Frustration of peripheric circulation 1. Which thrombus formation does the phase of agglutination prevail in?

1) White 2) Red 3) Mixed :1 2. The blood filling of an organ under venous hyperemia 1) changes 2) diminishes 3) enlarges :3 3. Volume of blood which flows to a site of tissue under arterial hyperemia 1) enlarges in comparison with a norm 2) diminishes in comparison with a norm 3) does not change in comparison with a norm The answer: 1 4. Linear rate of blood flow at a venous hyperemia 1) does not change 2) enlarges 3) decreases The answer: 3 5. What changes can ischemia cause? 1) Disturbance of venous circulation 2) Arterial thrombosis 3) Venous thrombosis 4) Stasis The answer: 2 6. Which of the following types of embolism is exogenous? 1) thrombotic 2) fatty 3) air 4) tissue The answer: 3 7. What kind of local circulatory disturbances is the constant rise in temperature observed at? 1) Stasis 2) Ischemia 3) Venous hyperemia 4) Arterial hyperemia The answer: 4 8. What tissue is the most sensitive to ischemia? 1) Connecting

2) Glandular 3) Muscular 4) Nervous :3 9. What leads to development of venous stasis? 1) Decrease of pressure in arterioles 2) Clotting in capillaries 3) Augmentation of flowing blood viscosity 4) Disturbance blood outflow The answer: 4 10. What kind of a thrombus is formed at large arterias disturbance? 1) Red 2) White 3) Mixed The answer: 2 11. The cause of cyanosis at venous hyperemia is 1) Decrease of soluble Oxygen in blood 2) Augmentation of restored haemoglobin in blood 3) Augmentation of Carbonei dioxydum in blood The answer: 2 12. Blood inflow to a tissue at its ischemia: 1) diminishes 2) enlarges 3) does not change The answer: 1 13. What local circulatory disturbances does the function of an organ change more abruptly and faster at? 1) ischemia 2) stasis 3) venous hyperemia The answer: 1 14. What kind of local circulatory disturbances does the function of body amplify at? 1) arterial hyperemia 2) venous hyperemia 3) ischemia 4) stasis The answer: 1 15. Arteriovenous difference on Oxygenium at arterial hyperemia 1) enlarges 2) diminishes 3) does not change The answer: 2 16. What kind of local circulatory disturbances does the blood movement in capillaries only stop at?

1) ischemia 2) venous hyperemia 3) true stasis 4) arterial hyperemia The answer: 2 17. What kind of local circulatory disturbances develops at decrease of sticking action of thorax? 1) arterial hyperemia 2) stasis 3) ischemia 4) venous hyperemia The answer: 4 18. Which of the following embolisms kinds is exogenous? 1) Thromboelic 2) tissue 3) Fatty 4) Parasitogenic The answer: 4 19. What kind of local circulatory disturbances is hypothermia of tissue is the most expressed at? 1) stasis 2) ischemia 3) venous hyperemia The answer: 2 20. What kind of local circulatory disturbances does the volumetric rate of blood-flow enlarge at? 1) venous hyperemia 2) ischemia 3) stasis 4) arterial hyperemia :4 21. Lymphopoiesis at arterial hyperemia 1) does not change 2) diminishes 3) enlarged The answer: 3 22. Arteriovenous difference on Oxygenium at venous hyperemia 1) does not change 2) diminishes 3) enlarges The answer: 3 23. What kind of local circulatory disturbances is the paleness of tissues observed at? 1) venous hyperemia 2) ischemia 3) arterial hyperemia

4) stasis The answer: 2 24. Formation of which thrombus does the phase of coagulation prevail at? 1) Mixed 2) White 3) Red The answer: 3 25. Amount of functioning capillaries at arterial hyperemia 1) does not change 2) diminishes 3) enlarges The answer: 3 26. What kind of local circulatory disturbances is cyanosis observed at? 1) stasis 2) arterial hyperemia 3) ischemia 4) venous hyperemia The answer: 4 27. What is the initial in thrombogenesis? 1) Transition of thrombinogen in Thrombinum 2) Transition of Fibrinogenum in fibrin 3) Remission of tissue thromboplastin The answer: 3 28. What kind of local circulatory disturbances is accompanied by pain? 1) venous hyperemia 2) stasis 3) ischemia 4) arterial hyperemia The answer: 3 29. Name types of arterial hyperemia according its origin 1) neurotonic 2) obturational 3) neuroparalytic 4) myoparalytic 5) compression The answer: 1, 3, 4 30. What changes of microcirculation are typical for arterial hyperemia? 1) Augmentation of functioning capillaries amount 2) Decrease of intercapillary pressure 3) Intensifying of liquid filtration in a tissue 4) Decrease of lymph flow from a tissue 5) Augmentation of lymph flow from a tissue The answer: 1, 3, 5

31. What is the scarlet staining of body is conditioned by at disturbance of its circulation? 1) Augmentation of contents of oxyhemoglobin in blood 2) Decrease of contents of oxyhemoglobin in blood 3) Augmentation of arteriovenous difference on Oxygenium 4) Decrease of arteriovenous difference on Oxygenium 5) Augmentation of contents of restored haemoglobin The answer: 1,4 32. Arterial hyperemia on neurotonic mechanism arises due to 1) Stimulations of beta - adrenoreceptors myocytes of vascular wall 2) Stimulations of alpha - adrenoreceptors myocytes of vascular wall 3) Spontaneous decrease of muscle tone of arterioles 4) Intensification of parasympathetic influences on the wall of arterioles The answer: 1, 4 33. Is it possible to name postischemic hyperemia physiological? 1) Yes 2) No The answer: 2 34. What changes of microcirculation are typical for venous hyperemia? 1) Retardation of blood-flow in fine vessels 2) pendulumtype blood-flow 3) Intensification of lymph flow from a tissue 4) Decrease/lessening of functioning vessels The answer: 1, 2 35. What disturbances of microcirculation are typical for ischemia? 1) Rising of arteriovenous difference of pressure 2) Lowering of intravascular pressure 3) Rising of blood-flow linear rate 4) Intensifying of liquid entering from tissue into capillaries 5) Lessening of functioning capillaries The answer: 2, 4, 5 36. What changes arise in the zone of ischemia? 1) necrosis 2) acidosis 3) Rising of potassium amount in cells 4) Rising of sodium amount in cells 5) Weakening of function The answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 37. Indicate emboluses of endogenic origin 1) Cells of breaking up tissues 2) Clump of parasites 3) Air bubbles 4) Coming off thrombuses 5) Droplets of fat at fracture of tubular bones 6) Gas bubbles The answer: 1, 4, 5, 6

38. What type of embolism (in direction of embolus movement ) may arise at nonclosure of oval window? 1) retrograde 2) orthograde 3) Paradoxical The answer: 3 39. How arterial pressure will change at embolism of small circle circulation? 1) It will raise 2) Will go down 3) Will not change The answer: 2 40. Indicate the basic mechanisms of true stasis development ? 1) Augmentation of Albuminums filtration into environmental tissue 2) Dilatation of bringing arterioles 3) Disturbance of blood outflow 4) Aggregation of erythrocytes 5) Retardation of blood current The answer: 1, 4, 5

The study about illness 1. List the basic features of illness 1) It causes infringement of organism adaptability to environment 2) Restriction of protective - adaptive mechanisms 3) Occurrence of illness is caused only by external factors 4) Occurrence of illness is caused by external and internal factors 5) It raises social value of the patient The answer: 1,2,4 2. Pathological changes include 1) structural changes only 2) functional changes only 3) structural and functional changes The answer: 3 3. List the basic characteristics of typical pathological processes 1) Proceed in the same way 2) Depend on a place of localization 3) Do not depend on the origin of factor that causes them 4) Have a biological belonging

The answer: 1,3 4. To typical pathological processes concerns 1) inflammation 2) combustion 3) fever 4) starvation 5) hypoxia 6) uremia The answer: 1,3,5 5. The protective reactions are 1) Only indemnification 2) Only vicarious 3) Indemnification and vicarious The answer: 3 6. The protective reactions are 1) Specific reactions 2) Nonspecific reactions 3) A set of symptoms of adaptation syndrome 4) Vicarious 5) A fever 6) Emotions The answer: 1,2,3,4,5,6 7. What does occurrence of illness depend on 1) The causes of illness 2) The conditions promoting development of disease 3) Reactivity of an organism The answer: 1,2 8. What pathophysiological value has a stress syndrome? 1) Mobilization of protective forces of an organism 2) Reduces risk of development of diseases 3) Promotes occurrence of mental and endocrine diseases 4) Promotes occurrence of atherosclerosis, idiopathic hypertensia 5) Raises immune resistance The answer: 1,3,4,5 9. List the basic periods of illness 1) Preillness 2) Latent 3) Prodromal 4) An outcome The answer: 2,3,4 10. List the possible outcomes of disease 1) Complete convalescence 2) Exacerbation 3) Relapse 4) Incomplete

5) Death 6) Remission The answer: 1,4,5 11. The age or occurrence of a new cycle of disease is called 1) Remission 2) Relapse 3) Complication The answer: 2 12. Connection to basic disease an additional, not causally connected with the first one is called: 1) Relapse 2) Remission 3) Complication The answer: 3 13. Long, close to convalescence, but time improvement of health condition is called 1) Relapse 2) Remission 3) Complication The answer: 2 14. Illnesses having wide circulation which depends on social and economic features of society is called 1) Polyetiological illnesses 2) Opportunistic illnesses 3) Social illnesses The answer: 3 15. The illnesses caused by doctors activity is called 1) Social 2) Iatrogenic 3) Opportunistic The answer: 2 16. The condition at which changes of functions do not fall outside the limits of physiological fluctuations, does not cause disturbances of vital activity of an organism is called 1) Norm 2) Pathology 3) Illness The answer: 1 17. The condition of complete corporal, social and emotional well-being is called 1) Illness 2) Norm 3) Health The answer: 3 18. Changes of structure and functions arising under the influence of pathological factors are called 1) Pathological changes

2) Pathological condition 3) Pathological reaction The answer: 1 19. Qualitatively another condition breaking an adaptability to environment and leading to insufficiency of protective - adaptive mechanisms is called 1) Illness 2) Health 3) Norm The answer: 1 20. The reaction which is out of the physiological fluctuations is called 1) Pathological reaction 2) Physiological reaction 3) Protective reaction The answer: 1 21. Set of pathological and protective - adaptive reactions is called 1) A pathological condition 2) A pathological process 3) Pathological reactions 4) Illness The answer: 2 22. Slowly developing pathological process or its consequence is called 1) A pathological condition 2) A typical pathological process 3) A pathological reaction The answer: 1 23. Activity of a healthy organism directed on the prevention or elimination of influence consequences daily moderate force or factors on an organism is called 1) Adaptive reactions 2) Protective reactions 3) Protective - adaptive reactions The answer: 1 24. The activity of the damaged {injured} organism directed on weakening or elimination of influences of excessive force factors is called 1) Adaptive reactions 2) Protective reactions 3) Protective - adaptive reactions The answer: 2 25. The factor coinciding with frequency of disease occurrence is called 1) Etiological 2) A risk factor 3) A social factor The answer: 2 26. The reasons of medical mistakes are 1) Low general culture of the doctor

2) High erudition of patients 3) Good vocational training 4) Passivity and evasion from active actions 5) Low wages of doctors The answer: 1,4 27. Localization of pathological changes depends on 1) Social factors 2) The etiological factor 3) Conditions of disease occurrence 4) Localization of pathogenic factor action The answer: 4

REACTIVITY AND RESISTANCE. 1. Ability of an organism to answer all influences of external and internal medium determined by certain vital activity changes is called 1) resistance 2) reactivity 3) Protective - adaptive reactions The answer: 2 2. Which statements are true? 1) High reactivity is always accompanied by high resistance 2) High reactivity can be accompanied by low resistance 3) High reactivity can be accompanied by high resistance 4) Low reactivity can be accompanied by low resistance The answer: 2,3,4 3. Which factors influence on formation of reactivity 1) heredity 2) degree of cerebral cortex differentiation 3) educational level 4) social factors 5) psychological factors 6) endocrine system The answer: 1,2,6 4. Prevalence of parasympathetic department of vegetative nervous system promotes 1) intensifying of metabolism 2) decrease of catabolism 3) augmentation of reactivity 4) decrease of reactivity 5) Activation of lymphocytic system 6) Activation of B - lymphocytic system

The answer: 2,4,6 5. Prevalence of sympathetic department of vegetative nervous system promotes 1) active defense reactions 2) passive defense reactions 3) augmentation of cardio-vascular system function 4) suppression of function cardio-vascular and respiratory systems 5) mobilization of energy substratums The answer: 1,3,5 6. The major effectors of reactivity are 1) Immune system 2) thrombocytic system 3) System of blood coagulation 4) monocyte-macrophage system 5) muscular tissue The answer: 1,2,4 7. At decrease of protein amount in nutrition the reactivity 1) enlarges 2) decreases 3) does not change The answer: 2 8. The physiological reactivity is characterized by 1) Adequacy of reaction in relation to character of stimulant 2) An inaccuracy of reaction in relation to character of stimulant 3) Individual character 4) Has specific features and causes evolutionary development of an organism The answer: 1,4 9. List the attributes of pathological reactivity 1) Disturbance of the organism interaction with environment 2) Promotes acclimatization of an organism to environment 3) Disorganization of protective - adaptive mechanisms The answer: 1,3,4 10. A hyperergy is 1) Lessening of reactivity 2) Rising of reactivity The answer: 2 11. An individual intolerance of any substances not connected with an allergy is called 1) tachyphylaxis 2) idiosyncrasy 3) mitridditism The answer: 2 12. Individual rising of resistance to poisons is called 1) tachyphylaxis 2) idiosyncrasy

3) mitridditism The answer: 3 13. Short-term rising of resistance after influence of infectious factors is called 1) tachyphylaxis 2) idiosyncrasy 3) mitridditism The answer: 1 14. List features of senile age reactivity 1) Augmentation of reactivity 2) Lowering of reactivity 3) Relative stable reactivities 4) Prevalence of sympathetic influences 5) Involution of neuroendocrine system 6) Underdevelopment of neuroendocrine system The answer: 2,5 15. Ability of an organism to resist action of pathogenic factors of an environment is called 1) reactivity 2) resistance The answer: 2 16. What types of reactivity are distinguished 1) Physiological 2) Specific 3) Etiological 4) Nosotropic{Pathogenetic} 5) Pathological The answer: 1, 2,5 17. Resistance connected with anatomo-physiological features of an organism is called 1) Passive 2) Active The answer: 1 18. Resistance conditioned by inclusion of protective adaptive mechanisms is called 1) Passive 2) Active The answer: 2 19. To estimation specific reactivity are used 1) parameter of sugar blood level 2) Intensity of antibodyformation 3) Definition of immunoglobulins credit 4) Definition of blood clotting time The answer: 2,3 20. Formation of a reactivity is influenced by: 1) sex 2) Age

3) Social conditions 4) Condition of neuroendocrine system 5) race The answer: 1,2,4 21. Changes in reactivity and resistance 1) Have identical orientation 2) Have opposite orientation 3) different changes of resistance to various influences are possible at the same change of reactivity The answer: 3 22. Resistance is 1) condition of metabolism 2) protective mechanisms of reactivity 3) activity of immune system The answer: 2 Pathophysiology of carbohydrate exchange 1. At liver diseases the level of glucose in blood: 1) decreases 2) increases 3) does not change The answer: 1 2. Which hormonum activates gluconeogenesis? 1) thyroxine 2) epinephrine 3) hidrocortizonum The answer: 3 3. The glycogenolysis is activated at excess of: 1) insulin 2) epinephrine 3) glucocorticoids The answer: 2 4. How does incretion of insdulin changes at hyperglycemia: 1) does not change 2) increases 3) decreases The answer: 2 5. At hypoactivity of paranephroses bark hypoglycemia is connected with: 1) oppression of glycogenolysis 2) disturbance of glycogenolysis 3) inhibition of hexokinase reaction The answer: 2 6. Activity of hexokinase under influence of insulin:

1) increases 2) decreases 3) does not change The answer: 1 7. Level of glucose in blood under influence of glucagon 1) Raises 2) Does not change 3) reduces The answer: 1 8. The hyperdysinsulinism results in 1) Hyperglycemias 2) Hypoglycemia The answer: 2 9. What is the main pathological part in hypoglycemic coma 1) carbohydrate and oxygen starvation of brain neurones 2) carbohydrate starvation of myocardium 3) hypoosmia of blood 4) Not compensated ketoacidosis The answer: 1 10. The hyperglycemia at stress syndrome is explained by 1) Activation of hexokinase reaction 2) Intensifying of gluconeogenesis 3) Acceleration of glycolysis The answer: 2 11. The hypoglycemic coma develops under influence of excess of 1) glucagon 2) glucocorticoids 3) insulin The answer: 3 12. In basis of development of hypoglycemic coma lies: 1) Activation gluconeogenesis 2) Intensifying incretion of counterinsulinic Hormonums 3) Decrease of consumption of Oxygenium by brain The answer: 3 13. Allocation of glucose with urine is called: 1) glucosuria 2) proteinuria 3) hematuria The answer: 1 14. The diabetes is characterized by 1) Rising level of glucose 2) Lessening of glucose level in blood 3) glucose level does not change The answer: 1

15. Absolute (pancreatic) insulinic failure arises from 1) absence of receptors to insulin 2) activation of insulinase 3) autoimmune destruction cells of Langerhans islet The answer: 3 16. Relative insulinic failure arises from: 1) absence of receptors to insulin 2) destruction cells of Langerhans islet 3) excess of contrinsulin Hormonums The answer: 1,3 17. Formation of glycogen at diabetes: 1) enlarges 2) diminishes 3) does not change The answer: 2 18. At diabetes of the 1 type are observed: 1) stimulation gluconeogenesis 2) Oppression of glycogenolysis 3) Oppression of glucogenesis The answer: 1 19. Hexokinase reaction at diabetes: 1) is stimulated 2) is oppressed 3) Does not change The answer: 2 20. The ketogenesis at diabetes is conditioned by 1) Intensifying a glycogenolysis 2) Development of hyperglycemia 3) Oppression of glycolysis The answer: 3 21. Development of ketosis at diabetes is cconditioned by: 1) Deficiency of Acetyl - 2) disadvantage oxaloacetate acids 3) Decrease of pyruvatedehydrogenase activity The answer: 2 22. Falling AP at lactacidemic variant of diabetic coma is conditioned by: 1) Accumulation of ketone bodies in blood 2) Oppression of adrenergic receptors 3) Development of oligemia The answer: 2 23. Development of ketoacidic comas at diabetes is conditioned by: 1) appreciable hyperglycemia 2) oppression of function of kidneys

3) hypoxia of brain The answer: 2 24. At hyperosmotic diabetic coma 1) Edemas develops 2) hypoglycemia is observed 3) phenomena of dehydration of cells are marked The answer: 3 25. The polyuria at a diabetes arises due to: 1) Polydipsias 2) Infringements of formation of initial urine 3) Risings of osmotic pressure of initial urine The answer: 3 26. The most expressed infringements of electrolyte exchange are observed at 1) ketoacidic coma 2) lactacidic coma 3) hyperosmotic coma The answer: 3 27. How does the level of cholesterin in blood changes at diabetes 1) decreases 2) increases 3) does not change The answer: 2 28. At achrestic (youthful) diabetes it is usually observed: 1) An obesity 2) emaciation 3) body weight does not change The answer: 2 29. What factors promote development of diabetic antigiopathy 1) Excessive glycosylation of proteins 2) activation of -lymphocytes and excessive formation of immune complexes 3) dislipoproteinemia 4) activation of coagulating and thrombocyte systems 5) All listed factors The answer: 5 Pathophysiology of albuminous exchange 1. Positive nitrous balance is observed at: 1) fever 2) uremia 3) hyperthyroidism The answer: 2 2. Negative nitrous balance is observed at: 1) starvation

2) diabetes 3) gigantism The answer: 1, 2 3. List conditions which are accompanied by negative nitrous balance 1) Body growth 2) Pregnancy 3) starvation 4) infectious diseases

4. List conditions which are accompanied by positive nitrous balance: 1) starvation 2) fever 3) Icenko-Cushng disease 4) feeding after starvation The answer: 4 5. At renal failure develops hyperazotemia 1) retension 2) production 3) hypochloremia The answer: 1 6. At hypochloremic hyperazotemias secretion of nitrous substances 1) enlarges 2) decreases 3) does not change The answer: 2 7. Hyperproteinemia is accompanied by 1) increase of viscosity of blood 2) decrease of viscosity of a blood The answer: 1 8. At multiple myeloma content of fiber in blood: 1) enlarges 2) decreases 3) Does not change The answer: 1 9. At starvation arises: 1) hyperproteinemia 2) hypoproteinemia 3) content of protein in blood does not vary The answer: 2 10. Level of serumal proteins at infectious and inflammatory diseases: 1) Decreases 2) Does not change

3) enlarges The answer: 3 11. At hypoproteinemia: 1) oncotic pressure decreases and edemas develop 2) oncotic pressure does not change 3) oncotic pressure enlarges The answer: 1 12. At hypoproteinemia develops: 1) retension lipidemia 2) transport lipidemia 3) level of lipids in blood does not change 13. At pathology of kidneys which is accompanied by proteinuria: 1) proteinemia arises 2) hyperproteinemia arises 3) The level of protein of blood plasma does not change The answer: 1 14. Disturbance in adsorption of even one amino acid: 1) is not dangerous 2) Results in disorder of protein synthesis 3) Results in intestinal endointoxication 4) Results in aminoaciduria The answer: 2, 4 15. Appearance of hexokinase in blood plasma testifies about: 1) Infectious process in organism 2) Tumor growth The answer: 2 16. At nutritional dystrophia nitrogen balance is 1) Negative 2) Positive 3) does not change The answer: 1 17. At nutritional dystrophia 1) glycogenolysis is strengthened 2) gluconegenesis is arrested 3) lipolysis is strengthened 4) synthesis of protein is strengthened The answer: 1, 3 18. Oedema form of nutritional dystrophia develops due to: 1) Failures of adrenocortical insufficiency 2) hypoproteinemias 3) hyperazotemias The answer: 2 19. Irreversible dystrophic changes of organs at nutritional dystrophia

are observed at: 1) loss of 10 % of mass 2) loss of more than 25 % of mass 3) loss of more than 50 % of body mass The answer: 2

Pathophysiology of lipide exchange 1. What kinds of lipoproteins are the main transport form of cholesterin in an organism. 1) Chylomicrons 2) LDL 3) VLDL 4) HDL 5) VLDL and LDL 6) LDL and HDL The answer: 6 2. At disturbance of Adeps uptake there is decrease in adsorption of 1) Vitamins of group B 2) Vitamins A, , , K 3) Ferri lactas 4) All mineral salts The answer: 2 3. Discharge of neutral Adepses with feces is called: 1) lipuria 2) steatorhoea 3) diarrhea The answer: 2 4. Which lipoproteins carry out transport of cholesterin to liver 1) VLDL 2) HDL 3) LDL The answer: 3 5. Which lipoproteins are the main transport forms of triglycerides in an organism? 1) Chilomicrons 2) VLDL 3) LDL 4) HDL and LDL 5) Chilomicrons and VLDL

The answer: 5 6. Disturbance in fatty adsorption arises at insufficient activity of 1) Hepatic tryglyceridlipase 2) LP-lipases 3) pancreatic lipase The answer: 7. Long infringement of Adepses adsorption 1) Has positive pathophysiological value 2) Has not any value 3) Results in disorder of Prostaglandinums formation The answer: 3 8. The nutritional lipidemia arises 1) immediately after reception of fat food 2) In 24 hours after reception of fatty 3) In 2-3 hours after reception of fatty The answer: 3 9. Retension hyperlipidemia is conditioned by decrease in activity of 1) Enzymes in Crebs cycle 2) glycogensynthetase 3) lipoproteinlipase 4) phosfolipase The answer: 3 10. At starvation arises 1) transport lipidemia 2) retension lipidemia 3) nutritional lipidemia The answer: 1 11. At excess of Sodium chloridum develops 1) retension lipidemia 2) transport lipidemia 3) nutritional lipidemia The answer: 1 12. At disorder of Heparinum formation is observed 1) retension lipidemia 2) level of lipids in blood will not change 3) nutritional lipidemia The answer: 1 13. Lipidemia promotes development of 1) angyopathy 2) hypoxical myocardiopathies 3) hemorrhagic diathesis 4) Immunodepressions 14. At lipidemia

1) Coagulation of blood is suppressed 2) fibrinolysis is activated 3) fibrinolysis is suppressed 4) thrombogenesis is activated The answer: 3,4 15. Name consequences of lipidemia 1) Bent to thrombosis 2) Acceleration of Oxygenium diffusion from erythrocytes 3) Progressing of atherosclerosis 4) Intensifying of protein disintegration 5) immunodepression The answer: 1,3,5 16. In basis of obesity lays 1) Only a hyperalimentation 2) Endocrine frustration 3) Long positive power balance The answer: 3 17. Hormonum leptin is formed 1) In fatty tissue 2) In hypothalamus 3) In sexual Ferri lactases The answer: 1 18. Alimentary-constitutional obesity arises 1) At hyperalimentation 2) At acoria 3) At illnesses of a liver 4) At overeating of children The answer: 1,2,4 19. At hyperdysinsulinism is observed 1) obesity 2) emaciation 3) body weight does not change The answer: 1 20. At excess of glucocorticoids takes place 1) emaciation 2) obesity The answer: 2 21. Endocrine mechanisms of obesity are conditioned by 1) Excess of carbohydrates in nutrition 2) Excess of Adepses in nutrition 3) Excess of insulin 4) lack of insulin 5) Decrease of lipotropic Hormonums incretion The answer: 3,5

22. Development of cholelithiasis at obesity is conditioned by 1) Rising of intrabelly pressure 2) Stagnation of bile in cholic bubble 3) lessening of organism resistance The answer: 1,2 23. Obesity results in the following frustration of endocrine system 1) depression of sexual Ferri lactases function 2) To diabetes 3) Excess of thyroid gland Hormonums 4) intensification of cerebral layer of paranephroses function The answer: 1,2 24. Obesity promotes occurrence of 1) Hypertonias 2) hypotonia 3) progressing atherosclerosis 4) lessening of load on the left ventricle 5) hypertrophy of myocardium 6) increase of frequency of insults 7) decrease of vascular network The answer: 1,3,5,6 25. At obesity arises 1) hypoventilation of lungs 2) Chronic diseases of mild and respiratory ways progress 3) pathology on the part of respiratory system is not observed The answer: 1,2 26. Emaciation 1) is always useful 2) Moderate up to 15 % is useful, because it enlarges life span 3) Excessive (more than 15 %) causes dystrophic changes in tissues The answer: 2,3 Atherogenes 1. At atherosclerosis first of all are affected 1) Veins 2) Capillaries 3) Arterias of average and large type The answer: 1,3 2. Name risk factors of atherosclerosis are 1) hypertonia 2) High physical activity 3) Moderate emaciation 4) Atherogenous dislipoproteinemia 5) obesity 6) Smoking

The answer: 1,4,5,6 3. The basic parts of atherosclerosis pathogeny are 1) Focal changes of a vascular wall 2) decrease of coagulating systems activity 3) Atherogenous dislipoproteinemia 4) Activation of coagulating and thrombocyte systems The answer: 1,3,4 4. Atherosclerosis develops at 1) Decrease of LDL receptors activity 2) activation of nonspecific capture of lipoproteins 3) participation of both mechanisms The answer: 3 5. To atherogenous the following classes of lipoproteins belong 1) HDL 2) CM 3) LDL and VLDL The answer: 3 6. To antiatherogenous the following classes of lipoproteins belong 1) HDL 2) CM 3) LDL 4) VLDL The answer: 1 7. Hypo - lipoproteinemia arises at 1) Moderate emasiation 2) obesity 3) smoking 4) high physical activity 5) hypodynamias The answer: 1,4 8. Antibodies to atherogenous lipoproteins are formed 1) at formation of modified lipoproteins 2) Are never formed 3) At failure of T-supressor activity The answer: 1,3 9. Focal changes of vascular wall 1) Play the leading part in development of atherosclerosis 2) Have no value in development of atherosclerosis 3) do not play the leading role in development of atherosclerosis The answer: 1 10. To damage of vascular wall and development of atherosclerosis promotes 1) lipidemia 2) intoxication 3) immune complexes

4) BAS and Cytokines 5) Hydrodynamical impact of blood 6) hypoxia of vascular wall 7) All listed factors The answer: 7 11. Foamy cells are formed at accumulation of lipids in 1) Macrophages 2) Lymphocytes 3) Neutrophils 4) smooth muscle cells of vascular walls 5) Hepatocytes The answer: 1,4 12. The highest risk of atherosclerosis is observed at hyperlipoproteinemia of 1) the 4th type 2) the 2nd type 3) the 3rd type The answer: 2,3 13. Activation of thrombocyte system 1) Promotes proliferation of smooth muscle cells and their migration into intima 2) Development of atherosclerosis brakes 3) Does not play any role in development of atherosclerosis The answer: 1 14. The basic components of fibrous plaque are the following 2 types of Cells 1) Macrophages 2) -lymphocytes 3) smooth muscle cells 4) Mast cells 5) Fibroblasts The answer: 1,3 15. Changes of hemodynamics in large vessels at atherosclerosis declare themselves by 1) Rising of AP 2) decrease of AP 3) Decrease of vascular dilatation reserve 4) increase of dilatation reserve of vessels 5) separation of atheromatous masses and development of embolism 6) hemorrhage in plaque :1,5,6 16. In development of atherosclerosis 1) the great role is played by aseptic immune inflammation of vessels wall 2) The immune system does not play any role 3) hypercholesterinemia matters only The answer: 1 17. At atherosclerosis the changes of microhaemodynamics are:

1) Decrease of capillaries number 2) thickening of capillaries wall 3) Decrease of microthrombogenesis 4) Improvement of transcapillary exchange 5) Increase of blood viscosity and decrease of its fluidity The answer: 1,2,5 18. Atherosclerosis has the great social value because 1) Young women are affected 2) It is pandemic 3) It is the main reason of illnesses causing the basic lethality The answer: 3

Pathophysiology of water-salt and acid-basic balance 1. Production of ADH stimulates: 1) oligemia 2) hyperosmia of blood 3) acidosis 4) hypoosmia of bloods The answer: 1, 2 2. To development of hydropic syndrome does not lead 1) initial aldosteronism 2) secondary aldosteronism 3) nephrotic syndrome 4) heart failure The answer: 1 3. At starvation the edematization is conditioned by 1) hypoonicia of blood 2) Rising permeability of capillaries 3) All listed factors The answer: 3 4. Aldosteronum 1) Strengthens reabsorption of Na + and 2 in kidneys 2) Reduces reabsorption of Na + in kidneys 3) Strengthens rearbsorption of Na + and reduces rearbsorption of + in kidneys The answer: 3 5. The positive water balance is characterized by development: 1) hydrothorax, hydrocele, ascites 2) edema, hydrothorax, hydrocele, anasarca, ascites 3) anasarca, edema, edema, water poisoning The answer: 2

6. At hyperosmotic dehydration a water inflow is 1) From cells into extracellular sector 2) From extracellular sector into cells 3) dishydria does not arise The answer: 1 7. At hypoosmotic dehydrations water comes 1) From cells into extracellular sector 2) From extracellular sector into cells 3) dishydria does not arise The answer: 2 8. a dehydration it: 1) Equivalent loss 2 and electrolits 2) prevalence of loss of electrolits over losses of water 3) primary loss of water above electrolits The answer: 1 9. Hyperosmotic dehydration arises: 1) At loss of blood 2) At polyuria 3) At hyperventilation 4) At diarrheas, vomiting The answer: 2, 3 10. ADH influences upon diuresis by 1) Change of renal blood-flow 2) Intensifying reabsorption of sodium 3) Intensifying reabsorption of water in distal parts of tubulars The answer: 3 11. Allergic edemas (Quincke's edema) are conditioned by 1) Secondary aldosteronism 2) hyperpermeability of vessels 3) Hypooncia of blood The answer: 2 12. At deaquation the function of .. is broken: 1) Only secretory system 2) Only nervous, secretory and cardiovascular 3) All functioning systems of organism The answer: 3 13. Disorder of secretory function of kidneys leads to: 1) hyperosmotic hydropenias 2) hyperosmotic overhydratations 3) hyperosmotic overhydratations The answer: 3 14. Intensification of transsudation causes the following factors: 1) Rising of permeability of capillaries 2) Rising of blood pressure in capillaries

3) Rising of colloid-osmotic pressure in tissues and its dropping in blood 4) Any of the listed factors and their combination 15. Is it true, that at activation of RS the daily urine goes down? 1) Yes 2) No The answer: 1 16. Name types of edemas in which pathogeny the leading part belongs to oncotic factor: 1) Edemas at starvation 2) Quincke's edema 3) edema at inflammation 4) edema at nephrotic syndrom 5) edema at hepatic failure The answer: 1, 4, 5 17. Which of the following statements is true: 1) The secondary aldosteronism develops at tumour of glomerular zone of bark Paranephroses (adrenal cortex) 2) The initial aldosteronism develops at heart failure 3) The initial aldosteronism develops at tumour of glomerular zone of Paranephroses bark :3. Pathophysiology ABB 1. Acidosis is: 1) Shift of the acid-base equilibrium to the acidic side 2) Shift of the acid-base equilibrium to the alkaline side The answer: 1 2. Compensated acidosis is characterized by 1) lessening of blood pH 2) lessening of alkaline blood reserve 3) Rising of alkaline blood reserve The answer: 2 3. Is lessening of blood pH an obligatory attribute of compensated Acidosis: 1) Yes 2) No The answer: 1 4. Gaseous acidosis develops at: 1) Decrease of ventilation of lungs 2) Hyperventilations of lungs 3) Any of mentioned above disorders The answer: 1.

5. Nongaseous acidosis develops at: 1) diarrheas 2) Uremias 3) Strengthened formation of acids in organism (starvation, diabetes, Hypoxias, fever) 4) At any of mentioned above conditions The answer: 4 Shift of acid-basic equilibrium into the basic side is . The answer: an alkalosis 7. Gas alkalosis is observed: 1) At ventilation mild 2) At inhalation of pure Oxygenium 3) At any of factors listed above The answer: 1 8. Not gaseous alkalosis develops at: 1) diarrheas 2) vomiting 3) bleeding The answer: 2 9. What disorder of acid-basic balance of organism does capillary blood pH, peer 7.49 testify about?, Peer 7,49 1) compensated alkalosis 2) compensated acidosis 3) not compensated alkalosis 4) compensated acidosis The answer: 3 10. What infringements of acid-basic balance of organism can alveolar hyperventilation lead to? 1) gas alkalosis 2) not gas alkalosis 3) gaseous acidosis The answer: 1 11. What disorders of acid-basic balance of an organism can hypoventilation lead to? 1) gas alkalosis 2) not gas alkalosis 3) gaseous acidosis The answer: 3 Inflammation 1. List the basic features of inflammation: 1) Migration of leucocytes into the damaged{injured} tissue 2) Stage-by-stage changes of microcirculation 3) Restoration of defect

4) Augmentation of own tissues damage :1,2,3 2. List components of inflammation: 1) Migration of leucocytes 2) alteration 3) exudation 4) proliferation 5) Vascular changes and The answer: 2,4,5 3. To exogenous causes of inflammation belong: 1) Immune complexes 2) Viruses 3) Bacteria 4) necrosis The answer: 2,3 4. To endogenic causes of inflammation belong: 1) necrosis 2) Viruses 3) Fractures 4) hemorrhage 5) Adjournment of salts The answer: 1,4,5 5. The reasons of development of aseptic inflammation may be: 1) thrombophlebitis 2) necrosis of tissues 3) myocardial infarction 4) Parenteral introduction of a sterile foreign protein 5) hemorrhage in brain substance The answer: 2,3,5 6. List attributes of inflammation: 1) Local fever 2) reddening 3) cyanosis 4) edema 5) pain 6) tumescence 7) disorder of functions The answer: 1,2,5,6,7 7. The alteration caused by proper action of damaging{injuring} factor is called: 1) Initial 2) Secondary The answer: 1 8. The alteration caused by action of cell disintegration products and lysosomal enzymes is called: 1) Initial

2) Secondary :2 9. The alteration as a component of inflammation causes the following attributes of inflammation as: 1) Fever 2) tumescence 3) pain 4) Infringement of function 5) reddening The answer: 3,4 10. Components of an inflammation: 1) Consistently replace each other 2) Proceed simultaneously The answer: 2 11. To mediators of inflammation belong: 1) Histaminum 2) serotonin 3) kinins 4) lycotriene 5) acidosis The answer: 1,2 12. What three groups do all mediators of inflammation divide into? 1) Local 2) Generalized 3) Circulating 4) Intermediate The answer: 1,3,4 13. To local mediators belong: 1) serotonin 2) Histaminum 3) Prostaglandinums 4) lysosomal enzymes The answer: 1,2 14. In the center of inflammation develops: 1) acidosis 2) alkalosis :1 15. In the center of inflammation the acidosis promotes to: 1) decrease of damage 2) narrowing vessels 3) vasodilatation 4) decrease of proteolysis 5) Intensification of damage The answer: 3,5

16. List the vascular changes arising in the center of inflammation: 1) clottage 2) long ischemia 3) short-term ischemia 4) arterial hyperemia 5) venous stasis 6) venous hyperemia The answer: 3,4,6 17. What results in intensification of alteration: 1) Decrease of concentration BAS 2) Increase of concentration BAS 3) Increase of concentration of lysosomal enzymes 4) Decrease of vascular permeability The answer: 2,3 18. List factors causing pain at inflammation: 1) Prostaglandinums of group E 2) Histaminum 3) acidosis 4) kinins The answer: 3,4 19. The basic differences between transudate and exudates is that to the last one t is typical 1) The maintenance{contents} of fiber less than 0,3 / 2) Absence of blood cells 3) plenty of leucocytes 4) Presence of enzymes The answer: 3,4 20. Mediators of inflammations causing augmentation of vascular permeability are: 1) Histaminum 2) lycotriene 3) kinins 4) interferon 5) Heparinum The answer: 1 21. The factors promoting development of short-term vasospasm in The center of inflammation are: 1) Histaminum 2) lycotriene 3) serotonin 4) axon - reflex 5) bradikinin 6) Catecholamins :2.4,6 22. Physical and chemical changes in the inflamed tissue are 1) acidosis

2) alkalosis 3) Rising concentration of ions 4) hyperosmia 5) hypoosmia 6) hypoonkia The answer: 1,4 23. Specify the factors promoting formation of exudate 1) Decrease of vascular permeability 2) Rising of vascular permeability 3) Decrease of blood oncotic pressure 4) Rising of blood oncotic pressure 5) Augmentation of oncotic pressure in tissues The answer: 2,4,5 24. List the usual sequence of leukocyte emigration into the center of inflammation: 1) Monocytes, neutrophils, lymphocytes 2) Lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils 3) Neutrophils, monocytes, lymphocytes The answer: 3 25. What kinds of inflammation are distinguished depending on kind of exudate: 1) Serous 2) catarrhal 3) Purulent 4) Destructive 5) mononuclear-infiltration The answer: 1,2,3 26. Properties of exudates are 1) Delution of toxins 2) Maintenance of bactericidal action 3) Diffusion of inflammation on the naighbour tissues The answer: 1,2 27. Indicate the correct sequence of phagosytosis stages : 1) Rapproachement, formation of , formation of phagosoma, destruction of phagocyte 2) Formation of , formation of phagosoma, destruction of phagocyte 3) Rapproachement, formation of , absorption of object, formation of a phagosoma, synthesis 4) Biooxidizers, destruction of a phagocyte The answer: 3 28. According the development the inflammation may be: 1) Acute 2) Chronic 3) Subacute 4) hyperergetic The answer: 1,2,3 29. Depending on the organism reactivity the following kinds of inflammation are distinguished:

1) Exudative 2) Acute 3) Chronic 4) Hyperergetic 5) Hypoergetic The answer: 4,5 30. Frustrations of leucocytes migration cause 1) exudative-destructive character 2) Proliferative character :1 31. The phenomenon of uncompleted phagocytosis is conditioned by: 1) Supression of macrophages activity 2) Insufficient synthesis of lycotrienes 3) Insufficient synthesis of kinins 4) Absence of of oxygen radicals and pyroxidase formation The answer: 4 Fever 1. The cryesthesia in the first stage of fever arises 1) Activation of catabolism 2) Spastic stricture of peripheric vessels and lowering of skin temperature 3) Activation of cardiac activity and reduction of sceletal muscles :1,2 2. Weight of a body at a fever 1) Reduces at all stages 2) Does not change 3) Reduces at stage3 The answer: 3 3. The augmentation of diuresis at fever occurs 1) At all stages 2) Only at stage 2 3) At the first and third stage The answer: 3 4. At a subfebrile fever the body temperature raises 1) Up to 38,0 C 2) Up to 40,0 C 3) Up to 42,0 C The answer: 1 5. The difference between the morning and evening body temperature more than 3,0 C at a fever is 1) Alternating 2) Exhausting 3) Constant The answer: 2

6. Rule of Libermeister characterizes interrelation between 1) Frequencies of heart beat and body temperatures 2) Frequencies of heart beat and respirations 3) Frequencies of respirations and body temperatures The answer: 1 7. How do heat production and thermogenesis change at stage 1 of fever 1) Raise 2) Go down 3) The thermogenesis is enlarged. And the heat production is reduced 4) The heat production is enlarged, and the thermogenesis is reduced The answer: 4 8. What statement is correct 1) The fever is any fervescence of any organism 2) This is fervescence of warm-blooded 3) The fever is a reaction of warm-blooded on pyrogenic factors 4) The fever is a reaction of any organism to pyrogenic factors The answer: 3 9. The basic exchange at fever 1) is raised{increased} 2) is lowered 3) is not changed The answer: 1 10. Activity of hexokinase in tissues at fever 1) is raised{increased} 2) is lowered 3) is not changed The answer: 2 11. The pyrectic (high) fever is characterized by rise of temperature Bodies 1) Up to 39,0 C 2) Up to 41,0 C 3) Above 41,0 C The answer: 2 12. The hyperpyrexial fever is characterized by rise of a body temperature 1) Up to 39,0 C 2) Up to 41,0C 3) Above 41,0C The answer: 3 13. At the second stage of fever gluconeogenesis 1) is raised{increased} 2) is lowered 3) is not changed The answer: 1 14. Where the main automatic center of thermoregulation is localized 1) In spinal cord

2) In oblong brain 3) In hypothalamus 4) In cerebellum The answer: 3 15. Alternation of the raised{increased} and normal body temperature is observed at fever 1) Alternating 2) Returnable 3) Wavy 4) All listed The answer: 4 16. Osmotic pressure in tissues at the second stage of fever 1) is raised{increased} 2) is lowered 3) is not changed The answer: 1 17. At the first stage of fever function of adrenal 1) is raised{increased} 2) is lowered 3) is not changed The answer: 2 18. The contents of glycogen in liver at the second stage of fever 1) is raised{increased} 2) is lowered 3) is not changed The answer: 2 19. Thethermogenesis at fever is sharply enlarged 1) At stage1 2) At stage2 3) At stage3 4) At all stages The answer: 3 20. The most pathogenic consequences of hyperpyrexial fever are conditioned by 1) Infringement of digestion 2) hyperventilation mild 3) fibrillation of myocardiocytes The answer: 3.

Allergy 1. Which of the following allergens are the most often reason of atopic diseases development? 1) domestic dust 2) Bacterial toxins

3) Viruses 4) Bed microticks 5) Pollen of plants 6) Epidermal allergens The answer: 1, 4, 5, 6 2. What allergens can cause development of hypersensitivity Time-lapse type (4)? 1) domestic dust 2) Bed micro ticks 3) Bacteria 4) Viruses 5) Salts of metals 6) Medicinal preparations The answer: 3, 4, 5,6 3. The allergic reactions developing mainly on type2 Are: 1) serum disease 2) haptenotic agranulocytosis 3) acute glomerulonephritis 4) autoimmune hemocatheretic anemia The answer: 2,4 4. Specify allergic reactions of the 4 types 1) contact dermatitis 2) Phenomenon of Arthus 3) bacterial allergy 4) food allergy 5) graft rejection 6) Thyroiditis Hashimoto The answer: 1,3,5,6 5. What diagnostics of diseases are dermal assays with an allergen used for 1) allergic rhinitis 2) medicinal allergy 3) atopic bronchial asthma 4) allergic contact dermatitis 5) pollinosis 6) immune agranulocytosis 7) pulmonary tuberculosis 8) brucellosis The answer: 1,3,4,5,7,8 6. Name the cells playing the basic role in the first stage of the 1st type allergy 1) -lymphocytes 2) -lymphocytes 3) Macrophages 4) Eosinocytes 5) Neutrophils 6) Mast cells

7) Plasma cells The answer: 1,2,3,7 7. Which mediators play the basic role in pathogeny allergic Reactions of type1 1) Histaminum 2) leucotriens 3) The factor of thrombocytes activation 4) cation fibers 5) serotonin 7) Components of a complement 8) inins 9) leucotriens The answer: 1, 2, 3, 6, 8 8. Which of the listed mediators play the basic role in development of Allergic reactions of the 2 and the3 types? 1) Histaminum 2) leucotriens 3) Components of a complement 4) lymphotoxin The answer: 3 9. Which of the listed mediators play the basic role in development of Allergic reactions of the 4 types? 1) lymphotoxin 2) leucotriens 3) The factor chemotoxis of eosinophil 4) The factor of migration of macrophages 5) The factor of inhibition of migration of macrophages 6) prodtaglandins 7) The factor of blasttransformation The answer: 1,4,5,7 10. Choose diseases developing mainly on the 3 type of Immune damage? 1) Phenomenon Arthus 2) myasthenia 3) serum disease 4) immune agranulocytosis 5) acute glomerulonephritis 6) immune hemolytic anemia The answer: 1,3,5 11. Immunodeficiency may possess in the base of insufficiency: 1) antibody formation 2) englobement with participation of mononuclear phagocytes 3) englobement with participation of granulocytes 4) -lymphocytes 5) A lysozyme 6) interferon

The answer: 1,2 12. Which cells of immune system are the basic target of AIDS virus? 1) -lymphocytes 2) -lymphocytes killers 3) -lymphocytes helpers 4) -lymphocytes suppressors The answer: 3 13. Initial immunodeficiency may be: 1) With defeat of -and -lymphocytic parts of immunity 2) With primary defect of -cellular immunity 3) With primary disorder of antibody production by B-lymphocytes 5) With defect of mononuclear phagocytes system The answer: 1,2,3,5 14. What changes in the immune answer may lead to development of the 1st type allergy? 1) Activation of -lymphocytes 2) Activation of a complement, oppression of -lymphocytes supressers 3) Activation of -lymphocytes The answer: 3 15. Which antibodies cause development of Time-lapse type hypersensitivity: 1) antibody E 2) Antilymphocytic 3) (the factor of carry) lymphocytes - effectors The answer: 3. 16. What occurs during a sensibilization at hypersensitivity of Time-lapse type? 1) Representation of an antigene by macrophage and T-lymphocytes-helpers 2) Development of IgE 3) Formation of sensitized T-lymphocytes-effectors :3. 17. The basic mediators of immediate type hypersensitivity Are: 1) Histaminum, bradikinin, Heparinum 2) Catecholamines 3) Lymphokines :1. 18. Which way to lead a specific deallergization at hypersensitivity of Immediate type: 1) To enter glucocorticoids 2) To enter a solution of Calcium chloratum 3) To enter a specific antigen in small doses repeatedly :3. 19. What of the listed tissues of an organism is natural (Initial) antigen: 1) Muscular

2) epithelium of bronchuses 3) nervous tissue The answer: 3. 20. To local reactions of hypersensitivity of immediate type belong: 1) Quinces edema 2) contact dermatitis 3) tuberculins assay :1. 21. The mechanism of development of the 2 type allergy is: 1) The antibody cooperates with a cell bearing{carrying} on an antigen 2) The antibody forms a complex with a cell circulating in blood 3) The antibody cooperates with a cell bearing{carrying} an antigen, and this way activating a complement The answer: 3 22. What is in basis of allergic reaction of immediate type: 1) Formation{Education} of complex antigen-antibody 2) ****** antigene-antibody+cell 3) ****** a macrophage - antigen :2. 23. List initial target-cells at allergic reactions of Anaphylactic type: 1) Basophiles 2) T-lymphocytes- suppressors ) T-lymphocytes - killers The answer: 1 24. Which antibodies cause development of hypersensitivity of the1 type: 1) Ig E 2) Antilymphocytic 3) " The factor of carry " lymphocytes The answer: 1 25. What of the listed tissues of organism is a natural (Initial) autoantigen: 1) muscular tissue 2) epithelium of bronchus 3) lens of an eye The answer: 3 26. Hypersensitivity of immediate type underlies in development of: 1) Senna fever, urticaria 2) Reactions of graft rejection 3) collagenosis 4) Bronchial asthma (atopic) The answer: 1, 4 27. To local reactions of time-lapse type hypersensitivity belongs:

1) Quinces edema 2) bronchospasm 3) contact dermatitis The answer: 3 28. The leading part in pathogenic of immunocomplex diseases plays: 1) Decrease of antibodies formation 2) Acceleration of removing of immune complexes from blood-flow 3) Retardation of removing of immune complexes from a blood-flow The answer: 3 29. The mechanism of development of the 2 type allergy is 1) The antibody cooperates with a cell bearing{carrying} on antigen 2) The antibody forms a complex with a cell circulating in blood 3) The antibody cooperates with a cell bearing{carrying} an antigen, and this way activating a complement The answer: 3 30. What way is it possible to cause hypersensitivity of immediate type passively: 1) To pour blood Serum from a sensitized animal 2) To pour a packed red cells 3) To enter an extract from lymphonoduses The answer: 1 31. How to lower hypersensitivity of time-lapse type: 1) To enter Serum of blood from a sensitized animal 2) To transfuse blood from a sensitized animal 3) To enter antilymphocytic Serum The answer: 3 32. Which of the listed tissues of organism is natural (Initial) autoantigen: 1) muscular tissue 2) epithelium of bronchus 3) tissue of testiculs The answer: 3 33. Lymphokines are mediators: 1) Time-lapse allergic reaction 2) Immediate allergic reaction 3) Immediate and time-lapse allergic reaction The answer: 1 34. In initiation of allergic reactions of the 1 type in human participates: 1) Ig AND 2) Ig M 3) Ig The answer: 3 35. What occurs in an organism during sensibilization at Hypersensitivity of immediate type: 1) Capture of antigen by a macrophage

2) Development of antibodies 3) Development of antibodies and their bracing on cells The answer: 3 36. How to carry out a nonspecific deallergization athypersencitive of immediate type: 1) Introduction of glucocorticoids 2) Introduction of lymphocytes 3) Introduction of antibodies The answer: 1 37. Which is the mechanism of action of Histaminum: 1) Raises a permeability of vascular wall 2) Causes spastic stricture of smooth maculation 3) Raises permeability of membranes and causes a spastic stricture of smooth musculation The answer: 3 38. At deallergization in blood the titer raises: 1) reagines 2) Hemagglutinins 3) Blocking antibodies The answer: 3 39. In the basic of the 3 type allergy lays: 1) Reaction between antigen and antibody in blood and fabric liquid 2) Sedimentation of complex of antibody and antigen on endotheliocytes 3) Sedimentation of immune complexes and fragments of a complement on wall Microvessels The answer: 3 The tumor processes 1. List hyperbolic process 1) necrosis 2) atrophy 3) proliferation 4) apoptosis The answer: 3 2. List hypobiotic process 1) Tumor body growth 2) hypertrophy 3) degeneration 4) Neogenesis The answer: 3 3. What tumor process in tissue begins with 1) tumor progression 2) Tumor conversion 3) tumor hyperplasia The answer: 2

4. Name the phenomenon which does not concern to tumoral conversion 1) immortalization 2) anaplasia 3) promotion 4) initiations The answer: 4 5. Name the factors initiating development of tumor process 1) Saprophytes 2) Helminths 3) pathogenic 4) cancerogens 5) xenophobs The answer: 4 6. Choose the most correct statement: 1) Tumor cells are formed in an organism constantly 2) Tumor cells are formed in an organism constantly, but at action them it is formed more 3) Tumor cells are formed only at excessive action The answer: 2 7. Tumor conversion can take place 1) Only in proliferating cells 2) Only in the differentiated cells 3) In any cells The answer: 1 8. Specify correct sequence of standards of tumor body height 1) An initiations 2) Polyclonal 3) Monoclonal The answer: 3,2,1 9. List correct definition of anaplasia 1) Boundless body height of a tumor 2) Replacement of healthy cells of a tissue by tumor cells 3) Loss of ability of cells to be differentiated 4) increasing destructions of cells The answer: 3 10. List the most exact definition of essence of tumor progression 1) Fast body height of tumor 2) The accelerated proliferation of tumor cells 3) Occurrence among tumor cells of mutants with the raised {increased} properties 4) Body height of tumor cells far from the basic tumor The answer: 3 11. Imperfection carbohydrate exchange in tumor cells It is characterized (choose a right answer) 1) Activation of hexokinase and glycol tic enzymes 2) Oppression of hexokinase and glycol tic enzymes

3) Activation of hexokinase and oppression of a glycolysis 4) Oppression of hexokinase and activation of a glycolysis The answer: 3 12. Metastasizes are shaped 1) From again educated tumor cells (conversion) 2) From the transferred cells of an initial tumor 3) In any of the mentioned above cases The answer: 2 13. Cancerogenic factors by origin can be 1) Only exogenous 2) Only endogenic 3) Only in a combination -and endogenic 4) In each concrete case a parentage cancerogenic various The answer: 4 14. Immunological anaplasia a tumor tissue it is characterized 1) Display of atypical antigens 2) Imperfection of the immune answer 3) Suppression of immune systems of an organism 4) All listed above phenomena :4 15. Power anaplasia of tumors it is characterized 1) Rising charges of carbohydrates and amplified{strengthened} synthesis ATP 2) The lowered charge of metabolic substrata and synthesis P 3) Loss of ability to synthesize P 4) Amplified{Strengthened} charge P The answer: 3 16. How is anaplasia which is shown by disability of cells To form organellas and structures called 1) Biochemical 2) Biological 3) Morphological 4) Functional The answer: 3 17. Why do the contents of glucose and amino acids at patients decreases with Developing tumor 1) Loss with urine 2) Infringement of mastering from GIT 3) The increased charge in cells of 0 tumor and deterioration of digestive functions The answer: 3 18. anaplasia all kinds of a metabolism in a tumour results in development 1) Amplified{Strengthened} assimilation 2) Dysplasias 3) Cachexias 4) Metaplasias The answer: 3

19. Choose the most correct answer 1) The heredity does not influence occurrence of tumor process 2) The tumor arises only at hereditary predisposition 3) Hereditary predisposition sharply raises risk of development various Tumors 4) Hereditary predisposition predetermines high risk of development The certain tumors The answer: 4 20. Functional anaplasia is 1) Sharp decrease of functional parameters of all systems of an organism 2) Infringement of coordination of activity of physiological systems of an organism 3) Sharp change of functional parameters in a tumor tissue in comparison With initial The answer: 3

Action of ecological factors 1. The acute radial illness develops 1) At repeated action of radiation in small doses 2) At unitary massive irradiation in dose not less than 100 it is glad 3) At action, radiation in any ionizing dose The answer: 2 2. The most radiosensitive is: 1) A nervous tissue 2) Hemopoietic and an adenoid tissue 3) An osteal tissue The answer: 2 3. The period of initial reactions is characterized by: 1) nausea, vomiting 2) headache 3) Delirium, hallucinations 4) loss of consciousness 5) labiality of pulse and the AP The answer: 1,2,5 4. Duration of imaginary well-being period of an acute radial illness: 1) Does not depend on the received dose 2) Has direct dependence on a dose: more the dose, more the period 3) Has inverse relationship from a dose: more the dose, less the period The answer: 3 5. During an acute radial illness the patient may die 1) From infectious complications 2) From hemorrhage in the vital bodies 3) From a myocardial infarction The answer: 1.2

6. A chronic radial illness is: 1) Consequences of acute radial illness 2) result of repeated action of ionizing radiation in small Doses (a cooperative dose = 400 it is glad) The answer: 2 7. At chronic radial illness a hemopoiesis: 1) activates 2) oppresses 3) Does not change The answer: 2 8. At chronic radial illness atherosclerosis progresses: 1) Yes 2) No The answer: 1 9. Put forms of acute radial illness depending on ascending of received dose: 1) Cerebral 2) Intestinal 3) Typical 4) Toxemic The answer: 3,2,4,1 10. At acute radial illness defeat of a mucosa has: 1) ulcer-necrotic character 2) Atrophic character 3) Mucosas are not amazed The answer: 1

Hypoxia 1. Hypoxia is: 1) Sensation of air lack 2) Lack of Oxygen in air 3) Decrease of delivery and use of Oxygen in tissues 4) Decrease of Oxygen concentration in blood The answer: 3 2. Hystotoxic hypoxia develops at 1) Infringement of Oxygen diffusion from vessels to tissue 2) Damage mitochondrial device of cells 3) Any intoxication The answer: 2 3. exogenous hypoxia develops owing to 1) Obstructions of the top respiratory ways 2) Difficulty of transition of Oxygen from alveolar air in the blood

3) Decrease of Oxygen content inhaled air 4) Respiratory standstill The answer: 3 4. The respiratory hypoxia develops owing to 1) Defeats of respiratory center 2) Defeats of respiratory maculation 3) Pathologies mild 4) Infringements of any link of respiratory system 5) Infringement of pneumatic ways and mild The answer: 4 5. hypoxemia accomplies 1) Any hypoxia 2) All hypoxias, except for hemic 3) All hypoxias, except for histotoxic 4) Only respiratory The answer: 3 6. Haemic hypoxia develops owing to: 1) Decrease of Oxygen content of in inhaled air 2) Decrease of oxygen capacity of a blood 3) Infringements of delivery of a blood to tissues The answer: 2 7. Circulatory hypoxia develops at: 1) Any decrease of the contents of Oxygen in a blood 2) Any decrease tissues a blood 3) Decrease of erythrocytes quantity in blood and decrease of Oxygen transition from Bloods into tissue The answer: 2 8. How hypoxia developing in tissues of the given organ at sharp Stimulation of its activity called The answer: the worker 9. What hypoxia will develop in brain at decrease of blood emission from the left ventricle 1) hemic 2) Respiratory 3) circulatory 4) Exogenous The answer: 3 10. Hemic hypoxia develops at 1) Inactivation or decrease of haemoglobin content in blood 2) Erythropenias 3) Any cases mentioned above 4) At any blood stagnation of in tissue The answer: 3 11. At the chronic hypoxia caused by a heart failure, quantity{amount}

Erythrocytes in a blood: 1) It enlarges 2) Decreases 3) Does not change The answer: 1 12. One of compensatory mechanisms at a hypoxia is stimulation of Erythropoesis, which take place 1) At acute hypoxia 2) At chronic hypoxia 3) At any hypoxia The answer: 2 13. The characteristic of the acid-basic balance in tissues at its hypoxia 1) Does not change 2) The acidosis develops 3) The alkalosis develops 4) Depends on a type of hypoxia The answer: 2 14. A catabolism in tissues at their hypoxia 1) Amplifies 2) arrestes 3) Aerobic mechanisms amplify The answer: 3 15. The hypoxia renders pathogenic action on myocardium if it lasts 1)5 minutes 2)20 minutes 3)60 minutes 4) At any duration :3 16. The described consequences of hypoxia at people which are carrying out main Functions may be conditioned by: 1) Euphoria and fall of self-criticism 2) Disorder of concentration of attention, retardation of thinking, underestimation Situations 3) 4) Only suppression of strong-willed efforts The answer: 3 17. Compensation of hypoxia by intensifying of tissues perfusion with blood due to: 1) increase of heart productivity and expansion of tissue vessels 2) Only tachycardia 3) Only vasodilatation The answer: 1 18. To urgent (reflex) mechanisms of hypoxia indemnification belongs: 1) A tachycardia 2) Centralization of blood-flow 3) Emission of erythrocytes from depot

4) Stimulation of erythropoiesis The answer: 4 19. What action does hypoxia render on an organism? 1) Pathogenic action 2) Noble action 3) Short-term, intermittent - salutary action, long continuousPathogenic 4) Long - salutary, intermittent, short-term - pathogenic The answer: 3 20. Cellular mechanism of adaptation to hypoxia 1) proliferation of cells 2) Activation of mitochondrial enzymes 3) Intensification of cellular organelles formation The answer: 2 Pathology of respiration 1. At dyspnoe is damaged 1) inspiration 2) exhalation 3) inspiration and inspiration 4) Any of listed variants is possible The answer: 4 2. Inspiratory short wind develops at damage of 1) inspiration center 2) respiratory maculation 3) One of mechanisms exercising inspiration The answer: 3 3. At expiratory dyspnea 1) inspiration hampers 2) inspiration is not hampered 3) The inspiration and an exhalation is hampered The answer: 2 4. Periodic respiration is characterized by alternation of 1) inspiration and exhalation 2) Rare and often respiratory movements 3) Respiration with arrests 4) Any mentioned above The answer: 3 5. Superficial frequent respiration develops at: 1) Activation of inspiration center 2) Activation of exhalation center 3) Activation of inspiration center and inhibition of exhalation center 4) Activation of exhalation center and inhibition of inspiration center The answer: 4

6. Deep infrequent (stenotical) respiration is caused: 1) Absence of Goering - Breurea reflexes 2) Provocation of Goering - Breurea reflexes 3) Time-lapse formation of Goering - Breurea reflexes The answer: 3 7. List kind of respiration which does not belong to periodic: 1) Atonal 2) Type Biota 3) Such as Cheyene-Stokes The answer: 1 8. Stenotical respiration is 1) Frequent superficial 2) Frequent deep 3,) infrequent deep 4) Periodic The answer: 3 9. At emphysema of lungs exhalation ( a short wind), respiration labored: 1) Frequent superficial 2) Frequent Deep 3) Deep infrequent 4) Periodic The answer: 1 10. Decrease of inspiration center sensitivity to physiological stimulus is accompanied by development of respiration 1) Frequent superficial 2) Infrequent deep 3) Frequent deep 4) Periodic The answer: 4 11. At bronchial asthma ( spastic stricture of bronchuses) damaged 1) inspiration 2) exhalation 3) inspiration and exhalation at the same extent The answer: 2 12. valve pheumothorax can be formed 1) Only thoracal cavity tissue damage 2) Only at damage of lungs tissues 3) At simultaneous damage of lung tissues and of pleura 4) At damage of lung tissues or tissues of pleura The answer: 4 13. Decrease of alveolar capacity (at hydrothorax, fluid lungs, extensive pneumonias, etc.) results in development of respiration: the most of all is

1) Periodic 2) stenotic 3) Frequent superficial l 4) Frequent deep The answer: 3 14. At a diabetic coma respiration is typical: 1) Cheyene-Stokes 2) Biot 3) Kussmaul 4) Vesicular The answer: 3 15. At disterbance of alveoluss ventilation bloods 1) Raises 2) Goes down 3) Does not change The answer: 2 16.When thoracic cavity is wounded, air fills pleural and stays there, this is called 1) Open pheumothorax: 2) Closed pheumothorax: 3) Valve pheumothorax: 4) Obstructive pheumothorax: The answer: 2 17. At emphysema of lungs elastic properties of lungs 1) Raises 2) Go down 3) Does not change The answer: 2 18. At prolonged nasal respiration is damaged functions CNS due to: 1) Increase of gas exchange in lungs 2) Decrease of capacity of alveoluses 3) Deterioration of brain perfusion 4) Decrease of cardiac emission The answer: 3 19. Asphyxia is: 1) termination} of respiratory movements 2) hypoxia owing to respiration disorder 3) respiratory hypoxia is accompanied by hypercapnia 4) Any hypercapnia The answer: 3 20. In a pathogenic of asphyxia are distinguished: 1) Two periods 2) Three periods 3) Four periods 4) The quantity of periods varies

The answer: 2

Heart failure 1. At what of situations does metabolic type Heart failure appear? 1) Failure of the mitral valve 2) Failure of vitamin 1 3) Idiopathic hypertension 4) Septic conditions 5) stenosis of aortas outfall 6) alcohol intoxication 7) coronary atherosclerosis The answer: 2, 4, 6, 7 2. List factors causing the reloading form of heart failure 1) alcohol intoxication 2) stenosis of aortas outfall 3) idiopathic hypertension 4) myocarditis 5) emphysema of lungs The answer: 2, 3, 5 3. List the possible reasons of right ventricle failure 1) arterial hypertension of big circle of a circulation 2) hypertension of small circle of circulation 3) infarct of left ventricle forward wall 4) Defect of interventricular septum 5) chronic pneumonia The answer: 2, 4, 5 4. List the possible causes of left ventrical failure. 1) Failure of mitral valve 2) infarct of lateral wall of left ventricle 3) hypertension of small circle of circulation 4) arterial hypertension 5) coarctation of aorta 6) emphysema of lung The answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 5. How does intensity of hypertrophied cardiomyocytes functioning change at phase of steady hyperfunction? 1) It extremely enlarges 2) It reduces up to norm 3) Progressively falls The answer: 2 6. How does endocardiac hemodynamics change at myogenetic dilatation ventricles of heart?

1) Rate of systolic exile of blood grows 2) Diastolic volume of blood in ventricle cavity is enlarged 3) Residual systolic volume of blood in cavity of ventricles is enlarged 4) Shock emission of heart decreases The answer: 2, 3, 4 7. List factors causing mainly diastolic dysfunction 1) coronarocardiosclerosis 2) hypertrophy of myocardium 3) myocardial infarction 4) increase of 2 + concentration in cytoplasm of cardiomyocytes 5) chronic pericarditis The answer: 2,4, 5 8. At isometric hyperfunction pressure in heart cavities is: 1) diminished 2) not changed 3) enlarged The answer: 3 9. Attributes of heart failure are: 1) short wind, cyanosis 2) tachycardia, cyanosis, dyspnoea 3) dyspnoea, cyanosis, tachycardia, edemas The answer: 3 10. The mass of mitochondrions and myofibrils starts to grow in 1) the 1st stage of myocardium hypertrophy 2) the 2nd stage of myocardium hypertrophy 3) the 3rd stage of myocardium hypertrophy The answer: 1 11. Stroke output at heart failure: 1) is enlarged 2) is diminished 3) is not changed :2 12. What develops at coronary failure? 1) reloading heart failure 2) metabolic heart failure 3) mixed heart failure The answer: 2 13. Renin ioncretion at right ventricle failure: 1) is enlarged 2) is not changed 3) is diminished The answer: 1 14. How does arterial pressure change at activation of rennin angiotensinAldosteronum system?

1) enlarges 2) Decreases 3) Does not change The answer: 1 15. How does synthesis of fiber in liver change at right ventricle failure? 1) enlarges 2) Decreases 3) Does not change The answer: 2 16.Isotonic hyperfunction takes place at: 1) Rising resistance to blood outflow 2) Increase of venous return to heart 3) Risings resistance to blood outflow and increase of blood inflow to heart The answer: 2 17. At an emergency stage of compensatory hypertrophy occurs: 1) Activation of oxidizing phosphorilization 2) Lessening of oxidizing phosphorilization intensity 3) Increase of glycogen synthesis The answer: 1 18. For the 3rd stage of myocardium hypertrophy is typical: 1) Increase in intensity of myocardium structure functioning 2) Development of cardiosclerosis 3) Increase of myocardium contraction abilities The answer: 2 19. Volume of circulating blood at heart failure: 1) is enlarged 2) is diminished 3) is not changed The answer: 1 20. To development of cardiac oedema promotes: 1) decrease of hydrophylic nature of tissues 2) Hypoonkia of blood 3) decrease of osmotic pressure of blood The answer: 2 21. For acute left ventricle failure is typical: 1) Stagnation in small circle of circulation 2) Stagnation in big circle of circulation 3) Stagnation in small and big circle of circulation The answer: 1 22. At stagnation in small circle of circulation oxygenation of blood: 1) is enlarged 2) is diminished 3) is not changed The answer: 2

23. How does permeability of pulmonary vessels change at acute left ventricle failure 1) It enlarges 2) Decreases 3) Does not change The answer: 1 24. At isotonic hyperfunction shock and minute volume of heart: 1) Grows 2) Does not change 3) Decreases The answer: 1 25. At tonogenic dilatation stroke output of blood: 1) enlarges 2) Idiminishes 3) does not change The answer: 1 26. For the 3rd stage of myocardium hypertrophy is typical: 1) Decrease of H and myofibrils mass 2) Increase of H and myofibrils mass 3) Increase of power formation The answer: 1 27. Accumulation of aresidual blood in heart is typical for: 1) tonogenic dilatation 2) Myogenetic dilatation 3) For tonogenic and myogenetic dilatation The answer: 2 At heart failure incretion of Aldosteronum: 1) is enlarged 2) is diminished 3) is not changed The answer: 28. To extracardial mechanisms of heart failure compensation belongs: 1) tachycardia 2) Emission of blood from depot 3) Change of blood stroke output 4) dyspnoe The answer: 2,4 29. At isotonic hyperfunction inflow of blood to heart: 1) is diminished 2) is enlarged 3) is not changed The answer: 2

30. At emergency stage of compansatory hyperfunctions synthesis of protein in myocardium: 1) is enlarged 2) is diminished 3) is not changed The answer: 1 31. At decompansatory heart failure signs of insufficient heart work appear 1) At appreciable exercise stress 2) At small exercise stress 3) In rest The answer: 3 32. Development of cardiac dropsy is conditioned by: 1) aldosteronism 2) hypoxia and acidosis in tissues 3) proteinuria 4) Disturbance of protein synthesis in liver The answer: 1,2,4 33. Name the main cause of tachycardia development at right ventricle heart failure: 1) hypercatecholaminemia 2) Rising pressure in aorta 3) Rising pressure in cava veins 4) Augmentation of circulatory blood volume The answer: 3

1. The factors promoting occurrence of arrhythmias are called: _________________ The answer: arrythmogenics 2. Among arrhythmogenic factors are distinguished 1) Cardial arrytmogenic factors 2) extracardial arrytmogenic factors 3) intracardial arrytmogenic factors 4) Supracardial arrytmogenic factors 5) There is no right answer The answer: 1,2 3. How are arrhythmias proceeding with shift of rhythm driver called? 1) nomotopic 2) heterotopic 3) parotopic 4) polytopic 5) There is no right answer :2 4. How are arrhythmias proceeding without shift of the rhythm driver called? 1) nomotopic

2) heterotopic 3) There is no right answer 4) Isotopic :1 5. Which of the listed kinds of arrhythmias belong to nomotopic? 1) sinus tachycardia 2) ventricular extrasystole 3) Arrest of sinus unit 4) sick sinus syndrome 5) rhythm, average part of atrioventricular bond The answer: 1,3,4 6. The reasons of sinus tachycardias onset are: 1) Activation of sympatho-adrenal system 2) Exaltation of center nervus vagus 3) Uremia 4) Pheochromocytoma 5) Fever The answer: 1,4,5 7. The sick sinus syndrome is shown by: 1) braditachiarrhythmia 2) Occurrence of extrasystoles 3) Morgani-Adams syndrome 4) There is no right answer 5) Parasystole The answer: 1,2,3 8. Which of the listed symptoms are typical? 1) Frequency of cardiac reductions achieves 90-180 impacts in a minute 2) Frequency of cardiac reductions achieves 200 impacts in a minute 3) Arises at exercise stress 4) At fever 5) It is characterized by expressed changes of P wave form The answer: 1,3,4 9. Which of the listed symptoms are typical for sinus bradycardia: 1) Automatism of sinus nodus is reduced 2) Frequency of cardiac reductions is more than 60 impacts in a minute 3) Rate of diastolic repolarization is lowered 4) PQ Interval is diminished 5) Belong to nomotopic arrhythmias The answer 1,3,5 10. How does frequency of cardiac reductions changes at rhythm from AV-bond? 1) enlarges to 90 impacts in a minute 2) decreases to 30-20 impacts in a minute 3) Does not change 4) decreases to 45-60 impacts in a minute decrease till 45-60 The answer: 4

11. How will ECG change at rhythm of the top part of AV-bond? 1) Will not change 2) P wave is negative, it is posed before ventricular complex 3) wave is shipped in ventricular complex 4) P wave is negative, it is posed after ventricular complex 5) P wave is bifurcated The answer: 2 12. How will ECG change at rhythm of an average part of AV-bond? 1) Will not change 2) P wave is negative, it is posed before ventricular complex 3) P wave is shipped in ventricular complex 4) P wave is negative, it is posed after ventricular complex 5) P wave is positive, it is posed before ventricular complex The answer: 3 13. How will ECG change at rhythm of the lower part of AV-bond? 1) Will not change 2) P wave is negative, it is posed before ventricular complex 3) P wave is absent 4) P wave is negative, it is posed after ventricular complex 5) P wave is positive, it is posed after ventricular complex The answer: 4 14. Which displays are typical for idioventricular rhythm? 1) Frequency of cardiac reductions is > 120 impacts in a minute 2) Frequency of cardiac reductions is <40 impacts in a minute 3) Sharp deformation of ECG 4) On ECG there are no changes 5) is frequently complicated by occurrence of ventricles fibrillation The answer: 2,3,5 15. Extraordinary reduction of heart is called ______________ The answer: an extrasystole 16. The reasons of extrasystole occurrence are 1) Pregnancy 2) physical overstrain{overvoltage} 3) hypertrophy of myocardium 4) Organic defeat of myocardium 5) Exaltation of parasympathetic department of nervous system The answer: 1,2,3,4 17. How will minute volume of blood change at idioventricular rhythm? 1) Will not change 2) Will decrease 3) Will increase :2

18. How is rhythmical alternating of any changed ECG complex called? __________________ The answer: an allorhythmia 19. How is occurrence of extrasystole after each second normal heart reduction called? 1) bigeminy 2) trigeminy 3) quadrigeminy 4) Bouveret's disease The answer: 2 20. Syndrom of auricles occlusion arises at: 1) extrasystole from AV-bond 2) AV form of Bouveret's disease 3) Constant tachycardia of ciliary arrhythmia 4) WPW symptom The answer: 1,2 21. An arrhythmia at which the sudden sharp acceleration and the same sudden normalization of cardiac rhythm reductions are observed is called: ____________________ The answer: paroxysmal tachicardia 22. What changes of ECG are typical for tachiform of ciliary arrhythmia? 1) Various R wave amplitude 2) Various size of interval R-R 3) Absence of ventricular complex changes at presence two-humped Pwave 4) Increase of typical P wave quantity and absence of ventricular complexes cganges 5) Identical size of interval R-R The answer: 1,2 23. Fibrillation of ventricles is: 1) quick rhythmical contraction of ventricles up to 180 impacts in a minute 2) quick, in-co-ordinate, asynchronous contraction of separate parts of ventricles myocardium 3) quick rhythmical contracton of ventricles 160-180 impacts in a minute, at a sinoatrial rate of auricles reductions/ 4) Periodical Venkenbaha The answer: 2 24. The makrore-entry mechanism plays role in occurrence of the following types of arrhythmias: 1) ciliary arrhythmia 1) atrium extrasystoles 3) WPW syndrom 4) paroxysmal tachycardia 5) Cardiac standstills to diastole The answer: 3,4 25. The mikrore-entry mechanism plays role in occurrence of the following types of arrhythmias: 1) ciliary arrhythmia

2) atrium extrasystoles 3) WPW syndrom 4) paroxysmal tachycardia 5) Cardiac standstills in diastole The answer: 1 26. Which changes of ECG are typical for incomplete AV blockade of the 1st degree? 1) Acceleration of cardiac reduction rhythm up to 120 impacts in a minute 2) Retardation of carrying out of a pulse on AV-bond more than 0,18-0,20, intervals PQ peer, prolate. Heart is reduced in a sinoatrial rate 3) Occurs gradual elongation of interval PQ from a systole to a systole before abaissement of carrying out of the next pulse 4) The identical length of interval PQ, occurs abaissement of separate pulses. The answer: 2 27. What changes of ECG are characteristic for incomplete AV blockade of the II degree, the first type with Samoilov - Venkebah periodical press? 1) Acceleration of cardiac beat up to 120 impacts in a minute 2) Retardation of impulse conduction along AV-bond more than 0,18-0,20, PQ intervals are peer, prolonged. Heart reduces in sinoatrial rate 3) Occurs gradual periodic elongation of PQ interval from systole to systole till abasement of the next impulse conduction 4) The identical length of PQ interval, abasement of separate impulses occurs. The answer: 3 28. What changes of ECG are characteristic for incomplete AV blockade of II degree, the second type? . 1) Acceleration of cardiac beat up to 120 impacts in a minute 2) Retardation of impulse conduction along AV-bond more than 0,18-0,20, PQ intervals are peer, prolonged. Heart reduces in sinoatrial rate 3) Occurs gradual periodic elongation of PQ interval from systole to systole till abasement of the next impulse conduction 4) The identical length of PQ interval, abasement of separate impulses occurs. The answer: 4 29. Pathophysiological value of complete AV-blockade onset is: 1) atrial contribution into systole increases 2) onset of auricle occlusion syndrome 3) increase of cardiac emission 4) Decrease of cardiac emission 5) AP lowering The answer: 2,4,5 30. In pathogeny of WPW syndrome the basic is: 1) Presence of additional fascicle of pulse conduction - a fascicle of Kent (the mechanism makrore-entry) 2) Circulation of impulse in myocardium along the mikrore-entry mechanism 3) onset of AV blockade of III degree. 4) onset of right leg of Giss blockade The answer: 1

31. What changes of vital activity of an organism are typical at onset of ventricular form of Bouveret's disease? 1) Falling of arterial pressure 2) onset of arrhythmogenic shock 3) blood supply of liver and kidneys enlarges 4) onsetof acute renal failure 5) Stable current, complications are seldom The answer: 1,2,4 32. What changes of vital activity of an organism are typical at onset of paroxymal ciliary arrhythmia? 1) Frequency of cardiac reductions is 50-170 impacts in a minute, chaotic reductions of myocardium 2) Attributes of left ventricular failure develop quickly 3) atrium contribution into systole is enlarged 4) tromboembolic episodes are frequent 5) Proceeds without visible seen disturbances of hemodynamics The answer: 1,2,4 33. Name the basic displays of sinoauricular blockade: 1) Occurrence of bradycardia 2) cardiac standstill 3) Occurrence of occlusion of auricles syndrome 4) Improvement of memory, attention, thinking 5) Accompanying Morgani-Adams-Stoks syndrome The answer: 1,2,5

Examination test tasks on Pathophysiology for foreign students on the theme CORONARY INSUFFICIENCY 1. Disharmony between heart need in Oxygenium and its delivery with blood-flow is called: __________________________ The answer: coronary failure 2. List causes of coronary blood-flow decreas: 1) cardial X syndrome 2) Prevalence of sympathetic nervous system tone 3) Prevalence of parasympathetic nervous system tone 4) lesion of coronary arterias by atherosclerosis 5) infiltration of coronary arterias walls by tmoral cells The answer: 1,2,4,5 3. The causes of nonatherosclerotic narrowing of conory belong: 1) hemorrhage into atherosclerotic plaque 2) coronarititis 3) angiopathy 3) growth of atherosclerotic plaque across vessel lumen

4) anemia 5) Destruction of atherosclerotic plaque and embolism by atheromatosis masses The answer: 2,3 4. Uncoronarogenic factors of coronary failure are: 1) decrease of blood oxygen capacity 2) decrease of circulating blood volume 3) hypertonic crisis 4) spastic stricture of coronars at psycho-emotional stress 5) angiopathy The answer: 1,2,3 5. Which of listed reological frustration belong to uncoronarogenic factors of coronary failure? 1) Activation of anticoagulative system 2) Aggregation of blood uniform elements 3) Intensification of coagulating system activity 4) decrease of anticoagulative system activity The answer: 2,3,4 6. Restoration of a coronary blood-flow after a short-term ischemia called:____________________________ The answer:reperfusion 7. Name causes of reperfusion onset: 1) long-term spastic stricture of coronary arterias 2) uptake of medicines possessing coronarolytic action 3) onset of retrograde blood-flow along veins 4) Occurrence of collateral blood-flow 5) uptake of medicines possessing thrombolytic action The answer: 2,3,4,5 8. Ischemia of myocardium may be caused by the following reasons: 1) Narrowing of lumen and a spastic stricture of coronaries 2) Decrease of coronary dilatation reserve 3) provoking of thrombosis and embolism 4) disorder of blood reologic properties 5) disorder of myocardium relaxation The answer: 1,2,3,4 9. Pathophysiological value of reperfusion is: 1) Liquidation of myocardium damage consequences 2) Prevention of myocardium ischemic damage 3) independent factor of myocardium damage 4) Liquidation of ischemia The answer: 3,4 10. The most often reason of coronary blood-flow decrease is: 1) atherosclerosis of coronary vessels 2 augmentation of myocardium need in Oxygenium and nutrients 3) spastic stricture of coronary arteries is

4) thrombosis of coronaries The answer: 1,4 9. List value of atherosclerosis in development of heart ischemic illness: 1) Narrowing of lumen and coronary spastic stricture 2) Decrease of dilatation reserve of coronary 3) provocation of thrombosis 4) Decrease of functioning capillaries amount 5) Difficulty of transcapillary exchange 6) disorder of myocardium relaxation 7) damage of blood reological properties :1, 2,3,6 10. Note influence of atherosclerosis on microcirculatory channel of myocardium: 1) Restriction of coronary dilatation reserve 2) Decrease of capillaries amount 3) Difficulty of transcapillary exchange 4) hemorrhage in atherosclerotic plaque 5) Deterioration of blood reologic properties 6) Decrease of capillaries permeability The answer: 2,3,5,6 11. Coronary spasm may be caused by: 1) prostacyclin 2) thromboxane 3) Both answers are true 4) There is no right answer The answer: 2 12. The role of psychoemotional factors in development of IDH is conditioned by the following factors: 1) Sharp activation of anabolism 2) Cardiotoxic action of catecholamines excess 3) Inhibition of glyconeogenesis in myocardium 4) Occurrence of arrhythmias 5) Rising of blood coagulation The answer: 2,4,5 13. Excess of which substances in blood and myocardium enlarges heart need in Oxygenium? 1) Catecholamins 2) adenosine 3) Free fat acids 4) Acetylcholinum 5) cholesterin :1,3 14. How does catecholamins enlarge need of myocardium in Oxygenium: 1) Cause shunting of coronary blood-flow 2) Activate thrombocytes 3) Strengthen exit of 2 + from myocardiocytes 4) Activate fabric lipases

5) Cause excess of free fat acids The answer: 1,2,4,5 15. Which way do fat acids enlarge need of myocardium in Oxygenium: 1) Sharply enlarge contraction of myocardium 2) Render oxygen spread effect 3) Cause dissociation of oxidation and phosporilization processes 4) Low contractility of myocardium 5) Cause shunting of coronary blood-flow The answer: 2,3,4 16. List factors playing essential role in the mechanism of ischemic damage of myocardium: 1) Activation of phospholipase 2) Activation of lipid preoxidation 3) Activation of glycogenolysis 4) increase of thrombinogen amount 5) Damage of mitochondrions The answer: 1,5 17. List displays of coronary failure: 1) stenocardia 2) myocardial infarction 3) Sudden death 4) Rhonchuses in lungs 5) giddiness The answer: 1,2,3 18. Leading nosotropic{pathogenetic} part of stenocardia is ? 1) Failure of coronary blood-flow 2) disturbance of metabolism in myocardiocytes 3) Sharp lowering of arterial pressure 4) onset of lung oedema 5) acute hemorrhage The answer: 1 19. Myocardial infarction is: 1) A part of hypo () kinesias of myocardium, with the kept viability 2) Occurrence of necrosis part in cardiac muscle 3) A site of myocardium which works weakly or does not work at all, with the kept morphological integrity 4) hemorrhage in brain tissue 5) Absence of pulse on radial arteria The answer: 2 20. The sudden coronary death comes due to: 1) Only ischemic illness of myocardium 2) Only myocardial dystrophy (any genesis) 3) Only arrhythmia (any genesis) 4) Under influence of any listed factor 5) There is no right answer The answer: 4

21. Name the cause of cardiogenic shock: 1) transmural myocardial infarction 2) Any suddenly arisen sharp decrease of heart productivity 3) Frequency of cardiac reductions of 30-50 impacts in a minute 4) fibrillation of ventricles The answer: 2 22. Which hemodynamix frustration accompanies cardiogenic shock? 1) Stagnation of blood in microcircular channel 2) hypertonic crisis 3) Sharp lowering of arterial pressure 4) Sharp falling of cardiac emission 5) increase of circulating blood volume The answer: 1,3,4 23. Kinds of cardiorrheses are: 1) External 2) Internal 3) Combined 4) Acute 5) Chronic The answer: 1,2 24. What kind of cardiorrhesis arises at break of external wall of heart chambers? __________________________ The answer: external 25. List the causes of vital activity disorder at onset of a postmyocardial infarction cardiosclerosis? 1) Occurrence in heterogeneous myocardium centers of ectopic activity 2) coronary atherosclerosis 3) increase of circulating blood volume 4) Occurrence of cardiac aneurysm 5) opportunity of thromboembolia occurrence 6) Threat of heart aneurysm break The answer: 1,4,5,6 26. The causes of painless myocardial infarction onset are: 1) death of pain receptors in myocardium at of development IDH 2) Development of infarct after serious psycho-emotional stress 3) besity of III degree 4) Smoking 5) Risingo of pain center threshold The answer: 1,2 27. Sudden death is: 1) death of a human younger than 35 years, having one compensated chronic disease 2) death of a person at complete clinical well-being without previous attributes of disease on a background of psycho-emotional overcharge 3) death of a human at complete clinical well-being without previous attributes of disease who is mental and physical stability, not violent genesis, coming within 1 hour

4) death of a young human without visible somatic and mental diseases as a result of an accident 5) There is no right answer The answer: 3 28. Principal causes of sudden death onset is: 1) Ischemic illness of heart 2) Acute infringements of cerebral circulation 3) diabetes II type 4) Road and transport accident 5) thromboembolia of pulmonary arteria The answer: 1,2,5 29. To risk factors IDH belong: 1) Smoking 2) Aarterial hypotension 3) hyper--lipoproteinemia 4) hypo--lipoproteinemia 5) hypodynamia The answer: 1,4,5 30. To socio-economic factors of risk belong: 1) high level of education 2) Irregular physical exercises 3) low level of incomes 4) An irrational feeding 5) physical exercises The answer: 2,3,4

ACUTE VASCULAR FAILURE 1. Name the causes of acute vascular failure onset: 1) Sharp risings of arterial pressure 2) lowering of cardiac emission 3) Bouveret's disease 4) lowering of circulating blood volume 5) Rising activity of coagulating systems The answer: 2,3,4 2. To displays of acute vascular failure belong: 1) hypovolemic syncope 2) loss of consciousness at hyperventilation 3) cough syncope 4) infectious collapse 5) hypertonic crisis The answer: 1,4 3. Result of acute convertible _________________ The answer: a syncope total failure of brain blood supply is:

4. List kinds of collapse depending on the etiological factor? 1) Hepatic 2) Renal 3) Orthostatic 4) Pancreatic 5) Infectious The answer: 3,4,5 5. The factors participating in pathogeny of collapse are: 1) Prevalence of sympathetic influences over parasympathetic 2) Prevalence of parasympathetic influences over sympathetic 3) Sharp lowering of vein tone and their dilatation 4) deposition of blood in pool v. portae 5) Sharp augmentation of venous return to heart The answer: 2,3,4 6. How does vital activity of an organism change at shock? 1) There is a disorganization of circulation 2) Quick loss of consciousness 3) Inconsistency of metabolism and its circulatory maintenance 4) disturbance of metabolism products outlet from an organism 5) Stagnation of a blood in pool v. portae The answer: 1,3,4 6. Initial reaction of ____________________________ The answer: an erectile phase an organism upon traumatic shock is:

7. In pathogeny of traumatic shock the following stages are distinguished: 1) erectile phase 2) phase of arterial pressure rising 3) phase of pathochemic frustration 4) torpid phase 5) A phase of pathophysiological changes The answer: 1,4 8. In erectile phase of a traumatic shock are observed: 1) Excessive activation of sympathetic system 2) great amount of catabolic Hormonums is thrown into heart 3) peripheric vasodilation appears 4) Arterial pressure sharply reduces 5) Redistribution of blood-flow for benefit of vital important organs The answer: 1,2,5 9. How does hemodynamics change at erectile phase of traumatic shock? 1) dilatation of arterioles, precapillaries, capillaries 2) Opening of arteriovenous shunts 3) Rising of arterial pressure and its stabilization 4) onset of blood-flow centralization for the benefit of vital important organs 5) onset of sharp hypotonia The answer: 2,3,4

10. Redistribution of blood-flow for the benefit of vital important organs is called_________________ The answer: centralization of a blood-groove

11. At erectile stage of traumatic shock occurs: 1) Inhibition of catabolism and intensifying of blood-flow in peripheric tissues 2) Sharp oppression of catabolism and decrease of blood-flow in peripheric tissues 3) Sharp activation of catabolism and decrease of blood-flow in peripheric tissues The answer: 3 12. At erectile stage of traumatic shock occurs: 1) spastic stricture of peripheric vessels and centralization of blood-flow 2) Peripheric vasodilitatiom and plasmorrhea 3) sequestration of blood in microcirculatory channel The answer: 1 13. What is behavior of a patient at erectile stage of traumatic shock? 1) Oppression of consciousness, delirium, hallucinations 2) Strong emotional, impellent, voice exaltation 3) Retardation of thinking 4) Loss of memory and orientation in space The answer: 2 14. Centralization of circulation at erectile stage of traumatic shock is conditioned by the following phenomena: 1) Peripheric vasodilatation 2) A peripheric vasospasm 3) Rising of capillaries permeability The answer: 2 15. For the benefit of which organs does redistribution of blood-flow occur at its centralization in erectile phase of traumatic shock? 1) Heart 2) Kidneys 3) red osteal brain 4) liver 5) brain 6) pregnant uterus The answer: 1,5,6 16. The second phase of traumatic shock is called ___________________ The answer: torpid 17. Features of patients behavior in torpid phase of traumatic shock is: 1) Complete absence of emotions 2) Emotional exaltation 3) Sharp retardation of thought process 4) Absence of consciousness 5) Lowering of all kind sensitivity

The answer: 1,3,5 18. The survival of brain bark in torpid phase of traumatic shock is connected with: 1) Centralization of blood-flow, egoism of brain 2) Presence of hematoencephalic barrier 3) Decentralization of blood-flow egoism of tissues 3) Excessive activation RAAS The answer: 1,2 19. Pathophysiological value of thalamus block in torpid phase of traumatic shock is 1) The prevention of excessive attrition and destruction of neurones of brain 2) The bark separates with centers of peripheric nervous system 3) Intensification of supreme nervous activity 4) Disturbance of coordination cerebral cortex function 5) Occurrence of euphoria The answer: 1,2,4 20. The factors determining lowering of AP in torpid phase of traumatic shock are: 1) Great amount of vasodilating biologically active substances circulates in blood 2) Generalized vasospasm 3) Generalized vasodilitation 4) Opening of precapillary sphincters 5) Opening of not functioning before capillaries The answer: 1,3,4,5 21. The hemodynamics in torpid phase of traumatic shock is characterized by 1) Blood directs into not functioning before capillaries 2) Sharp rising of arterial pressure 3) Sharp lowering of arterial pressure 4) Output of blood liquid part from vascular channel 5) Lowering of contractility of heart The answer: 1,3,4,5 22. Onset of disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome at traumatic shock is conditioned by 1) Extravasation of plasma and pachemia 2) Inhibition of respiratory center 3) Spastic stricture of peripheral vessels 4) Volley emission of thromboplastin from the damaged tissues 5) Acute renal failure The answer: 1,4 23. How does vital activity of organs and systems change at shock? 1) Occurrence of shocked lung 2) Occurrence of shocked intestine 3) Occurrence of shocked kidney 4) Lowering of pancreas and liver functions The answer: 1,2,3,4 24. What changes in respiratory system are observed at torpid phase of traumatic shock? 1) Often and superficial respiration

2) Inhibition of respiratory center 3) Respiratory standstill 4) Terminal respiration 5) Activation of respiratory center The answer: 1,2,4 25. Pathogeny of respiratory system changes at shock is: 1) Hypercrinia of bronchus 2) Expansion of bronchus lumen 3) Hypoventilation of lungs 4) Decrease of surfactant production by alveolocytes 5) Increase of lung vital capacity The answer: 1,3,4 26. Development of acute pulmonary heart at shock is possible due to presence of 1) Spastic stricture of pulmonary artery bifurcation 2) Increase of aerogematic barrier permeability 3) Release of biologically active substances from microthrombuses 4) Absence of resistance to cardiac emission 5) Rising of alveolocyte membrane resistance The answer: 1 27. At pathogeny of shocked kidney development 1) Inflow of blood to kidneys enlarges 2) Spasm of renal arterial branches 3) Development of DIC 4) Filtration ability of kidneys amplifies 5) Damage of renal tubules by free haemoglobin and myoglobin The answer: 2,3,5 28. Pathogeny of ingastrointestinal path changes at shock is: 1) Ischemia of intestine at erectile phase 2) Ischemia of intestine at torpid phase 3) Stagnant plethora of intestine in torpid phase 4) Occurrence of mucous necrosis of intestine 5) Intensification of mucin secretion 6) Digestion of mucous by digestive juices The answer: 1,3,4,6 29. What signs appear in connection with damage of intestine at shock? 1) Diarrhea 2) Dynamic intestinal obstruction 3) Sharp augmentation of circulating blood volume 4) Hiccup The answer: 1 30. Change of vital activity at liver damage during shock is 1) Discharge of vasodilatations from liver 2) Activation of liver desintoxication 3) Disturbance of liver barrier function 4) Occurrence of acidosis 5) Hypokaliemia

The answer: 1,3,4 31. Which factors aggravate current of traumatic shock? 1) Connection of bacterial intoxication 2) Occurrence of fatty embolism 3) Massive hemorrhage 4) Euphoria 5) Metabolic disorders The answer: 1,2,3,5 32. As a result of what phenomena do loss of consciousness and death come at shock? 1) Death of cells 2) Entering lysosomal enzymes into intercellular liquid 3) Rising tone of peripheral vessels 4) Loss of tone by peripheral vessels 5) Decentralization of blood-flow The answer: 1,2,4,5 33. The burn shock is characterized by: 1) Absence of torpid phase 2) Absence of centralization of blood-flow 3) Presence of stable arterial pressure 4) Mild current The answer: 3

Idiopathic hypertension
1. Size of AP depends on 1) Only blood volume 2) Only vascular tone 3) Only cardiac emission 4) Correspondence of listed factors 5) Concentration of vasoactive Hormones The answer: 4 2. The resistive hypertension develops owing to 1) Spasm of precapillary sphincters 2) Venous stagnation 3) Risings resistance to blood-flow inside the whole precapillary vascular channel 4) Spasm of peripheral arteries The answer: 3 3. Pressor effect possesses 1) Antriopeptides 2) Prostaglandins 3) Catecholamines 4) All listed factors The answer: 3 4. Depressor action possesses

1) Glucocorticoids 2) Mineralocorticoids 3) Catecholamines 4) Kinines The answer: 4 5. Development of pheochromocytoma is accompanied by hypertension due to 1) Excess of catecholamines 2) Excess of mineralocorticoids 3) Excess of antriopeptides 4) Metabolic acidosis The answer: 1 6. What disease is hypertension conditioned by superfluous production of Mineralocorticoids at? 1) Icenko-Cushing illness 2) Pheochromocytoma 3) Illness of Konn 4) Graves illness The answer: 3 7. Prostaglandinums and kinines are components 1) Renal pressor system 2) Renal depressor system 3) Adrenal pressor system 4) Adrenal depressor system The answer: 2 8. Rising of AP at glomerulonephritis is conditioned by 1) Activation of cholinergic mechanisms 2) Activation juxtaglomerular apparatus 3) Damage of paranephros glomerular zone 4) Any of listed mechanisms The answer: 2 9. Depressor effect of Prostaglandinums and kinines of juxtaglomerular layer of kidneys is conditioned by 1) Intensification of kidney perfusion 2) Effect on vasomotor center 3) Suppression of catecholamine effects The answer: 1 10. The common peripheral resistance of vessels depends on: 1) Viscosity of blood 2) Lumen of arterial channel 3) Dilatation reserve of precapillary channel 4) All factors listed above The answer: 4 11. At hypercatecholamiemia AP 1) Raises 2) Goes down

3) Does not change The answer: 1 12. Idiopathic hypertensia develops at 1) Stress influences 2) Renal pathology 3) Hereditary predisposition 4) Disturbance of depressor and pressor mechanisms balance The answer: 4. 13. Superfluous production of renin stimulates 1) Pressor renal system 2) Depressor renal system 3) Both systems The answer: 3 14. Hypertensive effect of catecholamines is caused by their action on 1) Tone of vessels 2) Heart work 3) Volume of circulating blood 4) All listed effects 5) A cancellation of depressor mechanisms action The answer: 4 15. Specify, what illness (from listed below) is not accompanied by hypertension 1) Illness Icenko-Cushing 2) Acute glomerulonephritis 3) Myxedema 4) Pheochromocytoma The answer: 3 16. Idiopathic hypertension develops only at hereditary predisposition 1) Yes 2) No The answer: 2 17. Idiopathic hypertension develops only at 1) Inconsistency of depressor systems 2) At any stimulation of pressor mechanisms The answer: 1 18. Choose the wrong statement: at an atherosclerosis AP raises owing to 1) Augmentations of vessel rigidity 2) Decrease of vessel lumen 3) Decrease of heart productivity 4) Augmentation of blood viscosity The answer: 3 19. Point out which of the listed syndromes is not complication of idiopathic hypertension 1) Stenocardia 2) Insult 3) Psycho-vegetative syndrome

4) Abstinent syndrome 5) Heart-failure syndrome The answer: 4 20. Hypertension sickness rate is higher 1) In economically badly developed countries 2) In industrial countries 3) Has character of pandemic The answer:

Hemorrhagic diathesises.
1. What the 1st phase of coagulation comes to an end with? 1) Formation of active thromboplastin 2) Formation of Thrombinum 3) Formation of fibrin The answer: 1 2. What group of hemorrhagic diathesises does haemophilia angiostasis belong to? 1) Connected with infringement of blood coagulation 2) Connected with infringement of vascular wall 3) Connected with pathology of thrombocytic system The answer: 1 3. How does time of coagulation change at Werlhof's disease? 1) Decreases 2) Increases 3) Does not change, or enlarges The answer: 3 4. What group of hemorrhagic diathesises does steam - and pseudohemophilia belong to? 1) Connected with disturbance of blood coagulation 2) With rising of vascular wall permeability 3) With rising of thrombocyte system The answer: 1 5. What hemorrhagic syndrome is connected with Schonlei-Henoch illness (hemorrhagic vasculitis)? 1) With damage of coagulating system 2) With activation of anticoagulative system 3) With disturbance of vascular wall permeability The answer: 3 6. What is development of angiostaxis is conditioned by? 1) Deficiency of the 8th factor 2) Deficiency of the 9th factor 3) Deficiency of the 7th factor The answer: 1 7. What phase of coagulation is broken at activation of fibrinolytic system?

1) The 1st phase 2) The 2nd phase 3) The 3rd phase The answer: 3 8. What is occurrence of Werlhofs disease connected with? 1) With initial disorder of vascular wall 2) With activation of anticoagulative system 3) With disturbance of thrombocyte system The answer: 3 9. What is the reason of angiogemophilia onset? 1) Disturbance of blood coagulation 2) Disturbance of vascular wall 3) Disturbance of blood coagulation and vascular wall The answer: 3 10. How does blood coagulation change at hyperlyproteinemia? 1) It enlarges 2) It slows down 3) Does not change The answer: 1 11. Which phase of blood coagulation anticoagulative system activates? 1) At the 1st phase 2) At the 2nd phase 3) At the 3rd phase The answer: 1 12. Which causes result in disturbance of clot retraction? 1) Defeat of vessels 2) Deficiency of blood proteins 3) Deficiency of thrombocytes The answer: 3 13. Why does hemorrhagic syndrome at mechanical icterus appear? 1) Synthesis of procoagulums is broken 2) Permeability of vessels rises 3) Antithrombic system activates 3) Coagulating system activates The answer: 1 14. What frustrations of blood coagulation cause development of hemophiloid states? 1) Disturbance of active thromboplastin formation 2) Disturbance of Thrombinum formation 3) Activation of fibrinolysis The answer: 2 15. The main cause of bleeding time elongation of at Autoimmune thrombocytopenia is 1) Disturbance of coagulation 2) Lowering of vessels tone 3) Disturbance of clot formation

The answer: 3 16. Vascular-thrombocyte hemostasis is broken owing to: 1) Decreases of thrombocytes amount 2) Deficiency of the 8th factor 3) Deficiency of Willebrand factor 4) Expression on membrane of Fibrinogenum receptor thrombocytes 5) Absence on membrane of factor Willebrand receptor thrombocytes The answer: 1,3,5 17. Point out changes typical for Werlhof's disease: 1) Rising of antithrombocytic antibody amount 2) Reduction of clot duration retraction 4) Haematic type of hemorrhagic diathesis 5) Ptechial type of hemorrhagic diathesis 6) Rising of capillary fragility The answer: 1,3,5,6 18. What substances belong to anticoagulants? 1) Antithrombin 2) Heparinum 3) Kallidin 4) Proconvertin The answer: 1,2 19. List factors causing thrombocytopenia 1) Oppression of megakaryoblast proliferation 2) Replacement of megakaryocytopoesis by leukemia cells 3) Activation of leukocytopoesis of bone marrow at an inflammation 4) leukolysis 5) High dose of ionizing radiation The answer: 1,2,5 20. Define correct sequence of DIC-syndrome stages 1) Expressed hypocoagulation 2) Generalized hypercoagulation 3) Activation of fibrinolysis The answer: 1,2,3 21. What from the listed below forms of pathology DIC- syndrome may develop at? 1) Serious obstetrical pathology 2) Long compression failure syndrome 3) Uremia 4) Avitaminosis 5) Shock 6) Cristmas disease 7) Sepsis The answer: 1,2,5,7

Anemia

1. What does erythron include? 1) Circulating erythrocytes 2) Deposited erythrocytes 3) Erythrocytes in stage of maturing 4) Circulating, deposited erythrocytes and erythrocytes in stage of maturing The answer: 4 2. Name at which from the listed states hyperchromia of erythrocytes can be observed 1) Attrition of stocks Ferri lactas 2) Acute hemorrhage 3) State after stomach resection The answer: 3 3. What causes can lead to development of iron deficiency anemia? 1) Acute hemorrhage 2) Long chronic hemorrhage 3) Disturbance of Ferri lactas inclusion in to gemma structure 4) Pregnancy 5) Irradiation 7) Stomach resection The answer: 2,4,7 4. What term designates change of size of erythrocytes? 1) Poikilocytosis 2) Anisocytosis 3) Polychromatophilia 4) A reticulocytosis The answer: 1 5. What kind of anemia does megablastic type of haemopoiesis arise at? 1) Aplastic 2) Hemocatheretic 3) Pernicious The answer: 3 6. Which from the listed anomies goes down? 1) Sicklecell anemia 2) Hemocatheretic anemia of newborns 3) Spherocytic anemia 4) Iron deficiency anemia 5) Thalassemia The answer: 1,3,5 7. What pathogeny of aplastic anomies is? 1) Transition on megablastic type of hemopoiesis 2) Shortening of erythrocyte life-term 3) Sharp oppression and progressing falling of erythrogenesis 4) Failure of erythrocyte hemoglobinemia The answer: 3

8. What kind of anemia is onset of spherocytes in blood, ESR retardation, increase of reticulate amount are typical for? 1) Hemocatheretic 2) Posthemorrhagic 3) Aplastic The answer: 1 9. When do target erythrocytes appear in peripheral blood? 1) At amplified hemolysis 2) At disadvantage of gastromucoprotein 3) Aplastic The answer: 10. Which compensatory reactions arise just after acute hemorrhage? 1) Vasospasm and blood output from depot 2) Intensification of erythrogenesis 3) Water delay in vascular channel The answer: 1 11. At first minutes after acute average hemorrhage arises: 1) oligocythemic normovolemia 2) normocythemic oligemia 3) oligocythemic oligemia The answer: 2 12. What disease arises in 1-2 days after average hemorrhage? 1) Polycythemic oligemia 2) normocythemic oligemia 3) oligocythemic normovolemia 4) oligocythemic oligemia The answer: 3 13. List processes possessing adaptive value just after acute hemorrhage. 1) Decrease of venous return 2) Peripheral vasoconstriction 3) Centralization of circulation 4) Tissue hypoperfusion 5) Oliguria 6) Hyperventilation 7) Tachycardia The answer: 2,3,5,6,7

Pathophysiology of erythron

13. What characterizes color index? 1) Haemoglobin amount in blood 2) Amount of haemoglobin and erythrocytes in blood 3) Ratio between haemoglobin and erythrocytes The answer: 3 14. Which from the listed changes of erythrocytes may be called as Poikilocytosis? 1) Change of size of erythrocytes 2) Change of form of erythrocytes 3) Change of saturation degree with haemoglobin 4) Differences of erythrocytes maturity degrees 5) Property of erythrocytes to be simultaneously colored by the basic and acidic dyes The answer: 2 15. Name anemies arising owing to disturbance of hematosis. 1) Hypoplastic 2) From acute hemorrhage 3) From deficiency of vitamin 12 4) From deficiency of ferri lactas 5) Hemocatheretic The answer: 1,3,4 16. What changes of erythron arise at an iron deficiency anemia? 1) Anisocytosis 2) Disappearance of reticulocytes 3) Hypochromia 4) Occurrence of megaloblasts and megaloytes 5) Macrocytosis 6) Poikilocytosis 7) Prevalence of microcytes The answer: 1,3,6,7 17. Point out for what anemies is typical color parameter higher than a unit. 1) For acute posthemorrhagic anemia 2) For drepancytic (sickle-cell) anemias 3) For anaplastic anemia 4) For pernicious anemia of Addison-Burmer 5) For anemia based on parasitizing with fishworm The answer: 4,5 18. Why there is anemia at deficiency of B12 vitamin and Acidum folicum? 1) Haemoglobin is not synthesized 2) Osmotic resistance of erythrocytes decreases 3) Synthesis of DNA and cell fission is broken The answer: 3 19. Which from the listed reasons of hemocatheretic anemies are hereditary? 1) Poisoning with hemocatheretic poisons{venom} 2) Rhesus - conflict of newborns 3) Incompatible blood transfusion 4) Formation of autoantibodies against erythrocytes

5) Defect of enzymes erythrocyte membranes 6) Presence of pathological haemoglobin 7) Presence of spherocytes The answer: 5,6,7 20. Which forms of erythrocytes appear in blood channel at acute Posthemorrhagic anemia? 1) Erythroblasts 2) Megaloblasts 3) Reticulocytes 4) Normocytes The answer: 3,4 21. Which changes of erythron are typical for B12 scarce anemia? 1) Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, Jolli type erythrocytes 2) Hypochromia of erythrocytes 3) Hyperchromia of erythrocytes 4) Decrease reticulocytes amount 5) Presence of megaloblasts and megaloytes 6) Prevalence of macrocytes 7) Prevalence of microcytes 8) Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia The answer: 1,3,5 22. To pathological forms of erythrocytes belings: 1) Reticulocytes 2) Normoblasts 3) spherocytes, megaloytes The answer: 3 23. What type of anemia arises at dropping of erythrocyte osmotic resistance? 1) Sideroachrestic 2) Pernicious 3) Hemocatheretic The answer: 3 24. What kind of anemies do crescent erythrocytes appear at in peripheral blood? 1) At 12 (folio) scarce 2) At aplastic 3) At haemoglobinpathya The answer: 3 25. What case does type of hemopoiesis vary at? 1) Lowering of secretion or absence of internal Castle -factor 2) Amplified hemolysis 3) Chronic hemorrhage The answer: 1 26. What anemia are regenerative processes broken at, develops atrophic glossitis varnished tongue , esophagitis, enteritis? 1) At immune hemocatheretic

2) At chronic posttraumatic 3) At 12 folicdeficiency The answer: 3 27. Determine for what anemies the color parameter below a unit is characteristic? 1) For acute posthemorrhagic 2) For drepancytic 3) For aplastic 4) For anemia based on fish-worm parasitizing 5) For iron deficiency 6) For sideroachrestic The answer: 2,5,6 28. What is development of anemia at newborns connected with at Rh-conflict? 1) With mechanical damage of erythrocytes 2) With hemorrhage 3) With immune damage of erythrocytes The answer: 3 29. What type of anemia arises at deficiency of a gastromucoprotein? 1) iron deficiency 2) enzyme deficiency 3) 12-folic deficiency 4) protein de4ficiency The answer: 3 30. Which conditions and factors can cause development of megaloblastic anemia? 1) Helminthiasis (a wide fishworm) 2) Chronic hemorrhage 3) Albuminous starvation 4) Deficiency of gastromucoprotein 5) Erasion of stomach 6) Avitaminosis 6 7) Deficiency of Acidum folicum The answer: 4,5,7 31. Characterize anemia proceeding with absence of erythroblasts in osteal brain and of reticulocytes in peripheral blood? 1) Hyporegenerative 2) Hypoplastic 3) Aplastic The answer: 3 32. Which from the listed anemies may be attributed to hyporegenerative? 1) Chronic posthemorrhagic 2) Acute posthemorrhagic 3) Hereditary sideroblastic 4) Hereditary microspherocytatic The answer: 1,3 34. Is treatment by iron medicines prescribed at hereditary iron deficiency (sideroblastic) anemies?

1) Yes 2) Depending on gravity of anemia 3) No The answer: 3

Pathophysiology of leukon
1. Decrease of leucocytes amount in 1 mcl of blood is called leukopenia if it is below: 1-9 * 109/ 2-6 * 109/ 3-4 * 109/ the Answer: 3 2. The eosinophilia meets at: 1 - traumatic damages 2 - dermal illnesses 3 chroniosepsis the Answer: 2 3. Is it correct that at hyperreproductive nuclear shift to the left the common number of leucocytes always enlarges? 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 1 4. What kind of a leukemoid test meets at extensive suppurative processes: 1 neutrophilic 2 - lymphatic 3 - monocytic Answer: 1 5. The increase of leucocytes amount in 1 mcl of blood is called leukemia, if it is above: 1-9 * 109/ 2-60 * 109/ 3-80 * 109/ The Answer: 3 6. Basophilia meets at: 1 - typhoid 2 - lymphogranulomatosis 3 - angiostaxises 4 - acute and chronic myelosis 5 - polycythemias The Answer: 3,4,5 7. 12-scarce anemia is frequently accompanied by: 1 - nuclear shift to the right 2 - regenerative nuclear shift to the left 3 - leukemoid shift The Answer: 1 8. What type of leukemoid test is observed at infectious mononucleosis:

1 - eosinophilic type 2 - monocytic type 3 - lymphatic type The Answer: 3 9. Change of leukocytic formula is shown as: 1 - quantitative changes of leucocytes 2 - qualitative changes of leucocytes 3 - qualitative and quantitative changes of leucocytes The answer: 3 10. Monocytosis is observed at: 1 - tuberculosis 2 erythremia 3 - malignant tumors of gastrointestinal path The answer: 1 11. Agranulocytosis is characterized by: 1 - decrease of granulocytes amount in blood 2 - absolute absence of granulocytes in blood 3 - absolute absence or sharp decrease of granulocytes amount The Answer: 3 12. Regenerative nuclear shift to the left is usually combined: 1 - with neutrophilic leukocytosis 2 - with lymphocytosis 3 - with basophilia The Answer: 1 13. The increase of leucocytes amount in 1 mcl of blood is called leukocytosis if it is above: 1-40-* 109/ 2-8 * 109/ 3-20 * 109/ The Answer: 2 14. Basophilia meets at: 1 - septic endocarditis 2 - myxedema 3 - myocardial infarction The Answer: 1 15. The number of leukopoetins in blood enlarges at: 1 - destruction of leucocytes 2 - increase of leucocytes amount 3 - qualitative disturbances of leucocytes The Answer: 1 16. Occurrence of myelocytes in peripheral blood is typical for: 1 - regenerative nuclear shift to the left 2 - hyperregenerative nuclear shift to the left 3 - any of the listed shifts of leukocytic formula The Answer: 3 17. Point out the right answer: Leukemoid tests are: 1 - always convertible 2 - sometimes irreversible 3-frequently irreversible

The Answer: 1 18. What diseases are accompanied by eosinophilia: 1-pollinoses 2 - hydatid disease of liver 3 - chronic lymphoid leukosis 4 - bacterial pneumonia 5 - allergic rhinitis 6 - myelosis The Answer: 1,2,5,6 19. What diseases are accompanied by eosinophilic leukocytosis: 1 - acute appendicitis 2 - rubella 3 - atopic bronchial asthma 4 - trichinosis 5 - opisthorchiasis 6 - acute purulent otitis The Answer: 3,4,5 20. What diseases are frequently accompanied by development of monocytosis: 1 - measles 2 - atyphoid 3 - myocardial infarction 4 - infectious mononucleosis 5 - rubella The Answer: 1,4,5 21. What changes of haemogram are typical for neutrophilic leukocytosis with regenerative nuclear shift to the left: 1 - augmentation of percentage of relating to stab neutrophile neutrophils at background of neutrophilia 2-substantial growth of percentage of relating to stab neutrophile neutrophils by a background of a neutropenia 3 - presence of polysegmented neutrophils in blood 4 - increase of neutrophilic metamyelocytes amount in blood 5 - occurrence of individual promyelocytes in blood 6 - decrease of relative amount of lymphocytes in blood The answer: 1,4,6 22. What attributes are characteristic for immune agranulocytosis: 1 - necrotic tonsillitis 2 - pneumonia with characteristic signs 3 - anemia and hemorrhagic syndrome the Answer: 1 23. Is neutrophilic appendicitis accompanied by leukocytosis: 1 - yes 2 no Answer: 1 24. Whether neutropenia may be combined with leukemoid test: 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 2 25. What conditions reactive leukocytosis is observed at?: 1 - furunculosis 2 - pregnancies

3 - otitis 4 - feeling of pavor 5 - pneumonias 6 - myocardial infarction 7 - uremias the Answer: 1,2,3,5,6,7 26. Is eosinepenia typical for atopic bronchial asthma? 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 2 27. Is it possible to tell about absolute lymphocytosis, if leucocytes - 10*109/l, and lymphocytes in leukocytic formula - 50 %: 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 1 28. May eosinopenia arise at treatment by glucocorticoids: 1 - yes 2 no Answer: 1 29. Whether the absolute lymphocytosis is characteristic for agranulocytosis: 1 - yes 2 - there is no Answer: 2 30. What changes in peripheral blood can reflect nuclear shift of neutrophils to the right: 1 - absence of relating amount to stab neutrophile neutrophils 2 - polysegmentation of nucleus of neutrophils 3 - vacuolation of cytoplasm 4 - occurrence of myelocytes 5 - leukocytosis the Answer: 1,2,3 31. Is the number of stab neutrophils increase at leukemoid reactions of myeloid type? 1 - yes 2 - there is no Answer: 1 32. What changes in peripheric blood are marked at neutrophilic leukocytosis ? 1 - decrease of lymphocytes percentage 2 - relative lymphocytosis 3 - occurrence of polysegmented neutrophils 4 -augmentation of percentage of relating stab neutrophile neutrophils and metamyelocytes 5 - augmentation of number of leucocytes in a litre of blood the Answer: 4,5 33. Is occurrence of promyelocytes in blood typical for regenerative shift of nucleus of neutrophils to the left: 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 2 34. What diseases can be accompanied by absolute neutrophilia? 1 - acute appendicitis 2 - pneumonia 3 - myelosis 4 - chronic lymphoid leukosis 5 - typhoid

6- tuberculosis the Answer: 1,2,3 35. List mechanisms of true leucopenia onset: 1 - increased output of leucocytes from vascular channel in a tissue 2 - increased destruction of leucocytes 3 - oppression of leukopoiesis 4 - insufficient mobilization of medullar reserve of leucocytes. The answer: 2,3 36. Attributes of neutrophilic leukocytosis are: 1 - normal leukocytic formula 2 - nuclear shift of neutrophils to the left 3 - nuclear shift of neutrophils to the right 4 increase of common number of leucocytes in blood 5 - increase in number of young and blast forms of leucocytes in lymphoid bodies the Answer: 2,4 37. Which states are accompanied by development of absolute neutropenia: 1 - acute radial illness 2 - acute myocardial infarction 3 - the answer of an acute phase 4 - Addison-Burmer anemia 5 - stressful states 6 - acute hemocatheretic anemia the Answer: 1,4 HEMOBLASTOSES 1. What factors cause development of anemia at leucosis? 1 - oppression of erythrogenesis 2 - replacement of erythroblast blastema by leukemia cells 3 - downstroke{Drop} of a coagulability of a blood 4 - formationof hemolysins 5 intensification of internal Castle factor formation 6 - extramedullary innidiation Answer:1,2,4 2. Blast crisis at leukoses is characterized by: 1 - sharp intensification of blast cell duplication in hemopoietic bodies 2 amplified duplication of megaloblasts 3 -sharp intensification of autoimmune destruction of leukemic hemopoietic blastema cells 4 - trochlea of blastic cells maturing 5 intensification of blast cells transport from hemopoietic bodies into blood the Answer: 1,4,5 3. Point out characteristic changes in peripheral blood at myelosis: 1 - occurrence of blast hemopoietic cells 2 eosonophilic-basophilic association 3 - leukemic failure 4 - lymphocytosis 5 - lymphopenia 6 - neutropenia 7 - anemia the Answer: 1,2,5,7

4. Define typical changes in peripheral blood at chronic lymphoid leukosis: 1 - presence not less than 40 % of lymphoblasts 2- presence of neutrophils with toxogenic granularity 3 - presence of little amount of lymphoblasts 4 - anemia 5 neutrophilia 6 - neutropenia the Answer: 3,4,6 5. Clinical picture of all forms of acute leucosis is: 1 - identical 2 - similar, but not identical 3 - various the Answer: 2 6. The leading part in pathogeny of infectious complications at acute leukosis belongs to: 1 - aplastic anemia 2 - immunological failure syndrome 3 - hemorrhagic syndrome the Answer: 2 7. What is the main hematological attribute of acute myeloblast leukosis: 1 - prevalence of blast cells 2 - presence of "leukemic failure 3 - moderate leukocytosis the Answer: 2 8. What kind of chronic leukosis is onset of coagulopathy consumption typical for?: 1 - myeloid leukosis 2 - monocytic leukosis 3 erythremia 4 - lymphoid leukosis the Answer: 3 9. What form of leukosis is there a possibility of offensive sudden cardiac death at? 1 - chronic myeloid 2 - erythremia 3 - chronic lymphoid 4 - acute not differentiated Answer: 2 10. What stage of chronic leukosis pathogeny does the prevalence in clinical picture of signs of common character meet at?: 1 - monoclonal 2 - polyclonal 3 - to both stages the Answer: 1 11. More good-quality character of chronic lymphoid leucosis current in comparison with myelosis is conditioned by: 1 - less participation of lymphocytes in metabolic processes 2 - prevalence of mature lymphocytes 3 - both these factors the Answer: 3 12. Hypertonia at erythmia belongs to: 1 - hyperkinetic type 2 - volumetric type 3 - resistive type the Answer: 2

13. All forms of leukosis are separated on acute and chronic depending on: 1 - abilities to genic and chromosomal mutations 2 - conservations of ability blast cells to differentiation 3 - character of current the Answer: 2 14. Define form of chronic leukosis which is not accompanied by anemia: 1 - errythomyelosis 2 - megakaryocytatic 3 - osteomyelosclerosis the Answer: 1 15. To nosotropic (pathogenetic) factors of hemorrhagic syndrome at acute leukosis belong: 1 - thrombocytopenia 2 - consumption coagulopathy 3 - destruction of leucemic cells 4 - all listed factors the Answer: 1,2 16. What changes of peripheral blood are characteristic for acute myeloblastic leukosis: 1 - occurrence of blast cells 2 - occurrence of promyelocytes, myelocytes and metamyelocytes 3 - absence of promyelocytes, myelocytes and metamyelocytes 4 - augmentation of eosinocytes and basophils amount 5 - anemia and thrombocytopenia the Answer: 3,4,5 17. What changes of peripheral blood are characteristic for acute lymphoblast leukosis: 1 - occurrence of blast cells 2 - presence of promyelocytes and myelocytes in blood 3 - anemia and thrombocytopenia the Answer: 1,3 18. What changes of peripheral blood are typical for chronic lymphoid leukosis: 1 - occurrence of myelocytes in blood 2 - decrease of neutrophils percentage 3 - occurrence of prolymphocytes in blood 4 - occurrence of Botkin Gumpreha shadows in blood smear 5 - relative leukocytosis 6 - anemia the Answer: 2,3,4,6 19. What changes of hematological parameters are typical for erythremias: 1 - thrombocytopenia 2 - hyperchromia of erythrocytes 3 - increase of hematocrit parameter 4 - neutrophilic leukocytosis with hyperregenerative shift to the left 5 - poikilocytosis 6 - decrease of lymphocytes percentage the Answer: 3,4,6 20. Name factors causing leukosis: 1 - polycyclic hydrocarbons 2 - ionizing radiation 3 - infra-red beams 4 - viruses the Answer: 1,2,4 21. Name the most often reasons of death at leukosis:

1 infiltration of vital bodies with leukemia cells 2 - hemorrhages in vital bodies 3 - sepsis 4 - cachexia 5 - anemia 6 - pneumonia the Answer: 1,2,3,6 22. What presence of cells in peripheral blood is typical for acute myeloblast leukosis: 1 - myeloblasts, promyelocytes, myelocytes, metamyelocytes, relating to stab neutrophile neutrophils, segmented 2 - myeloblasts, promyelocytes, relating to stab neutrophile neutrophils, segmented neutrophils 3 - myelocytes, metamyelocytes, relating to stab neutrophile neutrophils, segmented neutrophils, eosinocytes the Answer: 2 23. Is it always possible to find out blast forms at leukosis in peripheral blood? 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 2 24. Can neutropenia be combined with leukemoid test: 1-yes 2 - no Answer: 1 25. What from the listed diseases is pancytosis (augmentation of contents in blood of erythrocytes, leucocytes and thrombocytes) typical for? 1 - chronic myeloid leukosis 2 - chronic lymphoid leukosis 3 erythremias the Answer: 3 26. Are cells of Botkin -Gumpreht: present in bloodsmear at acute myeloblastic leucosis? 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 2 27. What type of leukosis meets at children more often: 1 - myelosis 2 - chronic lymphoid leukosis 3 - acute lymphoblast leukosis the Answer: 3 28. Is increase of relating stab neutrophile neutrophils in blood typical for leukemoid tests of myeloid type? 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 1 29. Do leucocytes keep ability to differentiation up to mature forms at myelosis: 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 1

Endocrinology
1. To the basic nosotropic{pathogenetic} ways of neuroendocrinal illnesses onset belongs: 1 - disorder of central regulation

2 disorder of peripheric regulation 3 - both these ways of disorder in regulation the Answer: 3 2. Intensification of function of growth hormone-releasing factor - somatotropic Hormonum system is conditioned by: 1 - eosinophilic adenoma with forward share of pituitary body 2 - basophil adenoma with forward share of pituitary body 3 - paranephroses bark tumor the Answer: 1 3. " Hypophysial " diabetes develops at: 1 - gigantism 2 - Icenco-Cushing syndrome 3 Graves disease 4 - adiposogenital dystrophia the Answer: 1 4. The number of erythrocytes in blood at Icenko-Cushing syndrome 1 - enlarges 2 - decreases 3 - does not change the Answer 1 5. Signs of acute adrenal failure are: 1 - adynamia 2 - vomiting 3 - hypertension 4 - apathy the Answer: 1,2,4 6. At hypoparathyrosis: 1 - calcium amount in blood decreases 2 - calcium amount in blood enlarges 3 - calcium amount in blood does not change the Answer: 1 7. Hyperfunction of system gonadoliberin - Gonadotropinum - sexual Hormonums arises at: 1 - tumours of hypothalamus 2 - tumours of epiphysis 3 - tumours of pituitary body 4 - tumoral defeats of all listed Ferri lactases the Answer: 1 8. At myxedema it is observed: 1 - hypothermia 2 - hyperthermia 3 - the body temperature does not change the Answer: 1 9. The reason of death at hypoparathyr gonadoliberin osis is frequently : 1 - asphyxia 2 - insult 3 - fibrillation of ventricles the Answer: 1 10. At congenital myxedema the number of cholesterin in blood: 1 - enlarges 2 - decreases 3 depends on duration of disease

the Answer: 1 11. At castration it is marked: 1 - hyperfunction of system gonadoliberin - Gonadotropinum 2 - hypoactivity of system gonadoliberin - Gonadotropinum 3 - dysfunction of this system Otvet:1 12. Infringement of central regulation of neuroendocrinal system activity includes: 1 - infringement of feedback mechanism 2 - infringement of liberine formation 3 - infringement of formation of tropic Hormonums 4 - all listed kinds of infringement the Answer: 4 13. Intensification of function corticoliberin - ACTH- corticosteroids is connected with: 1 - eosinophilic adenoma of the forward share of pituitary body 2 basophilic adenoma of the forward share of pituitary body 3 - with both listed factors the Answer: 2 14. Steroid Diabetum develops at: 1 - Icenko-Cushing illnesse 2 Konn syndome 3 - gigantism 4 - Addison disease the Answer: 1 15. Occurrence of pheochromocytoma: 1 - accelerates development of atherosclerosis 2 - development of atherosclerosis brakes 3 - does not influence development of atherosclerosis :1 16. Signs of initial aldosteronism are 1 - arrhythmia 2 - hypertension 3 - oliguria 4 - defeat of muscles the Answer: 1,2,3 17. At hypoparathyrosis the number of phosphorus in blood: 1 enlarges 2 - decreases 3 practically does not vary Answer: 1 18. Displays of the vegetative frustration arising at castration are: 1 - lability of AP 2 - sweating 3 - cardialgia 4 - all listed the Answer: 4 19. Disturbance of peripheral regulation of neuroendocrinal system activity includes: 1 - disturbance of peripheral Ferri lactases function 2 - hereditary defects of synthesis of Hormonums

3 - dropping of tissue sensitivity 4 - all listed kinds of disturbance the Answer: 4 20. The clinical picture at Parhon syndrome is conditioned by: 1-excess of 2 - excess of epinephrine 3 - excess of Aldosteronum the Answer: 1 21. Pseudohermaphroditism develops at: 1 - isosexual type of congenital dysfunction of paranephroses bark 2 hetero-sexual type of congenital dysfunction of paranephroses bark 3 - at this and other cases the Answer: 2 22. Addison crisis is: 1 the end-stage of acute adrenal failure 2 the end-stage of chronic adrenal failure 3 - sharp exacerbation of Addison illnesse 4 - all definitions are incorrect the Answer: 2,3 23. Signs of Icenko-Cushing illness are: 1 - obesity 2 - hypertension 3 - osteoporosis 4 hypoglycemia the Answer: 1,2,3 24. The reason of death at hyperparathyroidism development is more often: 1 - renal failure 2 - hepatic failure 3 - heart failure the Answer: 1 25. At Graves' disease volume of blood plasma: 1 - enlarges 2 - diminishes 3 - does not change the Answer3 26. Development of obesity at adiposogenital dystrophia is conditioned by 1 - excess of glucocorticoids 2 - defeat of nucleus of hypothalamus 3 - excess of insulin the Answer: 2 27. Is it true that hyper function of thyroid gland can possess autoimmune nature: 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 1 28. What changes are typical for Addison disease? 1 - decrease of BV and a deaquation 2 lowering of AP 3 - adynamia and muscular delicacy 4 - edemas 5 - accumulation of sodium and loss of potassium in an organism 6 - hypoglycemia 7 - tachycardia the Answer: 1,2,3,6

29. Is it true that increase of thyroid gland size testifies its hyperfunction: 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 2 30. List typical changes of leucocytes at hypercorticoidism: 1 - eosinophilia 2 - neutrophilia 3 - lymphopenia 4 - eosinopenia 5 - neutropenia 6 - lymphocytosis the Answer: 2,3,4 31. Kinds of diabetes are: 1 - central 2 - peripheric 3 - both statements are true the Answer: 3 32. Hypoactivity of thyroid gland at children can be shown by 1 - delay of mental development 2 - expressed emaciation 3 - weakening of muscle tone 4- weakening of immunity 5 - hypochilesterinemia 6 - nanism the Answer: 1,3,4,6 33. Which from the listed attributes are typical for hypoparathyrosis: 1 - increase of calcium amount in blood 2 - decrease of calcium amount in blood 3 - ramollissement of osteal tissue 4- increase of phosphorus amount in blood 5 - tetany the Answer: 2,4,5 34. Diseases and syndromes conditioned by pathology of paranephroses bark are: 1 Konn syndrome 2 Addison disease 3 Icenko-Cushing syndrome 4 - adrenogenital syndrome 5 Simmondss disease 6 - pheochromocytoma the Answer: 1,2,3,4 35. At Lorain's disease (nanism) is marked: 1 lowering of intelligence 2 - hypoglycemia 3 - safety of intelligence 4 - rising GH in blood 5 - hyperglycemia 6 lessening of GH in blood the Answer: 2,3,6 36. Point out the basic displays of hyperthyroidism: 1 - rising of basic exchange 2 - fervescence 3 intensification of protein catabolism

4 - hypercholesterinemia 5 - emaciation 6 - hypoglycemia 7 - hyperglycemia 8 - bradycardia the Answer: 1,2,3,5,7 37. What attributes are characteristic for expressed hypothyroidism of adults: 1 - lowering of basic exchange 2 - sweating 3 - obesity 4 - hypercholesterinemia 5 - tachycardia 6 - bradycardia 7 - xeroderma the Answer: 1,3,4,6,7 38. Is it possible to have diabetes at normal production of antidiuretic Hormonum in blood: 1 - yes 2 - no Answer: 1 39. What activity of Ferri lactases is adjusted by pituitary body: 1 - thyroid gland 2 - bark of paranephroses 3 - cerebral layer of bark of paranephroses 4 parathyroid Ferri lactases 5 - dairy Ferri lactases 6 - islands of Langergans the Answer: 1,2 40. Choose the basic displays of hyperthyroidism: 1 increase of basic exchange 2 - fervescence 3 increase of protein catabolism 4 - hypercholesterinemia 5 decrease of weight 6 - hypoglycemia 7 - hyperglycemia 8 - bradycardia the Answer: 1,3,5,7 PATHOLOGY OF DIGESTION 1. The meteorism is an attribute of: 1 - peristalsis intensifying of intestine 2 weakness of intestine motility and development of putrefactive and fermentative processes 3 - enterings in intestine rasping, not enough the processed nutrition the Answer: 2 2. At what state of sialosis hydropenia and hypoproteinemia develops hypoosmolar 1 - hypoptyalism 2 hypersalivation 3 normosalivation the Answer: 2 3. Characterize condition of secretion and acidity of gastric juice at the following diseases: neurosises, Icenko-Cushing disease (hypercorticoidism), hypertrophic gastritis, peptic ulcer:

1 - hypersecretion, hyperaciditis 2 - hyposecretion, hypoaciditis 3 - normal secretion and acidity the Answer: 1 4. List the basic types of intestinal obstruction: 1 - dynamic 2 - mechanical 3 - listed above the Answer: 3 5. List the most typical changes of electrolits and waters amount in blood at intestinal obstruction: 1 - decrease 2 - increase 3 both disorders the Answer:1 6. The ulceration in stomach at peptic ulcer is conditioned by: 1 - rising aggression of gastric juice 2 - lowering of stomach wall resistance of duodenal intestine wall resistance 3 - both factors the Answer: 3 7. At erasion of base part of stomach develops: 1 - bulimia, polyphagia 2 - dumping syndrome 3 - hyposecretion and hypoacidic state 4 - disturbance of alimentary mass evacuation from stomach the Answer: 3 8. A long vomiting: 1 - does not render essential influence on an organism 2 - has great protective value 3 - has negative value (deaquation, alkalosis, attrition) the Answer: 3 9. The gatekeeper long time will be closed at the general{common} acidity of gastric juice: 1-120 tytracidic units 2-60 tytracidic units 3-30 tytracidic units the Answer: 1 10. Characterize state of sialosis at the following pathological processes and diseases: fever, infectious disease, hypoacidic gastritis, hydropenia: 1 - hypoptyalism 2 - hypersalivation 3 normosalivation the Answer: 1 11. Peristalsis of intestine at such diseases, as enteritis, colitis, reception of rasping or substandard nutrition: 1 - weakens (constipation) 2 - does not change 3 - (diarrhea) the Answer amplifies: 3 12. Formation in intestine and entering into blood of biogenic amines (putrectine cadaverine, tyramine, Histaminum), aromatic bonds (indol cresol, siatol Phenolum) causes development: 1 - meteorism

2 - diarrhea 3 - intestinal endointoxication the Answer: 3 13. At an acholia digestion is broken: All 1-alimentary substances 2 - lipids and fibers 3 - only lipids the Answer: 2 14. After erasion parts of a stomach develops: 1 - a bulimia and a polyphagia 2 - dumping syndrome 3 - hyposecretion and hypoacidic state 4 - infringement of evacuation of alimentary mass from a stomach the Answer: 2 15. An attribute of development of fermentative processes in stomach is: 1 - a hiccup 2 - an eructation 3 - a vomiting the Answer: 2 16. The intestinal endointoxication develops owing to: 1 - intensifyings fermentative and putrefactive processes in an intestine 2 - insufficient decontaminating function of a wall of an intestine and a liver 3 - retardation of a motility of an intestine the Answer: 1 17. At what condition of a sialosis such phenomena are observed: formation of a strike on mucous, bursting of mucosa, stomatitis, oral sepsis: 1 - hypoptyalism 2 - hypersalivation 3 normosalivation the Answer: 1 18. Characterize secretion and acidity of gastric juice at the following pathological processes and diseases: carcinoma of stomach, atrophic gastritis: 1 - hypersecretion, hyperaciditas 2-achilia, anaciditas 3 - normal secretion and acidity the Answer: 2 19. Specify versions of mechanical intestinal obstruction: 1 - dynamic, mechanical 2 - spastic, paralytic 3 - obturation, compression, strangulation 4 - all listed above the Answer: 3 20. The acholia is an attribute: 1 - defeats of hepatocytes (hepatitis) 2 bile stone disease 3 - any of the listed infringements the Answer: 2 21. In pathogeny of peptic ulcer crucial importance have: 1 - any damages of stomach wall 2 - long, proof infringements of neuroendocrinal system 3 - hereditary predisposition the Answer: 3 22. At total resection of stomach develops: 1 - bulimia and polyphagia 2 - dumping syndrome

3 - hyposecretion and anacid condition 4 - infringement of evacuation of alimentary mass from stomach the Answer: 2 23. The vomiting arises: 1-only at an immediate boring of vomitive center the substances which are taking place in blood 2 - at boring of endings of vagus nerve of internal bodies 3 - at any of the mentioned above influences the Answer: 3 24. As evacuation of nutrition in duodenal intestine changes at rising an acidity of gastric juice: 1 - it is accelerated 2 - it is slowed down 3 - the does not change: Answer: 2 25. Characterize sialosis at the following conditions and pathological processes: a boring vagus at pregnancy, uremia, stomatitis: 1 - hypoptyalism 2 - hypersalivation 3 normosalivation the Answer: 2 26. The intestinal endointoxication is caused with entering from an intestine in the general{common} blood-groove of plenties: 1 - aromatic bonds (indol, skatole, cresol, Phenolum, etc.) 2-products fermentations 3 - biogenic amines ( cadaverine, a tyramine, Histaminum) 4 - all listed above substances the Answer: 1,3 27. Specify versions of dynamic intestinal obstruction: 1 - spastic, paralytic 2 - dynamic, mechanical 3 - all listed above the Answer: 1 28. An attribute of steatorrhea is: 1 - acholia 2 - disadvantage of pancreatic juice 3 - any of the listed infringements the Answer: 3 29. List risk factors of development of peptic ulcer: 1 - hereditary predisposition 2 - advanced age 3 - psycho-emotional and physical overstrain{overvoltage} 4 - harmful habits and infringement of an alimentary regimen 5 - electrolit-steroid disbalance the Answer: 1,3,4,5 30. At erasion of cardial part of stomach develops: 1 - bulimia and polyphagia 2 - dumping syndrome 3 - hyposecretion and anacid condition 4 - infringement of evacuation of alimentary mass from stomach Answer:1 31. What adsorption of vitamins will considerably worsen at acholia: 1.-Vitamin And

2 - vitamin 1 3 - vitamin 2 4 - vitamin 12 5 - vitamin 6 - vitamin 7 - vitamin To 8 - Acidum folicum the Answer: 1,5,6,7 32. Specify protective mechanisms mucous a stomach from - aggressions of a gastric juice: 1 - a secretion of Sodium hydrogenums 2 - a secretion of the slime containing mucins 3 - synthesis of internal factor 4 - synthesis of Prostaglandinums by cells of a mucosa 5 - microcirculation mucous stomach :1,2,5 33. Specify the factors participating in a pathogeny of an eructation: 1 - fermentation and rotting in a stomach 2 - augmentation of intragastric pressure 3 - a cardiospasm 4 - a spastic stricture of the gatekeeper 5 - reflex reduction of muscles of a stomach and a diaphragm 6 - reflex reduction of a musculation of a prelum abdominale The answer: 1,2,4,5,6 34. What conditions result in intensifying a peristalsis of an intestine: 1 - 2 - dropping a tone nerves 3 - rising an excitability of receptors of an intestinal wall 4 - inflammation (enteritis) 5 - the constant use of nutrition, a poor fat the Answer: 1,3,4 35. Specify Hormonums which excess causes a hypersecretion of pancreatic juice: 1 - Gastrinum 2 - cholecystokinin 3 - a secretin 4 - the Answer: 2,3 36. As evacuation of alimentary masses from a stomach will change at simultaneous rising a secretion and an acidity of a gastric juice: 1 - it will be slowed down 2 - the Answer will be sped up: 1 37. As evacuation of alimentary masses from a stomach will change at simultaneous downstroke{drop} of a secretion and an acidity of a gastric juice: 1 - it will be slowed down 2 - the Answer will be sped up: 2 38. What from the specified infringements of digestion can cause occurrence of a steatorrhea: 1-failure of digestion and adsorptions of carbohydrates 2 - failure of synthesis of pancreatic and intestinal lipases 3 - failure of synthesis of a trypsinogen in a pancreas 4 - an acholia the Answer: 2,4 39. Fast alimentary masses from a stomach or a duodenal intestine in departments of a thin intestine refers to a dumping syndrome .

40. In a pathogeny a dumping - a set of symptoms the following factors play a role: 1 lowering of BV 2 - augmentation BV 3 - hypoglycemia 4 - hyperglycemia 5 - uremia the Answer: 1,3 Pathophysiology of liver 1. Choos correct definition of cholemia 1) Components of blood in bile 2) Components of bile in blood 3) Cholic pigments in blood The answer: 2 2. The portal hypertension develops at 1) Rising arterial pressure 2) At rising pressure in bile excretion ways 3) Rising pressure in system of portal vein 4) Difficulty of deducing{removing} of bile in intestine The answer: 3 3. The bilirubin is formed off haemoglobin 1) In erythrocytes 2) In hepatocytes 3) In macrophages 4) In all listed above cells The answer: 3 4. Choose the most exact characteristic of acholia 1) Infringement of synthesis of components of bile 2) An output{exit} of components of bile from hepatocytes in a blood 3) Absence of cholic pigments in a blood 4) The termination{discontinuance} of entering of bile in an intestine The answer: 4 5. Icterus without cholemia 1) It does not happen 2) Develops at a massive hemolysis 3) Develops at damage of hepatocytes The answer: 2 6. Holicedemia develops 1) At any icterus 2) At massive hemolysis 3) Develops only at damage of hepatocytes The answer: 3 7. Define kind of icterus if it is revealed: in a blood it is a lot of indirect bilirubin, And in urine - it is a lot of urobilin, a stercobilin, in a feces - it is a lot of stercobilin

1) Hemocatheretic () 2) () 3) Parenchymatous (hepatic) The answer: 1 8. The paracholia develops: 1) Only at a massive hemolysis 2) At all versions icteruses 3) Only at to an icterus 4) At all kinds of icteruses The answer: 3 9. "Exogenous" hepatic failure develops: 1) Under influence of any exogenous factors 2) At dump of a portal blood in the common blood-groove 3) Only under influence of the exogenous factors damaging{injuring} hepatocytes The answer: 2 10. The basic part of a pathogeny of "exogenous" hepatic failure 1) Acholic effects 2) holimitic effects 3) cerebrotoxic effects of intestinal toxins 4) cerebrotoxic effects of hepatogenic toxins The answer: 3 11. Long time without development of hepatic failure develops icterus 1) Parenchymatous 2) obturation 3) Hemocatheretic The answer: 3 12. Transformation of an indirect bilirubin (nonconjugated) in a straight line (Glucuronide) occurs: 1) In macrophages 2) In hepatocytes 3) In enterocytes 4) In bile excretion ways The answer: 1 13. It is a lot of urobilin in urine 1) At any icterus 2) Only at obturation to an icterus 3) Only at a hemocatheretic icterus 4) At hemocatheretic and some parenchymatous icteruses 5) Only at parenchymatous The answer: 4 14. The high content of stercobilin in feces 1) At obturation to icterus 2) At hemocatheretic icterus 3) At parenchymatous icterus 4) It does not happen

The answer: 2 15. Action of false neurotransmitters, plays the important role in development Encephalopathies, at hepatic failure 1) Exogenous 2) Endogenic 3) Anyone The answer: 2 16. Cholemia without infringement bile excretion 1) Never develops 2) Develops at parenchymatous icterus 3) It is observed at hemocatheretic icterus 4) It is observed at any icterus The answer: 2 17. The hemorrhagic set of symptoms at cholemia is caused by 1) disadvantage of procoagulums 2) Damage of microcirculatory channel 3) Both specified factors The answer: 3 18. Endogenic hepatic failure develops 1) At infringement of a circulation in a liver 2) Only at damage of a liver by the endogenic reasons 3) At any damages of hepatocytes The answer: 3 19. The stercobilinogen is formed of a urobilinigen 1) In hepatocytes 2) In ways 3) In urinary ways 4) In a thick intestine The answer: 4 20. At what icterus in urine it is a lot of urobilin? 1) obturation 2) Hemocatheretic 3) Parenchymatous The answer: 2

Pathophysiology of KIDNEYS 1. The reason of apolyuria at diabetes is: 1 - only insufficient incretion of ADH 2 - only intensifying of destruction ADH 3 - these two factors the Answer: 3 2. The isosthenuria testifies about losses of ability of kidneys to: 1 urine cincentration 2 - to delution of urine 3 - to delution and urine concentration

the Answer: 1 3. Daily amount of urine at pollakiuria more often: 1 - ienlarges 2 - decreases 3 - does not change: the answer 3 4. Most diagnostically important qualitative change of urine structure at acute diffuse glomerulonephritis is: 1 - hematuria 2 - proteinuria 3 - leukocyturia 4 - hemoglobinuria the Answer: 1,2 5. The massive proteinuria at nephrotic syndrome is connected with: 1 - with rising permeability of renal glomuluses 2 infringement of reabsorbtion of protein renal tubules 3 - both these mechanisms the Answer: 2 7. A level of afiltrate nitrogen at uremia in blood: 1 - raises 2 - goes down 3 - the does not change: Answer 1 8. The basic nosotropic{pathogenetic} part of development of uremia is: 1 - accumulation of products of a nitrous metabolism 2 - shift of acid-alkaline equilibrium aside an acidosis 3 - accumulation of intestinal toxins the Answer: 1 9. Densities of urine at polyuria: 1 - decreases 2 - it is enlarged 3 - the Answer does not change: 1 10. At what group of diseases the hematuria more often is observed: 1 - a glomerulonephritis, a cystitis, a pyelonephritis of kidneys 2 - a nephrotic set of symptoms, a tuberculosis and a tumour of kidneys 3 - an acute diffuse glomerulonephritis, a tumour of kidneys, a tuberculosis of kidneys the Answer: 3 11. Actions of a vesicoureteral reflux result to: 1-reflex 2 - 3 - subrenal 4 - the Answer: 3 12. In a pathogeny of an acute diffuse glomerulonephritis matters: 1 - an immunodeficiency 2 - formation{Education} of a complex a bacterial antigene - a basal membrane 3 - both specified mechanisms Otvet:2 13. In development of edemas at a nephrotic set of symptoms play a role the following factors: 1 - 2 - intensifying Aldosteronum and 3 - failure of a return current of a lymph

4 - all listed above factors the Answer: 1,2 14. The cardiac standstill at a uremia is connected: 1 - with augmentation of quantity{amount} of a potassium in a blood 2 - with decrease of the maintenance{contents} of calcium in a blood 3 - with a hyperazotemia the Answer: 1 15. At a uremia it is possible: 1 - occurrence of periodic respiration - 2 - occurrence of noisy respiration 3 - occurrence of that and other infringement of respiration the Answer: 2 16. The polyuria in III stage of a fever is connected with: 1 - augmentation of allocation of water and Sodium chloridums with urine 2 - intensifying destruction ADH in tissues 3 - rising filtrational pressure the Answer: 1 17. Polyuria is the most expressed at: 1 - rising filtrational pressure 2 downstroke oncotic pressure 3 - decrease canalicular reabsorbtion the Answer: 3 18. Rising osmotic pressure of urine causes occurrence of polyuria at: 1 - diabetes 2 - diabetes 3 - initial aldosteronism the Answer: 1 19. To most precursory symptom of functional failure of kidneys belongs:: 1 - oliguria 2 - anuria 3 - nicturia 4 - uracrasia the Answer: 3 20. Hypertension at glomerulonephritis has: 1 - hyperkinetic character 2 - volumetric character 3 - resistive character the Answer: 2 21. The hyperazotemia at glomerulonephritis has: 1 - retension character 2 - productive character 3 hypochloremic nature the Answer: 1 22. Formation of initial urine at rising of oncotic pressure of blood: 1 - decreases 2 enlarges 3 - the does not change the Answer 1 23. Polyuria is: 1 - augmentation of daily quantity{amount} of urine 2 - change of a rhythm urine flow 3 - change of quantity{amount} of urine flow and rhythm the Answer: 1 24. Occurrence of pain reflex anuria is caused: 1 - exaltation of sympathetic nervous system

2 - excess ADH 3 - rising tone of afferent arterioles 4 - action of all listed mechanisms the Answer: 2 25. At what disease the most expressed proteinuria is observed: 1 - an acute diffuse glomerulonephritis 2 - a chronic glomerulonephritis 3 - a nephrotic set of symptoms the Answer: 3 26. Changes of ablood at glomerulonephritis: 1 - an anemia 2 - a hyperglobulia 3 - absence of changes erythron the Answer: 1 27. As the diuresis changes at a secondary aldosteronism: 1 - it enlarges 2 - it diminishes 3 does not change the Answer: 2 28. Specify the possible{probable} reasons of oliguria: 1 - venous hyperemia of kidneys 2 - hypoproteinemia 3 - pain stimulation 4 - cholemia 5 - oligemia 6 - hyperglycemia the Answer: 2,4,6 29. What disadvantage of Hormonums can cause polyuria: 1 - somatotropic Hormonum 2 - Vasopressinum 3 - epinephrine 4 - Aldosteronum 5 - Oxytocinum 6 - insulin the Answer: 2,4,6 30. The most often reason of acute diffuse glomerulonephritis are: 1 - micobacteria of tuberculosis 2 - staphylococcuses 3 - streptococcuses 4 - funguses 5 - parasites 6 - Rickettsia the Answer: 3 31. Specify principal causes of anemia at chronic renal failure: 1 - action of uremic toxins on cells of osteal brain 2 - decrease of development of erythropoetin 3 - deficiency Ferri lactas in an organism 4 syndrome of intestinal malabsorbtion 5 - deficiency of vitamin 12 6 - acidosis 7 - presence at blood plasma of erythropoetine inhibitors The answer: 1,2,7

32. What changes of homeostasis are marked in the end-stage of chronic renal failure: 1 - hyperkalemia 2 - progressing azotemia 3 - metabolic alkalosis 4 - hyponatremia 5 - overhydratation 6 - hypoosmia blood plasma the Answer: 1,2,5 33. Name typical complications of acute diffuse glomerulonephritis menacing to life of patient: 1 - acute heart failure 2 - acute renal failure 3 - acute dystrophia of liver 4 - massive proteinuria 5 - eclampsia the Answer: 1,2,5 34. What attributes can testify infringements of ultrafiltration in kidneys: 1 - aminociduria 2 - proteinuria 3 - oliguria 4 - urobilinuria 5 - hematuria 6 - glucosuria the Answer: 2,3,5 35. The augmentation of formation and allocation of urine more than 2 l in day is called .. polyuria 36. Decrease of formation and allocation of urine less than 400 ml per day is called oliguria 37. Decrease of formation and allocation of urine less than 100 ml per day is called ..anuria 38. What diseases of kidney is belongs to group of immuncomplex illnesses: 1 - acute diffuse glomerulonephrites 2 - pyelonephrites 3 - urolithiasis 4 - tuberculosis of kidneys 5 - nephropathy of pregnant the Answer: 1 The doctrine about a pain. 1. Pain it: 1) Only subjective sensation 2) Reaction to damage 3) hardly beard emotional, subjective sensation, which is accompanied emotional, impellent, humoral and vegetative Reactions. The answer: 3 2. The pain is shaped: 1) In bark of brain 2) In place of damage

The answer: 1 3. Acute pain: 1) Has only negative value 2) Forces to protect the body 3) Is a signal about damage 4) Causes mobilization of all protective forces of organism The answer: 2,3,4 4. In formation of pain takes part at 1) nociceptive system 2) antionociceptive system 3) nociceptive and antionociceptive systems The answer: 3 5. Choose characteristics of protopatic sensitivity 1) philogenetically more ancient kind of sensitivity 2) Younger kind of sensitivity 3) Receptors on skin and mucosa 4) A center - bark of big hemispheres 5) Center visual thalamus 6) Give precise localization of damage 7) There is no precise localization, specificity, subtlety of perception The answer: 1,5,7 6. Choose characteristics of epicritic sensitivity 1) philogenetically more ancient kind of sensitivity 2) philogenetically younger kind of sensitivity 3) Receptors on skin and mucosas 4) A center - bark of the big hemispheres 5) Center - visual talamus 6) Gives precise characteristics about localization and damage rates The answer: 2,3,4,6 7. Antiociceptive system includes 1) opiate system 2) neurogenic nonopiat system 3) Hormonal nonopiat system 4) All systems listed above The answer: 4 8. Pathological pain is a result of 1) Damages of any tissues 2) Infringement of frames forming a pain 3) Infringement of impulsations carrying out pain The answer: 2 9. The pain in the removed extremity is called 1) causalgia 2) neuralgia 3) stump neuralgia The answer: 3

10. Choose the reasons of visceral pain 1) A stretching of hollow body 2) Damage of skin and mucous 3) inflammation 4) spastic stricture of smooth musculation of body 5) ischemia of body The answer: 1,3,4,5 11. An acute physiological pain: 1) A signal about damage 2) Result of damage of tissues 3) Both answers are correct The answer: 3 12. A chronic pain is: 1) A signal about damage 2) Can independent disease 3) Loses alarm value The answer: 2,3

Total= 778.