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PROCESS TECHNOLOGY (ORGANIC and INORGANIC) 1.

Petrochemicals are chemicals a) obtained from petroleum and natural gas and made on large scale b) used for tertiary oil recovery c) added to crude petroleum for processing before it is fed to the distillation column for refining d) added to gasoline and other fuels in order to improve their properties 2. In terms of tonnage, percentage of total organic chemicals manufactured at present based on Petroleum and natural gas, is around (a) 50, (b) 70, (c) 80, (d) 95, 3. It is generally agreed that the development of petrochemical industry started in the year (a) 1900, (b) 1920, (c) 1930, (d) 1942, When the Standard Oil Company of New Jersey, USA, started manufacturing isopropyl alcohol from propylene. 4. Massive developments in scale of operation and in process technology in petrochemical industry occurred in (a) 1930s, (b) 1940s, (c) 1950s, (d) 1960s, 5. Crude oil is made up mainly of (a) alkanes, cycloalkanes and aromatics (b) alkanes, aldehydes and ketones (c) alkanes , alkenes and alkynes 6. Naphthenes are the same as (a) branched alkanes, (c) alkenes,

(b) cycloalkanes, (d) alkynes,

7. Cycloalkanes present in crude oil contain : (a) only four membered ring compounds, (b) only five membered ring compounds, (c) only five and six membered ring compounds, (d) none of the foregoing, 8. Dry natural gas contains mainly (a) methane (plus small amount other components) (b) ethane, (c) propane, (d) butane, 9. Wet natural gas contains substantial amount of (a) ethane (b)propane (c) butane (d) all of the above 10. The gas fields are usually (a) usually dry (b) usually wet, 11. The first major operation in petroleum refining is fractional distillation of crude oil whereby the different petroleum fractions as given below are obtained. In terms of boiling point range (i) which one is the lightest fracton? (ii) which fraction comes before naphtha? (iii) which fraction comes before gas oil?. (a) light gasoline, (c) light gases, (e) Atmospheric residue, (b) kerosene, (d) Naphtha, (f) gas oil,

12. Light gasoline has an approximate boiling point range of 0 0 (a) 20 to 75 C, (b) 75 to 200 C, 0 0 (c) 200 to 250 C, (d) 250 to 350 C, 13. In petrochemical industry, any petroleum fraction having an approximate boiling point range between 20 0C and 200 0C which is used as a feedstock is called (a) kerosene, (b) gas oil, (c) naphtha, (d) none of the foregoing, 14. Naphtha having an approximate boiling point range of 20 0C to 200 0C contain compounds having (a) 1 to 6 carbon atoms, (b) 4 to 12 carbon atoms, (c) 8 to 16 carbon atoms, (d) 16 carbon atoms and higher,

15. A good quality gasoline should have correct volatility characteristics and correct burning characteristics. Correct burning characteristics are expressed by (a) aniline point, (b) cetane number, (c) octane number, (d) none of the foregoing, 16. Fuels required by most modern car engines should have an octane number in the range between (a) 50 and 60, (b) 65 and 75, (c) 80 and 85, (d) 90 and 98, 17. In petrochemical industry, thermal cracking or steam cracking process is used to produce mainly (a) ethane, (b) ethylene, (c) benzene, (d) styrene, 18. The steam reforming process employed in petrochemical industry produces mainly -(a) benzene, toluene and xylene, (b) n-butenes, butadiene and styrene, (c) carbon monoxide and hydrogen, (d) carbon dioxide and ethylene, 19. Which of the following processes is employed in petrochemical industry to produce benzene, toluene and xylene (BTX) ? (a) thermal cracking, (b) catalytic reforming, (c) steam reforming, (d) catalytic cracking, 20. Main feed stocks used for the manufacture of ethylene by thermal cracking process are (a) ethane,propane (b) naphtha and gas oil (c) butane to a minor extent, (d) all of the foregoing, 21. In petrochemical industry thermal cracking of hydrocarbons to produce ethylene is accomplished in cracking furnace and the feed to the cracking furnace is a mixture of (a) hydrocarbon and nitrogen which acts as an inert diluent, (b) hydrocarbon and carbon dioxide which acts as an inert diluent, (c) hydrocarbon and steam which acts as an inert diluent, (d) hydrocarbon and air which acts as an inert diluent, 22. As the molecular weight of the hydrocarbon feed to the cracking furnace increases (from ethane to gas oil), the proportion of steam in the feed (a) decreases, (b) increases, (b) remains unchanged (at a constant value), 23. Modern thermal crackers ( used for manufacture of ethylene ) have capacities in the range of (a) 5000 to 10000 tones per annum, (b) 25000 to 50000 tones per annum, (c) 50000 to 100000 tones per annum, (d) 200000 to 650000 tones per annum, 24. Thermal (a) (b) (c) (d) cracking involves free radical chain reactions predominantly, reactions involving carbocations, reactions which are photochemical in nature, reactions nature of which has hitherto not been known,

25. Under otherwise uniform conditions yield of ethylene from a thermal cracker will be (a) lower than that obtained from a catalytic cracker, (b) equal than that obtained from a catalytic cracker, (c) higher than that obtained from a catalytic cracker, (d) none of the above; thermal cracking and catalytic cracking are two distinctly different processes involving different fundamental cracking reactions. Performance wise the two processes can never be compared. 26. Catalytic (a) (b) (c) (d) cracking involves free radical chain reactions as in thermal cracking, reactions involving carbocations, reactions involving carbanions, reactions chemistry of which still remains unknown.

27. Under otherwise uniform conditions, branched chain alkanes and cycloalkanes, on thermal cracking, will yield (a) higher amount of ethylene compared to the straight chain alkanes, (b) almost the same amount of ethylene compared to the straight chain alkanes, (c) lower amount of ethylene compared to the straight chain alkanes, (d) ethylene and other products; the amount of ethylene produced cannot be compared with the amount of ethylene produced from straight-chain alkane feed simply because such a comparison does not exist in literature and there is no method by which ;such an information; can be obtained theoretically.

28. You know thermal cracking involves free radical chain reactions. Now in order to achieve highest yield of ethylene from a thermal cracker which of the following reactions will you try to promote ? (a) B-scission reaction, (b) chain transfer reactions, (c) chain termination reactions, (d) all of the foregoing, 29. In reactions involved in thermal cracking process chain transfer and chain termination reactions are bimolecular whereas B-scission reactions are unimolecular. In order to increase the yield of ethylene, the rates of chain transfer and chain termination reactions should be reduced relative to the rates of B-scission reactions and this may be achieved by carrying out thermal cracking at reduced pressure. Thermal crackers or cracking furnaces, however, are not operated at reduced absolute pressure because of safety considerations. Instead the hydrocarbon partial pressure in the cracking furnace is maintained at a low value by using (a) steam as a diluent, (b) nitrogen as a diluent, (c) CO2 as a diluent, (d) helium as a diluent, 30. Why cracking furnaces are not operated at reduced absolute pressure ? (a) Because creating and maintaining reduced pressure in the furnace is a problem, (b) If leakage occurs, air could be sucked into the cracking tubes and an explosive mixture could be formed. (c) The rate of cracking is too large to be managed, (d) Severe carbon formation occurs and this carbon gets deposited on the furnace tubes causing fouling. 31. The most important outlet for ethylene is the manufacture of (a) ethylene oxide, (b) styrene, (c) vinyl chloride, (d) polyethylene, 32. Ethylene production capacity in the USA in l990 was around (a) 20 billion lb, (b) 31 billion lb, (c) 41 billion lb, (d) 55 billion lb, 33. By 1997 ethylene production capacity in the USA will cross (a) 43 billion lb mark, (b) 50 billion lb mark, (c) 60 billion lb mark, (d) 73 billion lb mark, 34. Ethylene demand in Asia in the year 1992 was around (a) 10 billion lb, (b) 20 billion lb (c) 30 billion lb, (d) 40 billion lb, 35. World ethylene demand in the year 1992 was around (a) 80 billion lb, (b) 100 billion lb, (c) 136 billion lb, (d) 197 billion lb, 36. By 1997 Asian ethylene demand will jump to approximately (a) 36 billion lb, (b) 45 billion lb, (c) 55 billion lb, (d) 65 billion lb, 37. Which of the following polymers of ethylene was introduced into the market in the late 1970s ? (a) low density polyethylene (LDPE), (b) high density polyethylene (HDPE), (c) linear low density polyethylene (LLDPE), (d) none of the foregoing, 38. LDPE is manufactured by free radical polymerization of ethylene : reaction temperatures are in the range of 800C to 3000C and pressures are in the range of 1000 to 3000 atm. Initiator used in the polymerization reaction is (a) dodecyl mercaptans, (b) ethylene oxide or fluorine, (c) oxygen or an organic peroxide, (d) none of the foregoing, 39. Linear low density polyethylene is made by co-polymerizing ethylene with small amount of (a) propylene, (b) isobutene, (c) isoamylene, (d) 1-alkenes such as 1-butene or 1-hexene, 40. High density polyethylene (HDPE) is produced by a process (a) similar to that used for the production of LDPE, (b) Called co-ordination or Ziegler polymerization, (c) called Clans process, (d) called Halcon process, 41. Catalyst systems introduced by Ziegler consist of (a) HF BF3 combination, (b) HF AlCl3 mixture, (c) complexes formed from aluminum alkyls and transition metal halides, typically (C 2H5)3 Al and TiCl4. (d) none of the foregoing, 42. Which of the following ethylene polymers will you recommend for making buckets and washing-up bowls ? (a) LDPE, (b) HDPE, (c) Linear LDPE,

(d) none of the foregoing; I will recommend polystyrene for the said purpose 43. Ethylene oxide is produced by oxidation of ethylene by air or oxygen at temperatures in the range of 2500 to 3300C in presence of a catalyst which is (a) silver on a solid support such as alumina or silicon carbide, (b) copper on r alumina, (c) finely divided nickel, (d) platinum on carbon, 44. The most important use of ethylene oxide (EO) is in the manufacture of (a) Ethanol amines by reaction of EO with NH3. (b) Ethylene glycol by reaction of EO with water. (c) Non-ionic surface-active agents by reaction of EO with alcohols, phenols, and/or amines, (d) None of the above; it is chiefly used as a sterilant for plastic materials in hospitals, 45. The major uses of ethylene glycol are (a) as antifreeze agents in automobiles and as a raw material in the manufacture of poly (ethyleneterephthalate) (b) as a plasticizer (c) as an antioxidant (d) all of the above 46. Raw materials for the production of styrene are (a) benzene and ethylene, (b) toluene and propylene, (c) toluene and ethanol, (d) m-xylene and ethylene, 47. You know styrene readily polymerizes; now in order to inhibit polymerization of styrene which of the following chemicals is usually added to it and at what concentration level ? (a) dioctylphthalate; 50 ppm, (b) p-tert-butylcatechol; to ppm, (c) acetic acid; 5 ppm, (d) hydroquinone; 100 ppm, 48. Ethylation of benzene (to produce ethylbenzene) is conducted either in liquid phase or in vapor phase. The liquid phase process is conducted at temperatures ranging from about 800C to 1300C and pressures from normal atmospheric to about 9 atm. The catalyst employed in the liquid phase ethylation of benzene is (a) zeolite, (b) solid phosphoric acid, (c) super-acidic Nafion NR 50, (d) aluminum chloride promoted by either hydrogen chloride or ethylchloride 49. The gas phase process for ethylation of benzene, called Mobil Badger process, carried out at about 4200C and 12 to 20 atm pressure employs as catalyst (a) r alumina, (b) macroporous cation exchange resin, (c) zeolites, (d) dispersed platinum on a porous carbon support, 50. The main problem in the liquid phase process for ethylation of benzene is that (a) the yield of ethyl-benzene is very low, (b) the quality of the product is poor, (c) the reaction mixture is very corrosive and this makes plant construction and maintenance difficult, (d) all of the foregoing, 51. Gas phase dehydrogenation of ethyl-benzene to styrene occurs over catalyst based on (a) iron oxide, (b) silica alumina, (c) titanium dioxide, (d) sodium silicate, 52. Dehydrogenation of ethyl-benzene to styrene is an endothermic and reversible reaction. The reaction is favored at (a) high temperatures, (b) low temperatures, 0 (c) a moderate temperature of around 250 C, (d) low temperature and high pressures, [ Note : Since the reaction is reversible and endothermic, high temperatures are favorable both to the rate of reaction and the position of equilibrium. However, at temperatures above about 6100C, thermal cracking of ethyl-benzene occurs at a significant rate and lowers the yield of styrene. A temperature above 6100C should therefore be avoided in the dehydrogenation reactor ] 53. Feed to a dehydrogenation reactor (for manufacture of styrene) is a mixture of ethyl-benzene and steam (why is steam used ?) in the molar ratio of about (a) 1 : 1, (b) 1 : 2, (c) 1 : 4, (d) 1 : 14 [ Note : A large excess of steam is used as diluent in order to reduce the thermal cracking of ethyl-benzene to a minimum. ] 54. Perspex or Plexiglas is basically (a) Poly (vinyl chloride) (b) Poly (isobutylene), (c) Poly (acrylonitrile), (d) Poly (methyl methacrylate) 55. Halcon process was invested by an American Company in 1968 for production of

(a) ethylene oxide, (c) propylene oxide,

(b) acrylonitrile, (d) tert-butyl hydroperoxide,

56. Basic raw materials for the production of methyl-isobutyl ketone is/are (a) acetone and ethylene (b) acetaldehyde and ethylene, (c) propylene and isobutylketone (d) acetone and propylene 57. Which of the following occurs in the Halcon process for the production of propylene oxide ? (a) liquid - phase free - radical oxidation, (b) solid catalyzed gas phase oxidation, (c) melt-catalyzed gas-liquid reaction whereby oxidation occurs, (d) oxidation by nitric acid in the liquid phase, 58. There are two versions of the Halcon process for production of propylene oxide. The basic difference between the two is that they use different peroxides for per-oxidation of propylene. Now find which of the following peroxides are used in the Halcon process ? (a) cumene hydroperoxide, (b) dodecylbenzene hydroperoxide, (c) ethylbenzene hydroperoxide, (d) none of the foregoing, 59. In the Halcon process for manufacture of propylene oxide, when tert-butyl hydroperoxide is used for per-oxidation of propylene, tertbutyl alcohol is formed as a coproduct along with propylene oxide. When ethyl-benzene hydroperoxide is used for per-oxidation, the co-product formed is (a) carbinol, (b) ethanol, (c) benzylalcohol, (d) phenylmethylcarbinol, 60. In question no. (59) the compound phenylmethyl carbinol has been mentioned. Phenylmethyl carbinol, on dehydration, gives (a) styrene, (b) L-methyl styrene, (c) cumene, (d) benzene, 61. Acrylonitrile is produced by am oxidation of (a) ethylene, (b) propylene, (c) isobutylene, (d) styrene, 62. Electrolytic hydrodimerization of acrylonitrile produces : (a) hydrocyanic acid, ( b) poly (acrylonitrile), (c) adiponitrile, (d) hexamethylene diamine, [ Note : Adipanitrile is an important intermediate in Nylon 66 production ] 63. Propylene, in presence of acidic catalysts like solid phosphoric acid catalysts, yields (a) polymers of propylene, (b) only dimer of propylene, (c) mainly propylene trimer and tetramer, (d) all of the foregoing depending on reaction temperature, 64. Propylene, on hydration in presence of acidic ion exchange resin catalyst, produces isopropyl alcohol. This alcohol on dehydrogenation gives (a) propylene oxide, (b) ethylene oxide, (c) methanol (d) acetone, 65. The major use of propylene tetramer is in the manufacture of (a) surface-active agents, benzene and propylene tetramer reacting to give dodecyl benzene which is subsequently sulfonated to produce dodecylbenzene (b) plasticizer alcohol by Oxo process, (c) petroleum additives, (d) solvents used by paint industry, 66. C4-stream obtained on ;cracking of naphtha and gas oil consist of the following components : isobutane, isobutene, linear butenes 1 butene, in-2-butene and trans-2-butene, n-butane and butadiene. Now butadiene is separated from the other components of the C4-stream by (a) ordinary distillation, (b) reactive distillation, (c) azeotropic distillation, (d) extractive distillation, 67. In the extractive distillation process for separation of butadiene from C4-mixture, a polar solvent that interacts with the conjugated Telectron system of butadiene is employed. Which of the following solvents are commonly used ? (a) methanol/acetonitrile/ furfural/dimethyl formamide/ N-methylpyrrolidone, (b) acetone/ methyl isobutyl ketone/isopropyl alcohol (c) acetaldehyde/isobutraldehyde 68. Manufacture of styrene-butadiene rubber (SBR) is one case where butadiene is consumed to a large extent. SBR is used mainly in making (a) carry-bags, (b) toys, (c) tyres, (d) erasers (for removing pencil marks)

69. Nitrile rubber is a copolymer of (a) butadiene and acetonitrile, (b) butadiene and adiponitrile, (c) butadiene and acrylonitrile, (d) butadiene, styrene and adiponitrile, 70. The monomer for neoprene, one of the earliest synthetic rubbers, is (a) butadiene, (b) chloripyrene, (c) 1 - butene, (d) propylene, 71. Maleic anhydride can be produced by gas-phase oxidation of (a) n-butenes, (b) isobutene, (c) ortho-xylene, (d) naphthalene, 72. The main chemical use of n-butenes is in the manufacture of (a) polybutenes, (b) M.T.B.E. (c) secondary-butylalcohol and methylethyl ketone, (d) maleic anhydride, 73. Butyl rubber is a copolymer of (a) 1-butene with a small amount of isobutene, (b) isobutene with a small amount of 2-methylbutadiene (isoprene) (c) butadiene with a small amount of propylene, (d) 1-butene with a small amount of butadiene, 74. Which of the following variety of rubber bas a very low permeability for gases and finds application in tyre inner tubes? a) Neoprene b) Styrene butadiene rubber c) Nitrile rubber(copolymer of butadiene and acrylonitrile) d) Butyl rubber 75. From a C4 stream consisting of isobutene and linear butanes , isobutene is separated by a) fractional distillation b) extractive distillation c) solvent extraction d) selective reaction 76. Methyl tertiary butyl ether produced by an acid catalyzed reaction of methanol with isobutene is a) b) c) d) an octane improver of gasoline a plasticizer a defoaming reagent a liquid detergent

77. Aromatic hydrocarbons, such as, benzene, toluene and xylene (BTX), are produced in the USA chiefly by (a) thermal cracking (of gas oil) (b) catalytic cracking, (c) catalytic reforming, (d) both (a) and (c), 78. Prior to catalytic reforming naphtha is hydrodesulpurized by a process called hydrodesulphurization in order to remove sulfur from it. Why is removal of sulfur essential? Because (a) presence of sulfur in naphtha causes substantial corrosion of the reformer material of constriction, (b) presence of sulfur promotes formation of ortho-xylene and the yield of benzene is reduced, (c) presence of sulfur in naphtha makes reforming catalyst usually active so that coke formation on the surface of the catalyst occurs, (d) presence of sulfur poisons reforming catalyst 79. The catalyst used for reforming is a dual-function catalyst consisting of (a) silver supported on silica, (b) iron oxide and potassium oxide, (c) platinum, often promoted with rhenium on halogenated-alumina support, (d) none of the above 80. Aromatic hydrocarbons are separated from alkanes and cycloalkanes by (a) fractional distillation, (b) solvent extraction, (c) adsorption onto activated carbon, (d) azeotropic distillation, 81. Common solvents used for separation of aromatics from a mixture of aromatics, alkanes and cycloalkanes are (a) sulfolane, (b) tert-octyl primary amine, (c) methyl isobutyl ketone, (d) tetraethylene glycol, 82.

83. Important reactions occurring in catalytic reforming are (a) dehydrogenation , dehydro isomerization and dehydrocyclization (b)oxidation, isomerization and cyclization 84. Major reactions occurring in the catalytic reforming process are (a) irreversible, (b) reversible, (c) definitelyl either of the two above, but nothing much is reported about the reforming reactions in literature; whether the reaction are reversible or irreversible is, therefore, not known. Hence no prediction is possible. 85. Feed to a catalytic reformer is (a) hydrocarbon vapor, (b) liquid hydrocarbon and hydrogen gas, (c) hydrocarbon vapor and nitrogen in a molar ratio of 1: 4, (d) hydrocarbon vapor and hydrogen in a molar ratio of around 1: 6, 86. Typical operating conditions of a reformer are (a) (b) (c) (d) 10 to 35 atm pressure and 450 to 550 C temperature, 0 0 0.5 to 1 atm pressure and 450 to 550 C temperature, 0 0 125 to 150 atm pressure and 450 to 550 C temperature, 0 0 125 to 150 atm pressure and 150 to 225 C temperature,
0 0

87. Of the reforming reactions, the aromatic forming reactions (which are accompanied by hydrogen production) are reversible. Elevated pressure and presence of hydrogen in the system should have an adverse effect on the position of equilibrium in the reversible reaction. In spite of this, reforming reactions are conducted under high pressure and in hydrogen atmosphere. Why ? (a) Because high pressure and presence of hydrogen gives good selectivity for benzene, (b) Because high partial pressure of hydrogen reduces coke formation on the reforming catalyst, (c) Because high partial pressure of hydrogen eliminates coke formation on the catalyst entirely and the catalyst regeneration step is no longer necessary, thereby causing a large saving in the operational cost, (d) Vapors of hydrocarbons are easily flammable. Presence of hydrogen and high operating pressure maintain an inert atmosphere within the reformer. Any untoward accident due to flame and explosion can thus be avoided. 88. Reforming catalysts get deactivated because of coke deposition on the surface. Catalyst regeneration is accomplished by (a) washing the catalyst with an organic solvent and subsequently drying it by hot air, (b) grinding the deactivated catalyst, separating carbon from the catalyst by floatation and then remaking the catalyst, (c) simply burning off the coke deposited on the catalyst surface, 89. Of the isomeric xylenes, which one is of least importance (from user point of view) ? (a) ortho xylene, (c) para xylene, (b) meta xylene, (d) all are of equal importance,

90. Para xylene can be separated from a mixture of meta and para xylenes by (a) fractional distillation and solvent extraction (b) fractional crystallization and selective adsorption 91. Is there any process now operating which isomerizes m - xylene to produce o and p xylenes ? (a) No such process is operating, no research work has been done in the area also, (b) Some research has been done in this area; but no break through has been achieved so far, (c) There is a liquid-phase process, but the process has been so expensive that it has not been exploited commercially, 0 (d) There is a vapor phase process using a silica alumina catalyst operating at about 550 C. Such a process is operating also. 92. Reformate from a catalytic reformer will have an octane number (a) higher than that of the feed hydrocarbon, (b) lower than that of the feed hydrocarbon, (c) approximately equal to that of the feed hydrocarbon, (d) that cannot be predicted without additional information. 93. During catalytic reforming, any sulfur and nitrogen bearing compounds present are converted to H 2S and NH3. H2S occupies the Pt-sites of the reforming catalyst, and deactivates the catalyst. Sulfur-compounds are, therefore, removed from naphtha prior to catalytic reforming. Do you think it is necessary to remove nitrogen also from naphtha before reforming is done ? (a) No, NH3 does not interact with reforming catalyst, its removal, therefore, is not necessary, (b) Presence of improves the catalytic activity. Removal of nitrogen from naphtha is, therefore, counterproductive from the point of view of ease of reforming. (c) Yes, NH3 being basic, interacts with the acid-sites of the reforming catalyst and thus deactivates the catalyst. Removal of nitrogen from naphtha prior to reforming is, therefore, essential.

94. Which of the following xylenes, on oxidation, produces phthalic anhydride ? (a) orthoxylene, (b) meta-xylene, (c) para-xylene, (d) none of the above; the starting material for production of phthalic anhydride by oxidation is ethyl-benzene. 95. Cyclohexane is made by catalytic hydrogenation of (a) acetylene, (b) ethylene, (c) benzene, (d) phenol, 96. The reaction, benzene to cyclohexane, is reversible. High equilibrium conversion of benzene to cyclohexane is favored by (a) low temperature and high hydrogen partial pressure (b) high temperature and low hydrogen partial pressure and 97. Cyclohexanol is produced commercially by (a) hydrogenation of cyclohexanone, (b) oxidation of cyclohexane, (c) oxidation of benzene, (d) decomposition of benzoic acid, 98. Cyclohexanol & cyclohexanone, produced commercially by oxidation of cyclohexane are (a) used in the manufacture of nylon intermediates, (b) used in the manufacture of terylene intermediates, (c) used in the manufacture of poly carbonates, (d) used in the manufacture of alkyd resins, 99. Cyclohexanol/cyclohexanone mixture, on oxidation with nitric acid, produces -(a) benzoic acid, (b) terephthalic acid, (c) adipic acid, (d) none of the foregoing, 100. Adipic acid, on reaction with ammonia in presence of a dehydrating catalyst, produces (a) ethylene diamine, (b) caprolactam, (c) hexamethylene diamine, (d) adiponitrile, 101. The oxime of cyclohexanone undergoes Backmann rearrangement to produce (a) phenol, (b) nitrophenol, (c) caprolactam, (d) phthalimide, 102. Which of the following compounds are raw materials for production of nylon 66 ? (a) benzoic acid and p-toluene sulfonic acid, (c) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid, (a) terephthalic acid 103. Nylon 6 was first produced in Germany in (a) 1925, (b) 1940,

(c) 1950,

(d) 1959,

104. Nylon 6 is produced by polymerizing caprolactam in presence of catalytic amount of (a) ammonia, (b) hydrocyanic acid, (c) water, (d) hydrofluoric acid, 105. The properties of Nylon 6 are (a) very similar to those of Nylon 66, (b) somewhat similar to those of Nylon 66, (c) very different from those of Nylon 66, 106. The cumene process for manufacture of phenol was introduced in the early (a) 1920s, (b) 1930s, (c) 1940s, (d) 1950s, 107. In the cumene process for phenol manufacture, cumene hydroperoxide is decomposed to produce phenol and (a) methanol (b) acetone, (c) isopropanol, (d) methylethyl ketone, 108. Bakelite, introduced by Bakeland in 1910, is basically (a) polycarbonates, (b) phenol-formaldehyde resins, (c) polyethylene, (d) poly vinyl chloride, 109. Which of the following is a thermosetting polymer ? (a) polyethylene, (b) polystyrene, (c) polyvinyl chloride, (d) phenolic resin, 110. Acetone, on reaction with a large excess of phenol in presence of an acidic catalyst such as hydrogen chloride, produce (a) p-isopropyl phenol, (b) 2, 4-disiopropyl phenol, (c) Bisphenol A, (d) none of the above,

111. Polycarbonate plastics are produced by reacting Bisphenol A with (a) hydrochloric acid, (b) carbonyl chloride, (c) carbonyl sulfide, (d) carbon disulfide, (e) none of the foregoing, 112. Nitrobenzene is produced by reacting benzene with a nitrating mixture consisting of (a) HF and HNO3, (b) H2SO4 and NaNO3, (c) HNO3 and H2SO4, (d) HNO3 and HCl, 113. The method of manufacture of aniline is by reduction of nitrobenzene. Both liquid and vapor phase processes are used for bringing about reduction. Aniline has a wide variety of uses ; they are mostly (a) large scale, (b) small scale, 114. 4, 4 diamino diphenyl methane is produced on large scale using aniline as a raw material. The diaminodiphenol methane is subsequently converted to 4, 4-diphenyl methane de-isocyanate (MDI). MDI is used for making (a) rigid polyurethane foams and other polyurethane products, (b) life saving drugs, (c) surface coatings, (d) none of the foregoing, 115. Maleic anhydride can be produced by air oxidation of (a) benzene, (b) n-butane, (c) n-butenes, (d) all of the foregoing, 116. Oxidation of benzene to produce maleic anhydride is carried out with a large excess of air so that the benzene vapor air mixture is outside the (a) upper explosive limit, (b) lower explosive limit, 117. Catalyst employed for vapor phase oxidation of benzene to meleic anhydride is (a) vanadium pentoxide/molybdenum oxide, (b) silica alumina, (c) platinum on r alumina, (d) palladium on carbon, 118. Major use of maleic anhydride is in making unsaturated polyester resins. Now unsaturated polyester resins are produced by reacting a mixture of maleic anhydride and phthalic anhydride with -(a) 2-ethyl hexanol, (b) propylene tetramer, (c) propylene oxide, (d) propylene glycol, 119. Unsaturated polyester resins mentioned in question (118) are used (a) in the manufacture of glass fibre reinforced plastics and surface coatings (b) in the manufacture of Bakelite , (c) in synthetic detergents, 120. The most important of the surface active agents used for domestic purpose are sodium alkyl benzene sulfonates. In order to achieve optimum detergent properties the number of carbon atoms in the alkyl group should be (a) four, (b) eight, (c) twelve, (d) sixteen, 121. Detergent alkylate made by reacting benzene with propylene tetramer, when sulfonated and subsequently neutralized, gives a detergent which is (a) biologically hard, (b) easily biodegradable, 122. Consider manufacture of linear alkyl benzene sulfonates (LABS). The alkylbenzenes are sulfonated with (a) 50 % sulphuric acid, (b) 98 % sulphuric acid, (c) 20 % oleum, (d) sulfur trioxide gas, 123. Which of the following compounds is made on a fairly large scale starting from toluene as a raw material ? (a) Benzoic acid, (b) p-Nitrotoluene, (c) Phenol, (d) Tolylene di-isocyanate, 124. Tolylene di-isocyanate is used in making (a) dyestuffs, (b) pharmaceutical products, (c) flexible polyurethane foams, (d) all of the foregoing, 125. Polyurethanes, notably flexible polyurethane foams, have a wide range of uses in (a) car upholstery, (b) furniture, bedding, etc. (c) carpets and textiles, (d) all of the foregoing, 126. Polyurethanes are made by reacting tolylene di-isocyanate with (a) maleic anhydride, (b) cumene hydroperoxide,

(c) caprolactam,

(d) polyether polyols made from propylene oxide,

127. Phthalic anhydride is produced by air oxidation of naphthalene or ortho-xylene. The product is recovered by (a) fractional distillation, (b) passing the reactor effluents into a switch condenser (c) solvent extraction, (d) reactive distillation, 128. One of the most important uses of phthalic anhydride is manufacture of dialkyl phthalates. Dialkylphthalates are used as (a) antioxidants, (c) reinforcing fillers in tyres, (b) plasticizers, (d) chain terminating agents in polymer production, 129. Which of the following polymers consumes most dialkylphthalates ? (a) Poly (vinyl chloride) (b) poly styrene, (c) polypropylene, (d) polycarbonates, 130. Phthalate plasticizers are made by reacting phthalic anhydride with a variety of alcohols containing up to 13 carbon atoms. The most important are those made from (a) C4 alcohols, (b) C5 alcohols, (c) C8 alcohols, (d) C11 alcohols, 131. Alkyled resins are low molecular weight polyesters, (a) made by reacting phthalic anhydride with glycerol, vegetable oils and/or fatty acids, and various other components (b) having complex, ill-defined structures, (c) mainly used in surface coatings, (d) all of the foregoing, 132. Poly (ethylene terephthalate) were first manufactured commercially around (a) 1920, (b) 1940, (c) 1950, (d) 1960, 133. Raw material for the production of terephthalic acid is p-xylene, when p-xylene is oxidized in air under conventional liquid phase oxidation conditions, which of the following is formed predominantly ? (a) terephthalic acid, (b) para-toluic acid, (c) benzoic acid, (d) para-carboxybenzaldehyde, 134. In the Amoco process for terephthalic acid manufacture, p-xylene is oxidized by air in the liquid phase in solution in acetic acid at about 2000C and under 20 atm pressure with a catalyst system containing (a) cobalt, manganese and bromide ions in solution, (b) copper, silver and iodide ions in solution, (c) silver, platinum and nitrate ions in solution, (d) none of the foregoing, 135. In the Amoco process terephthalic acid is formed in (a) 50 to 60% yield; almost complete conversion of p-xylene occurs, (b) 70 to 80% yield; 50% conversion of p-xylene occurs, (c) 90 to 95% yield; almost complete conversion of p-xylene occurs, (d) 100% yield; 100% conversion of p-xylene occurs. 136. The reaction mixture in the Amoco process for terephthalic acid manufacture is extremely corrosive; therefore, (a) stainless steel 321 reactors have to be used, (b) titanium lined reactors have to be used, (c) rubber lined reactors have to be used, (d) glass lined reactors have to be used, 137. The original method of manufacture of poly (ethylene terephthalate) was based on (a) terephthalic acid, (b) methyl ester of p-toluic acid, (c) p toluic acid, (d) dimethyl terephthalate, 138. Which of the following is the oldest commercial man-made fibre ? (a) Nylon, (b) Terylene, (c) cotton, (d) viscose rayon, 139. In the viscose rayon process, the principal raw materials for the production of viscose are (a) sodium hydroxide, zinc sulfate and sodium sulfate, (b) cellulose, sodium hydroxide and carbon disulfide, (c) cellulose, sodium hydroxide and sulfuric acid, (d) carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulfide and sodium hydroxide, 140. That cellulose could be converted to alkali cellulose which on treatment with carbon disulfide formed a xanthate that di ssolved in caustic soda solution to produce viscose was discovered by

(a) Pauling and Associates, 1955, (c) Cross and Vevan, 1892,

(b) Cotton and Wilkinson, 1970, (d) none of the foregoing,

141. Which of the following industries was the first to start the manufacture of rayon yarn in our country ? (a) National Rayon Corporation, (b) Travancore Rayon, (c) Kesoram Rayon, (d) none of the foregoing, 142. How many units are there at present in India that produce Rayon yarn ? (a) 4, (b) 7, (c) 9, (d) 12, 143. Which of the following compounds acts as a polymerization inhibitor for butadiene and styrene ? (a) chlorobenzene, (b) m iodophenol, (c) 4-tert butylcatechol, (d) 2, 4, 6-trinitroresorcinol, 144. Ethyl alcohol has been produced by the fermentation process for many thousands of years, but economic industrial manufacture of synthetic ethyl alcohol began in (a) 1790s, (b) 1830s, (c) 1880s, (d) 1930s, 145. Synthetic ethyl alcohol was first produced by (a) direct hydration of ethylene, (b) indirect catalytic hydration of ethylene, (d) carbonylation of methyl alcohol and methyl acetate, (e) none of the foregoing, 146. Other than India, which other country has large volumes of fermentation alcohols ? (a) Pakistan, (b) China, (c) Brazil, (d) U.S.A. 147. Approximately what percent of world ethanol capacity is synthetic ? (a) 50 %, (b) 5 %, (c) 85 %,

(d) 20 %,

148. Raw materials for production of ethanol by direct hydration route are ethylene (of polymerization grade) and demineralized water. The ratio of ethylene to water in the feed is (a) 10-12 : 1, (b) 1 : 100, (c) 1 : 0.3 0.8, (d) none of the foregoing, 149. Catalyst employed in fixed-bed reactor for ethanol production by direct hydration route is (a) 77% H3PO4 absorbed on a carrier like silica gel or a diatomaceous earth fused with aluminum oxide, (b) Cation exchange resin in H+ - form like Amberlyst 15, (c) Silver gauze, (d) Pt Rh Catalyst, 150. In the direct hydration process for ethanol production, conversion per pass in the reactor is (a) 89 90 %, (b) 75 77 %, (c) 37 38 %, (d) 4 - 5 %, 151. In the direct hydration process for ethanol production, catalyst life is around (a) 6 months, (b) 3 years, (c) 7 years, (d) 12 years, 152. In the indirect hydration process for ethanol production, purified ethylene (with some ethane as inert) is absorbed in 94 98 wt% H2SO4 in a countercurrent tower. The pressure and temperature in the absorption tower are 0 0 (a) 100 150 bar, 200 C, (b) 70 bar, 110 130 C, 0 0 (c) 200 220 bar, 0 10 C, (d) 10 35 bar, 65 80 C, 153. In the indirect hydration process, the mixed esters of mono and diethylsulfates are hydrolyzed with water in two stages. Addition of water to hydrolyzers is so done as to get dilute H2SO4 of concentration of : (a) 5 10 wt %, (b) 25 30 wt %, (c) 40 50 wt %, (d) 75 85 wt %, 154. Absolute grade ethyl alcohol has strength of (a) 88 %, (b) 96.5 %, (c) 99.7 %, (d) none of the foregoing, 155. Trioxane is (a) a cyclic trimer of formaldehyde, (c) a linear trimer of formaldehyde, (b) trade name for oxalic acid, (d) none of the foregoing,

156. Formox process for formaldehyde production involves complete oxidation of methyl alcohol with excess air in presence of (a) silver catalyst, (b) catalyst based on iron, molybdenum or vanadium oxide,

(c)

Pd on carbon catalyst,

(d) none of the foregoing,

157. Temperature in the reactor in the Formox process is around 0 0 (a) 230 C, (b) 340 C, 0 0 (c) 470 C, (d) 550 C, 158. In the Formox process excess air is used in order to ensure that air-methanol ratio is (a) below the lower explosion limit, (b) above the lower explosion limit, 159. Formaldehyde is also produced from methanol by oxidation dehydrogenation process. The catalyst employed in the process is (a) Pt Rh, (b) ZrO2, (c) Pd - C, (d) Ag gauze, 160. In the oxidation dehydrogenation process, reactor (fixed bed of catalyst) temperature, depending on methyl alcohol concentration in the feed, will be around 0 0 (a) 200 250 C, (b) 300 400 C, 0 0 (c) 450 560 C, (d) 600 720 C, 161. Distillation of wood was the original source of methyl alcohol. Presently production is based on natural gas, naphtha, or refinery light gas. Large scale methyl alcohol processes based on H2-CO mixtures were introduced in the (a) 1860s, (b) 1920s, (c) 1950s, (d) none of the foregoing, 162. The falling price of methyl alcohol and increasing cost of natural gas feedstock have resulted in the development of an autothermal reactor in combination with a steam reformer to produce the synthesis gas, raw material for methanol manufacture. This has reduced natural gas consumption per tone of methyl alcohol by nearly (a) 8 %, (b) 26 %, (c) 37 %, (d) none of the foregoing, 163. Synthesis of methyl alcohol occurs in presence of copper-based catalysts (most popular are copper with zinc-boron or zincchromium) at a controlled temperature of 0 0 (a) 60 70 C, (b) 110 120 C, 0 0 (c) 250 260 C, (d) 370 380 C, 164. Pressure in the methanol converter is around -(a) 500 550 bar, (b) 200 300 bar, (c) 3 4 bar, (d) 50 100 bar, 165. Methyl Parthion (O, O-dimethyl O-p-nitrophenyl phosphorothionate) is used as (a) a cotton insecticide, (b) a wheat weedicide, (c) a herbicide, (d) a flavoring agent, 166. In the acetaldehyde production process by dehydrogenation of ethanol vapor, which catalyst is employed ? (a) Ag gauze, (b) cobalt nickel, (c) copper activated with chromium oxide, (d) CuCl2-PdCl2 combination, 167. Reaction temperature for acetaldehyde production by dehydrogenation of ethanol vapor is around 0 0 (a) 650 C, (b) 430 C, 0 0 (c) 370 C, (d) 290 C, 168. In the ethanol dehydrogenation process for acetaldehyde production, conversion per pass is between (a) 6 and 8 %, (b) 17 and 21 %, (c) 25 and 35 %, (d) 50 and 65 %, 169. Principal process used presently in the western world for manufacture of acetaldehyde is (a) catalytic oxidation of ethyl alcohol in presence of Ag-gauze, (b) catalytic dehydrogenation of ethyl alcohol, (c) direct oxidation of ethylene, (d) oxidation of propane or butane, 170. For acetaldehyde production by direct oxidation of ethylene, catalyst employed is (a) Na K alloy, (b) cobalt acetate, (c) an aqueous catalyst solution containing CuCl2 and small quantities of PdCl2, (d) none of the foregoing, 171. Acetaldehyde forms two polymers paraldehyde, a cyclic trimer, and metaldehyde, (a) a linear tetramer, (b) a linear trimer, (c) a cyclic tetramer, (d) a linear dimer,

172. What is Vinegar ? (a) dilute solution of acetic acid (b) double distilled alcohol (c) food grade phosphoric acid (d) 5% saline solution 173. There are three important synthetic processes for manufacture of acetic acid : (i) oxidation of acetaldehyde, (ii) carbonylation of methanol, (iii) liquid phase oxidation of n-butane or naphtha, Of the major processes used world wide, roughly what percent of acetic acid is produced by carbonylation of methylalcohol ? (a) 5 %, (b) 23 %, (c) 47 %, (d) 63 %, 174. In the acetaldehyde oxidation process (for acetic acid manufacture), acetaldehyde solution (95%) is charged into the reactor and O2 or air is bubbled through the liquid containing, as catalyst, (a) 0.1% to 0.5% manganese acetate, (b) 5 % magnesium iodide, (c) 2 % Pd Cl2, (d) none of the foregoing, 175. Reaction to produce acetic acid by acetaldehyde oxidation process occurs at 0 0 (a) 30 40 C and 50 100 bar, (b) 60 80 C and 150 200 bar, 0 (c) 60 80 C and 3 10 bar, (d) none of the foregoing, 176. Monsanto process for acetic acid manufacture by carbonylation of methyl alcohol uses -(a) cobalt and manganese acetates as catalyst, (b) an iodide promoted rhodium catalyst, (c) a complex catalyst system based on antimony and tin, (d) none of the foregoing, 177. Reaction to produce acetic acid by carbonylation of methanol occurs (in liquid phase) at 0 0 (a) 65 80 C and 100 bar, (b) 100 C and 150 bar, 0 0 (c) 150 200 C and 5 bar, (d) 150 200 C and 15 bar, 178. It has been confirmed through spectroscopic studies that the reaction to produce acetic acid by carbonylation of methyl alcohol takes place in a five-step mechanism and the main by-products are (a) acetic anhydride and H2O, (b) CO2 and H2, (c) CO2 and H2O, (d) acetic anhydride and H2, 179. In the n-butane (or naphtha) oxidation process for acetic acid production, a butane stream containing 95% n-butane and some small amounts of isobutane is fed into a reactor containing a solution of acetic acid and cobalt, manganese, nickel or chromium acetate. Air or O2 is bubbled through the solution; the liquid phase oxidation takes place at 0 0 (a) 70 90 C and 200 250 bar, (b) 100 130 C and 150 bar, 0 0 (c) 30 50 C and 10 bar, (d) 150 200 C and 50 60 bar, 180. Which of the following (a to d) is true ? Major advantage(s) of naphtha as a raw material (instead of n-butane) for acetic acid production by oxidation route is/are (a) cheaper raw material and less severe reaction conditions, (c) smaller number of by-products and hence, easier separation processes, (d) higher yields of acetic acid, 181. 182. What do you get by absorbing ketone in acetic acid ? (a) Ethyl acetoacetate, (b) Diethyl malonate, (c) acetic anhydride, (d) none of the foregoing, 183. Acetic anhydride is also produced by carbonylation of methylacetate. CO, compressed to 200 500 bar, is fed into a reactor and reacted with methylacetate in liquid phase at 160 1900C in the presence of (a) manganese acetate catalyst, (b) a catalyst combination of CuCl2 and PdCl2 (c) a rhodium chloride catalyst activated by CH3I, HI, LiI, I2 or other iodides, (d) none of the foregoing, 184.. Acetic anhydride is used in the manufacture of a range of pharmaceutical intermediates, notable among those are (a) aspirin, (b) paracetamol, (c) 185. There are two routes for commercial production of aniline (i) ammonolysis of phenol, (ii) catalytic hydrogenation of nitrobenzene, In the ammonolysis of phenol process, phenol and NH3 are reacted in vapor phase in a fixed-bed reactor, the catalyst employed in the process is (a) granular ion exchange resin, (b) Silica alumina,

(c) Pd on alumina,

(d) Thoria,

1. Commercially produced nitric acid is available in concentration from: (a) 22 to 42 %, (c) 52 to 69 %, (b) 33 to 50 %, (d) 52 to 99 %,

2. Which of the following grades of nitric acid is described as fuming (a) acid over 63 % concentration, (b) acid over 72 % concentration, (c) acid over 86 % concentration, (d) acid over 98 % concentration, 3. Hydrochloric acid is available in four concentrations ranging from: (a) 12 to 31 %, (b) 27 to 37 %, (c) 43 to 66 %, (d) 71 to 95 %, 4. Reagent grade hydrochloric acid is normally: (a) 22.3 % acid, (b) 37.1 % acid, (d) 43.7 % acid, (d) 59.2 % acid, 5. Which of the following acids is the largest volume inorganic acid in the present day ? (a) Sulfuric acid, (b) Perchloric acid, (c) Nitric acid, (d) Hydrochloric acid, 6. Which of the following catalysts is employed for converting SO 2 to SO3 in the contact process for sulfuric acid manufacture ? (a) P2O5, (b) V2O5, (c) N2O5, (d) PCl5

7. In the contact process for sulfuric acid manufacture, the feed gas entering the converter (where SO2 is oxidized to SO3) contains : (a) 0.1 to 1% sulfurdioxide, (b) 7 to 10% sulfurdioxide, (c) 20 to 30% sulfurdioxide, (d) 60 to 70% sulfurdioxide, 8. Nitric acid is chiefly produced all over the world by the ammonia oxidation route. Catalyst used for oxidation of ammonia to nitric oxide is (a) g - alumina, (c) Platinum rhodium, (b) Iron, (d) Nickel,

9. There are two industrial processes for sulfuric acid manufacture : contact process and chamber process. Chamber process was developed first, in the year 1746, but the process produced acid of concentration ;-(a) Less than 10%, (b) Less than 30%, (c) Less than 60%, (d) Less than 80%, 10. Raw materials for the production of urea are (a) Carbon dioxide and brine, (b) Carbon dioxide and ammonia, (c) Carbon disulfide and ammonia, (d) Carbon disulfide, brine and ammonia, 11. Catalyst employed for ammonia manufacture from singes is (a) platinum rhodium, (b) alpha alumina, (c) silica alumina, (d) Iron oxide promoted by potassium oxide and aluminum oxide. 12. Raw materials for the production of urea are (a) carbon dioxide and sodium chloride, (b) carbon dioxide and ammonia, (c) ammonia and carbon disulfide, (c) Sodium chloride, ammonia and carbon disulfide, 13. Catalyst employed for ammonia manufacture from syngas (nitrogen and hydrogen) is (a) platinum rhodium alloy, (b) alpha alumina, (c) silica alumina, (d) iron oxide promoted by potassium oxide and alumina. 14. Dowtherm A is (a) a 50 : 50 mixture of m and p xylenes, (b) trade name of an aromatic mineral oil, (c) an eutectic mixture : 73.5% diphenyloxide and 26.5% diphenyl, (d) none of the foregoing, 15. Hot fluids (employed for heating purpose) most widely used in chemical process industries in the temperature range of 100OC to 500OC are

(a) Steam, (b) aromatic mineral oils or molten salts (c) the eutectic mixture : 73.5% diphenyl oxide and 26.5% diphenyl, (d)all of the foregoing, 16. The practical range of use of water as heat transfer fluid (both for cooling and heating) in chemical process industries is limited to the range between O O O O (a) 40 C and 100 C, (b) 0 C and 100 C, O O O O (c) 20 C and 200 C, (d) 100 C and 200 C, 17. Chemical formulae for Refrigerant 12 and Refrigerant 21 are (a) CCl2F2 and CHCl2F, (b) CHCl F2 and CHCl2F, (c) CH2ClF and CCl2F2, (d) CHCl2F and CCl2F2, 18. In nuclear industry heating is provided by (a) direct flame (combustion of flue gases), (b) electricity, (c) heat transfer from Dowtherm A (d) heat transfer from molten alkali metals. 19. Hardness of water is of two kinds : Temporary hardness and permanent hardness. Temporary hardness is caused by the presence of (a) Soluble bicarbonates of calcium, magnesium and iron, (b) Soluble chlorides of calcium and magnesium, (c) Soluble sulfates of calcium and magnesium, (d) Soluble bicarbonates of sodium and potassium, 20. Permanent hardness is caused by the presence of (a) insoluble carbonates of calcium and magnesium, (b) soluble chlorides or sulfates of calcium and magnesium, (c) all of the foregoing, 21. Temporary hardness can be easily removed by boiling hard water because in this process: (a) Soluble bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium decompose and produce insoluble carbonates which can readily be filtered and removed, (b) Soluble bicarbonates are converted to gaseous products and they leave water as it is heated. (c) Soluble bicarbonates form some kind of soluble complex which, although present in water, does not interact with soap. (d) I do not agree with the statement of the question; temporary hardness cannot be removed by boiling. 22. Total hardness of water can be determined by titrating hard water against (a) Dilute sulfuric or hydrochloric acid solution, (b) Dilute phosphoric acid solution, (c) Sodium sulfite solution, (d) Solution of disodium salt of ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid, 23. In the determination of total hardness of water by titrating hard water with a solution of sodium salt of EDTA, indicator used is (a) methyl orange, (b) phenolphthalein, (c) B-naphthol, (d) Solochrome Black T 24. Lime soda treatment of hard water : (a) removes only temporary hardness, (b) removes only permanent hardness, (c) removes both temporary and permanent hardness,] (d) adjusts the pH of water; removes neither temporary nor permanent hardness. 25. Versene (a) (b) (c) (d) is -another name of Solochrome Black T indicator, the trade name of sodium hypochlorite solution, the trade name of sodium hexametaphosphate, the disodium salt of ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid.

26. Most sea water contains approximately : (a) 0.5% dissolved sodium chloride, (c) 7.5% dissolved sodium chloride, 27.Fluorspar is (a) Ca F2, (c) Ca F2, 3 Ca3 (PO4)2,

(b) 2.6% dissolved sodium chloride, (d) 19.7% dissolved sodium chloride,

(b) Na3 Al F6, (d) Anhydrous HF,

28. The percentage available chlorine in a good commercial sample of bleaching powder is (a) 15 to 17 %, (b) 35 to 37 %, (c) 53 to 56 %, (d) 69 to 71 5,

29. Raw materials for production of soda ash by standard Solvay process are (a) ammonia and sodium chloride, (b) carbon dioxide and sodium chloride, (c) carbon dioxide, ammonia & sodium chloride, (d) none of the above, 30. Carbon dioxide required in the Solvay process is obtained by (a) burning 100% pure coke, (b) burning coal, (c) by heating limestone, (d) by heating magnesium bicarbonate, 31. Principal constituents of rock phosphate is / are (a) calcium chloride, calcium carbonate and phosphorous pentoxide, (b) calcium fluoride and di-ammonium phosphate, (c) tricalcium phosphate, calcium fluoride and calcium carbonate, (d) ammonium nitrate, calcium fluoride and phosphorous pentoxide, 32. Rock phosphate used for industrial production of phosphoric acid should contain at least (a) 5 % P2O5, (b) 12 % P2O5, (c) 20% P2O5, (d) 30 % P2O5, 33. There are variations in the wet process phosphoric acid manufacture depending on ;the extent of hydration of the calcium sulfate crystals formed during the digestion. The calcium sulfate can be -(a) anhydrite, Ca SO4 (b) dihydrate, Ca SO4 . 2 H2O, (c) hemihydrate, Ca SO4 . H2O, (d) all of the above 34. Which of the following processes produces phosphoric acid of the highest concentration? (a) Dihydrate route, (b) Hemihydrate route, (c) Anhydrite route, (d) All (a), (b), (c) produce phosphoric acid of the same concentration. 35. Below are given the different routes for wet process phosphoric acid production and the temperatures at which rock phosphate is digested with sulfuric acid in different routes. Select the correct process temperature combination. Route : Digestion temperature 0 (i). Dihydrate, a. 120 to 130 C, 0 (ii). Hemihydrate, b. 70 to 75 C, 0 (iii) Anhydrite, c. 100 C, 36. Thermal process (dry process) produces phosphoric acid of (a) superior quality compared to wet process, (b) inferior quality compared to wet process, (c) the same quality as that obtained in wet process, 37. In the normal contact process for sulfuric acid manufacture, sulfur dioxide to sulfur trioxide conversion efficiency is around (a) 20 % (b) 50 %, (c) 75 %, (d) 98 %, 38. In the double absorption double catalyst process for sulfuric acid production, sulfur dioxide to sulfur trioxide conversion efficiency is more than that in the normal contact process and is equal to (a) 98.1 %, (b) 98.5 %, (c) at least 99.5 %, (d) 100 %, 39. In contact process, sulfur dioxide required can be produced either by burning elemental sulfur or by roasting iron, copper or zinc pyrites. In India the majority of sulfuric acid plants still use (a) elemental sulfur, (b) iron pyrites, (c) zinc pyrites, (d) copper pyrites, 40. Molten sulfur has minimum viscosity in the temperature range between 0 0 0 0 (a) 120 and 125 C, (b) 130 and 140 C, 0 0 (c) 150 and 155 C, (d) none of the above, (Note that molten sulfur is pumped from the sulfur storage tank to the sulfur burner at temperatures at which the viscosity of molten sulfur is minimum) 41. In the contact process the catalyst loading per tonne of 100% sulfuric acid per day in the converter (where sulfur dioxide to sulfur trioxide conversion occurs) is of the order of 3 3 (a) 0.01 m of V2O5, (b) 0.05 m of V2O5, 3 3 (c) 0.1 m of V2O5, (d) 0.2 m of V2O5, 42. The linear velocity of gas over the catalyst bed in the sulfur dioxide to sulfur trioxide converter is around (a) 0.1 to 0.25 m/s, (b) 0.4 to 0.55 m/s, (c) 0.75 to 0.90 m/s, (d) 1.8 to 2.5 m/s,

43. Commercial catalyst used for sulfuric acid manufacture contains approximately (a) 6.2 to 6.5% vanadium pentoxide supported on silica and 1% potassium sulfate, (b) 25% vanadium pentoxide supported on silica and 1% potassium sulfate, (c) 50% vanadium pentoxide and 50% potassium sulfate mixture (by weight), (d) 100% pure vanadium pentoxide, 44. Oxidation of ammonia with air in presence of 90% platinum 10% rhodium catalyst in the converter constitutes the first step in industrial production of nitric acid. The feed gas to the converter contains around (a) 1 to 2% ammonia in air, (b) 10 to 12% ammonia in air, (c) 40 to 50% ammonia in air, (d) 70 to 80% ammonia in air, 45. Extent of oxidation of ammonia to nitric oxide in the converter (in nitric acid manufacture) is usually around (a) 10 to 15% (conversion) (b) 25 to 30 %, (c) 50 to 60 %, (d) 97 to 98 %, 46. The rate-limiting step in the ammonia oxidation reaction (in nitric acid manufacture) is (a) diffusion of oxygen from the bulk gas phase to the Pt-Rh catalyst surface, (b) diffusion of ammonia from the bulk gas phase to the Pt-Rh catalyst surface, (c) diffusion of product nitric oxide from the Pt-Rh catalyst surface into the bulk gas phase, (d) surface reaction between ammonia and oxygen on the catalyst, 47. In nitric acid production by ammonia oxidation process, ammonia to nitric oxide conversion occurs in presence of Pt-Rh gauze catalyst of platinum and rhodium, (a) platinum acts as catalyst and rhodium increases the strength of the gauze and its resistance to erosion (b) rhodium acts as catalyst, (c) platinum imparts strength to the gauze and increases its resistance to erosion, 48. Contact time between the gas and the catalyst gauze in the converter for ammonia to nitric oxide oxidation in the nitric acid manufacturing plant is important, contact time is determined by the gas flow rate through the converter. Optimum gas flow rate is that which provides contact time of around (a) 0.25 ms, (b) 0.1 to 0.2 S, (c) 1 to 2 S, (d) 10 to 20 S, 49. In nitric acid manufacturing process, nitric oxide from the converter is passed into the absorber where oxidation of NO to NO2 and absorption of NO in water to produce HNO3 occur, Nitric acid obtained from the absorber is in the concentration range of (a) 10 to 15 %, (b) 25 to 35 %, (c) 50 to 70 %, (d) 85 to 92 %, 50. Other than sulfuric acid which of the following chemicals is used commercially to concentrate nitric acid ? (a) potassium nitrate solution, (b) calcium chloride solution, (c) anhydrous sodium sulfate, (d) magnesium nitrate solution, 51. The problem of atmospheric pollution in a nitric acid plant is due to the presence of (a) nitric acid mist in the tail gases, (b) ammonia in the tail gases, (c) unabsorbed nitrogen oxides, NOx, in the tail gases, (d) none of the above, 52. Which of the following acids is used to the greatest extent for metal pickling ? (a) sulfuric acid, (b) hydrochloric acid, (c) nitric acid, (d) phosphoric acid, 53. Synthesis process for hydrogen chloride production uses as raw materials (a) sodium chloride and sulfuric acid, (b) sodium chloride and nitric acid, (c) benzene and dry chlorine, (d) hydrogen and chlorine, 54. Which of the following is known as Rochelle salt / (a) silver cyanide (AgCN), (b) nickel sulphamate [ Ni (SO3NH2)2 . 4 H2O ] (c) sodium potassium tartarate [ KNa C4H4O6 . 4 H2O ], (d) None of the above, 55. Rochelle salt is used in (a) copper plating, (b) in the preparation of baking powders, (c) all of the foregoing, (d) in pharmaceutical preparations, 56.Antimony oxide occurs in nature as (a) azurite, (b) phenacite, (c) valentinite, (d) sylvanite, 57. Israel Mining Industries Process for manufacture of phosphoric acid uses as raw materials

(a) rock phosphate and sulfuric acid, (b) rock phosphate and hydrochloric acid, (c) rock phosphate and ammonium sulfate, (d) phosphorous and ammonium sulfate, 58. In Israel Mining Industries Process hydrochloric acid instead of sulfuric acid is used to digest rock phosphate. The concentration of hydrochloric acid employed is (a) 10 %, (b) 15 %, (c) 22 %, (d) 30 %, 59. Rock phosphate, on being digested with hydrochloric acid, give a mixture of phosphoric acid and calcium chloride from which phosphoric acid is separated by solvent extraction. Commonly used solvent is (a) ethanol (b) n propanol, (c) mixture of n-butanol and isoamyl alcohol, (d) n octanol, 60. Phosphoric acid is usually recovered from its alcoholic solution by (a) fractional distillation, (b) absorption onto molecular sieves, (c) solvent extraction using water as a solvent, (d) separation through fast reaction, 61. In the Israel Mining Industries Process rock phosphate is digested with (a) a stoichiometrically equivalent amount of hydrochloric acid, (b) an excess of hydrochloric acid, (c) a stoichiometrically deficient amount of hydrochloric acid, (d) any of (a), (b), (c) depending on the P2O5 content in rock phosphate, 62. In the Israel Mining Industries Process rock phosphate is digested with an excess of hydrochloric acid in order to (a) achieve high reaction rates, (b) prevent formation of mono-calcium phosphate which is soluble in organic solvents, (c) extract as much P2O5 as possible from the rock, (d) none of the above, 63. The most recent development in the chlor-alkali industries for manufacture of chlorine and caustic soda is the use of -(a) diaphragm cell process, (b) mercury cell process, (c) membrane cell process, 64. Of the three processes mentioned in question no. (63), the one that uses the most electric energy is (a) diaphragm cell process, (b) mercury cell process, (c) membrane cell process, 65. In the membrane-cell process the caustic soda leaving the cell contains around (a) 5 to 10 % caustic soda, (b) 15 to 20 % caustic soda, (c) 30 to 35 % caustic soda, (d) 50 to 55 % caustic soda, 66. Of the different manufacturing process for production of chlorine and caustic soda, the consumption of electric energy is the lowest for the membrane cell process and is approximately -(a) 5 % less than that for the mercury-cell process, (b) 10 % less than that for the mercury-cell process, (c) 25 % less than that for the mercury-cell process, (d) 50 % less than that for the mercury-cell process, 67. In the mercury cell process fresh brine enters the cell at a concentration of 310 9/L sodium chloride and depleted brine leaves the cell at a concentration of (a) 270 9/L sodium chloride, (b) 225 9/L sodium chloride, (c) 175 9/L sodium chloride, (d) 100 9/L sodium chloride, (e) 50 9/L sodium chloride, 68. Mercury cell process produces caustic solution containing around (a) 10 % caustic soda, (b) 20 % caustic soda, (c) 35 % caustic soda, (d) 50 % caustic soda, 69. Purest caustic soda solution is obtained from (a) diaphragm cell process, (b) mercury cell process, (c) membrane cell process, 70. Present day mercury cells almost always employ (a) graphite anode, (b) activated carbon anode, (c) activated titanium anode, (d) copper anode, 71. In the mercury cell process, the concentration of the Na-Hg amalgam is maintained at --

(a) 0.01 to 0.05 wt % sodium, (c) 1 to 2 wt % sodium,

(b) 0.2 to 0.4 wt % sodium, (d) 10 to 12 wt % sodium,

72. Compared to the membrane-cell process, the major disadvantages of the mercury-cell process are (a) higher electric energy requirement, (b) environmental pollution due to mercury, (c) large floor space requirement, (d) all of the foregoing, 73. Present day mercury cells employ titanium anodes coated with (a) ruthenium-titanium active coating, (b) MnO2 coating, (c) copper + zinc coating, (d) TiO2 coating, 74. Total concentration of calcium + magnesium in the brine feed to the membrane cell must be less than (a) 20 mg / kg. (b) 10 mg / kg. (c) 3 mg / kg. (d) 0.05 mg / kg. 75. Which of the following chlor-alkali processes requires brine of the highest purity ;? (a) diaphragm-cell process, (b) membrane cell process, (c) mercury cell process, (d) I have doubts about the question; all the processes in (a), (b) and (c) use brine of the same purity, 76. Mercury-based plants (typically) operate most economically for a production range of (a) 10 to 50 tons per day chlorine, (b) 50 to 100 tons per day chlorine, (c) 150 to 200 tons per day chlorine, (d) 200 to 450 tons per day chlorine, 77. The caustic solution from a mercury-cell process typically contains around (a) 50 ppm NaCl, (b) 100 ppm NaCl, (c) 170 ppm NaCl, (d) 230 ppm NaCl, 78. The caustic solution from a diaphragm cell process typically contains around (a) 600 ppm NaCl, (b) 1000 ppm NaCl, (c) 1300 ppm NaCl, (d) 1800 ppm NaCl, 79. For the same production capacity of caustic soda and chlorine the brine flow rate for membrane cells will be, approximately (a) twice that for mercury cells, (b) half of that for mercury cells, (c) quarter of that for mercury cells, (d) none of the above, 80. In the diaphragm-cell process, the diaphragm (made of asbestos fibers supported on an iron screen) (a) prevents diffusion of sodium hydroxide towards the anode, (b) prevents passage of sodium ions towards the cathode, (c) allows for the slow passage of solution, (d) both (a) and (c), 81. The membranes employed in the membrane-cell (for chlorine and caustic soda production) are basically (a) perfluorinated polymers with occasional sulfonate and/or carboxylate groups, (b) nylon 6, 6, (c) polyvinyl acetate, (d) high density polyethylene, 82. Among electrolytic industries aluminum manufacture is the largest consumer of electricity. Manufacture of caustic soda is (a) the second largest consumer, (b) the third largest consumer, (c) the fourth largest consumer, (d) none of the above, 83. In the diaphragm-cell process, the liquid level in the anode compartment is (a) lower than that in the cathode compartment, (b) equal to that in the cathode compartment, (c) higher than that in the cathode compartment, (d) may be any one of the foregoing, because the liquid level does not have any influence on the working of the cell, 84. Which of the following chemicals is formed as a byproduct of the Solvay process ? (a) sodium sulfate, (b) magnesium nitrate, (c) potassium chloride, (d) calcium chloride, 85. Below are given a number of industrial processes where lime is used. Highest use of lime is in (a) steel making, (b) chemical manufacture, (c) water treatment, (d) pulp and paper, 86. Common temperatures used in converting limestone into lime are 0 0 (a) 300 400 C, (b) 1200 1300 C,

(c) 1900 2000 C, (d) 2800 3000 C, Note: Lime is a very energy intensive product. 87. Titanium dioxide has become the most important and useful white pigment in the world because of the following properties : (a) high refractive index, stability and non-toxicity (b) lack of absorption of visible light, (c) ability to be produced in the correct size range, (d) all of the foregoing, 88. Titanium dioxide pigments are produced in two forms. They are (a) anatase or rutile (b) brookite, (c) rutile, (d) none of the above, 89. Basic raw materials in the manufacture of titanium pigments are (a) perovskite, (b) ilmenite, (c) titanite, (d) rutile, 90. Ilmenite is ideally (a) lithium dititanite (Li2 Ti2O5) (b) sodium pentatitanate (4 Na2O, 5 TiO2) (c) ferrous titanate (Fe TiO3), (d) potassium metatitanate (K2 TiO3), 91. There are two basic processes for industrial production of TiO2 : chloride process and sulfate process. In India the process (es) which is/are mostly employed is (a) chloride process, (b) sulfate process, (c) both (a) and (b), (d) none of the above; TiO2 is not produced at all in India, it is entirely imported from USA. 92. Raw material for the production of titanium dioxide by chloride process is (a) rutile mineral, (b) ilmenite, (c) titanium trichloride, (d) butyl titanate, 93. More than 75% of the total TiO2 pigment production in USA occurs by (a) sulfate process, (b) chloride process, (c) a new process which is a combination of both sulfate and chloride processes. 94. TiO2 pigments of superior quality is produced by (a) chloride process, (b) sulfate process, (c) the question has been wrongly posed because both processes produce pigment of the same quality starting from different raw materials. 95. In the Clause process elemental sulfur is produced (a) by oxidation of hydrogen sulfide obtained from sour natural gas well or petroleum refineries, (b) by solvent extraction from iron pyrites, (c) by reduction of sulfur dioxide in presence of hydrogen, (d) none of the above; in chemical technology there is no process called clean processes. The question has been set to confuse the students. 96. Sulfur is one of the few materials whose quantity is often expressed in (a) metric tons (2204.6 lb), (b) long tons (2240 lb), (c) short tons (2000 lb), (d) none of the above, 97. 20 % oleum is (a) 20 % SO3 in 80% H2SO4 (no water), (c) 80 % SO3 in 100% H2SO4 98. The largest use of sulfuric acid is in (a) iron and steel pickling, (c) copper leaching,

(b) 20 % SO3 in 100% H2SO4 (d) none of the above,

(b) petroleum refining, (d) fertilizer manufacture,

99. A good indicator of economic strength of a product is a high percentage of capacity being utilized. If production is 70% of capacity, it usually means that (a) the product is in appropriate demand, (b) there is a diminishing trend in the demand of the product, (c) there is no demand for the product and production should be stopped immediately. (d) The plant is operating with a faulty technology, 100. Most sulfuric acid plants in USA manufacture between (a) 50 to 100 tons per day, (b) 200 to 400 tons per day, (c) 200 to 1000 tons per day, (d) 200 to 2400 tons per day,

101. Which of the following chemical company in USA is the largest producer of sulfuric acid (a) Rohm and Haas, (b) American Cyanamid, (c) Air Products, (d) Stauffer Chemical, 102. Sodium tripoly phosphate (STPP) is used as (a) a reinforcing agent in elastomers, (b) a raw material in the production of food grade phosphoric acid, (c) a builder in detergents, (d) all of the foregoing, 103. Sodium tripolyphosphate has a been used in USA as a detergent-builder since 1947, major functions are (a) sequestering polyvalent metal ions, (b) preventing redeposition of dirts, controlling corrosion and deposits in the line of automatic washers (c) buffering the aqueous medium at pH between 9 and 10, killing some bacteria (d) all of the above 104. The use of sodium tripoly phosphate as a builder in detergents is disadvantageous from the point of view of (a) carcinogenicity of the compound, 0 (b) proneness to its decomposition at temp. above 30 C giving off noxious gases (c) cutrophication of lakes, (d) its excessively high cost, 105. Which of the following is an important reinforcing agent for various elastomers ? (a) sodium sulfate, (b) barium carbonate, (c) sodium sesquisilicate, (d) carbon black, 106. In the DCDA process of sulfuric acid manufacture the objective is to (a) control environmental pollution due to emission of SO2/SO3 gases, (b) increase the yield of sulfuric acid per unit quantity of sulfur consumed, (c) raise steam production; per unit mass of sulfuric acid produced, (d) make the plant more economic on scale, 107. Indicate which one of the following could be considered as disadvantage of the membrane cell process for caustic soda production. . (a) production of more effluent and use of costly membrane (b) inability to produce 48% caustic soda solution, (c) requirement of ultrapure brine, (d) all of the above 108. The most important process currently used for industrial production of carbon black is (a) furnace black process, (b) channel black process, (c) lamp black process, (d) thermal black process, 109. Higher yield of carbon black is achieved starting with (a) aliphatic hydrocarbon raw materials, (b) aromatic hydrocarbon raw materials, (c) carbon disulfide as raw materials, (d) chloro fluoro hydrocarbons as raw materials, 110. The specific surface areas of carbon blacks used as reinforcing fillers in tire treads lie between 2 2 (a) 1 to 10 m /gm. (b) 80 to 150 m /gm, 2 2 (c) 300 to 400 m /gm, (d) 800 to 1000 m /gm, 111. The ash content of most furnace blacks is (a) less than 1 wt %, (b) around 10 wt %, (c) around 25 wt %, (d) none of the foregoing, 112. Which of the following varieties of silica gel is used for water adsorption at high humidities ? 2 (a) regular-density gel having surface area of around 750-800 m /g. 2 (b) intermediate-density gel having surface area of around 300-350 m /g. 2 (c) low-density gel having surface area of around 100-200 m /g. 113. Besides three basic elements of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, which are common to all plants, there are sixteen other elements known to be essential for good plant growth. Of the sixteen elements, nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are (a) primary nutrients, (b) secondary nutrients, (d) micro nutrients, 114. Secondary nutrients in fertilizers are (a) baron, copper, manganese, (b) calcium, molybdenum, zinc, (c) iron, sulfur, molybdenum, (d) calcium, magnesium, sulfur,

115. Which of the following are the micro-nutrients for plant ? (a) Boron, chlorine, copper, (b) iron, manganese, molybdenum, zinc, (c) cobalt, fluorine, iodine, (d) all of the foregoing, 116. Fertilizers containing all three primary nutrients are called mixed fertilizers whereas fertilizers containing only one active ingredient are called direct application fertilizers. The use of direct application fertilizer is increasing because (a) ammonia gas is becoming popular, (b) ammonia gas can be directly pumped in 7.5 to 15 cm beneath the soil during ploughing, (c) ammonia gas is rapidly absorbed by the soil, (d) all of the foregoing, 117. Mixed fertilizer having its grade designated by, 5 25 10, means (a) the fertilizer contains 5% by weight elemental nitrogen, 25% by weight P 2O5, and 10% by weight K2O. (b) the fertilizer contains 5% by weight ammonia, 25% by weight phosphoric acid, and 10% by weight potassium chloride, (c) the fertilizer contains 5% by weight K2O, 25% by weight NH3, and 10% by weight P2O5. (d) the fertilizer contains 5% by weight P2O5, 25% by weight NH4Cl, and 10% by weight K2O. 118. Ammonia, urea, ammonium nitrate and ammonium sulfate are used as sources of nitrogen in mixed fertilizers. A nitrogen solution having code number 392 (20 63 5) means the fertilizer contains (a) 39.2% ammonia, 20% urea, 63% ammonium nitrate and 5% ammonium sulfate, (b) 39.2% total nitrogen, 20% free ammonia, 63% ammonium nitrate and 5% urea with the rest being water, (c) 39.2% total nitrogen, 20% urea, 63% ammonium nitrate and 5% ammonium sulfate with the rest being water, (d) 39.2% total nitrogen, 20% ammonium nitrate, 63% free ammonia and 5% urea with the rest being water, [ Note: More than 100 varieties of nitrogen solutions are marketed in USA as fertilizers ] 119. Mixed solid fertilizers can be made by (a) direct granulation, (b) bulk blending, (c) both (a) and (b), (d) neither (a) nor (b); solutions of different fertilizers are mixed together and the solution so obtained is cooled to crystallize out the mixed solid fertilizer which is subsequently dried and marketed. 120. Between 1950 and 1980 world wide fertilizer consumption increased by a factor of around (a) four, (b) six, (c) eight, (d) sixteen, 121. In 1980 the world consumption of fertilizers was approximately (a) 27 million tons, (b) 56 million tons, (c) 81 million tons, (d) 114 million tons, 122. Basic steps in the urea manufacturing process are (a) NH3 and CO2 are reacted at high temperature and pressure to form ammonium carbonate, (b) The carbonate is then dehydrated to urea and water, One of these two steps is exothermic and the other is endothermic. Which one is the exothermic step? 123. In the urea manufacturing process, feed to the urea reactor consists of NH3 and CO2 in the under ratio of (a) 1 : 3-4, (b) 1 : 1, (c) 3 3.5 : 1 (d) none of the foregoing, 124. Temperature and pressure in the urea reactor are of the order of o o (a) 50 70 C, 1000 bar, (b)110140 C, 300 bar, o o (c) 30 60 C, 700 bar, (b)180210 C, 150 bar,

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