Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2Tvf c. the phase angle b. f z2Td. none of the above ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Time Domain Measurement b. Two-level Digital Modulation d. none of the above ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation c. FrequencyDivision Multiplexing 1

b. Frequency Domain Measurement d. none of the above ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f zc b. equal to c zP c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks c. static b. temperature d. all of the above ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire b. resistors d. all of the above ANS: D 17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire b. resistors d. none of the above ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies c. greater at low frequencies b. greater at high frequencies d. the same as "white" noise ANS: C

19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise c. white noise b. pink noise d. partition noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz c. constant power b. equal power per octave d. none of the above ANS: B 21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 vV1 + V2 vV2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 vV2) b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 d. VT = V1 + V2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C 25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. its amplitude c. its amplitude, frequency, and direction b. its amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________. ANS: 1863 2. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________. ANS: 1901

3. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band. ANS: base 4. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. ANS: channel 5. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. ANS: zero 6. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. ANS: bandwidth 7. The more information per second you send, the ____________________ the bandwidth required. ANS: greater larger wider 8. In ____________________, you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. ANS: FDM 9. In ____________________, multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. ANS: TDM 10. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band. ANS: very high 11. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: 30 12. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: 300 13. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. ANS: wavelength 14. In free space, radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second. ANS: 300 million 15. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. Mathematically, a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series. ANS: Fourier 2

17. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________. ANS: noise blanking blanking 18. For satellite communications, ____________________ noise can be a serious problem. ANS: solar 19. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. ANS: Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Destination 2. Name five types of internal noise. ANS: Thermal, Shot, Partition, 1/f, transit-time 3. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. Likewise, thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies. 4. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors, and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum. Likewise, pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies. 5. Suppose there is 30 QV from one noise source that is combined with 40 QV from another noise source. Calculate the total noise voltage. ANS: 50 QV 6. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise, both across the same 100-ohm load, what is the signaltonoise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB

7. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. Find NF, both in dB and as a ratio. ANS: 20 dB, NF = 100 8. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Find its noise figure. ANS: 1.5 9. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Find the total NF for the pair. ANS: 5.4 10. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode, it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source, the output of which is a noise current. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current, controlling the diode current controls the noise power.

Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. base time c. charge time b. transit time d. Miller time ANS: B 2. A real capacitor actually contains: a. capacitance and resistance only c. capacitance, inductance, and resistance b. capacitance and inductance only d. reactance only ANS: C 3. Bypass capacitors are used to: a. remove RF from non-RF circuits c. neutralize amplifiers

b. couple RF around an amplifier d. reduce the Miller effect ANS: A 4. A resonant circuit is: a. a simple form of bandpass filter c. both a and b b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers d. none of the above ANS: C 5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit c. "multiply" the Q b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit d. have no effect on Q ANS: B 6. The "Miller Effect" can: a. cause an amplifier to oscillate c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier b. cause an amplifier to lose gain d. all of the above ANS: D 7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. using a common-emitter amplifier c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit b. using a common-base amplifier d. it cannot be avoided ANS: B 8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to: a. inductance of collector lead c. base-to-emitter capacitance b. collector-to-emitter capacitance d. base-tocollector capacitance ANS: D 9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with: a. RC coupling c. direct coupling b. transformer coupling d. lumped reactance ANS: B 10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. decoupling it d. none of the above ANS: A 11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires: a. a nonlinear circuit b. a linear amplifier 4

c. a signal containing harmonics d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. loop gain equal to unity b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. both a and b, but at just one frequency d. none of the above ANS: C 13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria b. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal ANS: A 15. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal ANS: B 16. The Clapp oscillator is: a. a modified Hartley oscillator c. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator b. a modified Colpitts oscillator d. only built with FETs ANS: B 17. A varactor is: a. a voltage-controlled capacitor c. used in tuner circuits b. a diode d. all of the above ANS: D 18. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. used for a precise frequency b. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. all of the above ANS: D 19. If two signals, Va = sin([at) and Vb = sin([bt), are fed to a mixer, the output: a. will contain [1 = [a + [b and [2 = [a [b b. will contain [1 = [a / [b and [2 = [b / [a c. will contain [= ([a + [b ) / 2 d. none of the above

ANS: A 20. In a balanced mixer, the output: a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. contains the input frequencies c. does not contain the input frequencies d. is a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. "VFO" stands for: a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator d. VoltageFeedback Oscillator ANS: B 22. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Generally, conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. ANS: short 2. At UHF frequencies and above, elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped". ANS: distributed 3. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground, it is called a ____________________. ANS: ground-plane 4. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between them. ANS: shielding 5. In high-frequency RF circuits, the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical. ANS: components 6. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus. ANS: decoupling 7. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. ANS: bypass

8. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit. ANS: Q 9. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. ANS: 10 10. In a class C RF amplifier, the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e.g. collector current). ANS: tuned circuit 11. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. ANS: neutralization 12. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. ANS: capacitive 13. Electrically, a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________ resonant frequency. ANS: series, parallel 14. To produce sum and difference frequencies, a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit. ANS: linear 15. At some bias point, a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer. ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5.4 QH 2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0.1 5

4. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider. 5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts, what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20C, and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What will be the shift in frequency at 70C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz, 0.05% 7. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. V1 is a 20-MHz signal; V2 is a 5MHz signal. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz 8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12

Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. AM stands for: a. Audio Modulation c. Angle Modulation b. Amplitude Modulation d. Antenna Modulation ANS: B 2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. the baseband signal c. the amplitude signal b. the carrier signal d. none of the above ANS: A 3. If the audio Va sin([at) modulates the carrier Vc sin([ct), then the modulation index, m, is: 6

a. m = [a / [c c. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. m = Va / Vc d. m = Va / [a ANS: B 4. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. v(t) = (Ec + Em) vsin([ct) c. v(t) = (Ec vEm) vsin([mt) vsin([ct) b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) vsin([mt) + sin([ct) d. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin([mt)) vsin([ct) ANS: D 5. Overmodulation causes: a. distortion c. both a and b b. splatter d. none of the above ANS: C 6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is: a. m = Emin / Emax c. m = (Emax Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. m = Emax / Emin d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax Emin) ANS: C 7. If Va sin([at) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin([ct), it will produce the frequencies: a. [c + [a and [c [a c. [c + [a and 2[c + 2[a b. ([c + [a)/2 and ([c [a)/2 d. none of the above ANS: A 8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is: a. equal to the carrier power c. half the carrier power b. twice the carrier power d. 1.414 vcarrier power ANS: C 9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz b. 10 kHz d. none of the above ANS: B 10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect: a. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. the received RF signal to increase d. all of the above ANS: D 11. The modulation index can be derived from: a. the time-domain signal c. both a and b b. the frequency-domain signal d. none of the above ANS: C

12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. requires too much bandwidth c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. requires too much power d. all of the above ANS: C 13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM: a. is more efficient b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. requires less bandwidth d. all of the above ANS: D 14. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. single-carrier c. sideband-carrier b. suppressed-carrier d. none of the above ANS: B 15. PEP stands for: a. Peak Envelope Power c. Peak Envelope Product b. Peak Efficiency Power d. none of the above ANS: A 16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it radiate with no modulation? a. 1000 watts c. 250 watts b. 500 watts d. 0 watts ANS: D 17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. AM is susceptible to noise b. commercial AM stations use low power c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. all of the above ANS: C 18. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. audio c. digital data b. video d. all of the above ANS: D 19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is: a. m1 + m2 c. sqrt(m1 vm2 + m2 vm1) b. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. sqrt(m1 vm1 + m2 vm2) ANS: D 20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must: a. be set to USB mode c. both a and b 7

b. reinsert the carrier d. none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________. ANS: simple 2. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. ANS: inefficient 3. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. ANS: envelope 4. In AM, modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. ANS: two 5. Compared to the USB, the information in the LSB is ____________________. ANS: the same 6. Compared to the USB, the power in the LSB is ____________________. ANS: the same 7. In AM, total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power. ANS: less 8. In AM, as the modulation index increases, the carrier power _________________________. ANS: remains constant 9. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________. ANS: one 10. In AM, a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________. ANS: 6000 Hz 11. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz, then the USB will extend up to ____________________. ANS: 1010 kHz 12. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation, it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS:

102 watts 2. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at 70.7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5, then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0.707 4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index? ANS: 0.6 5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts, what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts

Chapter 4: Angle Modulation

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The FM modulation index: a. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. One way to derive FM from PM is: a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. it is band-limited at the receiver d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible 8

ANS: D 4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. Taylor series b. Bessel functions d. fractals ANS: B 5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. Armstrong's Rule c. Carson's Rule b. Bessel's Rule d. none of the above ANS: C 6. NBFM stands for: a. National Broadcast FM c. Near Band FM b. Non-Broadcast FM d. Narrowband FM ANS: D 7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called: a. the capture effect c. the noise effect b. the threshold effect d. the limit effect ANS: B 8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. the capture effect c. the "two-station" effect b. the threshold effect d. none of the above ANS: A 9. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10. A pre-emphasis of 75 Qs refers to: a. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. the time delay between the L and R channels d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used ANS: D 11. FM stereo: a. uses DSBSC AM modulation c. has a higher S/N than mono FM b. is implemented using an SCA signal d. is not compatible with mono FM ANS: A 12. An SCA signal: a. can use amplitude modulation c. is monaural b. can use FM modulation d. all of the above ANS: D

13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. ANS: angle 2. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. ANS: data 3. Compared to AM, the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. ANS: better 4. Compared to AM, the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________. ANS: wider greater 5. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. ANS: C 6. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. ANS: stay constant 7. In FM, the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. ANS: amplitude 8. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal. ANS: frequency 9. Mathematically, the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________. ANS: infinite 10. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency, their power ____________________. ANS: decreases

11. Mathematically, the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________. ANS: any number 12. In FM, as the modulating frequency decreases, the modulation index ____________________. ANS: increases 13. In FM, as the frequency deviation decreases, the modulation index ____________________. ANS: decreases 14. As the FM modulation index increases, the number of significant sidebands ____________________. ANS: increases 15. For certain values of mf, such as 2.4, the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________. ANS: disappears goes to zero 16. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule. ANS: Carson's 17. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions. ANS: Bessel 18. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. ANS: threshold 19. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: capture 20. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency. ANS: carrier SHORT ANSWER 1. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency, what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz, what is the modulation index? 9

ANS: 2 3. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz 4. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V, what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt, 1-kHz audio signal? ANS: 2 5. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48.4 watts 6. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0.2 watt) 8. Using Carson's rule, what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.1, what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2.4, 5.5, etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Using a spectrum analyzer, adjust the audio

frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Record the audio frequency. Then do the calculation: H= fm vmf where mf will have one of the known values. For example, if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5.5, then His 11 kHz.

Chapter 5: Transmitters
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. agility c. VFO b. expansion d. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. is a measure of efficiency c. may require water cooling b. heats the transmitter d. all of the above ANS: D 3. Baseband compression produces: a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. a smaller number of signals d. none of the above ANS: B 4. ALC stands for: a. Amplitude Level Control c. Accurate Level Control b. Automatic Level Control d. none of the above ANS: B 5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to: a. keep the modulation close to 100% c. maximize transmitted power b. keep the modulation below 100% d. all of the above ANS: D 6. With high-level AM: a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear c. minimum RF power is required b. minimum modulation power is required d. all of the above ANS: A 7. With high-level AM: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB 10

ANS: C 8. With low-level AM: a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A c. the RF amplifiers must be linear b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power ANS: C 9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. is complex c. has variable frequency b. has variable amplitude d. all of the above ANS: B 10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to: a. the power level of the carrier c. the power level of the final RF amplifier b. the power level of the modulation d. none of the above ANS: D 11. In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from: a. the modulating amplifier c. the driver stage b. the RF amplifier d. the carrier ANS: A 12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. none of the above ANS: C 13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. 50 ohms resistive c. 300 ohms resistive b. 75 ohms resistive d. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. pi network c. both a and b b. T network d. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is called: a. a heavy load c. a temporary load b. a dummy load d. a test load ANS: B 16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor must be: a. wire-wound c. 1% tolerance or better b. noninductive d. all of the above ANS: B 11

17. A Class D amplifier is: a. very efficient c. essentially pulse-duration modulation b. essentially pulse-width modulation d. all of the above ANS: D 18. To generate a SSB signal: a. start with full-carrier AM c. start with a quadrature signal b. start with DSBSC d. all of the above ANS: B 19. The carrier is suppressed in: a. a balanced modulator c. a frequency multiplier b. a mixer d. none of the above ANS: A 20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. a mechanical filter c. both a and b b. a crystal filter d. none of the above ANS: C 21. A direct FM modulator: a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. integrates the modulating signal c. both a and b d. none of the above ANS: A 22. An indirect FM modulator: a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. both a and b d. none of the above ANS: B 23. AFC stands for: a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion c. Automatic Frequency Control b. Automatic Frequency Centering d. Audio Frequency Control ANS: C 24. Frequency multipliers are: a. essentially balanced modulators c. essentially mixers b. essentially Class C amplifiers d. none of the above ANS: B 25. With mixing: a. the carrier frequency can be raised b. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value d. the deviation is altered ANS: C

COMPLETION 1. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator. ANS: carrier 2. In the USA, the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ANS: FCC 3. In Canada, _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ANS: Industry Canada 4. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning. ANS: agility 5. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. ANS: PEP 6. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________. ANS: compression 7. The opposite of compression is called ____________________. ANS: expansion 8. ALC is a form of ____________________. ANS: compression 9. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________. ANS: efficiently 10. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. ANS: linear 11. To isolate the oscillator from load changes, a ____________________ stage is used. ANS: buffer 12. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. ANS: higher 13. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load. ANS: 50

14. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. ANS: T 15. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. ANS: harmonic 16. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. ANS: mismatch 17. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box". ANS: receiver 18. To allow a high modulation percentage, it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. ANS: driver 19. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse____________________ modulation. ANS: duration 20. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers. ANS: D 21. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed, ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. ANS: mixing 22. To generate a SSB signal, it is common to start with a ____________________ signal. ANS: DSBSC 23. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation. ANS: phase 24. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator. ANS: reactance 25. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.001%, what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz s500 hertz

12

2. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75.8% 3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation. Assuming high-level modulation, how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB, what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10.005 MHz 6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz 7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz, what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. 13

ANS: First, put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation.

Chapter 6: Receivers
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. the spurious response and the tracking d. the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. Foster c. Armstrong b. Seeley d. Hertz ANS: C 3. Trimmers and padders are: a. two types of adjusting tools c. small adjustable inductors b. small adjustable resistors d. small adjustable capacitors ANS: D 4. "Skin effect" refers to: a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. none of the above ANS: C 5. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. the tuner c. the mixer b. the RF amplifier d. all of the above ANS: D 6. "IF" stands for: a. intermediate frequency c. indeterminate frequency b. intermodulation frequency d. image frequency ANS: A 7. AGC stands for: a. Audio Gain Control c. Active Gain Control b. Automatic Gain Control d. Active Gain Conversion ANS: B 8. The frequency of the local oscillator:

a. is above the RF frequency b. is below the RF frequency c. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz. ANS: C 9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. it increases sensitivity c. it increases selectivity d. it is cheaper ANS: D 10. Basically, sensitivity measures: a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. none of the above ANS: A 11. Basically, selectivity measures: a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and reject the other c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. When comparing values for shape factor: a. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal c. a value of 1.0 is ideal b. a value of 0.707 is ideal d. there is no ideal value ANS: C 13. When comparing values for shape factor: a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 c. both values are basically equivalent b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. the mixer c. the IF amplifiers b. the detector d. all of the above ANS: D 15. Phase distortion is important in: a. voice communications systems c. monochrome video receivers 14

b. color video receivers d. all of the above ANS: B 16. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. the AGC c. the dynamic range of the receiver b. noise generated in the receiver d. the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. are transmitted on the same frequency b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. An image must be rejected: a. prior to mixing c. prior to detection b. prior to IF amplification d. images cannot be rejected ANS: A 19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. none of the above ANS: C 20. A common AM detector is the: a. PLL c. ratio detector b. envelope detector d. all of the above ANS: B 21. An FM detector is the: a. PLL c. quadrature detector b. ratio detector d. all of the above ANS: D 22. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. they are faster than silicon diodes b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. all of the above ANS: C 23. A common SSB detector is: a. a PLL c. a BFO b. a diode d. a product detector

ANS: D 24. BFO stands for: a. Beat Frequency Oscillator c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator b. Barrier Frequency Oscillator d. Bistable Frequency Oscillator ANS: A 25. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to: a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. reinject the carrier c. use double conversion d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B 26. Which would be best for DSBSC: a. carrier detection c. envelope detection b. coherent detection d. ratio detection ANS: B 27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. Foster-Seeley detector c. a PLL detector b. a quadrature detector d. all of the above ANS: C 28. The function of a limiter is: a. to remove amplitude variations c. to limit dynamic range b. to limit spurious responses d. to limit noise response ANS: A 29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. AGC c. AFC b. squelch d. limiting ANS: B 30. LNA stands for: a. Limited-Noise Amplifier c. Low-Noise Audio b. Low-Noise Amplifier d. Logarithmic Noise Amplification ANS: B 31. AFC stands for: a. Audio Frequency Compensator c. Automatic Frequency Control b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation d. Autonomous Frequency Control ANS: C 32. The function of AFC is: a. maintain a constant IF frequency b. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency 15

d. none of the above ANS: B 33. SAW stands for: a. Symmetrical Audio Wave c. Silicon-Activated Wafer b. Surface Acoustic Wave d. Software-Activated Wave ANS: B 34. The important property of a SAW is: a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver c. it is a stable bandpass filter b. it allows software radios to be built d. none of the above ANS: C 35. The main function of the AGC is to: a. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. all of the above ANS: C 36. DSP stands for: a. Dynamic Signal Properties c. Distorted Signal Packet b. Direct Signal Phase d. Digital Signal Processor ANS: D 37. SINAD stands for: a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. TRF stands for: a. Tuned Radio Frequency c. Transmitted Radio Frequency b. Tracking Radio Frequency d. Tuned Receiver Function ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle. ANS: superheterodyne 2. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. ANS: 1887 3. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other, it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted, the other changes with it.

ANS: track 4. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. ANS: skin 5. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. ANS: 1918 6. In a receiver, the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. ANS: front end 7. In a superhet, the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers. ANS: mixer 8. In a superhet, the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. ANS: intermediate IF 9. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. ANS: AGC 10. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. ANS: autodyne 11. In low-side injection, the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency. ANS: lower 12. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: Selectivity 13. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. ANS: Sensitivity 14. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver. ANS: conversion 15. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies. ANS: image 16

16. A demodulator is also called a ____________________. ANS: detector 17. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. ANS: envelope 18. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals. ANS: product 19. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________. ANS: carrier 20. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. ANS: coherent 21. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve. ANS: S 22. While still commonly found, the FosterSeeley and ratio detectors are ____________________. ANS: obsolescent 23. Unlike the PLL detector, the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal. ANS: amplitude 24. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. ANS: gate 25. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications. ANS: noisy 26. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________. ANS: A 27. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides. ANS: over 28. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth. ANS: stagger 29. Compared to tuned circuits, ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________. ANS: adjustment

30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal. ANS: higher 31. In a block converter, the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________. ANS: fixed constant 32. Typically, AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers. ANS: IF 33. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. ANS: S 34. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receivers quieting sensitivity. ANS: limiting 35. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: 20 kHz 2. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3. An IF filter has a 60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a 6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1.25 4. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. Assuming high-side injection, what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz

5. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1.5 MHz s100 hertz 6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0.06 7. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0.01

Chapter 7: Digital Communications

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The first digital code was the: a. ASCII code c. Morse code b. Baudot code d. none of the above ANS: C 2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using: a. an amplifier c. a regenerative repeater b. a filter d. all of the above ANS: C 3. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital Manchester b. Time-Domain Multiplexing d. Ten DualManchester ANS: A 4. Hartley's Law is: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS: A 5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS: B 6. The Shannon Limit is given by: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS: C 7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: 17

a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS: D 8. Natural Sampling does not use: a. a sample-and-hold circuit c. a fixed sample rate b. true binary numbers d. an analog-to-digital converter ANS: A 9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. They are two types of sampling error. b. You can have one or the other, but not both. c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. d. They are the same thing. ANS: D 10. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. noise c. too few samples per second b. too many samples per second d. all of the above ANS: C 11. The immediate result of sampling is: a. a sample alias c. PCM b. PAM d. PDM ANS: B 12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. PDM c. PPM b. PWM d. PPS ANS: D 13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. decreases as the sample rate increases b. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. none of the above ANS: A 15. Companding is used to: a. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates

c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. In North America, companding uses: a. the Logarithmic Law c. the ELaw (alpha law) b. the A Law d. the QLaw (mu law) ANS: D 17. In Europe, companding uses: a. the Logarithmic Law c. the ELaw (alpha law) b. the A Law d. the QLaw (mu law) ANS: B 18. Codec stands for: a. Coder-Decoder c. Code-Compression b. Coded-Carrier d. none of the above ANS: A 19. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. 4-bit numbers c. 12-bit numbers b. 8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation: a. transmits fewer bits per sample c. can suffer slope overload b. requires a much higher sampling rate d. all of the above ANS: D 21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when: a. the signal changes too rapidly c. the bit rate is too high b. the signal does not change d. the sample is too large ANS: B 22. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. only over shorter distances b. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. AMI c. unipolar NRZ b. Manchester d. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. Manchester coding: a. is a biphase code

18

b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. provides strong timing information d. all of the above ANS: D 25. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: a. 1 c. 4 b. 2 d. 8 ANS: A 26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. detect errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver b. carry signaling d. all of the above ANS: C 27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. detect errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver b. carry signaling d. all of the above ANS: B 28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 1 c. 4 b. 2 d. 8 ANS: D 29. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. 8 k c. 64 k b. 56 k d. 1.544 v106 ANS: A 30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 1.544 Mb/s c. 56 kb/s b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s ANS: B 31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. 1.544 MB/s c. 56 kb/s b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. A T-1 cable uses: a. Manchester coding c. NRZ coding b. bipolar RZ AMI coding d. pulse-width coding ANS: B 33. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. 6 c. 24 b. 12 d. 48 ANS: B 34. A typical T-1 line uses: a. twisted-pair wire c. fiber-optic cable b. coaxial cable d. microwave ANS: A 35. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. on-hook/off-hook condition c. ringing 19

b. busy signal d. all of the above ANS: D 36. A vocoder implements compression by: a. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. much better c. about the same b. somewhat better d. not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality. ANS: improved better 2. To send it over an analog channel, a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier. ANS: modulated 3. To send it over a digital channel, an analog signal must first be ____________________. ANS: digitized 4. In analog channels, the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the length of the channel increases. ANS: decreases gets worse 5. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. ANS: binary 6. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. ANS: regenerative 7. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. ANS: correct 8. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. ANS:

error noise 9. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. ANS: Time 10. All practical communications channels are band-____________________. ANS: limited 11. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time, information capacity, and bandwidth. ANS: Hartley's 12. Ignoring noise, the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. ANS: Shannon 14. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. ANS: Natural 15. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format. ANS: Nyquist 16. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. ANS: Foldover 17. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. ANS: Aliasing 18. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal. ANS: amplitude 19. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ANS: Pulse-code

20. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ANS: Quantizing 21. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. ANS: Companding 22. In North America, compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ANS: Q mu 23. In Europe, compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ANS: A 24. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. ANS: codec 25. In a PCM system, the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. ANS: 12 26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________. ANS: 1 one 27. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction. ANS: higher 28. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. ANS: Granular 29. In delta modulation, ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. ANS: slope 30. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. ANS: step 31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. ANS: half

20

32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity. ANS: DC 33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________. ANS: polarity 34. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. ANS: zeros 35. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period. ANS: transition 36. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. ANS: timing 37. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame. ANS: 24 38. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver. ANS: framing 39. In DS-1, each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second. ANS: 8000 40. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. ANS: 1.544 v106 41. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: superframe 42. From a group of twelve frames, signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame. ANS: sixth 43. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it. ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100,000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2,000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. ANS: 21

5 seconds 2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12,000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. ANS: 2000 hertz 3. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-tonoise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. What is the approximate dynamic range, in dB, of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? ANS: 64 kbps 7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt, what is the output voltage of a Q-law compressor if the input voltage is 0.388 volt? ANS: 0.833 volt

Chapter 8: The Telephone System

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. DTMF stands for: a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency

b. Dial Tone Master Frequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency ANS: C 2. PSTN stands for: a. Public Switched Telephone Network c. Primary Service Telephone Network b. Private Switched Telephone Network d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers ANS: A 3. POTS stands for: a. Private Office Telephone System c. Primary Operational Test System b. Primary Office Telephone Service d. Plain Old Telephone Service ANS: D 4. LATA stands for: a. Local Access and Transport Area c. Local Area Telephone Access b. Local Access Telephone Area d. Local Area Transport Access ANS: A 5. A LATA is a: a. a local calling area c. a way of accessing a tandem office b. a type of digital local network d. a way of accessing a central office ANS: A 6. Central offices are connected by: a. local loops c. both a and b b. trunk lines d. none of the above ANS: B 7. Local loops terminate at: a. a tandem office c. a central office b. a toll station d. an interexchange office ANS: C 8. Call blocking: a. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. occurs only on long-distance cables d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded ANS: D 9. In telephony, POP stands for: a. Post Office Protocol c. Power-On Protocol b. Point Of Presence d. none of the above ANS: B 10. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. fiberoptic 22

ANS: A 11. FITL stands for: a. Framing Information for Toll Loops c. Framing In The Loop b. Fiber In the Toll Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop ANS: D 12. Loading coils were used to: a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. reduce crosstalk d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. DC current flows through a telephone: a. when it is on hook c. as long as it is attached to a local loop b. when it is off hook d. only when it is ringing ANS: B 14. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. 20 QA to 80 QA c. 2 mA to 8 mA b. 200 QA to 800 QA d. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. step-by-step switching control c. common control b. crossbar control d. ESS ANS: C 16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC ANS: D 18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above ANS: C 19. VNL stands for: a. voltage net loss c. via net loss b. volume net loss d. voice noise level ANS: C 20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to:

a. eliminate reflections c. improve signal-tonoise ratio b. prevent oscillation d. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. 1 mW c. 1 pW b. 0 dBm d. 0 dBr ANS: C 22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. 6 c. 24 b. 12 d. 60 ANS: B 23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. supergroups c. jumbogroups b. mastergroups d. all of the above ANS: D 24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using: a. SSB c. PDM b. DSBSC d. PCM ANS: A 25. PABX stands for: a. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B 26. SLIC stands for: a. Single-Line Interface Circuit c. Subscriber Line Interface Card b. Standard Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit ANS: C 27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to: a. provide synchronization c. cancel echoes b. carry signaling d. check for errors ANS: B 28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. compensation c. justification b. rectification d. frame alignment ANS: C 29. ISDN stands for: a. Integrated Services Digital Network c. Integrated Services Data Network b. Information Services Digital Network d. Information Systems Digital Network ANS: A 30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: 23

a. it took to long to develop b. it is too slow c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. all of the above ANS: D 31. ADSL stands for: a. All-Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line d. Access to Data Services Line ANS: B 32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically: a. much faster c. much more expensive b. about the same speed d. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. A ____________________ is a local calling area. ANS: LATA 2. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines. ANS: trunk 3. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. ANS: tandem 4. With 7-digit phone numbers, ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. ANS: ten 5. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. ANS: blocking 6. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. ANS: digital 7. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. ANS: twisted-pair 8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. ANS: flat 9. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. ANS: Loading

10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red wire is called ____________________. ANS: ring 11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the green wire is called ____________________. ANS: tip 12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. ANS: green 13. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. ANS: seized 14. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. ANS: BORSCHT 15. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. ANS: hybrid 16. In a crosspoint switch, not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time. ANS: lines 17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage. ANS: large 18. The generic term for Touch-Tone signaling is ____________________. ANS: DTMF 19. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. ANS: conditioned 20. In the telephone system, amplifiers are called ____________________. ANS: repeaters 21. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to halfduplex operation. ANS: suppressor 22. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. ANS: C-message 23. In FDM telephony, the modulation is usually ____________________. ANS: 24

SSB SSBSC 24. In FDM telephony, ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. ANS: guard 25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. ANS: 56 26. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. ANS: superframe 27. In DS-1C, ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. ANS: stuff 28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. ANS: in-channel 29. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. ANS: common-channel 30. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. ANS: packet 31. In ISDN, the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. ANS: D 32. In ISDN, the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data. ANS: B 33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment. ANS: TE1 34. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. ANS: asymmetrical 35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER

1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop? ANS: 1000 ohms 2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. ANS: 1 dB 5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. If Cweighting produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP

Chapter 9: Data Transmission

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In practical terms, parallel data transmission is sent: a. over short distances only c. over any distance b. usually over long distances d. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. the Morkum Company c. Western Union b. the Teletype Company d. Emile Baudot ANS: D 3. Data codes are also called: a. character codes c. they do not have any other name b. character sets d. both a and b ANS: C 25

4. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. FIGS data c. numerical data b. binary data d. all of the above ANS: B 5. Character codes include: a. alphanumeric characters c. graphic control characters b. data link control characters d. all of the above ANS: D 6. ASCII stands for: a. American Standard Character-set 2 b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. American Standard Code 2 d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of: a. nonstandard character codes c. control characters b. escape characters d. none of the above ANS: C 8. LF stands for: a. Line Feed c. Line Forward b. Link Feed d. Link Forward ANS: A 9. UART stands for: a. Universal Asynchronous ReceiverTransmitter b. Unidirectional Asynchronous ReceiverTransmitter c. Unaltered Received Text d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11. In asynchronous transmission, the time between consecutive frames is: a. equal to zero c. equal to the start and stop bittimes b. equal to one bit-time d. not a set length

ANS: D 12. In synchronous transmission, the frames are: a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. much longer than asynchronous frames c. 128 bytes long d. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. all of the above ANS: A 14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. the clock bits c. the CRC bits b. the data bits d. a separate clock line ANS: B 15. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. the channel must be noise-free ANS: A 16. BISYNC: a. is an IBM product c. requires the use of DLE b. is a character-oriented protocol d. all of the above ANS: D 17. HDLC: a. is an IBM product c. is identical to SDLC b. is a bit-oriented protocol d. all of the above ANS: B 18. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. "bit-stuffing" c. FEC b. different flags at either end of a frame d. ARQ ANS: A 19. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. automatic request for resynchronization c. automatic receiver queue b. automatic request for retransmission d. automatic request for queue ANS: B 20. ARQ is used to: a. correct bit errors c. put data into a temporary buffer

b. correct synchronization problems d. none of the above ANS: A 21. FEC stands for: a. Fixed Error Control c. Forward Error Correction b. Forward Error Control d. False Error Condition ANS: C 22. VRC is another name for: a. FEC c. LRC b. ARQ d. parity ANS: D 23. CRC stands for: a. Control Receiver Code c. Cyclic Redundancy Check b. Correct Received Character d. Cycle Repeat Character ANS: C 24. Huffman codes: a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25. Run-length encoding is used to: a. encrypt data c. correct data b. compress data d. none of the above ANS: B 26. Public-key encryption: a. allows the use of digital signatures c. avoids the "password problem" b. is used to convey symmetric keys d. all of the above ANS: D 27. SDLC stands for: a. Synchronous Data Link Control c. Synchronous Data Link Character b. Synchronous Data Line Control d. Synchronous Data Line Character ANS: A 28. HDLC is: a. a bit-oriented protocol c. an ISO standard b. based on SDLC d. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances. ANS: short 2. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________. 26

ANS: Baudot 3. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. ANS: character 4. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. ANS: ASCII 5. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. ANS: FF 6. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. ANS: start 7. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit. ANS: stop 8. At the end of an asynchronous frame, the line will be at the ____________________ level. ANS: mark binary 1 9. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. ANS: UART 10. When receiving digital data, ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read. ANS: buffers 11. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. ANS: efficient 12. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. ANS: transitions 13. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. ANS: data 14. In the ____________________ protocol, each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. 27

ANS: BISYNC 15. In HDLC, each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. ANS: flag 16. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. ANS: 01111110 17. BCC stands for ____________________ check character. ANS: block 18. DLE stands for data link ____________________. ANS: escape 19. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags. ANS: stuffing 20. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. ANS: Burst 21. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction. ANS: forward 22. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. ANS: ARQ 23. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error. ANS: even 24. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. ANS: burst 25. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________. ANS: compression 26. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. ANS: cipher 27. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. ANS: password 28. If the key is ____________________ enough, private-key encryption can be quite secure. ANS: long 29. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key. ANS: decrypted

30. Because it is ____________________intensive, public-key encryption can be slow. ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits), what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop bits (it could happen). Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. ANS: 66.7% 6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. ANS: 97.0%

Chapter 10: Local Area Networks

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. CSMA stands for: a. Client-Server Multi-Access c. Carrier Server Master Application b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access d. none of the above ANS: B 2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. Carrier Detection c. Collision Detection b. Carrier Delay d. Collision Delay 28

ANS: C 3. The Internet is: a. a network of networks c. a very large CSMA/CD network b. a very large client-server network d. not really a network at all ANS: A 4. Most LANs: a. are based on Ethernet c. use UTP cable b. use CSMA/CD d. all of the above ANS: D 5. Dumb terminals are still used: a. in token-passing networks b. in networks requiring central monitoring c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. none of the above ANS: B 6. In a circuit-switched network: a. communication is half-duplex only b. each channel carries only one data stream c. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. all of the above ANS: B 7. Each computer on a network is called a: a. hub c. node b. token d. circuit ANS: C 8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, tokenpassing rings are: a. slower c. not as widely used b. more expensive d. all of the above ANS: D 9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. a central ring c. a node b. a central bus d. none of the above ANS: D 10. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. packets c. carriers b. nodes d. tokens ANS: A 11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called: a. a collision c. excess traffic b. contention d. multiple access ANS: B

12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called: a. a collision c. excess traffic b. contention d. multiple access ANS: A 13. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. CSMA c. token-passing b. Ethernet d. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. nodes c. packets b. users d. collisions ANS: D 15. The effect of too many collisions is: a. the network goes down c. the cable overheats b. the network slows down d. data is lost ANS: B 16. MAU stands for: a. Multistation Access Unit c. Multiple Auxiliary Units b. Multiple Access Unit d. none of the above ANS: A 17. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. EIA 232 c. IEEE 802.3 b. IEEE 488.1 d. CCITT ITU-E ANS: C 18. Ethernet was invented by: a. IBM c. Xerox b. INTEL d. Digital Equipment Corporation ANS: C 19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. Manchester encoding c. NRZ encoding b. Three-Level encoding d. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. fiber-optic cable c. RG-58U coaxial cable b. twisted-pair copper wires d. 50-ohm coaxial cable ANS: B 21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. the cable carries baseband signals b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. none of the above ANS: A

22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. to increase the data rate b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above ANS: C 23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. to increase the data rate b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above ANS: C 24. NIC stands for: a. Network Interface Card c. Network Interface Code b. Network Interface Cable d. Network Internal Code ANS: A 25. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. a BNC connector c. an RJ45 connector b. a T connector d. an RS11 connector ANS: C 26. UTP stands for: a. Untwisted-Pair copper wire c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire d. Unicode Text Packet ANS: B 27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables, CAT-5 cables: a. are cheaper c. allow faster bit rates b. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. all of the above ANS: C 28. A hub: a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. A switch: a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports 29

c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. it is faster when used in large networks c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. all of the above ANS: C 31. Broadband LANs: a. modulate the data onto a carrier b. use coaxial cables c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. all of the above ANS: D 32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. peer-to-peer networks c. both a and b b. client-server networks d. none of the above ANS: B 33. Record locking is used to: a. store records securely on a server b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. none of the above ANS: C 34. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. UNIX-based c. multitasking b. WINDOWS-based d. Novell certified ANS: C 35. A "thin" client is: a. basically, a PC with no disk drives c. same as a "dumb" terminal b. a node that rarely sends data d. all of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network. ANS: Local 2. The Internet is a network of ____________________. ANS: networks 3. In a ____________________ network, all nodes are connected to a central computer. 30

ANS: star 4. In a ____________________-switched network, users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications. ANS: circuit 5. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together. ANS: topology 6. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing. ANS: token 7. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. ANS: packet 8. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. ANS: Contention 9. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. ANS: collision 10. In CSMA/CD networks, all collisions must be ____________________. ANS: detected 11. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it. ANS: quiet free unused available 12. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together. ANS: backbone 13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second. ANS: 100 mega 14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected. ANS: minimum 15. In CSMA/CD, the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. ANS: length 16. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. ANS: NIC

17. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable. ANS: fiber-optic 18. Hubs can be ____________________ to form, in effect, one big hub. ANS: stacked 19. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet. ANS: address 20. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. It still works like a token-passing ring. 2. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. 3. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails, the entire network is inoperative. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network, it can be disconnected and the network still functions. 4. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short, nodes at either end of a cable could get on, send a packet, and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. The collision would not be detected. 5. What is a NIC address, and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. Each factory uses

a different sequence of numbers, so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small.

31