1. Rates of successful pregnancy following three spontaneous losses (habitual abortion) are a. Very poor b.

Slightly worse than those in the baseline population c. No different from those in the baseline population d. Just under 50% e. Good unless cervical incompetence is diagnosed 2. In terms of birth defect potential, the safest of the following drugs is a. Alcohol b. Isotretinoin (Accutane) c. Tetracyclines d. Progesterones e. Phenytoin (Dilantin) 3. The placenta of twins may be a. Dichorionic and monoamniotic in dizygotic (DZ) twins b. Dichorionic and monoamniotic in monozygotic (MZ) twins c. Monochorionic and monoamniotic in DZ twins d. Dichorionic and diamniotic in MZ twins 4. Fetal blood is returned to the umbilical arteries and the placenta through the a. Hypogastric arteries b. Ductus venosus c. Portal vein d. Inferior vena cava e. Foramen ovale 5. A pelvis characterized by an anteroposterior diameter of the inlet greater than the transverse diameter is classified as a. Gynecoid b. Android c. Anthropoid d. Platypelloid 6. An abnormal attitude is illustrated by a. Breech presentation b. Face presentation c. Transverse position d. Occiput posterior e. Occiput anterior 7. Which of the following statements concerning abdominal pregnancy is correct? a. Gastrointestinal symptoms are quite often severe b. Fetal survival is approximately 50% c. Aggressive attempts should be made to remove the placenta at the time of initial surgery d. It may result in infectious morbidity prior to the diagnosis e. It is usually the result of a primary abdominal implantation 8. Which of the following statements concerning placenta previa is true? a. Its incidence decreases with maternal age b. Its incidence is unaffected by parity c. The initial hemorrhage is usually painless and rarely fatal d. Management no longer includes a double setup e. Vaginal examination should be done immediately on suspicion of placenta previa

9. Which of the following is consistent with a decision to perform a cerclage? a. Uterine contractions b. Cervix dilated to 3 cm c. Uterine bleeding d. Gestation of 26 weeks e. Chorioamnionitis 10. A woman is found to have a unilateral invasive vulvar carcinoma that is 2 cm in diameter but not associated with evidence of lymph node spread.Initial management should consist of a. Chemotherapy b. Radiation therapy c. Simple vulvectomy d. Radical vulvectomy e. Radical vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy 11. An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) showing hydronephrosis in the workup of a patient with cervical cancer otherwise confined to a cervix of normal size would indicate stage a. I b. II c. III d. IV e. V 12. A pregnant 35-year-old patient is at highest risk for the concurrent development of which of the following malignancies? a. Cervix b. Ovary c. Breast d. Vagina e. Colon 13. Osteoporosis is least likely in which of the following women? a. Asian b. White c. Smokers d. Sedentary e. Obese 14. Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of delayed puberty? a. Breast budding in a 10-year-old girl b. Menarche delayed beyond 16 years of age c. Menarche 1 year after breast budding d. FSH values less than 20 mIU/mL 15. In the experience of Masters and Johnson and other sex therapists,which type of male or female sexual dysfunction has the lowest cure rate? a. Premature ejaculation b. Vaginismus c. Primary impotence d. Secondary impotence e. Female orgasmic dysfunction 16. Which of the following neoplasms has been associated with the use of oral ontraceptives? a. Breast cancer d. Hepatic cancer b. Ovarian cancer e. Hepatic adenoma c. Endometrial cancer