A. VSWR of HF & VHF transmitter C. insulation of radio equipments B. bonding of RF cables D. All are correct

292 FTD checks of ADF, VHF, HF, VOR & ILS equipment are carried out A. once in six months C. once in 2 years (for valve equipment) B. once in a year (for valve equipment) D. None is correct

293 Final test data check of solid state equipment shall be carried out A. once in six months C. once in 2 years B. once in a year D. once in a 2 years linked with C of A or any major check

294 Pilot shall file de-briefing report regarding the range and performance of WX Radar, Omega NAV, HIS, RMI, DME and R NAV after A. the day's flying C. 90 days of flying B. 10 days of flying D. 180 days of flying

295 Aircraft after flying through electrical storm or lightning strike has to be inspected for A. loop antenna which is to be demagnetised C. all antenna shall be inspected for any damage to the wire B. all digital and CRT indicator shall be inspected for any possible damage to glass components D. All are correct

296 Major modifications regarding safety of aircraft radio equipment shall be carried out by A. AME cat 'R' C. AME cat A & B (radio) 297 CAR series S part I pertains to storage of A. aircraft instruments C. aircraft engines B. aircraft hardware D. aircraft tyres B. AME cat 'B' (radio) D. AME cat 'X' (radio)

298 Aircraft tyres should be stored vertically in racks having support tubes so that each tyre is supported at two point on the treads. The tyres should be turned to a new position A. every month or so C. every 3 months or so 299 The storage temperature of rubber parts should A. between 50 degree F and 70 degree F C. between 50 degree F and 90 degree F B. between 50 degree C and 70 degree C D. between 50 degree C and 90 degree C B. every 2 months or so D. every 6 months or so

300 The relative humidity of the room where hoses are stored shall be around A. 50% C. 65% 301 Aircraft hoses should be stored A. in coiled state C. in coiled state with french chalk sprayed 302 The storage/shelf life of group A hoses are A. 10 years from the cure date C. as in (a) before installation pressure test should be carried out 1.5 times the working pressure B. 6 years from the cure date D. None is correct B. in coiled state supported in racks having support tubes D. in coiled and supported state so as to relieve stresses B. 60% D. 75%

303 The service life of group A houses are A. 10 years C. 6 years 304 The service life of group B hoses are A. 10 years C. 6 years B. 8 years D. 4 years B. 8 years D. 4 years

305 The service life of group A and group B hoses can be increased by A. 8 years C. 4 years 306 Group 'A' hoses are A. fuel, oil C. hydraulic pressure hoses 307 Group 'B' hoses are A. fuel, oil C. fuel return line B. hydraulic return line and instrument hoses D. All are correct B. pneumatic pressure hoses D. All are correct B. 6 years D. 2 years

308 The 'shelf life' of valve seats used in hydraulic system is A. 10 years from the cure date C. 6 years from the cure date B. 8 years from cure date D. 4 years from the cure date

309 Rubber seals which have been stored for more than four years should be checked for deterioration by stretching the seal to A. 10% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification C. 10% of their external dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification B. 20% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification D. 20% of their external dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification

310 The maximum service life of rubber seals shall not exceed A. 8 years C. 5 years 311 The calendar life of reciprocating engines are A. 10 years C. 6 years 312 Series aircraft means A. aircraft manufactured in series C. aircraft belonging to 'A' series 313 Flight test means the flying of an aircraft A. without any passenger on board for the purpose assessing the deterioration in performance C. as in (a) and can carry passengers B. as in (a) and also assessing the satisfactory completion of maintenance D. as in (a) and (b) and can carry passengers B. arcraft supplied in series D. None is correct B. 8 years D. None is correct B. 6 years D. 4 years

314 Test flight of an Indian airlines aircraft will be carried out A. during C of A renewal C. after 'block-overhaul' 315 A private aircraft shall be flight tested A. during C of A renewal C. for the purpose of evaluation of engine power B. subsequent to change of an engine D. All are correct B. after 'top-overhaul' D. Both a and c are correct

316 On a four-engine aircraft the test flight may not be carried out after change of A. one engine provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out C. three engines provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out B. two engines provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out D. All are correct

317 Engine change means removal of an engine and its replacement by A. an overhauled engine C. engine removed from any position of the same aircraft to any other aircraft 318 Test flight shall be continued if practicable at A. maximum AUW C. 3/4 of maximum AUW B. minimum AUW D. 1/2 of maximum AUW B. re-installation of the engine in the same position D. All are correct

319 The routine test flight procedure will at least insure A. that the cruise speed at the cruising engine power is within the range specified C. that 'al-engine-operating' climbed performance is within acceptable limits specified by the manufacturer/DGCA, while effecting climb at the 'best climbing speed' B. that the stalling speed has not increased beyond the figure specified by the manufacturer/DGCA D. All are correct

320 The responsibility of recording the results of test flight lies entirely with A. PIC C. Flight Engineer B. Co-pilot D. AME

321 The observed actual climb performance is related to the test condition A. means altitude C. means weight B. means temperature D. All are correct

322 When an India registered aircraft suffers major damage of defect then it shall be the responsibility of A. the operator to inform the RAO C. the operator to inform the DAI B. the operator to inform the DGCA D. None is correct

323 On receipt of a report regarding major defect/damage to an aircraft, officer incharge of RAO A. may formally suspend the C of A B. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to the safety of aircraft

C. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist D. Both a and b are correct to the safety of aircraft or as to the safety of this type of aircraft to which the aircraft belongs

324 The owner/operator during carrying out rectification of major defect A. shall not submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection C. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection only when rectification is complete 325 When a suspended C of A is revalidated it is A. for one year C. for six months 326 Aircraft rule 53 and 53A together A. prescribes the requirement regarding use of material process to be used during maintenance of aircraft C. prescribes the persons authorised to certify the maintenance of aircraft B. prescribes the requirement regarding use of material process to be used during maintenance of aircraft and also the persons authorised to certify the maintenance of aircraft D. prescribes the requirement regarding use of material process to be used during manufacture of aircraft and also the persons authorised to certify the manufacture of aircraft B. for the period the original revalidation would have lasted had the suspension not taken place D. Both b and c are correct B. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection during rectification work D. None is correct

327 CAR series F part VI deals with A. rebuilding of aircraft C. rebuilding of aircraft wreckage 328 Only those aircraft are permitted to be rebuilt A. which were earlier type certificated C. which has sufficient data regarding maintenance and prformance standards 329 Rebuilding means A. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness standards and fitted in an aircraft to be type certificated B. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness standards and then fitted to type certificated aircraft B. which were flying with C of A D. All are correct B. rebuilding of damaged aircraft D. All are correct

C. assembling an aircraft from parts approved by D. None is correct AME to an acceptable airworthiness standards and then fitted to an aircraft to be type certificated 330 An approved firm can undertake the rebuilding of A. all aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg B. all pressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg

C. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 D. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 3000 kg kg 331 Rebuilt aircraft will be assigned a serial number by the constructor. This number will normally be the number assigned A. to the wing C. to the fuselage B. to complete aircraft D. None is correct

332 The constructor number in case of rebuilt aircraft will be affixed A. to the wing by permanent means C. to the cockpit by permanent means 333 Registration number assigned to a rebuilt aircraft A. will be the same registration number which was given to aircraft of which fuselage was a part C. in case of new fuselage or imported fuselage new registration mark will be allotted B. will be the same registraqtion number which was given to aircraft of which airframe was a part D. Both a and c are correct B. to the fuselage by permanent means D. All are correct

334 Before starting rebuilding of an aircraft the constructor must insure that A. proper history of parts are available C. parts are imported B. parts purchased are genuine D. Both a and b are correct

335 AME under-taking the rebuilding of aircraft must be endorsed in A. category 'A' C. category 'C' B. category 'B" D. category 'D'

336 Aircraft parts are completely stripped/inspected /overhauled prior to assembling of aircraft during rebuilding if the parts had been in storage for more than A. ten years C. five years 337 Series F part VII contains A. C of A renewal procedure C. spcial flight permit B. suspension of C of A D. None of the above. B. eight years D. two years

338 Aircraft with suspended C of A due to defect or damage shall not undertake any flight without specific permission of DGCA vide A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2 C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4 B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3 D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5

339 DGCA may permit special flight for an aircraft when the C of A is suspended vide A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2 C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4 B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3 D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5

340 A special flight authorisation is a permission accorded A. by DGCA C. to carry special persons (VIPs) 341 A special flight permit is a permission A. to ferry fly to a base without passengers on board where repairs, modifications and maintenance required to remove the suspension of the C of A can be performed C. to authorise flight for special purposes B. for production flight testing new production aircraft B. to ferry-fly an aircraft D. Both a and b are correct

D. All are correct

342 The operator who wishes to avail a special flight permit must submit an application to RAO indicating A. the crew required to operate the aircraft C. the purpose of flight B. the crew required to operate the equipment D. All are correct

343 The RAO may authorise a special ferry flight subject to A. inspection or tests by the operation for determining the safety of aircraft for the intended flight and certified to that effect by appropriately licensed AME C. manufacture for which the aircraft is limited B. limitation that the operating weight on any ferry flight must be the minimum necessary

D. All are correct

344 Special flight authorisation issued by regional/sub-regional airworthiness office is valid A. for one week B. upto arrival at destination airport

C. upto arrival at destination or date whichever is D. All are correct applicable 345 On completion of special flight the operator with render A. to RAO any abnormality encountered during flight B. to DGCA any abnormality encountered during flight

C. to DGCA action taken at base to render aircraft D. Both b and c are correct airworthy 346 General requirements regarding maintenance and certification of Aircraft is dealt in A. CAR series F part V C. CAR series F part VII B. CAR series F part VI D. CAR series F part VIII

347 Operator who do not have their own facility for maintenance and certification of aircraft A. can't maintain & fly their aircraft C. C of A of their a/c will be cancelled B. have to request DGCA for certification D. can get maintenance and certification performed by organisation approved for the purpose

348 Important schedules like heavy landing, post lighting strike, post propeller strike etc. should be submitted to the RAO for approval in A. duplicate C. quadruplicate B. triplicate D. None

349 All works on a/c must be recorded in the relevant log books within A. an hour of completion C. 24 hours of completion B. six hours of completion D. 48 hours of completion

350 If aircraft log book is not readily available because of aircraft being away from the base then A. one copy of log book entry should be kept in the JLB C. aone copy of log book entry should be sent to DGCA 351 FRC will become invalid A. if unapproved parts are used C. if aircraft suffers major damage B. if unapproved manoeuvers are taken D. None of the above B. one copy of log book entry should be sent to the RAO D. All are correct

352 Validity of FRC of schedule operator including corporation is A. 12 hours of aircraft operator operation C. as stated in approved QC manual 353 Validity of FRC of flying training aircraft A. is valid for every 24 hours (one day) B. is valid for 12 hours of aircraft operation when aircraft is away from main base B. 24 hours D. as stated in approved maintenance system manual

C. is valid for 4 days elapsed time when aircraft is D. All are correct away from main base 354 FRC of aerial work aircraft is A. 10 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed time whichever is earlier C. 10 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed time whichever is earlier 355 FRC of private aircraft is valid for A. 50 hrs/30 days C. 10 hrs/7 days 356 Validity of FRC of State Govt. aircraft is A. 50 hrs/30 days C. decided by the RAO is consultation with the operator B. 50 hrs/60 days D. None is correct B. 25 hrs/15 days D. Both a and b are correct B. 12 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed time whichever is earlier D. 12 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed time whichever is earlier

357 Validity of FRc of Radio communication equipment of training aircraft is A. 30 days elapsed time C. 90 days elapsed time B. 60 days elapsed time D. None is correct

358 Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment of training aircraft is A. 30 days elapsed time C. 90 days elapsed time B. 60 days elapsed time D. None is correct

359 Validity of FRC of Radio communication equipment of private aircraft is A. 30 days elapsed time C. 90 days elapsed time B. 60 days elapsed time D. 180 days elapsed time

360 Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment of private aircraft is A. 30 days elapsed time C. 90 days elapsed time B. 60 days elapsed time D. 180 days elapsed time

361 FRC for aircraft of AUW of 15000 kg and above is signed by A. persons authorised in two category C. persons authorised in four category B. persons authorised in three category D. persons authorised in five category

362 In case of private aircraft the schedule of inspection lower than 50 hrs may be carried out by A. the pilot holding C.P. licence on that particular B. the pilot having vast experience type of aircraft C. the pilot having at least ALTP 363 Flight release certificate is signed in A. duplicate C. quadruplicate 364 FRC is preserved for A. one month from the date of issue C. one year from the date of issue 365 Distribution of FRC is done as follows: A. one copy to RAO C. one copy is with organisation record 366 Rule 53 of aircraft rule specifies that A. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment on such aircraft shall periodically be inspected/overhauled and certified B. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment must be obtained from approved sources B. one copy is kept in aircraft D. Both b and c are correct B. six months from the date of issue D. Not required to be preserved B. triplicate D. None is correct D. None is correct

C. all aircraft and aircraft component and items D. All are correct of equipment must possess a valid release note 367 Schedule maintenance includes the following work A. replacement of "life limited" item C. lighting sticks schedule B. heavy landing schedule D. All are correct

368 Unschedule maintenance includes the following work A. special inspections such as x-rays C. heavy landing schedule B. replacement of "lifed" components D. All are correct

369 Aging aircraft requires more frequent inspection of structural components for damage due to A. environmental deterioration C. fatigue B. accidental damage D. All are correct

370 To ensure structural integrity of aging aircraft manufacturers have issued A. SSIP C. SSIP & CPCP B. CPCP D. fatigue prevention document

371 The owner/operator shall inform to RAO/sub-RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance about the commencement of all the inspection schedules A. of 100 hrs and above C. of over 300 hrs B. of over 100 hrs D. All are correct

372 Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's of components upto a maximum of A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less) C. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less) B. 3% or 3 months (whichever is less) D. None is correct

373 Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's of components upto a maximum of A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less) C. 10% or 3 months (whichever is less) B. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less) D. Both b and c are correct

374 All completed maintenance schedules must be preserved for a minimum period of A. one year C. five years B. two years D. ten years

375 Damage due to environment in form of corrosion and stress corrosion is A. environmental damage C. fatigue damage 376 Aging aircraft are those aircraft which have A. completed their life C. completed their designed service life 377 Multiple site damage are A. five or more dents on one site C. fatigue crack at number of fasteners which stand to link up into longer crakcs 378 At present SSID have been issued for A. B 200C, C 90A, B 737 C. B 737, B 747, HS 748 379 Design economic life of Airbus is A. 10 years C. 30 years 380 Design economic life of B 737 is A. 25 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes C. 20 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes 381 Design economic life of B 747 is A. 25 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes C. 20 years, 60,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes 382 Design economic life of B707 is A. 50 years, 60,000 hrs, 51,000 flight cydes C. 50 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes B. 50 years, 75,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes D. 20 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes B. 25 years, 60,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes D. 25 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes B. 20 years, 60,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes D. 25 years, 60,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes B. 20 years D. 50 years B. A 35, B 55, C 90a D. J 3C, PA 12, FA 152 B. five or more cracks on one site which link up in to longer crack D. All are correct B. completed their service life D. completed their designed economic life B. corrosion damage D. accidental damage

383 Design economic life of Douglas, F27 & HS-748 are A. 20 years C. 40 years B. 30 years D. 50 years

384 The control system of which duplicate inspections are carried out are A. flying controls C. engine controls & flying controls B. engine controls D. flying, engine and associated controls

385 Duplicate inspection of all control system shall be made A. after rigging C. before the first flight after C of A B. before the first flight of all aircraft after assembly and rigging D. before C of A flight

386 Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the base is carried out by A. persons approved for the purpose in an approved organisation B. a flight engineer

C. a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for D. Both a and c are correct the type of aircraft 387 Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is away from the base in carried out by A. by a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the aircraft C. by a person specially authorised by the DGCA B. by any CPL holder D. Both a and b are correct

388 RAO can authorise a person to carry out duplicate inspection of aircraft if A. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and 6 months experience of the type of aircraft involved C. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and one year maintenance experience on the type of aircraft involved 389 Series 'F' part XII deals with A. inspection of wooden aircraft C. duplicate inspection of engine controls B. duplicate inspection of flying controls D. Both b and c are correct B. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and 3 months maintenance experience on the type of aircraft involved D. All are correct

390 Aircraft of composite contruction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of certificate of airworthiness and thereafter in periods not exceeding A. one year C. five years 391 Factors causing wood deterioration are A. chemical action of glue due to aging C. development of fungus B. mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage D. All are correct B. two years D. ten years

392 Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are especially prove to A. timber shrinkage C. Both a and b are correct B. glue deterioration D. None is correct

393 Certificate of compliance is a certification to the effect that all the works on A. the aircraft have been performed in B. the aircraft component have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA DGCA C. the glider component have been performed in D. Both a and b are correct accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA 394 All gliders shall be equipped with A. variomate C. VOR B. RPM indicator D. ADF

395 The constructions of gliders shall be maintained and overhauled in accordance with the procedure in A. CAR series I part I C. CAR series F part XIII B. CAR series I part II D. CAR series F part XIV

396 The C of A of gliders is renewed only during test flight A. stall test has been satisfactorily carried out C. loop test has been satisfactorily carried out B. spin test has been satisfactorily carried out D. All are correct

397 If 'loop test' is not carried out during test flight of a glider then its C of A A. will not be renewed C. will not be renewed temporarily 398 Components and spare parts used on gliders A. should be covered by a release note C. should be covered by a rejection note 399 'Certificate of safety' for gliders is valid for A. six months C. one month B. three months D. one day B. should be covered by a certificate of maintenance D. None is correct B. will not be renewed in any case D. will be renewed provided the glider is suitably placarded that 'loop manoeuvres are prohibited

400 'Certificate of safety' for gliders should be preserved for A. one month C. six months 401 Gliders should be weighed A. on a routine basis C. before issue of C of A B. every three years D. None is correct B. three months D. not required to be preserved

402 Procedures/work sheets pertaining to gliders which meet with accidents and damages beyond economical repairs shall be preserved A. for one year after the date of accident C. for ten years after the date of accident B. for five years after the date of accident D. for two years after the date of accident

403 When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A, the C of A is issued on form A. CA 23 C. CA 56 B. CA 23A D. CA 57

404 Rejection note is a document issued byan approved organisation for the purpose of advising details of rejection of aircraft good/parts A. for which high prices are quoted C. ground equipment 405 Scope of approval of an organisation depends on A. capacity of the firm to undertake the job C. suitable QCM & Dy. QCM B. equipment available and technical literating D. all the above B. common to automobile industry D. which fail to meet applicable requirement

406 Only one of the following need not have the approval of maintenance organisation A. private owner of aircraft C. shceduled airlines B. non-schedule operator D. aircraft owned by State Govt.

407 The certificate of flightr release of an aircraft below 15000 kg AUW remains valid provided the pre flight inspection is carried out by A. a pilot as per approved schedule C. a pilot having AME licence also B. an AME D. an approved person as per approved schedule

408 As per appendix 'A' of CAR series 'F' part IV and aircraft certified in normal category shall not be used for purpose mentioned either in A. special category or aerobatic category C. aerobatic category or aerial work sub-division B. special category or passenger sub-division D. racing aircraft sub-division or goods aircraft subdivision

409 An aircraft certified in sub-division of passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake A. carriage of mails C. aerial work B. carriage of goods D. None of the above

410 As per CAR series 'F' part IV the duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls of an aircraft away from base can be carried out by a pilot A. provided his CPL/CHPL is endorsed on the type B. or any AME or flight engineer of aircraft. C. the answer (a) is correct subject to the condition that person authorised as per para 3.3.1 of the CAR do the second check on arrival of the aircraft at the base D. any 'B' and /or 'D' licensed engineer

411 For the purpose of C of A revalidation if the aircraft has been maintained in accordance with continuous cycle of maintenance the aircraft is subject to A. any schedule due and/or a 100 hrs inspection schedule C. a normal DI followed by a higher schedule of inspection B. a major schedule next to 100 hrs inspection schedule D. 500 hrs inspection schedule

412 An aircraft above 2000 kg is required to be weighed A. every two years C. every three years unless required to be weighed in accordance with para 4.3 of the CAR series 'X' part II B. every three years D. only when it sustains damage requiring extensive repair

413 The maintenance schedules of an organisation are approved by the A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation C. Controller of Director of Airworthiness of region B. QCM of only Indian Airlines and Air India D. Both b and c are correct

414 The lives of the components of an aircraft are approved by A. DGCA C. CAW of the region B. QCM D. CE of an organisation

415 The C of A an imported aircraft can be revalidated by the DGCA A. if the C of A for export is issued by the country of origin C. if it meets all requirements and standards laid down by the DGCA B. if the aircraft meets the type certificate issued by the country of origin D. All are correct

416 C of A renewal of aircraft under continuous maintenance system can be effected A. while the aircraft is flying C. provided all mandatory modifications and major defects are not outstanding 417 An aircraft can be ferry-flown only when the A. DGCA permits on application C. QCM of the operator permits B. pilot in command certifies it as safe D. None is correct B. after completion of the minimum of 100 hours inspection schedule D. All are correct

418 Weighing requirements in respect of aircraft less than 2000 kg AUW are A. every C of A renewal C. need not be re-weighed on routine basis B. every three years D. every overhaul

419 An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported in to India the minimum standard of manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be A. as laid down in CAA, B CAR section 'K' & 'D' C. as laid down by Australian Govt. for agricultural aircraft B. as laid down in FAA FAR parts 23 & 25 D. Both a and b are correct

420 Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft shows that it is valid for 'Normal category' - sub-division private aircraft. This aircraft is used for A. experimental purposes C. aerobatic purposes B. aerial-work D. carriage of executives of his factory without any remuneration

421 One of the following conditions does result in automatic suspension if C of A A. whenever aircraft develops a defect that effects primary structure C. approved inspection schedules are not completed when due B. whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing D. whenever 'lifed' components are not remjoved as stipulated in T.B.O.'s

422 For powered gliders, following instruments are required A. free air temperature gauge C. oil temperature gauge B. free air temperature gauge is not required if cqarburettor heating gauge is there D. Both a and c are correct

423 Validity of flight release for radio equipment for flying club aircraft is A. 90 days C. 50 hrs/30 days B. 30 days D. 100 hrs/90 days

424 For purpose of C of A in case the final inspection is carried out after the expiry date of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A would start from the date of A. test flight C. expiry of C of A B. inspection D. None of the correct

425 For the purpose of snag rectification an aircraft can always be taxied from bay to the maintenance hangar by A. an appropriately licensed AME C. an individual authorised by the QCM of the firm B. pilot under training may be allowed D. None of the above is correct

426 Ground proxiity warning system as per CAR series I part II is mandatory for all turbine engine aeroplane registered in India after 1-7-79 which are A. authorised to carry more than 30 passengers C. Both a and b are correct B. having seating capacity of 100 or more D. None of f the above is correct as it is applicable to all aircraft

427 An India registered aircraft having C of A as per IAR can fly as A. passenger aircraft can fly as freight aircraft C. aerial work aircraft can be operated as public transport aircraft 428 Mark the correct statement A. flight release should be preserved for six weeks C. journey log book should be preserved for 2 years B. aircraft log book should be preserved for 5 years D. None is correct B. freight aircraft can fly as passenger aircraft provided seats are installed D. None is correct

429 For flight over water by public transport aircraft at a distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the shore the equipments required are A. life saving rafts in sufficient number C. survival radio equipment operated on VHF B. two days food D. Both a and c are corret

430 An aircraft certificated in sub-division of passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake A. carriage of mails C. aerial work 431 Gyro instruments are overhauled at every A. 2 years/1000 hours C. 3 years/2000 hours 432 Life of automatic pilots (except gyro units) are A. 2 years C. 3 years/2000 hours 433 Life of engine instruments are A. 2 years C. 3 years/2000 hours 434 altimeters are to be overhauled A. every year C. every 2 year 435 Free air temperature gauge has to be A. overhauled every year C. bench-checked every 2 years B. overhauled every 2 years D. bench-checked every 3 years B. every alternate year D. 2 years/3000 hours B. 2 years/1000 hours D. one year B. 2 years/1000 hours D. one year B. 1 year/2000 hours D. 2 years B. carriage of goods D. None is correct

436 Temperature required for storing of instruments is A. 15 degree centigrade C. 5 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade B. 15 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade D. below 5 degree centigrade

437 Places storing instruments shall have humidity below A. 60% C. 75% B. 70% D. 80%

438 The shlelf life of instruments other than gyro instruments shall not exceed A. one year C. four years B. two years D. six years

439 The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed A. one year C. two years B. one year and at the end of six months bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations D. two years and at the end of one year bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations

440 Instruments installed on aircraft has not been operated for a continuous period of six months A. The aircraft shall be subject to test flight before use C. shall be subject to overhaul before use B. shall be subject to bench check before use D. All are correct

441 Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall be fitted and equipped with A. instruments as required C. radio apparatus as required B. equipments as required D. All are correct

442 All aeroplanes on all flights shall be equipped with a seat/berth for each person over the age of A. two years C. five years B. three years D. All are correct

443 All aircraft issued with a C of A for the first time after A. 1-9-76 shall have safety hareness for aircraft crew C. 1-12-86 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew B. 1-10-76 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew D. 1-1-87 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew

444 All aircraft shall be fitted with an ELT meeting requirements as laid down in A. FAA TSO C 91a C. B CAR C 91a B. FAR Part 91 D. None of the above

445 ELT of aircraft flying over land should be activated due to impact of more than A. 3 g C. 5 g B. 4 g D. 8 g

446 The requirement of ELT for training aircraft is/will be effected from A. 30th April 1992 C. 31st December 1992 447 The ELT must be installed on the aircraft A. as far as possible C. as aft as possible B. in the Radome section D. in the centre of the aircraft B. 31st July 1992 D. 31st December 1993

448 Aeroplane on flight over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on board A. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles B. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles away from the land

C. when the take off approach path is so D. All are correct disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there would be a possibility of ditching 449 Two sets of portable, water resistant, self-survival radio equpment operated on VHF shall be carried on board on long range over water flights by all A. aircraft C. public transport aircraft only 450 CHT gauge is mandatory on each A. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 250 B. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 300 C. water cooled engine having rated BHP above 250 D. Both a and c are correct B. private aircraft only D. non-schedule operators

451 Aircraft certificated for night flying shall have navigation light as A. red light on the right tip side and green light on left tip side and red light near the tail C. red light on the left tip side and green light on the right tip side and white light near the tail 452 Electrical power failure indicator is mandatory for A. all aircraft above 5700 kg AUW C. all aircraft above 15000 kg AUW B. aircraft having AUW of 5700 kg and above D. all aircraft, irrespective of weights B. red light on the left tip side and green light on right tip side and red light near the tail D. All are correct

453 All turbine engined aeroplane of 5700 kg or more shall be provided with VOR and DME when flying at or above A. FL 180 C. FL 220 B. FL 200 D. FL 240

454 All jet aircraft imported in to the country for public transport shall be equpped with digital flight data recorder (DFDR) capable of recording minimum of A. 7 parameter continously for 25 hours C. 25 parameter continously for 25 hours 455 Black box contains A. CVR, FDR/DFDR C. CVR, DFDR, VOR/ILS B. CVR, DFDR, ELT, DME/VOR D. CVR, FDR, ELT, VOR/ILS B. 15 parameter continously for 25 hours D. 33 parameter continously for 25 hours

456 An anti-collision light, intended to attract attention to the aircraft is mandatory for all aircraft A. having AUW of 3000 kg and above C. having AUW of 15000 kg and above B. having AUW of 5700 kg and above D. All are correct

457 For flight on which licensed navigator is required according to rules drift indicator is mandatory for machines with a seating capacity of more than A. 100 persons C. 10 persons B. 30 persons D. 5 persons

458 Unpressurised aeroplanes shall not be operated at altitude at which the atmosphere pressure in flight crew/passenger compartments will be less than A. 700 metres C. 375 metres B. 600 metres D. All are correct

459 Whenever a pressurised aeroplane flies at analtitude of 10000 to 13000 feet it shall carry sufficient stored breathing oxygen for A. all crew members and passengers C. all crew members and 30% passengers B. pilot and co-pilot only D. all crew members and 10% passengers

460 All pressurised aeroplanes are equpped with a device to provide positive warning to the pilot of any dangerous loss of pressurisation when they fly at an altitude of A. 4000 metres C. 10000 metres B. 7600 metres D. 13000 metres

461 CAR series I part III deals with A. aircraft equipment C. maintenance of test equipment B. aircraft instruments D. All are correct

462 During a planned cloud flying glider can carry on board A. pilot and co-pilot C. two passengers B. one passenger D. pilot and one passenger

463 Glider certificated for cloud flying shall be equipped with A. first aid kit C. turn and bank indicator 464 All helicopters shall be equipped with A. RPM indicator for main rotor C. floats when operated over water beyond auto rotative/gliding distance from land B. RPM indicator for tail rotor D. Both a and c are correct B. artificial horizon D. All are correct

465 When an unpressurised aeroplane flies at an altitude in such an atmospheric pressure is less than 620 mb in its compartment it shall carry sufficiently stored breathing oxygen for A. all crew members C. for all crew and 10% passengers 466 Batteries used in the ELT must be replaced A. when the transmitter has been in use for more B. when 50% of their useful life has expired than 1 cumulative hours C. when 50% of their useful life of charge (for rechargeble batteries) has expired D. All are correct B. for all crew and passengers D. for all crew and 30% passengers

467 The requirement of ELT operating on 406.0 MHZ is/will be mandatory from A. 30th April 1992 C. 31st December 1993 B. 31st December 1992 D. None is correct

468 Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for replacement of those accessible in flight are carried on board. Their numbers should be at least A. 1 of each rating C. 3 of each rating B. 2 of each rating D. 4 of each rating

469 The radio equipment installed on India registered aircraft shall be operated with A. consent of DGCA C. a licence issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1885 and amended from time to time 470 Ammeters and voltmeters are A. overhauled every two years C. bench checked every two years B. bench checked every year D. None is correct B. a license issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1895 and amended from time to time D. None is correct

471 The pilot friction of compass shall be determined by deflecting the compass needle 10 degrees and allowing it to return to the magnetic Meridian. The change in indication from the original heading shall not exceed A. one degree C. three degrees B. two degrees D. five degrees

472 Helicopter flying under IFR condition should carry the following amount of fuel A. amount to reach the destination C. as in (b) additionally the helicopter to fly for 45 minutes at straight and normal flight with cruise speed B. as in (a), also to go to another place if it cannot land at destination D. None of above

473 Transistorised or IC equipped radio comm has to be certified in case of non-scheduled aerial work aircraft A. 200 hours/180 days C. 25 hours/15 days 474 During refueling of aircraft A. aircraft radio electrical and radar swtiches may remain 'on' C. no special precaution is necessary for ground power supply B. steady parking light and such switches may be operated D. the ground power unit tractor and siilar equipment shall be located outside the defined 'danger zone'. B. 50 hours/30 days D. 100 hours/90 days

475 Other conditions remaining unchanged during refuelling of the aircraft A. passengers embarking/disembarking are not permitted under any condition C. a little spilage if, can be washed into the drain 476 According to IAR check correct statement A. helicopter is aeroplane C. kite is a flying machine B. balloon is an aircraft D. All are wrong B. smoking is not permitted within 30 metres from aircraft or fuelling equipment D. All the above statements are correct

477 For certification of ignition apparatus of light aircraft the AME should have his licence in A. Category 'A' C. Category 'C' B. Category 'B' D. Category 'X'

478 The Indian Aircraft Rule 61 9revised) became effective from A. 1st Jan 1991 C. 1st April 1991 B. 31st Jan 1991 D. 1st April 1992

479 Application for appearing in the AME licence examination is submitted on from A. CA 9 C. CA 9 (annex I) B. CA 9 (Revised) D. CA 9 (Appendix A)

480 The written paper of AME licence examination comprised A. general papers, basic papers C. basic papers and specific papers B. general papers, basic papers & specific papers D. general paperss and specific papers

481 The basic paper consists of A. Paper I, II C. Paper III B. Paper I, II, III D. Paper II, III

482 The pass percentage in AME licence examination is A. 80% C. 80% in quiz type and 70% in essay type 483 The pass percentage of specific paper is A. 80% C. 60% B. 70% D. None of the above B. 70% D. 70% in quiz type and 60% in essay type

484 Defence personnel appearing in AME licence exam are exempted from appearing in A. paper I, II, III C. multiple chioce question of Paper I, II, III B. paper II, III D. multiple choice question of paper II, III

485 Those applicants who are not engaged in any organisation but meet all the requirements for appearing in the AME licence exam A. can't appear in the AME licence exam C. can appear in the AME licence exam after getting his form forwarded by the QCM of the organisatioin he last worked B. can't appear in the AME licence exam after obtaining permission from the RAO D. may directly send their application to Director of Airworthiness (CEO) New Delhi

486 The candidates who have passed all the written papers and are due to appear in oral-cum-practical test for issue or extension of AME licence will be intimated and CEO will issue for their oral form A. CA 73 to the QCM of the candidate's organisation C. CA 63 to the RAO of candidate's region B. CA 73 to the RAO of candidate's region D. CA 73 to the candidate

487 DGCA will recognize the approved course of a foreign country provided it has been approved by that country and is A. of two months' duration C. of one month duration for heavy aircraft B. of three months' duration for heavy aircraft D. of one month duration for light aircraft

488 AME licence for helicopter in category 'A' & 'C' is issued in combined form whose A. AUW is below 5700 kg C. AUW is below 2000 kg B. AUW is below 3000 kg D. None is correct

489 A combined specific paper for airframe and engine is undertaken for helicopter whose A. AUW is below 15000 kg C. AUW is below 3000 kg 490 A helicopter engineer in category 'A' can certify A. all parts of airframe for assembly and condition B. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor C. main gear boxes D. All are correct B. AUW is below 5700 kg D. AUW is below 2000 kg

491 An AME licensed in category 'C' on helicopter can certify A. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor C. engine mounts and cowls for condition & security of attachment B. main gear boxes intermediate gear boxes D. All are correct

492 Certification of electrical system for condition, proper functioning and rectification of minor defects of helicopter fall under purview of AME licensed in A. category 'A' C. category 'E' 493 Endorsement of AME licence is contained in A. CAR series L Part I C. CAR series L Part III B. CAR series L Part II D. CAR series L Part IV B. category 'B' D. category 'X'

494 A candidate applying for endorsement in category 'A' will be exempted from appearing in general paper III if he A. has vast experience C. has endorsement in category 'C' and 'D' B. has open rating in category 'D' D. has AME licence in category 'B' for the type of aircraft for which endorsement is required

495 According to appendix 'A' of CAR series 'L' part IV group V contains A. pressurised twin turbine engine aeroplane not B. pressurised twin piston engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW exceeding 5700 kg AUW C. piston engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 kg AUW D. Both a and b are correct

496 In accordance with CAR series L Part IV all turbine engine helicopter not exceeding 3000 kg AUW comes under A. group IV C. group VI B. group V D. group VII

497 Turbojet/Turbofan engines in accordance with CAR series L part IV appendix 'B' are in A. group IV C. group VI B. group V D. group VII

498 Avionics system includes instruments, electrical and radio systems of A. Boeing 737 C. Airbus A 300 B. Boeing 747 D. Airbus A 320

499 The privileges of AME licence shall be exercised only in respect of such operation A. and aircraft as are entered on his licence B. and airframes, powerplants, aircraft systems including electrical instruments and radio systems and component as are entered on his licence D. None is correct

C. Both a and b are correct

500 An AME can exercise his privileges only A. when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less than 12 months C. when within the preceding 12 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less than 3 months B. when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less than six months D. when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less than 3 months

501 A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for A. certification of major modification C. certification of minor repair B. certification of major repair D. certification of replacement of approved components

502 A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for A. certification of major modification C. certification of replacement of approved components B. certification of major repair D. All are correct

503 The holder of category 'A' licence for light aircraft is entitled to issue A. certificate of maintenance for instruments C. certificate of maintenance for autopilots 504 The holder of licence in category 'B' can issue A. certificate of maintenance for airframe C. certificate of maintenance for engine fuel, oil & coolant system 505 An AME licenced in category 'C' undertake A. dismantling of main casing of a turbine engine B. dismantling of main rotating assembles of a turbine engine C. dismantling of piston engines, other than piston/cylinder assemblies D. None is correct B. certificate of maintenance for engine controls D. All are correct B. certificate of maintenance for electrical systems D. All are correct

506 Certification of DR compass will be done by person holding licence in A. cat 'X' for compass C. cat D with a note valid for DR compass B. cat A with a note valid for DR compass D. Both b and c are correct

507 A person will be deemed to be engaged in aircraft maintenance if A. he has undergone an approved refresher course run by approved training schools C. he is employed as an AME in an airline B. he is employed in production division of aircraft manufacturer D. All are correct

508 If an AME has certificated the work on appropraite procedure sheets and is on outstation duty then the log book entry on his behalf can be made by A. any other AME C. Quality Control Manager 509 Grant of open AME licences is contained in A. CAR series L PART VII C. CAR series L part V B. CAR series L part VI D. CAR series L part IV B. Chief Engineer D. All are correct

510 Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME licence in category 'A' & 'B' is given to cover A. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg C. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg B. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg D. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg

511 'Open' rating in category 'D' is given for piston engines not exceeding A. 500 BHP C. 300 BHP 512 'Open' rating in cat 'R' and 'X' is given for aircrafts A. with AUW below 15000 kg C. with AUW below 3000 kg B. with AUW below 5700 kg D. 'open' rating in cat 'X' is not given B. 400 BHP D. 250 BHP

513 For obtaining an open rating on single engine aircraft of all metal contruction with AUW below 3000 kg an AME should A. have held an AME licence for 5 years continuously C. as in 'b' the weight of 3 aeroplanes should not exceed 3000 kg B. have at least 5 types of aeroplanes endorsed on his licence D. All are correct

514 For 'open rating endorsement' on all single engined aircraft of composite construction with an AUW not exceedign 3000 kg the applicant should have A. held an AME licence in cat A/B for five years continuously B. alleast three types of aeroplanes of composite construction of which at least two should be single engined aircraft with AUW not exceeding 3000 kg D. All are correct

C. as in 'b' and licenced endorsed in cat A/B as applicable

515 An applicant desirous of having an open rating in category 'R" for aircraft below 5.700 kg AUW must have A. held an AME 'R' licence for three years continuously C. Both a and b are correct 516 A composite construction of an aeroplane means A. its skin covering is of one material C. its skin covering is of two or more different materials B. its skin covering is of two different materials D. its skin covering (including flight control surface) is of two or more different materials B. held an AME 'R' licence for five years continuously D. None is correct

517 An organisation seeking approval for cadmium plating will submit to DGCA A. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg C. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar B. three specimens of 8"x2"x16swg D. all of the above

518 An organisation seeking approval for any electroplating will submit to DGCA A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar C. twelve specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg B. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg D. None of the above

519 A firm seeking approval for hand chromium plating has to submt A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar C. three specimens of 12"x1" round bar B. three specimens of 12"x1/2" round bar D. three specimens of 6"x1" round bar

520 A certificate issued in respect of a complete aircraft by appropriately licensed AME/AME's approved or authorised persons certifying that the aircraft has been inspected as per approved schedule and is airworthy in all respects and is safe for(cont'd.) A. ////flight for a period specified in the certificate, is called///// certificate of flight release C. release note B. certificate of flight approval

D. certificate of maintenance

521 An organisation undertaking calibration of instruments of master gauges and tools as applied to the activities of CAD is approved in A. catory 'A' C. catory 'F' B. catory 'D' D. catory 'E'

522 An organisation approved in category 'D' after completion of work issues a A. certificate of maintenance C. test report 523 Certificate of manufacture contains A. signature of AME C. a and b are correct 524 A firm approved in category 'E' can carry out A. distribution of aviation fuel C. distribution of paints B. blending of aviation fuel D. Both a and b are correct B. firms approval number D. none of the above is correct B. certificate of manufacture D. rest flight report

525 The number allotted to a petroleum product which is considered as one lot for sampling and listing is called A. serial number C. part number B. batch number D. identification number

526 Aviation fuel consigned for storage prior to loading into organisation fueling equipment shall be certified on A. approved release note quoting batch no C. Both a and b are correct B. test report number and specification D. None of them is correct

527 The Indian Oil refueling station shall issue voucher to the customer with each consignment of aviation fuel A. to certify the quality of the product C. to certify the contents of the product 528 Refueling voucher shall be A. serially numbered with the batch number specification details and quantity to be delivered C. Both a and b are correct B. shall be prepared in triplicate B. to certify the quantity of the product D. None of the above

D. None of them is correct

529 Stores where materials bearing evidence of having been received from approved sources are stocked called A. current store C. airworthy store B. quarantine store D. bonded store

530 Stores where airworthy and serviceable materials, awaiting evidence of having been received from approved sources are stocked is called A. stand-by store C. airworthiness store 531 Check-list is carried A. in safe place in aircraft B. in laminated form and is readily accessible to the flight crew in flight B. quarantine store D. bonded store

C. need not be carried on board it forms a part of D. both (b) & (c) are correct flight manual 532 Alteration to check-list on the basis of operator's own experience must be carried only after obtaining the concurrence of A. DGCA C. Manufacturer 533 Alteration to the Check-list may also by made by A. RAO C. manufacturer 534 CAR Series B part I pertains to A. cockpit & emergency check-lists C. deficiency list (MEL) 535 CAR Series B part II pertains to A. cockpit & emergency check-lists C. deficiency list (MEL) B. emergency check-list D. None of the above B. emergency check-list D. None of the above B. DGCA D. Both (b) & (c) are correct B. RAO D. FAA

536 Any part, the soundness and correct functioning of which when fitted on an aircraft is essential to the continues airworthiness or safety of the aircraft or its occupants is termed as A. aircraft system C. aircraft item B. aircraft component D. All the above

537 A condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft component arising out of any cause other than damage which would preclude it or another aircraft component from performing their intended function that would reduce the expected service life of the (cont'd.. A. ////aircraft or aircraft component is termed as/// snag C. defect B. P D R D. minor defect

538 Defect means A. a condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft component arising from any cause other than damage C. a condition which would reduce the expectable service life of the aircraft or aircraft component 539 Maintenance means any type of A. overhaul, repair, adjustment, testing B. inspection, testing, adjustment, repair B. a condition which preclude it or another aircraft component from performing their intended function D. All the above are correct

C. overhaul, inspection, adjustment, testing, D. overhaul, inspection, adjustment, testing, treatment, repair, replacement or modification treatment, repair, replacement, reconditioning or modification 540 A defect of such a nature that reduces the safety of the aircraft or its occupants and includes defects discovered as a result of the occurrence of any emergency or in the course of normal operation or maintenance is called A. repetitive defect C. major defect 541 Repetitive defect means A. a defect in an aircraft which recurs in spite of rectification C. a defect in an aircraft which recurs, in spite of rectification attempt on the same aircraft B. continuous defect D. a defect in an aircraft which recurs, in spite of rectification attempt on the same aircraft or on another aircraft of the same type B. minor defect D. defect

542 An aircraft operator who operates its fleet whole or part of it as per published schedule is known as a A. normal operator C. schedule operator B. private operator D. non-schedule operator

543 All major detects shall be reported to concerned RAO (AID) A. within 24 hours B. in writing

C. in writing or on telephone followed by written D. All are correct information 544 All particulars of the initial information format of defect report shall be submitted by the operator to the RAO A. within one month C. within 7 days B. within four months D. within 15 days

545 Initial information format of major defect contains A. aircraft type & registration, date and place of occurrence, nature of defect C. no information 546 Investigation of major defect shall be completed A. within one month C. within four months B. within six months D. within two months B. modification action taken, defect report as made by the pilot/AME D. Both a & b are correct

547 Which of the following forms a part of final investigation report? A. Apparent on actual cause of defect C. Duration of defect 548 Mechanical delay is any delay of A. 15 minutes or more C. 15 minutes or more to schedule services B. 30 inutes or more D. 30 minutes or more to schedule services B. Action taken by the operator against manufacturer D. Aircraft type & registration

549 Any mechanical delay has to be reported to the RAO within A. 24 hours B. 7 days

C. 24 hours of receipt of information by the main D. None of the above base station 550 The final defect investigation report has to be sent A. in duplicate to DGCA C. in triplicate to RAO B. in duplicate to RAO D. in triplicate to DGCA

551 Records associated with the defect shall be preserved for a period of A. two weeks C. one year B. six weeks D. ten years

552 Component associated with major defect shall be preserved for a period of A. one week from the date of intimation of defect B. two weeks from the date of intimation of defect C. three weeks from the date of intimation of defect D. need not be preserved

553 Failure of a component or a system that results in taking emergency action in flight is a A. defect C. repetitive defect B. major defect D. minor defet

554 Which one of the following is known as major defect A. significant contamination of fuel C. none of the above B. fuel starvation in flight D. Both a & b are correct

555 Defect leading to critical malfunctioning of any system or depriving the pilot some of the critical aspect of its controls is A. minor defect C. repetitive defect B. major defect D. snag

556 Recording of in-flight instrument readings and reporting of flight defect is contained in CAR A. series A part II C. series C part II B. series C part I D. series D part II

557 Recording of all parameters readings, as indicated by the respective instruments under appropriate columns of the approved flight report including the A.V.M. readings is the responsibility of A. AME C. Flight crew B. QCM D. Chief Engineer

558 In-flight instruments reading should be recorded A. at least once in each sector of flight C. in the event of emergency condition of flight B. at least once in each sector of flight under stabilized cruise condition D. both b & c are correct

559 If there is no defect reported by the crew in a previous day's flight A. AME will release the aircraft for next day's flight C. AME will consult the QCM and release the aircraft for next day's flight B. AME will not release the aircraft for next day flight D. AME will release the aircraft if a 'NIL' entry has been made in the PDR by the pilot duly signed

560 Defects observed at a place away from the normal base are recorded in A. JLB C. JLB, (col XI) 561 Series C Part-IV refers to A. reporting of defects observed on all aircraft B. recording of in-flight instrument readings B. airframe log book, section III D. defect register

C. analytical study of in-flight instrument readings D. All the above 562 If deterioration is observed in aircraft's performance in respect of engine A. RAO may require accomplishment of such curative measures as considered necessary B. may even require replacement of the deteriorated engine

C. RAO may requrie the carrying out of test flight D. Both a & b are correct to determine the increase in drag 563 The main purpose of investigation of defects A. is to avoid recurrence of defects C. as in (a) and to find the cause of defects B. to find the person who has caused the defects D. None of the above

564 If it is determined that defect was caused by the careless and casual attitude or negligence of technical staff A. DGCA will take action as per the aircraft Act and aircraft rules against the staff C. DGCA action does not stop an operator from taking penal action against its staff 565 All major defects shall be reported to RAO A. in writing within 12 hours C. in writing (or telephone followed by a letter) within 24 hours (working hours of AID) B. telephonically only D. in writing when full information is available B. operator will take departmental penal action as per the rules against the staff D. All of the above are correct

566 After initial reporting of major defects to the regional airworthiness office, the remaining detailed information must be furnished within A. 7 days in an approved defect report form C. as in (a) followed by a defect investigation report within 4 months of the occurrence of the defect B. 4 months, after awaiting investigation report D. a period stated in the quality control manual

567 After the completion of 1st flight the pilot has not observed any defect A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry been signed and dated by crew C. the AME can write 'NIL' on behalf of pilot 568 Approved release note contains A. series no. of engine if component is for engine B. serial no. of aircraft if component is for airframe C. DGCA approval no. and date D. signature of the chief engineer of the firm B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out engg. Maintenance D. the 'NIL' report need not be signed

569 For making changes in maintenance control by reliability programme you need the due approval of A. owner of aircraft C. airworthiness authorities B. operator of aircraft D. C.E.M./QCM

570 Air & Fuel consumption in cause of light aircraft should be A. recorded in engine log look after 25 hours C. recorded after post overhaul of the engine 571 FDR contains A. altitude, airspeed, magnetic heading, vertical acceleration against a time scale C. vertical acceleration, altitude and airspeed against time scale B. time, altitude, airspeed & magnetic heading D. altitude, airspeed, magnetic heading against time scale B. recorded in engine and aircraft log books D. None of the above

572 To get an organisation approved under approval system the organisation has to A. fill CA-182 form C. submit the form to DGCA headquarter for inspection and approval 573 Entry in log book can be signed A. by appropriately licensed AME C. by key persons of organisation 574 Petroleum in bulk means A. petroleum contained in any receptacle of 900 litres C. petroleum contained in receptable but less than 900 litres in capacity B. petroleum contained in receptacle exceeding 900 litres D. None is correct B. by a technician D. by an AME having vast experience B. fill one form and offer for inspection to RAO D. Both b & c are correct

575 Approval under category 'E' according to CAR series E refers to A. fuel oil and lubricants storage & distribution C. manufacture of aircraft, aircraft component and item of equipment B. testing laboratories D. training school

576 After completion of test flight pilot has not observed any defect A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry has been signed and dated by crew C. the AME can write NIL on behalf of pilot B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out engineering maintenance D. the NIL report need not be signed

577 Amendment of quality control-cum-maintenance system manual in accordance with latest issues of CAR are the responsibility of A. CEM/QCM C. owner of the aircraft B. airworthiness authorities D. operator of the aircraft

578 Any commercial watchmaker/watch repairing agencies are permitted to overhaul/repair the clock/watches installed on aircraft having AUW below A. 15000 Kgs C. 2000 kgs B. no aircraft is permitted to have the watch repaired from commercial watch maker D. 3000 kgs

579 As per CAR series E part I storing & distribution of previously certified aircraft/part, by a firm is approved in A. category 'C' C. category 'A' B. category 'D' D. category 'F'

580 Rejection note is a document issued by an approved organisation for the purpose of advising details of rejection of aircraft goods/parts A. for which high prices quoted C. ground eqiupment B. common to automobile industry D. which fails to meet applicable requirement

581 When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A is issued on form A. CA 23 C. CA 56 B. CA 23A D. CA 57

582 Certification of maintenance release of aircraft component after major maintenance for aircraft AUW of 15000 kg and above can be done by A. any authorised person with appropriate BAMEC and 3 years experience in the specific shop C. the key person of the concerned shop B. any person having appropriate BAMEC with requisite experience in specific training and QCM approval D. Any one of above as the circumstances demand

583 The DGCA can validate the type certificate of an imported component provided A. it belongs to an aircraft issued with C of A by the airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer C. it is approved by CAA/FAA only 584 S.S.I.D identifies fatigue proof areas to specify A. appication of specific NDT C. the damage tolerance retaining B. frequency of SSI D. all of the above B. it meets DGCA's standard

D. Both A and b and correct

585 An AME school shall submit to the DGCA for approval of A. a training manual C. quality control manual B. a school organisation manual D. Both a and b are correct

586 The chief instructor or his deputy shall keep the records of A. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses C. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses of any duration B. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses of more than two months duration D. Both a and b are correct

587 Examination papers of an approved training school shall be preserved for a period of A. three months from the date of examination C. nine months from the date of examination B. six months from the date of examination D. twelve months from the date of examination

588 For any change in course material prior permission of A. DGCA is must C. Controller/director of that region is must B. RAO is must D. Both b and c are correct

589 Instructors who are employed full time on instructional duties relating to specific types of aircraft/engine/equipment shall have job experience of A. not less than 100 hrs in a year (2 months) C. not less than 500 hrs in a year (6 months) B. not less than 200 hrs in a year (4 months) D. not less than 1000 hrs in a year (1 year)

590 Whenever an approved school introduces a new course or modifies the existing course DGCA should be informed at least A. two weeks in advance C. one month in advance B. two months in advance D. not required to be informed

591 Quality control check of the products is carried out by A. representative of DGCA C. QCM/Dy QCm 592 Regional airworthiness office receive the A. 1st copy of release note C. 3rd copy of rejection note 593 CAR series 'F' part I refers to A. procedures relating to registration of aircraft C. procedures relating to registration of balloon 594 IAR 30 empowers the Govt. of India A. to register an aircraft in India C. to fly aircraft in India B. to import an aircraft in India D. to maintain an aircraft in India B. procedures relating to registration of microlight aircraft D. All are correct B. 1st copy of rejection note D. Both a and b are correct B. CEM D. Both b and c are correct

595 Rule 5 of the aircraft rules requires than no person shall fly any aircraft unless A. it has been registered C. it bears name & address of the owner B. it bears nationality & registration D. All are correct

596 The nationality and registration mark should be affixed on the aircraft in accordance with aircraft rule A. 37 C. 35 B. 30 D. 33

597 Registration of the aircraft by the DGCA A. is for the purpose of controlling the safety of aviation in India C. Both a and b are correct 598 An aircraft in India is registered in A. Three categories C. One category only 599 Aircraft registered in category 'B' is A. owned by a citizen of India C. by a company whose chairman and at least two thirds of directors are citizens of India 600 An aircraft registered in category 'B' is owned by A. a person residing/resident in or carrying on business in India without citizenship C. citizen of India 601 Application for registration of aircraft is given in A. CA 23 C. CA 28 602 Certificate of registration is valid for A. one year C. two years B. six months D. None of the above B. CA 23A D. CA 28 (appendix A) B. a person resident/residing in or carrying on business in India without citizenship D. a foreign national B. by a company or corporation registered D. None of them is correct B. Two categories D. Four cateries B. is for establishing the legal ownership of an aircraft D. None is correct

603 When an aircraft is solid to another person or company or ceases to be owned by the owner indicated on its certificate of registration its registration is deemed to have been cancelled in accordance with A. rule 30 C. rule 28 (appendix A) B. rule 28 D. rule 33

604 When a person buys an old aircraft already registered in India then the certificate of registration must be accompanied by A. the previous certificate of registration duly endorsed on the reverse by the old owner B. an affidavit duly authenticated by notary public/oath commissioner from the owner confirming his ownership

C. an affidavit indicating that he has sold the D. All are correct aircraft to the new owner and has received the sale proceeds in the full 605 Temporary certificate of registration is valid A. for one month C. until the first landing at a custom aerodrome in India B. for one week D. until the validity of the C of A

606 For issue of a duplicate certificate of registration the owner has to apply to A. RAO C. DAI B. DGCA D. All of the above

607 When C of R of Indian registered aircraft is lost, for issuance of a duplicate C or R the owner has apply along with A. mutilated C of A C. original C of A B. photostat copy of C or R D. the prescribed fees

608 A register of all civil aircraft registered in India is maintained at A. Ministry of Civil Aviation C. HAL B. DGCA D. All of them are correct

609 The nationality mark of all Indian registered aircraft are A. E.I. C. A.V.U. B. I.O. D. V.T.

610 The size and method of affixing the registration marking is given in A. CAR series F part II C. car SERIES X part I B. CAR series F part III D. None of the above

611 Procedure for issue/revalidation of type certificate of aircraft and its Engines/propeller is contained in A. CAR series E part II C. CAR series F part II 612 Aircraft rule 49 empowers A. the DGCA to revalidate C of A C. the DGCA to issue type certificate for aircraft B. the DGCA to issue C of A D. All are correct B. CAR series E part III D. CAR series F part III

613 DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller manufactured in India under the purview of aircraft rules A. 49A C. 49C B. 49B D. 49

614 Application for issue/revalidation of type certificate for aircraft is to be submitted in the form as in A. IAR 49 C. CAR series F part II annexure U B. IAR 49 c Annexure II D. CAR series F part II Annexure II

615 Application for revalidation of type certificate of rotor craft is submitted in the form as per the A. CAR series F part I annexure I C. CAR series F part II annexure II B. CAR series F part I annexure II D. CAR series F part II annexure I

616 For revalidation of type certificate of an imported light and transport aircraft the DGCA confirms that the aircraft meets with the requirements of A. FAR 23 & 25 C. FAR 27 & 29 B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25 D. Both a and b are correct

617 Type certificate of a rotor craft imported in India can be revalidated by the DGCA if its design and construction confirms with the A. FAR 23 & 25 C. FAR 27 & 29 B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25 D. BCAR 27 & 29

618 An aero engine manufactured outside India can be type certificated by the DGCA if it confirms to A. FAR 33 C. FAR 30 B. JAR 33 D. Both a and c are correct

619 DGCA revalidates the type certificate in respect of engine/propeller under the purview of A. Aircraft rule 49 C. Aircraft rule 49B B. Aircraft rule 49A D. Aircraft rule 49C

620 For revalidation of type certificate of the aircraft imported to India which of the following document is not required A. type-certificate C. the basis on ETOPS certification if applicable B. type-design datasheet D. Quality Control & Maintenance system manual

621 Before revalidation of type certificate DGCA may visit the country of manufacturer A. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues with the representative of the manufacturer C. Both a and b are correct B. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues with the airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer D. Both a and b are not correct

622 DGCA has to revalidate the type certificate of imported aircraft A. just as it is C. it can impose special condition for safe operation of aircraft in India B. it can modify it D. it cannot modify it

623 Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to DGCA A. test flight report of the aircraft C. test schedule of scrutiny and approval B. test flight schedule of scrutiny and approval D. None of the above is correct

624 The certification of aircraft/aircraft component manufactured in India shall be done by approved authorised person as per A. aircraft rule 53 C. aircraft rule 53B B. aircraft rule 53A D. aircraft rule 53C

625 All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of the aircraft shall be preserved for a period of A. 1 year C. 5 years B. 2 years D. 10 years

626 The test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out as in accordance with A. form CA 57 C. approved manufacturer test flight schedule B. form CA 56 D. test flight schedule approved by the DGCA

627 For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft/aircraft component A. approval of DGCA is must C. approval of QCM/CEM is must B. written approval of manufacturer is must D. All are correct

628 A major modification is one A. which has no appreciable effect on the weight and balance C. which has appreciable effect on the reliability and operational characteristic affecting the airworthiness of the aircraft/aircraft component 629 A minor modification is one A. which has appreciable effect on the weight and balance C. which has appreciable effect on the flight characteristic of aircraft/aircraft component 630 Designs submitted for type approval shall bear A. description title & drawing number C. description title, issue number and date of issue B. description title and date of issue D. Both a and c are correct B. which has appreciable effect on the structural strength D. None of them is correct B. which has no appreciable effect on the structural strength D. None of them is correct

631 A person holding open rating endorsement on his AME licence can exercise his privileges A. straight way on a new aircraft B. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of six months

C. after familiarising himself with the new D. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft aircraft for a minimum period of three months for a minimum period of one month 632 For renewal of AME licence the applicant has to apply on form A. CA 29 C. CA 68 B B. CA 29 (revised) D. CA 68 A

633 AME's licence will be renewed only if in the preceding 24 months he has been engaged in aeronautical engineering duties for a period of A. 24 months C. 12 months B. 18 months D. 6 months

634 Which of the following AME's will be considered to be employed in AME activity and will be considered for renewal of their licences A. refuelling operation of approved aircraft fuel vendors C. approved organisation stocking aircraft components B. as a member of flying crew D. All of the above

635 An AME to keep his licence valid will have to submit a medical certificate A. every 6 months C. every 24 months B. every 12 months D. it depends on the age of AME

636 When an AME licence has remained lapsed for a period of more than one year but less than two years, his licence can be renewed after A. an oral check by the RAO C. a warning to the AME B. AME has appeared in the specific paper I.e. paper IV D. All are correct

637 AME's shall submit their licence for renewal at least A. 7 days before expiring C. 30 days before expiring B. 15 days before expiring D. None is correct

638 If an AME submits his licence between 15 days to 30 days after expiry A. it will be renewed with a warning to AME B. it will be renewed from the date of receipt

C. it will be renewed from the date of last validity D. None is correct 639 The licence of Indian AME's working aboard will be renewed A. by the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working C. by any authority acceptable to ICAO 640 BAMEC is issued when a candidate passes A. Paper I, II of AME licence exam C. Paper I, II, III, IV of AME licence exam 641 BAMEC is issued under the provision of A. CAR series L part VIII C. CAR series L part VI 642 BAMEC is issued in A. four categories C. six categories 643 The candidate for issuance of BAMEC must be of A. 17 years C. 20 years B. 18 years D. 21 years B. five categories D. seven categories B. CAR series L part VII D. CAR series L part V B. Paper I, II, III of AME licence exam D. All are correct B. by the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working in consultation with the DGCA hqrs D. by the DGCA Hqrs

644 Application for grant of Authorisation to an AME/approved person is forwarded to A. QCM C. DGCA 645 An AME proposed for authorisation should be A. holder of current AME licence in relevant category C. having at least 3 months practical experience on similar type of aircraft /engine /equipment etc B. employed with the organisation on a full-time basis D. All are correct B. RAO/Sub-RAO D. Chief Engineer

646 If authorisation is wanted for an aircraft having all AUW exceeding 5700 kg then the AME must A. possess licence in category B C. pass a familiatisation course on the aircraft with at least 70% marks in the examination B. possess at least 6 months practical experience on similar type of aircraft D. All are correct

647 Authorisation will not be issued to a person A. failing in the examination for issue of licence B. being considered blameworthy in any in which the subject of authorisation is covered investigation of defect C. being considered blameworthy in any investigation of accident by the DGCA during the preceding 6 months D. All are correct

648 The validity of an authorisation may be extended to a maximum period of A. twleve months C. three months B. six months D. one month

649 For grant of approval to certify overhaul the candidate should be of A. 17 years C. 20 years 650 For grant of approvl a candidate must be A. 20 years of age C. Holding BAMEC in relevant category 651 Approval is granted in A. duplicate, one copy to person and one copy to RAO C. only single copy 652 Approval is valid for A. 3 months C. 12 months B. 6 months D. 24 months B. triplicate, one copy to person, one copy to RAO and one coyp to DGCA D. All are correct B. at least a matriculate D. All are correct B. 18 years D. 21 years

653 Flight Engineer Examiners are appointed as per rule A. 41A, sub-rule to of IAR 1937 C. CAR series L part V B. 61A, sub-rule to of IAR 1937 D. CAR series L part VI

654 A person appointed as Check Flight Engineer must have held a A. current F.E's licence for a minimum period of three years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE C. current F.E's licence for a minimum period of two years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE B. Current F.E's licence for a minimum period of three years and at least 3000 hours flight experience as FE D. None is correct

655 Flight Engineer Examiner should have at least 500 hours flight experience of which not less than A. 100 hours should be during six months preceding the date of application C. 50 hours should be during 12 months preceding the date of application 656 Flight Engineer Examiner appointment is valid for A. 24 months C. 6 months B. 12 months D. None is correct B. 100 hours should be during 12 months preceding the date of application D. 50 hours should be during six months preceding the date of application

657 A Flight Engineer Examiner's appointment may be renewed subject to the condition that he has A. 50 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months C. 20 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months 658 A Check Flight Engineer should be sponsored by A. an approved organisation C. Central Govt. Organisation B. air transport operator D. State Govt. Organisation B. 25 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months D. 10 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months

659 In order to seek approved welder's certificate, apart from other requirements the candidate is required to submit A. two different test pieces, as per DGCA requirements C. three different test pieces, as per CAR series L part VI 660 Welder's approval is issued A. materialwise C. material and processwise B. processwise D. material and jointwise B. three different test pieces, as per FAA requirements D. two one test piece, as per CAR series L part VI

661 Unpressurised aircraft operating at altitude between 620mb to 700 mb for more than thirty minutes of flight should be provided with A. adequate supply of oxygen for crew plus 10% pax C. only pilot and co-pilot are to be provided with oxygen B. all crew and passengers are to be provided with sufficient oxygen D. None is correct

662 Engineers undergoing training under GETS shall have A. degree in engineering C. P.G degree in electronics B. P.G degree in engineering D. All are correct

663 GETS is eligible to appear for paper I of AME/BAMEC examination after the completion of A. 6 months of training C. 18 months of training 664 GETS at present is run by A. Pawan Hans Ltd. C. Both a & b are correct 665 The passing marks in GETS is A. 70% in each and 80% in aggregate C. 80% in each and 90% in aggregate 666 Pass marks in GETS re-examination is A. 70% C. 90% B. 80% D. None is correct B. 60% in each and 70% in aggregate D. None is correct B. Indian Airlines & Air India D. The passing marks in GETS is B. 12 months of training D. 24 months of training

667 Re-examination in GETS can be held after 15 days break within A. 30 days from the date of completion of the main course C. 60 days from the date of completion of the main course B. 45 days from the date of completion of the main course D. 90 days from the date of completion of the main course

668 Candidate under GETS will have to repeat main course if he A. fails to secure 80% marks in aggregate in main B. fails in any one phase with less than 60% marks in course the main course C. fail in the tandem course D. All are correct

669 GETS candidate fails in three oral-cum-practicual examinations, he again undergoes a refresher course and will be again eligible for A. three oral-cum-practical examinations C. only one oral-cum-practical examination B. two oral-cum-practical examinations D. None is correct

670 If a GETS candidate fails in oral-cum-practical test again after taking the refresher course A. he will get two more chances to appear in oral- B. he will get one more chance to appear in oralcum-practical test cum-practical test C. he will have to take the main course again 671 The pass marks in refresher course of GETS is A. 70% in each phase and 80% in aggregate C. 60% in each phase and 70% in aggregate B. 60% in each phase and 80% in aggregate D. 80% in each phase and 90% in aggregate D. All are correct

672 When an AME licence is lost by the holder (other than act of God) then for a duplicate licence A. he has to pay no fees C. he has to submit FIR, of the lost licence B. he has to pay only half fees D. Both b and c are correct

673 An AME will have to pay no fees for issuance of a duplicate AME licence if A. the licence is more than 25 years old C. the licence is more than 10 years old B. the licence is more than 20 years old D. the licence is more than 5 years old

674 Mandatory modification/inspection is issued under the purview of aircraft rule A. 49A C. 49D B. 49B D. 51A

675 Mandatory modifications/inspections are carried out in accordance with aircraft rule A. 49A C. 50A 676 Aircraft rule 52 A. lays down the acceptable standards for modification/repair C. requires modification/inspection to be carried out in aircraft B. provides for incorporation of modification in aircraft D. All are correct B. 49D D. 50D

677 Mandatory modifications/inspections prescribe the mandatory action required for A. continued safe operation of the aircraft C. keeping the C of A valid B. continued airworthiness of aircraft D. All are correct

678 Airworthiness directive means an instruction issued by an airworthiness authority A. which amends an approved document C. to keep aircraft, aircraft components in an airworthy condition B. which requires a modification D. All are correct

679 Mandatory modifications and inspections are promulgated by A. the manufacturer of the aircraft C. the airworthiness authority B. the DGCA D. the airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer of aircraft

680 DGCA will declare only those service bulletins/instructions as mandatory in respect of those A. whom DGCA thinks so C. in respect of which AD's are issued 681 DGCA will declare all modifications issued by A. DGCA as mandatory C. CAA as mandatory B. FAA as mandatory D. All are correct B. are issued in red colour D. None of the above

682 A consolidated list of all mandatory/modifications /inspections of aircraft engines and equipment are compiled and distributed by A. DGCA C. manufacturer 683 C of A will not be renewed if it is observed than A. any modification is due on aircraft C. any inspection is due on item of equipment B. only mandatory modification is due on aircraft component D. All are correct B. RAO D. approved organisation

684 CAR series 'O' part I deals with minimum requirements to be compiled with by operator engaged in A. schedule operator C. private aircraft B. non-schedule operator D. All are correct

685 Aircraft rule 140 requires than all aircraft owners/operators shall comply with A. the engineering requirements as specified by the DGCA C. the safety requirements as specified by the DGCA B. the maintenance requirements as specified by the DGCA D. All are correct

686 List of components with approved overhaul lives is given in A. quality control manual C. engineering organisation manual B. maintenance system manual D. All are correct

687 Single engined aircraft with retractable undercarriage shall not be used in A. schedule, VFR operation C. non-schedule night operation B. non-schedule VFR operation D. All are correct

688 A multi-engined aircraft when loaded to the maximum gross weight shall be capable of maintaining level flight with one engine inoperative at an altitude of not less than A. 2000 feet above the valley level at the highest point on the airroute C. 3000 feet above the water B. 1000 feet above the valley level at the highest point on the airroute D. Both a and c are correct

689 Operation manual is not a necessary requirement of A. non-schedule operator C. flying training aircraft B. schedule operator D. private aircraft

690 The maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members is contained in A. quality control manual C. operation manual B. maintenance system manual D. All are correct

691 The maximum flight altitude for each route as required for scheduled operations forms a part of A. operation manual C. flight manual 692 Operation manual contains A. the procedure for refuelling the aircraft C. a list of navigational equipment to be carried B. the condition under which oxygen shall be used D. All are correct B. route guide D. All are correct

693 Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight may be continued should any instrument have become inoperative is in A. flight manual C. operation manual B. emergency check list D. all are correct

694 In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operation manual and airplane flight manual then precedence will be given to A. operation manual C. flight crew operation manual B. flight manual D. any one can be accepted

695 For operation of single engined aircraft there shall be an emergency landing ground at intervals of not more than A. 150 miles C. 150 km B. 260 miles D. 260 km

696 When an aircraft is landing under INE, it shall be provided with a radio equipment capable of receiving signals A. from VOR station C. providing guidance to a point from which visual landing can be effected B. from ATC transponder D. from ILS system

697 The required number of aircrew on a licensed air transport service is found in aircraft A. flight manual C. C or R B. C of A D. Both a and b are correct

698 All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by the DGCA that they are familiar A. with its loading C. a and b are correct B. with ATC system D. None is correct

699 The first pilot of an airlines shall have made at least A. one flight as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly in VFR condition C. three flights as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly VFR conditions B. two flights as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly in VFR conditions D. as in (a) also in IFR condition

700 All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local proficiency check A. once a year C. twice a year B. once in two years D. None is correct

701 Proficiency check of licenced air transport service pilots shall be carried out at an interval of A. not less than 4 months and not more than 8 months C. not less than 6 months and not more than 8 months 702 Instruments rating check of a pilot is carried out A. every year C. twice a year B. every two years D. every six months B. not less than 3 months and not more than 6 months D. not less than 3 months and not more than 8 months

703 The IR check of a pilot carried out by an approved check pilot includes A. let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in use C. recovery from loops B. recovery from spins D. All are correct

704 During an IR check the pilot carries out 180 degree turns with 30 degree bank to port and starboard variation in height shall not exceed A. 100 feet C. 200 feet B. 150 feet D. 300 feet

705 The expected climbed performance shall be obtained from A. flight manual C. pilot's notes B. operations manual D. All are correct

706 The observed actual climb performance (in terms of feet per minute) shall in no case be lower by more than A. 2% of the 'expected climbed performance' C. 5% of the 'expected climbed performance' B. 3% of the 'expected climbed performance' D. 7% of the 'expected climbed performance'

707 ROC correction factor graph for constant speed propellers is available in A. CAR series C part I C. CAR series T part I B. CAR series C part II D. CAR series T part II

708 The varaiables of ROC graphs as given in CAR series T part II are A. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F) C. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree F) and rate of climb factor B. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree C) D. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F) and rate of climb factor

709 The nationality and registration marks of an airship appears A. on the fuselage and wing C. on the fuselage and stabilizer B. on the hull D. on the fuselage and vertical fin

710 The registration marking on the aircraft shall appear A. on the right half of the lower surface of the wing C. as in (a) and on the fuselage B. on the left half of the lower surface of the wing D. as in (b) and on the fuselage

711 The height of registration marks on an aircraft shall be at least A. 60 cm C. 22 inches B. 50 cm D. 50 inches

712 The height of registration marks on the aircraft fuselage shall be at least A. 60 cm C. 20 cm B. 50 cm D. 30 cm

713 The width of each letter of (except letter I) and the length of hyphens shall be A. two-third of the height of the letter C. three-eighth of the height of the letter B. three-fourth of the height of the letter D. one-half of the height of the letter

714 The thickness of the lines of letters of registration marking shall be A. one-eighth of the height of letter C. one-sixth of the height of letter B. one-eighth of the width of letter D. one-sixth of the width of letter

715 The separation between the letter of registration marking shall not be less than A. one-quarter of letters length C. one-third of letters length B. one-quarter of letters width D. one-third of letters width

716 The separation between the letters of registration marking shall not be less than A. one-quarter of letters height C. two-third of letters height 717 Weight and balance control of aircraft is dealt in A. IAR 58 C. IAR 49 718 Aircraft weight schedule shall include A. type of engine C. registration marking of aircraft B. type of aircraft D. Both b and c are correct B. IAR 56 D. None is correct B. one-third of letters height D. one-sixth of letters height

719 During weighing of aircraft the equipment installed are A. oil should be full C. all instruments should be installed 720 The aircraft shall be weighed in the presence of A. chief engineer C. representative of RAO B. QCM D. All are correct B. hydraulic fluid should be full D. all are correct

721 The weight schedule of an aircraft shall be retained A. for 10 years C. for 2 years B. for 5 years D. till it is replaced by a fresh schedule

722 The calculated C.G. position for 'take off & land before take off are computed for A. aerial work aircraft C. public transport aircraft B. private aricraft D. All are correct

723 The 'load sheets' of a schedule operator shall preserved for a period of A. one month from the date of issue C. one year from the date of issue 724 Mark the wrong statement A. During loading it must be ensured that the aircraft cabin floor loading limitation are not exceeded C. The load must be placed behind the passengers the cabin 725 The first aid kit container shall be A. of steel C. moisture and dust proof B. of aluminium alloy D. All are correct B. The load must be securely tight B. six months from the date of issue D. two years from the date of issue

D. The load tying ropes must be of sufficient strength to withstand the loads imposed on it in flight

726 The words 'FIRST AID KIT' on first aid kit box shall by at least A. 1 inch high C. 2 inches high B. 3/2 inches high D. 5/2 inches high

727 First aid kit whenever used shall be replenished and certified by a A. private medical practitioner C. any medical practitioner B. Govt. medical practitioner D. any medical practitioner holding M.B.B.S. degree

728 The drugs contained in the physician's kit are intended to be administered only by A. an air hostess C. Co-pilot B. PIC D. medical practitioner

729 All aircraft with passenger-carrying capacity of 50 shall be equipped with A. one first aid kit and one physician kit C. three first aid kits and one physician kit B. two first aid kits and one physician kit D. one first aid kit only

730 Physician's kit is must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of more than A. 150 C. 60 B. 100 D. 20

731 To check on the aircraft that the first aid kits are intact and properly sealed is the respnosibility of A. QCM C. AME B. Pilot in command D. M.B.B.S. doctor

732 The contents of the first aid kit of a public transport aircraft shall be examined by medical officer once in A. 6 months C. 18 months B. 12 months D. 24 months

733 The contents of the first aid kit of training aircraft shall be examined by medical oficer once in A. 6 months C. 18 months B. 12 months D. 24 months

734 the training of the crew members of public transport aircraft engaged in schedule and non-schedule services in application of first aid is undertaken by A. owner/operator C. DGCA B. RAO D. Director of Air Safety

735 Contents of the physician's kit shall be certified by A. Chief Medical Officer C. medical practitioner B. Medical Officer incharge D. medical practitioner with at least M.B.B.S. degree

736 Details of furnishing materials used in aircraft are contained in A. CAR series F part IV C. FAR part 25 B. CAR series X part IV D. Both b and c are correct

737 Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and havign AUW as 15000 kg or above shall be A. self-extinguishing C. flame resistant B. at least flame-resistant D. Both a and c are correct

738 Furnishing material used on private aircraft shall be A. self-extinguishing C. flame resistant B. at least flame-resistant D. None is correct

739 Resistant to fire (as given in appendix F to FAR 25 part II) aircraft seats shall be installed in all aircraft A. above 15,000 kg AUW C. above 3,000 kg AUW 740 Concession means A. a permission by the DGCA for free flight B. a permission by the DGCA to use a limited quantity or material not in conformity with that approved by manufacturer B. above 5,700 kg AUW D. above 2,000 kg AUW

C. a permission by the DGCA to rebuild an aircraft D. Both b and c are correct

741 Requrest from grant of 'concessions' for use of material, effecting major modification is submitted to A. DGCA C. DGCA and RAO 742 Concession form is submitted to the RAO in A. duplicate C. quadruplicate B. triplicate D. None is correct B. RAO D. DAW

743 Concession application for carrying out minor repairs to aircraft secondary structure is submitted to A. QCM C. RAO B. DGCA D. DAW

744 DGCA's prior approval is not required if a major repair is carried out strictly in conformity with the standard aeronautical practice spelt out in A. AC 43.13 manual, CAIP C. BCAR 43, CAA 43, JAR 21 B. Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures of CAA (UK) D. None is correct

745 An approved copy of concession form is preserved by the applicant for A. 10 years B. 2 years

C. 2 years after the aircraft is withdrawn form use D. as long as the log books are kept 746 Aircraft log books are made under the pursuance of A. IAR 67 C. IAR 57 B. IAR 68 D. None is correct

747 The number of different log books requirement for an aircraft as stated in CAR series X-part VI are A. three C. five 748 DGCA shall issue A. JLB C. Airframe log book B. Engine log book D. All are correct B. four D. six

749 Detailed record of replacements, major repair & overhaul of aircraft component or system is entered in the A. first section of the log book C. third section of the log book B. second section of the log book D. third section of the JLB

750 The third section of the airframe log book will contain A. routine inspection records C. replacement records 751 The first section of journey log book contains A. routine inspection records C. major repair records B. minor repair records D. None is correct B. modification records D. overhaul records

752 In accordance with CAR flight is recorded as A. chock to chock C. take-off to touch down may be adopted after obtaining approval from RAO B. take-off to touch down D. All are correct

753 When a component having its own log book is removed from aircraft, the reason for removal should be entered in A. the component relevant log book C. aircraft log book B. flight log book and aircraft log book D. Both a and c are correct

754 When an engine is changed, the hours flown, the serial members and part numbers as appropriate of 'lifed' parts, which are not changed with the engine should be entered in A. the relevant log book C. as in (b) and also in aircraft log book B. the log book of the replacement engine D. as in (c) and also in JLB

755 When a pilot carries out an inspection schedule of below 25 hours its entries will be made in the A. JLB and signed by the pilot C. relevant log book and signed by an appropriately licenced AME 756 Log books carried on board an aircraft are A. JLB C. working copies of airframe and engine log books B. JLB, flight log book, aircraft log book D. Both a and c are correct B. flight log book & JLB and signed by the pilot D. relevant log book and signed by the pilot

757 When an aircraft meets with an accident and is damaged beyond repair, then the A. aircraft log book is preserved for 2 years C. propeller log book is preserved for 2 years B. engine log book is preserved for 2 years D. All are correct

758 Log book other than aircraft, engine & propeller log book are preserved for A. two years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use C. ten years B. ten years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use D. ten years from the date of last entry

759 When aircraft engine log book is not kept in the manner and form as prescribed in aircraft rule 67 A. the C of A will cease to be valid C. the C or R will be cancelled B. the C of A will be cancelled D. the FRC will be cancelled

760 Valid documents are carried on board an India registered aircraft in accordance with A. CAR series X part VII C. CAR series X part VII IAR 57 B. CAR series X part VII IAR 7 D. CAR series X part VII IAR 67

761 'Group A' documents carried on board an India registered aircraft are/is A. C or R C. FRC B. C of A D. All are correct

762 'Group B' documents carried on board an India registered aircraft is/are A. FRC C. C or R B. Flight Manual D. All are correct

763 The documents as required in group A and group B shall be carried on board all aircraft A. at all times C. with AUW below 15,000 kg B. with AUW below 5700 kg D. None is correct

764 An aircraft which does not leave the vicinity of its starting place and returns without landing elsewhere to its starting place, needs to carry A. only documents, of group A C. documents of group A and group B B. only documents, of group B D. None is correct

765 Passenger safety information briefing card is carried on A. all aircraft of 15,000 kg AUW or above C. all passenger aircraft of 15,000 kg AUW or above B. all aircraft of 5,700 kg AUW or above D. all passenger aircraft of 5,700 kg AUW or above

766 Application for type approval has to be submitted in form A. as per annexure I of IAR 49A C. as per annexure I of CAR series F part I 767 Application for type approval is submitted to A. DGCA C. DGCA (atten : Director of Aeronatucial Inspection) 768 Application for type approval is submitted in A. duplicate C. quadruplicate 769 Applicant for type approval shall submit A. C of A C. a complete list of drawing B. C of R D. All are correct B. triplicate D. None is correct B. DGCA (via RAO) D. DGCA (Atten : Director of Airworthiness) B. as per annexure I of IAR 49 D. as per annexure I of CAR series X part IX

770 Along with the application for type approval the applicant should submit A. C of A no of the aircraft C. endurance (based on operational experience) B. nationality and registration marking of the aircraft D. All are correct

771 If at any time the DGCA feels that the safety of aircraft is jeopardised it can A. cancel or suspend a type certificate C. incorporate a modification in type certificate B. endorse a type certificate D. All of them are correct

772 For type certification of aircraft as per CAR series F part II annexure I A. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted : size (10x15) cm C. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted : size (10x15) cm B. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm. D. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm

773 For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit the following dimension to the DGCA A. length of fuselage C. a and b are correct B. length over all, height over all D. None is correct

774 For obtaining type certificate of a rotor craft the manufacturer has to submit the following dimension to the DGCA A. length of fuselage C. diameter of main rotor and tail rotor, main rotor blade chord 775 Aircraft rule 50 empowers the A. Govt. of India to issue/renew C of A C. DGCA to issue/revalidate C of A B. RAO to renew/revalidate c of A D. Both b and c are correct B. overall length D. All are correct

776 All aircraft registered in India must possess a current and valid C of A before it is flown is a requirement as per A. Aircraft rules 50 C. Aircraft rules 15 777 CAR series 'F' part III A. lays down the procedure for obtaining certificate of registration C. lays down the procedure of obtaining Indian certificate of airworthiness B. lays down the procedure for obtaining Indian certificate of registration D. lays down the procedure of obtaining certificate of airworthiness B. Aircraft rules 30 D. Aircraft rules 50 A

778 For issuing of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy that the aircraft/rotor craft manufactured/imported meets the approved airworthiness standards of A. BCAR 23 & JAR 25 C. FAR 27 & FAR 29 B. FAR 23 & FAR 25 D. All are correct

779 C of A aircraft which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as laid down by the DGCA A. cannot be issued/renewed B. the operator may consult the DGCA (DAW) before buying/importing such aircraft so that acceptance standards is conveyed to him D. none of them is correct

C. both a and b are correct

780 Application for obtaining C of A is to be submitted in form A. CA 23 (Appendix A ) C. CA 25 (Appendix A) B. CA 23A D. CA 25

781 For issuance of C of A the owner/operator shall supply free of cost A. original log books along with record of modification with a certificate from the Chief of Inspection that no modification/airworthiness directive/inspection is pending C. two sets of MMEL B. two sets of type certificate

D. all are correct

782 In case any deficiency is noticed during inspection by airworthiness officer for issuance of C of A A. the owner will be informed and he will be responsible for making up all the deficiencies pointed out B. C of A will not be issued

C. the owner may be asked to carry out any D. both a and c are correct modification/airworthiness directives which is considered essential for the safety of the aircraft 783 For issuance of C of A partially filld Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA A. to the manufacturer for completion C. to the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion 784 Validity of C of A is A. for one year C. restricted in case it is found necessary in the interest of safety of aircraft 785 C of A validity of imported aircraft is A. for one year B. for six months B. for six months D. Both a and b are correct B. to the owner/operator for completion D. All are correct

C. the validity period shall begin from the date of D. both a and c are correct issue of original export C of A 786 Validity of C of A A. is for one year C. shall begin from the date of issue of original export C of A 787 Short-term C of A is issued for A. un-airworthy aircraft C. aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking 788 The DGCA may refuse a C of A to an aircraft if A. he feels so C. reasonable apprehension exists regarding its airworthiness B. required data are not made available D. both b and c are correct B. aircraft imported from outside the country under Indian registration marking D. aircraft having service life of less than one year B. is restricted in case it is found necessary in the interest of safety of aircraft D. both a and c are correct

789 Documents which must accompany the application for the issue of C of A are/is A. form CA 83 C. documents as required vide AME notice no 2 of 1969 790 The three general categories of aircraft are A. normal, special, aerobatic C. aerial, private, agricultural B. passenger, mail, goods D. passenger, normal, special B. form CA 84 D. All of the above

791 Normal category aircraft are A. passenger, mail C. private, passenger B. goods, aerial D. All are correct

792 Aircraft certificated in normal category can be used A. in all sub-divisions C. in specific sub-division (s) certificated 793 Private aircraft means A. all aircraft other than aerial work aircraft or public transport aircraft C. shall not be used of any kind of remuneration B. shall not be used for hire or reward D. All are correct B. in special category D. None is correct

794 A state Govt. aircraft certificated in normal category sub-division shall be a A. passenger aircraft C. research aircraft 795 Research aircraft is a subdivision of A. normal category C. special category 796 Racing aircraft is a subdivision of A. normal category C. experimental category B. aerobatic category D. special category B. aerobatic category D. experimental category B. private aircraft D. racing aircraft

797 Aircraft certificated in normal category shall not be used in A. special category C. private category 798 Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category A. may be used in special category C. may be used for experimental work B. may be used in normal category D. may be used for racing B. aerobatic category D. All are correct

799 Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in normal category are between A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g D. 2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g

800 Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in aerobatic category are between A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g

801 Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the requirements of A. FAR 15 C. FAR AD (87-01-40) B. FAR 26 D. FAR 21

802 Class II & Class III aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by A. export C of A C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA B. airworthiness approval tag D. None of the above

803 Class I aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by A. export C of A C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA 804 Complete aircraft comes under A. class I aeronautical product C. class III aeronautical product B. class II aeronautical product D. class IV aeronautical product B. airworthiness approval tag D. None of the above

805 An aircraft which is being exported to India via flyway should A. display Indian nationality and registration marking C. have ferry flight authorisation B. display foreign nationality and registration marking D. Both a and b are correct

806 Displaying of nationality and registration marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported to India is the responsibility of A. exporter of the aircraft C. DGCA B. importer of the aircraft D. FAA

807 'Noise standards' acceptable in India for issuance of Indian C of A are A. same as required for issuance of US C of A C. same as required for issuance of CAA C of A B. same as required for issuance of UK C of A D. same as required in JAR 21

808 Class II & III aeronautical products imported in India must accompany A. airworthiness approval tag C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part P) B. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part R) D. compliance with FAR 20 (sub part L)

809 Engine/propellers imported in India must accompany A. export C of A C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part L) B. airworthiness approval tag D. both a and c are correct

810 Reconditioned/used/surplus parts must be certified as per A. FAR part 145 C. FAR part 43 811 Requirement for renewal of C of A is contained in A. CAR series 'F' part IV C. aircraft rule 5 812 Validity of C of A can be extended for A. 3% of flight hours C. no extension is granted B. 10% of calendar period D. both a and b are correct B. CAR series 'F' part III D. both b and c are correct B. FAR part 65 D. All are correct

813 Application of renewal of C of A should be made preferably A. 10 days in advance of expiry of C of A C. 7 days in advance of expiry of C of A B. 15 days in advance of expiry of C of A D. none is correct

814 In case of the C of A of the aircraft has expired then fcr renewal A. the quantum of work required has to be decided by oficer incharge RAO C. the quantum of work required has to be decided by manufacturer B. the quantum of work required has to be dcided by operator/QCM D. None of the above

815 For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAO A. All log books C. Procedure sheets cf past one year B. JLB D. All the above

816 For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAO A. C of A, C of R C. Both a and b are correct B. WT license D. None is correct

817 Renewal of certificate of airworthiness of Indian registered aircraft abroad A. cannot be carried out and should be avoided C. C of A will be renewed in the normal manner 818 C of A shall cease to be valid if A. approved inspection schedule is completed when due C. unapproved repairs/modifications are carried out B. 'lifted' components are replaced on expiry of stipulated lives D. All are correct B. can be carried out with full justification of such exigencies to the DGCA D. Both b and c are correct

819 If mandatory modifications are not carried out as and when called for A. the C of R will cease to be valid C. the WT license will cease to be valid B. the C of A will cease to be valid D. All are correct

820 Aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above are required to be maintained by A. individual AMEs C. approved organisation B. airlines D. All are correct

821 Aircraft with AUW below 5700 can be maintained by A. individual AMEs B. approved organisation

C. authorised personnel of approved organisation D. All are correct 822 Certificate of maintenance review in case of aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above is issued by A. DGCA C. QCM B. RAO D. All are correct

823 Certificate of maintenance review in case of aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and below is issued by A. individual AMEs C. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'D' to cover the type of engine involved B. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'B' to cover the type of aircraft involved D. Both b and c are correct

824 If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document after the expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A A. will start from the date of inspection C. will start from the date of submitting the application 825 Application for renewal of C of A is submitted on A. form CA 25 C. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part III 826 Suspended C of A will be revalidated A. only upto the date the previous currency of the C of A had remained valid, if it had not been suspended C. cannot be revalidated 827 Aircraft rules 55(1) A. provides for automatic suspension of C of A C. empowers the DGCA to cancel C of A B. empowers the DGCA to suspend C of A D. All are correct B. for another one year B. Appendix to form CA 25 D. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part IV B. will start from the expiry of last C of A D. All are correct

D. None is correct

828 DGCA can suspend or cancel the C of A of an aircraft under the purview of A. Aircraft rules 55 C. Aircraft rules 55 (2) 829 Suspension of C of A is dealt in A. CAR series F part II C. CAR series F part III B. CAR series F part IV D. CAR series F part V B. Aircraft rules 55 (1) D. Aircraft rules 55A

830 The certification of airworthiness of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended if A. it is modified or repaired otherwise then in accordance with approved procedure C. develops a major defect B. suffers major damage D. All are correct

831 Certification by AME 'R' for flight release of private aircraft may not be necessary if ground facilities are not available till A. inspection associated with next flight certfication C. align with any schedule within 50 hours 832 OAT gauge is a must A. on all aircraft intended for flying C. on aircraft fitted with engine with carburettor air temp. control but without carburettor air temperature gauge B. on aircraft undertaking night flying on VFR D. Both a and b are correct B. next 100 hrs schedule D. Any one of the above

833 A two-way communication system and navigation equipment are essential A. when an aircraft is flying under IFR B. when an aircraft is flying through controlled air space

C. suplemented with appropriate ground facilities D. comprehensively all above 834 CAR series L part I deals with A. issue of AME licences C. experience requirements for issue of AME licences 835 Aircraft rule 61 lays down the A. minimum qualification for issue of AME licence B. minimum experience for issue of AME licence C. Both a and b are correct 836 Light aircraft means an aircraft A. with AUW below 5700 kg C. with AUW below 30000 kg 837 Heavy aircraft means an aircraft A. with AUW of 5700 kg and above C. with AUW of 3000 kg and above B. with AUW of 15000 kg and above D. None is correct B. with AUW below 15000 kg D. None is correct D. None is correct B. classification of AME licences D. Comprehensively all above

838 Registration and airworthiness of Microlight aircraft is contained in A. CAR series F part XIV C. IAR 62 839 Microlight aircraft includes A. hang gliders C. light aircraft 840 Microlight aircraft means A. a single seater or two seater aircraft C. wing area not less than 10 sq meters 841 Maximum AUM of a microlight aircraft is A. 250 kg C. 350 kg 842 All airworthy mcrolight aircraft should possess a A. valid certificate of airworthiness C. valid permit to fly B. valid certificate of safety D. All the above B. 300 kg D. 450 kg B. a fixed wing aircraft D. all are correct B. powered hang gliders D. None is correct B. CAR series F part XV D. IAR 62 B

843 The registration markings assigned to the microlight aircraft shall be painted A. on the lower surface of the wings C. or on the upper half of the vertical fin B. also on each side of fuselage D. All are correct

844 A permanent placard should be affixed on the microlight aircraft in full view of the occupants stating that A. valid for day flying only C. the aircraft has not been certificated to international requirements 845 Permit to fly is valid for A. six months C. one year B. nine months D. two years B. the aircraft has not been certificated for cloud flying D. All the above are correct

846 In respect of microlight aircraft a pilot can carry out the pre flight and all inspections up to A. 5 hours C. 20 hours B. 10 hours D. 25 hours

847 Only appropriately licensed AME can perform any schedule higher than A. 10 hours in case of microlight aircraft C. 20 hours in case of microlight aircraft B. 15 hours in case of microlight aircraft D. 25 hours in case of microlight aircraft

848 All columns of microlight aircraft log book should be filled by A. an AME and signed by him C. QCM and signed by him B. an appropriately licensed AME D. the pilot and signed by him

849 A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the entire air space over the territory of A. Delhi C. Tamilnadu B. Jammu and Kashmir D. Punjab

850 A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the areas falling within A. 10 km from international border C. 25 km from international border 851 The restricted flying areas are notified by the A. DGCA in consultation with the Home Ministry C. Both a and b are correct B. Defence Ministry D. None of the above B. 20 km from international border D. 50 km from international border

852 Application for permit to fly for microlight aircraft is submitted on A. from CA 28 C. annex I to CAR series F part XIV B. appendix to CAR series F part II D. from CA 182

853 Requirement for manufacture registration and airworthiness control of hot air balloons is contained in A. IAR 62 C. CAR series F part XIV 854 Ballon means A. a power-driven lighter than aircraft C. a non power-driven heavier than aircraft B. a non power-driven lighter than aircraft D. a power-driven heavier than aircraft B. IAR 15 D. CAR series F part XV

855 Envelope means the enclosure A. in which the lifting medium is contained C. which is used to accommodate balloon occupants 856 'Basket' of balloon means A. the container suspended beneath the envelope B. the container suspended beneath the balloon C. basket used for the balloon occupants 857 A hot air balloon used for personal flying a pilot A. must have a permit to fly C. need not have a type certificate B. must have a type certificate D. Both a and b are correct D. Both a and c are correct B. in which balloon is contained D. which is used to cover the balloon

858 All manned free balloons are required to be registered as per A. CAR series F part XV C. CAR series X part I 859 The identification plate of balloon shows A. registration markings C. balloon's serial number 860 Flight release for a balloon has to be issued carry A. 24 hours C. 48 hours 861 A pilot can carry out inspection schedules up to A. 5 hours in case of balloons C. 15 hours in case of balloons B. 10 hours in case of balloons D. 25 hours in case of balloons B. 36 hours D. seven days B. constructor's name D. All the above B. CAR series X part XV D. CAR series F part I

862 Only an AME can carry out any inspection schedule higher than A. 10 hours in case of ballons C. 25 hours in case of ballons B. 15 hours in case of ballons D. 50 hours in case of ballons

863 Procedure/worksheet pertaining to balloon shall be preserved for at least A. two years after completion of work C. ten years after completion of work B. five years after completion of work D. None of the above is correct

864 Records/worksheet pertaining to 'lifed' components of balloons shall be preserved for A. one year C. five years 865 All-India registered balloon must carry on board A. certificate of registration C. cockpit and emergency check list in laminated form B. certificate of airworthiness D. All the above are correct B. two years D. ten years

866 The operating of the balloon flight will only be undertaken during A. day time under VFR condition C. pre noon session 867 In general a flight manual contains A. three sections C. five section B. four sections D. six sections B. past noon session D. between sunrise to sunset

868 Guidance for the preparation of flight manual is given in A. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part III section (9) chapter II C. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part 9 section III chapter II B. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II section (9) chapter III D. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II section III chapter 9

869 If an approved flight manual is not ammended up-to-date A. the C of A will be valid C. the C or R would cease to be valid B. the C of A would cease to be valid D. Both b and c are correct

870 All amendment incorporated in the flight manual of an imported aircraft shall be intimated to A. RAO C. DGCA B. sub-RAO D. Both a and b are correct

871 Which aircraft rule prohibits use of component items of equipments from being modified, repaired, replaced, inspected or overhauled except by an approved person of contracting state whose approval is recognised by the DGCA A. Rule 60 C. Rule 56 B. Rule 61 D. Rule 51

872 Normally no parts should be used from the parts pooled beyond A. 25 hours of operation C. 100 hours of operation B. 50 hours of operation D. 200 hours of operation

873 The quantity of unusable fuel in most cases is included in the appropriate A. flight manual C. cockpit check list 874 CAR series 'H' Part I deals with A. unusable fuel supply B. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of aircraft B. QCM D. emergency check list

C. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of helicopter D. All are correct 875 Light aircraft for which the unusable fuel data is not available the procedure recommended to determine, is A. with aircraft in level flight altitude drawn the fuel system from the lowest point in the supply line C. then additional at least 5 litres of fuel per main tank shall be added to arrive at the zero datum for the fuel quantity gauge B. thereafter measure the quantity of residual fuel in each tank D. All are correct

876 The fuel gauges shall be calibrated with zero datum at A. five litres C. zero litres 877 A fuel quantity gauge is calibrated A. at every C of A C. at the nearest major check 878 A properly calibrated dip stick is carried on board A. all aircraft C. all helicopters 879 Aircraft fuelling procedure is laid down in A. CAR series H part II C. IAR 25 A 880 Fuelling zone is regarded as the area extending A. 25 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point C. 10 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point B. 15 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point D. 06 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point B. CAR series H part I D. Both a and c are correct B. all light aircraft and helicopters D. all heavy aircraft B. at the time of installation D. All are correct B. ten litres D. unusable fuel

881 As a general guide the fuelling place should be at least A. 30 metres from the hangar C. 20 metres from the hangar 882 The aircraft shall not be fuelled within A. 30 metres of radar equipment in use C. 20 metres of radar equipment in use 883 The fuel quantity should be delivered in terms of A. density C. tonnes B. kg D. volume B. 25 metres of radar equipment in use D. 15 metres of radar equipment in use B. 25 metres from the hangar D. 15 metres from the hangar

884 Exhaust of the refuelling vehicle shall not pass over the A. fuelling hose C. both a and b is correct B. intake hose D. none is correct

885 Whenever wing fuelling is employed the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded A. to the fuelling equipment C. to the aircraft structure before filler capt is removed B. to the fuelling equipment before filler capt is removed D. None is correct

886 Fuelling operation shall cease when a turbo prop jet aircraft manoeuvres so as to bring the rear jet outlets within A. 50 metres of the aircraft C. 30 m,etres of the aircraft B. 43 metres of the fuelling equipment D. 33 metres of the aircraft fuelling equipment

887 Vehicles moving in the danger zone shall be fitted with A. spark arrestors C. fire extinguishers B. flame traps D. both a and b are correct

888 No photographic flash bulbs and electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used within A. 5 metres of fuelling equipment C. 15 metres of fuelling equipment B. 6 metres of fuelling equipment D. 30 metres of fuelling equipment

889 Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of less than 20 shall A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board D. None of them correct

890 Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of less than 20 shall A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board D. None of them correct

891 In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation covering an area greater than 5 square metres, then all persons shall be evacuated from the effected area to a place at least A. 6 metres from the spillage C. 30 metres from the spillage B. 15 metres from the spillage D. 43 metres from the spillage

892 Aircraft instruments shall be overhauled and inspected in accordance with the requirement of A. CAR series I part I C. CAR series I part III B. CAR series I part II D. All the above are correct

893 Instruments shall be inspected prior to installation to insure that A. the instruments are approved for the type of aircraft B. the range of the dial marking is adequate to reflect correct operation of the aircraft power plant or equipment and to precisely indicate the appropriate operating limitation D. All are correct

C. the range of any coloured sector marked on instrument dials corresponds with the ranges specified in the aircraft flight manual or aircraft/engine manufacturer manual as applicable

894 Aircraft magnetic compasses shall be calibrated and compensated A. at the time of initial installation of a compass C. after installation of a new electrical system B. as specified in operator's MS manual D. All are correct

895 Flame resistant material as per CAR Series X part IV A. is not susceptible to combustion to the point of propagating a flame after ignition source is removed C. which will not catch fire at all B. susceptible to combustion or to the point of smouldering D. which will not ignite fire to any material

896 The test flight is not necessary for an engine change in an aircraft A. having 4 engines C. having single engine B. having 2 engines D. only C above is wrong

897 On a two-engine aircraft, a test flight after an engine change is A. mandatory C. mandatory for aircraft above 5700 kg AUW B. not mandatory D. mandatory for aircraft above 15,000 kg AUW

898 A fire-proof metal plate is affixed on the aircraft to indicate A. C of A number and its date of issue C. name and address of registered owner, registration mark B. name of manufacturer and date of manufacturer D. smoking is permitted

899 Regarding the log books, mark the correct statement: A. In engine log book repairs are entered in section III C. Log book entry must be made within 24 hours B. In propeller log book, major repairs are entered in section-2 D. Component log book must be preserved for six months after permanent withdrawal of component

900 Aircraft having AUW less than 15000 kg should have seats upholstery, harness, belts etc. are made of A. self-extinguishing materials C. no smoking type materials 901 Validity or C of A in case of imported aircraft shall A. be six months C. begin from the date of issue of Indian C of A B. be one year D. begin from the date of issue of original export of C of A and will normally be for a period of one year B. flame resistance materials D. flame proof materials

902 Validity of C of A would remain continuous A. if the inspection is carried out more than one month in advance of the expiry date B. if the inspection is carried out not more than 15 days in advance of the expiry date

C. if the inspection is carried out not more than 7 D. if the inspection is carried out not more than 30 days in advance of the expiry date days in advance of the expiry date 903 If an aircraft makes a series of take-offs on the same day, the pre-flight inspection may be carried out A. before each take-off C. once before the first flight of the day B. after every three take-offs D. None is correct

904 Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India for air taxi operations/charter hire for public transport shall not A. be more than 15 years in age C. be more than 12 years in age B. be more than 10 years in age D. None is correct

905 Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air-taxi operations/charter hire for public transport shall not A. have completed 50,000 pressurization cycles C. have completed 30,000 pressurization cycles B. have completed 45,000 pressurization cycles D. have completed 40,000 pressurization cycles

906 DGCA would not allow any aircraft to be imported for operation if it is more than A. 50 years old C. 20 years old B. 25 years old D. 15 years old

907 Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public transport shall not be A. more than 20 years in age C. more than 10 years in age B. more than 15 years in age D. None is correct

908 Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public transport shall not have A. completed 50,000 pressurization cycles C. completed 40,000 pressurization cycles B. completed 45,000 pressurization cycles D. completed 30,000 pressurization cycles

909 For the import of tools/equipments required for maintenance/testing etc. of imported aircraft the importer A. should contact FAA C. should contact DGCA B. should contact CAA D. should obtain No Objection Certificate from DGCA

910 For the export of aircraft spares/items of equipment to be overhauled abroad in certain exigencies the operator shall A. obtain a No Objection Certificate from DGCA B. contact the aircraft manufacturer

C. contact the airworthiness authority of place of D. Both b and c are correct manufacturer 911 Fuel in delivery hoses should be recirculated if no fuel has been dispensed from on in relation for a period of A. 7 days C. 2 days 912 All refuelling tanks shall be cleaned A. once in two years C. once in six months B. once a year D. every month B. 3 days D. 24 hours

913 All-lined tank should be inspected for lining defects and internally inspected for cleanliness A. every five years C. every two years B. every three years D. every year

914 Fuelling vehicles should be purged of water and sediments A. once in three days C. every day B. once in two days D. every week

915 Hose and protection filters of 100 mesh gauze should be inspected A. every day C. every fortnight B. every week D. every month

916 Water sampling extraction pits should be checked for water A. daily C. monthly B. weekly D. yearly

917 Barrelled AVGAS is fit for use in aircraft if it is stored for a period less than A. 12 months C. 6 months B. 9 months D. 3 months

918 Barelled ATF is fit for use in aircraft if it is stored for a period of less than A. 12 months C. 6 months B. 9 months D. 3 months

919 AVGAS should be dispensed direct into aircraft tanks only through A. 100 mesh gauze C. 180 mesh gauze B. 150 mesh gauze D. 200 mesh gauze

920 Fuel is assessed as unsatisfactory for use in aircraft if a sample shows A. Globules of water C. more than a trace of sediment B. Cloudiness D. All are correct

921 Fuel taken out of fuel bulk storage and aircraft fuelling vehicle for checking the state of fuel should be at least A. 5 gallons C. 0.75 to 1 gallon B. 3.5 to 4.5 gallons D. None is correct

922 Master gauges for checking fuel samples shall be calibrated once in A. 10 years C. 2 years 923 Primary Indicator colour for AVGAS pipeline is A. Red C. Violet 924 Primary Indicator colour for Jet A-1 pipeline is A. Red C. Violet B. Black D. Yellow B. Black D. Yellow B. 5 years D. once a year

925 Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for microbiological growth A. once in two years C. once in a year 926 Aviation delivery hoses shall confirm to A. I.S./BS/API Specifications C. IS/DAW/BS Specifications B. IS/BS/DGCA Specifications D. IS/BS/DAW Specifications B. once in 18 months D. once in 6 months

927 Deliveries of AVGAS from the vehicles should be made through a micrfilter with a nominal rating of A. 20 microns C. 10 microns B. 15 microns D. 5 microns

928 Vehicles delivering aviation turbine fuels should be fitted with a microfilter or a filter separator monitor with a nominal rating of A. 20 microns C. 10 microns 929 A hand glider if unpowered weighs less than A. 300 kgs (AUW) C. 200 kgs (AUW) B. 250 kgs (AUW) D. 150 kgs (AUW) B. 15 microns D. 5 microns

930 A single-seater powered hang glider weighs less than A. 375 kgs (AUW) C. 275 Kgs (AUW) B. 300 kgs (AUW) D. 150 Kgs (AUW)

931 A double seater powered hang glider weighs less than A. 375 Kgs (AUW) C. 275 Kgs (AUW) B. 300 Kgs (AUW) D. 150 Kgs (AUW)

932 A powered hang glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of more than A. 100 knots calibrated air speed C. 80 knots calibrated air speed B. 90 knots calibrated air speed D. 70 knots calibrated air speed

933 Hang glider shall have a power-off stall speed not exceeding A. 50 knots calibrated air speed C. 30 knots calibrated air speed 934 All hang gliders before flight must possess a A. Valid c of A C. Both a and b are correct 935 All hang gliders must possess A. Valid C of A C. C or R B. permit to fly D. Both b and c are correct B. permit to fly D. None is correct B. 40 knots calibrated air speed D. 25 knots calibrated air speed

936 Validity of permit to fly for hang glider is A. one year C. three months B. six months D. None is correct

937 Higher than 50 hours inspection schedules and overhaul of powered hang glider engine and its components shall be carried out by A. pilots C. persons authorized by the DGCA B. AMES D. None is correct

938 Pre-flight inspection and inspection schedule upto 50 hours on powered hang glider is carried out by A. pilot incharge C. person authorized by the DGCA B. AME D. None is correct

939 Hang glider must be equipped with A. Altimeter, ASI, rpm gauge C. Altimeter, ASI & ELT B. Altimeter, ASI, rpm gauge, ELT D. ASI & ELT

940 The examiner/instructor for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have A. 50 hrs of hang glider C. 10 hrs of hang glider B. 25 hrs of hang glider D. 25 hrs of hang glider and at least 10 hours on dual machine

941 Reweighing of Aircraft of AUW more than 2999 kg shall be done A. every 5 years C. every 2 years 942 The first aid kit container shall be of A. white background with red cross C. green background with white cross B. red background with white cross D. white background with green cross B. every 3 years D. every year

943 Standard weight for CREW for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. 85 kgs C. 70 kgs B. 75 kgs D. 65 kgs

944 Standard weight for PASSENGER for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. 85 kgs C. 70 kgs B. 75 kgs D. 65 kgs

945 Standard weight for CHILDREN for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. 50 kgs C. 35 kgs B. 40 kgs D. 30 kgs

946 Standard weight for INFANTS for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. 30 kgs C. 15 kgs B. 20 kgs D. 10 kgs

947 The second copy of load and trip sheet shall be kept by the operator for a period of A. 5 years C. 1 years B. 2 years D. 6 months

948 Electromagnetic Interference whether conducted or radiated can be categorized by A. band width C. waveform and occurrence B. amplitude behaviour D. All are correct

949 The occurrence of electromagnetic interference can be categorized as A. periodic & random C. periodic & instant 950 Global Positioning Systems (GPS) act as A. navigation equipment C. communication equipment B. an aid to navigation D. radar system B. periodic & aperiodic D. Both a and b are correct

951 An AME trainee clears paper I, II, III on HS 748 aircraft of AME's licence examination. The operator will consider him for grant of approval only after A. he clears the BAMEC in category 'PA' B. he has successfully completed a specific training subsequent to obtaining of the BAMEC from the DGCA and adjugded fit for approval

C. he has proved himself fit for approval before a D. None is correct board chaired by QCM 952 In the event of an aircraft involved in an accident required to be notified under aircraft rules 68 of the aircraft rule 1937 A. pilot in command of the effected aircraft can always exercise the privilege of his pilot's licence as long as it is valid B. co-pilot can always exercise the privilege of his licence if he is permitted by the aircraft operator

C. pilot in command and co-pilot can exercise the D. None is correct privilege of their licence only after obtaining special authorisation from the DGCA 953 Aircraft should be flight tested A. at the time of C of A B. subsequent to maintenance repair or modification which effects operational or flight characteristic of the aircraft D. All are correct

C. on three engine aircraft, if two engines are changed a test flight shall be carried out 954 Glider is a A. aircraft C. aerodyne

B. airship D. All are correct

955 According to IAR 1937 aerial work Aircraft means an aircraft used for A. an industrial or commercial purpose or any other remunerative purpose C. as in (a) also used for public transport 956 'Aerodrome' means any difinite or limited A. ground or water are intended to be used either wholly or in part for the landing or departing of aircraft C. as in (b) and also includes vessels, piers and other structures B. as in (a) and includes all buildings & sheds B. as in (a) is not used for public transport D. All are correct

D. None is correct

957 An aircraft whose support in flight is derived dynamically from the reaction on surfaces in motion relative to the air is called A. aerodyne C. gyroplane B. aeroplane D. aerostat

958 An aricraft supported in the air statically and includes all airships and balloons is termed as A. aerodyne C. gyrostat B. aerostat D. None of them

959 Any machines which can derive support in the atmosphere from reaction of the air other than reactions of the air against the earth surface is called A. aeroplane C. aerostat B. aircraft D. aerodyne

960 A power driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight is termed as A. aerodyne C. aeroplane 961 A powe driven lighter-than-aircraft is a A. airship C. aerostat B. flying machines D. All are correct B. aerostat D. aircraft

962 An aeroplane capable of taking off from and alighting on either land or a soled platform or water is called a A. seaplane C. hydroplane 963 Kite is an A. aerodyne C. Both a and b are correct 964 Balloon is A. aerostat C. kite B. aerodyne D. All are correct B. aircraft D. aerostat B. gyroplane D. amphibian

965 'Contracting state' means any state which is for the time being a party to A. a convention on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on December 7, 1944 C. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded at New York on December 7 1944 966 Convention means A. the convention relating to ICAO C. the convention relating to air traffic 967 'Dangerous goods' means A. explosive B. non-explosive B. the convention relating to air safety D. the convention relating to International air safety B. a suit on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on December 7 1944 D. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded at Delhi on December 7, 1944

C. any good which is likely to endanger the safety D. All are correct of aircraft or person or thing on board the aircraft 968 Flying machine/s may be A. helicopter C. gyroplane B. aeroplane D. All are correct

969 State aircraft includes A. military aircraft C. Central Government aircraft B. State Government aircraft D. All are correct

970 Arms and ammunitions can be carried by air only with the special permission of A. director of Civil Aviation Security C. DGCA B. commissioner of Airport Security D. All are correct

971 No alcoholic drink shall be consumed by the operating crew members A. 6 hours before the commencement of the flight C. 10 hours before the commencement of the flight B. 8 hours before the commencement of the flight D. 12 hours before the commencement of the flight

972 No animals/reptiles shall be carried by air without permission from A. a doctor, authorised for it C. DGCA under rule 34-A 973 Minimum age for solo control of aeroplane is A. 16 years C. 18 years 974 Minimum age for solo control of glider is A. 16 years C. 18 years 975 Minimum age of issue of CPL is A. 16 years C. 18 years B. 17 years D. 21 years B. 17 years D. 21 years B. 17 years D. 21 years B. NAA D. DGCA under rule 24-C

976 No paper containing printed matter shall be dropped from aircraft unless written permission of A. District Magistrate is obtained C. Director Air Safety is obtained B. Commissioner of Police is obtained D. Both a and b are correct

977 For aircraft having a seating capacity of not less than 10 and not more than 50 passengers the number of cabin attendents required are A. one C. three B. two D. four

978 contracting state as per aircraft rules means any state A. that has signed a bilateral agreement with a nother state C. which is for the time being a party to convention of the ICAO 979 Aircraft rule 62 deals with A. fee payable for all licence exams of DGCA B. fee payable for AME licence exams of DGCA B. contracted for any particular condition for carriage of passengers D. which is for the time being a party to ICAO

C. fee payable for renewaql of AME licence exam D. Both b and c are correct

980 Aircraft 69 refers to A. notification of accidents B. report on accidents

C. removed and preservation of damaged aricraft D. Both a and b are correct 981 When an accident occurs it has to be notified by the PIC/operator/owner to the A. DGCA C. DM & officer-in-charge of the nearest police station B. District Magistrate D. as in (c) and (a)

982 Information of accident to DGCA shall be made within A. an hour of occurrence C. 24 hours of occurrence 983 Initial accident information to DGCA shall contain A. nationality and registration marks of the aircraft C. cause of accident B. the region in which the aircraft is based D. all are correct B. 12 hours of occurrence D. 48 hours of occurrence

984 Passenger and crew's personal luggage shall be removed from a wrecked aircraft under the supervision of A. a magistrate C. an officer of CAD B. an officer of police department D. All are correct

985 Mails from a wrecked aircraft shall be removed under the supervision of A. a magistrate C. an officer of post and telegraph department 986 Investigation of accident is carried out in A. one way C. three ways 987 Slaughtering of animal is prohibited within A. 5 km of aeroplane reference point C. a radius of 10 km of aerodrome reference point 988 Period of validity of aerodrome licence is A. one year C. five years 989 Route guide contains A. communication facilities, navigation aids available on the route to be flown C. instruments let down procedure for aerodrome on route B. meterological minima for each of the aerodromes to be flown D. as in a.b.c and specific instruments for computation of the quantities of fuel and oil to be carrie don board B. two years D. ten years B. a radius of 8 km of aerodrome D. a radius of 5 km of aerodrome reference point B. two ways D. None is correct B. an officer of CAD D. All are correct

990 An applicant for Assistant Flight Instructor rating shall be of atleast A. 19 years C. 21 years B. 20 years D. 25 years

991 Air traffic control service means a service provided for purpose of A. signalling aircraft C. manoeuvring and obstruction 992 Cruising level means level maintained during A. descent C. straight and level flight 993 Area over which flight by aircraft is prohibited, is A. the area included within in a radius of 1 km from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay C. the area included within in a radius of 1 mile from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay B. the area included within in a radius of 2 km from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay D. the area included within in a radius of 2 mile from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay B. ascent D. significant portion of a flight B. preventing collisions between aircraft D. All are correct

994 Student for issuance of student pilot licence shall pass A. a written examination in air regulation aircraft B. a written examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology and engine aviation meteorology air navigation C. an oral examination in air regualtion aircraft and engine aviation meteorology D. an oral examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology and air navigation

995 An applicant for issuance of private pilot licence shall produce evidence of having flown A. 15 hours solo C. 25 hours solo B. 20 hours solo D. 30 hours solo

996 Cross country flight for issuance of PPL licence may be a flight to a point beyond A. 10 nm from the aerodrome of departure C. 30 nm from the aerodrome of departure B. 20 nm from the aerodrome of departure D. 40 nm from the aerodrome of departure

997 An applicant for issuance of private pilot must have at least A. one full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure C. three full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure 998 The validity of PPL is A. 12 months from the date of issue C. 12 months from the date of issue for person below 38 years of age B. 24 months from the date of issue D. 12 months from the date of issue for person above 38 years of age B. two full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure D. four full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure

999 Night rating is valid only when the licence holder has carried out 5 take-off and 5 landing by night as pilot in command within the A. preceding 3 months C. preceding 9 months B. preceding 6 months D. preceding 12 months

1000 When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so that there is a danger of collision A. each shall alter its heading to the right C. one shall dive and other shall climb B. each shall alter its heading to the left D. all are correct

1001 an overtaking aircraft is a aircraft that approaches another from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than A. 60 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter C. 80 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter B. 70 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter D. 90 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter

1002 When two or more heavier than aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing A. aircraft at higher altitude shall land first C. aircraft at higher altitude shall give way to aircraft at the lower altitude B. aircraft at lower altitude shall land first D. aircraft at lower altitude shall give way to aircraft at the higher altitude

1003 Aerobatic in aircraft shall be carried out at a height of at least A. 500 m above the ground C. 1000 m above the ground B. 600 m above the ground D. 2000 m above the ground

1004 VFR flight within a control zone shall not be conducted if the ground visibility is less than A. 3 kms C. 8 kms B. 5 kms D. 10 kms

1005 VFR flight within a control zone shall not be conducted if the ceiling is less than A. 200 m C. 500 m B. 300 m D. 1000 m

1006 Which of the signal means that grave and imminent danger threatens and immediate assistance is requested A. a parachute flare showing red light C. rocket or shells throwing red light B. a signal sent by radio telegraphy saying "MAYDAY" D. All are correct

1007 The two flag signals corresponding to the letter NC of the international code of signal means A. urgency signal C. distress signal 1008 Which of the following is an urgency signal? A. Repeated switching on and off of the landing light C. a succession of white pyrotechnical light B. Repeated switching on and off of the navigation light D. all are correct B. assistance signal D. All are correct

1009 A signal said by a radio telegraphy consisting of spoken work "SECURITE" means A. urgency signal C. safety signal B. distress signal D. All are correct

1010 A series of green flashes from aerodrome traffic control means A. clear to land C. return for landing B. clear for take off D. All are correct

1011 A steady red light directed towards the aircraft in flight means A. aerodrome unsafe do not land C. give way to other aircraft and continue circulating B. do not land for the time being D. None is correct

1012 A series of white flashes directed towards an aircraft in flight means A. return for landing C. clear to take B. return to starting point on the aerodrom D. All are corret

1013 Red pyrotechnical light directed towards an aircraft flight means A. stop approach B. aerodrome unsafe do not land

C. not with-standing any previous instructions do D. All are correct not land for time being 1014 A steady green light direted towards an aircraft on the ground means A. cleared for taxi C. cleared for take off B. taxi clear of landing area in use D. return to dispersal

1015 A series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft on the ground means A. return to starting point on the aerodrome C. taxi clear of landing area in use B. aerodrome unsafe do not land D. returned for landing

1016 A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals indicate that A. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited C. special precaution must be observed in approaching to land B. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited and the prohibition is liable to be prolonged D. special precaution must be observed in landing

1017 Horizontal dumbel indicates that the aircraft are required to A. land on runway C. taxi on tzxiway only B. land, take off on runway D. All are correct

1018 A horizontal white dumbel with black bar perpendicular to the shaft across each portion of the dumbel indicates that aircraft are required A. to land & take off on runway only C. taxi on taxi ways only B. other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways D. Both a and b are correct

1019 Crosses of white colour displayed horizontally on the manoeuvring area indicates that area is A. fit for landing C. unfit for movement of aircraft B. fit for movement of aircraft D. None is correct

1020 A black ball displayed on a mast and clearly visible to the aircraft on the manoeuvring area indicates that A. the direction of take off is to be decided by PIC B. the direction of take off is to be verified with the aerodrome control tower C. the aircraft can take off from any direction D. None is correct

1021 The letter 'C' displayed vertically in black against yellow background indicates A. the place at which weather information are available C. the place at which catering facility is available B. the place at which report concerning air traffic services are made D. None is correct

1022 Whoever wilfully flies any aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or to any property on land or water or in air shall be punishable with imprisonment up to A. 3 months C. 9 months B. 6 months D. 12 months

1023 A signal man repeatedly crosses arms above his head indicate A. a straight ahead signal C. power cut signal B. a stop signal D. All are correct

1024 Left arm downward, right arm repeatedly moved upward and backward is a signal for A. turn to y9our left C. start right engine B. turn to your right D. start left engine

1025 Arms down palm facing in-wards swing arms from extended position inwards in a signal for A. chocks away C. start moving B. insert chocks D. cut power

1026 Circular motion of right hand at head level with left arm pointing to the engine is a signal to A. start engine C. rate of turning B. start turning D. slow turning

1027 Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm downward is signal for A. slow down C. start engine B. cut motor D. None is correct

1028 Arms down with palm towards ground then moved up and down several times is a signal for A. slow down C. expedite taxi B. speed up D. None is correct

1029 Arms down palms facing outwards swing arms outwards is a signal for A. slow down C. chocks away B. cut motors D. insert chocks

1030 Arms down with palms towards grounds, then either right or left hand waved up and down indicating that A. slow down motor on left side C. slow down motor on indicated side B. slow down motor on right side D. None is correct

1031 Arms above head in vertical position with palms facing inwards is a signal for A. all clear C. straight back B. this bay D. slow down

1032 Arms above head in vertical position palms facing forward brought down quickly to horizontal forward position repeating is a signal for A. straight ahead C. this bay B. straight back D. all clear

1033 For tail to star board point left arm down and right arm brought from overhead vertical position to horizontal forward position repeating right arm movement A. turn while backing C. this bay B. straight back D. all clear

1034 Arms extended horizontally sideways is a signal for hovering helicopter to A. keep hovering C. move downwards B. move upward D. None is correct

1035 Arms extended horizontally to the beckoning upwards with palms turned up is a signal for hovering helicopter to A. move side ways C. move up wards B. move down wards D. None is correct

1036 Appropriate arm extended horizontally sideways in direction of movement and other arm swing in front of body in same direction, in a repating movement is a signal for hovering helicopters to A. move horizontally C. move upwards B. move partially D. move downwards

1037 Arms crossed and extended downwards in front of the body is a signal for hovering helicopter to A. land C. move downwards B. move horizontally D. move upwards

1038 No pilot of a flying machine shall in his capacity as such pilot, fly for more than A. 100 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days B. 125 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days

C. 150 hours during any period of 30 consecutive D. 75 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days days 1039 Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for a period of not less than A. 2 years for the date of last entry C. 4 years for the date of last entry B. 3 years for the date of last entry D. 5 years for the date of last entry

1040 An open rating is given for all conventional types of aeroplanes having an AUW A. not exceeding 450 kg C. not exceeding 1000 kg B. not exceeding 500 kg D. not exceeding 1500 kg

1041 A pilot opting for open rating shall have not less than A. 150 hours of flight time as PIC C. 250 hours of flight time as PIC B. 200 hours of flight time as PIC D. 500 hours of flight time as PIC

1042 For night rating a pilot must have at least A. 20 hours of night flight as PIC C. 100 hours of night flight as PIC B. 50 hours of night flight as PIC D. 150 hours of night flight as PIC

1043 The projection on the earth surface of the path of an aircraft the direction of which at any point is usually expressed in degrees from true north is called A. true heading C. track B. magnetic heading D. None is correct

1044 A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group XXX means A. distress signal C. safety signal B. urgency signal D. None is correct

1045 A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group 'TTT' means A. PAN PAN signal C. May-day signal B. urgency signal D. safety signal

1046 The period of validity of a CPL for a person over 40 years but below 45 years is A. 24 months C. 12 months B. 18 months D. 6 months

1047 A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross country flying test by night which shall consist of a flight on stipulated route of not less than A. 60 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere C. 120 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere B. 100 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere D. None is correct

1048 A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross country flying test by day and shall consist of a flight on a stipulated route of not less than A. 150nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome C. 250 nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome B. 200 nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome D. All are correct

1049 Aircraft certified in experimental or amateur category are those which are built for A. Development or Research C. Education B. Sports D. all are correct

1050 Experimental or amateur built aircraft can be flown only by persons having at least A. ATPL C. CPL B. SCPL D. PPL

1051 DGCA inspection carried out in case of amateur built aircraft are A. Pre-cover inspection C. Precover and Final Inspection B. Final Airworthiness Inspection D. None is correct

1052 Maintenance of amateur built aircraft can be carried out by A. any AME C. any approved person 1053 It is mandatory for amateur built aircraft that A. 50 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME B. 100 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME B. by any person acceptable to DGCA D. All are correct

C. 200 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out D. 100 Hrs/C of A renewal to be carried out by AME by AME 1054 'Permit to Fly' of an aircraft is valid A. for 3 months C. for 12 months B. for 6 months D. Until C of A is issued

1055 Initially the life of amateur built aircraft is restricted to A. 10 years C. 2 years B. 5 years D. 1 year

1056 Experimental built aircraft will initially be limited to operation within an assigned flight test area for at least A. 50 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination C. 10 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination B. 25 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination D. 5 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination

1057 Amateur built aircraft will initially be limited to operation within an assigned flight test area for at least A. 50 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination C. 30 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination B. 40 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination D. 20 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination

1058 The acceptable standard of Quality Assurance for aircraft manufactured in India is A. ISO 9000 C. ISO 8000 B. ISO 9001 D. ISO 2000

1059 Global positioning system at present is accepted as A. an aid to navigation C. a replacement to GNS B. sole means of navigation D. none is correct

1060 Barreled AV Gas should be stored under cover, clear off the ground on their sides with the bungs A. in the 3'O clock position C. in the 7'O clock position 1061 Fuel samples should be checked for A. traces of sediments C. Cloudiness B. Globules of water D. All are correct B. in the 5'O clock position D. in 3 or 9'O clock position

1062 The upper sample of fuel is taken from a depth upto A. 1/10th of the depth of the product below the top surface C. 1/6th of the depth of the product below the top surface B. 1/8th of the depth of the product below the top surface D. 1/4th of the depth of the product below the top surface

1063 Fuel sampling shall be carried out preferrably before A. 10 am C. 6 am B. 8 am D. 5 am

1064 pressure Gauges, Thermometers, Hydrometers used for inspection of fuel should be calibrated every A. 3 months C. 12 months B. 6 months D. 2 years

1065 A clean room as per CAR series I part IV should always A. be slightly pressurised C. be at prevailing outside atmospheric pressure B. be slightly below the normal pressure D. be at sea level pressure

1066 A clean room as per CAR series I Part IV in general should have a humidity level of not less than A. 10% C. 30% 1067 Certificate of First Aid Kit should be signed by A. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree C. Any Registered Medical Practitioner B. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree and it should also be endorsed by an AME D. a and c are correct B. 20% D. 40%

1068 Production Test Flight of 'Series' type of aircraft can be carried out by A. a person holding at least CPL on that type of aircraft C. a person specifically endorsed for Test Flight B. a person holding at least ATPL on that type of aircraft D. a person holding at least CPL and approved by DGCA to carry out production Test Flight