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. CBSE TEST PAPER-01 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 4. Carbon and its compounds 1.

Give the names of the functional groups. (i) CHO (ii) (1 marks) (1 marks)

2. The structural formula of an ester is

Write the molecular formula of the alcohol and the acid from which it would have been formed. 3. Give the IUPAC names of ethyl alcohol and acetic acid. (1 marks) (1 mark)

4. What will be the formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane? 5. Give the names of the following functional groups: (i) OH (ii) COOH (1 mark)

6. An organic compound A is a constituent of wine and beer. This compound, on heating with alkaline potassium permanganate forms another organic compound B which turns blue litmus to red. Identify the compound A. Write the chemical equation of the reaction takes place to form the compound B. Name the compound B. (2 marks) (2 (2

7. What type of compounds show substitution reaction? Explain it by an example. marks) 8. Write the structure and electron dot formula of the first two carboxylic acids. marks) 9. What is meant by denatured alcohol? How is it prepared? (2 marks)

10. An organic compound X which is sometimes used as an antifreeze has the molecular formula C2H6O. X on oxidation gives a compound Y which gives effervescence with a baking

soda solution. What can X and Y be? Write their structural formula. (2 marks)

11. What are synthetic detergents? Give one example of a synthetic detergent. Write its two advantages over soap. (3 marks)

12. (a) A gas has two carbon atoms in its molecule. It burns with a sooty flame and is obtained by the cracking of kerosene. Identify the gas. (b) Write its electronic and structural formulae. What happens when bromine water is added to this gas? Write the chemical equation of the reaction involved. (3 marks)

Material downloaded from http://myCBSEguide.com and http://onlineteachers.co.in Portal for CBSE Notes, Test Papers, Sample Papers, Tips and Tricks CBSE TEST PAPER-02 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 4. Carbon and its compounds 1. What is the action of carboxylic acid on litmus solution? 2. Write the formula of ethanol. (1 mark) (1 mark) (1 mark) (1 mark) (1 mark)

3. Give the electron-dot structure of CH3Cl.

4. Give the electron dot structure of Ethyne (C2H2).

5. Name the product formed when hydrogen is added to ethane.

6. What happens when Ethanoic acid is warmed with ethanol in the presence of a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid? Write equation of the reaction involved. 7. Why carbon atoms cannot form ionic bonds in its compounds? 8. Give reasons for following: (2 marks) (2 marks) (2 marks)

(i) Oxidation of ethanol with CrO3 produces ethanal while ethanol when oxidised with

alkaline KMnO4 produces Ethanoic acid. (ii) Alcohol supplied for industrial purposes is mixed with copper sulphate. 9. Give two differences between soap and synthetic detergent? 10. What is hydrogenation? What is its industrial application? (2 marks) (2 marks) (3

11. Define isomerism. Write the names and structure of two isomers of butane. marks)

12. What are synthetic detergents? Give example of a synthetic detergent. Write its two advantages over soap. (3 marks) (3 marks)

13. Describe along with chemical equations, what happens when: (i) Ethane reacts with bromine water. (ii) Ethanol burns in air.

(iii) Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol on the presence of sulphuric acid. 14. (i) People use a variety of methods to wash clothes, usually after adding the soap they beat the clothes on a stone, or beat with a paddle, scrub with a brush or the mixture is agitate in a washing machine. Why is agitation necessary to get clean clothes? (ii) State one advantage of soap over detergents and also state one disadvantages. (iii) Why have detergents replaced soap as a washing agents? (5 marks) Material downloaded from http://myCBSEguide.com and http://onlineteachers.co.in Portal for CBSE Notes, Test Papers, Sample Papers, Tips and Tricks CBSE TEST PAPER-03 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 4. Carbon and its compounds 1. Draw the electron do structure of O2 and N2 molecules. (1 mark)

2. A test tube contains a brown coloured liquid in it. The colour of the liquid remains unchanged

when methane is passed through it but disappears when ethane is passed. Suggest the name of the compound giving brown colour to the liquid. 3. Draw the structure of chloro butane. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

4. What happens when ethanol is oxidised with alkaline potassium permanganate (or acidified potassium dichromate)? Write the equation of the reaction involved. (1 mark)

5. What would be the electron dot structure of carbon dioxide which has the formula CO2? (1 mark) 6. An organic compound A is a constituent of antifreeze. The compound on heating with oxygen forms another compound B which has a molecular formula C2H4O2. Identify the compound A and B. Write the chemical equation of the reaction to form the compound B. marks) 7. Give two tests to demonstrate that acetic acid (CH3COOH) is acidic in nature. marks) (2 (2

8. What is detergent? Explain giving reasons: Detergents made up of molecules, in which branching is minimum, are prepared these days. (2 marks)

9. What type of compounds show additional reactions? Explain with an example. (2 marks) 10. Write the balanced equations for the combustion of methane and ethanol. 11. Draw the structural formulae of all the possible isomers of pentane. 12. Explain the cleaning action of soaps. (3 marks) (2 marks)

(3 marks)

13. (i) Describe with chemical equation how Ethanoic acid may be obtained from (3 marks) (a) ethanol and (b) methanol.

(ii) Write chemical equation for the decarboxylation reaction of Ethanoic acid. 14. (i) Why is ethanol used as a fuel? (5 marks)

(ii) Why is the conversion of ethanol into Ethanoic acid an oxidation reaction? (iii) Why, methanol is much more dangerous to drink than ethanol? (iv) Why ethane decolourises bromine water whereas ethane does not? (v) Why does the element carbon form a large number of organic compounds? Material downloaded from http://myCBSEguide.com and http://onlineteachers.co.in Portal for CBSE Notes, Test Papers, Sample Papers, Tips and Tricks CBSE TEST PAPER-04 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 4. Carbon and its compounds 1. What are oxidizing agents? (1 mark) (1 mark)

2. Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels for most applications? 3. Explain the formation of scum when hard water is treated with soap.

(1 mark)

4. What change will you observe if you test soap with litmus paper (red and blue)? (1 mark) 5. Name the product other than water formed on burning of ethanol in air. 6. Write chemical equation of the reaction of Ethanoic acid with: (i) Soda lime (ii) Sodium carbonate. 7. Write the electron dot structure of ethyne. A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Why do you think a mixture of ethyne and air is not used? (2 marks) (1 mark)

(2 marks)

8. A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Can you tell why a mixture of ethyne and air is not used? (2 marks) (2 marks)

9. What is hydrogenation? What is its industrial application?

10. Give a test to differentiate chemically between butter and cooking oil. 9. What happens when ethanol reacts with (i) Sodium (ii) Chromic anhydride and (3 marks)

(2 marks)

(iii) Alkaline potassium permanganate solution? Write the necessary chemical equations for the reaction involved in the above cases. 10.What are hydrocarbons? Give two points of difference between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons. (3 marks)

11. (i) Explain the process of preparation of soaps in the laboratory. (ii) Why is common salt(sodium chloride) adding during the preparation of soap. (iii) Why is soap not suitable for washing clothes, when the water is hard? (iv) What is a detergent? Name one detergent. CBSE TEST PAPER-05 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 4. Carbon and its compounds 1. Name the functional group present in the compound CH3NH2 and name it. (1 mark) 2. Write the name and chemical formula of the organic acid present in vinegar. (1 mark) 3. A compound has molecular formula C2H6O. It is usable as a fuel. Name it. (1 mark) 4. An organic compound A on heating with acetic acid and conc. Sulphuric acid gave a pleasant smelling compound B. What is the nature of compound A? (1 mark) (5 marks

5. How is ethanol prepared from ethane? Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved. What is meant by denatured alcohol? What is the need to denature alcohol? (2 marks) 6. What is the unique property of carbon atom? How is this property helpful to us? (2

marks) 7. Complete and balance the following equations: (i) C2H5OH + O2 Combustion (iii)C2H4 + H2O (ii) C2H5OH+O2 (2 marks) Oxidation

H PO 3 4 (iv)CH3COOH + CH3OH 8. An organic compound A of molecular formula C2H6O on oxidation gives an acid with the same number of carbon atoms as in the molecule A. Compound A is often used for sterilization of skin by doctors. Name the compound A and B. Write the chemical equation involved in the formation of B from A. 9. Give reasons: (2 marks)

(2 marks)

(i)Common salt (sodium chloride) is added during the preparation of soap. (ii)Soap is not suitable for washing clothes when the water is hard. 10. Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond formation is CH3Cl. (3 marks) 11. (a) Write the chemical equation representing the preparation reaction of ethanol from ethane. (b) Name the product obtained when ethanol is oxidized by either chromic anhydride or alkaline potassium permanganate. (c) Give an example of an etherification reaction. (3 marks)

12. (i) What are the two properties of carbon which lead to he formation of a large number of carbon compounds?

(ii) What is a homologous series? Explain with an example. By how many carbon atoms and hydrogen atoms do any two adjacent homologous differ? (iii) Give a test that can be used to differentiate chemically between butter and cooking oil. (5 marks) CBSE TEST PAPER-06 CLASS - X (Carbon and its compound)

1. Soaps are formed by the saponification of (a) Alcohols (1) 2. The functional group of butanone is (a) Carboxyl (b) ketonic (1) 3. Enzyme which converts starch into glucose is (a) Zymase (1) 4. The first compound to be prepared in the laboratory was (a) Methane (1) 5. The IUPAC name of CH CHO 3 is (a) Acetaldehyde (b) Formaldehyde (c) Methyl formaldehyde (d) Ethanal. (1) 6. (b) Ethyl alcohol (c) acetic acid (d) Urea. (b) Maltase (c) Diastase (d) Invertase (c) aldehydic (d) alcoholic (b) simple ester (c) carboxylic acids (d) glycerides

Name the following compounds. | H HCO= 32 (2) 7. Define soaps? (2) (b) CH CH Cl

(a)

8. Name the second member of alkynes family Give its structure? (2) 9. Give a chemical test to distinguish between Ethane and ethane. (2) 10. Complete the following reaction (i) 4 2 2 2 2 = + H SO H C CH H O (ii) HC CH Br + 2 (iii) C H OH Na 25+ (3) 11. What is the role of concentrated H SO2 4 in the esterification reaction? (3) 12. What will be the formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane ? (3) 13. Draw the structures of the following compounds (a) Ethanoic acid (b) Bromopentane (c) Butanone

(3) 14. Define fermentation. Name the enzyme which converts (a) milk into curd (yogurt) (b) Cane sugar into glucose and fructose (c) glucose into ethanol CBSE TEST PAPER-02 CLASS - X (Carbon and its compound)

1. Rectified spirit is (a) 50% ethanol (c) 95% ethanol (1) 2. Dilute alkaline KMnO4 solution is (a) an oxidising agent (c) a bleaching agent (1) 3. The by product in soap industry is (a) Isoprene (c) glycerol (1) 4. An example of soap is (a) C H COONa 15 31 (b) CH COONa 3 (b) Ethylene glycol (d) butane (b) a reducing agent (d) none of these (b) 80% ethanol (d) 40 to 50%

(c) C H COONa 65 (d) C H OSO Na 17 35 3 (1) 5. The number of C-H bonds is ethane C2H6 molecule are (a) 4 (c) 8 (1) 6. Write the structures of (i) Ethanoic acid (2) 7. Name the following compounds (a) 3 0 H CH C = (2) 8. Which organic compound is added to make ethanol unfit for drinking purposes? What is the name of the mixture formed? (2) 9. Write a test to identify the presence of ethanoic acid? (2) 10. Give names of the following (3) (a) An aldehyde derived from ethane (b) Ketone derived from butane (b) CH CH OH 3 2 (ii) Hex anal (b) 6 (d) 10

(c) Compound obtained by the oxidation of ethanol by chromic anhydride 11. What is meant by denatured alcohol? What is the need to denature alcohol? (3) 12. Write chemical equations of the reactions of ethanoic acid with (a) Sodium (c) Ethanol (3) 13. Complete the reaction and names of the products formed (i) 3 + heat CH COOH NaOH (ii) 252 4 + alkaline C H OH O KMnO (iii) 24 3 2 5 4 + Conc H SO CH COOH C H O (3) 14. (a) Name the gas evolved during fermentation process? (b) Sodium carbonate (d) The presence of conc H2So4

(b) What role is played by yeast in the conversion of cane sugar (C12H22O11) to ethanol? (c) How may the following be obtained from pure ethanol? Express chemical reactions by the chemical equations. (i) Sodium ethoxide (ii) Ethyl ethanoate (iii) Ethanal

CBSE TEST PAPER-07 CLASS - X (Carbon and its compound)

1. Rectified spirit is (a) 50% ethanol (c) 95% ethanol (1) 2. Dilute alkaline KMnO4 solution is (a) an oxidising agent (c) a bleaching agent (1) 3. The by product in soap industry is (a) Isoprene (c) glycerol (1) 4. An example of soap is (a) C H COONa 15 31 (b) CH COONa (b) Ethylene glycol (d) butane (b) a reducing agent (d) none of these (b) 80% ethanol (d) 40 to 50%

(c) C H COONa 65 (d) C H OSO Na 17 35 3 (1) 5. The number of C-H bonds is ethane C2H6 molecule are (a) 4 (c) 8 (1) 6. Write the structures of (i) Ethanoic acid (2) 7. Name the following compounds (a) 3 0 H CH C = (2) 8. Which organic compound is added to make ethanol unfit for drinking purposes? What is the name of the mixture formed? (2) 9. Write a test to identify the presence of ethanoic acid? (2) 10. Give names of the following (3) (a) An aldehyde derived from ethane (b) CH CH OH 3 2 (ii) Hex anal (b) 6 (d) 10

(b) Ketone derived from butane (c) Compound obtained by the oxidation of ethanol by chromic anhydride 11. What is meant by denatured alcohol? What is the need to denature alcohol? (3) 12. Write chemical equations of the reactions of ethanoic acid with (a) Sodium (c) Ethanol (3) 13. Complete the reaction and names of the products formed (i) 3 + heat CH COOH NaOH (ii) 252 4 + alkaline C H OH O KMnO (iii) 24 3 2 5 4 + Conc H SO CH COOH C H O (3) (b) Sodium carbonate (d) The presence of conc H2So4

14. (a) Name the gas evolved during fermentation process? (b) What role is played by yeast in the conversion of cane sugar (C12H22O11) to ethanol? (c) How may the following be obtained from pure ethanol? Express chemical reactions by the chemical equations. (i) Sodium ethoxide (ii) Ethyl ethanoate (iii) Ethanal CBSE TEST PAPER-08 CLASS - X (Carbon and its compound)

1. The odour of acetic acid resembles that of (a) Rose (b) Burning Plastic (c) Vinegar (d) Kerosene (1) 2. Diamond is not a good conductor of electricity because (a) is very hard (b) Its structure is very compact (c) It is not soluble in water (d) It has no free electrons to conduct electric current. (1) 3. Alcohols can be produced by the hydration of (a) Alkenes (b) alkynes (c) alkenes

(d) acids (1) 4. The IUPAC name of CH3CHO is (a) Acetaldehyde (b) formaldehyde (c) methyl formaldehyde (d) ethanol (1) 5. IUPAC name of first member of homologous series of ketones is (a) Ethanone (b) methanone (c) Propanone (d) Butanone 6. What are the properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds we see around us? (2) 7. Name the following compound (a) CH3-CH2-Br (b) CH CH CH C CH 3 2 2 (2) 8. Why is conversion of ethanol into ethanoic acid an oxidation reaction? (2) 9. A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is used for welding. Can you justify why a mixture of ethyne and air is not-used? (2) 10. What is a homologous series? State any two characteristics of homologous

series? (3) 11. Give the structural formulas for (i) Methyl Ethanote (ii) Ethyl ethanoate Write two uses of Ester? (3) 12. What are enzymes? Name the enzymes required for the fermentation of sugar cane to ethanol? (3) 13. The formula of an ester is C3H7COOC2H5 write the formulae of the acid and alcohol from which the ester is prepared. (3) 14. An organic compound A is widely used as a preservative in pickles and has a molecular formula C2H4O2. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling compound B. (a) Identify the compound A. (b) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound B. (c) (d) (e) How can we get compound A back from B. Name the process and write the corresponding chemical equation. Which gas is produced when compound A reacts with washing soda? Write

the chemical equation? CBSE TEST PAPER-09 CLASS - X (Carbon and its compound)

1. An unknown compound has the smell of vinegar. Identify it. (1) 2. Out of butter and groundnut oil which is unsaturated in nature. (1) 3. Which has triple bond, 2 4 3 4 3 6 C H C H C H , , (1) 4. Which substance is added for the denaturation of ethyl alcohol (1) 5. Which ions are responsible for making water hard? (1) 6. Why carbon and its compounds used as fuels in most cases? (2) 7. A compound X has the molecular formula C H O 3 6 with structural formula CH CH CHO 3 2 . Give its IUPAC name. Can another compound have the same molecular formula? Give the structure and IUPAC name of that compound also. (2) 8. Why CHO group cannot be present in the middle of the carbon atom chain? (2) 9. Two carbon atoms cannot be linked to each other by more three covalent bonds. Why? (2) 10. Write three difference between ethanol and ethanoic acid on the basis of chemical properties? (3) 11. Given a chemical test to distinguish between (i) Ethane and ethene (ii) Ethanol and ethanoic acid (iii) Soaps and Detergents (3) 12. Name the functional groups present in the following compounds? (i) CH CH CH OH 3 2 2 (ii)CH CH CH COOH 3 2 2 (iii) CH CH CHO 3 2

(3) 13. What are esters? Write an equation to show the formation of ester? (3) 14. (a) Why does carbon form largest number of compounds? (b) Why are some of these called saturated and other unsaturated compounds? (c) Which of these two is more reactive? CBSE TEST PAPER-01 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 5. Periodic Classification of Elements 1. State Mendeleevs law. (1 mark) (1 mark) (1 mark)

2. What is the trend of atomic size (radius) in moving down a group? 3. What were the limitation of Doberciners classification of elements?

6. Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic number 15) belong to group 15 of the Periodic Table. Write the electronic configuration of these two elements. Which of these will be more electronegative? Why? (2 marks)

7. How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the Modern Periodic Table? (2 marks)

8. In each of the following pairs, choose the atom having the bigger size: (i) Mg (At No. 12) or CI (At. No. 17) (ii) Na (At. No. 11) or K(At. No. 19) (2 marks) 9.Name two other elements which are in the same groups as (i) carbon (ii) oxygen. marks) 10. What is a period in a Periodic Table? How do atomic structure (electron arrangements) change in a period with increase in atomic numbers from left to right? (2 marks) (2

11. Elements X and Y belong to groups 1 and 17 of the Periodic Table respectively. What will be the nature of the bond in the compound XY? Give two properties of XY. (3 marks)

12. The atomic radii of group 1 elements of the Periodic Table are as follows: (3 marks) Na(186 pm), Li (152 pm), Rb(244 pm), Cs (262 pm) and K (231 pm) (i) Arrange these elements in the increasing order of their atomic radii in a vertical column (keeping eh elements with the smallest atomic radius at the top) (ii) Which element have the smallest and largest atom? (iii) From this data, infer how the size for atomic radius) of elements vary as we go down in the group. CBSE TEST PAPER-02 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 5. Periodic Classification of Elements 1. In the Modern Periodic Table which are the metals among the first ten elements? (1mark) 2. If an element with atomic number A is an inert gas. In which group would you find an element with atomic number (A + 2)? 3. State modern periodic law. (1 mark) (1 mark)

4. (i) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as boron have in common. (2 marks)

(ii) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as fluorine have in common? 5. An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7: (i) What is the atomic number of this element? (2 marks)

(ii) To which of the following elements would it be chemically similar? (Atomic numbers are given in parentheses) N(7) F(9) P(15) Ar (18) 6. How dies the number of valence electrons vary on moving from left to right: (2 marks) (i) In the first period of the Periodic Table? (ii) In the second period of the Periodic Table? 7. Give three draw books (limitations) of Mendeleevs Periodic Table. (3 marks)

8. The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are given below: (3 marks) X 2 Y 2, 6 Z 2, 8, 2 (i)Which element belongs to second period? (ii)Which element belongs to second group? (iii)Which element belongs to eighteenth groups? 9. How does the size of atoms (atomic size) generally vary in going from left to right in a period of the Periodic Table? Why does it vary this way? (3 marks) (5 marks)

10. The atomic number of an element X is 17. Predict (a) Its valence (b) Whether it is metal or non-metal (c) Nature of the element (d) Name of the element

(e) Relative size with respect to other members of its group. CBSE TEST PAPER-03 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10)

Chapter 5. Periodic Classification of Elements 1. What is the trend of atom size (radium) in moving from left to right in a period? (1 mark) 2. Besides gallium, which other elements have since been discovered that were left by Mendeleev in his Periodic Table ? (any two) (1 mark)

3. Electronic configuration of an atom is 2, 8, 8, 2. Name period and groups it belongs to? (1 mark) 4. How do the following change on going from left to right in a period of the Periodic Table? (i) Chemical reactivity of elements (ii) Nature of oxides of elements. Give examples in support of your answer. (2 marks)

5. Name two elements you would expect to show chemical reactions similar to magnesium. What is the basis of your choice? (2 marks)

6. Why does the size of the atoms progressively became smaller when we move from sodium (Na) to chlorine (Cl) in the third of the Periodic Table? 7. Explain why: (i) All the elements of a group have similar chemical properties. (ii) All the elements of a period have different chemical properties. (2 marks) (2 marks)

8. The atomic numbers of the three elements X, Y and Z are 2, 6 and 10 respectively. (i) Which two elements belong to the same group? (ii)Which two elements belong the same period? 9. Name (3 marks) (2 marks)

(a) Three elements that have a single electron in their outermost shells. (b) Two elements that have two electrons in their outermost shells.

(c) Three elements with filled outer most shells. 10. Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in Mendeleevs Periodic Table and the Modern Periodic Table. (3 marks) (3 marks)

11. On the basis of electronic structure, how will you select (i) The first element in a period? (ii) The terminating member in a period? (iii) The chemically similar elements?

12. Explain about the trends in the Modern Periodic Table, about various properties like valency, atomic size, metallic and non-metallic properties of the atoms of elements. CBSE TEST PAPER-04 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 5. Periodic Classification of Elements 1. Which of the following g belong to the same period: Element A B C Atomic Number 2 10 5 2. In the Modern Periodic Table, which are the metals among the first ten elements? (1 mark) 3. How many elements were known during the time of Mendeleev? (1 mark) (1 mark) (5 marks)

4. (i) Lithium, sodium, potassium are all metals that react with water to liberate hydrogen gas. Is there any similarity in the atoms of these elements? (ii) Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if anything do their atoms have in common. (2marks)

5.An atom has the electronic structure of 2, 7:

(i)What is the atomic number of this atom? (ii)To which of the following would it be chemically similar? N(7), P(15), CI (17) , Ar (18). (2 marks)

6. (i) An elements X has mass number 40 and contains 21 neutrons in its atom. To which group of the Periodic Table it belongs? (ii) The elements X forms a compound X2 Y. Suggest an element that Y might be and gibe reasons for your choice. (2 marks) (2 marks) (2 marks)

7. What were the limitations of Dobereiners classification?

8. Why do you think the noble gases are placed in a separate group?

9. (a)What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as born have in common? (b) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as fluorine have in common? (2 marks)

10. The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are given below: (3 marks) X=2 Y = 2, 6 Z= 2, 8, 2 (i)Which element belongs to second period? (ii)Which element belong to second group? (iii)Which element belongs to eighteenth group? Give reasons also. 11. An element has atomic number 13. In which period and group it should be placed? (3

marks) 12. What was the basic of the Mendeleevs classification of elements? (3 marks)

13. Which of the two elements A(2, 8, 1) and B (2, 8, 8,1) is more electropositive. (3 marks) CBSE TEST PAPER-05 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 5. Periodic Classification of Elements 1. Which of the two, Cl or Br is larger in size? (1 mark)

2. State main characteristics of the last elements in the periods of the periodic table? (1 mark) 3. Name the chemically least active element in the given triad: Li, Na, K. (1 mark)

4. As we move vertically downwards in a group of the periodic table, what happen to the size of atom? (1 mark)

5. How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the Modern Periodic Table? (2 marks)

6. Why chlorine and bromine are kept in the same group of the periodic table. (2 marks) 7. Explain why atomic number is more important than atomic weight in determining chemical properties. (2 marks)

8. Why does the size of the atoms progressively become smaller when we move from sodium (Na) to chlorine (Cl) in the third period of the periodic table? 9. Explain why (3 marks) (2 marks)

(i) All the elements of a group have similar chemical properties? (ii) All the elements of a period have different chemical properties? 10. Why is atomic number of an element more important than atomic mass to know the properties of the element? (3 marks)

11. Explain why, the first period of the modern periodic table has only two elements whereas second period has eight elements. (3 marks)

12. Compare the arrangement of elements in Mendeleevs Periodic Table and Modern Periodic Table. Or Two elements X and Y belongs to group 1 and 2 respectively in the same period. Compare them with respect to: (i)The number of valence electrons (ii) Valency (iii)Metallic character. (iv)Size of the atoms. (v)Formulae of their oxides and chlorides CBSE TEST PAPER-06 CLASS - X (Periodic classification of elements) (5marks )

1. Arrange the following is descending atomic size Na, Mg, K (1) 2. Give the name and electronic configuration of second alkali metal? (1) 3. What is the similarity in the electronic configuration of Mg, Ca and Sr? (1) 4. Which is bigger in size Na, Na

+ (1) 5. Name three elements which behave as metalloids? (1) 6. Alkali metals do not form dipositive ions why? (2) 7. Why non-metals are called electro negative elements? (2) 8. How were the positions of different isotopes decided in the modern periodic table? (2) 9. Hydrogen is regarded as a rogue element in the periodic table. Discuss. (2) 10. Calcium is an element with Z = 20 (a) Is it a metal or a non-metal? (b) Will its size be more or smaller than that of potassium? (c) write the formula of its chloride (3) 11. (a) Name the elements present in the third period and classify them into metals and non-metals. (b) On which side of the table do you find the metals? (c) On which side of the table do you find the non-metals? (3) 12. Table is a part of periodic table H He Li Be B C N O F Ne Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Use this table and explain why (a) Li and Ma use considered as active metals

(b) Atomic size of Mg is less Than that of Na (c) Fluorine is more reactive than chlorine. (3) 13. Write two major shortcomings of Mendeleevs periodic table? How have these been removed in the modern periodic table? CBSE TEST PAPER-07 CLASS - X (Periodic classification of elements)

1. Which of the following has maximum atomic size? (a) K (1) 2. The law of octaves was proposed by (a) Newland (c) Lother Meyer (1) 3. The number of periods in the long form of the periodic table is (a) 6 (1) 4. Which of the following elements has maximum metallic character? (a) Li (1) 5. Which of the following is the most reactive halogen? (a) F (1) 6. Why do elements in a group show same valency? (2) (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I (b) N (c) Na (d) P (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 18 (b) Doberiener (d) Mendleeve (b) Ca (c) Al (d) P

7. Why are the members of group 1 known as alkali metals? (2) 8. How does metallic character of the elements vary (i) In a group (ii) In a period? (2) 9. Name the other elements which belong to the same family as (i) Calcium (ii) Carbon. (2) 10. How would tendency to gain electrons change as you go down in a group? (3) 11. Two elements X and Y belong to Group 1 and Group 2 respectively in the same period. Compare them with respect to: (a) The number of valence electrons (d) Size of the atoms (3) 12. The following table shows the position of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F in the period table. Groups Periods 1 2 3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 2ABC 3DEF Using the table answer the following (a) Which element will form only covalent compounds? (b) Which element is a metal with valency 2. (c) Which clement is a non-metal with valency 3. (d) Out of D and E which has bigger atomic radius and why? (e) Write a common name for the family of elements C and F CBSE TEST PAPER-04 (b) Valency (c) metallic character

(e) Formula of their oxides and chlorides.

CLASS X Science (How Do Organisms Reproduce) 1. Fertilization in plants occurs in the a) Embryo sac c) Pollen tube [1] 2. Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring during reproduction show a) only similarities with parents b) only variations with parents c) neither similarities nor variations d) both similarities and variations with parents [1] 3. Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted? a) syphilis c) HIV AIDS [1] 4. What is tubectomy? [1] 5. Name the causative organism, of AIDS? [1] 6. Name the type of reproduction involved in the following (i) A slice of bread has greenish yellow patches. (ii) Potato in the store room starts sprouting [2] 7. Give two reasons for the appearance of variations among the off springs formed by sexual reproduction. [2] b) Gonorrhoea d) Hepatitis b) Style d) Stigma

8. Name the organism causes syphilis. Mention two symptoms. [2] 9. How does human foetus derive nutrition? [2] 10. What is the importance of reproduction? [3] 11. How are spores produced in sporangium of Rhizopus? [3] 12. Diagrammatical represent binary fission in amoeba [3] 13. Draw a flow chart showing various types of reproduction with examples. [3] 14. Differentiate between asexual and sexual reproduction. [5] CBSE TEST PAPER-05 CLASS X Science (How Do Organisms Reproduce) 1. A common feature of reproduction in Amoeba, spirogyra and yeast is that a) They reproduce only sexually b) They are all unicellular c) they reproduce asexually d) They are all multicellular [1] 2. Which of this seminal fluid? a) Prostate gland c) Seminal vesicle [1] 3. At the time of entering into ovule, pollen tube has a) three male nuclei c) one gamete nucleus [1] 4. How many follicles mature every month during the reproductive phase of human female? b) two mole nuclei d) four male gametes b) Cowpers gland d) all of these

[1] 5. What is the product of fertilization? [1] 6. Why are testes and ovaries considered as primary sex organs? [2] 7. What is the difference between fission and budding? [2] 8. Mention function of testis in humans? [2] 9. Why does menstruation occur? [2] 10. What is grafting? Why it is used in horticulture practices? [3] 11. What are the different methods of contraception? [3] 12. What is AIDS? Name its causal organism. Mention its symptoms. [3] 13. Explain vegetative reproduction through layering. [3] 14. What is the need of population control? [5] CBSE TEST PAPER-03 CLASS X Science (How Do Organisms Reproduce) 1. A common feature of reproduction in Amoeba, spirogyra and yeast is that a) Asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction b) Asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction c) Asexual reproduction does not involve gametes d) Asexual reproduction involves only one parent [1] 2. The normal duration of menstrual cycle is a) 7 8 days c) 3 4 days [1] 3. Which of the following is an IUCD? a) copper T b) diaphragm b) 13 15 d) 28 days

c) oral pills [1] 4. What is parturition? [1] 5. What is puberty? [1]

d) tubectomy

6. List two important functions of gonads. [2] 7. What is the function cowpers gland and prostate gland? [2] 8. List various reproductive parts of flower [2] 9. What is the difference between internal & external fertilization? [2] 10. What are the advantages of vegetative propagation? [3] 11. Describe any 3 methods of asexual reproduction [3] 12. What changes occur in ovaries during menstrual cycle ? [3] 13. Describe budding in yeast, a fungus [3] 14. Draw a well labeled diagram of male reproductive system and describe its parts. [5] CBSE TEST PAPER-02 CLASS X Science (How Do Organisms Reproduce) 1. During grafting, the portion of plant that is grafted is called a) Stock c) stalk [1] 2. Which part of the flower forms the fruit? a) Whole flower c) Only ovary [1] 3. Anemophily is the pollination by a) Birds b) Rain b) Only stamens and carpel d) Only carpel b) Scion d) stem

c) insects [1] 4. What is syngamy? [1]

d) Wind

5. Name the structure through which pollen tubes enters the ovule. [1] 6. What do meant by self pollination & cross pollination? [2] 7. What is the difference between binary fission and multiple fission? [2] 8. What are the basic features of asexual reproduction ? [2] 9. What is a clone? Why do offsprings formed by asexual reproduction exhibit remarkable similarity? [2] 10. What is micropropogation? Mention its advantages. [3] 11. Mention the events taking place when the ovum is fertilized in fallopian tube till it is implanted in the uterus of human female. [3] 12. What are the post fertilizational changes in the flower? [3] 13. What are the major factors responsible for population Explosion? [3] 14. Draw a wall labeled diagram of female reproductive system and mention its parts. CBSE TEST PAPER-01 CLASS X Science (How Do Organisms Reproduce) 1. In vegetative reproduction, the new individuals are genetically a) Similar c) Abnormal [1] 2. When an organism breaks into a number of parts and each part develop into an b) Dissimilar d) None of these

individual, it is called a) Budding c) Regeneration [1] 3. In man, fertilization of ovum takes place in a) Vagina c) uterus [1] 4. Define parthenogenesis. [1] 5. How may male gametes are produced by pollen grains? [1] 6. Define reproduction. Why is it important? [2] 7. What is callus? [2] 8. What happens if the mature ovum is not fertlised in a female? Name the process [2] 9. Give two examples each of IUCD and STD. [2] 10. What changes occur in girls and boys in the age group of 10 -14 years? [3] 11. Describe sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) and mention the ways to prevent them. [3] 12. Name the surgical methods of birth control in human males and females respectively. [3] 13. What are the essential requisites for sexual reproduction? [3] 14. Describe triples fusion in plants? Where doest it occur. [5] CBSE TEST PAPER-05 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) b) ovary d) Fallopian tubes b) Binary fission d) Spore formation

Chapter 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce? 1. Name the genital tract of female that receives sperms. 2. What is Placenta? (1 mark) (1 mark) (2 marks) (2 marks) (1 mark)

3. Give two examples of bisexual organisms. 4. Describe asexual reproduction in Amoeba. 5. What is multiple fission? Give its one example. 6. Explain double fertilization in plants.

(2 marks) (2 marks)

7. Differentiate in between vasectomy and tubectomy.

8. How does budding take place in (i) Unicellular and (ii) Multicellular organism. (2 marks) 9. Distinguish between human sperm and human ovum. (3 marks)

10. (i) When does ovulation occur during the menstrual cycle in a normal healthy woman? (ii) Draw a labeled diagram to show the reproductive system of human female. (3 marks) 11. Distinguish between layering method and cutting method. (3 marks) (3 marks)

12. Mention in brief the reproductive changes in an adult female.

13. Trace the events that could take place in a flower from the time the pollen grains of the same species fall on the sigma up to completion of fertilization. CBSE TEST PAPER-04 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce? 1. Name the type of fission carried out by Amoeba. (1 mark) (1 mark) (5 marks)

2. List two functions performed by ovaries in human female. 3. What is asexual reproduction? (1 mark) (1 mark)

4. Where does the fertilization take place in man?

5. Draw a diagram to show the structure of a flower.

(2 marks) (2marks)

6. What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction? 7. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?

(2 marks)

8. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction? (2 marks) 9. Why does menstruation occur? (2 marks)

10. How does reproduction help in providing stability to populations of species? (3 marks) 11. (i) What is fertilization? Distinguish between external fertilization and internal fertilization. (ii) What is the site of fertilization in human beings? (3 marks)

12. What is pollination? Name its two types. How do they differ from each other? (3 marks) 13. (i) Draw a labelled diagram of the human male reproductive system. (5 marks) (ii) Where in the human body does an ovum get fertilized? Where does a fertilized ovum develop into a baby in the human body? (iii) Name the organs which produce (a) sperms (b) ova (or eggs) in human. CBSE TEST PAPER-03 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce? 1. What is vegetative propagation? (1 mark) (1 mark) (1 mark)

2. Name two body part which human beings can regenerate? 3. What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction? 4. What is Syngany? (1mark) (2 marks)

5. What is placenta? State its function.

6. How does binary fission different from multiple fission? 7. Bring out the differences between budding and fission.

(2 marks) (2 marks)

8. What is cross-pollination? Why is cross-pollination considered to be superior to the selfpollination? (2 marks) 9. What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings? (2 marks) 10. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some types of plants? (3 marks) 11. How is the process of pollination different from fertilization? (3 marks)

12. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction? (3 marks) 13. Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower. CBSE TEST PAPER-02 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce? 1. What is self-pollination? 2. What is ovulation? (1 mark) 3. Name two animals which reproduce asexually? (1mark) (2 marks) (1 mark) (3 marks)

4. Why do you mean by internal fertilization and external fertilization?

5. Why is it said that sexual reproduction promotes diversity of characters in the offsprings? Give reasons. (2 marks)

6. How does reproduction help providing stability to population of species? (2 marks) 7. Define the term unisexual and bisexual giving one example of each. 8. Write two advantages of vegetative propagation. (2 marks) (2 marks)

9. What are the male and female gonads in human beings? State any two functions of each of them. (3 marks)

10. Define grafting. Suggest any two advantages and two disadvantages of grafting. (3 marks)

11. What changes are seen in girls at the time of puberty?

(3 marks)

12. Describe the process of fission, budding and spore formation in living organism. (5 marks) CBSE TEST PAPER-01 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce? 1. Name two organisms which reproduced by fragmentation method. 2. Which is double fertilization? 3. What is asexual reproduction? (1 mark) (1 mark) (2 marks) (1mark)

4. What are the advantages of tissue culture?

5. Why is variation beneficial to species, but not necessarily for the individual? (2 marks) 6. List two main advantages of sexual reproductions. (2 marks)

7. How will an organism be benefited if it reproduces through spores? (2 marks) 8. Write down the reason why more complex organism cannot give rise to new individuals through regeneration? (2 marks)

9. (i)When ovulation occur during he menstrual cycle in a normal healthy female? (3 marks) (ii) Draw a labelled diagram to show the reproductive system of a human female. 10. (i) What are gametes? In which sort of reproduction are gametes involved? (3 marks) (ii) What is formed when two gametes fuse? (iii) What is this act of fusion called? 11. What changes are seen in boys at the time of puberty? (3 marks)

12. Give two reasons for avoiding frequent pregnancies of women. Explain the following methods

of contraception giving one example of each: (i) Barrier method (ii) Chemical method (iii) Surgical method. CBSE TEST PAPER-05 CLASS - X Science (Heredity and Evolution)

(5 marks)

1. The theory of chemical evolution of life was experimentally demonstrated by(a) Oparin (c) Mendel (1) 2. Genetics is the study of(a) resemblances amongst individuals (b) heredity and environment (c) differences amongst individuals (d) Heredity and variations. (1) 3. Wing of a bird and wing of an insect are (a) Homologous organs (c) vestigial organ (1) 4. What is heredity? (1) 5. What are Mendelian factors? (1) 6. What will be the sex of the embryo if an egg is fertilized by the sperm having (a) 22+x and (b) 22+y composition (b) analogous organs (d) both (a) and (b) (b) Miller and Urey (d) Darwin

(2) 7. Mention two sources of variation. (2) 8. What is monohybrid and dihybrid cross? (2) 9. Why did Mendel choose pea plant for his experimentation? (2) 10. How does Archaeopteryx provide evidence for organic evolution? (3) 11. What is divergent evolution? Explain with the help of example. (3) 12. What is the difference between reproductive and non-reproductive variations? (3) 13. Write similarities between Mendalians factors and gene. (3 CBSE TEST PAPER-04 CLASS - X Science (Heredity and Evolution)

1. Two pink colored flowers on crossing results in 1red, 2pink and 1white flower progeny. The nature of the cross is(a) cross fertilization (c) double fertilization (1) 2. A basket of vegetable contains carrot, potato, radish, and tomato. Which of them represent the correct homologous structure (a) carrot and potato (c) radish and carrot (1) 3. Mendel proposed that every character is controlled by(a) one factor (c) one chromosome (1) (b) two factors (d) two chromosomes (b) carrot and tomato (d) radish and potato (b) self pollination (d) no fertilization

4. Who is called father of genetics? (1) 5. What is the scientific name of human being? (1) 6. Why acquired characters are not inherited? (2) 7. How is the chromosome number restored in zygote? (2) 8. What are variations? Give their types. (2) 9. Write difference between Autosomes or Allosomes. (2) 10. State the evolutionary force which leads to origin of a new species. (3) 11. What is a fossil? How do fossils tells us about the process of evolutions? (3) 12. Give difference between diploid and haploid. (3) 13. Who disproved Lamarckism and how? (3) 14. Give the basic features of the mechanism of inheritance. CBSE TEST PAPER-03 CLASS - X Science (Heredity and Evolution) (5)

1. The concept of origin of species by natural selection was given by. (A) lamarck (C) Darwin (1) 2. It a round green seeded pea plant (RRYY) is grossed with wrinkled yellow seeded pea plant (rr yy) the seeds to be produced in fl generation will be. (A) Wrinkled and yellow (C) wrinkled and green (1) 3. The genetic constitution of an organism is called. (A) Genotype (B) phenotype (B) round and green (D) round and yellow. (B) weismann (D) Linnaeus

(C) variation (1)

(D) gene.

4. Write the scientific name of the plant on which Mendel carried out his experiments. (1) 5. How many auto some are present in human sperm? 6. What is emasculation? Why is it done? (2) 7. What is gene? Where are genes located? (2) 8. How many contrasting characins did Mendel see in garden pea? Give any two of them. (2) 9. What is phenotypic ratio obtained by Mendel by monohybrid clots? Answer with the help of diagram. (2) 10. Give difference between homologous and analogous organs. 11. State three laws of Mendel. (3) 12. Describe how the sex of the offspring is determined is the zygote is human beings? (3) 13. Give a suitable explanation for geographical isolation of individual of a species lead to formation of a new species? (3) 14. (i) Who provided the evidence of DNA as genetic material? (ii) Why DNA is called polynucleotide. (iii) List three important features of double helical model of DNA. (3) (1)

(5) CBSE TEST PAPER-02 CLASS - X Science (Heredity and Evolution)

1. Which of the following scientist gave the principles of inheritance? (a) Mendel (c) Johanssen (1) 2. Which of the following is not correct(a) For every hormone there is a gene. (b) For every protein there is a gene. (C) For production of every enzyme there is a gene. (d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene. (1) 3. According to the evolutionary theory formation of a new species occurs generally due to(a) Sudden creation by nature. (b) accumulation of variations over several generations (c) clones formed during asexual reproduction (d) Movement of individuals from one habitat to another. (1) 4. Who coined the term gene? (1) 5. What are dominant genes? (1) 6. Give the pair of contrasting traits of the following characters in plant and mention which one is recessive and which is dominant? (b) Griffin (d) Watson and crick

(a) yellow seed (2)

(b) round seed

7. Mention two important features of fossils which help in evolution. (2) 8. What do you understand by the term natural selection? (2) 9. Mention the compliment of a sperm and the egg which will determine the birth of female child. (2) 10. Differentiate between convergent and divergent evolution. (3) 11. What are the different ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a population? (3) 12. What are the different theories about origin of life? (3) 13. What is the difference between chemical evolution and organic evolution? (3) CBSE TEST PAPER-01 CLASS - X Science (Heredity and Evolution)

1. Select the group which shares maximum number of common characters(a) two genera of two families (c) two genera of a family (1) 2. Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds produce F1 progeny having round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the F2 progeny will have the following combination of characters (a) 15:1 (b) 9:3:3:1 (c) 9:3:4 (d) 12:3:1 (b) two species of a genus (d) two individuals of a species

(1) 3. Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly but birds have fathers that help them to fly. In the context of evolution this means that(a) reptiles have evolved from birds (b) there is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds (c) feathers are homologous structure in both the organisms (d) Birds have evolved from reptiles. (1) 4. What is monohybrid cross? (1) 5. What are autosomes and sex chromosomes? (1) 6. Why acquired traits are not inherited? (2) 7. How evolution and classification are linked? (2) 8. What are coacervates? (2) 9. How do the two factors for a character, present in diploid cells, behave at the time gamete formation? (2) 10. Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a population. Do you agree with this statement? Why or why not? (3) 11. What are the different approaches to determine evolutionary history of man? (3) 12. What is fossilization? How are fossils formed? (3) 13. What are homologous and analogous organ? Explain with the help of example. (3) CBSE TEST PAPER-05 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 9 : Heredity and Evolution

1. Who proposed the theory of natural selection? Why was this theory criticized? (1 mark) 2. Define heredity. (1 mark)

3. Explain the terms analogous and homologous organs with examples. (2 marks) 4. Explain the importance of fossils in deciding evolutionary relationships. (2 marks) 5. Define F1 and F2 generations. (2 marks)

6. State Mendels (a) Law of Segregation and (b) Law of Independent Assortments. (2 marks) 7. Genes and chromosomes have similar behavior. Justify. (2 marks) (2 marks)

8. Differentiate between homologous organs and analogous organs. 9. How is the study of fossils considered significant? (2 marks)

10. Who proposed the Theory of Natural Selection? Explain this theory briefly. (3 marks) 11. Explain the mechanism of sex determination in the zygote. (3 marks)

12. A man having blood group A marries a woman having blood group O and they have a child. What will be the blood group of the child? (3 marks)

13. How do Mendels experiments show that traits are inherited independently? (5 marks) CBSE TEST PAPER-04 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 9 : Heredity and Evolution 1. Name an animal in which individuals can change sex. What does this indicate? (1 mark) 2. What is a gene? (1 mark)

3. Write the scientific term used for science of heredity and variation? (1 mark) 4. Explain why evolution cannot be said to progress from lower forms to higher forms. (2 marks)

5. How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?

(2 marks)

6. What are the different ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a population? (2 marks)

7. Give an example of characteristics being used to determine how close two species are in evolutionary terms. (2 marks)

8. Why are human beings who look so different from each other in terms of size, colour and looks said to belong to the same species? (2 marks) (3 marks)

9. How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?

10. What are fossils? What do they tell us about the process of evolution? (3 marks) 11. Define the term evolution. Why are traits acquired during the life-time of an individual not inherited? (3 marks) (5marks)

12. Define evolution? State Darwins theory of evolution. CBSE TEST PAPER-03 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 9 : Heredity and Evolution 1. Define inheritance. (1mark)

2. Out of the wings of a bird, wing of an insect and the wing of a bat: (i) Which two are homologous organs? (ii)Which two are analogous organs?

(1 mark)

3. State 1 characteristic to shows that the birds are vary closely related to dinosaurs. (1mark) 4. How do Mendels experiments show that traits may be dominated or recessive? (2 marks)

5. Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of an organism that reproduces asexually? Why or why not? (2 marks)

6. A study found that children with light coloured eye are likely to have parents with lightcoloured eyes. On this basis, can we say anything about whether the light eye colour trait is dominant or necessive? Why or why not? (2 marks)

7. Can the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat be considered homologous organs? Why or why not? (2 marks) (2 marks)

8. Why the traits acquired during the life time of an individual not inherited?

9. Write how is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny? (3 marks)

10. A man with blood group A marries a woman with group O and their daughter has blood group O. Is this information enough to tell you which of the traits-blood group A or blood group O is dominant? (3 marks) (5 marks)

11. (i) What is genetics?

(ii) Give the common name of the plant on which Mendel performed its experiments. (iii) What for did Mendel use the term factors and what are these factors called now? (iv) What are genes? Where are the genes located? CBSE TEST PAPER-02 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 9 : Heredity and Evolution 1. Define homologous organs. (1 mark)

2. Why are human beings who look so different from each other in terms of size, colour and

looks, said to belong to the same species? 3. What are fossils? (1 mark)

(1 mark)

4. What are vestigial organs? Explain with example.

(2 marks)

5. Pure-bred pea plant A are crossed with pure-bred pea plant B. It is found that the plants which look like A do not appear in F1 generation but re-emerge in F2 generation. Which of the two plants are: (i)Tall and (ii) Dwarf? Give reason for your answer. (2 marks)

6. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter? (2 marks) 7. Give any two reasons why Mendel selected pea for his experiments? 8. How does the creation of variation in a species ensure survival? (2 marks)

(2 marks)

9. Sugges with reason; which of the following are homologous and which are the analogous organs. (i)Scales of fishes and shell of molluse (ii)Trunk of elephant and hand of chimpanzee (iii)Waists of human being and claw of cat. 10. Define the term heredity. In which types of organism is heredity supposed to be better define in sexually reproducing or asexually reproducing king? Why? (3 marks)

11. What are homologous organs? How do they differ from analogous? How does the study of comparative anatomy provide evidence in favour of organic evoluation? (5 marks) CBSE TEST PAPER-01 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 9 : Heredity and Evolution 1. Define heredity. (1 mark)

2. What is speciation? 3. Define variation?

(1 mark) (1 mark) (2 marks)

4. Differentiate between homologous organs and analogous organs.

5. If a trait A exist in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier? (2 marks) 6. Why are the small numbers of surviving tigers a cause of worry from the points of view of genetics? (2 marks)

7. Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species? Why or why not? (2 marks) (2 marks)

8. Explain the mechanism of sex determination in human beings.

9. Define fossils. Explain briefly any two ways in which the study of fossils helps in understanding about the base life. (3 marks)

10. In evolutionary terms, can we say which among bacteria, spiders, fish and chimpanzees have a better body design? Why or why not? (3 marks)

11. Explain with example how characteristics of a population changes over the year for the following situations: (i) To gain survival advantages (ii)Due to accidental survival (iii) Temporary change of characteristics. CBSE TEST PAPER-03 CLASS - X (Reflection and Refraction) (5 marks)

1. Name the mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object? (1) 2. The rays, parallel to the principal axis, of a spherical mirror, actually meet at a point 20 cm distant from its pole. Identify the mirror and give its focal length. (1) 3. Name the kind of surfaces that (i) Reflect (1) 4. Which type of mirror is usually used as a rear-view mirror in motor cars? (1) 5. Define one dioptre of power of a lens? (1) 6. Light enters from air into diamond which has a refractive index of 2.42. Calculate the speed of light in diamond. The speed of light in air is 8 3.0 10 m/s. (2) 7. Light is incident at an angle of (i) 300 (ii) 450 , on the same face of a given rectangular slab. If the angles of refraction, at this face are r1 and r2 in the two cases. Obtain the relation between these two angles. (2) 8. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear view mirror is vehicles. (2) 9. A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power 1.5D. Find the focal length of this lens. Is the prescribed lens diverging or converging. (ii) Refract most of the light falling on them.

(2) 10. Find the position, nature and size of the image formed by a convex lens of focal length 12 cm of an object 5 cm high placed at a distance 20 cm from it. (3) 11. An object is kept at a distance of (i) 2 a (ii) 3 2 a from a convex lens having focal length of magnitude (a) Draw ray diagrams showing the formation of images formed in the two cases. (3) 12. A concave mirror is used to from an erect and enlarged image of a given object. Where is the image located with respect to the mirror? Draw the corresponding ray diagram. (3) 13. How can you show that if a ray enters a rectangular glass slab obliquely and emerges from the opposite face, the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray? CBSE TEST PAPER-02

CLASS - X (Reflection and Refraction)

1. The power of a lens is -4.0 D. what is the nature of the lens? (a) Plane (c) Convex (1) 2. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get real image of the size of the object? (a) At focus (c) At Infinity (1) 3. In torches, search lights and head lights of vehicles the bulb is placed (a) Between pole and focus (b) Very near to the focus (c) Between focus and centre of curvature (d) At centre of curvature (1) 4. Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to B. Refractive index of medium B with respect to A is (a) 3 2 (b) At 2F (d) Between optical centre and focus. (b) Concave (d) Plano convex

(b) 1

(c) 2 3

(d) 2 2 (1) 5. When a ray of light goes from one medium to another, these is (a) Always a change in its speed as well as direction (b) No change in speed and direction (c) A change in speed but no change in direction (d) A change in direction but constant speed. (1) 30 0 45 0 60 0 45 0 Medium A

6. A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object 10 cm in front of it. Where is the image located (2) 7. Three mirrors, one plane, one concave and one convex are lying on the table. How can a person identify them without touching them or using any other apparatus or device? (2) 8. Obtain the formula for the focal length of a lens in terms of object distance (u) and magnification (m) (2) 9. In what S.I unit is the power of lenses stated? A convex lens has a focal length of 50 cm. calculate its power? (2) 10. A concave lens has focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the lens a 5cm tall object be placed so that it forms an image at 15 cm from the lens? Also calculate the size of the image formed? (3) 11. An object is kept at a distance of 15cm from a (1) convex mirror (2) concave lens (3) Plane mirror. The focal length of the convex mirror and the concave lens are 10 cm each. Draw the appropriate ray diagrams, showing the formation of image, is each of the three cases. (3)

12. State the mirror formula for determining the focal length of spherical mirrors write the meanings of the symbols used An object is placed at a distance of 25 cm. from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. calculate the distance of the image from the mirror. (3) 13. Draw a ray diagram to show the use of a convex lens for the formation of images having the following characteristics. (a) Real & inverted and diminished (b) Virtual, erect & magnified. CBSE TEST PAPER-01 CLASS - X (Reflection and Refraction)

1. An object is kept at a distance more than twice the focal length (F) from a concave mirror. The distance the image formed will be (a) less then F (b) equal to F (c) between F and 2 F (d) More than 2 F (1) 2. The speed of light, in a given medium is 2 3 rd of its speed in vaccuum.

The absolute refractive index of the medium equals to (a) 9 4 (b) 4 9

(c) 3 2 (d) 2 3

(1) 3. A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is inclined at an angle to its principal axis. The angle of reflection for this ray equals (a) 0 2 (b)

(c) (1)

(d) 90

4. Beams of light are incident though the holes C and D respectively as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box? (a) A rectangular glass slab (b) Convex lens (c) Concave lens (d) Prism (1) 5. What are the values of (i) Angle of incidence and (ii) Angle of reflection for normal incidence on a plane surface? (1) A B C D 6. A beam of rays, parallel to the principal axis, is incident on a convex mirror. Show, on a diagram, the path of these rays after reflection from the mirror. (2) 7. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2m? (2) 8. With respect to air the refractive index of ice is 1.31 and that of rock salt is 1.54. calculate the refractive index of rock salt with respect to ice? (2) 9. A object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a concave mirror. It forms a real image four times larger than the object. Calculate the distance of the image

from the mirror (3) 10. Draw a ray diagram to represent the nature, position and size of the image formed by a convex lens for the object placed at (1) infinity (2) Between F1 and optical centre (O) (3) 11. An convex mirror used on a bus has a focal length of 200 cm. it a scooter is located at 100 cm. from this mirror find the position, nature and magnification of the image formed in the mirror. (3) 12. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. At what distance from the lens should the object be placed so that it forms a real and inverted image 20 cm. away from the lens? What would be the size of the image formed if the object is 2 cm high? With the help of a ray diagram show the formation of the image by the lens in this case?

CBSE TEST PAPER-05 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 10 : Light Reflection and Refraction 1. What should be the position of an object relative to biconvex lens so that it behaves like a magnifying glass? (1mark)

3. A lens has two focal points where as a mirror has only one. Why? (1mark) 4. Write down the relation between the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction for a

medium.

(1mark)

4. A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power + 1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the prescribed lens diverging or converging? (2marks)

5. Draw a ray diagram to show the (i) position and (ii) nature of the image formed when an object is placed between focus F and pole P of a concave mirror. 6. Why does a convex mirror has a virtual principal focus? 7. Give two uses of concave mirrors. (2marks) (2 marks)

(2 marks)

8. What happen if ray of light travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium? (2 marks) 9. An object placed 15 cm in front of a lens forms a real image three times magnified. Where is the image formed? What is the focal length of the lens? (2 marks)

10. An object 3 cm high is placed at a distance of 9 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. Find the position, nature and size of the image formed. (3 marks)

11. You are given two lenses of equal size-concave and convex. How will you distinguish then without touching their surfaces? (3 marks)

12. Draw the ray diagram in each case to show the position and nature of the image formed when the object is placed: (i) At the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. (ii) Between the pole P and focus F of a concave mirror. (iii) In front of a convex mirror. (iv) At 2F of a convex lens. (v) In front of a concave lens. (5 marks)

CBSE TEST PAPER-04 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 10 : Light Reflection and Refraction 1. Why is a concave mirror preferred to a plane mirror for shaving? 2. Define refractive index of a medium. 3. What is a lens? (1mark) (1 mark) (1 mark)

4. Describe with the help of a diagram, the nature, size and position of the image formed when an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. (2 marks)

5. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles? (2 marks) 6. Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm. (2 marks) 7. A concave mirror producers three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm in front of it. Where is the image located? (2 marks)

8. Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. What is the speed of light in the glass? The speed of light in the glass? The speed of light in vacuum is 3 x 10 8 ms-1. (2 marks) 9. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2 m. (2 marks)

10. An object 3 cm high is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. Find the position, nature and size of the image formed. (3 marks)

11. (a) State the relation between object distance, image distance and focal length of a spherical mirror. (b) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a concave mirror when an object

is placed between pole and focus of the mirror. (c) A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm forms an image of an object kept at a distance of 10 cm from the mirror. Find position, nature and size of the image formed by it. (5 marks)

CBSE TEST PAPER-03 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 10 : Light Reflection and Refraction 1. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror (1mark)

2. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. What is its focal length? (1 mark) 3. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend towards the normal or away from the normal? Why? (1mark).

4. Where will the image be formed by a concave mirror when an object is placed between the pole and the focus of the mirror? (1 mark)

5. What will be the focal length of a lens whose power is given as +2.0 D? (1 mark) 6. A 3.0 cm long object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror. The distance of the object from the mirror is 30 cm and its image is formed at 60 cm from the mirror on the same side. Find the size of the image formed. 7. State the laws of refraction of light. (2 marks) (2 marks)

8. Draw a ray diagram to show the passage of two rays of light through a rectangular slab of glass when the angle of incidence are 0 0 and a little than 90

0 . (2 marks)

9. How do we distinguish a medium to be rarer or denser? Give two reasons. (2 marks) 10. What is the nature of image formed by a convex lens when the object is between the focus and optical centre? Draw a ray diagram for the same. (2 marks)

11. An object 50 cm tall is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. Its 20 cm tall image is formed on the screen placed at a distance of 10 cm form the lens. Calculate the focal length of the lens. (3 marks)

12. A 5.0 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 13 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. By calculation determine (i) the position and (ii) the size of the image formed. (3 marks) 14. A convex lens a focal of 25 cm. Calculate the distance of the object from the lens of the image is to be formed on the opposite side of the lens at a distance of 75 cm from the lens. What will be the nature of the image. (3 marks)

15. (i) Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens so as to obtain its magnified erect image? (ii) An object lies at a distance of 2f from a concave lens of focal length f. Draw a raydiagram to illustrate the image formation. (iii) A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle at a distance of 50 cm from the lens. If the image is of the same size as the needle, where is the needle placed in front of the lens? Also, find the power of the lens. (5 marks) CBSE TEST PAPER-02

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 10 : Light Reflection and Refraction 1. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens so as to obtain its magnified erect image? (1 mark) (1 mark)

2. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror.

3. Name the type of mirror which always forms a virtual image for a real object. (1 mark) 4. Which mirror has wider field of views? (1 mark)

5. A 1 cm high object is placed at a distance of 2f from a convex lens. What is the height of the image formed? (1 mark) (1 mark)

6. How is the power of a lens related to its focal length?

7. Where is the image formed of an object placed at the focus of a convex lens? Give ray diagram. (2 marks) (2 marks)

8. Give two uses of concave mirror.

9. An object is placed at a distance equal to 2f in front of a convex lens. Draw a labeled ray diagram to show the formation of image. State two characteristics of the image. (2 marks) 10. You are given three mirrors of equal size-concave, convex and plane. How will you identify them without touching their surfaces? (2 marks)

11. Which mirror is used as rear-view mirror in automobile to see traffic behind and why this mirror is useful? (2 marks)

12. Is it necessary that an optically denser medium should possess greater mass density than

optically rarer medium? The speed of light in air 3 x 10 8 m/s. If the refractive index of glass is 1.5, find the time taken by light to travel a distance of 10 cm in glass. (3 marks)

13. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations. (a)Headlights of a car. (b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle. (c)Solar furnace. (3 marks) 14. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the position and nature of the image. (3 marks)

15. An object 5.0 cm in length is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. Find the position of the image, its nature and size. (3 marks) 16. A concave lens has focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the lens a 5 cm tall object be placed so that it forms an image as 15 cm from the lens? Also calculate the size of the image formed. (3 marks)

CBSE TEST PAPER-01 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 10 : Light Reflection and Refraction 1. Name a minor that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object. (1 mark) 2. Write the relation between the refractive index and the speed of light in the medium. (1mark) 3. If an object is placed at the focus of a convex lens, where is the image formed? (1 mark) 4. Define 1 dioptre power of a lens. (1 mark)

5. Distinguish between real and virtual images.

(2 marks)

6. How does a concave mirror give a virtual image of an object? Explain with the help of a ray diagram. (2 marks)

7. If an object 5 cm high is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8 cm, find the position, nature and height of the image formed. (2 marks)

8. Define the term refractive index. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of the statement? (2 marks) (2 marks)

9. Distinguish between a concave and convex lens.

10. A convex mirror used as a rear-view mirror in a car has a radius of curvature of 3 m. If a bus is located at distance of 5 m from this mirror, find the position of image. What is the nature of the image. (3 marks)

11. What is the S.I. unit of power of lens? Which of the two has a great power: a lens of short focal length or lens of large focal length? A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power + 1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens. (3 marks)

12. Write the relation between the angle of incidence and angle of refraction for a medium. The refractive index of glass with respect to water is 1.125. If the speed of light in water is 2.25 x 10 8 m/s, then calculate the speed of light in glass. (3 marks)

13. An object is 2 m from a lens which forms an erect image one-fourth (exactly) the

size of the object. Determine the focal length of the lens. What type of lens is this? (3 marks) 14. What do you understand by the power of a lens? Define also its unit. An object of height 4 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm in front of a concave lens of power -10 dioptres. Find the size of the image. (3 marks)

15. (i) Define: (a)Centre of curvature (b) Pole of concave mirror. (ii) State the mirror formula and its magnification. (iii) Show by drawing ray-diagram that the image of an object formed by a concave lens is virtual, erect and diminished. CBSE TEST PAPER-02 CLASS - X (Human Eye and the Colourful World) (5 marks)

1. Define power of accommodation? (1) 2. Which part of the human eye provides most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye? (1) 3. What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object from the eye? (1) 4. What happens to the pupil of the eye when the light is very bright? (1) 5. Which part of the human eye conveys the electrical signals generated by the light sensitive cells of the retina, on the brain? (1) 6. Name the part of the eye that

(a) determines the colour of a persons eye (b) Controls the amount of light entering the eye (2) 7. What is the role of the ciliary muscles? (2) 8. What convex lens is called as converging lens? (2) 9. State the sole of eye lens in the human eye? (2) 10. What is presbyopia? State the causes of this defect? How is presbyopia of a person corrected? (3) 11. The rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower (a) Is it correct to say that a rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to sun? (b) It cannot be seen on a sunny day. (c) Arrange the sequence in correct sequential order Refraction, Internal Reflection, Refraction & Dispersion (3) 12. (a) Write two causes of hypermetropia? (b) Show diagram to show the correctness of hypermetropia? (3) 13. A reporter records the following observations of an astronaut from his space ship. (a) The length of the day is same as observed on the earth. (b) Sky appears black in colour. (c) The star appears to twinkle while the planets do not do so as they do on the earth.

Justify each statement CBSE TEST PAPER-01 CLASS - X (Human Eye and the Colourful World)

1. When a person is myopic, he/ she can clearly see (a) both nearby and for off objects (b) Only nearby objects (c) only far off objects (d) Neither nearby nor for off objects (1) 2. The defect of myopia can be corrected by using (a) Concave lens (b) Convex lens (c) Either concave or convex (d) A complicated combination of lenses. (1) 3. The colour that is scattered the least by the tiny particles and the atoms/ molecules of the atmosphere is (a) Violet (b) Green (c) yellow (d) Red (1) 4. Which of the following phenomenon contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?

(a) Dispersion of light (b) Scattering of light (c) Total internal Reflection (d) Reflection of light from the earth (1) 5. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles. (a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner (b) contract and lens becomes thicker (c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker (d) Contract and lens becomes thinner. 6. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and power of the lens required to correct the problem. (2) 7. Draw a diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism. (2) 8. Name the phenomenon responsible for the observed twinkling of stars. Will this twinkling be observed by an observer on the moon. (2) 9. (a) What is hypermetropia? (b) What are the two causes of this defect of vision? (3) 10. (a) What is scattering of light? (b) Astronauts observe the sky as dark instead of blue why? (3) 11. A person is known to use a lens of power (i) -5.5 D for his distant vision

(ii) +1.5 D for his near vision Calculate the focal length of the lens used for correcting his (a) Distant vision and (b) Near vision problems. (3) 12. A 14 year old student is not able to see clearly the questions written of the black board placed at a distance of 5 m from him. (a) Name the defect of vision he is suffering from? (b) Draw the diagram to show this defect? (c) Name the type of lens used to correct this defect? (d) Name two possible cause of this defect. (e) Draw the diagram to show how this defect can be corrected.

CBSE TEST PAPER-05 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 1. What is the cause of dispersion of light? (1mark) (1 mark) (1 mark)

2. What is the condition for observing a rainbow?

3. What is the least distance of distinct vision of a normal human eye?

4. As light rays pass from air into a glass prism, are they refracted towards or away from the normal? (1 mark) (2 marks)

5. Distinguish between presbyopia and hypermetropia.

6. A hypermetropic can see objects clearly at a minimum distance of 150 cm. He has to read typed material at a distance of 25 cm. What corrective lens is needed. (2 marks) 7. Why the sky in blue? (2 marks)

8. What is presbyopia? Name the type of lens which can be used to correct presbyopia. (2 marks) 9. A person suffering from the eye-defect myopia can see clearly only upto a distance of 2 metres. What is the nature and power of lens required to rectify this defect? (2 marks) 10. What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of object from the eye? (2 marks)

11. Explain the terms Near point and Far point. How are these affected by the defect called presbyopia? How is this defect removed? 12. (a) Why does sky appear blue? (b) Why does the sun appear red at sunset? (c) Why does the sun appear red at sunrise? (3 marks) (3 marks)

13. A student sitting in the last row of the class-room is not able to read clearly the writing on the blackboard: (a) Name type of defect he is suffering from. (b) How can this defect be corrected. (3 marks)

14. A 14 year old student is not able to see clearly the questions written on the blackboard placed at a distance of 5 m from him. CBSE TEST PAPER-04 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 1. Which nerve connects the light sensitive cells of the retina to the brain? (1 mark) 2. What kind of lens is used in the spectacles of a person suffering from myopia (nearsightedness)? (1mark) (5 marks)

3. What type of lens is used for correcting the hypermetropia? 4. What is dispersion of light. (1 mark) (2 marks)

(1mark)

5. Explain why the planets do not twinkle.

6. Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning?

(2 marks) (2 marks)

7. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut? 8. Why do we have two eyes for vision and not just one? 9. What is cause of myopia (or short sightedness)?

(2 marks)

(2 marks) (2 marks)

10. What is the cause of hypermetropia (or long-sightedness)?

11. A man can read the number of distant bus clearly but he finds difficulty in reading a book. Name the disease. (2 marks)

12. The near point of a person is at 40 cm from the eyes. Find the power of lens he should use while reading at 25 cm. (3 marks)

13. What is presbyopia? What cause presbyopia? How is presbyopia corrected? (3 marks) 14. A person with a defective eye-vision is unable to see the object nearer that 1.5 m. He wants to read books at a distance of 30 cm. Find the nature, focal length and power of the lens he needs in his spectacles. (3 marks)

15. Why does a hypermetropia person prefers to remove his spectacles while looking at the sky. Explain. (3 marks)

16. Explain the refraction of light through a prism. What are angle of deviation and angle of emergence? How are these angles related to the angle of incidence and the angle of prism? (5 marks)

CBSE TEST PAPER-03 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 1. What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye? (1mark)

2. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m distinctly. What should be the type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision? 3. Write down the function of the iris in the human eye? (1mark) (1mark)

4. Name the muscles responsible for bringing change in the focal length or the lens. (1mark) 5. Which cells of the retina are responsible for two light (black and white) vision? (1mark) 6. Why does it take some time to see objects in a dim room when you enter the room from bright sunlight outside? (2 marks) (2 marks) (2 marks)

7. What is Tyndall effect? Explain with an example.

8. Draw a labelled diagram to show the formation of a rainbow.

9. Define the power of accommodation. What is the value power of accommodation for a young adult with normal vision? (2 marks)

10. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and power of the lens required to correct the problem? (2 marks)

11. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm? (2 marks) 12. A person wears glasses of power -2.5 D. Is the person far sighted or near sighted? What is the

far point of the person without glasses?

(3 marks)

13. How do you account for the red colour of the sun during sunrise and sunset? (3 marks) 14. Explain Myopia with the help of suitable ray diagrams. How can this defect of vision be corrected? A boy uses spectacles of focal length-50 cm. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. Compute that power of this lens. CBSE TEST PAPER-02 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 1. Give the usual names for the following: (a)The screen on which image is formed in the eye. (b) The part which controls the amount of light entering the eye. (1 mark) (5 marks)

2. Write down the name of the defect of vision in which the eye loses its power of accommodation due to old age. (1 mark) (1 mark)

3. Name the phenomenon which causes the twinkling of stars.

4. Name the optical phenomenon involved in the formation of rainbow. (1 mark) 5. How does the sky appear from the surface of the moon? (1 mark)

6. (a) What happen when a ray of ordinary light is passed through a triangular glass prism? (b) What will happen if another similar glass prism is placed upside down behind the first prism? (2 marks) (2 marks)

7. What do you mean by (a) Near point (b) Far point. 8. Name the defect of vision due to: (i) Power of the eye is too great.

(ii) Focal length of the eye lens is too great. 9. Write the role played by : (i) Iris (ii) Retina

(2 marks) (2 marks) (2 marks)

10. What is Presbyopia? How will you correct the same?

11. A ray of white light breaks up into its components while passing through a glass prism. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of rays. Mark the least deviated and most deviated colour in your figure. (2 marks)

12. The sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before actual sunrise and about 2 minutes after the actual sunset. Give reason. (3 marks)

13. Draw a ray-diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism. On this diagram mark: (a)incident ray (b)emergent ray, and (c) angle of deviation. (3 marks) 14. What is long sightedness? List two causes for development of long sightedness. Describe with the ray diagram, how this defect may be corrected by using spectacles? CBSE TEST PAPER-01 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 1. Define the term power of accommodation of human eye. (1 mark) (5 marks)

2. Which defect of vision can be rectified by using a convex lens? (1 mark) 3. What is meant by dispersion of light? (1 mark)

4. Atmospheric refraction causes advance sunrise and delayed sunset. By how much time is: (a) Sun rise advanced and (b) Sunset delayed? (1 mark)

5. What is the cause of blue colour of the ocean?

(1 mark) (2 marks)

6. Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning? 7. Name the defect of vision caused by: (i) Cornea is not perfectly spherical. (ii) Power of accommodation of eye decreases.

(2 marks)

8. Why do different coloured rays deviate differently in the prism? Explain. (2 marks) 9. What cause Hypermertropia? (2 marks)

10. Why is normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm? (2 marks) 11. Explain why, when the sum is over heated at noon, it appears white but when the same sun is near the horizon at sunset, it appears red? (2 marks) (3 marks)

12. What is a rainbow? How is a rainbow produced?

13. The near point of a person is at 40 cm from the eye. Find the power of the lens he should use while reading at 25 cm. (3 marks)

14. What is short sightedness? List two causes for development of short-sightedness. Describe with the ray diagram, how this defect may be corrected by using spectacles? (5 marks) CBSE TEST PAPER-01 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 15 : Our Environment 1. Define biodegradable wastes. (1 mark) (1 mark)

2. Define decomposers. Name one decomposer.

3. Which of the following belong to the same trophic level? Tree, Frog, Snake, Grass, Lizard. (1 mark)

4. Name the group of chemical compounds which damages the ozone layer. (1mark)

5. What would happen if all the decomposers were eliminated from the Earth? Explain with reasons. (2 marks)

6. Give an example of a food chain operating in fresh water pond. Mention the food habit of each trohic level in this food chain. (2 marks)

7. Consider the food chain: Grass -------- Deer------Lion. What will happen, if lions are removed from the above food chain? (2 marks)

8. In terms of energy, which is at an advantageous position-a vegetarian or a nonvegetarian? Why? (2 marks)

9. With the help of food chain explain how biological magnification of harmful chemicals can occur. (2 marks)

10. What is the difference between the food habits of organism belonging to the forest and third trophic levels? Give example each of organisms belonging to these trophic levels. (2 marks) 11. What is a food chain? Write the food chain operating in a pond. State the food habit of each trophic level in this food chain. (3 marks)

12. Where is ozone layer found in atmosphere? What is its importance? Write the harmful effects UV rays. (3 marks)

13. A non-biodegradable toxic chemical has entered into the food chain. Which type of food habit will you suggest to a man, vegetarian or non-vegetarian? Explain with the help of a food chain. The food chain which you would suggest, is advantageous in an another aspect. How?

(5 marks) CBSE TEST PAPER-02 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 15 : Our Environment 1. Name the process by which the volume of solid wastes can be reduced. 2. What is meant by non-biodegradable waste materials? 3. Why are plants called producers? (1 mark) (1 mark) (1 mark)

4. Which of the following belong to the same tropic level? Goat, Spider, Plants, Hawk, Rat. (1 mark)

5. State two causes and two effects of the depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere. (2 marks) 6. How non-bio degradable substances would affect the environment. 7. Given below is a food chain Grass----- Grasshopper ------- Frog---- Snake ------ Peacock What will happen to the member of different trophic level in the food chain, if all the frogs of that area are removed? (2 marks) (2 marks)

8. How do food chains get shortened? How does their shortening affect the biosphere? (2 marks) 9. The following are the organisms found in the grass land. Construct a food chain with four trophic levels. Seed eating birds, Grass hopper, Lion, Green plants, Rat, Deer, Frog, Snake. (2 marks) 10. Consider the following food chains Grass --- Mice --- Snakes ---- Peacocks If in this chain, 100 J of energy is available at the producer level, then calculate the energy (3 marks)

transferred to the peacocks as food. State the law used in calculations. 11. What is ten per cent law? Explain with an example how energy flows through different trophic levels. (3 marks)

12. What is ozone layer? Write about its importance. Which radiations are absorbed by ozone layer? What are the causes of the depletion of ozone layer? Which diseases are likely to be caused if the ozone layer become thinner? CBSE TEST PAPER-03 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 15 : Our Environment 1. What would happen if the ozone layer in the atmosphere completely disappears? (1 mark) 2. Name two waste materials which can be recycled? 3. Write the full name of DDT. (1mark) (1 mark) (5 marks)

4. Give the names of two non-biodegradable wastes which pollute our environment. (1mark) 5. What is the difference between a food chain and a food wed? (2 marks)

6. What is the difference between the food habits of organisms belonging to second and fourth trophic levels? Give example each of organisms belonging to these trophic levels. (2 marks) 7. Which food chains are advantageous in terms of energy? Support your answer giving one example. (2 marks) (2 marks)

8. How biodegradable substances would affect the environment.

9. What is biological magnification? Will the levels of this magnification be different at different

levels of the ecosystem?

(2 marks)

10. Why are some substance biodegradable and some non-biodegradable? (2 marks) 11. What is a food chain? How does study of food chain in an area or habitat help us? Give an example of four-step food chain operating in a large lake. 12. Consider the following food chains: (a) Plants -------Mice------Snakes-----Hawks (b) Plants-------Mice-------Hawks If energy is available at the producer level in both the food chains is 100 J, in which case will hawks get more energy as food and by how much? Justify your answer. (3 marks) (3 marks)

13. What is garbage? What does garbage consists of? How would you dispose the following wastes? (i) Domestic wastes like vegetable peels (ii) Industrial wastes like metallic cans (iii) Plastic material. CBSE TEST PAPER-04 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 15 : Our Environment 1. What is the ultimate source of energy for organisms? 2. What are the various steps of food chain called? 3. How is ozone formed? (1mark) (1mark) (1mark) (5 marks)

(1mark)

4. What are omnivores? Give one example. 5. Define an ecosystem. (1mark)

6. How biodegradable substances would affect the environment.

(2marks)

7. How non-biodegradable substances would effect the environment. 8. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?

(2marks) (2marks)

9. What is biological magnification? Will the levels of this magnification be different at different levels of the ecosystem? (2marks)

10. What are the problems caused by the non-biodegradable wastes that we generate? (2 marks) 11. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem? (3marks)

12. (a) What are Ecological Pyramids? Draw an ecological pyramid having four trophic levels with snake as one of its components. (b) The number of malaria patients in a village increased tremendously when large number of frogs were exported from the village. What could be the cause for it? Explain with the help of a food chain. (5 marks) CBSE TEST PAPER-05 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 15 : Our Environment 1. Give an example of a four step food chain operating in grassland. Name the secondary consumer in this food chain. (1mark) (1mark) (1mark)

2. What are ecological pyramids? 3. Write the full form of CFC.

4. Name the process by which the volume of solid wastes can be reduced. (1mark) 5. Give two harmful effects of UV radiation. (1mark)

6. Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern? What steps are being taken to limit this damage? (2 marks)

7. What is meant by non-biodegradable waste material? Give its two examples. (2marks)

8. How does recycling of matter or waste materials help in ecological balance? (2marks) 9. What are CFCs? What harm do they cause? (2 marks) (2marks)

10. What will happen if all the deer are removed from the earth? 11. Distinguish between the autotrophs and decomposers.

(2 marks)

12. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances. (3marks) 13. How is recycling of waste materials help in maintaining ecological balance? (3marks) 14. State and explain the 10 per cent law. (3marks)

15. What is ozone layer? Write about its importance. Which radiations are absorbed by ozone layer? What are the causes of the depletion of ozone layer? Which diseases are likely to be caused if the ozone layer become thinner? CBSE TEST PAPER-01 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 16 : Management of Natural Resources 1. What is the name of the award given in honour of the movement started for protection of Khejri tree? (1 mark) (1 marks) (1 mark) (1mark) (5 marks)

2. Name two fossil fuels. 3. What is Ganga Action Plan?

4. What do you mean by wild life?

5. What is sustainable development? Suggest any one method to achieve it. (2 marks) 6. How local people can be used for successful forest management? 7. Why should we conserve forest and wild life? (2 marks) (2 marks)

8. Explain why, despite good rains, we are not able to meet the demand for water of the all

people in our country.

(2 marks) (2 marks)

9. Explain some of the problems associated with the construction of dams. 10. What is Silviculture? What are its advantages? (3 marks)

11. Name four main stakeholders in the management of forest resources.

(3 marks)

12. Name the most common practice of recharging ground water. Describe briefly the Khadin system of rain water harvesting practiced in Rajasthan. What is the main purpose of rain water harvesting? (5 marks)

CBSE TEST PAPER-02 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 16 : Management of Natural Resources 1. What is Narmada Bachao Andolan? (1 mark)

2. Name the bacteria whose presence in water indicates its contamination with disease causing micro-organisms. (1 mark) (1 mark)

3. Name the rives with which the following dams are associated. (i) Tehri Dam (ii) Sadar Sarover Dam 4. Define sustainable development. (1 mark) (1mark)

5. What is Chipko Movement? What is its significance?

(2 marks)

6. In some areas of the country there may be much rainfall but still it may remain water deficient. Explain. (2 marks) (2 marks)

7. Write about the overview of National Resources Management.

8. Why is conservation of wild life consider important for us? Give any two reasons. (2 marks) 9. Construction of a dam often results in the reduction of fish catch? Why is it so? (2 marks)

10. What would be the advantages of exploiting resources with short-term aims? How would these advantages differ from the advantages of using a long-term perspective in managing our resources? (3 marks) (3 marks)

11. Describe how, the water of river Ganga has been highly polluted. 12. Write the steps to be taken for the conservation of wild life. CBSE TEST PAPER-03 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 16 : Management of Natural Resources 1. Who are stakeholders? (1 mark) (1 mark)

(5 marks)

2. What do you mean by water harvesting? 3. What is a natural resource? (1mark)

4. What is management of natural resources?

(1mark) (2 marks)

5. How Kulhs system of irrigation evolved in Himachal Pradesh? 6. State the advantages of constructing dams across the rivers.

(2 marks)

7. What is a natural resource? Why do we need to manage our natural resources? (2 marks) 8. Why should fossil fuel like coal and petroleum be used judiciously? (2 marks)

9. Give one example to show how the participation of local people can lead to the efficient management of forest. (2 marks)

10. Why do you think there should be equitable distribution of resources? What forces would be working against an equitable distribution of our resources? (3 marks)

11. How can you as an individual contribute or make a difference to the management of (a) forest

and wild life (b) water resources and (c) coal and petroleum.

(3 marks)

12. What steps can be taken to conserve energy resources like coal and petroleum. (5 marks) CBSE TEST PAPER-04 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 16 : Management of Natural Resources 1. Name the bacteria whose presence in river water indicates contamination by disease causing microbes. (1mark) (1mark) (1mark)

2. What are three Rs to save the environment?

3. What is the main aim of conservation of forests?

4. Name two factors which can be used o find whether river has been contaminated. (2 marks) 5. What changes can you make in your habits to become more environment friendly? (2marks) 6. What do you mean by Chipko movement? (2marks) (2marks) (3marks)

7. What is Amrita Devi Bishnoi national Award? 8. Why should we conserve forest and wild life?

9. What changes would you suggest in your home in order to be environment friendly? (3marks) 10. What are fossil fuels? How are coal and petroleum formed? Why fossil fuels should be used judiciously? (5 marks)

CBSE TEST PAPER-05 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (Class-10) Chapter 16 : Management of Natural Resources 1. What is biodiversity? (1mark)

2. Define silviculture.

(1mark) (1mark) (1mark) (2marks) (2marks)

3. What is Ganga Action Plan?

4. What do you mean by water harvesting?

5. What is the need of managing our resources?

6. Explain social problems associated with the construction of dams. 7. What are various advantages of water stored in the ground? 8. What is meant by global warming? (2 marks)

(2 marks)

9. Can you suggest some changes in your school which would make it environment friendly? Suggest atleast three changes. (3marks) (3marks)

10. State the advantages of constructing dams across the rivers. 11. What are the methods adopted for retention of water?

(3marks) (5marks)

12. What steps should be taken for the conservation of wild life?

13. Write the steps which can be taken to conserve energy resources like coal and petroleum. (5marks)