1 of 65 Cyanide produces its toxic action by tightly binding with which of the following enzyme systems?

A) B) C) D) Monoamine oxidase Cytochrome oxidase Acetylcholine esterase Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase

2 of 65 Which of the following statements about glycolysis is true? A) B) C) D) It It It It will not directly converts produces occur in the absence of oxygen. produces carbon dioxide and water. fatty acids to acetate units. energy.

3 of 65 The alternate complement cascade differs from the classical complement cascade by: A) B) C) D) its appearance only in certain human ethnic racial groups. causing lysis of bacterial cells. being initiated directly by certain bacterial toxins and venoms. requiring an immunoglobulin-antigen complex to initiate the process.

4 of 65 GBL, GHB, & BD are members of a family of compounds which are often referred to as "date rape drugs". They may cause which of the following serious hazards? A) B) C) D) Low respiratory rate Immunosuppression CNS stimulation Tachycardia

5 of 65 Neisseria meningitidis usually enters the body through the: A) B) C) D) skin. urethra. nasopharynx. intestinal tract.

7 of 65 A common vector for insertion of the gene into a microoganism to produce biotechnology products on todays market is a: A) B) C) D) virus. plasmid. silicon chip. monoclonal antibody.

8 of 65 Passive immunity results from: A) partial immunization. B) recovery from a specific infection. C) injection with the specific antibody.

D) a lack of response to the antigen. 9 of 65 For the reaction below, the concentration of ES is at steady state when:

A) B) C) D)

k1([E] + [S]) + k-2([E] + [P]) = [ES] (k-1+ k2). [ES] (k-1+ k2) = ([E] + [S])k1= ([E] + [P])k-2. (k-1+ k2) [ES] = k1[E][S] + k-2[E][P]. (k-1+ k2) [ES] = k1[E][S] = k-2[E][P].

10 of 65 The reaction shown below is an example of which of the following?

A) B) C) D)

Aldol condensation Michael addition Mannich reaction Transesterification

11 of 65 A water soluble prodrug of a water insoluble alcohol is the: A) B) C) D) acetic acid. palmitic acid. succinic acid. sodium hemisuccinate.

12 of 65 Curves A and B below show the concentration vs time profiles of two patients who are taking vancomycin 1 hour after receiving infusions of 1 g of a drug. The difference between the two profiles is most likely due to:

A) B) C) D)

normal subject-to-subject variability. end-stage renal disease in patient failure to control the level of patient activity. administration of different products that have different bioavailabilities.

13 of 65 The IUPAC name for acetylene is: A) B) C) D) ethene. ethyne. propene. propyne.

14 of 65 The following data describe the results of kinetic studies performed to determine penicillin degradation in aqueous solutions at 60 A) 0.090 B) 0.110

C) 0.256 D) 0.640 15 of 65 Mean particle diameter is frequently NOT useful for predicting surface area of a powder sample because: I. surface area is related to the square of particle radius. II. particles may be highly porous. III. particle shape may not remain constant as a function of particle size. A) B) C) D) I only I and II only II and III only I, II, and III of penicillin V potassium are required to administer as 1500 mg per day of penicillin G sodium? represents 1667 U of penicillin. Penicillin V 1530 U of penicillin.)

16 of 65 How many milligrams per day the same dose of penicillin (Penicillin G sodium: 1 mg potassium: 1 mg represents A) B) C) D) 1377 1500 1634 1842

18 of 65 Rifampin exerts its action on bacterial cells by inhibiting: A) B) C) D) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity. lipid biosynthesis. cytochrome P-450.

19 of 65 A structural analog of an intermediate in a physiological metabolic pathway that acts by replacing the natural substrate and thus blocking the biosynthesis of a physiologically-important substance is called an: A) B) C) D) antimetabolite. antagonist. antisense molecule. antigen.

20 of 65 Respiration in mammalian cells is an important function performed by: A) B) C) D) Golgi bodies. the endoplasmic reticulum. chloroplasts. mitochondria.

21 of 65 Celecoxibs interaction with a cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitor [CYP2C9] will result in:

A) B) C) D)

decreased decreased increased increased

toxicity. effectiveness. half-life. bioavailability.

22 of 65 Chlordiazepoxide, which has the structure shown below on the left, is inactivated by ultraviolet light, while diazepam, which has the structure shown below on the right, is not. Which functional group is involved in chlordiazepoxide's inactivation?

A) B) C) D)

N-Oxide 5-Phenyl 2-One Amide

23 of 65 The area under the curve of plasma concentration vs time is 8 mcgh/mL for a 100 mg dose of a drug when it is given IV. The area under the curve for a 250 mg dose of the same drug is 9 mcgh/mL when the drug is given PO. What fraction of the oral dose was absorbed? A) B) C) D) 0.35 0.40 0.45 0.50

24 of 65 Toxicogenetic differences that cause atypical responses to poisoning can generally be traced to individual differences in: A) B) C) D) absorption. distribution. metabolism. elimination.

25 of 65 Which of the following generally decreases the aqueous solubility of a compound? A) B) C) D) Changing a straight-chain alkyl group to a branched-chain alkyl group Preparing a chemical derivative or analog that has a lower melting point Converting an acid to its salt Converting a salt form of a drug to its free base

26 of 65 The coupling of a compound with glucuronic acid leads to: A) B) C) D) products with increased pharmacologic activity. products with decreased or no pharmacologic activity. products eliminated from the body via the lungs. lipid-soluble products.

27 of 65 A noncompetitive antagonist will shift a dose versus response curve to the: A) B) C) D) right with constant maximal efficacy. right with lowered maximal efficacy. left with constant maximal efficacy. left with lowered maximal efficacy.

28 of 65 Which of the following statements about petrolatum is true? A) B) C) D) It It It It causes a high incidence of hypersensitivity reactions. tends to become rancid quickly. contains ingredients that irritate mucous membranes. should not be used to treat weeping lesions.

29 of 65 Contamination of nonsterile ophthalmic solutions is most commonly by: A) B) C) D) Staphylococcus. Streptococcus. Candida. Bacillus.

30 of 65 What two structures are connected by the eustachian tube? A) B) C) D) Cochlea and auditory nerve Eardrum and ossicles External ear and tympanic membrane Middle ear and nasopharynx

31 of 65 An abdominal infection caused by Bacteroides fragilis would be treated most effectively by: A) B) C) D) amoxicillin. aztreonam. clindamycin. ciprofloxacin.

32 of 65 Gingival hyperplasia is an adverse effect most commonly associated with: A) B) C) D) carbamazepine. valproic acid. ethosuximide. phenytoin.

34 of 65 During the establishment of a pricing policy, the pharmacy manager's long-term financial objective should be to maximize: A) profits. B) sales volume. C) product turnover.

D) return on investment. 35 of 65 Medicare is a program that is sponsored and administered by: A) B) C) D) the federal government to provide health state governments to provide health care the federal government to provide health state governments to provide health care care for poor people. for poor people. care for elderly people. for elderly people.

36 of 65 An economic market that has one seller and many buyers is referred to as: A) B) C) D) a pure monopoly. pure competition. monopolistic competition. oligopolistic competition.

37 of 65 Which of the following has occurred in the United States due to the increasing number of physicians? A) B) C) D) Physicians' salary growth has decreased. Pharmacists' salary growth has increased. The length of patients' hospital stay has increased. Enrollment in medical schools has increased.

38 of 65 A patient taking a bulk-forming laxative should NOT be told: A) B) C) D) to drink plenty of fluids. to mix the product with fluid before ingestion. to consult a physician if constipation persists for more than 1 week. that the product will produce a bowel movement within 4 to 6 hours.

39 of 65 Urinary tract infections among incontinent patients are best prevented by: A) B) C) D) administering urinary tract analgesics. changing IV catheters a minimum of every 48 hours. administering an oral antibiotic such as penicillin G. limiting the time an indwelling bladder catheter is in place.

40 of 65 A preparation for a Schedule III substance is written March 15 and dispensed April 30. Authorized refills are NOT permitted after: A) B) C) D) June 14. June 29. September 14. September 29.

41 of 65 Which of the following statements about Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) programs is true?

A) B) C) D)

They They They They

are are are are

pilot programs funded through a fee-for-service plan. funded only through federal funds. funded only through state funds. funded through a prepaid program.

42 of 65 Epidemiology studies show that first degree relatives of a patient with breast cancer have a two to three-fold increase in risk of cancer in comparison to the general population. The risk ratio for these relatives compared to non-relatives is therefore: A) B) C) D) 1/2 to 1/3. 2 to 3. 7 to 8. 200 to 300.

43 of 65 Methotrexate induced severe bone marrow suppression can be prevented by concomitant administration of: A) B) C) D) leucovorin. folic acid. nicotinamide. nicotinic acid.

44 of 65 Patients' perceptions of illness and their reactions to it are most influenced by their: A) B) C) D) cultural background. pharmacist. physician. insurance plan.

45 of 65 A true statement regarding the effectiveness of dialysis in removing a drug from systemic circulation is: A) B) C) D) low molecular weight compounds are more readily dialyzed. high molecular weight compounds are more readily dialyzed. compounds with large volumes of distribution are more readily dialyzed. highly lipid-soluble drugs are more readily dialyzed.

46 of 65 Which of the following groups of US health professionals has reportedly suffered from decreased patient demand due to its emphasis on preventive care? A) B) C) D) Dentists Optometrists Pharmacists Physicians

47 of 65 The major complication of 131I therapy in the treatment of Graves' disease is: A) radiation thyroiditis. B) thyroid scan. C) malignancy.

D) hypothyroidism. 48 of 65 Cystitis is diagnosed in a 24-year-old woman in the thirty-first week of pregnancy. She has no known drug allergies. The pharmacist can appropriately recommend treatment with: A) B) C) D) co-trimoxazole DS, i bid for 10 days. tetracycline, 250 mg, qid for 3 days. amoxicillin, 250 mg, tid for 10 days. ciprofloxacin, 250 mg, bid for 10 days.

49 of 65 The largest segment of total health-care expenditures is for: A) B) C) D) medications. hospital care. nursing home care. physician services.

50 of 65 Which of the following statements best represents medical information obtained over the Internet? A) The Food and Drug Administration regulates all drug information found on the Internet B) The Internet hosts a large number of high-quality medical resources; however, the quality of information from some sites is questionable C) Consumers seldom use the Internet to find medical information D) All medical information available on the Internet is current and well documented 51 of 65 Which of the following solutions would provide the most concentrated source of calories? A) B) C) D) 20% 70% 20% 25% fat emulsion dextrose dextrose + 10% amino acids dextrose + 4.25% amino acids

52 of 65 Ingestion of petroleum distillates commonly results in: A) B) C) D) chemical pneumonitis. metabolic acidosis. hepatic failure. hallucinations.

53 of 65 The immunosuppression caused by cyclosporin therapy is increased by a drug interaction with: A) ketoconazole. B) rifampin. C) ibuprofen.

D) lbuterol. 54 of 65 The inflammatory response, characterized by pain, swelling, and erythema, is due primarily to the chemotaxis and migration of: A) B) C) D) platelets. neutrophils. red blood cells. T lymphocytes.

55 of 65 The current laboratory test of choice for monitoring the effect of warfarin is: A) B) C) D) international normalized ratio (INR). partial thromboplastin time (PTT). prothrombin time (PT). whole blood clotting time.

56 of 65 Which of the following formulas best describes how third parties reimburse pharmacies for prescription drug products? A) B) C) D) 100% of 100% of AAC + a AWP - a Actual Acquisition Cost (AAC) Average Wholesale Price (AWP) pre-determined percentage of AAC pre-determined percentage of AWP

57 of 65 Which of the following factors is NOT a basic component of the marketing mix? A) B) C) D) Place Price Promotion Performance

58 of 65 Health-related quality of life is what type of outcome? A) B) C) D) Operational Humanistic Economic Clinical

59 of 65 Which of the following infections becomes LESS common as children age into adolescence? A) B) C) D) Otitis media Vertebral osteomyelitis Meningococcal meningitis Bacterial endocarditis

60 of 65 Two antiepileptic drugs are compared during a 6-month period. Frequency of premedication seizures in the two patient groups are normally distributed and have equal variances. What statistical test is appropriate for comparing seizure frequency in the 2 groups? (No other extraneous variables are to be analyzed.)

A) B) C) D)

Student's t-test Chi-square test Mann Whitney U-test Wilcoxon rank sum test

61 of 65 The earliest sign of congestive heart failure is: A) B) C) D) dyspnea. hypertrophy. angina pectoris. myocardial infarction.

62 of 65 Which of the following may be useful as a marker of malnutrition? A) B) C) D) a1-Acid glycoprotein Erythrocyte sedimentation rate C-reactive protein Serum albumin

63 of 65 A patient known to have coronary artery disease suffers the onset of chest pain while he is resting. This type of angina is described as: A) B) C) D) chronic. sedentary. variant. unstable.

64 of 65 The clear delineation of hypotheses is most important at what point in a research project? A) B) C) D) Before data collection begins While data is being collected After data is collected After summary data is collected