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BANK EXAM PAPERS CENSUS COMMITTEE/COMMISSIONS CURRENT ECONOMY ECONOMIC GLOSSARY GOVT.

SCHEMES PROGRAMMES OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS SOCIO ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENTS TAX


WEDNESDAY, JUNE 22, 2011

INDIAN ECONOMY QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following is not manufacturing mobile telephone handsets? a. Samsung b. Nokia c. Videocon d. Sony Ans : C 2. Which is the largest tea producing country in the world? a. Kenya b. Indonesia c. China d. India Ans : D 3. Recession in the market implies a. Slump in trade & industry due to fall in demand b. Increase in trade industry due to rise in demand c. No change in trade and industry due to stability in demand d. None of these Ans : A 4. Bottle neck inflation means a. No rise in prices despite increase in aggregate demand b. Rise in prices without increase in the aggregate demand c. Decline in prices due to increase in aggregate demand d. None of these Ans : B 5. Nandan Nilekani is associated with which company?

a. Satyam Computers b. Wipro c. Infosys d. Polaris Ans : C 6. Which is South Koreas largest car manufacturing company? a. Hyundai b. Honda c. Suzuki d. Toyota Ans : A 7. Ashok Leyland is owned by the a. Tatas b. Birlas c. Hindujas d. None of these Ans : C 8. NABARD stands for a. National Bank of Agriculture and Regional Development b. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development c. National Bureau of Aeronautical Research and Development d. None of these Ans : B 9. The part of profit or other surpluses of a company distributed proportionately among shareholders is called a. Preference Share b. Equity Share c. Face Value d. None of these Ans : B 10. Which brand/company uses the ad line We know India better? a. Max New York Life Insurance b. LIC of India c. Amul d. Bajaj Ans : B 11. Zero Coupon Bonds are that variety of loans a. which fail to yield an income for the creditors b. which are issued at a discount and redeemed at par c. on which the entire interest income is paid at the time of purchase d. the market price of which may fall suddenly and heavily Ans : B 12. The term Third World refers to Economically developing nations 13. ADB was setup in the year 1966 14. National Stock Exchange (NSE) was established in the year 1992 15. SEBI was established in the year 1988 16. Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) was setup in the year 1978 17. GIC was setup in the year 1973 18. LIC was established in the year 1956

19. HDFC was established in the year 1977 20. HUDCO was setup in the year 1970 21. NABARD was established in the year 1982 22. SIDBI was setup in the year 1990 23. IDBI was setup in the year 1964 24. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established in the year 1948 25. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) was established in the year 1955 26. Reserve Bank of India was established in the year 1935 27. The oldest oil refinery in India is located in Digboi (Assam) 28. Command Area Development Program was launched to Ensure better utilization of irrigation potential 29. Which two iron and steel plants have been setup in collaboration with the former Soviet Union Bokaro and Bhilai 30. Which city is known as the silicon valley of India Bangalore
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Committee on Natural Resources Allocation called for Creation of National Coal Market
A committee on natural resources allocation on 6 June 2011 called for the creation of a national coal market to ensure greater transparency in the allocation of the dry fuel and reduce the demand-supply mismatch. The committee pointed out the drawbacks of the existing allocation mechanism for the dry fuel. The committee headed by former Finance Secretary Ashok Chawla recommended establishing a national coal market by creating a platform for commercial trading of coal by suppliers and buyers. The committee suggested use of experience gained through the e-auction platform to create a common one for all buyers and suppliers, including the captive allotees that are permitted to sell. The committee highlighted that introduction of both captive mining and e-auctions were right steps taken in the direction of moving toward market-based allocation, the committee. The committee is of the opinion that it should be mandatory for all sales in coal by the permitted entities to be registered with the platform and pay a standard fee, with details of price and mature of contract and grade of coal transacted. The formation of a platform like the national coal market will facilitate a gradual evolution of established prices and terms of contract. The platform would ensure lower prices of the fossil fuel, since competition from imported coal would always act as an overall check. The operation of the platform, which would be owned by Coal India and register all approved users, could be regulated by the proposed coal regulator.

According to the committee the current mismatch between supply and demand of coal in India can be attributed to lack of sufficient interfaces between consumers and producers.
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Food Ministry prepared New Food Security Bill in line with NACs Recommendation
The food ministry prepared a new food security bill, reworking an earlier version. In August 2010 the UPA government had dismissed the previous draft of the Food Bill after it was found wanting by the Congress leadership. The Sonia Gandhi-led National Advisory Council, which oversees the governments welfare agenda, had made number of recommendations, including keeping the countrys food distribution system open for all, regardless of poverty status. PM Manmohan Singh had asked his Economic Advisory Council (EAC), led by C Rangarajan, to find out the financial implications of the NACs recommendations. Even though the EAC had suggested restricting cheap grains to priority households only, or those below the poverty line (BPL), the new bill provides for legal entitlement for both priority and general categories, which takes care of a key concern of the NAC. Under the new bill, entitlements for BPL households are wholly in line with the NACs draft food bill which was made public on 7 June 2011. All BPL households would be given 7 kg per person or 35 kg per family of government-held grains at a subsidised price of R1 a kg for millet, wheat for R2 a kg and rice for R3 a kg. Those above the poverty line would get 3 kg of grains per person, though the NAC had recommended 5 kg per person. These would be available at half the price at which the government buys from farmers, also called minimum support price (MSP). The new bill also provides for cash benefits to meet enhanced food requirements of pregnant women, who would get Rs 1000 for first six months of pregnancy, and lactating women, as well as children up to 14 years. The new requirements indicate that the governments expenses on distributing cheap grains is expected to rise from Rs 83000 crore to Rs 1 lakh crore and it will have to procure 10 million more tonnes of foodgrains.
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India likely to be largest economy by 2050


U.S. Assistant Secretary of State Robert O. Blake on June 17th said the future of Indian economy seems very bright and the country is likely to become the worlds third largest economy by 2030, and the largest by 2050. He added, The incredible growth of Indias economy has resulted in positive spill-over effect for the U.S. between 2002-2009, U.S. goods exports to India quadrupled, growing from $4.1 billion to more than $16.4 billion in 2009. U.S. services exports to India more than tripled from $3.2 billion to $9.9 billion during the period, he said.

Last year, U.S.-India trade in goods broke a record with U.S. exports increasing by 17 per cent and U.S. imports from India rising by 40 per cent, he said during a seminar, West Bengal and Beyond: U.S.-India business links and prospects in Kolkata. This surge of nearly 30 per cent to a high of $48.8 billion in goods trade moved India up two notches to become our 12th largest goods trading partner. This positive trend continues, with two-way trade up 19 per cent in the first quarter of 2011, over the same period last year, he said. Mr. Blake said U.S. trade with India was very much a two-way exchange with mutual benefits to both the countries. Robust two-way trade means citizens from Kolkata to Kansas will see the benefits of our trade agreement, he said. Mr. Blake added that India is also a growing source of foreign direct investment into the U.S. The total stock of FDI from India stood at almost $5.5 billion at the end of 2009. It has grown at a compound annual growth rate of 35 per cent during 2004-2009, making India the seventh fastest-growing source of investment in U.S. Indian companies invest heavily in many U.S. industries such as energy and IT, he said, adding that We expect their investments to increase. Mr. Blake added the Indian market offers tremendous opportunity to U.S. exporters of goods and services. India has a market of 1.2 billion of worlds consumers, he said. He said U.S. companies wanted to provide the goods and services needed to upgrade and build Indias railroads, airports, power plants and fibre optic cables. He added, India will need to invest $143 billion in healthcare, $392 billion in transportation infrastructure and $1.25 trillion in energy production by 2030, to support its rapidly expanding population. Quoting a McKinsey report, he said in 2030, the country would have 68 different cities housing one million plus people each. India will have to construct as much as 900 million square metres of commercial and residential space each year to keep pace with growing demand, he said. Mr. Blake added that Indias military and civil aviation modernisations, priced at around $35 billion, are already slated for some of the worlds largest purchases in the next decade.
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INDIA'S ECONOMIC REFORMS


The reform process in India was initiated with the aim of accelerating the pace of economic growth and eradication of poverty. The process of economic liberalization in India can be traced back to the late 1970s. However, the reform process began in earnest only in July 1991. It was only in 1991 that the Government signaled a systemic shift to a more open economy with greater reliance upon market forces, a larger role for the private sector including foreign investment, and a restructuring of the role of Government. The reforms of the last decade and a half have gone a long way in freeing the domestic economy from the control regime. An important feature of India's reform programme is that it has emphasized gradualism and evolutionary transition rather than rapid restructuring or "shock therapy". This approach was adopted since the reforms were introduced in June 1991 in the wake a balance of payments crisis that was certainly severe. However, it was not a prolonged crisis with a long period of non-performance. The economic reforms initiated in 1991 introduced far-reaching measures, which changed the working and machinery of the economy. These changes were pertinent to the following: Dominance of the public sector in the industrial activity Discretionary controls on industrial investment and capacity expansion Trade and exchange controls Limited access to foreign investment Public ownership and regulation of the financial sector

The reforms have unlocked India's enormous growth potential and unleashed powerful entrepreneurial forces. Since 1991, successive governments, across political parties, have successfully carried forward the country's economic reform agenda. Reforms in Industrial Policy Industrial policy was restructured to a great extent and most of the central government industrial controls were dismantled. Massive deregulation of the industrial sector was done in order to bring in the element of competition and increase efficiency. Industrial licensing by the central government was almost abolished except for a few hazardous and environmentally sensitive industries. The list of industries reserved solely for the public sector -- which used to cover 18 industries, including iron and steel, heavy plant and machinery, telecommunications and telecom equipment, minerals, oil, mining, air transport services and electricity generation and distribution was drastically reduced to three: defense aircrafts and warships, atomic energy generation, and railway transport. Further, restrictions that existed on the import of foreign technology were withdrawn. Reforms in Trade Policy It was realized that the import substituting inward looking development policy was no longer suitable in the modern globalising world. Before the reforms, trade policy was characterized by high tariffs and pervasive import restrictions. Imports of manufactured consumer goods were completely banned. For capital goods, raw materials and intermediates, certain lists of goods were freely importable, but for most items where domestic substitutes were being produced, imports were only possible with import licenses. The criteria for issue of licenses were non-transparent, delays were endemic and corruption unavoidable. The economic reforms sought to phase out import licensing and also to reduce import duties. Import licensing was abolished relatively early for capital goods and intermediates which became freely importable in 1993, simultaneously with the switch to a flexible exchange rate regime. Quantitative restrictions on imports of manufactured consumer goods and agricultural products were finally removed on April 1, 2001, almost exactly ten years after the reforms began, and that in part because of a ruling by a World Trade Organization dispute panel on a complaint brought by the United States. Financial sector reforms Financial sector reforms have long been regarded as an integral part of the overall policy reforms in India. India has recognized that these reforms are imperative for increasing the efficiency of resource mobilization and allocation in the real economy and for the overall macroeconomic stability. The reforms have been driven by a thrust towards liberalization and several initiatives such as liberalization in the interest rate and reserve requirements have been taken on this front. At the same time, the government has emphasized on stronger regulation aimed at strengthening prudential norms, transparency and supervision to mitigate the prospects of systemic risks. Today the Indian financial structure is inherently strong, functionally diverse, efficient and globally competitive. During the last fifteen years, the Indian financial system has been incrementally deregulated and exposed to international financial markets along with the introduction of new instruments and products.
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Knowledge about Mahatma Gandhi NREGA

1) When was the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA passed by the Indian Parliament? a) 26th August 2004 b) 23rd August 2004 c) 23rd August 2005 d) 26th August 2005 Answer: (C) 2) When was the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act Notified? a) 8th September 2005 b) 6th September 2005 c) 5th September 2005 d) 7th September 2005 Answer: (D) 3) Which state had passed an Employment Guarantee Act in 1976? a) Rajasthan b) Madhya Pradesh c) Maharashtra d) Gujarat Answer: (C) 4) Is there a limit on the number of days of guaranteed employment over the year? a) 100 days b) upto 100 days c) 200 days d) 150 days Answer: (B)
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CENSUS TERMINOLOGY

Rural-Urban Areas:
The data in the table on Final Population Totals are presented separately for rural and urban areas. The unit of classification in this regard is 'town' for urban areas and 'village' for rural areas. In the Census of India 2001, the definition of urban area adopted is as follows: (a) All statutory places with a municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee, etc. (b) A place satisfying the following three criteria simultaneously: i) a minimum population of 5,000; ii) at least 75 per cent of male working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits; and iii) a density of population of at least 400 per sq. km. (1,000 per sq. mile). For identification of places which would qualify to be classified as 'urban' all villages, which, as per the 1991 Census had a population of 4,000 and above, a population density of 400 persons per sq. km. and having at least 75 per cent of male working population engaged in non-agricultural activity were considered. To work out the proportion of male working population referred to above against b)(ii), the data relating to main workers were taken into account. An Urban Agglomeration is a continuous urban spread constituting a town and its adjoining urban outgrowths (OGs) or two or more physically contiguous towns together and any adjoining urban outgrowths of such towns. Examples of OGs are railway colonies, university campuses, port areas, etc., that may come up near a city or statutory town outside its statutory limits but within the revenue limits of a village or villages contiguous to the town or city. Each such individual area by itself may not satisfy the minimum population limit to qualify it to be treated as an independent urban unit but may deserve to be clubbed with the town as a continuous urban spread. For the purpose of delineation of Urban Agglomerations during Census of India 2001, following criteria are taken as pre-requisites: (a) The core town or at least one of the constituent towns of an urban agglomeration should necessarily be a statutory town; and (b) The total population of all the constituents (i.e. towns and outgrowths) of an Urban Agglomeration should not be less than 20,000 (as per the 1991 Census). With these two basic criteria having been met, the following are the possible different situations in which Urban Agglomerations would be constituted: (i) a city or town with one or more contiguous outgrowths; (ii) two or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths; and (iii) a city and one or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths all of which form a continuous spread.

City
Towns with population of 1,00,000 and above are called cities

Household
A 'household' is usually a group of persons who normally live together and take their meals from a common kitchen unless the exigencies of work prevent any of them from doing so. Persons in a household may be related or unrelated or a mix of both. However, if a group of unrelated persons live in a census house but do not take their meals from the common kitchen, then they are not constituent of a common household. Each such person was to be treated as a separate household. The important link in finding out whether it was a household or not was a common kitchen. There may be one member households, two member households or multi-member households.A household with at least one Scheduled Caste member is treated as Scheduled Caste Household. Similarly, a household having at least one Scheduled Tribe member is treated as a Scheduled Tribe household.

Institutional Household
A group of unrelated persons who live in an institution and take their meals from a common kitchen is called an Institutional Household. Examples of Institutional Households are boarding houses, messes, hostels, hotels, rescue homes, jails, ashrams, orphanages, etc. To make the definition more clearly perceptible to the enumerators at the Census 2001, it was specifically mentioned that this category of households would cover only those households where a group of unrelated persons live in an institution and share a common kitchen.

Houseless Households
Households who do not live in buildings or census houses but live in the open on roadside, pavements, in hume pipes, under fly-overs and staircases, or in the open in places of worship, mandaps, railway platforms, etc. are treated as Houseless households.

Work
Work is defined as participation in any economically productive activity with or without compensation, wages or profit. Such participation may be physical and/or mental in nature. Work involves not only actual work but also includes effective supervision and direction of work. It even includes part time help or unpaid work on farm, family enterprise or in any other economic activity. All persons engaged in 'work' as defined above are workers. Persons who are engaged in cultivation or milk production even solely for domestic consumption are also treated as workers. Reference period for determining a person as worker and non-worker is one year preceding the date of enumeration.

Main Workers
Those workers who had worked for the major part of the reference period (i.e. 6 months or more) are termed as Main Workers.

Marginal Workers
Those workers who had not worked for the major part of the reference period (i.e. less than 6 months) are termed as Marginal Workers.

Cultivator
For purposes of the census a person is classified as cultivator if he or she is engaged in cultivation of land owned or held from Government or held from private persons or institutions for payment in money, kind or share. Cultivation includes effective supervision or direction in cultivation. A person who has given out her/his land to another person or persons or institution(s) for cultivation for money, kind or share of crop and who does not even supervise or direct cultivation of land, is not treated as cultivator. Similarly, a person working on another person's land for wages in cash or kind or a combination of both (agricultural labourer) is not treated as cultivator. Cultivation involves ploughing, sowing, harvesting and production of cereals and millet crops such as wheat, paddy, jowar, bajra, ragi, etc., and other crops such as sugarcane, tobacco, ground-nuts, tapioca, etc., and pulses, raw jute and kindred fibre crop, cotton, cinchona and other medicinal plants, fruit growing, vegetable growing or keeping orchards or groves, etc. Cultivation does not include the following plantation crops - tea, coffee, rubber, coconut and betel-nuts (areca).

Agricultural Labourers
A person who works on another person's land for wages in money or kind or share is regarded as an agricultural labourer. She or he has no risk in the cultivation, but merely works on another person's land for wages. An agricultural labourer has no right of lease or contract on land on which She/he works.

Household Industry Workers


Household Industry is defined as an industry conducted by one or more members of the household at home or within the village in rural areas and only within the precincts of the house where the household lives in urban areas. The larger proportion of workers in the household industry consists of members of the household. The industry is not run on the scale of a registered factory which would qualify or has to be registered under the Indian Factories Act. The main criterion of a Household industry even in urban areas is the participation of one or more members of a household. Even if the industry is not actually located at home in rural areas there is a greater possibility of the members of the household participating even if it is located anywhere within the

village limits. In the urban areas, where organized industry takes greater prominence, the Household Industry is confined to the precincts of the house where the participants live. In urban areas, even if the members of the household run an industry by themselves but at a place away from the precincts of their home, it is not considered as a Household Industry. It should be located within the precincts of the house where the members live in the case of urban areas. Household Industry relates to production, processing, servicing, repairing or making and selling (but not merely selling) of goods. It does not include professions such as a Pleader, Doctor, Musician, Dancer, Waterman, Astrologer, Dhobi, Barber, etc., or merely trade or business, even if such professions, trade or services are run at home by members of the household. Some of the typical industries that can be conducted on a household industry basis are: Foodstuffs : such as production of floor, milking or dehusking of paddy, grinding of herbs, production of pickles, preservation of meat etc. Beverages: such as manufacture of country liquor, ice cream, soda water etc., Tobacco Products : such as bidi, cigars, Textile cotton, Jute, Wool or Silk, Manufacture of Wood and Wood Products, Paper and Paper Products, Leather and Leather Products, Petroleum and Coal Products : such as making foot wear from torn tyres and other rubber footwear, Chemical and Chemical Products :such as manufacture of toys, paints, colours, matches, fireworks, perfumes, ink etc., Service and Repairing of Transport Equipments : such as cycle, rickshaw, boat or animal driven carts etc.

Other Workers
All workers, i.e., those who have been engaged in some economic activity during the last one year, but are not cultivators or agricultural labourers or in Household Industry, are 'Other Workers(OW)'. The type of workers that come under this category of 'OW' include all government servants, municipal employees, teachers, factory workers, plantation workers, those engaged in trade, commerce, business, transport banking, mining, construction, political or social work, priests, entertainment artists, etc. In effect, all those workers other than cultivators or agricultural labourers or household industry workers, are 'Other Workers'.

Non Workers
A person who did not at all work during the reference period was treated as non-worker. The non-workers broadly constitute Students who did not participate in any economic activity paid or unpaid, household duties who were attending to daily household chores like cooking, cleaning utensils, looking after children, fetching water etc. and are not even helping in the unpaid work in the family form or cultivation or milching, dependant such as infants or very elderly people not included in the category of worker, pensioners those who are drawing pension after retirement and are not engaged in any economic activity. Beggars, vagrants, prostitutes and persons having unidentified source of income and with unspecified sources of subsistence and not engaged in any economically productive work during the reference period. Others, this category includes all Non-workers who may not come under the above categories such as rentiers, persons living on remittances, agricultural or non-agricultural royalty, convicts in jails or inmates of penal, mental or charitable institutions doing no paid or unpaid work and persons who are seeking/available for work.

Migration
Internal Migration It incldes any movement within the political boundaries of a nation which results in a change of usual place of residence. It may consist of the crossing of a village or town boundary as a minimum condition for qualifying the movement as internal migration. Thus, the concept of internal migration involves implicitly an imposition of boundary lines which must be crossed before a movement is counted as internal migration. Migrant Migrant is usually defined as a person who has moved from one politically defined area to another similar area. In Indian context, these areas are generally a village in rural and a town in urban. Thus a person

who moves out from one village or town to another village or town is termed as a migrant provided his/her movement is not of purely temporary nature on account of casual leave, visits, tours, etc. Non- Migrants (Immobiles) People, who are seen living their entire life-time and die in the same village/town in which they were born, are defined as Immobiles or non-migrants. Birth Place Migrant If at the time of Census enumeration, there is a change in the usual place of residence of an individual with reference to his/her birth place, he/she is defined as a migrant in accordance with birth place concept. Last Residence Migrant If at the time of Census enumeration, a change in the usual place of residence of an individual is noted with reference to his/her previous usual residence, he/she is termed as a migrant in accordance with last residence concept. In-migrant A person, who crosses the boundaries of a village/town for the purpose of residing at the place of enumeration, is an in-migrant. Out-migrant If a person moves out from the place of enumeration (village/town) to another politically defined area (village/town) for usual residence, he or she is termed as an out-migrant. Intra-district Migrant When a person moves out from his place of usual residence or birth to another politically defined area (village/town), which is within the district of enumeration, he/she is termed as an intra-district migrant. Inter-district Migrant A person who is in the course of migration crosses the boundary of the district of enumeration but remains within the State of enumeration, is termed as an inter-district migrant. Intra-state Migrant When a person crosses the boundary of his/her village/town for usual residence elsewhere within the State of enumeration, the person concerned is treated as an intra-State migrant. Thus intra-district and inter-district migrants together constitute the intra-State migrants. Inter-State migrant If the place of enumeration of an individual differs from the place of birth or last residence and these lie in two different States, the person is treated accordingly as an inter-State migrant with regard to birth place or last residence concept. Life-time In-Migration It denotes the total number of persons enumerated in a given area at a particular Census who were born outside the area of enumeration but within the national boundaries. Life-time Out-Migration It gives the total number of persons born in a given area but now enumerated outside the area within the national boundaries at the time of particular Census. Life-time Net-Migration The difference between life-time in-migration and life-time out-migration is termed as life-time netmigration.

Migration rate It is taken as the ratio of total migrants counted in the Census to its total population multiplied by 1000. While discussing the migration result, the term population mobility is taken as a synonym to migration rate.
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Reserve Bank of India Grade B Officers Exam. 2011 Solved Paper

General Awareness
(Exam Held on 6-2-2011) 1. What role do Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play in a countrys economic and industrial development ? 1. They have the capacity to absorb skilled and unskilled labour available in the country. 2. Such institutions help in distribution of income in a wide spectrum and do not allow it to get concentrated in few hands or in few areas. 3. They help in eradication of poverty by providing selfemployment opportunities. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (E) 2. Which of the following statements about the Indian Economy is correct ? (A) Indian economy is as developed as that of China (B) About 70% Indians are involved in some type of selfemployment and are the owners of some or the other micro or small enterprise (C) In India single biggest employment is agriculture and allied activities

(D) About 48% Indian workforce is employed in foreign countries or in organizations assisted by foreign capital (E) None of these Ans : (C) 3. Which of the following is/are correct about the problems of Indian Agriculture ? 1. Large agricultural subsidies are hampering productivityenhancing investments. 2. Irrigation infrastructure is in bad shape and needs immediate improvement. 3. Frequent takeovers of fertile land by private companies and multinationals to launch big business complexes. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these Ans : (D)

4. As per news in various journals, many banks have failed to achieve agri-loan targetfixed by the RBI for the year 2010-11. What was the target fixed for the year ? (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 18% (D) 24% (E) 30% Ans : (C) 5. Which of the following statements about Agro and Allied activities is not correct ? (A) Farmers do not get adequate credit for purchase of cattle (B) There is a need to improve breed and genetic characteristics of the cattle folk (C) India has huge forest cover and also degraded and marshy land which can be used for productive purposes (D) India is the 10th largest producer of medicinal and aromatic plants. But the products are not of commercial value (E) Animal husbandry plays an important role in providing sustainability under Rain fed conditions Ans : (C) 6. Which of the following schemes launched by the Govt. of India aims at enhancing the livelihood security of the people in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days of employment in a financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work ? (A) TRYSEM (B) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (C) Kutir Jyoti Scheme (D) ASHA (E) MGNREGA Ans : (E) 7. In some parts of India, farmers face acute distress because of heavy burden of debt from noninstitutional lenders. Who can be called a non-institutional lender ? (A) Small Banks (B) Grameen Banks (C) Credit Cooperative Societies (D) Micro Finance Institutions (E) Money Lenders Ans : (E)

8. The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was introduced with a view of levying how much custom duty for trading any product within the SAARC zone ? (A) 5% (B) 4% (C) 2% (D) 1% (E) No custom duty Ans : (E) 9. Which of the following organisation prepares rural credit plans on annual basis for all districts in India, which in turn from the base for annual credit plans of all ruralfinancial institutions ? (A) SIDBI (B) NABARD (C) RBI (D) Indian Banks Association (E) CII Ans : (B) 10. Which of the following is TRUE about the current population trend(s) in India ? 1. Every year India adds more people to the worlds population than any other country. 2. Currently India has a young population which will grow somewhat older largely as a result of decline in fertility. 3. The National Family Planning Programme did not contribute much in controlling fertility rate (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 2 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 11. In economic terms, which of the following factors determine the Individuals demand of a product/commodity ? 1. Price of a commodity. 2. Income of the individual. 3. Utility and quality of a commodity. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 3 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (E) 12. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics ? (A) Adiabatic (B) Bohr Theory (C) Plasma (D) Barter System (E) Viscosity Ans : (D) 13. Pascal Lamy calls on trade negotiators to move out of their comfort zones towards agreements, was the headline in some major newspapers. This news is associated with which of the following organizations/agencies ? (A) World Trade Organization (B) International Monetary Fund (C) World Bank

(D) United Nations Organisations (E) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation Ans : (A) 14. Which of the following is not a function of the Planning Commission of India ? (A) Assessment of the material, capital and human resources of the country (B) Formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of countrys resources (C) Public cooperation in national development (D) Preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plans (E) Determination of stages in which the plan should be carried out Ans : (D) 15. Which of the following periods represents the period of the first Five Year Plan in India ? (A) 1948 53 (B) 1947 52 (C) 1952 57 (D) 1950 55 (E) 1951 56 Ans : (E) 16. Which of the following is the name of the process available to common people to seek courts intervention in matters of public interest ? (A) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) (B) Habeas Corpus (C) Ordinance (D) Residuary power (E) None of these Ans : (A) 17. Indias foreign policy is based on several principles, one of which is (A) Panchsheel (B) Satyamev Jayate (C) Live and Let Live (D) Vasudhaiv Kutumbkam (E) None of these Ans : (A) 18. As we know thousands of tonnes of foodgrain was washed away in the floods in Haryana and Punjab a few months back. This incident is an example which indicates that there is a scope for improvement in our machinery controlling our (A) Mid Day Meal Scheme (B) Public Distribution System (C) Food for Work Programme (D) Village Grain Bank Scheme (E) Operation Flood Scheme Ans : (B) 19. President Barack Obama was on a visit to India a few months back. His visit is said to have forged both the nations into a new era of relations. India managed to sign a special agreement with US in which of the following fields/areas as a byproduct of the visit of Obama ? 1. Energy sector and Nuclear energy as US has lifted sanctions on supply of high tech machines. 2. Skill Development Programmes in IT sector in which US has super-specialisation. 3. Training in management of Micro finance Institutions. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 2 and 3 (E) Only 1 and 2 Ans : (A) 20. Many times we read a term Tax Haven in various newspapers. What does it mean ? 1. It is a country where certain taxes are levied at a very low rate. 2. It is a country where people can dump their illegal money without any problem. 3. It is a place where foreigners can work without paying any tax on their income. (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 1 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (E) 21. As per existing law, what is the minimum per day wages paid to a worker from unorganised sector in India ? (A) 50 (B) 75 (C) 100 (D) 125 (E) No such law is there Ans : (C) 22. Who amongst the following was awarded the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for 2010 ? (A) Ronald Noble (B) Luiz Inacio Lula DSilva (C) Mohammed Elbaradei (D) Aung San Su Kyi (E) None of these Ans : (B) 23. Which of the following is not a Poverty Eradication Programme launched by the Govt. of India ? (A) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (B) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (C) National Social Assistance Programme (D) ADHAR (E) National Family Benefit Scheme Ans : (D) 24. According to the World Bank estimate about 40% Indians are living below International Poverty line of US $ (A) 1 per day (B) 125 per day (C) 2 per day (D) 25 per day (E) 3 per day Ans : (B) 25. The 10th Trilateral Ministerial Meeting of RIC group was organized in November 2010. Who are the members of the RIC ? (A) RussiaIranChina (B) RussiaIndiaChina (C) RomaniaIranCanada (D) RomaniaIsraelChile

(E) RussiaIndiaCroatia Ans : (B) 26. India and Syria recently decided to double their trade in next 2 years. Indian Govt. has decided to export which of the following commodities to Syria ? (A) Natural gas (B) Milk (C) Oil (D) Wheat (E) All of these Ans : (E) 27. India has sanctioned a 26 million grant to which of the following countries for development of tube wells ? (A) Myanmar (B) Bangladesh (C) Nepal (D) Pakistan (E) Sri Lanka Ans : (C) 28. Which of the following is the name of the scheme launched by the Govt. of India for adolescent girls ? (Launched in November 2010) (A) Swawlamban (B) SABALA (C) Aadhar (D) ASHA (E) None of these Ans : (B) 29. Many times we see in financial journals/bulletins a term M3. What is M3 ? (A) Currency in circulation on a particular day (B) Total value of the foreign exchange on a particular day (C) Total value of export credit on a given date (D) Total value of the tax collected in a year (E) None of these Ans : (E) 30. As per news in various newspapers, Govt. has allocated a huge sum of 31,000 crore for RTE. What is full form of RTE ? (A) Right of Education (B) Reforms in Technical Education (C) Return to Empowerment (D) Right to Empowerment (E) Renewable Technology for Energy Ans : (A) 31. Which of the following is not a major function of the RBI in India ? (A) Issuance of currency notes (B) To facilitate external trade and payment and developing a foreign exchange market in India (C) Maintaining price stability and ensuring adequate flow of credit to productive sectors (D) Taking loans/credit from World Bank/IMF and ADB etc., and reallocating it for various activities decided by the Govt. of India (E) Formulation and monitoring the monetary and credit policy Ans : (C)

32. The RBI has regional offices at various places. At which of the following places it does not have an office ? (A) Kota (B) Shimla (C) Lucknow (D) Panaji (E) Guwahati Ans : (C) 33. Which of the following organizations/agencies has given a US $ 407 billion loan to India to boost up its micro finance services in unbanked areas ? (A) IMF (B) World Bank (C) Bank of Japan (D) ADB (E) Jointly by IMF and ADB Ans : (B) 34. The Prime Ministers Economic Advisory Council (PMEAC) has projected that the Indian Exports will grow by what percentage during 2010-11 ? (A) 15% (B) 18% (C) 22% (D) 24% (E) 28% Ans : (B) 35. Which of the following organisations/agencies has given the estimate that the India will be third largest FDI recipient in 201012 ? (A) UNCTAD (B) WTO (C) World Bank (D) IMF (E) None of these Ans : (A) 36. The performance of which of the following industries is considered performance of a core industry ? (A) Garments (B) Leather (C) IT (D) Oil and Petroleum (E) Handicrafts Ans : (D) 37. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in economics ? (A) Peter A. Diamond (B) Dale T. Mortensen (C) Amartya Sen (D) Paul Krugman (E) Robert G. Edwards Ans : (E) 38. Basel Committee has given its recommendations on which of the following aspects of banking operations ? (A) Marketing of bank products (B) Priority sector lending

(C) Risk Management (D) Micro financing (E) All of these Ans : (C) 39. Which of the following is the rank of India in Human Development Report 2010 prepared by the UNO ? (A) 99 (B) 100 (C) 115 (D) 119 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 40. Which of the following was/where the key objectives of the RBIs review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2010-11 which was reviewed again on 2nd November 2010 ? 1. To sustain the anti inflationary thrust. 2. To maintain an interest rate regime consistent with price. 3. To provide extra tax incentives to exporters who were in stress due to market fluctuations. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these Ans : (A) 41. PIIGS is the group of nations falling under (A) Euro zone (B) Asia Pacific (C) SAARC (D) NATO (E) Commonwealth Ans : (A) 42. Which of the following is/are the preconditions, the IMF has put to provide bail out package to Ireland ? 1. It should gradually lower down unemployment benefits. 2. It should bring down the minimum wages in order to boost employment. 3. It should import some of the crucial commodities from non euro countries as an immediate measure to improve shortage of the same. (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 1 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (B) 43. India is self-sufficient in production of which of the following commodities ? (A) Edible oil (B) Milk (C) Pulses (D) Natural gas (E) All of these Ans : (B) 44. Which of the following is used as a fuel in Nuclear power stations in India ?

(A) Thorium (B) Copper (C) Tin (D) Chromium (E) All of these Ans : (A) 45. Which of the following States has taken up the job of improving Dams with the help of the World Banks Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement project ? (A) Kerala (B) Gujarat (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Uttar Pradesh (E) Guwahati Ans : (A) 46. Nitish Kumar led National Democratic Alliance won how many seats in recently held assembly elections in Bihar ? (A) 150 (B) 243 (C) 200 (D) 206 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book Development as Freedom ? (A) M. S. Swaminathan (B) C. Rangarajan (C) Manmohan Singh (D) Y. V. Reddy (E) Amartya Sen Ans : (E) 48. Which of the following terms is used in Finance and Banking ? (A) Line of Sight (B) Scattering loss (C) Revenue (D) Oscillation (E) Shielding Ans : (A) 49. Who amongst the following is a famous economist ? (A) Richard Dawkins (B) Alan Greenspan (C) Vernon Heywood (D) Olivar Sachs (E) Stephan Hawking Ans : (B) 50. Who amongst the following has never held post of the Governor of the RBI ? (A) C. Rangarajan (B) L. K. Jha (C) Manmohan Singh (D) Bimal Jalan (E) Usha Thorat Ans : (E)

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NAC's seven-point test for land acquisition bill


The National Advisory Council (NAC) has prescribed a seven-point test for a having a humane legistlation on land acquisition and rehabilitation. In a letter to the government, the NAC chaired by Sonia Gandhi, has suggested a check list of seven parameters which includes provisions for a rehabilitation package that is sensitive to the aspirations of the affected people. "Does it discourage forced displacement? Does it minimise adverse impacts on people, habitats, environment and biodiversity? Does it minimise adverse impacts on food security by actively discouraging acquisition of agricultural land, and promoting local economies? "Does it comprehensively define project affected persons/families? Does it provide for a just compensation and rehabilitation package, sensitive to the aspirations, culture, community, natural resource base and skill base of the affected people? "Does it ensure humane, participatory, informed, consultative and transparent process" Does it provide for effective implementation?" "The test for any such legislation should be on these parameters," said the letter sent by the NAC to the government. The NAC also wants the Land Acquisition, Resettlement and Rehabilitation Act to make violation of the law by public officials a punishable offence. "Penal provisions for violations (by public officials), in the form of fines imposed on public officials who fail based on their job charts issued by the state government, must be included in the statute," the NAC said. The NAC has suggested that the land acquired for project that remains unused should be returned to the displaced families with a nominal cost recovery. The recommendation also includes a provision for the government to notify the amenities to be provided at resettlement sites. "The basic amenities with minimum standards shall be mandatorily provided at the new site. These include roads, safe drinking water, hygiene, educational facilities, community hall, and basic irrigation facilities at project cost," the NAC said in its communication to the government. It also recommended setting up of a National Commission for Land Acquisition, Resettlement and Rehabilitation (NLCRR) with powers to supervise and exercise oversight over land acquisition, resettlement and rehabilitation. "The NCLRR shall have a chairperson, and four members of relevant skills and experience, and independence, at least two of whom should be women, and at least one of them SC and one ST," the NAC letter said.

It suggested that the process of appointments to NCLRR should be similar to the Central Information Commission under the Right to Information Act. The NCLRR should be tasked with promoting public accountability and ensuring compliance with legally established policies, procedures and practices. The Commission should also mediate and respond to complaints and disputes in the capacity of an ombusdman and also fix responsibility on public officials for lapses and awarding fines. The NCLRR should also provide strategic advice to the government, the NAC said.
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Industrial growth halves in April

The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) on Friday registered a 6.3 per cent growth in April, according to the new series with base year 2004-05 released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO) as against 13.1 per cent recorded in the same month in the previous year. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee termed the declining industrial growth rate in April as disturbing stating he would wait for more data to ascertain the trend.

As per the new series, manufacturing growth in April stood at 6.9 per cent against 14.4 per cent in April, 2010, while mining and electricity production was up by 2.2 per cent (9.2 per cent) and 6.4 per cent (6.5 per cent), respectively. Capital goods registered a growth of 14.5 per cent (35.5 per cent) and consumer goods were up by 2.9 per cent (13.8 per cent). On the other hand, as per the old series (base year 1993-94), the industrial output registered a steep fall at 4.4 per cent in April against 16.6 per cent a year ago. Growth in manufacturing, which constitutes about 80 per cent of the index weight, nosedived to 4.4 per cent in April from a high of 18 per cent in the same month in the previous year. Major area of concern Mining also grew by a meagre 2.1 per cent during the month under review as against 12 per cent in April, 2010. Growth in electricity production also dipped to 6.4 per cent from 6.9 per cent. A major area of concern was the low off-take of capital goods, whose production growth was just 2.5 per cent in April compared to 64.1 per cent in same month in the previous year. Overall, consumer goods also saw a slow growth rate of 5.9 per cent (11.9 per cent). Production trends for 100 new items, including ice cream, fruit juice and mobile phones, has been included for measuring the pace of industrial production in the new index series. The new items in the IIP would include computer stationery, newspapers, chemicals such as ammonia and ammonia sulphate, electrical products such as solder power systems, gems and jewellery and molasses. On the other hand, obsolete articles such as typewriters, loud speakers and VCRs have been taken off to make the series representative of the present-day industrial production and demand scenario. The base year for the new series is 2004-05 as against 1993-94 for the old one. The new IIP series is expected to help policymakers and market participants forecast economic trends. The Department of Industrial Promotion and Policy (DIPP) and the CSO jointly worked on the new index. The latest slide in monthly numbers came after the IIP registered a growth of only 7.8 per cent in March, revised upward from the original estimate of 7.3 per cent, as against 15.5 per cent in March, 2010. Experts had blamed the RBI's rate hikes, leading to lowering of investments and a fall in output, for the slowdown in IIP growth. Some experts said the slowdown might force the RBI to have a relook at its monetary tightening policy. However, many others said the prevailing high inflation situation would force the RBI to continue with the rate hikes. Crisil chief economist D. K. Joshi said: IIP growth is quite volatile and not to read much from monthly trends. The most important development after the introduction of the new index is the confirmation of belief that the previous index under-stated industrial growth.'' Mr. Joshi said the RBI was likely to hike rates by another 25 basis points at its next review on June 16.

.S.C. Combined Graduate Level (Pre.) Exam 2008

S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level (Pre.) Exam 2008 General Awareness : Solved Question Paper (Held on 27-7-2008) 1. Which of the following is not considered as National Debt ? (A) National Savings Certificates (B) Long-term Government Bonds (C) Insurance Policies (D) Provident Fund Ans : (C) 2. The main determinant of real wage is (A) Extra earning (B) Nature of work (C) Promotion prospect (D) Purchasing power of money Ans : (D) 3. The birthrate measures the number of births during a year per (A) 100 population (B) 1000 population (C) 10000 population (D) 100000 population Ans : (B) 4. Which of the following is not included in the National Income ? (A) Imputed rent of owneroccupied houses (B) Government expenditure on making new bridges (C) Winning a lottery (D) Commission paid to an agent for sale of house Ans : (C) 5. Personal disposable income is (A) Always equal to personal income (B) Always more than personal income (C) Equal to personal income minus indirect taxes (D) Equal to personal income minus direct taxes Ans : (D) 6. Who prepared the first estimate of National Income for the country ? (A) Central Statistical Organisation (B) National Income Committee (C) Dadabhai Naoroji (D) National Sample Survey Organisation Ans : (C) 7. A Bill referred to a Joint Sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament is required to be passed by (A) A simple majority of the members present (B) Absolute majority of the total membership (C) 2/3rd majority of the members present

(D) 3/4th majority of the members present Ans : (A) 8. Who is the constitutional head of the Government of India ? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Chief Justice of India (D) Attorney General Ans : (A) 9. Who certifies a Bill to be a Money Bill in India ? (A) Finance Minister (B) President (C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (D) Prime Minister Ans : (C) 10. By which Amendment were Fundamental Duties added to the Constitution ? (A) 40th Amendment (B) 42nd Amendment (C) 44th Amendment (D) 45th Amendment Ans : (B) 11. The Vice-President of India is elected by (A) The members of the Parliament (B) The members of the Rajya Sabha (C) The elected members of the Parliament (D) The members of the Parliament and State Legislatures Ans : (A) 12. When was the comprehensive reorganisation of Indian States completed in accordance with the recommendations of States Reorganisation Commission ? (A) 1953 (B) 1956 (C) 1960 (D) 1966 Ans : (B) 13. When Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated, who said, None will believe that a man like this in body and soul ever walked on this earth ? (A) Bertrand Russell (B) Leo Tolstoy (C) Albert Einstein (D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan Ans : (C) 14. Who built the Tower of Victory (Vijay Stambha) in the Chittor Fort ? (A) Rana Sanga (B) Rana Ratan Singh (C) Rana Hamir Deva

(D) Rana Kumbha Ans : (D) 15. In violation of the Salt Laws, Gandhiji started a movement called (A) Non-Cooperation Movement (B) Swadeshi Movement (C) Civil Disobedience Movement (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 16. In which of the following wars, were the French completely defeated by the English ? (A) Battle of Wandiwash (B) Battle of Buxar (C) Battle of Plassey (D) Battle of Adyar Ans : (A) 17. The Cabinet Mission came to India in (A) 1943 (B) 1944 (C) 1945 (D) 1946 Ans : (D) 18. The first to come and the last to leave India were (A) The Portuguese (B) The French (C) The English (D) The Dutch Ans : (A) 19. IR 20 and Ratna are two important varieties of (A) Wheat (B) Bajra (C) Jowar (D) Paddy Ans : (D) 20. The Trans-Siberian Railway (9438 km) connects.. in the West to .. in the East. (A) Moscow, Tashkent (B) St. Petersburg, Omsk (C) Moscow, Irkutsk (D) St. Petersburg, Vladivostok Ans : (D) 21. Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Udan Academy is located at (A) Secunderabad (B) Rae Bareilly (C) Jodhpur (D) Delhi Ans : (B)

22. Which one of the following rivers of Peninsular India does not join Arabian Sea ? (A) Periyar (B) Cauvery (C) Narmada (D) Tapti Ans : (B) 23. Which one of the following correctly describes AGNI ? (A) A fighter plane (B) A versatile tank (C) A long-range missile (D) A long-range gun Ans : (C) 24. Instrument used for measuring area on maps is called (A) Planimeter (B) Eidograph (C) Pantograph (D) Opisometer Ans : (A) 25. If the blood group of one parent is AB and that of the other O, the possible blood group of their child would be (A) A or B (B) A or B or O (C) A or AB or O (D) A or B or AB or O Ans : (A) 26. How many bones are there in the human body ? (A) 187 (B) 287 (C) 206 (D) 306 Ans : (C) 27. Dinosaurs were (A) Mammals that became extinct (B) Large herbivorous creatures which gave rise to hippopotamus species (C) Egg-laying mammals (D) Reptiles that became extinct Ans : (D) 28. Sweat glands in mammals are primarily concerned with (A) Removal of excess salts (B) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes (C) Thermoregulation (D) Sex-attraction Ans : (C) 29. The vitamin that helps to prevent infections in the human body is

(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin D Ans : (A) 30. The normal RBC count in adult male is (A) 55 million (B) 50 million (C) 45 million (D) 40 million Ans : (B) 31. A storm is predicted if atmospheric pressure (A) Rises suddenly (B) Rises gradually (C) Falls suddenly (D) Falls gradually Ans : (C) 32. The gas which turns into liquid at the lowest temperature among the following is (A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Helium (D) Nitrogen Ans : (A) 33. An egg sinks in soft water but floats in a concentrated solution of salt because (A) Egg absorbs salt from the solution and expands (B) Albumin dissolves in salt solution and egg becomes lighter (C) The density of salt solution exceeds the density of eggs (D) Water has high surface tension Ans : (C) 34. What should a person on a freely rotating turn table do to decrease his (angular) speed ? (A) Bring his hands together (B) Raise his hands up (C) Spread his hands outwards (D) Sit down with raised hands Ans : (C) 35. Gunpowder consists of a mixture of (A) Sand and TNT (B) TNT and charcoal (C) Nitre, sulphur and charcoal (D) Sulphur, sand and charcoal Ans : (C) 36. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar ? (A) Sucrose (B) Glucose

(C) Fructose (D) Maltose Ans : (C) 37. In nuclear reactors, graphite is used as a/an (A) Fuel (B) Lubricant (C) Moderator (D) Insulator Ans : (C) 38. Which of the following celestial bodies contains abundant quantities of helium-3, a potential source of energy ? (A) Earth (B) Moon (C) Venus (D) Saturn Ans : (D) 39. Which of the following International Tennis Tournaments is held on grass court ? (A) US Open (B) French Open (C) Wimbledon (D) Australian Open Ans : (C) 40. What is the name of the writer of Indian origin whose novel, The Inheritance of Loss has bagged Man Booker Prize ? (A) Vikram Seth (B) Kiran Desai (C) Salman Rushdie (D) V. S. Naipaul Ans : (B) 41. Which country from the following is a permanent member of the UN Security Council ? (A) Switzerland (B) Peoples Republic of China (C) Japan (D) Ukraine Ans : (B) 42. The Loktak Lake on which a hydroelectric project was constructed is situated in the State of (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Manipur (C) Meghalaya (D) Himachal Pradesh Ans : (B) 43. What is the motto incorporated under our National Emblem ? (A) Satyam Shivam

(B) Satyam Shivam Sundaram (C) Satyameva Jayate (D) Jai Hind Ans : (C) 44. The H5N1 virus which causes bird flu was first discovered in (A) 1991 (B) 1995 (C) 1997 (D) 2001 Ans : (C) 45. The Southern tip of India is (A) Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari) (B) Point Calimere (C) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands (D) Kovalam in Thiruvananthapuram Ans : (A) 46. According to a resolution adopted by the United Nations General Assembly, International Day of Peace is observed every year on (A) September 1 (B) September 14 (C) September 21 (D) September 30 Ans : (C) 47. Where was the last Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Summit held ? (A) Sydney (B) Auckland (C) New York (D) Beijing Ans : (A) 48. According to the UN Convention on the rights of children, which of the following is not a right ? (A) Safe drinking water (B) Adequate standard of living (C) Education (D) Marriage Ans : (D) 49. Who is the author of Ageless Body, Timeless Mind ? (A) V. S. Naipaul (B) Deepak Chopra (C) Dom Moraes (D) Tony Kusher Ans : (B) 50. Which cricketer holds the record for scoring highest number of runs in a test match innings ?

(A) Gary Sobers (B) Vivian Richards (C) Sunil Gavaskar (D) Brian Lara Ans : (D)

1. Which ministry in India proposed in May 2011 that companies that fail to file key annual information should not be allowed to make other mandatory regulatory filings? (a) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs (b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry (d) Ministry of Finance Answer: (b) 2. A new satellite survey of Egypt on 25 May 2011 identified seventeen lost pyramids and more than a thousand unexcavated tombs. The survey was done by (a) NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) (b) ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) (c) CYSO (Cypriot Young Scientists Organisation) (d) World Scientist Organisation Answer: (a) 3. The Union Finance Ministry on 18 May 2011 decided to discontinue which of the following schemes beyond 30 June 2011 as the government is losing Rs 8000 crore on account of the scheme every year? (a) Duty Entitlement Pass Book scheme (b) Schemes of National Scheduled Tribes Finance (c) Rani Durgavati Anusuchit Jaati/ Anusuchit Jan Jaati Swarojgar Yojna (d) Akshat Yojna Answer: (a) 4. Name India's first pistol shooter to make the Olympic Grade on 17 May 2011. (a) Abha Dhillon (b) Heena Sidhu (c) Olena (d) Ammu Raj Singh Answer: (d) 5. Which one of the following political parties won the assembly elections in West Bengal? (a) Congress (b) AGP (c) BJP

(d) Trinamool Congress Answer: (d) 6. The Reserve Bank of India decided to permit _ day foreign currency-rupee swaps equal to the amount invested by FIIs in Indian initial public offerings under ASBA for the purpose of hedging? (a) 45 day (b) 30 day (c) 15 day (d) 60 day Answer: (b) 7. The board of which Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) approved on 23 May 2011 the proposal to offload government's 5 per cent stake in the comoany as part of Centre's ambitious programme to mop up Rs 40000 crore through public sector disinvestments in 2011-12? a. NTPC b. BHEL c. Indian Oil d. BSNL Answer: (b) 8. Which Public sector lender signed an agreement with National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) on 23 May 2011 in order to promote vocational training amongst the youth? a. State Bank of India b. Indian Bank c. Central Bank of India d. Union Bank of India Answer: (c) 9. The information and broadcasting ministry endorsed/okayed the recommendation by TRAI to enhance foreign direct investment (FDI) ceiling for direct to home TV, Internet protocol TV and teleport from 49% to _%. Complete the sentence by filling in the correct percentage. a. 70% b. 74% c. 75% d. 78% Answer: (b) 10. The Reserve Bank of India's working group on introduction of financial holding structure in India submitted its report on 23 May 2011. With regard to the recommendations of the Working Group, which of the following is not true? 1. The group suggested that large financial groups should adopt a holding company model. 2. Separate regulatory framework for FHCs and a new Act for regulation of FHCs was recommended. 11. The Group also recommended five options to warehouse the government's holding in

public sector banks. 4. Limit on the expansion of non-banking business need to be put after the existing financial groups dominated by banks migrate to the holding company structure. a. Only 1 b. 2 & 3 c. Only 3 d. Only 2 Answer: (c) 12. Anti-monopoly watchdog Competition Commission of India (CCI) on 25 May 2011 held which of the following bodies responsible for misusing its dominant position and using of unfair means in trading of currency derivatives? a. National Stock Exchange b. Bombay Stock Exchange c. MCX Stock Exchange d. Pune Stock Exchange Answer: (a) 13. A team of scientists set a new data speed record transmitting 26 terabits equivalent of 700 DVDs-per second using ___. a) Double lasers b) Single laser c) Three lasers d) Four lasers Answer: (b) a single laser 14. India's advanced communication satellite GSAT-8 was launched on 21 May 2011 by Ariane-5 from Kourou, French Guiana. In which one of the following countries French Guiana is located? a) South America b) North America c) Asia d) Europe Answer: (a) South America 15. GSAT-8 was launched on 21 May 2011 by Ariane-5 from Kourou, French Guiana. Consider the following statements on GSAT-8. i) Its weight is 3100 kg. ii) It is the largest and heaviest satellite built by the ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation). Choose the right option. a) Both i and ii are correct. b) Only i is correct. c) Only ii is correct. d) Neither i nor ii is correct. Answer: (a) Both i and ii are correct.

16. The Australian Climate Commission warned that the world's sea levels could increase by _ the end of the 21st Century. a) 1 Metre. b) 2 Metres. c) 3 Metres. d) 4 Metres. Answer: (a) 1 Metre 17. Who emerged champion in the Asian youth chess championship (under-10) category in Subic (Philippines)? a. Bidar Ritumbara b. Taruniy Goyal c. Muthyala Bansi Prathima d. Yapabinudi Senarath Answer: (a) 18. Which of the following golfers who had top-five finishes in recent Asian Tour events like the SAIL and Panasonic opens, finally claimed his maiden professional title with a 5 and 4 victory in the SRF matchplay championship at the Delhi Golf Club on 21 May 2011? a. Manav Jaini b. Ashok Kumar c. Mithun Perera d. Nonita Lall Qureshi Answer: (a) 19. India's advanced communication satellite was successfully launched into its geosynchronous transfer orbit by Arianespace's launch vehicle Ariane-5 from Kourou in French Guyana. Name the satellite. a. GSAT-8 b. CARTOSAT-2B c. ANUSAT d. RESOURCESAT-2 Answer: (a) 20. Which industry body disapproved of the new IT rules 2011, notified by the Indian government mentioning that the new rules will adversely impact the $76-billion Indian ITBPO industry? a. NASSCOM b. FICCI c. Competition Commission of India d. Forward Markets Commission Answer: (a) 21. Name the first harmonium artiste to be awarded Padma Shri in India who died on 25 May 2011. a. Ustad Mahmood Dholpuri b. Girija Devi c. Kishori Amonkar

d. Ustad Nasir Ahmad Khan Answer: (a) 22. Madhya Pradesh state government on 23 May 2011 decided to form separate agriculture cabinet. Who is the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh? a) Shivraj Singh Chauhan b) Shivendra Singh Chauhan c) Dorjee Khandu d) Prithvi Raj Chauhan Answer: (a) Shivraj Singh Chauhan 23. The Union government of India rejected the Karnataka Governor HR Bhardwaj's recommendation to impose President's rule in the state. Under which article of the Constitution of India, the President's role is imposed upon any Indian state? a) Article 356 b) Article 370 c) Article 56 d) Article 60 Answer: (a) Article 356 24. The Union Cabinet of India on 19 May 2011 gave approval for conducting the BPL (Below Poverty Line) census in rural and urban areas. Consider the following statements on BPL census. i) The BPL census would be conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development in association with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation and the Registrar General of India. ii) The results of the BPL Census would be utilised in the 13th Five year Plan. Choose the right option. a) Both i and ii are correct. b) Only i is correct. c) Only ii is correct. d) Neither i nor ii is correct. Answer: (b) Only i is correct. The results of the BPL Census would be utilised in 12th Five year plan. 25. Which Private sector lender appointed Abraham Chacko who has had experience of working with leading multinational banks in India as its executive director? a. Federal Bank b. ICICI Bank c. ABN Amro d. HSBC Bank Answer: (a) 26. One of India's largest private sector Bank on 23 May 2011 launched an innovative money management tool, My Money Card. Name the bank? a. ICICI Bank b. HDFC Bank c. Axis Bank

d. ING Vysya Bank Answer: (c) 27. Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd's (BHEL) Bangalore-based Industrial Systems Group (ISG) in May 2011 bagged Rs 39.10 crore orders from which of the following a. RIL b. Tata Powers c. Birla Group d. Coal India Answer: (c) 28. French carmaker Renault in May 2011 re-entered the Indian market with the launch of a premium sedan. Name the sedan. a. Fluence b. Mgane c. Espace d. Vel Satis Answer: (a) 29. Which organisation outdid old rival Microsoft Corp in 2011 in market value for the first time since April 1996 thereby making Microsoft the third-largest U.S. tech company by market value? a. Apple b. IBM c. Hewlett-Packard (HP) d. Dell Answer: (b) 30. Which company unveiled the latest version of its mobile phone software, which is an update of Mango on 24 May 2011? a. Microsoft b. Google c. Apple d. HTC Answer: (a) 31. Hinduja Group flagship company Ashok Leyland has bagged a $23.3 million order for supply of 290 fully-built double decker buses to Road Transport Corporation of which of the following countries? a. Bangladesh b. Afghanistan c. Malaysia d. Nepal Answer: (a) 32. Name the founder of BPO firm Genpact in 1997 who decided to step down as president and CEO of the firm. a. Pramod Bhasin b. N V Tyagarajan

c. Jack Welch d. Bob Pryor Answer: (a) 33. Which bank posted a 99 per cent drop in net profit at Rs 21 crore for the fourth quarter ended 31 March 2011 against Rs 1867 crore during the corresponding period in 2010? a. Indian Overseas Bank b. State Bank of India c. Bank of India d. United Bank of India Answer: (b) 34. Which of the following telecom companies reported an operating profit for the first time since its operations in India at Rs 110 crore (15 million) for the year ended 31 March 2011? a. Bharti Airtel b. Uninor c. Vodafone Essar d. Idea Cellular Answer: (c) 35. India's largest private sector firm, approached the Securities and Exchange Board of India for the third time, seeking an out-of-court settlement to charges of insider trading. Name the firm. a. Reliance Industries b. Tata Consultancy Svcs c. DLF Limited d. ITC Answer: (a) 36. Who did global payments processing company MasterCard appoint as the General Manager, South Asia and Country President, India? a. T. V. Seshadri b. Vicky Bindra c. Tunde Lemo d. Ajay Banga Answer: (a) 37. For the first time in history the most valuable PSU of India registered a zero percent production growth in 2010-11.Name the PSU. a. Coal India b. ONGC c. Indian Oil d. Hindusthan Petroleum Answer: (a) 38. Which port in India bagged the Old is Gold award of Kirloskar Brother Ltd (KBL), Pune, for the oldest Kirloskar Industrial Pump in working condition in India? a. Kandla Port Trust

b. Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust c. New Mangalore Port Trust d. Cochin Port Trust Answer: (d) 39. Which of the following bodies tightened the norms for foreign exchange risk cover in India mentioning that only companies with a networth of Rs 200 crore can use derivatives to hedge against risk of volatility in currency rates? a. IMF b. Reserve Bank of India c. SEBI d. Union Ministry of Finance Answer: (b) 40. Which body in India finally provided tax exemption on the 9.5 per cent interest income on PF deposits for 2010-11? a. Reserve Bank of India b. Income Tax Department c. Employees' Provident Fund Organisation d. Corporate Affairs Ministry Answer: (b) 41. By what rate did the state oil companies hike petrol price immediately after election results wer e declared in five Indian states in May 2011? a. Rs 5 b. Rs 5.25 c. Rs 5.50 d. Rs 5.75 Answer: (a) 42. Who is the Asian Games bronze medallist who put up an impressive show at the 54th Malaysia open swimming championship by bagging eight medals, including three gold medals? a. Virdhawal Khade b. Sandeep Sejwal c. Aaron D'Souza d. Rehan Poncha Answer: (a) 43. Which type of economy does India have? (A) Socialist (B) Gandhian (C) Mixed (D) Free Answer: C 44. When was 'Speed Post Service' launched by the Indian Postal Department as competition to the 'Courier Service'? (A) 1988

(B) 1987 (C) 1989 (D) 1986 Answer: D 45. Where did Mahatma Buddha's 'Mahaparinirvan' take place? (A) Lumbini (B) Bodh Gaya (C) Kushinara (D) Kapilavastu Answer: C 46. At which place did Mahatma Buddha give his first 'Dharmachakrapravartan '? (A) Lumbini (B) Sarnath (C) Pataliputra (D) Vaishali Answer: B 47. We witnessed the first telephones in India in which year? (A) 1951 (B) 1981 (C) 1851 (D) 1861 Answer: D 48. Swuro siblings, Thupovoyi and Chekrovolu made the Indian recurve squad for the Archery World Cup stage II to scheduled to be held in from 6-11 June 2011 in which of the following places? a. Antalya (Turkey) b. New Delhi (India) c. Sparta (Greece) d. Strasbourg (France) Answer: (a) 49. Women team of which Indian state defeated three-time champions Bengal 5-0 to clinch their maiden title in the 19th edition of the Senior National women's football championship at Pant Stadium on 18 May 2011? a. Orissa b. Jharkhand c. Chhattisgarh d. Punjab Answer: (a) 50. Which team defeated Karnataka XI 4-3 in the quarterfinal match of the Aga Khan hockey tournament 2011 at the Bombay Gymkhana ground on 17 May 2011? a. Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) b. Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala c. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited

d. South Central Railway Answer: (a) 51. According to the SportsPro magazine, which Indian cricketer pipped the likes of tennis superstar Rafael Nadal and iconic basketball player Kobe Bryant to be among 10 most marketable sportspersons in the world? a. Mahendra Singh Dhoni b. Sachin Tendulkar c. Yuvraj Singh d. Virat Kohli Answer: (a) 52. British-born Sierra Leonean novelist Aminatta Forna on 21 May 2011 won the 2011 Commonwealth Writers' Prize for her which of the following novels? a. The Devil that Danced on the Water b. Ancestor Stones c. The Memory of Love d. A Man Melting Answer: (c) 53. The Grimsvotn volcano erupted on 21 May 2011. The eruption was considered to be stronger than its last outbreak in 2004. Where is the volcano located? a. Iceland b. Ireland c. England d. Netherland Answer: (a) 54. Match the following Personalities Awards Won A. Aminatta Forna 1. Man Booker Prize 2011 B. Philip Roth 2. Commonwealth Writer's Prize C. K. Balachander 3. Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding for D. Angela Merkel 4. Dadasaheb Phalke Award Code ABCD a. 2 1 4 3 b. 4 1 2 3 c. 2 3 1 4 d. 3 1 4 2 Answer: (a) 55. Philip Roth was announced as the winner of the fourth Man Booker International Prize at a press conference at the Sydney Opera House on 18 May 2011. He gained fame with the 1959 novella Goodbye, Columbus, an irreverent and humorous portrait of JewishAmerican life. Which prestigious literary award did Goodbye fetch him? a. Pulitzer Prize b. United Kingdom's WH Smith Literary Award

c. National Book Award d. PEN/Faulkner Award Answer: (c) 56. Union Environment and Forest Minister Jairam Ramesh on 24 may 2011 launched a conservation programme for a particular animal that was declared National Heritage Animal of the country in 2010 on lines of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. Name the animal. a. Elephant b. Indian Rhinoceros c. White-necked deer d. Black buck Answer: (a) 57. Professor Subhasis Chaudhuri of Indian Institute of Technology-Mumbai was on 26 May 2011 selected for which prestigious award for his important contributions in the area of electronic communications? a. G. D. Birla Award for Scientific Research b. NAS Award for Scientific Reviewing c. National Academy of Engineering the Charles Stark Draper Prize d. National Medal of Technology Answer: (a) 58. Second Africa-India forum summit was held from 24 to 25 May 2011 at Addis Ababa. Addis Ababa is the capital of which one of the following countries? a) Ethiopia b) Kenya c) South Africa d) Sudan Answer: (a) Ethiopia 59. What was the theme of second Africa-India summit held at Addis Ababa from 24 to 25 May 2011? a) Enhancing Partnership: Shared Vision b) Increasing Partnership: Shared Vision c) Common Goal: Shared vision d) Common Goal: One vision Answer: (a) Enhancing Partnership: Shared Vision 60. India and World Bank signed an agreement of __ million dollars for Rajasthan rural livelihoods project. a) 142.7 million dollars agreement b) 162.7 million dollars agreement c) 156.3 million dollars agreement d) 189.4 million dollars agreement Answer: (b) 162.7 million dollars agreement 61. Which discus record holder continued his good form for the season with a gold-winning effort of 63.51 metres at the Elite Throwers Classic at Tuczon, Arizona, US, on 19 May

2011? a. Jason Young b. Lance Brooks c. Vikas Gowda d. Bidar Ritumbara Answer: (c) 62. TISCO plant is located near (A) Patna (B) Darbhanga (C) Dhanbad (D) Tatanagar Answer: D 63. Which States in India are the largest producers of sugarcane? (A) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh (B) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan (C) Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir (D) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh Answer: A 64. Who won the Spanish Grand Prix on 22 May 2011 marking his 13th career win? a. Lewis Hamilton b. Mark Webber c. Sebastian Vettel d. Jenson Button Answer: (c) 65. Name the golfer who snatched the Malaysian Amateur Open Golf Championship on 22 May 2011. a. Chieh Po Lee b. Daniel Bringolf c. Abhijit Chadha d. Lam Zhiqun Answer: (b) 66. The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) on 24 May 2011 gave the go-ahead to host which of the following games in 2012? a. FAI World Air Games b. SAF Games c. Summer Olympics d. Asian Games Answer: (b) 67. Which team becomes champion in the IPL season 4? a. Mumbai Indians b. Kolkata Knight Riders c. Chennai Super Kings d. Royal Challengers Bangalore

Answer: (c) 68. With which one of the following has the B.K. Chaturvedi Committee dealt? (a) Review of Centres-States relations (b) Review of Delimitation Act (c) Tax reforms and measures to increase revenues (d) Price-reforms in the oil sector Answer (D) 69. The Third Buddhist Council was convented at (A) Takshashila (B) Sarnath (C) Bodh Gaya (D) Pataliputra Answer: D 70. India's first grid-connected Photovoltaic Solar power plant of 2MW has been established in(a). Burwah district of W.Bengal (b). Bharuch district of Gujrat (c). Tanjavan district of Tamilnadu (d). Nellore district of Andhra Predesh Ans: (a) 70. Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit for individual tax payers from 1 lakh 60 to _? a. 1 lakh 80 thousand b. 1 lakh 90 thousand c. 2 lakh d. 2 lakh 20 thousand Ans: (a) 71. Noted Social worker Anna Hazare on 5 April 2011 started his hunger strike at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption? a. Lokpal Bill b. The Competition (Amendment) Bill c. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill d. The Appropriation (No.3 ) Bill Ans: (a) 72. Who is the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)? a. AP Singh b. Arun Shourie c. Sanjeev Tripathi d. BK Gupta Ans: (c) 73. According to an extensive genetic study on modern humans, two conclusions were drawn out.

i) There is an enormous amount of diversity in the African hunter-gatherer populations. ii) The genetic diversity among 27 present-day African populations originated in southern Africa and progressed to northern Africa. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. Both i and ii b. Neither I and ii c. Only i d. Only ii Ans: (a) 74. Which one of the following Indian states recently released a Braille version of the RTI (Right to Information) Act and its rules for the benefit of visually challenged? a. Gujarat b. Bihar c. Haryana d. Madhya Pradesh Ans: (a) 75. Roger Federer won his fourth Australian Open Tennis Championship and 16th Grand Slam on 31 Jan 2010. Who did he defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2010? a. Rafael Nadal b. Andy Murray c. Fred Perry d. Rod Laver Ans: (b) 76. Which of the following Bollywood Actress won the Best Actress trophy at the 13th London Asian Film Festival for her performance in Onir's I AM? a. Nandita Das b. Juhi Chawla c. Tabu d. Konkona Sen Sharma Ans: (b) 77. Which of the following bodies put off indefinitely the new rules governing unwanted telemarketing calls which were supposed to be implemented from 21 March 2011? a. Department of Telecommunication (DoT) b. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) c. Indian Ministry of communication & Technology d. HRD Ministry Ans: (b) 78. The Indian government in March 2011 conferred the Miniratna status on which of the following PSUs? a. National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC) b. Air India Charters Ltd c. Cement Corporation of India

d. HMT Machine Tools Ltd Ans: (a) 79. Mahamastakabhisheka, a great religious event, is associated with and done for who of the following? (a) Bahubali (b) Buddha (c) Mahavir (d) Nataraja Answer (a) 80. Consider the following pairs: Festival Tradition State 1. Gatka a traditional marital art : Kerala 2. Madhubani, a traditional painting : Bihar 3. Singhwy Khababs Sindhu Darshan : Jammu and Kashmir 81. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (c) 82. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II (Famous Person) (Well-Known as) A. Anna Hazare 1. Lawyer B. Deepak Parekh 2. Banker C. GVK Reddy 3. Gandhian and Social activist D. Harish Salve 4. Industrialist Code: ABCD (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 Answer (c) 83. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II (Famous Person) (Well-Known as) A. Amrita Sher-Gil 1. Dancer B. Bhimsen Joshi 2. Painter C. Rukmini Devi Arundale 3. Poet D. Suryakant Tripathi Nirala 4. Singer

Code: ABCD (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2 Answer (b) 84. With reference to the scheme launched by the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana 2. Ministry of Textiles launched the Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojana Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (B) 85. Consider the following pairs: Persons Sports 1. Anand Pawar : Chess 2. Akhil Kumar : Boxing 3. Shiv Shanker : Gold Prasad Chowrasia (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (B) 86.. What is GBP108 mfund ? (a). Britain and Norway created and fund to help save the world's second largest rainforest of central Africa's Corgo basin. (b). it will use satellite imaging technology. (c). this fund curb the destruction of forest by providing alternative sources of income or energy. (d). All of the above. Ans: (d) 87. Which of the following chemicals present in the brain plays key role in regulating emotions such as aggression ? (a). Acetylcholine (b). Histamine (c). Serotonin (d). Vasopressin Ans: (c)

88. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II (Book) (Author)) A. In custody 1. Amartya Sen B. Sea of Poppies 2. Amitav Ghosh C. The Argumentative Indian 3. Anita Desais D. Unaccustomed Earth 4. Jhumpa Lahiri Code: ABCD (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4 Answer (C) 89. Among the following, who are the Agaria community? (a) A traditional toddy tappers community (b) A traditional fishing community of Maharashtra (c) A traditional silk-weaving community of Karnataka (d) A traditional salt pan workers community of Gujarat. Answer (a) 90. Recently, which one of the following was included in the UNESCO's World Heritage list? (a) Dilwara Temple (b) Kalka-Shimla Railway (c) Bhiterkanika Mangrove Area (d) Vishkhapatnam to Araku valley railway line Answer (b) 91. In which country is 'Takla Makan' desert situated? (a) Kazakhstan (b) Turkmenistan (c) Uzbekistan (d) China Answer: d 92. Which of the following is not a capital city? (a) Canberra (b) Sydney (c) Wellington (d) Riyadh Answer: b 93. The highest coal-producing country in the world is (a) India (b) USA (c) China

(d) Russia Answer: c 94. Folding is the result of (a) epeirogenetic force (b) Coriolis force (c) orogenetic force (d) exogenetic force Answer: c 95. Amritsar and Shimla are almost on the same latitude, but their climate difference is due to (a) the difference in their altitudes (b) their distance from sea (c) snowfall in Shimla (d) pollution in Amritsar Answer: a 96. Coal mines in Jharkhand are located at (A) Jharia (B) Jamshedpur (C) Ranchi (D) Lohardaga Answer: A 97. Production of which of the following was over achieves in 2006-07 ? (a). Sugarcane (b). Oilseeds (c). Rice (d). Jute and Marta Ans: (a) 98. According to planning commission of india, except which one of the following factors, that contribute to agriculture growth, there has been declearation in the growth of all other factores(a). Gross irrigated area (b). Jerms of trade (c). Area under fruits and vegetables (d). Credit supply Ans: (d) 99. Which one of the following states is the largest sugar production(a). Maharastra (b). Uttar Pradesh (c). Punjab (d). Haryana Ans: (b) 100. The large States of India in the order of area are (A) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra

(B) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra (C) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan Answer: A 101. Bihar is the -- largest State of India according to Census 2001. (A) second (B) third (C) fourth (D) fifth Answer: B 102. The Union Cabinet, on August 2010, decided to form institutes like the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in which six States? (A) Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand (B) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Kerala, Gujarat (C) Bihar, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra (D) Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Assam Answer: A 103. Which was reported the richest party according to the 'National Election Watch' on August 2010? (A) BSP (B) BJP (C) Socialist Party (D) Congress Answer: D 104. The highest wheat-producing State of India is (A) Haryana (B) Punjab (C) Bihar (D) Uttar Pradesh Answer: D 105. Which of the following States has the largest number of people belonging to Scheduled Caste? (A) Bihar (B) West Bengal (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punja Answer: C 106. According to 2001 Census, what is the total population of Bihar? (A) 82998509 (B) 76210007 (C) 96878627 (D) 80176197 Answer: A

107. The East Central Railway zone headquarters is located at (A) Patna (B) Hajipur (C) M uzaffarpur (D) Katihar Answer: B 108. Where is Industries Commissioner Office of Bihar situated? (A) Patna (B) Gaya (C) Hajipur (D) Muzaffarpur Answer: A 109. North Bihar is famous for (A) agricultural prosperity (B) heavy industries (C) flood (D) famine Answer: C 110. Which one is not located on National Highway-2 (NH-2)? (A) Aurangabad (B) Sasaram (C) Mohania (D) Patna Answer: D 111. Congress passed the 'Swaraj' resolution in the year 1905. The purpose of the resolution was (A) right to make a constitution for themselves but it was not done (B) to secure self-rule (C) responsible government (D) self-government Answer: B 112. The Provincial were constituted Act of Governments under the (A) 1935 (B) 1932 (C) 1936 (D) 1947 Answer: A 113. The Indian comprises of Constitution (A) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules (B) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules (C) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules (D) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules Answer: A

114. State annual Plan for Maharashtra was finalised at during the meeting between Planning Commission Deputy Chairman Montek Singh Ahluwalia and Maharshtra Chief Minister Prithviaraj Chavan. a) 42000 crore rupees b) 43000 crore rupees c) 41000 crore rupees d) 44000 crore rupees Answer: (a) 42000 crore rupees 115. Which one of the following parties won the state assembly elections in West Bengal? a) Trinamool Congress b) Congress c) CPI (M) d) BJP Answer: (a) Trinamool Congress 116. The Rajya Sabha consists of (A) 280 members of which 20 members are nominated by the President of India (B) 275 members of which 18 members are nominated by the President of India (C) 250 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India (D) 252 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India Answer: C 117. January 26 was selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution, because (A) the Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930 (B) on that day the Quit India Movement was started in 1942 (C) it was considered to be an auspicious day (D) None of the above Answer: A 118. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to (A) the Comptroller and Auditor General (B) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (C) the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs (D) the President of India Answer: B 119. Of the following statements, which one is not correct? (A) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in money matter (B) Money Bills originate in the Rajya Sabha (C) The Rajya Sabha has to pass Bills within 14 days after they are passed by the Lok Sabha (D) The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the Money Bill with some recommendations to the Lok Sabha Answer: B 120. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens? (A) Right to constitutional remedies

(B) Freedom to speech (C) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country (D) Freedom to acquire property Answer: A 121. Who is the head of the National Defence Committee? (A) Home Minister (B) Prime Minister (C) President (D) Vice-President Ans. B 122. 'National Emergency' may be declared by the President of India in line with (A) Article 352 (B) Article 370 (C) Article 371 (D) Article 395 Answer: C 123. Of the following statements, which one is not correct? (A) Supreme Court was constituted in 1950 (B) Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the country (C) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/Tribunals except from Court-martial (D) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/ Tribunals as well as from Court-martial Answer: D 124. Who is the constitutional head of the State Governments? (A) Chief Minister (B) Governor (C) Speaker (D) High Court Judge Answer: B 125. Commercial sources of energy purely consist of (A) power, coal, oil, gas, hydro-electricity and uranium (B) coal, oil, firewood, vegetable waste and agricultural waste (C) power, coal, animal dung and firewood (D) coal, gas, oil and firewood Answer: A 126. In India, per capita consumption of energy in 1994 was (A) 300 kg of oil equivalent (B) 360 kg of oil equivalent (C) 243 kg of oil equivalent (D) 343 kg of oil equivalent Answer: A 127. When did the first oil crisis/ energy crisis occur in India? (A) During 1950's and 1960's (B) During 1930's and 1940's

(C) During 1990's and 2000's (D) During 1970's and 1980's Answer: D 128. Consider the following reasons for financial sickness of State Electricity Boards (SEBs) in India: I. Sale of power to agricultural and domestic consumers below the cost of production II. Transmission and distribution losses are very high III. Lack of commercial autonomy for SEBs IV. State Governments have implemented social subsidy policies through SEBs Which of the above are correct? (A) I, II and III (B) I, II, III and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) II, III and IV 129. Consider the following problems being faced by the Indian Coal Industry : I. Poor quali ty of coal and bottlenecks m the coal movement II. Low utilisation capacity of washeries III. Growing dependence on the import of coking coal IV. Administered prices Which of the above are correct? (A) II, III and IV (B) I, II, III and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) I, II and III Answer: B 130. Name the committee which was set up by the NDC in 1957 for the reorganisation of CDP and NES, which suggested a three tier system of rural local government (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (B) Ashok Mehta Committee (C) Maharashtra Committee on Democratic Decentralisation (D) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee Answer: A 131. Ashok Mehta recommended (A) three-tier government of Panchayati Raj Committee (B) two-tier government of Panchayati Raj (C) single-tier government of Panchayati Raj (D) multiple-tier government of Panchayati Raj Answer: B 132. Consider the following about the 'Rolling Plan': I. A plan for the current year which includes the annual budget II. A plan for a fixed number of years, say 3, 4 or 5 III. It is revised every year as per requirements of the economy IV. A perspective plan for 10, 15 or 20 years

Which of the above are correct? (a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) I, II, III and IV Answer: B 133. In which year was the 'Planning Commission' set up in India? (A) 1950 (B) 1947 (C) 1948 (D) 1951 Answer: A 134. Patna International Airport is directly connected with (A) Kathmandu (Nepal), New Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Lucknow, Varanasi and Ranchi (B) Bengaluru, Hyderabad and Dhaka (C) Islamabad, Dhaka and Bengaluru (D) Washington, Dhaka and Chennai Answer: A 135. In Bihar, air services are provided by (A) only Indian Airlines (B) only Sahara Airlines (C) only Royal Nepal Airlines (D) Indian Airlines, Sahara Airlines and Royal Nepal Airlines Answer: D 136. In Bihar, though 'Zamindari' was statutorily abolished In 1952, the social base of land control remained in the grip of (A) Middle Caste Hindus (B) Scheduled Caste Hindus (C) Dominant Caste Hindus (D) Scheduled Tribe Hindus Answer: C 137. "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it." Who said? (A) M. K. Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (D) Bhagat Singh Answer: C 138. The Madras Mahajan Sabha was established in the year (A) 1880 (B) 1881 (C) 1882 (D) 1883 Answer: D

139. How many representatives took part in the First Session of the Indian National Congress? (A) 52 (B) 62 (C) 72 (D) 82 Answer: C 140. The first Indian Governor General of Independent India was (A) Raja Gopalachari (B) Surinder Nath (C) Rajendra Prasad (D) B. R. Ambedkar Answer: A 141. When was the National Council of Education established? (a) 15th August, 1903 (b) 15th August, 1904 (c) 15th August, 1905 (d) 15th August, 1906 Answer: d 142. The Non-Cooperation Movement was started in (a) 1918 (b) 1920 (c) 1921 (d) 1922 Answer: b 143. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of (a) the Indian Independence Act, 1947 (b) the Indian Councils Act, 1909 (c) the Government of India Act, 1919 (d) the Government of India Act, 1935 Answer: c 144. Who is popularly known as 'Sher-e-Punjab,? (a) Rajguru (b) Bhagat Singh (c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Udham Singh Answer: c 145. Gandhi-Irwin Pact took place in (a) 1930 (b) 1931 (c) 1932 (d) 1933 Answer: b

146. Which Round Table Conference held in 1932? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth Answer: c 147. Who is associated with 'Abhinav Bharat'? (a) V. D. Savarkar (b) C. R. Das (c) B. G. Tilak (d) S. C. Bose Answer: a 148. 'Do or Die' is associated with the following movement (a) Dandi (b) Non-Cooperation (c) Khilafat (d) Quit India Answer:d 149. With whose efforts was Second Bihar Provincial Congress Session held? (a) G. K. Gokhale (b) Shri Deepnarayan Singh (c) Shri Krishna (d) Surendranath Banerjee Answer: b 150. The 16th Session of Bihari Students' Conference at Hazaribag took place in (a) 1921 (b) 1922 (c) 1923 (d) 1924 Answer: a

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