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1) What is the term used when the lubricant film is microscopically thin? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: Film lubrication. B: Minimal lubrication. C: Boundary lubrication. D: Layer lubrication. 2) In the sketch ENG154, which of the curves represents isothermal compression? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: A B: B C: C D: D 3) In the sketch ENG154, which of the curves represents polytropic compression? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: A B: B C: C D: D 4) The centrifugal force applied to a rotating body is given by the equation Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: mass multiplied by the velocity cubed divided by radius. B: mass multiplied by the radius divided by velocity squared. C: radius multiplied by the velocity squared divided by mass. D: mass multiplied by the velocity squared divided by radius. 5) In an internal combustion engine, the thermal efficiency is given by the expression Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: heat supplied/heat losses. B: heat turned into work/heat supplied. C: heat supplied/heat turned into work. D: required to change from solid to gas. 6) A pressure supports a 250mm column of water in a water manometer. What pressure does this represent in kN/square metre? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 244.3 N/square metre. B: 245.3 kN/square metre. C: 246.1 kN/square metre. D: 242.2 kN/square metre.
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7) A 100mm shaft runs at 500rpm, the total load on the bearings is 25kN, coefficient of friction is 0.04. Calculate the work lost to friction every second. Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 2,618J B: 1.57kJ C: 26.18kJ D: 4,526J 8) The lengths of a vertical upright, jib and tie of a crane are 8, 13 and 9 metres respectively find the force in the jib when a load of 20kN is suspended from the crane. Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 32.5kN B: 22.5kN C: 28.9kN D: 14.6kN

9) 3.5 cubic metres of gas at 18C is heated at constant pressure to 200C. What is the final volume? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 5.75 cubic metres. B: 5.69 cubic metres. C: 4.95 cubic metres. D: 5.93 cubic metres. 10) When a sliding body is being pulled up an incline by a horizontal force, the force resisting motion is expressed as Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: weight of body multiplied by the sin(incline angle + reaction angle). B: weight of body multiplied by the cos(incline angle + reaction angle). C: weight of body multiplied by the tan(incline angle + reaction angle). D: vertical component of the weight. 11) The product of head and force of gravity of a liquid is the liquid's Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: kinetic energy. B: potential energy. C: pressure energy. D: volume energy. 12) A block of wood is pulled along a horizontal surface by a force of 25N @ 20 above the horizontal. What is the horizontal component of the force? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 9.88N B: 8.55N C: 23.49N D: 22.73N
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13) The method of lettering space and vector diagrams is called Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: Bell's notation. B: Force notation. C: Consecutive letter notation. D: Bow's notation. 14) On a cylindrical pressure vessel with dished ends, the stress on the circumferential is calculated by Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: multiplying pressure by the total area of the ends. B: multiplying pressure by half the total area of the ends. C: multiplying pressure by the projected area of the ends. D: multiplying pressure by half the projected area of the ends. 15) A vertical downward force of 17N is applied to a body and a horizontal force of 20N. What is the magnitude and direction of the resultant of these two forces? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 32N @ 40 22' to the horizontal. B: 32N @ 50 38' to the horizontal. C: 26.25N @ 40 22' to the horizontal. D: 27.55N @ 40 22' to the horizontal. 16) When a sliding body is being pulled up an inclined plane, the force required to overcome friction is Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: more than on a level surface.

B: the same as on a level surface. C: small enough to be ignored. D: less than on a level surface. 17) Find the volume of air at 1.5 bar required to compress to 2 cubic metres at 40 bar with no increase in temperature. Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 40 cubic metres. B: 46.3 cubic metres. C: 53.33 cubic metres. D: 56.66 cubic metres. 18) A body being rotated around a fixed point with circular motion at constant velocity is considered to be subject to Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: centripetal velocity. B: centripetal acceleration. C: centrifugal acceleration. D: centrifugal velocity.
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19) 2.3 cubic metres of air at 1 bar is compressed to 0.57 cubic metres at constant temperature. What is the final volume? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 4.12 cubic metres. B: 4.07 cubic metres. C: 4.14 cubic metres. D: 4.04 cubic metres. 20) The expression P1xV1/T1=P2xV2/T2 is attributable to Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: Boyle's Law. B: Charles' Law. C: Combined Gas Laws. D: Dalton's Law. 21) If an evaporator is operated at less than 0.1 bar, at approximately what temperature would the water boil? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 100C B: 80C C: 60C D: 30C 22) A bar 300mm long carries loads of 40, 30, 20 and 50N at distances of 70, 120, 200 and 240mm respectively from the left end. Neglect the weight of the bar and find the position of a single balancing support. Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 145mm from the left. B: 140mm from the left. C: 160mm from the left. D: 155mm from the left. 23) With a simple pendulum, at what point is the body receiving maximum acceleration? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: At mid travel. B: At the end of its travel. C: Approaching mid travel.

D: Leaving the end of its travel. 24) With reference to harmonic motion, the "periodic time" is the time taken to Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: move from the centre of travel to the end of travel. B: move from one end of travel to the other. C: move from one end of travel and return. D: move from the centre of travel and return.
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25) What must be taken into account when calculating the liquid flow through an orifice? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: Coefficient of volume. B: Coefficient of area. C: Coefficient of discharge. D: All of these must be taken into account. 26) Which of the following can be performed using Archimede's Principle? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: Determine the Centre of Gravity of a submerged body. B: Determine the volume of an irregular shaped body. C: Determine the centre of flotation of a semi submerged body. D: Determine the relative density of a semi submerged body. 27) A diesel engine uses 800kg of fuel per hour of calorific value 42MJ/kg. If 35% of this heat is converted into useful work, find the shaft power. Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 3,345kW B: 3,267kW C: 2,760kW D: 2,913kW 28) On a Michell main thrust bearing, how is the oil film allowed to form? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: By allowing the pads to pivot. B: By the radial grooves in the thrust collar. C: By allowing adequate axial clearance. D: By tapering the contact surface of the pads. 29) In a set of rope blocks with 3 pulleys in the top and 2 in the bottom, it takes 300N to lift a load of 1.26kN. Find the velocity ratio and mechanical advantage. Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 6 & 4.1 B: 5 & 4.4 C: 6 & 4.6 D: 5 & 4.2 30) A body with an initial velocity of 10m/sec is given uniform acceleration of 2m/sec/sec for 6 seconds. What is the velocity after 6 seconds? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 16m/second. B: 22m/second. C: 52m/second. D: 18m/second.
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31) A steel tie bar,of tensile strength 462MN/square metre carries a tensile load of 11.12kN. Find its diameter allowing a factor of safety of 12. Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 16.7mm B: 21.3mm C: 19.17mm D: 19.97mm 32) A gas at 15C and 1 bar is heated at constant volume to 200C. What is the final gas pressure? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 1.64 bar. B: 1.51 bar. C: 1.57 bar. D: 1.62 bar. 33) What percentage of oxygen is present in the atmosphere? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 20% B: 23% C: 25% D: 19% 34) What factor is the most important in establishing an oil film in a bearing? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: The loading of the bearing. B: The supply pressure of the lubricant. C: The rotational speed of the shaft. D: The bearing material. 35) When applying gas laws, the gas pressure is taken as Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: gauge pressure. B: gauge pressure plus atmospheric pressure. C: gauge pressure minus atmospheric pressure. D: the difference between gas and atmospheric pressures. 36) On a crosshead type diesel engine, where would film lubrication be most difficult to establish? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: Bottom end bearing. B: Crosshead bearing. C: Crosshead guide shoes. D: Main journal bearing.
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37) When a sliding body is being pulled up an incline, the force required to overcome friction is given by Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: weight of body multiplied by the sin of incline angle. B: weight of body multiplied by the cos of incline angle. C: horizontal component of the weight.. D: vertical component of the weight. 38) The pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is known as Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: Boyle's Law. B: Charles' Law. C: Combined Gas Laws. D: Dalton's Law.

39) A ship's propeller is stopped when travelling at 25 knots and the ship travels 4km before stopping. What is the average retardation? (1knot = 1.852km.) Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 0.2066m/sec/sec. B: 0.1116m/sec/sec. C: 0.02066m/sec/sec. D: 0.01116m/sec/sec. 40) Using Bernouilli's equation, what is the formula for determining liquid velocity through an orifice? Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer & Mechanics A: 1/2mv2 = mg x h B: mv2 = mg x h/2 C: mv = mg x 2h D: v = 2gh 41) What is the usual method of testing for good combustion? Properties of Fuels & Lubricants A: Percentage Carbon Monoxide in the flue gas. B: Percentage Nitrogen in the flue gas. C: Percentage Carbon Dioxide in the flue gas. D: Percentage Oxygen in the flue gas. 42) What percentage sulphur would be an approximate average value for a modern marine diesel fuel oil? Properties of Fuels & Lubricants A: Less than 0.5%. B: Between 0.5 and 1.0%. C: Between 1 and 1.5%. D: Between 1.5 and 2.5%.
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43) Where are the relative positions of the oil and water outlets in a purifier? Properties of Fuels & Lubricants A: Water on the inside and oil on the outside. B: Oil on the inside and water on the outside. C: Oil at the top and water by the bottom. D: Water at the top and oil on the bottom. 44) Lubricating oils for marine use are normally slightly alkaline, to protect against... Properties of Fuels & Lubricants A: foaming or frothing. B: fuel contamination. C: oxidation. D: water contamination. 45) For a slow speed diesel engine the minimum Cetane Number would be Properties of Fuels & Lubricants A: 10 B: 15 C: 25 D: 35 46) When a lubricating oil has a high viscosity index number, its change in viscosity after a temperature change is... Properties of Fuels & Lubricants A: small. B: large.

C: moderate. D: positive. 47) What is a lubricating oil additive which coats wax crystals as they form at low temperatures, thereby preventing the formation of larger crystals? Properties of Fuels & Lubricants A: A viscosity index improver. B: A dispersant. C: A pour point depressant. D: A detergent. 48) Fuel oil consists mainly of carbon, hydrogen and sulphur. Which of these constituents burn? Properties of Fuels & Lubricants A: Only the carbon and hydrogen burn. B: Only the carbon burns. C: All three burn. D: Only the carbon and sulphur burn.
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49) If the main engine lubricating oil analysis laboratory report indicated serious fuel dilution, what action would you take after repairing the leak? Properties of Fuels & Lubricants A: Increase the purification. B: Pump the oil to the renovating tank, heat and purify. C: Renew the entire lubricating oil charge. D: Dump half the charge and add new oil. 50) If a fuel specification showed the viscosity of Redwood No. 1, to be 1200 seconds at 38C, what fuel would this be? Properties of Fuels & Lubricants A: Kerosine. B: diesel. C: Blended. D: Residual.
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1) From those listed, what is the most useful property possessed by "Monel Metal"? Technology of Materials A: Retains its strength at high temperatures. B: Is resistant to corrosion from sea water. C: Is resistant to wear and errosion. D: It possesses all of these properties. 2) The process where iron and steel return to their basic oxides is more commonly known as Technology of Materials A: refining. B: sintering. C: corroding. D: reducing. 3) Cupro-nickel is a very useful copper alloy, its most important property being Technology of Materials A: resistance to abrasion. B: electrical conductivity.

C: low coefficient of friction. D: resistance to corrosion. 4) Heat exchanger tubes are sometimes fitted with inserts at their ends to protect from erosion. These inserts are made of Technology of Materials A: stainless steel. B: nylon. C: gunmetal. D: polyester. 5) Which of the following components might employ the process of case hardening? Technology of Materials A: Diesel engine piston connecting rod. B: Diesel engine piston gudgeon pin. C: Diesel engine exhaust valves. D: Diesel engine camshaft drive gears.F64 6) Which of the following is most suitable for use in die casting? Technology of Materials A: Aluminium/zinc alloys. B: Steel alloys. C: Copper/tin alloys. D: Copper/zinc alloys.
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7) Which of the elements listed would you expect to be present in basic iron? Technology of Materials A: Carbon alumina silicon sulphur B: Carbon phosphorous sulphur silicon C: Phosphorous manganese calcium alumina D: Silicon phosphorous carbon magnesium 8) To what purpose is Gunmetal most suited in marine use? Technology of Materials A: Castings such as valve & pump bodies. B: Condenser tubes and tubeplates. C: Bushes and bearings. D: Heat exchanger elements. 9) Normalising is carried out on steel to refine grain structure. Which other process can achieve this? Technology of Materials A: Hardening. B: Controlled rolling. C: Tempering. D: Annealing. 10) When using a ceramic sealing ring in a sea water pump, what would be the most likely material for the mating surface? Technology of Materials A: Stainless steel. B: Bronze. C: Carbon. D: Hard plastic. 11) In a cathodic protection system the sacrificial anode is most often made of Technology of Materials A: magnesium or zinc. B: aluminium or zinc. C: magnesium or tin.

D: magnesium or aluminium. 12) White metal used in plain bearings has as its major constituent Technology of Materials A: lead. B: tin. C: copper. D: zinc.
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13) Which of the following has the best resistance to sea water corrosion? Technology of Materials A: Mild steel. B: High carbon steel. C: Alloy steel. D: Cast iron. 14) What does the addition of Arsenic contribute to the properties of brass? Technology of Materials A: Provides a hard wearing surface. B: Makes it easier to cast. C: Makes it easier to machine. D: Prevents de-zincification. 15) The most serious type of corrosion caused by galvanic action is Technology of Materials A: crevice corrosion. B: pitting. C: intergranular corrosion. D: stress corrosion. 16) What is the main alloying element in stainless steel? Technology of Materials A: Copper. B: Nickel. C: Cadmium. D: Chromium. 17) Where would the alloy "manganese bronze" be found in marine service? Technology of Materials A: Ships' side valve chests. B: Manufacture of propellers. C: Heavy duty bushes and bearings. D: Pump casings. 18) If a steel component is given a "permanent set" is it safe to use? Technology of Materials A: No, it has passed its elastic limit and will be weakened. B: Yes, but only at very low loadings. C: Yes, its ultimate tensile strength will be unaffected. D: Yes, but only if set during manufacture and heat treated. 19) Which material is difficult to weld due to porosity? Technology of Materials
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A: High carbon steel. B: Low carbon steel. C: Medium carbon steel. D: Cast iron. 20) On a tensile testing machine what would you do before a steel test piece reaches its elastic limit? Technology of Materials

A: Remove the load. B: Remove the dial extensiometer gauge. C: Fix a guard in place. D: Change the extension gauge scale range. 21) Which of the following metals is the most susceptible to impact fracture? Technology of Materials A: Mild steel. B: Cast iron. C: Cast steel. D: Stainless steel. 22) What materials can be specified for main propulsion stern tube bearing linings? Technology of Materials A: White metal, rubber, and brass. B: White metal, brass, and lignum vitae. C: Reinforced plastic, white metal, and bronze. D: Lignum vitae, white metal, and reinforced plastic. 23) What does a material's Brinell number indicate? Technology of Materials A: Strength. B: Hardness. C: Fatigue resistance. D: Ductility. 24) At what temperature would a white metalled bearing be "wiped"? Technology of Materials A: Maximum temperature of 500C. B: Maximum temperature of 400C. C: Maximum temperature of 300C. D: Maximum temperature of 200C. 25) In the marine environment, which of the following metals is most affected by the corrosion process known as "leaching"? Technology of Materials A: Stainless steeel. B: Low carbon steel.
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C: Brass alloys. D: Cast iron. 26) A compression diagram in which the compression and expansion lines do not coincide can be corrected by... Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: advancing the indicator cam. B: retarding the indicator cam. C: altering the indicator cord tension. D: adjusting the indicator cam height. 27) The chloride content of a diesel engine jacket cooling water will be most affected by Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: the amount of chemicals added to the water. B: the quality of the initial and make-up water used. C: the amount of water leakage. D: the operating temperature of the engine. 28) In a fuel pump operating on the jerk pump principle, the duration of fuel injection is adjusted by... Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: altering the fuel rack position.

B: changing the relative position of the camshaft. C: varying the injector spring pressure. D: altering the effective stroke length of the pump. 29) When carrying out an inspection after a scavenge fire, particular attention must be directed to... Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: checking the pistons for leakage. B: cleaning the exhaust manifold. C: resetting the crankcase mist detector. D: checking for distortion of heated components. 30) What is the function of the flyweights in a governor? Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: To produce the necessary speed droop. B: To change the position of the fuel rack. C: To balance the actuating force of the power piston. D: To sense any speed change of the engine. 31) In a fuel injection system operating on the common rail principle, the fuel cam... Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: operates the timing and duration of the injector opening. B: operates the fuel pump and times the operation of the injector. C: operates the fuel pump only. D: controls the admission of fuel to the fuel pump.
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32) Following a change of load on the diesel engine, the jacket water temperature begins and continues to oscillate. The proportional band setting is at 100%. To reduce the oscillation, the proportional band setting on the controller should... Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: not be altered. B: reduced to zero. C: reduced to 60%. D: increased to 140%. 33) Pinching or steady screws are fitted to long tie bolts in order to... Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: assist in removal and assembly. B: prevent fretting corrosion. C: achieve the proper vibration amplitude. D: prevent any vibration in service. 34) What is the first indication of a broken exhaust valve spring on a diesel engine? Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: Low exhaust temperature on the affected unit. B: Smoking exhaust. C: Blow back through the turbo charger. D: High exhaust temperature on the affected unit. 35) A serious scavenge fire may cause jacket water... Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: leakage at the cylinder cover and liner joint face. B: leakage at the lower liner sealing rings. C: leakage from the header tank. D: to cause severe scale deposition. 36) Most diesel engines have a critical range of speed in which running is prohibited. How is this speed range avoided? Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines

A: It must be avoided manually or by the engine design. B: The governor is adjusted to prevent the engine running within that speed. C: Fuel supply is shut off automatically. D: Limit stops are fitted on the fuel pumps. 37) Figure ENG 136 shows an ideal cycle this is known as the... Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: constant volume cycle. B: dual combustion cycle. C: uniform cycle. D: the Otto cycle.
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38) When setting fuel pumps, it is normal to place the main control lever in the FUEL ON position. Before doing so, it is essential that... Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: the air distributor valve should be closed. B: the supercharge pump should be stopped. C: the fuel pump plungers should be lifted. D: the turning gear should be engaged. 39) What is the function of a brake fitted to the intermediate shaft of a geared propulsion system which utilises friction clutches? Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: To prevent wrong way running when manoeuvring. B: To prevent heavy clutch wear. C: To prevent overspeeding of the engine in heavy weather. D: To allow emergency stopping at any time. 40) Why is the constant pressure method of turbo-charging more efficient then the pulse system? Operation & Maintenance of Marine Diesel Engines A: Less casing heat loss occurs. B: The velocity of the exhaust gases throughout the cycle remains relatively constant. C: Operational speed is much higher. D: An auxiliary blower is very often required for starting with the pulse system. 41) What carbon content would you expect to be present in a sample of high carbon steel? Use Hand & Power Tools A: 0 - 0.5% B: 0.5 - 1.5% C: 2 - 3% D: In excess of 3% 42) The centrifugal casting process might be used for the casting of Use Hand & Power Tools A: bearing supports. B: cylinder liners. C: crankshafts. D: pistons. 43) Figure ENG129 shows welded tee joints. What preparation is required for joint number 1? Use Hand & Power Tools A: Single V. B: Double V. C: Double U. D: None. Graphic Description: ENG129
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44) A spindle, machined within the tolerances 75.03/74.98mm (3.001"/2.999"), is to be fitted into a housing which has been bored within the tolerances 75.00/75.02mm (3.000"/3.002"). What fit classification would these tolerances give? Use Hand & Power Tools A: A clearance fit. B: A transition fit. C: An interference fit. D: A force fit. 45) Refer to figure ENG120. A shaft is fitted with a liner as shown in the upper view. Which number identifies a cross section of the shaft and liner viewed in direction x-x? Use Hand & Power Tools A: 3 B: 1 C: 2 D: 4 Graphic Description: ENG120 46) Refer to figure ENG126. A sphere has a slice cut off along "x-x". Which number identifies the resultant view in the direction "x-x"? Use Hand & Power Tools A: 2 B: 3 C: 1 D: 4 Graphic Description: ENG126 47) When bonding together two metal components with epoxy resin, in which sequence should this be carried out? Use Hand & Power Tools A: Clamp together, add activator to epoxy resin, apply to edges and remove surplus. B: Add activator to epoxy resin, clamp together, apply to edges and allow to cure. C: Clean and roughen surfaces, add activator to epoxy resin, apply to surfaces and clamp together. D: Add activator to epoxy resin. Clean and roughen surfaces. Apply to surfaces and clamp together only when tacky. 48) Why must the striking end of a chisel be regularly dressed? Use Hand & Power Tools A: To avoid the hammer face from missing the chisel end. B: To maintain the chisel's temper. C: To prevent steel flakes from breaking off in use. D: To ensure good contact between hammer and chisel. 49) When facing in the centre lathe, what controls the tool feed rate? Operate Machine Tools A: Lead screw.
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B: Cross slide. C: Compound slide. D: Tailstock. 50) What is the advantage of the swan neck design of the shaping machine cutting tool? Operate Machine Tools

A: Provides better cutting angle. B: Easier access to work piece. C: Prevents tool from digging in. D: Increases rake angle.
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1) Electric arc welding is done by Ship Construction A: making a spark between the two poles of the electrode and applying this to the plates. B: creating an electric arc in the welding machine, which reacts chemically with the weld metals. C: making an electric arc jump the gap between the electrode and the plate; the high temperature melts the weld area. D: making an electric arc jump the gap between the electrode and the plate; the current causes a chemical change in the weld materials. 2) What is a cofferdam? Ship Construction A: A watertight void space between two watertight bulkheads. B: The watertight entrance to the shaft tunnel. C: The boundary between the forepeak tank and the forward hold. D: The boundary between the afterpeak tank and the engineroom. 3) Which system uses a tungsten electrode, causing an arc between itself and the metal to be cut? Ship Construction A: Plastic arc cutting. B: Molten arc cutting. C: Arc cutting. D: Plasma arc cutting. 4) A solid floor is Ship Construction A: vertical plating across a double bottom, providing separation between tanks. B: plating covering the top of a double bottom tank. C: tween deck plating around the hatchways. D: deck plating other than where hatchways are cut. 5) The purpose of a bilge keel is to Ship Construction A: support the hull during drydocking. B: strengthen the hull in the way of the bilges. C: help reduce rolling. D: provide protection if the ship grounds. 6) Laser cutting employs the principle of Ship Construction A: keyholing to penetrate the thickness and blowing the molten metal out with a gas jet. B: allowing the metal to form in a "river" of molten material which flows along the line of the cut. C: absorption of the molecules of the metal by the laser beam. D: atomic separation of the molecules, so producing no molten metal.
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7) If a thinner plate is to be welded to a thicker one, the preferred method is Ship Construction A: to use a doubling plate to make up to the size of the thicker plate.

B: to weld a strip to the edge of the thinner plate before welding the two together. C: to chamfer the thicker plate edge to the thickness of the thinner one before butt welding. D: to double up using rivets to compensate for the lack of strength at the joined edge. 8) On many modern tankers, segregated ballast tanks are arranged along the ship's side. Why? Ship Construction A: A tanker can have its trim and list easily managed utilising these tanks. B: Ballast tanks shield the cargo tanks in the event of collision or grounding. C: These tanks can more easily be used for ballast. D: None of the other options. 9) Stud welding is used in shipbuilding and repair Ship Construction A: to make "tack welds" to secure plates together before the full weld is applied. B: to join plates together with studs, as for riveting. C: for welding small items to a plate by punching a stud through the item and the plate. D: for the fastening of studs to plates for subsequent fastening of other items - eg wood sheathing. 10) Strakes of bottom shell plating at the bilges are thickest Ship Construction A: in the midships 40% of the length and in the pounding region. B: in the ends of the ship, where panting and pounding effects are greatest. C: forward of the collision bulkhead and aft of the after peak bulkhead. D: at the midships position, tapering to forward and aft. 11) Gas cutting uses Ship Construction A: oxy-acetylene gas. B: propane. C: hydrogen. D: any of the other options. 12) The "yield point" of a material is Ship Construction A: the stress in a material where it reaches its elastic limit. B: the stress in a material when it breaks. C: the point in a structure where the stress may be considered to be concentrated. D: the temperature of a material where a defined stress will cause failure. 13) What is "the forward perpendicular"? Ship Construction
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A: It is an imaginary vertical line at the intersection of the stem and the summer load waterline. B: It is an imaginary vertical line at the intersection of the stem and the winter load waterline. C: It is an imaginary vertical line at the intersection of the stem and the light draught. D: It is an imaginary vertical line drawn from the furthest forward point to the waterline. 14) What is a vessel's "Deadweight"? Ship Construction A: The weight of the provisions, stores and bunkers. B: The difference between the vessel's loaded and light displacements. It is the weight that a ship carries. C: The weight of the vessel's cargo only.

D: The amount of cargo a vessel is allowed to carry, depending on the Load Line Zone she in. 15) If sucessive passes of a weld are not properly cleaned out between passes, it will result in a fault called Ship Construction A: porosity. B: slag inclusion. C: underbead cracking. D: lack of fusion. 16) What is inspected during a "Loadline" inspection? Ship Construction A: Watertight doors and openings. B: Plimsol and draught markings. C: Hull and frame condition. D: All of the other options. 17) Watertight doors must be capable of operation when the ship is listed to Ship Construction A: 5 B: 10 C: 15 D: 20 18) Which of the following is not included for calculating a vessel's deadweight? Ship Construction A: Crew. B: Cargo equipment. C: Cargo. D: Fuel. 19) The purpose of a bulbous bow is NOT Ship Construction A: to improve efficiency in relation to speed. B: to reduce fuel consumption.
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C: to provide protection in a head-on collision. D: to reduce ship skin resistance. 20) Why should tanks not normally be pressed up to the top of the filling or sounding pipe? Ship Construction A: Because the pipe is not constructed to hold liquids for long periods. B: Because it creates very high pressure on the tank top. C: Because it is difficult to then calculate how much liquid is in the tank. D: Because the liquid will then flow into an adjacent tank. 21) Most welding in ships is "fusion" welding. An example which is NOT fusion welding is Ship Construction A: solid-phase welding. B: resistance welding. C: gas welding. D: arc welding. 22) What is a "spectacle frame"? Ship Construction A: An 'A' shaped structure used to support the propeller shaft of a twin screw ship. B: The frame within which the rudder and the propeller are situated. C: A frame that gives strength and support on all sides. D: A frame built to support two adjacent double bottom tanks. 23) Bulwarks, as fitted on weather decks, are Ship Construction

A: important for strength. B: must be securely fastened to the sheerstrake. C: are for personnel protection only and are of light scantlings. D: must have no openings cut in them. 24) A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a... Ship Construction A: bar keel. B: flat plate keel. C: box keel. D: duct keel. 25) The plate forming the inboard side of a shipside bilge space is called a Ship Construction A: duct keel. B: margin plate. C: keelson. D: gunwale.
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26) What are "breast hooks"? Ship Construction A: Horizontal sliding plates, inserted to temporarily support parts of the structure when their supports are removed for maintenance.. B: Horizontal plate webs, supporting the part of the stem formed by radiused plates. C: Hooks or other devices used for lifting drums and other cylindrical objects. D: The flat plates on top of the bulwarks at the bow. 27) The top of the stern frame is connected to a vessel's structure at the Ship Construction A: aft peak bulkhead. B: steering flat. C: transom floor. D: vibration post. 28) A single row of shipside shell plating is termed a... Ship Construction A: strake. B: stringer. C: beam. D: margin plate. 29) Maximum lift in any safety valve is usually limited to... Aux Machinery A: half of the valve diameter. B: one quarter of the valve diameter. C: one third of the valve diameter. D: two fifths of the valve diameter. 30) How often must the safety valves on a boiler be seen lifted by the classification surveyor? Aux Machinery A: After survey or repair to the valves. B: After they have lifted in service. C: Annually. D: After every boiler repair. 31) Buffer springs are fitted between the rudder feedback and the floating link. The purpose of these springs is to Aux Machinery A: prevent overload on the pump motor. B: damp out sudden movements of the ship's wheel.

C: prevent the pressure relief valves from lifting. D: damp out any sudden rudder movement in heavy seas.
PAGE 23

32) What is the function of the safety head spring assembly on a freon refrigeration compressor? Aux Machinery A: To cushion the piston compression forces at start up. B: To relieve any excess pressure in the system. C: To protect against carry over of liquid refrigerant to the suction. D: To prevent broken valve plates from damaging the piston. 33) In a refrigeration cycle, a thermal expansion valve is used to reduce the pressure of the refrigerant. As the refrigerant passes through the throttle, what happens to its enthalpy? Aux Machinery A: It increases. B: It decreases. C: It approaches unity. D: It is unchanged. 34) Which statement about a coil type, water tube waste heat boiler is correct? Aux Machinery A: Steam is generated in the flash chamber. B: Steam is recirculated in the heating coils. C: Steam demand response is rapid. D: Steam demand response can be very slow. 35) What should be done in the event of oil contamination on the water side of any boiler? Aux Machinery A: The boiler should be blown down and refilled with distilled water, and steam raised slowly. B: The boiler should be boiled out using an alkali additive, and/or be scummed at regular intervals until clean. C: The boiler should be boiled out using an acid solution, and/or be scummed at regular intervals until clean. D: The boiler should operated at reduced pressures until it can be manually cleaned. 36) Figure ENG 145 shows the shapes of valve plugs which are commonly fitted in control valves. Valve plugs of this type are used because... Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Control Systems A: they reduce erosion of the valve plug and seat. B: they provide the required characteristics between valve travel and fluid flow. C: they reduce the unbalanced forces which exist on the valve plug during operation. D: they are quick opening. Graphic Description: ENG 145 37) A pneumercator tank gauge utilises... Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Control Systems A: a Bourdon tube indicator. B: a balance chamber. C: an electronic sensing line.
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D: a siphon tube. 38) How is a zener diode different from an ordinary rectifier diode? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Control Systems A: The zener diode has a much higher forward voltage drop. B: The zener diode can carry greater forward currents than a rectifier diode.

C: The zener diode can operate at higher temperatures than a rectifier diode. D: The zener diode usually operates with a reverse voltage. 39) Figure ENG 143 shows a cut away view of a diaphragm-actuated control valve. What is the normal direction of flow through such a valve? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Control Systems A: From A to B. B: From B to A. C: Either direction. D: This will depend upon the type of service the valve is used for. Graphic Description: ENG 143 40) In the circuit shown at "A" in figure ENG 146, "0V" is earth potential. The commonemitter current gain of the transistor is 20. What is the approximate value of the voltage across the relay coil? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Control Systems A: 23 millivolts B: 120 millivolts C: 12 Volts D: 230 millivolts 41) Within a centrifugal pump the suction pressure is separated from the discharge pressure by the Operate Pumping Systems A: lantern rings. B: neck bush. C: impeller wear rings. D: nitrile rubber sealing rings. 42) If a hydraulic system pump is noisy during operation, the cause might be... Operate Pumping Systems A: a shaft packing leak. B: low hydraulic fluid viscosity. C: air entrained in the system. D: a wrong direction of shaft rotation. 43) A pump serving both bilge and ballast systems will have... Operate Pumping Systems A: non-return valves on the ballast suctions. B: blanks on the ballast suctions. C: separate overboard discharge lines for bilge and ballast. D: screw lift, butterfly or gate valves on the ballast suctions.
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44) An oily mixture is defined as a mixture of oil and water containing... Operate Pumping Systems A: At least 200 ppm of oil. B: At least 50 ppm of oil. C: At least 15 ppm of oil. D: At least 100 ppm of oil. 45) Pumping bilges in port is always forbidden unless... Operate Pumping Systems A: pumped to a shore reception facility. B: the bilges are only lowered. C: emulsifying chemicals have been added to the bilge water. D: the bilge water appears clear. 46) How often should electric motor bearings be greased? Maintain Engineering & Control Systems A: Whenever the bearings seem dry.

B: Every week. C: Every month. D: They don't require regular greasing. 47) If a domestic fresh water pump continuously cuts in and out, what does this usually indicate? Maintain Engineering & Control Systems A: Too much air in the pressure tank. B: Excessive water consumption. C: The pump motor thermal overload is operating. D: Insufficient air in the pressure tank. 48) Maintenance to a diesel engine's jacket cooling water system consists of Maintain Engineering & Control Systems A: Drain and refill the system at regular intervals. B: maintaining correct additive levels. C: topping up the header tank only. D: maintaining the pH level below 7.0. 49) Before doing any maintenance work on a hydraulic system, you should... Maintain Engineering & Control Systems A: pressurise the system to test for leaks. B: drain off the energy stored throughout the system. C: operate the equipment until it reaches operating temperature. D: disconnect the pump pressure control switch.
PAGE 26

50) Where is separation of entrained air carried out in a main engine jacket cooling water system? Maintain Engineering & Control Systems A: At the engine water outlets. B: At the pump discharge. C: On the suction side of the pump. D: In the header tank.
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1) Find the length of wire required to make a 20 Ohm resistor. Wire diameter 0.85mm and its resistivity 47 microhm/cubic cm. Electrotechnology, Electronic & Electrical Equipment A: 2415cm. B: 2417cm. C: 2771cm. D: 2165cm. 2) What is the approximate relative magnetic permeability of air, copper, and aluminium? Electrotechnology, Electronic & Electrical Equipment A: Zero B: Unity C: Infinite D: About 200 for each material 3) The existing resistance of a conductor is dependent upon its length, cross-sectional area, ... Electrotechnology, Electronic & Electrical Equipment A: temperature and insulation. B: material and insulation. C: resistive coefficient and material. D: material and temperature. 4) What will be the synchronous speed of a 2 pole, 3-phase, 60 Hz, synchronous motor? Electrotechnology, Electronic & Electrical Equipment A: 3000 rpm

B: 3600 rpm C: 1200 rpm D: 1800 rpm 5) In what situation is Induced EMF given by the formula e=Blv? Electrotechnology, Electronic & Electrical Equipment A: When a conductor rotates in a magnetic field. B: When a single conductor cuts a magnetic field in a straight line. C: When a conductor is rotated between opposing magnets. D: When a magnet is rotated in a coiled conductor. 6) Which type of electronic/electrical device may be used to measure temperature? Automation, Instrumentation & Control A: Thermocouple. B: Thermistor. C: RTD. D: All of these devices can measure temperature.
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7) What is meant by proportional control? Automation, Instrumentation & Control A: The correction is proportional to the deviation. B: The correction is proportional to the transmitter signal. C: The deviation is proportional to the output signal. D: The deviation increase is proportional to output increase. 8) In figure ENG156 what is represented at the position "D? Automation, Instrumentation & Control A: Proportional bellows. B: Integral bellows. C: Feedback bellows. D: Derivative bellows. Graphic Description: ENG 156 9) What causes the resistance of a conductor to be greater for AC currents than for DC currents of equal value? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: Different RMS values. B: The "skin effect". C: Lagging power factor. D: Imperfect insulation. 10) What name is given to the value of the ratio of electric flux density to electric field strength? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: permeability. B: permittivity. C: capacitance. D: inductance. 11) The purpose of a cage rotor winding placed on the rotor of a synchronous motor is to... Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: provide excitation to the DC field. B: start the machine as an induction motor. C: contribute extra torque at synchronous speed. D: prevent the machine from falling out of step. 12) A series circuit consisting of a resistance (R), inductance (Xl), and capacitance (Xc), are excited by a variable frequency AC circuit. The power factor will be 1.0 when... Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E

## A: Xl equals Xc. B: Xl equals Xc plus R. C: Xc equals Xl plus R. D: R equals Xl plus Xc.

PAGE 29 Section Number: 4

13) An ideal transformer has primary and secondary windings consisting of 5,000 and 1,000 turns respectively. What is the secondary voltage if the primary voltage is 250 V AC? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: 50 V AC B: 1,250 V AC C: 250 V AC D: 1,000 V AC 14) In a DC series circuit, all the conductors have the same... Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: power expended in them. B: voltage drop across them. C: resistance to current flow . D: current passing through them. 15) The "slip speed" of a 3 phase induction motor is defined as... Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: Synchronous speed minus rotor speed. B: Rotor speed minus synchronous speed. C: Rotor speed divided by synchronous speed. D: Synchronous speed divided by rotor speed. 16) What additional component will extend the range of a moving-coil voltmeter? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: Low value multiplier inductance. B: Low value shunt resistor. C: High value multiplier resistor. D: High value shunt inductance. 17) What is the accepted practice for protecting a 37kW (50hp) AC electric motor from short circuits and prolonged overloads if the motor starting current is 6 times higher than full-load current? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: Increase fuse size to accommodate the high starting current. B: Replace one or two of the line fuses with shorting-links. C: Use dual-element time-delay fuses instead of standard fuses. D: Specify all large motors with internal overload protection. 18) A dynamic brake installed on a DC motor will effectively... Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: slow or stop the motor. B: hold a load. C: stop the motor in the event of field excitation failure only. D: Any of the other answers.
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19) What is the maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: 45C. B: 55C. C: 80C. D: 105C. 20) An ideal transformer has primary and secondary AC voltages of 250 V AC and 1,000 V AC respectively.

What is the number of turns in the secondary if the primary has 600? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: 125 turns B: 1,000 turns C: 2,400 turns D: 250 turns 21) In the worst case what would be the effect a 25 milli-amps electric shock? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: Totally harmless. B: Give a mild shock. C: Burn the skin. D: Could be fatal. 22) What might be a value for the relative permeability of a high voltage insulating material? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: 0 B: 0.5 C: 1 D: 1.5 23) A sine wave takes 0.025 seconds to complete one half cycle. What is the frequency? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: 20 Hz B: 10 Hz C: 40 Hz D: None of the other answers. 24) In a modern shipboard electrical system, what prevents an AC generator's circuit breaker from closing on a live bus when the generator is not operating? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: A visual and audible warning will prevent such an accident. B: The generator's Automatic Voltage Regulator (AVR) will prevent such an accidental closing. C: The circuit breaker's internal low voltage or under-voltage release will prevent closing. D: The circuit breaker's internal reverse power protection will prevent the breaker closing.
PAGE 31 Number Section Number: 4

25) What is an auto-transformer? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: A transformer with automatic over-load protection. B: A transformer with self-cooling. C: A transformer with automatic voltage regulation. D: A transformer with only one winding. 26) A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called "closed insulation" type. What does this mean? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: The system's zero voltage point is connected to the frame of the generator. B: The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull. C: The system is totally insulated from the ship's 220 V distribution system. D: The system does not have a neutral point. 27) Starting resistors are used in conjunction with DC motors to... Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: start the motor in the desired direction B: prevent excessive counter EMF from being developed. C: reduce the introduction of heavy starting current. D: keep the motor from gaining speed too rapidly.

28) A 310 Volt peak-to-peak value is measured when using an oscilloscope. What is the rms value of this power system voltage? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: 220 V AC B: 110 V AC C: 120 V AC D: 230 V AC 29) What factors control the exact output frequency of any particular AC generator? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: The AVR and the governor. B: The AVR, the diode ring, and the excitation level. C: The engine governor, and the generator's electrical construction. D: The AVR, system power factor, and sub-transient reactance. 30) What does the abbreviation "DPDT" stand for on an electrical circuit diagram? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: Double-pole double-throw. B: Duplex-pole double-terminal. C: Direct-power differential-transformer. D: Double-pole duplex-terminal.
PAGE 32 Number Section Number: 4

31) Which of the following electrical classifications can not possibly apply to an electric motor rated at 5 Kw? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: "Flame proof" B: "Explosion proof" C: "Intrinsically safe" D: "Increased safety" 32) When a single AC generator (alternator) is connected to an electrical bus, the generator's power factor depends on... Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: the nature of the load it is supplying. B: the value of excitation current from the AVR. C: the sum of the total line currents and governor setting. D: the internal resistance of the AVR. 33) Which of the following is used to increase or decrease DC voltage? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: Simple wound transformer. B: Rectifier. C: Rotary convertor. D: Transducer. 34) Which of the following statements concerning a simple parallel resistance circuit is correct? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: The voltage drop across each resistor is the same. B: The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the individual currents. C: The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistances. D: The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across each resistance. 35) A 5000:5 current transformer has 2.4 Amps flowing in the secondary winding. What is the primary current? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: 2,083 Amps

B: 12,000 Amps C: 0.0024 Amps D: 2,400 Amps 36) The size of any electrical conductor should be such that the voltage drop at full load will not exceed what percentage? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: 1 % B: 2 % C: 3 % D: 5 %
PAGE 33 Section Number: 4

37) If an engine driving an alternator were to slow down, what would trip the main breaker? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: Reverse power trip. B: Low voltage trip. C: Low frequency trip. D: Overload trip. 38) Two coils of wire have a mutual magnetic coupling. The rate of linear current change in one coil is doubled. What is the effect on the (emf) induced in the second coil? Operation, Testing & Maintenance of Electrical Equipment & E A: The emf does not change much. B: The emf is doubled. C: The emf is halved. D: The new emf is four times as great as the original emf. 39) Which one of the following devices uses the principle of electromagnetic induction? Electrical & Electronic Systems A: A variable capacitor. B: A transistor. C: A transformer. D: A rheostat. 40) Regardless of their composition, fuses will melt at a current that is Electrical & Electronic Systems A: higher than the maximum, protected system current. B: lower than the maximum, protected system current. C: equal to the maximum, protected system current. D: higher or lower than the maximum, protected system current. 41) What should be done to limit the motor starting current of a sea-water centrifugal pump? Electrical & Electronic Systems A: Close the suction valve. B: Close the discharge valve. C: Drain the pump casing and seals of all sea-water. D: Open wide the suction and discharge valves. 42) The device most commonly utilizing the principle of electromagnetic induction is the... Electrical & Electronic Systems A: potentiometer. B: transformer. C: transistor. D: rheostat.
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43) When a single AC generator (alternator) is connected to an electrical bus, the generator's power factor

depends on... Electrical & Electronic Systems A: the nature of the load it is supplying. B: the value of excitation current from the AVR. C: the sum of the total line currents and governor setting. D: the internal resistance of the AVR. 44) Two resistors, R1 and R2, are connected in parallel. R1 has a value of 10 Ohms and the current flowing in R1 is 20 Amps. The other branch has a 10 Amp current. What is the resistance of R2? Electrical & Electronic Systems A: 10 Ohms B: 5 Ohms C: 20 Ohms D: 6.7 Ohms 45) How may the speed of a 3-phase induction motor, with a wound rotor and external sliprings/brushes, be adjusted when under load? Operate & Maintain Electrical & Electronic Systems A: By using a fixed auto-transformer starter controller. B: By using a star-delta controller and phase detection. C: By connecting a variable DC voltage to the slip rings. D: None of these will alter the motor speed. 46) When you are choosing a battery for a particular application, major consideration should be given to the battery's... Operate & Maintain Electrical & Electronic Systems A: amp-hour capacity. B: terminal polarity. C: stability under charge. D: ambient temperature rise. 47) The output frequency of an alternator depends on... Operate & Maintain Electrical & Electronic Systems A: The total 3-phase load impedance, and power factor. B: The magnetic-flux in the air-gap, and number of diodes. C: The rotor excitation current, and phase sequence. D: The rotor speed, and alternator construction. 48) AC generators (alternators) are connected to the main or emergency switchboard by means of... Operate & Maintain Electrical & Electronic Systems A: suitable AC-rated circuit breakers. B: suitable high capacity auto-transformers. C: suitable shunt thermal time delays. D: suitable high impedance copper-nickel conductors.
PAGE 35 Section Number: 4

49) Using a synchroscope to parallel an incoming alternator with one already in operation, when is the circuit breaker closed? Operate & Maintain Electrical & Electronic Systems A: When the synchroscope pointer is rotating at 60 cycles per second. B: When the synchroscope pointer is stationary at any position. C: When the synchroscope pointer is rotating slowly clockwise and is at 12 o'clock position. D: When the synchroscope pointer is moving slowly counterclockwise and is at the 12 o'clock position.

50) How will the terminal voltage of a lead-acid cell in good condition change between noload and light-load conditions? Operate & Maintain Electrical & Electronic Systems A: It should fall 20-50%. B: It should rise 10-25%. C: It should rise sharply during the first minute then fall. D: It should remain about constant.
PAGE 36 Section Number: 5

1) What is a major benefit derived from using hydraulic operation for large exhaust poppet valves? Orgaise Safe Maintenance & Repair A: More accurate timing is achieved. B: The valve spindle side forces are eliminated. C: The load on the camshaft is reduced. D: Quicker valve closing is achieved. 2) When a crew member has had an accident what should happen first? Orgaise Safe Maintenance & Repair A: An accident report form should be completed. B: The accident should be discussed by the safety committee. C: Establish the cause and prevent a recurrence. D: An entry is made in the ship's log book. 3) If your vessel is subject to continuous machinery survey, what would the surveyor inspect? Orgaise Safe Maintenance & Repair A: Internals and calibrations of any due survey items. B: Planned maintenance records. C: Previous survey reports and certificates. D: Engine log book and running machinery. 4) Entry of tanks should be undertaken when alongside only... Orgaise Safe Maintenance & Repair A: after a "gas free" certificate has been issued. B: by shore contractors. C: undertaken after a "permit to work" has been made out. D: after thorough ventillation. 5) The purpose of running the lube oil supply pump when inspecting a diesel engine crankcase is to check Orgaise Safe Maintenance & Repair A: the oil supply to bearing and sprayers. B: that crankshaft and doors seals are tight. C: that the oil drain tank level is correct. D: that the pump is operating correctly. 6) If the main engine is overheating and you suspect air in the jacket water, how would you deal with the problem? Orgaise Safe Maintenance & Repair A: Start the stand-by jacket water pump. B: Slow the engine and attempt to vent the system. C: Slow the engine and shut the cooler by-pass valve. D: Slow the engine and raise the header tank level.
PAGE 37 Section Number: 5

7) In a trunk piston diesel engine, leaking or broken piston rings will allow combustion products to enter the crankcase, affecting the lube oil by...

Orgaise Safe Maintenance & Repair A: reducing the Total Base Number (TBN). B: increasing the Total Base Number (TBN). C: increasing the flash point. D: reducing the pour point. 8) After overheating of engine crankcase or gearcase, inspection should only take place Orgaise Safe Maintenance & Repair A: with the Chief Engineer in attendance. B: using intrinsically safe lighting. C: after engine room fire detectors have been switched off. D: after allowing sufficient time for cooling down. 9) If, after cleaning fuel oil filters, an auxiliary diesel engine starts but will not run, the first check would be Detect & Identify Causes of Machinery Malfunctions A: on the engine governor. B: of the engine fuel linkages. C: the fuel system for air. D: the fuel delivery pressure. 10) If in a refrigerant system, all of the pressures and temperatures are normal, what would be indicated by bubbles in the sight glass? Detect & Identify Causes of Machinery Malfunctions A: Low refrigerant charge. B: Air in the refrigerant. C: Expansion valve jammed shut. D: Condenser requires cleaning. 11) Before using a mulit meter to measure an unknown resistance you should... Detect & Identify Causes of Machinery Malfunctions A: short the test leads and calibrate the meter. B: adjust the meter's pointer to mid-scale. C: change the meter's batteries. D: centre the meter's pointer at infinity. 12) Should a waste heat boiler lose its water level whilst operating, the procedure would be to Detect & Identify Causes of Machinery Malfunctions A: run the boiler "dry" for a short period without damage. B: shut down the boiler immediately to avoid damage. C: by-pass the exhaust gases immediately to avoid damage to the boiler. D: slow down the engine, lowering the exhaust temperature.
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13) Panting or rumbling in a boiler furnace is usually caused by... Detect & Identify Causes of Machinery Malfunctions A: excessive air supply. B: insufficient air supply. C: low fuel temperature. D: low fuel pressure. 14) While on passage a crack developes in the main engine crankcase. What action would you take? Detect & Identify Causes of Machinery Malfunctions A: Proceed as normal but monitoring the crack. B: Drill and stop the crack ends; proceed at reduced revs. C: Inform the captain and head for closest port. D: Stop the engine and await advice before proceeding. 15) In a chilled water, air conditioning plant, what presents the greatest danger to the system?

Detect & Identify Causes of Machinery Malfunctions A: Overcharge of refrigerant. B: Air in the refrigerant. C: Freezing up of the chiller. D: Icing up of the expansion valve. 16) A low cylinder compression reading on one cylinder of a 4 stroke diesel engine would most likely be caused by Detect & Identify Causes of Machinery Malfunctions A: gumming up of compression rings. B: wear of the cylinder liner. C: sticking or damaged exhaust valve. D: damage to piston crown. 17) If moisture is suspected in a refrigerating system, a quick indication would be Detect & Identify Causes of Machinery Malfunctions A: low compressor discharge pressure. B: bubbles in the refrigerant sight glass. C: cooling of the filter/drier unit. D: low room return temperatures. 18) What might be the first indication of a leak on the drains cooler? Detect & Identify Causes of Machinery Malfunctions A: High feed tank level. B: Overcooling of the drains. C: High boiler water alkilinity. D: High feed water salinity.
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19) What is the most common and dangerous form of ship icing? Stability A: Freezing sea spray. B: Freezing rain. C: White or black frost resulting from steam fog. D: Accumulation of wet, frozen snow. 20) What is the formula to calculate the "Volume of Displacement?" Stability A: L by 1/2 B by draft by Freeboard. B: L by GM by KG. C: L by B by d by Cb. D: B by KM by d by Cb. 21) If an empty compartment on one side is bilged, what will be the effect with regard to list? Stability A: The ship will list towards the bilged compartment by the same amount as if that weight had been loaded. B: The ship will list away from the bilged compartment as if that weight had been discharged. C: The ship will list away from the bilged compartment by the amount of the loss of buoyancy. D: There is no effect on list as nothing has been loaded. 22) The dock water allowance is calculated as a proportion of the Stability A: fresh water allowance. B: freeboard. C: summer draught. D: winter draught.

23) What is the formula to calculate the moment of statical stability at a small angle of heel (for a ship with displacement W)? Stability A: W divided by GM x sin(angle of heel) B: W divided by GM x tan(angle of heel) C: W x GM x tan(angle of heel) D: W x GM x sin(angle of heel) 24) Free surface effects can be reduced at construction by subdividing tanks. From those listed, which would be the best configuration for the double bottom ballast tanks in order to reduce free surface effects? Stability A: Subdivided by two longitudinal bulkheads (ie into 3 tanks) B: Subdivided by one longitudinal and one athwartship bulkhead (ie into 4 tanks) C: Subdivided by two athwartships and one longitudinal bulkhead (ie into 6 tanks). D: Subdivided by three athwartship bulkheads (ie into 4 tanks).
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25) A vessel of displacement 15,000 tonnes experiences an upthrust of 640 tonnes at the stern at the moment she takes the blocks forward and aft. Given that the KG is 6.20 metres, calculate the Loss of GM. Assume no declivity of the dock. Stability A: 0.30 metres B: 0.26 metres C: 0.28 metres D: 0.33 metres 26) A vessel is 150m long with a beam of 20m. The light draft and load draft are 3m and 8m respectively. The block coefficients at light and load drafts are 0.68 and 0.76 respectively. What is the deadweight? Stability A: 12,120 tonnes B: 12,423 tonnes C: 18,696 tonnes D: 11,824 tonnes 27) Two sets of figures are often given for bending moments when electronic loading calculators are being used. These refer to... Stability A: Harbour and sea conditions. B: The range of weather expected. C: The zones which the vessel will transit. D: The length of voyage. 28) A box shaped vessel of length 100 metres, beam 12 metres and draught 6 metres floats at even keel in salt water. Calculate the transverse KM. Stability A: 3.0 metres B: 2.0 metres C: 5.0 metres D: 6.0 metres 29) In using the "wall-sided" formula, what does the condition "wall-sided" assume? Stability

A: That the sides of the ship are completely parallel. B: That the sides of the ship are straight between the old and new waterlines when the ship is heeled. C: That the sides of the ship are parallel between the old and new waterlines when the ship is heeled. D: That the sides of the ship are completely straight (ie the curve of the bilge is ignored). 30) Free surface effects in a tank depends upon a number of factors. From those listed, which does NOT affect the free surface effect? Stability A: The density of the liquid in the tank. B: The area of the free surface.
PAGE 41 Section Number: 5

C: The number of fore and aft washplates. D: The depth of the liquid (assuming the tank is not full). 31) How does the value of the TPC for a ship vary? Stability A: With draught. B: With displacement. C: With area of the waterplane. D: Any of the other options. 32) When you are using a vessel's crane to load a heavy lift, when does the maximum angle of heel occur? Stability A: At the moment the load is raised off the quay. B: Just before the load lands on the deck of the vessel. C: Just before the load is raised off the quay. D: When the load has reached the highest position 33) What is the most dangerous effect of ship icing? Stability A: Increased GM. B: Decreased GM. C: Decreased speed. D: Loss of access to deck machinery. 34) How is "specific gravity" of a substance defined? Stability A: The ratio of the volume of the substance to an equal weight of fresh water. B: The ratio of the volume of the substance to an equal weight of salt water. C: The ratio of the weight of the substance to the weight of an equal volume of fresh water. D: The ratio of the weight of the substance to an equal volume of salt water. 35) A vessel of 80,000 tonnes displacement with a GM 0.5 metres has a starboard list of 3. Space is available 10 metres to port of the centreline. What weight will need to be shifted from the centreline to correct the list? Stability A: 200 tonnes B: 300 tonnes C: 839 tonnes D: 210 tonnes 36) A vessel of 10,000 tonnes displacement with a GM 1.0 metres has a port list of 5. Space is available 2.50

metres to starboard of the centreline. What weight will need to be shifted from the centreline to correct the list? Stability A: 175 tonnes B: 275 tonnes
PAGE 42 Question

C: 350 tonnes D: 153 tonnes 37) A vessel of 15,000 tonnes displacement with a GM 1.0 metres has a port list of 2. What distance will a weight of 110 tons need to be shifted to correct the list? Stability A: 5.51 metres B: 7.51 metres C: 4.76 metres D: 4.67 metres 38) Which formula would be used to calculate the moment of statical stability at a large angle of heel? Stability A: Moseley's formula. B: The wall-sided formula. C: Morrish's formula. D: Simpson's rules. 39) A vessel floating upright in neutral equilibrium will have the same value for... Stability A: KM and KB B: KB and KG C: KG and KM D: KM and GM 40) What units are used to measure specific gravity? Stability A: Kilogrammes per cubic metre. B: Tonnes per cubic metre. C: Grammes per cubic centimetre. D: There are no units for specific gravity. 41) How many tonnes of seawater ballast could the following 'box shaped' (rectangular) double bottom contain. Length 50 metres, breadth 20 metres, depth 1.5 metres? Stability A: 1,500 B: 1,575 C: 1,537.50 D: 1,463.40 42) If an empty compartment in the bow is bilged, what will be the effect on the trim? Stability A: The ship will trim by the bow by the same amount as if that weight had been loaded. B: The ship will trim by the stern as if that weight had been discharged. C: The ship will trim by the stern by the amount of the loss of buoyancy. D: There is no effect on the trim as nothing has been loaded.
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43) A vessel of displacement 10,000 tonnes has a rectangular tank of length 20m, breadth 10m and depth 2m which is half full of seawater. Calculate the virtual rise in the centre of gravity of the vessel caused by the free surface. Stability A: 0.67 metres B: 0.10 metres C: 0.17 metres D: 0.20 metres 44) A vessel with a displacement of 20,000 tonnes and a KG of 6.7 metres discharges 1000 tons from 12 metres above the keel, 1500 tons from 6.5 metres above the keel and 4500 tons from 3.3 metres above the keel. The vessel's final KM is 11.0 metres. What is the vessel's GM on completion? Stability A: 3.51 metres B: 7.49 metres C: 2.0 metres D: 4.5 metres 45) What is the essential difference for a ship between "list" and "loll". Stability A: List is caused by wind or waves acting on the ship, whereas loll is caused by having a small GM value. B: List is caused by distribution of weight, whereas loll is caused through a negative GM when upright. C: Loll is caused by distribution of weight, whereas list is caused through a negative GM when upright. D: Loll is caused by wind or waves acting on the ship, whereas list is caused by having a small GM value. 46) A vessel of 10,000 tonnes displacement with a GM 1.0 metres has a port list of 5. What distance will a weight of 100 tons need to be shifted to correct the list? Stability A: 8.75 metres B: 7.51 metres C: 7.15 metres D: 8.57 metres 47) What is the formula for finding the moment of inertia (I) for a rectangular area of free surface (where L is the length and B the breadth of the free surface) Stability A: L divided by B(cubed) divided by 12 B: L divided by B(squared) divided by 12 C: L x B(cubed) divided by 12 D: L x B(squared) divided by 12
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48) A box shaped vessel of length 80 metres and breadth 20 metres floats at an even keel draught of 6 metres.

A midships double bottom tank 20 metres long and 1.2 metres deep extending the full breadth of the vessel becomes bilged. Calculate the KB for this condition. Stability A: 3.15 metres B: 3.23 metres C: 3.33 metres D: 3.43 metres 49) What is the minimum allowable value for GZ? Stability A: 0.35m B: 0.42m C: 0.2m D: 0.15m 50) Using the Wall Sided Formula, calculate the value of the righting lever (GZ) at 25 when inclined by an external force when KM is 6.0 m, KG is 5.2 m and KB is 2.3 m. Stability A: 0.42 metres B: 0.60 metres C: 0.51 metres D: 0.72 metres 51) If the GM is 0.8 metres find the righting lever at 5 angle of heel. Stability A: 0.07 metres B: 0.80 metres C: 0.05 metres D: 0.10 metres 52) What is the relationship (at small angles of heel) at a particular displacement (W ) between the righting lever (GZ), the metacentric height (GM) and the angle of heel? Stability A: GM = W x GZ x sin(angle of heel) B: GM = W x GZ divided by sin(angle of heel) C: GZ = W x GM x sin(angle of heel) D: GZ = W x GM divided by sin(angle of heel) 53) What is an "Angle of List?" Stability A: The angle of heel where the GM is zero. B: An angle of heel caused by a transverse imbalance of internal forces within the ship. C: The same as the "Angle of Loll". D: The angle of heel where the deck edge is immersed.
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54) When liquid stored in a partly filled tank moves transversely due to the rolling motion of the ship, the effect on stability is directly proportional to... Stability A: the depth of the tank. B: the displacement of the ship. C: the density of the sea water. D: the breadth of the tank. 55) A vessel displacing 15,000 tonnes, light KG 5.00 metres, discharges 1,200 tonnes, Kg 4.0m. It then loads 600 tonnes, Kg 6.5m. If the final KM is tabulated as 5.15 metres what is the departure GM? Stability

A: 1.0 metres B: 2.0 metres C: 0.5 metres D: zero (0.0 metres) 56) What happens when cargo is moved from the lower hold to the tween deck? Stability A: The centre of buoyancy moves upwards. B: The metacentric height decreases. C: The centre of buoyancy moves downwards. D: The metacentric height increases. 57) What will be the effect of slack tanks on the vessel's stability during drydocking? Stability A: They will have no effect on stability. B: They will reduce stability at the critical time in the drydocking procedure. C: They will have a tendency to strain bulkheads. D: They will only have an effect if the tanks are less than half full. 58) If a tank filled with fresh ballast water is bilged, what will be the permeability? Stability A: 0 per cent. B: 97.56 per cent. C: 1.025 per cent. D: 100 per cent. 59) Ships may only discharge processed bilge water from machinery spaces into the sea if certain very specific criteria are being met. Which of those listed is correct? Compliance With Legislative Requirements A: The ship is sailing within a special area. B: The oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 50 ppm. C: The oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 100 ppm. D: The ship has equipment in operation as required by MARPOL.
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60) Inspections under Port State Control require the production of certain documents. Which, from those listed, would NOT be required? Compliance With Legislative Requirements A: Bills of Lading. B: Oil Record Book. C: International Load Line Certificate. D: Certificates of competency of the officers. 61) Ships are now measured for an International Tonnage Certificate, which quotes gross and net tonnage. These tonnages refer to Compliance With Legislative Requirements A: volume tonnage of 100 cubic feet per ton. B: weight tonnage of 1000kg. C: volume tonnage of 1 cubic metre per tonne. D: tonnages calculated from formulas. 62) From those listed, which is NOT required to be displayed on board ship? Compliance With Legislative Requirements A: Copies of each SOLAS certificate. B: Copy of International Load Line Certificate. C: Ship Radio Licence. D: Copy of SOPEP. 63) Which of those listed, correctly describes the relationship between IMO Conventions and maritime law? Compliance With Legislative Requirements

A: IMO Conventions and the laws of individual States are related to each other but apply to different aspects of the law. B: A State issues guidance in order to apply international laws, as provided in IMO Conventions. C: A State enacts national legislation by applying the principles contained in IMO Conventions. D: IMO Conventions provide international law which is applied in the same way in every State. 64) What is "The Salvage Association"? Compliance With Legislative Requirements A: An association of shipping surveyors who investigate casualties on behalf of underwriters. B: An organisation which arbitrates on behalf of the various parties to an accident or incident. C: An insurance company which covers claims made under Lloyd's Open Form for salvage purposes. D: An international group of towage companies whose members specialise in salvage. 65) Maritime law in an individual State is determined by each State Compliance With Legislative Requirements A: in collaboration with neighbouring States. B: individually deciding what is best for its own ships. C: individually deciding what is best for its own ships and those of other States for ships in its waters.
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D: making statute law for all ships within its jurisdiction, in compliance with international Conventions. 66) What is the nature and purpose of the ILO? Compliance With Legislative Requirements A: An agency of the United Nations dealing with labour standards and practices. B: A committee of the International Maritime Organisation dealing with maritime issues. C: The body which makes international maritime law for all countries. D: A committee of the World Health Organisation, dealing with employment conditions. 67) Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require that ......................... should personally supervise all bunkering operations. Compliance With Legislative Requirements A: the Master B: the Chief Engineer C: the 2nd Engineer D: a responsible person 68) Bunkering procedures for all ships require that ..................... communication should be maintained with the shore/barge staff in charge of the transfer. Compliance With Legislative Requirements A: continuous B: frequent C: occasional D: intermittent 69) A new engine crew member joins your ship; you are the Chief Engineer. What should your strategy be? Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: Leave the whole induction to the new seafarer's senior watchkeeper. B: Find a member of the engineroom crew and tell him/her to show the new person around.

C: Introduce yourself and take the person to the senior watchkeeping officer concerned, before appointing a member of the crew to acquaint him/her with the ship, emergencies, duties, etc. D: Set sufficient time aside for you to explain emergency stations, procedures and duties, before handing the person over to the senior watchkeeping officer concerned. 70) Which of these would you consider to be good practice in organising a management meeting? Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: Having definite start and finish times. B: Having a definite start time, but concluding when there is no more to discuss. C: Having a definite start time and a planned finish time, which could be shortened or lengthened if desired. D: Starting when everyone has arrived but having a definite finish time. 71) From those listed, which is NOT required to be covered by the SMS under the ISM Code? Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: Conditions of employment, including voage and leave periods.
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B: Procedures to respond to emergency situations. C: Lines of communication between shore and ship personnel. D: Procedures for internal audits and management reviews. 72) Since the implementation of STCW '95, certificates of competency for officers Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: are issued by individual countries but are identical for every country. B: are identical for each country, except for the discretionary parts of the Code, which are covered in a manner determined by individual countries. C: are issued in a form determined by individual countries but covering the requirements of the Code for each function. D: are issued by the IMO, which ensures that all certificates cover the Code. 73) What are the objectives of the ISM Code? Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: To force all ship owners to apply minimum standards to both their ships and their crews. B: To ensure safety, avoid damage to the environment and apply international safety standards for operating ships. C: To eliminate Flag of Convenience & 2nd registers. D: To give authorisation to bodies such as port state control, to detain substandard ships with substandard crew. 74) You have a series of tasks to be done and there are several crew members to do them. What should be your strategy? Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: Match the tasks to the skills and experience of each crew member. B: Choose the easiest tasks for the older members and the harder ones for the younger members. C: Use strict rotation, so that everyone does the same number of tasks. D: Draw lots to see who does which task.

75) You suspect that a malfunction of one of the generator sets was caused by the poor workmanship of one of the engineers, what should you do? Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: Take no action but make sure in future he is carefully supervised when carrying out maintenance. B: Take no action and make sure that he is not given any further technically demanding jobs. C: Speak to the engineer privately and discuss the breakdown with respect to his maintenance work. D: Express your feelings publically to the engineer concerned. 76) Personnel nominated on muster lists to assist passengers in emergencies should receive additional training. From those listed, which would NOT be a feature of such training? Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: Such persons must be fluent in the language of passenegers. B: The number of trained persons for this purpose should be included on the Safe Manning Document. C: Proficiency should be maintained by periodic refresher training or related work experience. D: Shore-based training courses should be supplemented by shipboard training.
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77) How often should safety meetings be held? Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: Weekly. B: Monthly. C: Every voyage. D: According to the ship's SMS. 78) You (the Chief Engineer) feel that an inexperienced junior engineer officer is taking too much responsibility. For example, he/she does not call the Chief Engineer when problems arise in the engine room. What should your initial strategy be? Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: Take the officer off the watch; if necessary, keep the watch yourself. B: Keep careful observation unobtrusively so that you can stop it if a safety issue arises. C: Ask the second engineer to advise the officer on what the limitations of responsibility should be. D: Interview the officer privately in order to explain what you expect of the officer on watch. 79) At a management meeting which you are chairing, one person talks continually on a particular subject. What is the best strategy for dealing with this at the meeting? Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: Tell the person to be quiet; ask each other member of the committee to give their views on the issue, then summarise and put it to the vote. B: State that you do not wish to hear any more on this subject and are going to move on to the next. C: Summarise the position on the issue, say you will put it on the agenda for the next meeting and move on to the next issue. D: State that you are going to ask each person at the meeting to make one brief statement about

where they stand on the issue, then summarise and put it to the vote. 80) The requirement to carry a Safe Manning Document, in addition to navigation functions, covers Maintain Safety, Organise & Manage Crew A: the capability to operate and maintain, in a safe condition, the main propulsion and auxiliary machinery. B: provision for medical care on board. C: the capability to maintain a safe radio watch. D: all of the other options. 81) Starting air is introduced into a cylinder at approximately... Operate Main Machinery & Control Systems A: 30 before top dead centre. B: top dead centre. C: 30 after top dead centre. D: bottom dead centre. 82) One of the early indications of a scavenge fire may be... Operate Main Machinery & Control Systems A: a higher than normal exhaust temperature.
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B: gas blowing past the piston rings. C: a high jacket water return temperature. D: a high piston cooling return temperature. 83) Which main engine component is commonly driven by a chain? Operate Main Machinery & Control Systems A: The fuel valve cooling pump. B: The auxiliary blower. C: The camshaft. D: The turbo charger. 84) The lower section of a diesel engine piston is called Operate Main Machinery & Control Systems A: the ring carrier. B: the skirt. C: the liner. D: the guide. 85) While a propulsion engine is running at full power, a sudden large change of course will... Operate Main Machinery & Control Systems A: reduce the load on the engine. B: cause a temporary overload. C: have no effect on the engine. D: increase the engine speed. 86) What material are diesel engine cylinder liners normally manufactured from? Operate Main Machinery & Control Systems A: Cast iron. B: Cast steel. C: Chromium. D: High carbon steel. 87) In a marine incinerator, how are solid wastes normally burned? Operate Auxiliary Machinery & Control Systems A: With the assistance of the pilot burner. B: Only when the main burner is shut down. C: With the main burner operating. D: Separately, without the consumption of any oil.

88) Bacteria and other living organisms in fresh water may be sterilised by the application of ultraviolet light (UV radiation). How is this ultraviolet energy generated? Operate Auxiliary Machinery & Control Systems A: By high intensity incandescent lamps. B: By an electric arc discharge lamp. C: By low-hazard radioactive isotopes.
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D: By a 27.5/35.7 MHz RF induction unit. 89) How is the oil/water interface in a bilge oil/water separator detected? Operate Auxiliary Machinery & Control Systems A: By means of a gauge glass. B: By means of capacitance probes. C: By means of a sounding tape. D: By means of an ultrasonic probe. 90) Why are intercoolers fitted in a 2 stage air compressor? Operate Auxiliary Machinery & Control Systems A: To prevent high temperatures in the HP cylinder. B: To prevent high pressures in the HP cylinder. C: To prevent high temperature damage to the air receiver lining. D: To prevent excessive pressure in the discharge lines. 91) In a sewage treatment plant, the term "coliform count" refers to Operate Auxiliary Machinery & Control Systems A: the alkalinity content of the effluent sample. B: the amount of oxygen in the effluent sample. C: the amount of bacterial waste in the effluent sample. D: the amount of CO2 in the effluent sample. 92) What is the term given to the curvature of the deck in the fore and aft direction? Ship Construction, Stability & Trim A: Camber. B: Flare. C: Rise of floor. D: Sheer. 93) How is "length overall" defined? Ship Construction, Stability & Trim A: The horizontal distance between the points of the hull at the summer loadline. B: The horizontal distance between the forward and after extremities of the ship. C: The horizontal distance between the points of the hull at the winter loadline. D: The horizontal distance between the points at the deck edge forward and aft. 94) The total weight a vessel carries when immersed to her loaded draught is the... Ship Construction, Stability & Trim A: light displacement. B: gross tonnage. C: net tonnage. D: deadweight.
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95) What is the name of the hinge on which a rudder turns? Ship Construction, Stability & Trim A: A bolt. B: A pin. C: A gudgeon. D: A coupling.

96) How can free surface effects in tanks be minimised at the ship design stage? Ship Construction, Stability & Trim A: By building tanks which only hold the exact amount of fuel and water required. B: By subdividing tanks with athwartships bulkheads and wash plates. C: By subdividing tanks with fore and aft bulkheads and wash plates. D: By designing tanks to be located near the centreline of the ship. 97) What is the "Breadth Extreme" in relation to a ship? Ship Construction, Stability & Trim A: The maximum breadth measured from outside the plating. B: The maximum breadth measured across the hatches. C: The maximum breadth measured from inside the shell plating. D: The maximum breadth measured at the waterline. 98) The plate forming the inboard side of a shipside bilge space is called a Ship Construction, Stability & Trim A: duct keel. B: margin plate. C: keelson. D: gunwale. 99) What stresses is the vessel's structure forward of the collision bulkhead stiffened to resist? Ship Construction, Stability & Trim A: Panting & pounding. B: Panting & racking. C: Racking and pounding. D: Hogging & sagging. 100) What is the longitudinal (fore and aft) curve of the deck called? Ship Construction, Stability & Trim A: Sheer. B: Freeboard. C: Rise of floor. D: Rake.
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