ACOUSTICS Acoustics (C2 Past Board: excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 What do you call the speed of sound in the study of acoustics? Tempo ECE Board Exam November 2000 In the study of acoustics, the velocity of sound is dependent to one of the following: Properties of the medium ECE Board Exam Apri1 2000 How much bigger in storage capacity has digital video disk (DVD) have over the conventional compact disk (CD)? Around 15 times ECE Board Exam November 1999 A sound intensity that could cause painful sensation In a human ear Threshold of pain ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the following is the hearing range of the human ear? The range of the human hearing is from 20 Hz to 20 kHz ECE Board Exam April 1998 An instrument for recording waveforms of audio frequency. Phonoscope ECE Board Exam November 1997/April 2000 Designates the sensation of low or high in the sense of the base and treble. Pitch ECE Board Exam April 1997 The sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time. Sound intensity ECE Board Exam November 1996 Speaker is a device that ___________ converts current variations into sound waves ECE Board Exam March 1996 One-hundred twenty bars of pressure variation is equal to

ECE Board Exam April 2000 The term that describes the highness or lowness of a sound in the study of acoustics is called a Pitch ECE Board Exam November 1999 The method of measuring absorption coefficient of sound which considers all angles of incidence is called reverberation chamber method ECE Board Exam March 1996 The midrange frequency range of sound is from 256 to 2048 Hz ECE Board Exam November 1997 A large speaker having a large diameter (15 cm and above). Woofer ECE Board Exam April 1997 _______ is the transmission of sound from one to an adjacent room thru common walls, floors or ceilings. Flanking transmission ECE Board Exam November 1996 ___________ is the advantage rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a cross sectional area of 1 sq. m. at right angle to the direction. Sound intensity ECE Board Exam November 1997 A method of expressing the amplitude of a complex non-periodic signals such as speech. Volume ECE Board Exam April 1997

The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1 km is 160 dB (re 10^-12). What is the maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly below the plane assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions?

ECE Board Exam November 1996 The unit of pitch. Mel ECE Board Exam November 1997/April 1997 The tendency of the sound energy to spread. Diffraction ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the following is considered the most commonly used measurable components of sound? Particle displacement ECE Board Exam April 1997 Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument. Fundamental ECE Board Exam November 1997 Sound intensity is given as dP/dA ECE Board Exam April 1997 Tendency of sound energy to spread Diffraction ECE Board Exam November 1997 The lowest frequency produced by an instrument. Fundamental ECE Board Exam March 1996 A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 ft away. At distance, what is the sound power in watt?

0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Acoustics and Brodcasting, Communications, Past Board

Friday, October 22, 2010

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]
1. a. b. c. d. 2. a. b. c. d. 3. a. b. c. d. 4. a. b. c. d. 5. a. b. c. d. Which best describe the sound wave? It may be longitudinal It is always transverse It is always longitudinal All of the above Which of the following can not travel through a vacuum? Electromagnetic wave Radio wave Soundwave Light wave Through which medium does sound travel fastest? Air Water Steel Mercury Speed that is faster than that of sound. Ultrasonic Supersonic Subsonic Transonic What is the speed of sound in air at 20C? 1087 ft/s 1100 ft/s 1126 ft/s 200 ft/s

6. a. b. c. d. 7. a. b. c. d. 8. a. b. c. d. 9. a. b. c. d. 10. a. b. c. d. 11. a. b. c. d. 12. a. b. c. d. 13. a. b. c. d. 14. which a. b. c. d. 15. a.

Calculate a half wavelength sound for sound of 16000 Hz 35 ft 10 ft 0.035 ft 100 ft The lowest frequency that a human ear can hear is 5 Hz 20 Hz 30 Hz 20 Hz Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz) Subsonic Ultrasonic Transonic Stereo The frequency interval between two sounds whose frequency ratio is 10 Octave Half octave Third-octave Decade A 16 KHz sound is how many octaves higher than a 500 Hz sound 2 5 4 8 Sound waves composed of but one frequency is a/an Infra sound Pure tone Structure borne Residual sound Sound wave has two main characteristics which are Highness and loudness Tone and loudness Pitch and loudness Rarefactions and compressions When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called Reflection Diffraction Rarefaction Refraction The amplitude of sound waves, the maximum displacement of each air particle, is the property perceive as _____ of a sound Pitch Intensity Loudness Harmonics It is the weakest sound that average human hearing can detect. SPL = 0 dB

b. c. d. 16. a. b. c. d.

Threshold of hearing Reference pressure = 2 x 10-5N/m2 A, b, c What is a device that is used to measure the hearing sensitivity of a person? Audiometer OTDR SLM Spectrum analyzer

17. What is the device used in measuring sound pressure levels incorporating a microphone, amplification, filtering and a display. a. Audiometer b. OTDR c. SLM d. Spectrum analyzer 18. What weighted scale in a sound level meter gives a reading that is most closely to the response of the human ear? a. Weighted scale A b. Weighted scale B c. Weighted scale C d. Weighted scale D 19. a. b. c. d. 20. a. b. c. d. 21. a. b. c. d. 22. a. b. c. d. 23. a. b. c. d. 24. a. b. c. For aircraft noise measurements, the weighting scale that is used is _____. Weighted scale A Weighted scale B Weighted scale C Weighted scale D It is the device used to calibrate an SLM? Microphone Pistonphone Telephone Filter _____ is the sound power measured over the area upon which is received. Sound pressure Sound energy Sound intensity Sound pressure level A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity Phon Decibel Pascal Watts Calculate the sound intensity level in dB of a sound whose intensity is 0.007 W/m2. 95 dB 91 dB 98 dB 101 dB What is the sound pressure level for a given sound whose RMS pressure is 200/m2? 200 dB 20 dB 140 dB

d. 25. a. b. c. d. 26. a. b. c. d. 27. a. b. c. d. 28. a. b. c. d.

14 dB What is the sound intensity for an RMS pressure of 200 Pascal? 90 W/m2 98 W/m2 108 W/m2 88 W/m2 The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the pressure is doubled. 3 4 5 6 The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the intensity is doubled. 3 4 5 6 If four identical sounds are added what is the increase in level in dB? 3 4 5 6

29. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or ceilings. a. Flanking transmission b. Reflection c. Refraction d. Reverberation 30. a. b. c. d. 31. a. b. c. d. 32. a. b. c. d. _____ is the continuing presence of an audible sound after the sound source has stop. Flutter echo Sound concentration Sound shadow Reverberation Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB Echo time Reverberation time Delay time Transient time A room containing relatively little sound absorption Dead room Anechoic room Live room Free-field

33. A room in which the walls offer essentially 100% absorption, therefore simulating free field conditions. a. Dead room b. Anechoic room c. Live room d. Closed room

34. Calculate the reverberation time of the room, which has a volume of 8700 ft3 and total sound absorption 140 sabins. a. 0.3 sec b. 3.5 sec c. 3 sec d. 0.53 sec 35. It is an audio transducer that converts acoustic pressure in air into its equivalent electrical impulses a. Loudspeaker b. Amplifier c. Baffle d. Microphone 36. a. b. c. d. 37. a. b. c. d. 38. a. b. c. d. _____ is a pressure type microphone with permanent coil as a transducing element. Dynamic Condenser Magnetic Carbon A microphone which has an internal impedance of 25 k is _____ type. High impedance Low impedance Dynamic Magnetic A microphone that uses the piezoelectric effect Dynamic Condenser Crystal Carbon

39. _____ is a type of loudspeaker driver with an effective diameter of 5 inches used at midrange audio frequency. a. Tweeter b. Woofer c. Mid-range d. A or C 40. a. b. c. d. 41. a. b. c. d. _____ is measure of how much sound is produced from the electrical signal. Sensitivity Distortion Efficiency Frequency response It describes the output of a microphone over a range of frequencies. Directivity Sensitivity Frequency response All of the above

42. A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1 mW if the electrical input is 10 W. What is its rated efficiency? a. -10 dB b. -20 dB c. -30 dB d. -40 dB

43. An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a loudspeaker. If the rated efficiency of the loudspeaker is -60 dB. What is the maximum intensity 300 ft from it? a. 10 dB b. 20 dB c. 30 dB d. 40 dB 44. a. b. c. d. 45. a. b. c. d. 46. a. b. c. d. 47. a. b. c. d. Speaker is a device that Converts sound waves into current and voltage Converts current variations into sound waves Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy Converts electrical energy to electromagnetic energy The impedance of most drivers is about _____ ohms at their resonant frequency. 4 6 8 10 It is a transducer used to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. Microphone Baffle Magnetic assemble Driver It is an enclosure used to prevent front and back wave cancellation. Loudspeaker Driver Baffle Frame

48. A circuit that divides the frequency components into separate bands in order to have individual feeds to the different drivers. a. Suspension system b. Dividing network c. Magnet assembly d. Panel board 49. a. b. c. d. 50. a. b. c. d. _____ is early reflection of sound. Echo Pure sound Reverberation Intelligible sound Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. Dolby DBx dBa dBk

51. Using a microphone at less than the recommended working distance will create a _____ which greatly increases the low frequency signals. a. Roll-off b. Proximity effect c. Drop out d. None of the choices 52. What is the unit of loudness?

a. b. c. d. 53. a. b. c. d. 54. a. b. c. d.

Sone Phon Decibel Mel A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level Noy dB Sone Phon What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if its intensity is 100 phons 105 phons 110 phons 100 phons 1 x 10-5W/cm2?

55. What is the process of sending voice, speech, music or image intended for reception by the general public? a. Navigation b. Telephony c. Broadcasting d. Mixing 56. a. b. c. d. 57. a. b. c. d. 58. a. b. c. d. 59. a. b. c. d. What is the frequency tolerance for the RF carrier in the standard AM radio broadcast band? Zero 20 Hz 10 Hz 20 KHz The transmitting antenna for an AM broadcast station should have a _____ polarization. Vertical Horizontal Circular Elliptical The part of a broadcast day from 6 PM to 6 AM local time Daytime Nighttime Bed time Experimental period The service area where the signal is not subject to fading and co-channel interference. Primary Service Area Secondary Service Area Intermittent Service Area Quarternary Service Area

60. It is a resistive load used in place of an antenna to test a transmitter under normal loaded condition without actually radiating the transmitters output signal. a. Auxiliary Tx b. Main Tx c. Secondary Tx d. Artificial Antenna 61. The operating power of the auxiliary transmitter shall not be less than _____% or never greater than the authorized operating power of the main transmitter. a. 5 b. 10

c. d. 62. a. b. c. d. 63. a. b. c. d.

15 20 What are the frequency limits of the MF BC band? 300-3000 kHz 3-30 MHz 535-1605 kHz 88-108 MHz The center to center spacing between two adjacent stations in the Phil. AM BC band is ____. 9 kHz 200 kHz 36 kHz 800 kHz

64. How many AM stations can be accommodated in a 150-kHz bandwidth if the highest modulating frequency is 10 kHz? a. 10 b. 15 c. 7 d. 14 65. a. b. c. d. 66. a. b. c. d. 67. a. b. c. d. 68. a. b. c. d. 69. a. b. c. d. 70. a. b. c. d. Short wave broadcasting operates in what band? MF HF VHF VLF What does the acronym STL stand for? Station-to-link Signal-to-loss-ratio Shout-to-live Studio-to-transmitter-link One of the main considerations in the selection of antenna site is (AM) Conductivity of the soil Height of the terrain Elevation of the site Accessibility One of the broadcast transmission auxiliary services is: Remote pick-up STL Communication, Coordination and Control All of the above What is the spacing between any two adjacent channels in the FM broadcast band? 20 KHz 36 KHz 200 KHz 800 KHz The first channel in the FM BC band has a center frequency of 88 MHz 88.1 MHz 88.3 MHz 108 MHz

71. What is the radio transmission of two separate signals, left, and right, used to create a multidimensional effect on the receiver? a. SCA b. Stereo system c. Pilot transmission d. Monophonic transmission 72. a. b. c. d. 73. a. b. c. d. 74. a. b. c. d. 75. does? a. b. c. d. 76. a. b. c. d. 77. a. b. c. d. 78. a. b. c. d. 79. a. b. c. d. 80. a. b. The carrier frequency tolerance for FM broadcasting is _____. 25 kHz 2 kHz 20 kHz 30 kHz What is the modulation used by the stereophonic subcarrier? FM PM ISB DSB What is the pilot signal for stereo FM? 4.25 MHz 10 kHz 19 KHz 38 KHz With stereo FM transmission, does a monaural receiver produce all the sounds that a stereo Yes No Either a or b Neither a or b Where is de-emphasis added in a stereo FM system? Before the matrix at the TX Before the matrix at the RX After the matrix at the TX After the matrix at the RX Where is the pre-emphasis added in a stereo FM system? Before the matrix at the TX Before the matrix at the RX After the matrix at the TX After the matrix at the RX The normal frequency for an SCA subcarrier is _____ KHz. 67 76 38 19 A monaural FM receiver receives only the _____ signal of a stereo multiplex transmission. L+R LR Both a & b 67 KHz When fed to the stereo FM modulator, in what form are the L R signals? AF DSBSC

c. d.

19 kHz 38 kHz

81. An additional channel of multiplex information that is authorized by the FCC for stereo FM radio stations to feed services such as commercial-free programming to selected customers. a. STL b. EBS c. EIA d. SCA 82. a. b. c. d. The class of FM station, which has an authorized radiated power not exceeding 125 KW: Class C Class A Class D Class B

83. An FM broadcast station, which has an authorized transmitter power not exceeding 10 KW and ERP not exceeding 30 KW: a. Class D b. Class C c. Class A d. Class B 84. a. b. c. d. 85. a. b. c. d. 86. a. b. c. d. A class of FM station which is limited in antenna height of 500 ft. above average terrain Class D Class C Class A Class B What type of broadcast service might have their antennas on top of hills? FM AM TV A&C How are guardbands allocated in commercial FM stations? 25 kHz on either sides of the transmitting signal 50 kHz on each side of the carrier 75 kHz deviation 15 kHz modulation

87. How many commercial FM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a commercial TV station? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 88. How many international commercial AM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a commercial TV station? a. 100 b. 200 c. 125 d. 600 89. What kind of modulation is used for the sound portion of a commercial broadcast TV transmission? a. PM

b. c. d. 90. a. b. c. d.

FM C3F AM Estimate the bandwidth occupied by the sound portion of a TV transmission in US. 25 kHz 800 kHz 80 kHz 200 kHz

91. What is the main reason why television picture signal uses amplitude modulation, while voice is frequency modulated? a. Better efficiency b. Eliminate attenuation of both video and audio c. Maintain synchronized scanning between transmit and received video d. To minimize interference between signals at received end 92. a. b. c. d. 93. a. b. c. d. 94. a. b. c. d. 95. a. b. c. d. 96. a. b. c. d. 97. a. b. c. d. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver are _____ respectively. 41.25 MHz, 45.75 MHz 45.25 MHz, 41.75 MHz 41.75 MHz, 45.25 MHz 45.75 MHz, 41.25 MHz What is the separation between visual and aural carrier in TV broadcasting? 1.25 MHz 4.5 MHz 5.75 MHz 0.25 MHz What is the separation between the lower limit of a channel and the aural carrier? 1.25 MHz 4.5 MHz 5.75 MHz 0.25 MHz What is the visual carrier for channel 12? 205.25 MHz 55.25 MHz 65.75 MHz 59.75 MHz What is the aural carrier for channel 3? 61.25 MHz 55.25 MHz 65.75 MHz 59.75 MHz What is color subcarrier for channel 2? 68.83 MHz 211.25 MHz 58.83 MHz 214.83 MHz

98. If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23 is 529.75 MHz, what is the frequency of the tuners local oscillator, when turned to this channel? a. 571 MHz b. 511 MHz c. 498 MHz

d. 99. a. b. c. d. 100. a b c d 101. a. b. c. d. 102. a. b. c. d.

500 MHz What is the frequency tolerance in the color carrier of TV broadcasting? 2 kHz 20 Hz 10 Hz 1 kHz What is the exact picture carrier frequency for frequency for channel 7 offset by 10 KHz? 175.25 MHz 175.26 MHz 174 MHz 175.24 MHz TV channels 7, 11 and 13 are known as _____. Mid band UHF Low band UHF High band VHF low band UHF What is eliminated by using interlaced scanning? Noise Excessive BW Frame Flicker

a. b. c. d.

103. What percentage of the primary colors used in color TV are needed to produce the brightest white? 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue 33% red, 33% green, 33% blue 50% red, 28% green, 22% blue 58% red, 20% green, 22% blue 104. Red Yellow Green Blue The color with the most luminance is

a. b. c. d.

105. Suppose the signal from a color camera has R=0.8, G=0.4 and B=0.2, where 1 represents the maximum signal possible. Determine the value at the luminance signal a. 0.498 b. 0.254 c. 0.1325 d. 1.4 106. a. b. c. d. 107. a. b. c. d. In the previous problem, calculate the chrominance signal 0.305 0.304 0.498 0.022 The three complementary colors are: White, yellow, cyan Black, white, gray Yellow, magenta, cyan Violet, indigo, fushcia

108. a. b. c. d. 109. violet, a. b. c. d. 110. a. b. c. d. 111. a. b. c. d. 112. MHz C a. b. c. d. 113. MHz C a. b. c. d. 114. gain of a. b. c. d. 115. a. b. c. d. 116. a. b. c. d.

When the colors Magenta and Yellow are mixed the resultant color is: Red White Blue Green Which of the following consist of two of the three primary colors in television signal? a) red, b) c) yellow, and d) blue A and B B and C C and D A and D The studio camera produces a luminance signal that contains information about The musical content The speech content The brightness of the scene The color content of the scene Brightness variations of the picture information are in which signal? I Q Y Z Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58 signal with bandwidth of 0 to 1.3 MHz? I signal Q signal Y signal X signal Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58 signal in quadrature with bandwidth of 0 to 0.5 MHz? I signal Q signal Y signal Z signal The _____ affects the difference between black and white on the picture tube and controls the the video amplifier Brightness control Volume control Power control Contrast control Which of the following is not a requirement for a color TV signal? compatibility with b lack and white receivers Within 6 MHz bandwidth Simulate a wide variety of colors Functional with baron super antenna How many electron beams actually leave the electron gun of a single-gun color CRT? 1 2 3 1/3

117. a. b. c. d. 118. a. b. c. d. 119. a. b. c. d. 120. a. b. c. d. 121. a. b. c. d. 122. a. b. c. d. 123. a. b. c. d. 124. a. b. c. d. 125. beam a. b. c. d. 126. a. b.

What is the difference between the sound carrier and color subcarrier frequencies? 1.25 MHz 3.58 MHz 4.5 MHz 0.92 MHz What does aspect ratio mean? Ratio of the screen width to its height Ratio of the screen height to its width Ratio of the screen diagonal to its width Ratio of the screen diagonal to its height What is the aspect ratio for HDTV system? 4/3 9/7 19/6 16/9 The signal that will give the exact color wavelength is _____. Hue Saturation Carrier Monochrome Which of the following represents the intensity of a given color? Hue Saturation Carrier Monochrome The _____ ensures that the electron beam will strike the correct phosphor dot on the TV screen. Coating Aperture Mask Diplexer Duplexer In a TV receiver, what is the horizontal signal frequency? 30 Hz 60 Hz 15750 Hz 157625 Hz In a TV receiver, what is the vertical signal frequency? 30 Hz 60 Hz 15750 Hz 157625 Hz What scheme is employed to cause the electron beam in the TV receiver and the electron in the studio camera to track identically? Interlacing NTSC Interleaving Transmission of sync pulses Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during Horizontal blanking Vertical blanking

c. d. 127. a. b. c. d. 128. a. b. c. d.

The serrations Equalizing intervals What is the return of the electron beam in a CRT from right to left or from bottom to top? Relay Flyback Utilization Resolution What is the North American TV standard video? PAL SECAM NTSC FCC

129. What is the maximum allowable frequency deviation in the audio section of a TV signal for PAL/SECAM? a. 25 kHz b. 50 kHz c. 75 kHz d. 100 kHz 130. a. b. c. d. 131. a. b. c. d. 132. a. b. c. d. 133. a. b. c. d. 134. a. b. c. d. What is the frame frequency in the US TV system? 30 Hz 60 Hz 15750 Hz 157625 Hz What is the highest video frequency set by the FCC for commercial TV? 4.2 MHz 15 MHz 6 MHz 5.5 MHz What determines the maximum number of vertical picture elements? Number of frames per second Number of lines on the screen Number of pixels Number of fields per second How many horizontal lines are used to develop a TV raster? 615 525 750 15750 The channel width in the U.S. TV system is : 2 MHz 6 MHz 7 MHz 8 MHz

135. It is the popular TV camera designed with much smaller package and lower cost than its earlier designs a. Image orthicon b. Iconoscope c. Vidicon d. Plumbicon

136. In a composite video signal, what is the relationship between the amplitude of the signal and the intensity of the electron beam in the receiver picture tube? a. The greater the amplitude the darker the picture b. The lower the amplitude the darker the picture c. The greater the amplitude the lighter the picture d. No effect 137. a. b. c. d. If there are 625 lines per TV picture then the number of lines per field are: 1250 312.5 625 2500

138. What is the process of placing the chrominance signal in the band space between portions of the luminance signal? a. Interlacing b. Fitting c. Sneaking d. Interleaving 139. a. b. c. d. 140. a. b. c. d. 141. a. b. c. d. 142. a. b. c. d. 143. a. b. c. d. 144. a. b. c. d. 145. a. How much time elapses between the start of one horizontal sync pulse and the next? 10.2 s 63.5 s 16.67 s 100 s Which of the following frequencies is wrong? 15,750 Hz for horizontal sync and scanning 60 Hz for vertical sync and scanning 31,500 Hz for the equalizing pulses and serrations in the vertical sync pulse 31,500 Hz for the vertical scanning frequency The camera tube that uses selenium, arsenic and tellurium Plumbicon Vidicon Saticon Silicon Vidicon The components of composite video signal are: Chroma signal Blanking pulse Synchronizing pulse All of these What is the smallest amount of information that can be displayed on a television screen? Blip Burst Pixel Bits It is the quality of the TV picture after imperfections Aspect ratio Utilization ratio A1 Monochrome What section of a TV receiver determines the bandwidth and produces the most signal gain? RF amplifier

b. c. d.

Audio amplifier IF amplifier Tuned circuit

AMPLIFIERS

CHAPTER 14 SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS

CHAPTER 14 SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS 1. Provides dc isolation between input and output Isolation amplifier 2. Ratio of the output current to the input voltage Transconductance 3. Transconductance is __________ of an OTA Gain 4. A comparator with hysteresis where the input voltage is large enough to drive the device into its saturated states Schmitt trigger 5. The ______________ of a number is the power to which the base must be raised to get that number. Logarithm 6. An amplifier that produces an output that is proportional to the logarithm of the input. Log amplifier 7. Used in applications where it is necessary to have an output current that is controlled by an input voltage. Voltage-to-current converter 8. The circuit used to detect the peak of the input voltage and store that peak voltage on a capacitor. Peak detector 9. The exponent to which the base e must be raised in order to equal a given quantity. Natural logarithm 10. In an OTA, transconductance varies with _________. Bias current 11. Amplifiers that are often used in HF communication systems, including fiber optics, for

processing wide dynamic range signals. Log and antilog amplifiers 12. The key characterisctic of an instrumentation amplifier CMRR 13. The voltage gain of instrumentation amplifier is set by a Resistor 14. The log amplifier may use the ___________ junction of a BJT in the feedback loop Base-emitter 15. The main purpose of an instrumentation amplifier is to amplify _____ signals that are riding on _____ common-mode voltages. small, large 16. The ___________ of an OTA is the input voltage times the transconductance Output current 17. The operation of log and antilog amplifiers is based on the __________ characteristics of a pn junction Nonlinear (logarithmic) 18. A log amplifier has a pn junction in the feedback loop, and an antilog amplifier has a pn junction in __________ with the input Series 19. In a peak detector, an op-amp is used as a __________ to charge a capacitor through a diode to the peak value of the input voltage. Comparator 20. A basic instrumentation amplifier is formed by three op-amps and ________ resistors, including the gain setting resistor. Seven (7) 21. An oscillator that can be either amplitude or pulse modulated by the signal from the input amplifier High-frequency oscillator 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 13 BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS

CHAPTER 13 BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS 1. A common interfacing process often used when a linear analog system must provide inputs to a digital system. A/D conversion 2. Method of A/D conversion that uses parallel comparators to compare the linear input signal with various reference voltages developed by a voltage divider Flash 3. Produces an output that is proportional to the rate of change of the input voltage Differentiator 4. The difference between the UTP and the LTP Hysteresis voltage 5. Used to generate pulse waveform from the sine wave output of the audio generator. Voltage comparator 6. When the output is at the maximum positive voltage and the input exceeds UTP, the output switches to the _________ negative voltage Maximum 7. Uses a capacitor in the feedback path which is open to dc. This implies that the gain at dc is the open-loop gain of the op-amp. Practical integrator 8. Gives an op-amp noise immunity Hysteresis 9. Used to detect positive and negative voltages by connecting a fixed reference voltage source to the inverting input of a zero-level detector. Nonzero-Level detection 10. A good example of hysteresis Thermostat 11. A comparator with three trigger points Schmitt Trigger 12. The output of Schmitt trigger is Pulse waveform 13. In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode is used in the feedback loop? Zener

14. Necessary components for the design of a bounded comparator Rectifier and zener diodes 15. Type of circuit that uses comparators Nonzero-level detector 16. Variations of the basic summing amplifier Averaging and scaling amplifier 17. Differentiation of a ramp input produces a step output with an amplitude proportional to the _________ Slope 18. Another term for flash Simultaneous 19. Integration of a step input produces a ramp output with the slope proportional to the _________ Amplitude 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 12 THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER

CHAPTER 12 THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER 1. The measure of an amplifiers ability to reject common-mode signals CMRR 2. It is the typical value of input offset voltage in the ideal case. 0V 3. It is the dc current required by the inputs of the amplifier to properly operate the first stage. Input bias current 4. It is the resistance viewed from the output terminal of the op-amp Output impedance 5. The total resistance between the inverting and noninverting inputs Differential input impedance 6. Differential impedance is measured by determining the change in ___________ for a given change in differential input voltage.

Bias current 7. Common temperature coefficient for the offset current 0.5nA/C 8. Functions of negative feedback in an op-amp Stabilize gain and increase frequency response 9. The voltage gain of an op-amp with external feedback Closed-loop voltage gain 10. A special case of the noninverting amplifier where all of the output voltage is fed back to the inverting input by a straight connection Voltage-follower configuration 11. The value of the frequency at which the gain steadily decreases to a point where it is equal to unity Unity-gain frequency Or unity gain bandwidth 12. It is always equal to the frequency at which the op-amps open- loop gain is unity or 0 dB. Gain-bandwidth product 13. The relative angular displacement of a time-varying function relative to a reference. Phase shift 14. The three terminals of the basic op-amp not including power and ground Inverting input, noninverting input, and output 15. It has the highest input impedance and the lowest output impedance of the three amplifier configurations Voltage-follower 16. The _________ of an op-amp equals the upper critical frequency. Bandwidth 17. Two types of op-amp input operation. Differential mode and common-mode 18. A ____________ differentiator uses a capacitor in series with the inverting input. Ideal 19. An ideal op-amp has ___________ value for voltage gain, bandwidth, and input impedance. Infinite 20. What should be the output voltage of an op-amp when the differential input is zero Zero

21. The ideal op-amp has __________ output impedance Zero 22. The three basic op-amp configurations Inverting, noninverting, and voltage follower 23. The closed-loop voltage gain is _________ than the open-loop voltage gain. (more or less) Less 24. Does the gain of an op-amp decreases or increases as frequency increases above the critical frequency Decreases 25. Devices such as the diode and the transistor which are separate devices that are individually packaged and interconnected in a circuit with other devices to form a complete, functional unit. Discrete components 26. Most op-amps operate with how many dc supply voltage? 2 (positive and negative) 27. Datasheets often refer to the open-loop voltage gain as the ______________ Large-signal voltage gain 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 10 AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE

CHAPTER 10 AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE 1. The frequency at which the output power drops to one-half of its midrange value Corner frequency 2. At the critical frequencies the output voltage is 70.7% of its midrange value. What is the value of voltage gain in dB? -3 dB 3. What is the other term for lower critical frequency? All of the above 4. The condition where the gain is down 3 dB is logically called _________ of the amplifier response -3 dB point 5. The upper and lower dominant critical frequencies are sometimes called

Half-power frequencies 6. A characteristic of an amplifier in which the product of the voltage gain and the bandwidth is always constant when the roll-off is -20 dB/ decade. Gain-bandwidth product 7. Critical frequencies are values of frequency at which the RC circuits reduce the voltage gain to ____________ of its midrange value. 70.7% 8. An octave of frequency change is a ________ -times change 2 9. Which of the following has no effect on the low-frequency response? Internal transistor capacitances 10. What is the gain that occurs for the range of frequencies between the lower and upper critical frequencies? Midrange gain 11. Which of the following is not a method in frequency response measurement? Roll-off measurement 12. If the voltage gain is less than one, what is the value of the dB gain? Negative 13. A plot of dB voltage gain versus frequency on semilog graph paper Bode plot 14. The critical frequency at which the curve breaks into a -20dB/decade drop Lower break frequency 15. The change in gain or phase shift over a specified range of input signal frequencies Frequency response 16. A unit of logarithmic gain measurement and is commonly used to express amplifier response Decibel 17. The lower and upper critical frequencies of an amplifier can be determined using the _____________ method by applying a voltage step to the input of the amplifier and measuring the rise and fall times of the resulting output voltage Step-response method 18. The coupling an bypass capacitors of an amplifier affect the _________ frequency response: high or low Low

19. The internal transistor capacitances affect the _________ frequency response: high or low High 20. Two frequency response measurement Frequency/amplitude and step 21. The Miller input and output capacitances for a BJT inverting amplifier depends on Voltage gain 22. When dB is negative, it is usually called_______ Attenuation 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

Friday, September 23, 2011

CHAPTER 9 FET AMPLIFIERS AND SWITCHING CIRCUITS
CHAPTER 9 FET AMPLIFIERS AND SWITCHING CIRCUITS 1. An amplifier that primarily uses only MOSFETs. Class D 2. A process in which an input signal is converted to a series of pulses with widths that varies proportionally to the amplitude of the input signal. PWM 3. It removes the modulating frequency and harmonics and passes only the original signal to the output. Low-Pass Filter 4. The voltage gain of a common-drain amplifier is always Slightly less than 1 5. The load resistance connected to the drain of a common-source amplifier reduces ____________ Voltage gain 6. What is the relationship between the input resistance of a common-gate amplifier to its transconductance? They are inversely proportional 7. The efficiency of a class D amplifier approaches 100%

8. The input signal is applied to the gate and the output is taken from source Common-drain 9. A nonlinear amplifier in which the transistors are operated as switches Class D 10. A device that switches an analog signal on and off Analog switch 11. Consists of two or more analog switches that connect sample portions of their analog input signals to single output in a time sequence Analog multiplexer 12. Used in low-power digital switching circuits CMOS 13. Amplifier commonly used as frequency multiplier Class C 14. The least efficient amplifier Class A 15. An amplifier that is biased below cutoff Class c 16. A class of amplifier that operates in the linear region for only a small part of the input cycle Class C 17. In a class AB amplifier, if the VBE drops are not matched to the diode drops or if the diodes are not in thermal equilibrium with the transistors, this can result in Thermal runaway 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 7 POWER AMPLIFIERS

CHAPTER 7 POWER AMPLIFIERS 1. It is the product of Q-point current and voltage of a transistor with no signal input Power dissipation 2. The ____________ of an amplifier is the ratio of the output signal power supplied to a load to the total power from the dc supply.

Efficiency 3. Which amplifier operates in the linear region for 180 deg. Of the input cycle when biased in cutoff and is in cutoff for 180 deg? Class B 4. These amplifiers are biased to conduct for slightly more than 180 deg. Class AB 5. An amplifier that is generally used in Radio Frequency applications Class C 6. Implemented with a laser diode Current mirror 7. An amplifier that is biased below cutoff and is normally operated with resonant circuit load Class C 8. The four classes of power amplifiers are classified based on the percentage of the ____________which the amplifier operates in its ________region Input cycle, linear 9. It is the ratio of the output power to the input power Power gain 10. Product of the rms load current and the rms load voltage Output power 11. A type of class B amplifier with two transistors in which one transistor conducts for one halfcycle and the other conducts for the other half-cycle Push-pull 12. Amplifiers that are generally used in Radio Frequency Applications. Class C amplifiers 13. Another term for complementary Darlington Sziklai pair 14. An advantage of push-pull class B and class AB amplifiers over class A Efficiency 15. The Q-point is at _________ at class B operation Cutoff 16. Operates in the linear region where the output signal is an amplified replica of the input signal Class A

17. Amplifiers that have the objective of delivering power to a load Power amplifers 18. When the Q-point is at the center of the ac load line, a maximum class ________ signal can be obtained. A 19. The maximum efficiency of capacitively coupled class A amplifier cannot be higher than 25% 20. The low efficiency of class A amplifiers limits their usefulness to small power applications that require usually less than ________. 1W 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 6 BJT AMPLIFIERS

CHAPTER 6 BJT AMPLIFIERS 1. Amplifiers designed to handle small __________ signals are referred to as small-signal amplifiers. ac only 2. Which of the r parameters is the most important? re 3. Determine the ac emitter resistance that is operating with a dc emitter current of 5mA. 5.0 4. If ac=hfe, ac=? hfb 5. Which of the three amplifier configurations exhibit high voltage gain and high current gain? Common-emitter 6. An amplifier configuration which has a voltage gain of approximately 1, a high input resistance and current gain, Common-collector 7. An amplifier configuration which provides high voltage gain with a maximum current gain of 1. Common-base

8. Which of the amplifier configurations is the most appropriate for certain applications where sources tend to have low-resistance outputs? Common-base 9. In a common-emitter amplifier, any change in input signal voltage results in Opposite change in collector signal voltage 10. The ac voltage gain is the ratio of ac output voltage at the collector to ac input voltage at the base 11. the reduction in signal voltage as it passes through a circuit attenuation 12. the overall voltage gain of the common-emitter amplifier is the product of the voltage gain from base to collector and reciprocal of the attenuation 13. Without the bypass capacitor, the CE amplifiers emitter is no longer at ac ground. How does this affect the amplifier? It decreases the ac voltage gain 14. The measure of how well an amplifier maintains its design values over changes in temperature, Stability 15. Swamping is a method used to minimize the effect of the ____________without reducing the voltage gain to its minimum value. ac emitter resistance 16. ___________ contains two transistors. The collectors of two transistors are connected and the emitter of the first drives the base of the second. Darlington pair 17. _____________ consists of two types of transistors, npn and a pnp. Complementary Darlington 18. An amplifier configuration in which the input signal is capacitively coupled to the emitter and the output is capacitively coupled from the collector, Common-base 19. Which of the amplifier configurations is/are useful at high frequencies when impedance matching is required? Common-base 20. The power gain of a common-base amplifier is approximately equal to Voltage gain

21. BJT amplifier that produces output that are a function of the difference between two input voltages, Differential amplifier 22. Ideally, a diff-amp provides a very high gain for single-ended or differential signals and _____________ gain for common-mode signals. 0 23. Input signals are out of phase Differential amplifier
ANTENNAS

Antennas 2/2 (C6 Past board: Excel)

CONTINUATION............ ECE Board Exam November 1999 Which of the following is taken as the standard reference antenna for directive gain? Isotropic ECE Board Exam April 1998 Best description of a collinear and broadside antenna radiation pattern Bidirectional ECE Board Exam November 1997 Theoretical gain of a Herztian dipole 1.76 dB ECE Board Exam March 1996 it is a measure of the microwave power radiated from an antenna as a function of angular direction from the antenna axis Beamwidth ECE Board Exam November 2000 What would you employ or use to determine the performance of an aerial antenna, such as determination of propagation strength and direction? Radiation pattern ECE Board Exam April 2000 Find the approximate width of a pyramidal horn antenna that will operate at 10,000 MHz intended to have a beamwidth of 10 degrees. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the driven element of an antenna?

The element fed by the transmission line ECE Board Exam November 1997 The reflector and director of an antenna array are considered as Parasitic elements ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the gain of four identically polarized antennas stacked one above the other and fed in phase? 6 dB over the gain of one antenna ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you mean by the outward flow of an energy from any source in the form of radio waves. Radiation ECE Board Exam November 1997 The product of the power supplied to the antenna and its gain relative to a half-wave dipole in a given direction. ERP ECE Board Exam March 1996 Gain of an isotropic antenna 0 dB ECE Board Exam April 1997 The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to length of 3.4 m. ECE Board Exam November 2000 What is the term for a numerical ratio which relates the performance of one antenna to that of another real or theoretical antenna? Antenna gain ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following microwave antenna is normally used when obtaining an omni-directional radiation requirement? Bicone ECE Board Exam April 1998 Antenna which is not properly terminated. Resonant ECE Board Exam November 1997 Width measured in degrees of a major lobe between ends of the lobe at which the relative power is one half (-3dB) its value from the peak of the lobe. Beamwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1998 At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? Maximum voltage and minimum current ECE Board Exam November 1997 Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna. Low pass filter ECE Board Exam November 1997 Radio wave concentration in the direction of the signal emitted by a directional antenna Major lobe radiation ECE Board Exam November 2000 What is the approximate length of a half wave dipole antenna radiating at 6450 kHz? ECE Board Exam April 2000 How does the length of the director element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven element? It is about 5% shorter ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refers to a type of beam antenna which uses two or more straight elements arranged in line with each other? Yagi antenna ECE Board Exam November 2000 One of the following can be best attained by a trap antenna in radio communication Multi frequency band operation
BLAKE

Fiber-Optic Systems (Blake C25)

Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems
TRUE/FALSE 1. Most new telephone trunk cables are fiber-optic. ANS: T

2. Cable TV systems use fiber-optic cable. ANS: T 3. Many data network cables are fiber-optic. ANS: T 4. Fiber-optic cable is not practical for telephone trunk cables. ANS: F 5. CATV uses analog modulation on fiber-optic cables. ANS: T 6. Usually, splicing losses can be disregarded in loss-budget calculations. ANS: F 7. The rise time of a transmitter limits its bandwidth. ANS: T 8. RZ encoding allows twice as much pulse spreading as NRZ. ANS: F 9. The product of bandwidth times distance describes dispersion in a multimode fiber-optic cable. ANS: T 10. Regenerative repeaters for fiber-optic cables typically convert the light signal to an electrical signal, and then back to light. ANS: T 11. Optical amplifiers are not suitable for digital signals. ANS: F 12. Dispersion effects accumulate when optical amplifiers are used. ANS: T 13. Most fiber-optic systems use TDM.

ANS: T 14. Fiber-optic cables shorter than 100 km typically do not require repeaters. ANS: T 15. SONET operates at a base speed of 25 Mbps. ANS: F 16. SONET solves many of the timing problems in synchronizing digital signals. ANS: T 17. SONET is typically used on LANs. ANS: F 18. FDDI can be used on a LAN. ANS: T 19. Soliton pulses can travel down a fiber-optic cable with no dispersion. ANS: T 20. TDR cannot be used on fiber-optic cables. ANS: F MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. FDDI stands for: a. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. FITL stands for: a. Fiber In The Loop b. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A c. Frequency Input to The Loop d. Fiber Input Timing Loop c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. Frequency-Division Data Interface

3. FTTC stands for: a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. SONET stands for: a. Simple Optical Network b. Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5. DWDM stands for: a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. A Soliton is a: a. defect in the glass b. type of particle ANS: C 7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. bit stuffing c. SDH b. bit-synch d. WDM ANS: A 8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. gain margin c. excess gain b. system margin d. overdrive ANS: B c. type of pulse d. type of optical network c. Synchronous Optical Network d. none of the above

9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. 1000 miles c. 100 km b. 100 miles d. 10 km ANS: C 10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for: a. Optical Carrier level one b. Optical Coupler unidirectional ANS: A 11. In SONET, STS stands for: a. Synchronous Transport Signal b. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. FDDI c. gigabit Ethernet b. high-speed Ethernet d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. common c. obsolete b. experimental d. not possible ANS: B 14. OTDR stands for: a. Optical Time-Delay Response b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. FDDI c. FITL c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. Optical Time-Division Relay c. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. Synchronous Transmission System c. Optical Channel one d. Optical Cable type 1

b. FTTC ANS: B COMPLETION

d. SONET

1. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. ANS: Curb 2. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. ANS: Loop 3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________. ANS: Hierarchy 4. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. ANS: Wavelength 5. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network. ANS: Synchronous 6. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface. ANS: Distributed 7. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass. ANS: erbium 8. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. ANS: pump 9. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. ANS: WDM 10. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps. ANS: 51.84

11. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals. ANS: stuffing 12. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. ANS: pointer 13. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. ANS: token 14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. ANS: opposite 15. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. ANS: node 16. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables. ANS: multi 17. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps. ANS: 100 M 18. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. ANS: overhead 19. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 810 20. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 774 21. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 9

22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: 4 23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: 1 24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. ANS: transport 25. In SONET, SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________. ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: 1 MHz 2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver, and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds. ANS: 86.6 nanoseconds COACHING

Electronics Coaching notes

ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING COACHING NOTES Lead acid does not depend on: Ans: Rate of charge

ead acid consists of: Ans: Dilute sulfuric acid, sponge lead, and lead peroxide

Conputer on a chip is called: Ans: Transputer

ransputer consists of Ans: 32 bits

Nibble consists of ____ bits.

Ans: 4

OP amp has a gain of approximately Ans: 1,000,000

he voice coil has an impedance between Ans: 4 and 100 ohms.

emiconductor have ____ bonds. Ans: covalent

Nimak gantry robot has Ans: good precision positioning Sulphation in a lead acid cell is Ans: to incompletely charging

Nickel cadmium can be charged or discharged because Ans: water is neither absorbed or formed.

Daisy chaining Ans: method used in determining interrupt priorities in a microcontroller. Who coined the term robot? Ans: Karel Capek

ASER is classified as Ans: monochromatic. Coherent and collimator.

55 timer consists of Ans: astable, monostable and VCO Early effect is also called Ans: base width modulation The effect produced due to flow of electrons and holes Ans: drift current Process of adding impurities in the intrinsic semiconductor Ans: Doping What is reduced by using bundled conduction? Ans: Power loss due to corona. ________ is also called modified Maxwell Wien bridge. Ans: Anderson bridge. ________ is a bridge that compares the capacitance of the capacitor. Ans: De Soutry bridge It measures unkonown inductance in terms of resistance and capacitance. Ans: Anderson bridge An IC consists of passive devices. Ans: Film IC

 SI unit of luminous intesnisty Ans: Candela SI unit of illuminance Ans: Lux A microwave diode that has a frequency range of 10-1000 GHZ Ans: IMPATT diode A microwave diode in the negative resistance region. Ans: PIN diode Schmitt trigger acts like a Ans: Latch Fermi level is in the Ans: Forbidden gap Invalid NAND flip-flop violation Ans: S=0 C=0 Invalid NOR flip-flop violation Ans: S=1 C=1 Range of depletion width Ans: 0.5 and 1 um Impedance matching Ans: Transformer coupling and emitter follower. Maxwell-Wien bridge measures Ans: Inductance D flip-flop consists of Ans: JK flip-flop, RS flip-flop and inverter Uses binary counters Ans: D flip-flop Ideal CMRR Ans: Infinity SCARA uses ____ operation Ans: Assembly Gold doping has an advantage of Ans: Reduced storage time. It is the time for the diode to be forward biased to off time Ans: Reverse recovery time The reverse current doubles in every ___ C increase in temperature. Ans: 6 LASER and LED are in what spectrum? Ans: Infrared spectrum.

 GaAs is used for Ans: Infrared light or invisible light Tapped coil oscillator Ans: Hartley

Tickler coil oscillator Ans: Armstrong Tapped capacitor oscillator Ans: Colpitts The sediment that allows the bottom of the lead acid cell Ans: Antimony Lead alloy Two transistors in class B is in Ans: Push-pull Photodarlington consists of Ans: Transistor and phototransistor Largest voltage applied without irreversible damage Ans: PIV Thermal neutron is also called _____ neutron. Ans: Slow Avalanche breakdown is due to Ans: collision One nibble consists of Ans: 4 bits Large computer has a maximum of Ans: 64 bits Card readers can read about Ans: 10.000 cards per minute Advantage of ECL Ans: Lowest propagation delay Schottky TTL has Ans: Least propagation delay Main advantage of CMOS Ans: Low power CC voltage gain Ans: cannot be exceeded to unity. Largest voltage applied without irreversible damage Ans: PIV

 Transputer operates in Ans: parallel data It is an IC consist of passive and active devices Ans: Monolithic IC It is an IC consist of passive devices Ans: Film Discrete circuit Ans: Digital circuit Linear circuit Ans: Analog circuit Backhausen criterion is a condition that Ans: stops oscillating Negative output swing occurs Ans: near saturation

Positive output swing occurs Ans: towards cut-off When dry cell is charged, Ans: It increased in volume Class C acts Ans: as an RF amplifier Crystal uses Ans: RF transmitter A class of amplifier that has 85% efficiency Ans: Class C With Si, Z=14, it is Ans: Half-filled Formation of Si in valence shell Ans: 2, 8, 4 Volatile memory is Ans: Semiconductor ROM Semiconductor ROM is Ans: Combinational Logic circuit EPROM erases when strikes by Ans: Ultraviolet rays Bolometer acts like a Ans: Thermistor Ondograph is

Ans: A waveshape of voltage and current. Nickel iron cell consists of Ans: NiOH, powdered iron and its oxide and 21% of potassium. CE is Ans: Phase reversal Photoconductive cell is also called Ans: photoresistive cell The smallest of all h parameter is Ans: hO

he formula of h11 is Ans: V1/I1

he h parameter consists of Ans: Construction, operating point and temperature Moving coil occurs in Ans: DC

TVM internal resistance is Ans: the highest internal resistance measures magnetic properties of ferromagnetic Ans: Permeameter Simple RL low pass measures -12 dB/octave, corresponds to ___ dB/decade Ans: -40

Rotational joins of the robot is called _____ Ans: Revolute joints.

traight line joints movement of the robot is called Ans: Prismatic joints

nput and output point Ans: Handshaking

RL high pass filter has a phase difference of Ans: 45 degrees

Who invented the microprocessor in 1969? Ans: Ted Hoff

Who invented the 1st IC? Ans: Jack Kilby

I/dt of an SCR is Ans: local hot spot 3 display maximum reading Ans: 0999

 1 mV reading Ans: 1000 Straight line method Ans: piecewise linear method Improper biasing of IC Ans: causes distortion One kWh of energy is equivalent to Ans: 860 kcal

unction breakdown occurs in Ans: reverse bias Ratio of Ah and Wh is Ans: greater than one. The capacity in a cell is measured in Ans: Ah In the IC, the SiO2 layer is Ans: isolation A V/I characteristic curve is Ans: Boltzman diode characteristic. Early effect is also called Ans: base width narrowing. Advantage of Swinburnes test is Ans: very convenient and very economical. An IC consists of ceramic substrate Ans: thin film IC An IC consists of alumina substrate Ans: thick film IC It is the development of a traverse electric field in a solid material when it carries an electric current Ans: Hall effect It is used when the input signal has periodically occurring intervals in which the input waveform is quiescent Ans: synchronized clamping A circuit that produces an output only when first activated by a preliminary pulse Ans: sampling gate Successive trigerring signal induces a transition regardless of the state in which binary happens to be Ans: symmetrical triggering Both carrier drift and carrier diffusion depend on ___ Ans: Einstein relation Microprogramming is Ans: A technique to implement the control logic necessary to execute instructions within a processor.

 It is used to measure a speed by cutting off light at a regular interval Ans: Stroboscope Thermal runaway is Ans: is an electrochemical reaction that causes a battery to heat and possibly explode. A kind of ROM that degrades its own memory contents as the memory is read Ans: EAROM An inductor operates at 400 Hz Ans: Toroidal core An inductor operates at 95 MHz Ans: Air core Data bus Ans: It is data lines in a system bus. In converting intrinsic into N-type extrinsic semiconductor, which element cannot be used? Ans: Indium Pin resistor has industrial heating in Ans: Hairpin form Any solid object has ___ degrees of freedom Ans: 6 Flip-flop as a latch Ans: S-C flip flop

PIN diode Ans: A microwave diode frequencies up to GHz range. Ip/Iv of a tunnel diode is used in Ans: Computer application Noise figure of MMIC (Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit) Ans: 3.5 to 6 dB Unique advantage feature of CMOS Ans: Power in a nanowatt range Any charge in a battery when taken off the vehicle Ans: Bench charge LASCR acts like a Ans: Latch

A word has Ans: 16-bit length A double word has Ans: 32-bit length

A company who invented the word byte Ans: IBM Degrees of freedom is the number of ______ independent movements including the end effector Ans: independent An inductor operates at 400 Hz Ans: Toroidal core Percentage loss of the dc wound machine Ans: 1 % When dc voltage is removed, the clamper acts as a Ans: Rectifier CMOS has extremely Ans: Large packing density Solar cell has a principle of Ans: Photovoltaic cell Sensor that detects change in resistance in extrinsic semiconductor Ans: Spreading Resistance Sensor (SRS) Reduce the stray capacitance and capacitance between bridge arm by grounding Ans: Wagner Grounding A meter sensitivity control in a test instrument Ans: Linear Taper Potentiometer A volume control in a stereo compact disc player Ans: Logarithmic Taper Potentiometer Faster in retrieval and storage compared to magnetic tape Ans: Magnetic Disk It has more ripple in a bandpass and cut-off frequency Ans: Chebyshev filter Darlington pair of transistors is _____ by Beta factor. Ans: multiplied CCD has ___ transfer electrons Ans: 6 Neutral logic Ans: Trinary logic Totally true, totally false Ans: Fuzzy logic Which is not a factor of capacitance? Ans: Plate thickness Ideal input impedance of an op-amp Ans: Very high

Ideal output impedance of an op-amp Ans: Very low With 100 to match with higher input impedance, the configuration is Ans: Common base Optocoupler consists of an Ans: LED and phototransistor Optoisolator consists of an Ans: LED and phototransistor Positive feedback Ans: Oscillator Phase locked loop Ans: Frequency discriminator, FM detector Air as inductor core has Ans: Greatest efficiency
What increases noise immunity in op-amp?

Ans: Hysteresis
Resisitve element

Ans: Horizontal axis

Reactive element

Ans: Vertical axis

Sine wave with all harmonics

Ans: Square wave

It abruptly changes from 2 voltage leads

Ans: Square wave

63.2 %

Ans: One time constant

A sine wave oscillator, sine wave circuit

Ans: Crystal
Positive pulse on anode terminal

Ans: Turning on an SCS

3 phase rectifier that uses 6 rectifier element

Ans: Gratz rectifier

What uses as marker of 100 kHz?

Ans: 2 flip-flops
Feature of R-S to J-K flip-flop

Ans: Toggle
LC balance bridge

Ans: Maxwell bridge

Operator on microwave frequency

Ans: GaAs over Silicon or Germanium

J-K flip-flop frequency

Ans: Divides the frequency by 2.

Small capacitance formed by twisting 2 insulated wire

Ans: Gimmick Capacitor

Modified Miller circuit

Ans: Phanastron
Converts step to ramp circuit

Ans: Miller circuit

Servocontrolled robots are robots within ___ mm range rather than a fraction of mm.

Ans: 2
It is an electron tube which emits photoelectrons when the cathode is eliminated

Ans: Phototube
It is a radiant energy absorbed by the radiant to incident energy

Ans: Absorptance
Inventor circuit

Ans: Converts dc to ac circuit

Laurence or Living stone

Ans: Magnetic resonator or cyclotron

Microporgramming

Ans: Sequence of five binary codes

540 degrees

Ans: Phase opposition

Power efficiency of solar cell

Ans: 5% to 15%
Thermal detector

Ans: Bolometer
Exact location of data

Ans: Absolute code

Fundamental frequency in all harmonics

Ans: Sawtooth wave

dV/dt of SCR

Ans: False trigerring

Monolithic IC uses

Ans: Extensive large components

MOS IC uses

Ans: MOSFET

A diode with no depletion region

Ans: Schottky diode

LED emits light because

Ans: Electron and holes recombine

What is the difference on the input impedance of BJT and FET?

Ans: A FET has high input impedance while BJT has low input impedance.
Marking of scale to accept standard

Ans: Calibration
Zener diode is in

Ans: reverse diode

The temperature coefficient of extrinsic semiconductor is

Ans: negative
Voltage of selenium semiconductor

Ans: 1 V
It is preferred to manufacture diode and temperature rating

Ans: Silicon
Isotope

Ans: Abundance ratio

Electron hole pair is done by

Ans: Thermal energy

JFET square law device is because

Ans: its characteristic curve is parabolic

Tank circuit

Ans: Antiresonant
Cut-in voltage or turn on voltage current

Ans: Exponentially increases

Electron beam deflected from axial to enlarge

Ans: Deflection defocusing

Equal ratio bridge

Ans: Heaviside Campbell bridge

Silicon oxide (SiO2) is for

Ans: Insulation
APD is better than PIN diode is for

Ans: Speed of operation

Voltage for temperature stability of zener diode

Ans: 5.6 V
3 superconducting inductor in parallel

Ans: Persistor

Application of semiconductor

Ans: Wafer
LC circuit is used for

Ans: Load current

Power factor of RC is between

Ans: 0 and 1
Minimum Duty Cycle of Bust converter

Ans: Dmin = 1 2fsLc RL

Boost converter critical inductance

Ans: Lc = (1-D)2DRL 2fs

Buck Boost converter critical inductance

Ans: Lc = (1-D)2RL 2fs

Buck converter critical inductance

Ans: Lc = (1-D)RL 2fs

Typical CMRR

Ans: 100 to 10,000

Typical CMRR in dB

Ans: 40 to 80 dB
Accuracy of Wien bridge

Ans: 0.5% - 1%
Typical value of armature resistance

Ans: 0.5
The saturation voltage of an op-amp is ___ smaller than the power supply

Ans: 2 V
Solid grounding has a voltage below

Ans: 660 V
Resistance grounding has typical voltage between

Ans: 3.3 11 kV
Percentage conductivity of pure annealed silver wire

Ans: 108.8%
Percentage conductivity of 99.5% pure gold

Ans: 72.6%
Percentage conductivity of 63% pure aluminum

Ans: 63%
Corona is maximum on

Ans: transmission lines

Transformer that operates on the frequency range of 20 kHz to 20 MHz

Ans: Carrier frequency transformer

JFET configuration for buffer amplifier

Ans: common drain

JFET configuration for good voltage amplification

Ans: common source

JFET configuration for high frequency amplifier

Ans: common gate

The dc-dc converterwith unregulated input voltage and regulated output voltage

Ans: SMPS (Single Mode Power Supply)

Corona is due to

Ans: radio interference

A transformer on the frequency of 15 kHz

Ans: Converter transformer

Ingredients of wet cell

Ans: Zinc and copper

Main ingredient of dry cell

Ans: Zinc container

It reduces gain to a limiting level

Ans: Limiter
First transistor

Ans: Point contact

First fuel battery was invented by _____ in 1959.

Ans: F.T. Bacon

Unlike buck and boost converter, the buck boost converter featured output voltage:

Ans: opposite polarity to input. Lattice in which the lattice points are only shown in the crystal Ans: Bravais Lattice An error due to shortcoming of instruments Ans: Systematic error An error that cannot be corrected Ans: Random error It is a substance where the bulk is composed Ans: Element Typical voltage of lead-acid Ans: 2.1 V What type of cell used in the emergency system? Ans: Silver-zinc cell

Microcontroller consists of Ans: Microprocessor, memory, input and output unit Percentage of the transistor current flows in the collector Ans: 95% SMPC operates between ON state and OFF state at a frequency of Ans: 10 kHz and 40 kHz A camera with imaging positron effect with multiple layer of silicon detector Ans: Compton camera NMOS is _____ than PMOS Ans: 6 times What is the diameter of the wafer used in manufacturing? Ans: 3 to 8 inches Standard spacing for IC chip Ans: 2 um and 3 um Advanced spacing for IC chip Ans: 1 um BCC crystal structure Ans: Chromium HPC crystal structure Ans: Zinc Another name for differential amplifier Ans: Subtractor A factor that determines the filter response Ans: Damping factor Unity gain amplifier has ____ input impedance Ans: Extremely high Megger is Ans: used to measure high resistance

Increasing transmitter height Ans: Decrease capacitance and inductance remains the same. Undergrounding conductor is Ans: Maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath A transformer that has a frequency range from 100 Hz 150 kHz Ans: Converter transformer Surge impedance of cable Ans: 50 Ideal input impedance of op-amp Ans: 50

 Formula for the increase % in saturation current Ans: 2((T2-T1)/10) X 100% Ideal noise factor Ans: 0 dB Vacant lattice site with missing atom relocated to a interstitial space with no atom. Ans: Frenkel effect FCC packing factor Ans: 0.74 Linear change of input Ans: Ramp input Instantaneous, finite input Ans: Step input Indicating device orientation of object Ans: Selsyn An AC bridge that measures mutual inductance Ans: Heaviside bridge One of the most important bridge in determining link capacitances Ans: Schering bridge Highest dielectric strength Ans: Glass High sensitivity Ans: Permanent magnet A transformer in laminated core reduced Ans: Eddy current An analysis used for more than one voltage source Ans: Superposition theorem Maximum magnitude of the output voltage from an op-amp is called Ans: Saturation voltage A graph of amplitude versus input frequency Ans: Bode plot Effect of recombination on depletion region Ans: Emission coefficient or ideality factor Magnetic amplifier operates at a frequency at ____ or less Ans: 100 Hz Most commonly used coupling Ans: Transformer coupling Typical LED voltage

Ans: 1.6 V Capacitance of disc ceramic capacitor Ans: 100 pF A bypass capacitor at high frequency Ans: Ceramic capacitor Indicating device orientation of object Ans: Selsyn Odd parity checker Ans: XOR Shelf life of lithium cell Ans: 5 to 10 years

Negative feedback Ans: Increases bandwidth and decrease voltage gain Alkaline cell ingredient Ans: Potassium hydroxide Advantage of NiCd over lead acid Ans: Cell on NiCd can be replaced By adding parallel circuit to the inverting amplifier Ans: Inverting summing Linear amplification Ans: Level clamper Theory of magnetic flux in a closed system equal to zero Ans: Gauss theorem Personal error Ans: Gross error Advantage of magnetic disk to magnetic tape Ans: Easier to read The maximum current can safely handle Ans: Ampacity JFET reference voltage Ans: Source Buffer amplifier gain Ans: 1 AWG no. 6 Ans: 0.395 /1000 ft. AWG no. 12 Ans: 6350 cmil

Indicating device orientation of object Ans: Selsyn A mass of 1.66 x 10-27 kg. Ans: Unified amu Reciprocal of Avogadros number Ans: amu Electrostatic radius of an atom Ans: 10-14 Manipulator has ___ degrees of freedom Ans: 3 Arrange in data arrays Ans: RAM OS memory Ans: BIOS Voltage amplifier Ans: Pre-amplifier Latest used data Ans: Cache memory

LIFO Ans: Stack memory Minimum distance of features in a chip Ans: Geometry Number of elements not found in nature but also prepared in laboratories Ans: 105 IC advantage Ans: Reliability Minimum to maximum range Ans: Span 1/5 of the Wi-Fi range Ans: Bluetooth Temperature of Class B motor Ans: 130C Temperature of Class F motor Ans: 155C Pure ac voltage single frequency Ans: Single pip Cannot be used as a permanent magnet

Ans: Caryon In doubles Kelvin bridge, 1 to 10 u Ans: 0.05% - 0.2% Wien bridge oscillator Ans: f = 1/(2RC) Most important IEEE standard interface Ans: IEEE 488 digital interface Common method of coupling used in cascade amplifier stages Ans: Transformer It is most obvious at higher frequencies Ans: Corona Early IC packaging method used in transistors Ans: TO (Transistor Outline) PLCC Ans: Plastic Lead chip memory It is used in Hi-Fi audio system to split frequencies to fed tweeter and woofer Ans: Crossover network Resistance offered by a PN junction in AC conditions Ans: Dynamic resistance Characteristic of shared systems to avoid mixing up of print outs or programs Ans: Spooling Absorption of slow moving electrons by an interleaving matter Ans: Ramsauer effect If a load is removed from a long transmission line, the sending voltage end is less than receiving end Ans: Ferranti effect Corona results in Ans: Radio interference Ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of all metals Ans: Weidemann Franz Law Color of neutral in 3-core flexible cable Ans: Blue It is neglected in short transmission line analysis Ans: Shunt admittance It is located near transformer Ans: Lightning arrester Volume of atom ratio to cell volume Ans: Packing factor

RLC circuit that provides undamped oscillation Ans: Ringing circuit Contact between metal and heavily doped-semiconductor Ans: Ohmic contact Comparator with hysteresis Ans: Schmitt trigger Negative electron Ans: Negatron Input continuously increases constant output Ans: Level Clamp Four arm AC bridge measures inductance by standard capacitance Ans: Maxwell Bridge Shows positions of lattice points Ans: Bravais Lattice Measures the diameter of an atom Ans: Ernest Rutherford Ratio of the AC power supply to the plate power supply Ans: Plate efficiency Electromechanical device that converts electrical to mechanical by attraction of iron plunger to the electromagnet Ans: Solenoid Lithium battery Ans: Microcomputer memory back-up Protection against electric shock Ans: Earthing The heat generated melts the portion at the tip of the electrode and the base of the metal Ans: Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW)

Advantages of PCB Ans: Eliminates bigger chassis and point to point mounting Energy to raise the electron to another orbit Ans: Excitation It is used in high voltage and high current application for most efficient regulator Ans: Switching regulator What refers to garaging the two adjustments of an Ac bridge together in such a way that changing one adjustment changes the other in a special way, but changing the second adjustment does not change first? Ans: Orthogonal nulling Not common sine wave generator Ans: Multivibrator Range of degrees of freedom Ans: Work envelope

Physical bend, twist, and reach Ans: Manipulator Poor selectivity Ans: Wide bandwidth It has amplifier and feedback Ans: Electronic amplifier Maintenance of oscillation Ans: Flywheel effect Free electrons collidal to bound electrons causing mere current carriers Ans: Avalanche effect Magnetic leakage due to 100% coupling Ans: Electromagnetic effect A particle resulting to an atom of an element combined to form a compound Ans: Molecule P shell number of electrons Ans: 72 Solid formed by covalent bonding Ans: Crystal The resistance in the magnetic path to the magnetic lines of force Ans: Reluctance The flux density in an iron core when the magnetic intensity is zero Ans: Residual magnetism When an electron rises to the conduction band a hole is created in the valence band, this called _____ Ans: Electron hole pair Operating temperature of silicon. Ans: -175 to 350C Highly sensitive material Ans: Permanent magnet Smallest ripple voltage Ans: Multi-section LC filter Highest torque Ans: Series motors Motivating input in a control system which is independent with the output Ans: Command input Development process of a microcrystal molten Ans: Crystal growth The voltage regulator, the component used as a comparator

Ans: Op-amp It is not an resistance welding Ans: Arc welding Atom to atom bond on surface with oxide free surface Ans: Pressure welding Elimination of stray capacitance Ans: Shielding and grounding 2 identical shunt motor Ans: Hopkinson In doubles Kelvin bridge, 1 to 10 u Ans: 0.05% - 0.2% AC voltage frequency converter from one form to another Ans: Cyclo converter Skin effect seen at Ans: High frequencies Indicates the address of next instruction Ans: Program counter Drift current is directly proportional to mobility, diffusion is directly proportional to concentration of diffusion Ans: Einstein relation dV/dt in SCR Ans: False trigerring It divides an HF signal so that a low frequency counter would be able to display the operating frequency Ans: Prescaler circuit Responds to the variation in incident photon Ans: Quantum detector Draws less current from circuit under test Ans: FETVM It provides very high electrical isolation between control ckt and power ckt, has high impedance between light source and phototransistor. Ans: Optoisolator It is used to measure variations by the changing metallic resistance Ans: Bolometer Most common bolometric device Ans: Thermistor These are mostly used in robot than AC because it can with stand large overload. Ans: DC motor and stepper motor Converting sine wave to series of pulses Ans: Timing Marker Generator

Current regulator alone Ans: Regulator IC alone What do you call a short circuit having minimum resistance? Ans: Dead short What is used in measuring wires from number 0 to number 36? Ans: AWG Discharge of electricity from a conductor with a high potential Ans: Corona Power transformer normally operates at ____ alternating current. Ans: 60 or 400 Hz What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 0 to 1 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 0 to 4 mA DC? Ans: Perception What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 1 to 4mA, 60 Hz, AC or 4 to 15 mA DC? Ans: Surprise What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 4 to 21 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 15 to 80 mA DC? Ans: Reflex action What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 21 to 40 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 80 to 160 mA DC? Ans: Muscular Inhibition What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 40 to 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 160 to 300 mA DC? Ans: Respiratory failure What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of over 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 300 mA DC? Ans: Fatal What is the effect of hydrogen surrounding the anode of a cell which increases the internal resistance of the cell? Ans: Polarization What is the anode of a lead acid cell? Ans: Lead peroxide What is the cathode of a lead acid cell? Ans: Sponge lead What is the anode of a NiCad Cell ? Ans: Hydroxide What is the anode of a silver zinc cell? Ans: Silver oxide What is the cathode of a silver zinc cell ? Ans: Zinc What is the production of the hydrogen gas caused by a portion of the charge current breaking down the water in the electrolyte? Ans: Gassing

What is the shelf life of lithium organic cell and lithium inorganic cell? Ans: 20 years In what charge is the charging rate determined by the battery voltage rather than a definite current value? Ans: Floating charge What charge is used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle or light duty? Ans: Floating charge Floating charge is sometimes referred to as ___ and is accomplished with low current. Ans: Trickle charge What is used when a battery must be recharged in the shortest possible time? Ans: Fast charge Electrical safety precatutions must be observed. A fatal shock can occur from ___ ampere of current. Ans: 0.1 Voltages as low as ___ volts have been recorded as causing sufficient current to be fatal. Ans: 30 What type of extinguishers are used to extinguish electrical fires? Ans: CO2 Under favorable conditions, the body resistance may be as low as ___ ohms Ans: 300 The body resistance is possibly as low as ___ from temple to temple if the skin is broken. Ans: 100 In a voltage divider, bleeder current is usually determined by the ___ percent rule of thumb. Ans: 10 A theory of magnetism based upon the electron-spin principle. Ans: Domain Theory. What action results in the increase in current that generates more heat and the cycle repeats itself until the diode draws excessive current? Ans: Thermal runaway What is the faithful reproduction of a signal in an amplifier? Ans: Fidelity What dc generators are designed to act as high gain amplifier? Ans: Amplidynes What is the range of the dc resistance of most motor armatures? Ans: 0.05 to 0.5 ohms What is usually the lamination thickness of the armature core of a small generator? Ans: 1/64 inches Mechanical rotation of frequency is measured using a device called___. Ans: Tachometer The rotation of frequency of recording devices and teletypewriter motors can be measured by the use of _____. Ans: Stroboscope.

What is an instrument that allows you to view rotating or reciprocating objects intermittently and produces the optical effect of a slowing down or stopping motion? Ans: Stroboscope What is an electronic flash device in which the flash duration is very short, a few millionths of a second and can measure very rapid motion? Ans: Strobotac What is a combination of watch and revolution counter? Ans: Chronometric tachometer What type of bolometer is characterized as an increase in resistance as the dissipated power rises? Ans: Barreter What type of bolometer is characterized by decrease in resistance as the power increases? Ans: Thermistor What instrument is used for measuring radio frequency (rf) power? Ans: Thermocouple ammeter Which of the following robots is used for machining processes? Ans: Cincinatti T3 Kuka spot welding has ___ degrees of freedom. Ans: 6 Exx1x Ans: All positions Exx2x Ans: horizontal positions Magnetic audio tape Ans: Parallel Magnetic video tape Ans: Diagonal Thickness of magnetic audio tape Ans: 1 mil A sawtooth wave has a ____ added to become trapezoidal wave. Ans: resistor Absent of current welding Ans: cool sub-interval 1.5 H Ans: Air pot core Who coined the term robotics? Ans: Isaac Asimov Oldest welding Ans: Forge welding Klystron

Ans: High achievable power output Inert gas Ans: MIG Active gas Ans: MAG Antrophomorphic robot is Ans: more maneuverable It is also known as metal inert gas. Ans: Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW) Robot with facial expression Ans: Kismet Toy dinosaur robot Ans: Pleo Snap acting switch Ans: Microswitch Approach in which introduce factory automation technology Ans: Islands of automation Degree of automatic. Ans: Level of automation Orange, blue and gray diode Ans: IN368 It is the welding electrode comes forward and engage the metal pressing against the surface. Ans: squeeze interval It is the welding in which the welding transformer energized and the current flows and create a weld. Ans: weld interval It is the weld interval that is finished Ans: hold interval Welding electrode is retracted Ans: release interval A time after release interval to the next start sequence. Ans: Standby interval. It is a closed loop feedback control system in which one or more of the system signals represent mechanical motion. Ans: Servomechanism. Exx3x Ans: Flat E60xx has a tensile strength of ___ Ans: 60,000 psi

With AC or DC similar to E6010 Ans: E6011 Major power supply of MIG Ans: DCRP Medium penetration Ans: E6013 Can be prevented by arc welding Ans: Arc flow Faying surfaces in one spot Ans: Resistance spot welding Faying surfaces Ans: Resistance seam welding Resistance of the work Ans: Resistance welding Mass of 60-lb IR robot Ans: 60 kg Deep penetration Ans: Submerged arc Deep penetration Ans: DC reverse Medium penetration Ans: DC straight Fast welding Ans: Flash welding 10,000 to 50,000 Hz welding Ans: High frequency welding Image resolution Ans: Dot pitch Voltage of dry electrolytic capacitor Ans: 500 V Apply electrostatic voltage in plastic Ans: Electroactive polymer In electrolytic positive, ___ of the total heat. Ans: 2/3 Prevents corona Ans: Braid 450F below Ans: Soldering

above 450F joining of two metals Ans: Brazing Metal active gas Ans: CO2 Multimeter on the lower center switch Ans: Range switch Multimeter on the lower left switch Ans: Function switch Aluminum D-ARsonval movement Ans: Bobbin Positive lead Ans: Red Negative lead Ans: Black Angular momentum of robot Ans: Yaw GaAs disadvantage Ans: more expensive

Disadvantage of Transformer to capacitive coupling Ans: more expensive A motor or transducer that converts energy (electrical, hydraulic, or pneumatic) into power used to produce motion or power. Ans: actuator The ability of a robot to position its end effector at a programmed location in space. Ans: accuracy Control signals that are processed by directly measuring quantities (voltages, resistances or rotation). This can be hydraulic, electronic or pneumatic. Ans: analog control A robot or machine that resembles a human. Ans: android A robot with rotary joints that can move much like a persons arm. Ans: anthrophomorphic robot An interconnected set of links and powered joints comprising a manipulator that supports or moves a wrist, hand or end effector. Ans: arm The ability of a machine system to perceived anticipated or unanticipated new conditions, decide what actions must be performed under the conditions and plan the actions accordingly. The main areas of applications are expert systems and computer vision. Ans: artificial intelligence

Also known as assembly cell or assembly station. A concentrated group of equipment such as manipulators, vision modules, parts presenters, and support tables that are dedicated to compute assembly operations at one physical location. Ans: assembly The use of any one several techniques to determine the presence or absence of features. This technique include simple mechanical probes and vision systems. Ans: automated inspection Automatically controlled operation of an apparatus, process or system by mechanical or electronic devices that replace human observation, effort and decision. Ans: automation A traveled path in space, usually referred to as a linear direction of travel in any of three dimensions. Ans: axis A robot in which motions are controlled by driving each axis or degree of freedom against a mechanical limit stop. Ans: bang-bang robot A platform or structure to which a robot arm is attached; the end of a kinematic chain of arm links and joints opposite to which grasps or processes external objects. Ans: base A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more workstations or machines and the material transport mechanisms and storage buffers that interconnect them. Ans: cell A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more cells, and the material transport mechanisms and storage buffers that interconnect them. Ans: center An assembly between two closely related rigid members enabling on member to rotate in relation to the other around a mobile axis. Ans: complex joint The use of an interactive terminal workstation usually with graphics capability to automate the design of products. It includes functions such as drafting and fit-up parts. Ans: computer aided design (CAD) Working from a product design likely to exist in a CAD data base, it encompases the computer based technologies that physically produce the product, including parts program preparation, process planning, tool design, process analysis and parts processing by numerically controlled machines. Ans: computer-aided manufacturing (CAM) A numerical control system with a dictated mini or micro computer that performs the functions of data processing and control. Ans: computerized numerical control (CNC) The unit of automatic work for a robot. Within a cycle, subelements called trajectories define lesser but integral elements. Each trajectory is made up of points where the robot performs an operation or passes through depending upon the programming. Ans: cycle (program) The number of independent ways the end effector can move. It is defined by the number of rotational or translational axes through which motion can be obtained. Ans: degrees of freedom The joint that connects the upper arm and forearm on a robot. Ans: elbow

Also known as end of arm tooling or simply a hand. The subsystem that links the mechanical portion of the robot (manipulator) to the part being handled or work on, and gives the robot the ability to pick yp and transfer parts and/or handle a multitude of different tools to perform work on parts. Ans: end effector Robots with little if any computer power. Their only intelligent functions consist of learning a sequence of manipulative actions, choreographed by a human operator using a teach box. Ans: first generation robot system Also known as nonservo robot or open robot. A robot with stoppoint control but no trajectory control. Ans: fixed stop robot Multipurpose robots that are adaptable and capable of being redirected trained or used for new purposes. Ans: flexibility operational An arrangement of machine tools that is capable of standing alone, interconnected by a workpiece transport system and controlled by a central computer. Ans: flexible manufacturing system (FMS) Also known as pedestal robot. A robot with its base permanently or semi-permanently attached to the floor or bench. Such a robot is working at one location with a maximum limited work area and in many cases servicing only one machine. Ans: floor mounted robot That portion of a jointed arm which is connected to the wrist and elbow Ans: forearm. An overhead mounted, rectilinear robot with a minimum of three degrees of freedom and normally not exceeding six. Ans: gantry robot. The grasping hand of a robot, which manipulates objects and tools to fulfill a given task. Ans: gripper An approach used to introduce factory automation technology into manufacturing by selective application of automation. Ans: islands of automation. The degree to which a process has been made automatic. Relevant to the level of automation are questions of automatic failure recovery, the variety of situations that will be automatically handled, and the conditions under which manual intervention or action by human beings is required. Ans: level of automation An electrical switched positioned to be switched where a motion limit occurs, thereby deactivating the actuator that causes the motion. Ans: limit switch A mechanism usually consisting of a series of segments or links, jointed or sliding to one another, for grasping or moving objects, usually in several degrees of freedom. Ans: manipulator A method for the control of machine tool systems. A program containing all the information, in symbolic numerical form, needed for processing a workpiece is stored on a medium such as paper or magnetic tape. Ans: numerical control Developing robot programs partially or completely without requiring the use of the robot itself. The program is loaded into the robots controller for subsequent automatic action of the manipulator. Ans: off-line programming

Software that controls the execution of computer programs, may provide scheduling, allocation, debugging data management, and other functions. Ans: operating systems Also known as positioning. The consistent movement or manipulation of an object into controlled position and altitude in space. Ans: orientation The equipment used in conjunction with the robot for a complete robotic system. This includes grippers, conveyors, parts positioners and parts or materials feeders that are needed with the robot. Ans: peripheral equipment Also known as bend. The angular rotation of a moving body about an axis that is perpendicular to its direction of motion and in the same plane as its top side. Ans: pitch Also known as photoelement or photosite. A digital picture or sensor element, picture is short for picture cell. Ans: pixel The act of providing the control instructions required for a robot to perform its intended task. Ans: programming The envelope of variance of the robot tool print position for repeated cycles under the same conditions. It is obtained from the deviation between the positions and orientations reached at the end of several similar cycles. Contrast with accuracy. Ans: repeatability A reprogrammable, multifunctional manipulator designed to move a material, parts, tools, or specialized devices through variable programmed motions for the performance of a variety of tasks. Ans: robot The science of designing, building and applying robots. Ans: robotics Also known as twist. The rotational displacement of a joint around the principal axis of its motionj, particularly at the wrist. Ans: roll A robot with a computer processes added to the robotic controller. This addition makes it possible to perform, in real time, the calculations required to control the motions of each degree of freedom in a cooperative manner to effect smooth motions of the end effector along predetermined paths. It also become possible to integrate simple sensors, such as force torque, and proximity into the robot system ,providing some degree of adaptability to the robots environment. Ans: second generation robot system A controller that operates an application though a fixed sequence of events. Ans: sequencer A robot driven by servomechanisms, that is, motors or actuators whose driving signal is a function of the difference between a commanded position and/or rate is measured actual position and/or rate. Ans: servocontrolled robot An automatic control mechanism consisting of a motor or actuator driven by a signal that is a function of the difference between a commanded position and/or rate and measured actual position and/or rate. Ans: servomechanism The manipulator arm linkage joint that is attached to the base. Ans: shoulder The maximum velocity at which a manipulator joint can move; a rate imposed by saturation in the servoloop controlling the joint.

Ans: slew rate The use of two or more cameras to pinpoint the location of an object in a three dimensional space. Ans: stereo imaging The detection by a robot though contact of touch, force, pattern slip and movement. It allows for the determination of local shape, orientation and feedback forces of a grasped workspace. Ans: tactile sensing A robot system characterized by the incorporation of multiple computer processors, each operating asynchronously to perform specific functions. It includes a separate low level processor for each degree of freedom and a master computer supervising and coordinating these processors, as well as providing higher-level functions. Ans: third generation robot system The orientation of a view with a video camera, in elevation. Ans: tilt A continuous position control response to continuously changing input requirements. Ans: tracking A movement such that all axes remain parallel to what they were. Ans: translation The acquisition, movement thorugh space, and release of an object by a robot. Ans: transport The portion of a jointed arm that is connected to the shoulder. Ans: upper arm Also known as the robot operating envelope. The set of points representing the maximum extent or reach of the robot tool in a directions. Ans: work envelope The envelope reached by the center of the interface between the wrist and the tool, using all available axis motions. Ans: workspace A set of joints, usually rotational, between the arm and the hand or end effector, which allow the hand or end effector to be oriented relative to the workpiece. Ans: wrist The angular displacement of a moving joint about an axis which is perpendicular to the line of motion and the top side of the body. Ans: yaw What magnet is used in computer memory circuits? Ans: Ring magnet What magnet is used in some meter circuits? Ans: Horseshoe magnet If the electrons of the atom in a material spin more in one direction than in the other, the material will become magnetized. This refers to what theorem? Ans: The Domain theory of Magnetism What theorem assumes that all magnetic materials are made up of magnetic molecules which, if lined up in north to south pole order, will be a magnet. If not lined up, the magnetic fields about the molecules will neutralize each other and no magnetic effect will be noted? Ans: Webers theory of magnetism

What do you call a short circuit having minimum resistance? Ans: Dead short What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is no external load? Ans: Local action The amount of increase in the resistance of 1 ohm sample of the conductor per degree of temperature rise above 0C is called what? Ans: Temperature coefficient of resistance What do you call the resistance to current leakage through the insulation? Ans: Insulation resistance What is the common name for enamel insulated wire? Ans: Magnet wire What term is general one and usually applies only to the larger sizes of conductors? Ans: Cables The process of applying thin coat of solder to materials prior to their being soldered. Ans: Tinning The addition of atmospheric oxygen to metal to form rust, or to cause a breakdown in the internal construction of the metal. Ans: Oxidation What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is not external load? Ans: Local action A continuous jacket of lead molded around a single conductor or multiple conductor cable. Ans: Lead sheath What do you call the force exerted on an insulator by the voltage in a conductor? Ans: Electrostatic stress The discharge of electricity from a conductor with a high potential. Ans: Corona A material that removes oxides from surfaces to be joined by soldering or welding. Ans: Flux A synthetic mixture of rosins that is flexible and used as an insulating material. Generally used as an insulator for low and medium range voltages. Ans: Thermoplastic The capacity of a soldering iron to generate and maintain a satisfactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the material being soldered. Ans: Thermal inertia What is the working voltage of a dry electrolytic capacitor? Ans: 500 V If arcing should occur between the plates of an oil filled capacitor, the oil will tend to reseal the hole caused by the arcing. Such a capacitor is referred to as ____ capacitor. Ans: self-healing

The maximum voltage that can be steadily applied to the capacitor without the capacitor breaking down (shorting) is called ____ of the capacitor. Ans: working voltage What is meant by local action? Ans: Current flow in cell with no external load. The left side of the pulse Ans: Leading edge The right side of the pulse Ans: Trailing edge What is the process by which an atoms gain or losses electrons? Ans: Ionization Any group of energy levels that results from the close proximity of atoms in a solid. Ans: Energy bands How many pulsations per revolution have the output voltage of an elementary single coil dc generator? Ans: Two How many commutator segments are required in a two-coil generator? Ans: Four What is the distortion of the main field due to the effects of armature current? Ans: Armature reaction What type of prime mover requires a specially designed high speed alternator? Ans: Steam turbine What type of rotor is used in slower speed alternators? Ans: Salient pole rotor What type of rotor is wound in a manner to allow high-speed use without flying apart? Ans: Turbine driven type rotor What term is used to denote the difference in speed between the rotor which is always somewhat less than the speed of the rotating field? Ans: Slip What mechanical device reverses armature connections in motors and generators at the proper instant so that current continues to flow only in one direction? Ans: Commutator What motor characteristic is affected by counter emf? Ans: Speed How is EPROM erased? Ans: with a burst of ultraviolet light Whenever data is transferred between devices, it involves the exchange of prearranged signals. What is this process called? Ans: Handshaking What test is used to check for opens (or to see if the circuit is complete or continuous) and is accomplished with an ohmmeter?

Ans: Continuity test What type of circuits are caused by some conducting part of the circuit making contact either directly or indirectly with the metallic structure of the ship or chassis? Ans: Ground circuits Shunts are usually made from what alloy? Ans: Manganin What property of shunt is desired because of the heavy currents that often flow through shunts producing heat? Ans: Zero-temperature coefficient In DArsonval meter, many turns of fine wire would be used, each turn adding more effective length to the coil. The coil is wound on an aluminum frame called ___. Ans: bobbin What is an important point to remember when you are making an accurate resistance measurement? Ans: Zero the meter each time you select a new range. BJT better than FET Ans: radio receiver Wineglass Ans: Plasma arc welding plasma Ans: Plasma arc welding Slow speed Ans: Salient pole High speed Ans: Turbine driven type rotor Differentiation Ans: Submerged Comparison solenoid Ans: Relay fixed core Human arm Ans: Serial robot Input display signal voltage Ans: Vertical deflection coil Replacing DC motor/recently used Ans: Piezo motor Rapid discharge of electrical energy Ans: Percussion welding Hydrogen Electrode Ans: E7018 False Ans: Air has the concentrated magnetic field

Electron gun tube Ans: CRT Electron field tube Ans: Electron beam Multicavity Klystron Ans: Variable electron speed Fuse Ans: Quick break type Magnetic frequency increases Ans: Power output decreases Cause of electrons due to the longitudinal Ans: Magnetic field Along a joint Ans: Upset welding Fastest memory Ans: Flash memory Tungsten electrode Ans: TIG Use of non-interlaced monitor Ans: Fast graph CMOS disadvantage Ans: cannot handle high power TTL Ans: least susceptible to noise E stands for Ans: American Wire Electrode Exceeding 450F Ans: Brazing Not exceeding 450F Ans: Soldering Generators used Ans: Magnetic Battery used as Ans: chemical Responsible of pulsating DC Ans: Commutator Low voltage high power

Ans: Center tapped Full Wave Oldest 1940 general magnetic phenomenon Ans: Colding or cold contact Joints Ans: Direct Kinematics End effector Ans: Inverse Direct Kinematics Nothing but to memory Ans: Flag field Unwanted connection Ans: Fault connection Frequency synthesizer used as Ans: Divider Output amplitude Ans: Amplitude stability DC motor is preferred as driver in robotics because Ans: it can withstand large overload Welding is not used direct source because Ans: it is impracticable to draw heavy currents Atomic hydrogen is long lived because Ans: ac is used

RF power amplifier Ans: Common base Choke Ans: passes dc but not RF Multivibrator Ans: Common emitter or common source Algorithm better than ZMP Ans: Dynamic balancing One feet with small Ans: Hopping Automatic welding Ans: 5 intervals Control grid of a tube Ans: gate of a FET Impedance mismatch reactance output Ans: Transformer

Laminated core Ans: reduces eddy current loss No load loss but not electrical loss Ans: Windage Manganese Dioxide Alkaline Acid Ans: Alkaline Cell Draws large amount of current Ans: Rheostat Increase RL Ans: Improved Efficiency Single coil Ans: Elementary generator 3 classifications of robot Ans: Anthrophomorphic, SCARA, and articulated Connects arm and end effectors Ans: Wrist ____ for bones, ____ for muscle and ____for degrees of freedom. Ans: links, actuator, and joints Early actuator Ans: Elastic nanotube Changing of electric energy Ans: Electroactive polymer Variable speed Ans: DC generator Constant speed Ans: AC generator More robot than worker Ans: Japan Transient suppression prevents Ans: diode failure Tunnel diode Ans: Dr. Leo Esaki Zener Diode Ans: Dr. Carl Zener Varactor diode uses Ans: Frequency stability 2 terminal communicate

Ans: Handshaking Highest fidelity Ans: Class A Portion Ans: Class AB FET amplifier Ans: Class AB2 Medium penetration Ans: E6013 Oxy fuel arc Ans: Oxy fuel gas welding Electrical requirement of arc welding Ans: high open circuit voltage Horizontal oscilloscope Ans: Time/division Joining of metals Ans: Welding Radio using tubes Ans: Bulk and heavy The purpose of I in PIN diode Ans: minimizes junction capacitance 1/16 to 5/16 in in diameter Ans: American Welding Society Degrees of freedom for General purpose effectors Ans: 20 Deep penetration welding Ans: Submerge arc welding JFET except Ans: transconductance Pinch off voltage Ans: Transconductance is zero Formula for IC with leakage current Ans: IC = IB + (+1)ICBO IE Ans: IE = IC - ICBO ICQ Ans: ICQ = IBQ + ICEO IEQ

Ans: IEQ = ICQ + IBQ

Increase temperature leakage current Ans: ICBO = ICBO (T2-T1)/10 Charge of a capacitor Ans: Q = CV Charge Ans: Q = Qo (1-e(-t/RC)) Dependent on gap Ans: Charge efficiency NRZI means Ans: Non-return to zero invert Pilot cell Ans: identifies the condition of the battery More likely to occur than zener breakdown because lightl doped Ans: Avalanche breakdown How wire Ans: measure dc and ac Dielectric constant of mica Ans: 6 Buck boost lossless Ans: D = (V2)/(V1+V2) Buck Ans: D = V2/V1 Op-amp filter Ans: Polysterene TTL Ans: open circuit high level I2L Ans: bipolar saturated logic EAROM Ans: Degrade data if used 6 rectifying elements Ans: Gratz rectifier Superconductivity thin film memory consisting of a superconducting inductor Ans: Permistor Register and counters are the same because Ans: they have the same array of flip flop and gates

High Q Ans: High selectivity 2 principles of detector Ans: Rectifier and filter Microprocessor Ans: ALU and control unit CPU Ans: ALU and control unit Simulate Ans: Simulator Servocontrolled robot Ans: Soft stop Nonservo robot Ans: Hard stop Lowest resistivity at 293 K Ans: Copper BIG elements Ans: Trivalent PAA elements Ans: Pentavalent Analog preferred than digital because Ans: of measuring signal strength Opposing torques Ans: Deflecting and restoring torques Code that Ans: Absolute code Equal ripple Ans: Eliptic filter Illuminance Ans: Lux Ripple sharp cutoff Ans: Chebyshev filter Adds all harmonics Ans: Sawtooth Odd harmonics Ans: Square All even harmonics Ans: Push pull

The single grid of vacuum Ans: Control grid In low frequency cutoff, amplitude decreases by ___ from midrange value Ans: 3 dB Change in audio range Ans: 1 dB

COMMUNICATIONS

Fiber Optics (Chapter 11: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following refers to the relative refractive index difference of single mode fibers? 0.1 - 0.3 % ECE Board Exam November 2000 A parameter of light beam that do not change the quality when it enters one medium from another. Frequency ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following limits the top speed of transmitting information in fiber optic communication? Detector speed ECE Board Exam November 1999 Type of multi-channel signal transmission in the optic fiber communication that uses twisted pair coupler to transmit two signals of different wavelengths. Frequency-division multiplexing ECE Board Exam April 1999 Best applies to an optical fiber core. A higher refractive index than the cladding ECE Board Exam November 1998 How many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over cable? 100 times bigger ECE Board Exam April 1998 What law does a light travelling in an optical fiber follow? Snell's ECE Board Exam November 1997 Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye. Ultraviolet

ECE Board Exam April 1997 Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable. 0.38dB ECE Board Exam November 1996 An object father from a converging lens than its focal point always has an ________ image. inverted ECE Board Exam March 1996 The dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core. Cladding ECE Board Exam April 2001 An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication is not intended to determine one of the following: Kind of multiplexing --------------------- An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication------Refractive index Loss per kilometer Length of fiber ECE Board Exam November 2000 In wire communications system using fiber optic, the packing fraction is related to one of the following statements when referred to fiber optic bundle. Ratio of the total cross-sectional area to the total cross-sectional area of the fiber bundle ECE Board Exam April 2000 Why are fiber optic cables considered less expensive compared to coaxial cables in communication system? Use of less repeaters ECE Board Exam November 1999 An optic fiber regenerator which is used in communication is consisting of a ________ to clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and a similar system for the opposite direction. transmitter and receiver ECE Board Exam April 1999 How do you account the effect of light intensity on the refractive index of a fiber optic? Increases ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the following referred to as a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer. Pulse generator laser

ECE Board Exam April 1998 __________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency. Laser ECE Board Exam November 1997 The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communication system. APDs ECE Board Exam April 1997 A non-coherent light source for optical communications system. LED ECE Board Exam November 1996 The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is attenuation ECE Board Exam March 1996 It is made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-gallium-arsenide or gallium-arsenidephosphide. Light emitting diode ECE Board Exam April 2001 How much bigger does the bandwidth of a single mode fiber optic have over the multimode fiber? 20 times bigger ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following refers to the bandwidth of optical fiber? 1 MHz - 500 MHz ECE Board Exam April 2000 Refers to a characteristic of a multimode fiber optic. Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core must be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried. ECE Board Exam November 1999 What do you call the loss in signal power as the light travels the fiber optic? Attenuation ECE Board Exam April 1999 One of the characteristics of a fiber optic used in order to carry light in several modes of propagation or to become a multimode fiber. Diameter of the core must be very muuch greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried. ECE Board Exam November 1998

What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a detector? Photovoltaic effect ECE Board Exam April 1998 Quantity that do not change when a beam of lifgt enters one medium to another Frequency ECE Board Exam April 1997 Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion. Step-index multimode ECE Board Exam November 1997 Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light intensity at 1.55 um.

ECE Board Exam November 1996 The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted is known as __________. mode ECE Board Exam March 1996 An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the siica material from which fibers are manufactured. Ultraviolet absorption ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following is not a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication? vertical and horizontal plates -------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication--------------------Laser Beam splitter Pulse generator ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following is a part of an optical time domain reflectometer? Beam splitter

ECE Board Exam April 2000 This refers to a certain material which is most sensitive to light. Photoresist ECE Board Exam November 1999 Referred to as a light source of fiber optic which supplies level of 5 to 7 milliwats and having a narrow spectrum of emission. Injection laser diode ECE Board Exam April 1999 Most likely, how many times would a fiber optic break in a span of thirty years? 2 - 3 times ECE Board Exam November 1998 An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signal from magnetic field or solar storm flux Immunity to noise ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength? Violet ECE Board Exam April 1997 Fiber optic cable operates near ________ frequencies. 800 THz ECE Board Exam November 1997 If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the detector rise time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE. Board Exam November 1996 Proposed the used of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide Bockham and Kao ECE Board Exam November 2000 ln electronic communications where fiber optic material is used, a reflected wave is a possibility. what happen to the polarization of this reflected wave when compared to its original form? Shifts to 180 degrees ECE Board Exam April 2000 The effect of multimode propagation caused the rays leaving the fiber to

interfere constructively and destructively as they leave the end of the fiber this effect is called _________. modal delay spreading ECE Board Exam November 1999 What is the wavelength for deep violet light? 500 nmeter ECE Board Exam April 1999 A device in the fiber optic that is used to attenuate the reflected signal from the polished end of the fiber which has a possibility of developing into a noise. Isolator ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the advantages of the fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it can carry Bandwidth ECE Board Exam April 1998 Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links. Optical repeater ECE Board Exam November 1997 A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems Optical attenuator ECE Board Exam April 1997 Lifetime of ILDs 50.000 h ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon? Molten ECE Board Exam November 2000 One of the major limitations of a plastic fiberoptic used in communication Due to its high losses ECE Board Exam April 2000 One of following is considered the largest source of signal power loss in the use of fiber optic as communications medium such as due to misalignment. ConnectionECE Board Exam NOvember 1999 One of the following is related to the application of solid material as a medium where light travels. medium where Ilght travels. apphcatlon of 5DHd mater-ja}; as 3 Fiber optics

ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the following is not considered as one of the causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic? Inter-modulation ----------------causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic----------------Scattering Fiber bending Absorption ECE Board Exam November 1997 The core of the optical fiber has _______ a higher index of refraction than the cladding ECE Board Exam November 1997 Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed during the manufacturing process of the fiber optics. Rayleigh scattering loss ECE Board Exam November 1996 If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the detector rise time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE Board Exam November 2000 A phenomenon which causes the speed of light rays propagation in the fiber material changes, as it passes through different medium in the fiber Refraction ECE Board Exam April 2000 At what intenial does a fiber optic needs a repeater in communications system? 30 to 300 miles ECE Board Eanm November 1999 Referfeq to as a limit in reducing further the loss of signal passing through a fiber optic caused by scattering. Rayleigh effect ECE Board Exam April 1999 These are band of light wavelengths, that are too short to be seen by the human eye. Ultraviolet

ECE Board Exam November 1998 A quarter wavelength device made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the optic fiber communication Retarder ECE Board Exam April 1999 At what power levels does fiber optic have when used in electronic communications? Range of micro to milliwatts ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication. Semi-graded multimode ECE Board Exam November 1998 How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber optic? By application of antireflection coating ECE Board Exam November 1998 What is the device use in used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter use tc clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in opposite direction? Optic regenerator ECE Board Exam November 2000 An advantage of fiber optic over co-axial cable as a result of coupling signals from one to the other due to changing magnetic field in one or both. Crosstalk ECE Board Exam April 2001 What is the index of refraction of a certain substance if light travels through the substance at 100 meters at a time is to 140 meters to air'?

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Saturday, June 16, 2012

Satellite Communications (Chapter 10: Past Board Exce)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 What balance the gravitational pull of the earth to allow the satellite to stay on its orbit? Centripetal force ECE Board Exam November 2000 Satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern. Nonsynchronous satellite ECE Board Exam April 1999 In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a reply is heard? 600 ms ECE Board Exam November 1999 What are the repeaters inside communications satellite known for? Transponders ECE Board Exam April 2000 Under a circular satellite orbiy, how high is a certain satellite located above the surface of the earth if the total satellite height is 9869 miles?

ECE Board Exam November 1998 Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period if rotation of the earth about its axis. Geosynchronous satellite ECE Board Exam April 1998 A radio land station in the land mobile service. Base station ECE Board Exam November 1997 The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the distance from the measuring instrument. Telemetry ECE Board Exam April 1997 _______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna. Azimuth

ECE Board Exam November 1996 How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU? 6 ECE Board Exam MArch 1996 The point on satellite orbit, closest to the earth is perigee ECE Board Exam April 2001 A mobile service between base stations and land mobile stations or between land mobile stations. Mobile service ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following refers to the basic component of a communication satellite receiver? Transponder ECE Board Exam April 2000 Determine from the following the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite. Spin ECE Board Exam November 1999 A space distance iin satellite communication from the earth, to or greater than 2,000,000 kilometers is referred to as ___________. deep space ECE Board Exam April 1999 How many satellites does the GPS system consist? 24 satellites ECE Board Exam November 1999 Which point on the satellite orbit is closest to the earth? perigee ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following is refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antenna's radiation pattern? spot beam ECE Board Exam April 1998 A major and basic advantage for the use of klystron. Hiigh power ECE Board Exam November 1997 Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion. Land station

ECE Board Exam April 1997 __________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current, amplifies and lower its frequency. LNB ECE Board Exam November 1996 Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite. Satellite dish ECE Board Exam March 1996 It is a spacecraft replaced in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiving and transmitting equipments Communications satellite ECE Board Exam April 2001 A what apogee in an elliptical orbit must a geosynchronous satellite be initially stationed before it is finally fired into its final geostationary orbit? 22,300 miles ECE Board Exam November 2000 Satellite orbit around the earth are either: they are either circular or elliptical ECE Board Exam April 2000 Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the cooperating stations. Satellite network ECE Board Exam November 1999 A resultant effect in launching a satellite from the earth caused by both forward motion away from the earth that provides inertia tending the satellite to travel in straight line upwards and the gravitational pull towards the earth is referred to as ___________. centripetal acceleration ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following refers to the first active satellite? Sputnik 1 ECE Board Exam April 1998 A band where most military satellite often operate. X ECE Board Exam November1997 Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously. Telstar I

ECE Board Exam April 1997 What kind of battery panels are used in some advanced satellites? Gallium arsenide solar panels ECE Board Exam November 1996 Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's station. Downlink ECE Board Exam November 1999 In satellite communications where satellites revolve in an orbit that forms a plane passing through the center of gravity of the earth, this center is called ____________ geocenter ECE Board Exam April 1998 The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate functions of equivalent at a distance. Telecommand ECE Board Exam November 1997 The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate modify or terminate functions of equipment at a distance. Telecommand ECE Board Exam April 1997 Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe. Satellite coverage ECE Board Exam November 1996 The first commercial satellite Early bird ECE Board Exam November 1996 What band does VSAT first operate? C-band ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which part of transponder converts the received signal to another lower frequency? Mixer ECE Board Exam April 1998 In satellite communications, the geostationary satellites are conveniently located with respect to the equator at __________. 0 degrees latitude ECE Board Exam November 1997 The Ku-band in the satellite service.

14/11 GHz ECE Board Exam April 1997 Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia? 38 ECE Board Exam November 1996 Satellite engine uses ion propulsion system ECE Board Exam April 2001 How do you increase or double the channel capacity of a satellite without increasing the frequency bandwidth? Re-use frequency ECE Board Exam April 1998 A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of earths surface. Global beam ECE Board Exam November 1997 Receives and collects satellite signals from a broadcast satellite. Satellite disk ECE Board Exam April 1997 Sound intensity level is __________ 10 log I/Iref ECE Board Exam November 1996 The first passive satellite transponder. Moon ECE Board Exam April 1998 The most common application of satellite Communications ECE Board Exam November 1997 Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between mobile stations. Mobile service ECE Board Exam April 2001 Referred to as function and/or a designed of a double conversion satellite transponder. Equipped with two mixers ECE Board Exam November 2000 How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference?

Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the first satellite systems catering personal based communications services scheduled for operation. Iridium system ECE Board Exam NOvember 1997 A radio communications service used in radio regulation between specified fixed points provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and economical air transport. Aeronautical Fixed Service ECE Board Exam November 1999 When do you consider that there is a satellite pass, having reference from the ground? When satellite passes at its orbit at 90 degrees from its azimuth. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion of the earths athmospehere. Space Station ECE Board Exam November 1997 An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal the period of rotation of the earth about its axis. Geosynchronous ECE Board Exam April 1998 Known as the satellite transmitted signal from a satellite transponder to earths station. Down link ECE Board Exam November 1997 A satellite receives an uplink frequency of __________ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz.

ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call the signal booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver? Low noise amplifier ECE Board Exam November 1997 Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern? Spot Beam

ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred by a radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion Land Station ECE Board Exam November 1997 Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the operating earth station. satellite network ECE Board Exam April 2001 Typical bandwidth of a communications satellite. 500 MHz ECE Board Exam November 2000 An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam. Footprint ECE Board Exam April 1999 A twenty four (24) satellite system used in modern telecommunications to determine a location(s) on the surface of the earth. GPS ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which type of satellite transponder improves the S/N ratio which demodulates the up-link signal to recover the baseband signals and use them to remodulate the downlink transmitter? Baseband ECE Board Exam April 1998 In shipboard satellite dish antenna system, azimuth is referred as the __________ horizontal aiming of the antenna ECE Board Exam November 1997 Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service. Coast station ECE Board Exam November 1998 __________ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting simultaneously. Telstar I ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the frequency range of C-band? 3.4 to 6.424 GHz ECE Board Exam November 1997

An area on the surface of the earth within the boresight of the steerable satellite beam intended to be pointed. Effective boresight area ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the approximate percentage of earth's coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree elevation? 42.5 % ECE Board Exam April 2001 One of the following devices in satellite transponder serves as output of the receive antenna. low noise amplifier ECE Board Exam November 2000 In a re-use frequency technique of increasing satellite channel capacity of corresponding transponders, how do you control the antenna used to prevent interference? High directional antenna ECE Board Exam November 2000 Refers to a mobile earth station in the mobile-satellite service located on board ship Ship earth station ECE Board Exam April 2001 A technique in satellite communications which uses a highly directional spot-beam antenna to prevent interference from frequency sharing. Frequency re-use technique ECE Board Exam November 2000 How do you determine the satellite location in latitude and longitude measurement? Designate a point on earth directly below the satellite ECE Board Exam November 2000 A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of the earth. Perigee ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which satellite transponder has the most number of mixers? Double-conversion 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Satellite

Monday, June 4, 2012

Microwave Communications (Chapter 9: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following will you avoid in the construction of a microwave station? Long horizontal runs ECE Board Exam November 2000 Radio frequency where waveguides are not used extensively. 150 MHz ECE Board Exam April 2000 Term used to describe a process of approaching a desired point by directing the vehicle towards that point Homing ECE Board Exam November 1999 A system which does not refer to a technique in reducing the propagation errors in navigational system such as multipath effects Pulse transmission ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the following is a navigational equipment which utilizes a ground radar system to determine the position of a plane during its approach? GCA ECE Board Exam November 1998 _____________ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget. Power margin ECE Board Exam April 1998 Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on __________. two or more antennas operating on the same frequency ECE Board Exam November 1996 One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup? 312 to 552 kHz ECE Board Exam March 1996 The k-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile calculation is equal to __________ 4/3 ECE Board Exam March 1996 LORAN is navigational system used primarily for _________

obtaining your fixed location over a large distances ECE Board Exam April 2001 What navigational system technique uses an antenna directivity to reduce an undesired multipath signals? LORAN-C ECE Board Exam November 2000 In microwave frequencies, the LOS distance is something extended through the occurrence of ____________ ducting ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following if not a part of the navigational radar? Duplexer ------------- part of navigational radar----------Pulser Display unit Synchronizer ECE Board Exam November 1999 How do you account the effect of selective fading on the transmitted signal in terms of its bandwidth? more affirmative at wider bandwidth ECE Board Exam April 1999 Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction. VHF and UHF ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refers to an effect of selective fading. A fading effect caused by phase difference between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station. ECE Board Exam November 1996 When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zones at the point of reflection the RSL is decreased ECE Board Exam March 1996 LORAN is a navigation system used primary for obtaining fixes over large distances ECE Board Exam November 1966 When the value of k increases, the effective result is _______ of the equivalent curvatures. flattening

ECE Board Exam March 1996 TACAN is a navigational aid providing _________ bearing and distance indication ECE Board Exam November 1996 If Ns = 250 determine the earth radius k-factor. ECE Board Exam March 1996 A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system is in a space diversity arrangement. Determine how many receivers in all are used? 2 ECE Board Exam November 1996 A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is 92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D ECE Board Exam March 1996 Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses. Log normal fading ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna. Circulator ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies over the same path? Frequency ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the free space loss, in dB, between two microwave parabolic antennas 38.0 kilometer apart operating at 7.0 GHz? ECE Board Exam November 1996 Low-power radar uses IMPATT ECE Board Exam November 2000 A component of a microwave station that samples signal traveling in one direction down to the transmission line. Directional coupler

ECE Board Exam April 2000 A navigational error which is caused by reflection of obstruction close to the location of navigational aid having a normal concern on directional bearing. Site error ECE Board Exam April 1999 An aircraft deviation measured by an ILS localizer. Horizontal ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging? Amplitude modulation ----------- systems used in radio detection and ranging---------Frequency shift Frequency modulation Pulse radar ECE Board Exam April 1997 A microwave system that requires the use of repeater. Intervening system that requires the use of repeater. Distances involved are greater ECE Board Exam November 1996 Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies ECE Board Exam April 1997 RADAR means Radio Detection and Ranging ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which band in the radio spectrum does the radio navigational system Omega transmit? VLF ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following is not a common microwave application? Mobile radio ------------- common microwave application -------------Radar Data transmission Space communications ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output?

Modulator ECE Board Exam April 1997 A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal Terrestrial link ECE Board Exam November 1997 Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used. Space diversity ECE Board Exam April 2000 In radio navigation, one of the following deviations of an airplane is determined by an ILS localizer. Horizontal ECE Board Exam April 1997 The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave. Shorten waveguide link ECE Board Exam April 2000 In navigational system, one of the following indication is provided by the localizer unit of the ILS. A horizontal deviation of an airpalne from its optimum path of descent along the axis of the runway. ECE Board Exam April 1999 Referred to as the cycle time difference between the master and the slave signals to reach the receiver in the operation of loran navigational equipment. Time delay ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the HF marine antenna safety link is intended to be broken during the unusual movement of the ship? Weak part ECE Board Exam April 1999 What is being measured in radar theory to complete the determination of a distance to a target or object, after a high radio frequency signal is transmitted to a target? Echo time off the object to the source DATA COMM

Digital and Data Comunications (C8 Past Board: Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Determine from the following, the term used to described the ratio of transmission rate to its

minimum bandwidth which is also used to compare the performance of one digital modulation technique to another. Information capacity ECE Board Exam November 2000 A process of exchange of predetermined codes and signals to establishe a connection Handshake ECE Board Exam April 2000 These are rules in data communications intended for establishing data links and message interpretation. Protocols ECE Board Exam November 1999 In telecommunication, what do we call the difference in the voltage levels between a driver and a terminator? Noise Margin ECE Board Exam April 1999 A network interconnection facility, which is used to interconnect networks whose architecture are entirely different, is called _________. gateway ECE Board Exam November 1998 Main basic components of a data communications are composed of the following: Transmitter, channel and receiver ECE Board Exam April 1998 A device that connects two dissimilar networks and performs the protocol conversion. Gateway ECE Board Exam November 1997 Operating method in which the transmission is made alternately in each direction of a telecommunication channel. Half-duplex operation ECE Board Exam April 1997 Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously. Duplex ECE Board Exam November 1996 A system that performs parallel-to-serial and serial to parallel conversion of data link DTE ECE Board Exam March 1996 A word in telegraphy consist of __________ characters plus a word space.

7 and 1/2 ECE Board Exam April 2001 Technique used in teleprinter terminal that utilizes chemically coated paper where characters are printed. Electro thermal printing ECE Board Exam November 2000 Bit rate of a telecommunications carrier T2. 6.312 Mb/s ECE Board Exam April 2000 A process of sending data in computing technology by asking each remote computer terminal one ata a time if such a computer terminal has data to send. Polling ECE Board Exam November 1999 What do you call the definite time interval it takes to a key the slave station by the master in operating the long range navigational equipment or loran? Time delay ECE Board Exam April 1999 What does the elastic store referred to in the time division multiplex system used in fiber optic? Holding memory ECE Board Exam April 1998 _________ is more prevalent in analog signals that have sleep slopes or whose amplitudes vary rapidly. Slope overload ECE Board Exam April 1998 Is the total useful information processed or communicated over a specific amount of time. Throughput ECE Board Exam November 1997 The series of periodically recurrent pulses is modulated in amplitued by the corresponding instantaneous samples. PAM ECE Board Exam April 1997 Full duplex transmission means Two way simultaneous transmission ECE Board Exam November 1996

The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data in digital form. Data terminal equipment (DTE) ECE Board Exam March 1996 The number of voice band channels in a master group per CCITT standard is 300 ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following topology is normally used in system network architecture topology providing order of structure? Bus ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following is referred to the SYN character of ASCII code? 16H ECE Board Exam April 2000 Why is parallel transfer method in data transmission faster that serial? Bits are transferred simultaneously ECE Board Exam November 1999 In an open architecture concept of data communication, one of the following is not a function of a control layer. Integrity of data ECE Board Exam April 1999 What is the function of the network layer in computer communications? Congestion control ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following term best described the overload distortion? Peak Limiting ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following refers to full duplex transmission? Two way simultaneous transmission ECE Board Exam November 1997 A digital carrier facility used to transmit a DS1 - formatted signal at 1.544 Mbps. T1 ECE Board Exam April 1997 Transmission system for a multidrop network.

Polling ECE Board Exam November 1996 The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data in digital form. Data terminal Equipment ECE Board Exam March 1996 The expander ina companding device provides _____________ less amplification for low signal levels ECE Board Exam April 2001 How would you determine if data transmission in computers and terminals is/are done in parallel transfer? If group of bits move over several lines at the same time. ECE Board Exam November 2000 How are the variations of the transmitted photograph in terms of brightness and darkness converted into voltage variations? Through photodetector ECE Board Exam April 2000 In data transmission technology signals such as voice or radio are binary transmitted over a cable known as ____________. baseband signal ECE Board Exam November 1999 Mode of communication system where both sides of the system wait for their turn to transmit at a time? Half duplex ECE Board Exam April 1999 Why is it that almost all switching-type integrated data communication circuit are called digital? They process digital information ECE Board Exam November 1998 __________ is the method encoding audio signals used in US standard 1,544 kbits/s 24 channel PCM system. Mu-law ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following described the very early standard that defines binary digits as space/mark line conditions and voltage levels? V.1 ECE Board Exam November 1997

12 voice channels are sampled at 8000 sampling rate and encoded into 8-bit PCM word. Determine the rate of the data stream. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modem because they have clock recovery circuits ECE Board Exam November 1996 Codes must be agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver. ECE Board Exam March 1996 One character or a sequence of characters forming a part, or the whole of a message with a specific meaning. code ECE Board Exam April 2001 One of the data terminal devices that was invented to replace the Morse code telegraphy Teleprinter ECE Board Exam November 2000 __________ is a group of bits that acts as a single unit of information such as a letter or numeral. Byte ECE Board Exam April 2000 Transmission of information through a communication modem is intended to transmit digital information over which of the following types of communication medium? Analog ECE Board Exam November 1999 Which of the following refers to a network facility used to physically interconnect distinct networks in computer technology? Bridge ECE Board Exam April 1999 Communication through the use of a modem, is transmission of _______ data information in ______ medium. digital, analog ECE Board Exam November 1998 Refers to an address that identifies a server on the network and a particular document on the server. Uniform resource locator ECE Board Exam April 1998

One of the following stands for SONET acronym in telecommunication. Synchronous Optical Network ECE Board Exam November 1997 The sinusoidal carrier is pulsed so that on of the binary states is represented by a carrier while the other is represented by its absence. ASK ECE Board Exam April 1997 What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line? 2B + D ECE Board Exam November 1996 Quantization noise is caused by the approximation of the quantized signal ECE Board Exam April 2001 Referred as a modem that is capable of sending and receiving fas as well as data transmission. ARQ ECE Board Exam November 2000 An equipment in data communication which is referred to as a source of information to be transmitted at one end and the sink which receives the information at the other end. DTE ECE Board Exam April 2000 In computer communication the term RS-232C is referred to as ____________. serial interface standard ECE Board Exam April 1999 Kinds of information transfer in digital communication where the bits comprising one character are sent in sequence one at a time. Serial transmission ECE Board Exam November 1998 Who is responsible in the correctness and accuracy of transmitted information content over a data communication? The transmitter and receiver ECE Board Exam April 1998 Term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio? Facsimilie ECE Board Exam November 1997 Determine the dynamic range for a 10-bit sign magnitude code.

ECE Board Exam April 1997 Modem is referred to as _________ Data Communication Equipment ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the principal difference between asynchronous and synchronous transmission? The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the IBM's asynchronous data link protocol designation? 83B ECE Board Exam April 2001 The term used to receive a data file from a remote computer is called __________. downloading ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following best described the primary source of errors in the transmission of data over telephone networks? Crosstalk ECE Board Exam April 2000 An IT network which interconnects local area network over a broad graphical area. Wide are network ECE Board Exam April 1999 Refers to the PCM transcoder which translates voice-encoded signals between different digital formats. XCBR ECE Board Exam November 1998 How do you transmit through multiplexing, a thousand of voice channel information over a single fiber optic using one wavelength? Time division ECE Board Exam April 1998 Known as the data transfer scheme that used handshaking principle. Synchronous data transfer scheme ECE Board Exam November 1997 A coherent binary phase shift keyed BPSK transmitter operates at a bit rate of 20 Mbps with a carrier to noise ratio C/N of 8.8 dB. Find Eb/No.

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following modulation technique render the amplitude of any of its sidebands dependent on the modulation index? Frequency modulated ECE Board Exam November 2000 What do you call a system having a single communication channel that is shared by all machines on a network? Broadcast system ECE Board Exam April 2000 What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup? 312 to 552 kHz ECE Board Exam April 1999 Refers to transmission of two sets of voice signals or other information through two different wavelengths. Frequency division multiplex ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following is not referred to as data equipment? Modem ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the reason why companding is employed in PCM systems? To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion ECE Board Exam November 1996 How would one squeeze more channels of communication into TDM frames of standard length? Shorten the time delay for each channel ECE Board Exam March 1996 The standard that specifies a balanced interface cable that will operate for rates up to 10 Mbps with a span distances up to 1200 m. RS - 422A ECE Board Exam April 2001 Speed of data transmission is referred to baud rate which refers to changes in symbol per second as ________. frequency and phase changes. time ECE Board Exam November 2000 In facsimile, how are variations in picture brightness and darkness converted into voltage variations? with a photodetector

ECE Board Exam April 2000 Network protocol developed by US Defense Department which permits the exchange of traffic between two stations without any prior call set-up. Internet Protocol ECE Board Exam April 1999 Type of transmitting two or more channels of voice signal or other information in fiber optic communications in a selected interval of micro or milliseconds, the data or channels being received at their own time slot. Time-division multiplexing ECE Board Exam November 1998 The conversion of digital into analog for purposes of training into telephone line is done through ______. Modem ECE Board Exam November 1997 Used for time division multiplexing Pulse Modulation ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is framing? Is concerned with the boundaries between characters ECE Board Exam November 1996 When one station is degnated as master and the rest of the stations are considered slaves message handling is __________. Polling ECE Board Exam April 2001 How would you differentiate timing and framing in data transmission? Timing concerned with individuals bits while framing is to boundaries between characters. ECE Board Exam November 2000 One of the following refers to the standard procedure for asynchronous to synchronous conversion. V.14 ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following refers to facsimile? The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper ECE Board Exam April 1999 Type of transmission in which each transmission is individually synchronized, this is normally done through the use of start and stop elements. Asynchronous transmission

ECE Board Exam November 1998 In communications, the transmission of binary signals will require __________ more bandwidth that analog ECE Board Exam April 1998 Detrmine from the following the basic mode of transmission system in the public data network in which data are transferred from the source to the network and from the network to the destination in the frame format. Packet Mode ECE Board Exam November 1997 The difference between the original and reconstructed signal gives rise to quantizing noise ECE Board Exam April 1997 The method of determining the bandwidth of any process system is _______. Spectral Analysis ECE Board Exam November 1996 RS-232, RS-449, RS-530, V.24, and X.21 are examples of ________. standards for interfaces between terminals and modems ECE Board Exam March 1996 One type of pulse communications systems uses pulse that appear as a group, and which vary in number according to the loudness of the voice. This type of pulse modulation is called pulse duration modulation ECE Board Exam April 2001 What kind of recording is used in facsimile? Electrothermal recording ECE Board Exam November 2000 How would you isolate data communications faults in a basic error determination technique? Carry out loop back test ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following describes its system services control point, logical units and physical units as network addressable units in a data network? System network architecture ECE Board Exam April 1999 Where does harmonics in a square wave of a simple signal transmission belong? Odd

ECE Board Exam November 1998 In telecommunications when we call data communications it means the transmission of ________ Computer data ECE Board Exam April 1998 These are used to connect non-ISDN equipment to ISDN line. Terminal adapters ECE Board Exam November 1997 Modulation in which no signal is present between pulses. Pulse modulation ECE Board Exam April 1997 It is a protocol use to connect the other packet switching network. X.75 ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the data rate of the ISDN BAsic access B channel? 64 kbps ECE Board Exam March 1996 According to the Nyquist theorem, the sampling rate that can be used in a PCM system is _____ the highest audio frequency. twice ECE Board Exam April 2001 _________ is one of the many electronic equipments referred to as a data terminal equipment. Computer printer ECE Board Exam November 2000 Method of a telecommunications operation where transmission can be made simultaneously in both direction of a channel. Duplex operation ECE Board Exam April 2000 What refers to breaking up the data into blocks with some bounded size? Segmentation ECE Board Exam April 1999 A device that is used to permit an equipment with non-ISDN interface to be connected to the digital network. TA ECE Board Exam April 1997 Slowest communications hardware product. Asynchronous

ECE Board Exam November 1997 For a sample rate of 40 kHz, determine the maximum analog input frequency ECE Board Exam November 1996 Pulse carrier at the ratio of 8000 pulse/sec is amplitude modulated by an analog signal, this type of modulation is PAM ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is one principal difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission? The clicking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission ECE Board Exam April 2001 This a fast computing machine with large amount of secondary storage to which other computer machine in the network have access for data storage and retrieval purposes. Mainframe ECE Board Exam April 2000 A connector that has the lowest loss at ultra high frequency Type-N connector ECE Board Exam April 1999 A data communications network desiigned to provide two-way communications between a large variety of data communications terminal equipment within a relatively small geographic area. Local area network ECE Board Exam November 1998 Is individual signal for a handshake from the DCE to the DTE in response to an active condition for the request to send a signal. Clear to send ECE Board Exam April 1997 Highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sampling rate (fs) without aliasing. Folding frequency ECE Board Exam November 1996 A seven-bit character can represent one of _______ possibilities. 128 ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the number of pins in the RS-232C interface? 25 ECE Board Exam April 1997

Data is directly on transmission cable. Baseband ECE Board Exam November 1996 Digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog transmission because repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distortion. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the transmission rate of system for transmitting the output of a microcomputer to a line printer operating at a speed of 30 lines/minute? Assume that the line printer has 8 bits of data per character and prints out 80 characters/line. ECE Board Exam November 1998 In what form does the information of data communications is transmitted between two points? Binary form ECE Board Exam April 1997 A source code whose average word length approaches the fundamental limit set by the entropy of a discrete memoryless source. Huffman code ECE Board Exam November 1996 A ___________ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link layers. Bridge ECE Board Exam April 2001 What is the system that process both digital and analog quantities? Hybrid system ECE Board Exam March 1996 Communications code is __________. agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver ECE Board Exam April 1997 Gateway can interconnect LANs that have _______ protocol and formats. totally different ECE Board Exam November 1996 An invitation from the primary to a secondary to transmit a message. Polling ECE Board Exam March 1996 Which of the following pulse modulation system is analog? PWM

ECE Board Exam April 2000 In spread spectrum transmission, which type of modulation is normally often used with directsequence? PSK ECE Board Exam November 1999 Device that comply with the ISDN network interface and be connected directly to the digital network. TE1 ECE Board Exam April 1999 Two or more LANs linked together over a wide geographical area. WAN ECE Board Exam November 1998 All bits in a character are sent and received ______ in serial port. one at a time ECE Board Exam April 1997 Steps to follow to produce PCM signal. Sampling, quantizing, and coding ECE Board Exam November 1996 The tranformer signal coding method for T1 carrier is bipolar ECE Board Exam March 1996 In ______ transmission, a unique SYN character is transmitted at the beginning of each message. synchronous ECE Board Exam April 1997 Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously. Duplex ECE Board Exam March 1996 Binary communications systems are better because the components are simpler, less costly and more reliable ECE Board Exam November 1996 Multiplexing scheme used by baseband transmission. TDM ECE Board Exam March 1996 The correctness and accuracy of the transmitted message content is

determined by the sender and receiver. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Digital modulation technique used in modems. PSK ECE Board Exam March 1996 Data switching systems improve the efficiency of data transfer ECE Board Exam November 1996 Multiplexing in a time division multiplexer occurs based upon the position of data within a frame ECE Board Exam March 1996 The process of assigning PCM codes to absolute magnitudes. Quantizing ECE Board Exam November 1996 Ethernet is baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at 10 Mbps ECE Board Exam March 1996 Asynchronous protocol is character oriented ECE Board Exam November 1996 The primary purpose of data modem is to interface digital terminal equipment to analog communication channel ECE Board Exam March 1996 _________ is a device in data transmission to interface a data terminal equipment to an analog transmission line Modem ECE Board Exam November 1996 A quadrature signaling have ______ possible states 4 ECE Board Exam November 1996 Rules governing the transmission of digital information line protocol ECE Board Exam November 1996 The standard ASCII

has 132 characters including 32 control characters. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Basic speed rate of digital system 64 kbps DIODE

CHAPTER 3 SPECIAL- PURPOSE DIODES

CHAPTER 3 SPECIAL- PURPOSE DIODES 1. Diodes that were designed to operate in reverse breakdown Zener diode 2. A device that operates in reverse bias photodiode 3. A zener diode operating in breakdown acts as a Voltage regulator 4. A positive temperature means that the zener voltage Increases with an increase in temperature on decreases with decrease in temperature. 5. A diode that always operates in reverse-bias and is doped to maximize the inherent capacitance of the depletion region is Laser 6. When the light-emitting diode (LED) is forward-biased, __________pass the pn junction and recombine with____________ in the _________material. Electrons, holes, p-type 7. The first visible red LEDs were produced using GaAsp 8. The normalized output of the visible red, yellow, green and blue LED peaks at __________________ (nm) respectively. 660,590,540, and 460 9. Organic LEDs and LEDs produce light through the process of __________ and ___________ respectively. Electrophophorescence and electroluminescence 10. An increase in the amount of light intensity produces an increase in Reverse current

11. A diode that can be used as a variable-resistance device controlled by light intensity. Photodiode 12. A diode that operates only with majority carriers Schottky diode 13. A diode that takes advantage of the variable forward resistance characteristic. PIN diode 14. No reverse leakage current Schottky diode 15. Diode used in VHF and fast switching applications Step- Recovery diode 16. When a PIN diode is forward-biased, it acts like a Current-controlled variable resistance 17. If a tunnel diode is placed in series with the tank circuit and biased at the center of the negative-resistance portion of its characteristic curve, a _________ will result in the output. Constant sinusoidal voltage 18. The tunnel diode is only used at VHF 19. In a varactor diode, what happens to the capacitance if the reverse-bias voltage decreases a. Increases 20. The varactor capacitance ratio is also known as a. Tuning ratio 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Diode, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 2 DIODE APPLICATIONS

CHAPTER 2 DIODE APPLICATIONS 1. An open primary or secondary winding of a power supply transformer results in 0V 2. The output frequency of a half-wave rectifier is _________to/of the input frequency Equal 3. What is the average value of the half-wave rectified voltage given 25 V as its peak amplitude?

7.95 V 4. The PIV rating of the bridge diodes is __________to/than that required for the center-tapped configuration. Less 5. Diode circuits used to clip off portions of signal voltages above or below certain levels, Clippers 6. The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is ________ the input frequency Twice 7. A transformer is generally specified based on _____________rather than the turns ratio, Secondary voltage 8. The period of a full-wave rectified voltage is ____________ that of a half-wave rectified voltage Half 9. The indication of the effectiveness of the filter is called Ripple factor 10. Eliminates the fluctuations in the rectified voltage and produces a relatively smooth dc voltage Filter 11. Circuit that maintains a constant dc voltage for variations in the input line voltage or in the load Regulator 12. A type of full-wave rectifier that uses two diodes connected to the secondary of a center-tapped transformer Center-tapped rectifier 13. Use clamping action to increase peak rectified voltages without the necessity of increasing the transformers voltage rating Voltage multipliers 14. Maximum voltage appearing across the diode in reverse bias PIV 15. Caused by the charging and discharging of the filter capacitor Ripple voltage 16. A systematic process of isolating, identifying, and correcting a fault in a circuit or system Troubleshooting 17. Allows unidirectional current through the load during the entire 360 of the input cycle Full-wave rectifier

18. Allows current through the load only during one-half of the cycle. Half-wave rectifier 19. Generally used because of the surge current that initially occur s when power is first turned on Slow-blow type fuse 20. A figure of merit used to specify the performance of a voltage regulator regulation EDGE

CHEM 101 (EDGE)

Electron was discovered by A.J.J. Thompson The isotopes of an element differ in the number of Neutrons Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration Isoelectronic Which group in the periodic table is known as the alkali metals. Group 1 Which group in the periodic table is known as the halogens. Group 7 Which group in the periodic table is known as the alkaline earth metals. Group 2 Which group in the periodic table is known as the noble gases. Group 8 The components resulting from a reaction is called Products What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference between atoms is less than 1.5 Covalent bond Compounds which only contain carbon and hydrogen are called Hydrocarbon Which of the following designation means that the amount of solute is expressed in physical mass

units, i.e. grams and the amount of solution is expressed in volume units, i.e. milliliters w/v What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference between atoms is greater than 2.0 Ionic bond The isotope of hydrogen Protium, Tritium, Deuterium The isotope of hydrogen with only one neutron Tritium The atoms having different atomic number but the same mass number are called Isobars What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between atoms is less than 1.5? Covalent bond The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is beryllium (Be), atomic number 4. What is the charge on the Be atom? Neutral The mass of an alpha particle is how many times more than that of an electron 7300 Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called Isotopes The forces that hold atoms together are called Chemical bond An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called Ion A positive ion is called Cation A negative ion is called Anion The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called Ionic bonding The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called

Period The vertical arrangement of elements of in a periodic table is called Group If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of gas, the pressure Is doubled A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called Electron dot diagram For which elements does the number of electrons in their outer or valence shelll correspond to their group number Representative or main group What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit in a p orbital 5 The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called Viscosity The anions and cations which are unaffected by the reaction in solution are called Spectator ions A reaction in which heat is produced is called Exothermic The atoms having different mass number but the same number of neutrons are called Isotones Rutherford model of an atom failed to explain The position of proton and neutrons The concept that electrons revolve around the nucleus in specific paths called orbits or energy levels was proposed by Niels Bohr The number of atoms present in 6.023 x 10^23 12 grams of carbon-12 is called Avogadros constant An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their individual relative masses. Mass spectrometer These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components. Hydrates

If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is: Replacement reactions If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of reaction is: Decomposition The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is: 760 mm Hg Any process of extracting the metal in a fused state is called Smelting Which of the following does not change with change in temperature? Mass A device used to measure density. Hydrometer The statement mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction is known as: The law of conservation of mass What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between atoms is greater than 2.0 Ionic bond A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called Endothermic In redox reaction, the component supplying the electrons is called the Reductant In redox reaction, the component receiving the electrons is called the Oxidant A covalent bond formed by the combination of collinear p orbitals is also called a Sigma bond The central part of an atom is called Nucleus The mass of a proton is about how many times that of an electron 1837 The particles in the nucleus, namely the neutrons and the protons are collectively referred to as Nucleons

The number of orbiting electron is normally _____ the number of the protons in the nucleus of an atom Equal The chemical formula which shows the relative number of atoms of all the elements present in a compound is called the Empirical formula The chemical formula which shows the exact number of atoms of all the elements present in a compound is called the Molecular formula When an atom loses an electron it forms Cation When an atom gains an electron it forms Anion The maximum number of electrons that the first energy level can accommodate is 2 The X-rays are discovered by W.C. Roentgen Refers to atoms or ions, which have the same electronic configuration. Isoelectronic Which group of the periodic table is known as the akali metals? Group I Which group is known as the halogens? Group VII The horizontal arrangement of elements increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called: Period The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called Atomic number The measure of the resistance of an object to a change in its state of motion is called Inertia Refers to agreement of a particular value with the true value Precision Refers to the degree of agreement among several measurements of the same quantity

Accuracy A property of matter often used by chemist as an identification number for a substance Density Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called Quarks The principle of constant composition of compound, originally called Prousts Law is now known as Law of definite proportion The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the reaction. In precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as: The law of conservation of mass When the same elements can form two different compounds, the ratio of masses of one of the elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the other elements. This is known as: The law of multiple proportion The ratio of the density of the test liquid to the density of the reference liquid is called Specific gravity How many electrons are there in a covalent bond? 2 SI unit of temperature Kelvin The elements that a compound is composed of is present in fixed and precise proportion by mass. This is known as Law of constant composition The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10 neutrons 19 amu The net electric charge of any atom is 0 The tendency of atoms to attract electrons into their valence shells to form anions is described by the concept of Electron affinity The tendency of atoms to attract electrons shared in a covalent bond is called Electronegativity

A covalent bond between atoms of identical electronegativity is called Nonpolar A formula which describes only the number of each element in the molecule is called the Molecular formula The formula which shows how atoms are joined together is called the Structural formula The pairs of electrons not shared in the covalent bond are called Nonbonded electrons or lone pair The word atom comes from the Greek word atomos meaning Cannot be cut Under normal state an atom is said to be Electrically neutral The word electron comes from the Greek word elektron meaning Amber The word proton comes from the Greek word proteios meaning Of first importance A solid which has no crystalline structure is called Amorphous A chemical substance which readily evaporates and readily diffuses at ordinary room temperature and pressure conditions is called Volatile Which of the following falls under fluids Both liquid and gas The gases that rarely take part in a chemical reaction are called Noble gases Which type of ions, metals form when enter into a chemical reaction Positive ions The chemical name for baking soda Sodium bicarbonate The subatomic particle with a negative charge and mass of 9.1 x 10^ -31 kg is Electron

The subatomic particle with a positive charge of mass 1.6 x 10 -27 kg is Proton Neutron was discovered by Chadwick ELECTRONICS COACHING

Electronics Coaching notes

ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING COACHING NOTES Lead acid does not depend on: Ans: Rate of charge

ead acid consists of: Ans: Dilute sulfuric acid, sponge lead, and lead peroxide

Conputer on a chip is called: Ans: Transputer

ransputer consists of Ans: 32 bits

Nibble consists of ____ bits. Ans: 4

OP amp has a gain of approximately Ans: 1,000,000

he voice coil has an impedance between Ans: 4 and 100 ohms.

emiconductor have ____ bonds. Ans: covalent

Nimak gantry robot has Ans: good precision positioning Sulphation in a lead acid cell is Ans: to incompletely charging

Nickel cadmium can be charged or discharged because Ans: water is neither absorbed or formed.

Daisy chaining Ans: method used in determining interrupt priorities in a microcontroller. Who coined the term robot? Ans: Karel Capek

ASER is classified as

Ans: monochromatic. Coherent and collimator.

55 timer consists of Ans: astable, monostable and VCO Early effect is also called Ans: base width modulation The effect produced due to flow of electrons and holes Ans: drift current Process of adding impurities in the intrinsic semiconductor Ans: Doping What is reduced by using bundled conduction? Ans: Power loss due to corona. ________ is also called modified Maxwell Wien bridge. Ans: Anderson bridge. ________ is a bridge that compares the capacitance of the capacitor. Ans: De Soutry bridge It measures unkonown inductance in terms of resistance and capacitance. Ans: Anderson bridge An IC consists of passive devices. Ans: Film IC SI unit of luminous intesnisty Ans: Candela SI unit of illuminance Ans: Lux A microwave diode that has a frequency range of 10-1000 GHZ Ans: IMPATT diode A microwave diode in the negative resistance region. Ans: PIN diode Schmitt trigger acts like a Ans: Latch Fermi level is in the Ans: Forbidden gap Invalid NAND flip-flop violation Ans: S=0 C=0 Invalid NOR flip-flop violation Ans: S=1 C=1 Range of depletion width Ans: 0.5 and 1 um

 Impedance matching Ans: Transformer coupling and emitter follower. Maxwell-Wien bridge measures Ans: Inductance D flip-flop consists of Ans: JK flip-flop, RS flip-flop and inverter Uses binary counters Ans: D flip-flop Ideal CMRR Ans: Infinity SCARA uses ____ operation Ans: Assembly Gold doping has an advantage of Ans: Reduced storage time. It is the time for the diode to be forward biased to off time Ans: Reverse recovery time The reverse current doubles in every ___ C increase in temperature. Ans: 6 LASER and LED are in what spectrum? Ans: Infrared spectrum. GaAs is used for Ans: Infrared light or invisible light Tapped coil oscillator Ans: Hartley

Tickler coil oscillator Ans: Armstrong Tapped capacitor oscillator Ans: Colpitts The sediment that allows the bottom of the lead acid cell Ans: Antimony Lead alloy Two transistors in class B is in Ans: Push-pull Photodarlington consists of Ans: Transistor and phototransistor Largest voltage applied without irreversible damage Ans: PIV Thermal neutron is also called _____ neutron.

Ans: Slow Avalanche breakdown is due to Ans: collision One nibble consists of Ans: 4 bits Large computer has a maximum of Ans: 64 bits Card readers can read about Ans: 10.000 cards per minute Advantage of ECL Ans: Lowest propagation delay Schottky TTL has Ans: Least propagation delay Main advantage of CMOS Ans: Low power CC voltage gain Ans: cannot be exceeded to unity. Largest voltage applied without irreversible damage Ans: PIV Transputer operates in Ans: parallel data It is an IC consist of passive and active devices Ans: Monolithic IC It is an IC consist of passive devices Ans: Film Discrete circuit Ans: Digital circuit Linear circuit Ans: Analog circuit Backhausen criterion is a condition that Ans: stops oscillating Negative output swing occurs Ans: near saturation

Positive output swing occurs Ans: towards cut-off When dry cell is charged, Ans: It increased in volume

 Class C acts Ans: as an RF amplifier Crystal uses Ans: RF transmitter A class of amplifier that has 85% efficiency Ans: Class C With Si, Z=14, it is Ans: Half-filled Formation of Si in valence shell Ans: 2, 8, 4 Volatile memory is Ans: Semiconductor ROM Semiconductor ROM is Ans: Combinational Logic circuit EPROM erases when strikes by Ans: Ultraviolet rays Bolometer acts like a Ans: Thermistor Ondograph is Ans: A waveshape of voltage and current. Nickel iron cell consists of Ans: NiOH, powdered iron and its oxide and 21% of potassium. CE is Ans: Phase reversal Photoconductive cell is also called Ans: photoresistive cell The smallest of all h parameter is Ans: hO

he formula of h11 is Ans: V1/I1

he h parameter consists of Ans: Construction, operating point and temperature Moving coil occurs in Ans: DC

TVM internal resistance is Ans: the highest internal resistance measures magnetic properties of ferromagnetic

Ans: Permeameter Simple RL low pass measures -12 dB/octave, corresponds to ___ dB/decade Ans: -40

Rotational joins of the robot is called _____ Ans: Revolute joints.

traight line joints movement of the robot is called Ans: Prismatic joints

nput and output point Ans: Handshaking

RL high pass filter has a phase difference of Ans: 45 degrees

Who invented the microprocessor in 1969? Ans: Ted Hoff

Who invented the 1st IC? Ans: Jack Kilby

I/dt of an SCR is Ans: local hot spot 3 display maximum reading Ans: 0999 1 mV reading Ans: 1000 Straight line method Ans: piecewise linear method Improper biasing of IC Ans: causes distortion One kWh of energy is equivalent to Ans: 860 kcal

unction breakdown occurs in Ans: reverse bias Ratio of Ah and Wh is Ans: greater than one. The capacity in a cell is measured in Ans: Ah In the IC, the SiO2 layer is Ans: isolation A V/I characteristic curve is Ans: Boltzman diode characteristic.

 Early effect is also called Ans: base width narrowing. Advantage of Swinburnes test is Ans: very convenient and very economical. An IC consists of ceramic substrate Ans: thin film IC An IC consists of alumina substrate Ans: thick film IC It is the development of a traverse electric field in a solid material when it carries an electric current Ans: Hall effect It is used when the input signal has periodically occurring intervals in which the input waveform is quiescent Ans: synchronized clamping A circuit that produces an output only when first activated by a preliminary pulse Ans: sampling gate Successive trigerring signal induces a transition regardless of the state in which binary happens to be Ans: symmetrical triggering Both carrier drift and carrier diffusion depend on ___ Ans: Einstein relation Microprogramming is Ans: A technique to implement the control logic necessary to execute instructions within a processor. It is used to measure a speed by cutting off light at a regular interval Ans: Stroboscope Thermal runaway is Ans: is an electrochemical reaction that causes a battery to heat and possibly explode. A kind of ROM that degrades its own memory contents as the memory is read Ans: EAROM An inductor operates at 400 Hz Ans: Toroidal core An inductor operates at 95 MHz Ans: Air core Data bus Ans: It is data lines in a system bus. In converting intrinsic into N-type extrinsic semiconductor, which element cannot be used? Ans: Indium Pin resistor has industrial heating in Ans: Hairpin form Any solid object has ___ degrees of freedom Ans: 6

Flip-flop as a latch Ans: S-C flip flop

PIN diode Ans: A microwave diode frequencies up to GHz range. Ip/Iv of a tunnel diode is used in Ans: Computer application Noise figure of MMIC (Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit) Ans: 3.5 to 6 dB Unique advantage feature of CMOS Ans: Power in a nanowatt range Any charge in a battery when taken off the vehicle Ans: Bench charge LASCR acts like a Ans: Latch

A word has Ans: 16-bit length A double word has Ans: 32-bit length A company who invented the word byte Ans: IBM Degrees of freedom is the number of ______ independent movements including the end effector Ans: independent An inductor operates at 400 Hz Ans: Toroidal core Percentage loss of the dc wound machine Ans: 1 % When dc voltage is removed, the clamper acts as a Ans: Rectifier CMOS has extremely Ans: Large packing density Solar cell has a principle of Ans: Photovoltaic cell Sensor that detects change in resistance in extrinsic semiconductor Ans: Spreading Resistance Sensor (SRS) Reduce the stray capacitance and capacitance between bridge arm by grounding Ans: Wagner Grounding

A meter sensitivity control in a test instrument Ans: Linear Taper Potentiometer A volume control in a stereo compact disc player Ans: Logarithmic Taper Potentiometer Faster in retrieval and storage compared to magnetic tape Ans: Magnetic Disk It has more ripple in a bandpass and cut-off frequency Ans: Chebyshev filter Darlington pair of transistors is _____ by Beta factor. Ans: multiplied CCD has ___ transfer electrons Ans: 6 Neutral logic Ans: Trinary logic Totally true, totally false Ans: Fuzzy logic Which is not a factor of capacitance? Ans: Plate thickness Ideal input impedance of an op-amp Ans: Very high Ideal output impedance of an op-amp Ans: Very low With 100 to match with higher input impedance, the configuration is Ans: Common base Optocoupler consists of an Ans: LED and phototransistor Optoisolator consists of an Ans: LED and phototransistor Positive feedback Ans: Oscillator Phase locked loop Ans: Frequency discriminator, FM detector Air as inductor core has Ans: Greatest efficiency
What increases noise immunity in op-amp?

Ans: Hysteresis
Resisitve element

Ans: Horizontal axis

Reactive element

Ans: Vertical axis

Sine wave with all harmonics

Ans: Square wave

It abruptly changes from 2 voltage leads

Ans: Square wave

63.2 %

Ans: One time constant

A sine wave oscillator, sine wave circuit

Ans: Crystal
Positive pulse on anode terminal

Ans: Turning on an SCS

3 phase rectifier that uses 6 rectifier element

Ans: Gratz rectifier

What uses as marker of 100 kHz?

Ans: 2 flip-flops
Feature of R-S to J-K flip-flop

Ans: Toggle
LC balance bridge

Ans: Maxwell bridge

Operator on microwave frequency

Ans: GaAs over Silicon or Germanium

J-K flip-flop frequency

Ans: Divides the frequency by 2.

Small capacitance formed by twisting 2 insulated wire

Ans: Gimmick Capacitor

Modified Miller circuit

Ans: Phanastron
Converts step to ramp circuit

Ans: Miller circuit

Servocontrolled robots are robots within ___ mm range rather than a fraction of mm.

Ans: 2
It is an electron tube which emits photoelectrons when the cathode is eliminated

Ans: Phototube
It is a radiant energy absorbed by the radiant to incident energy

Ans: Absorptance
Inventor circuit

Ans: Converts dc to ac circuit

Laurence or Living stone

Ans: Magnetic resonator or cyclotron

Microporgramming

Ans: Sequence of five binary codes

540 degrees

Ans: Phase opposition

Power efficiency of solar cell

Ans: 5% to 15%
Thermal detector

Ans: Bolometer
Exact location of data

Ans: Absolute code

Fundamental frequency in all harmonics

Ans: Sawtooth wave

dV/dt of SCR

Ans: False trigerring

Monolithic IC uses

Ans: Extensive large components

MOS IC uses

Ans: MOSFET
A diode with no depletion region

Ans: Schottky diode

LED emits light because

Ans: Electron and holes recombine

What is the difference on the input impedance of BJT and FET?

Ans: A FET has high input impedance while BJT has low input impedance.
Marking of scale to accept standard

Ans: Calibration
Zener diode is in

Ans: reverse diode

The temperature coefficient of extrinsic semiconductor is

Ans: negative
Voltage of selenium semiconductor

Ans: 1 V
It is preferred to manufacture diode and temperature rating

Ans: Silicon
Isotope

Ans: Abundance ratio

Electron hole pair is done by

Ans: Thermal energy

JFET square law device is because

Ans: its characteristic curve is parabolic

Tank circuit

Ans: Antiresonant
Cut-in voltage or turn on voltage current

Ans: Exponentially increases

Electron beam deflected from axial to enlarge

Ans: Deflection defocusing

Equal ratio bridge

Ans: Heaviside Campbell bridge

Silicon oxide (SiO2) is for

Ans: Insulation
APD is better than PIN diode is for

Ans: Speed of operation

Voltage for temperature stability of zener diode

Ans: 5.6 V
3 superconducting inductor in parallel

Ans: Persistor
Application of semiconductor

Ans: Wafer
LC circuit is used for

Ans: Load current

Power factor of RC is between

Ans: 0 and 1
Minimum Duty Cycle of Bust converter

Ans: Dmin = 1 2fsLc RL

Boost converter critical inductance

Ans: Lc = (1-D)2DRL 2fs

Buck Boost converter critical inductance

Ans: Lc = (1-D)2RL 2fs

Buck converter critical inductance

Ans: Lc = (1-D)RL 2fs

Typical CMRR

Ans: 100 to 10,000

Typical CMRR in dB

Ans: 40 to 80 dB

Accuracy of Wien bridge

Ans: 0.5% - 1%
Typical value of armature resistance

Ans: 0.5
The saturation voltage of an op-amp is ___ smaller than the power supply

Ans: 2 V
Solid grounding has a voltage below

Ans: 660 V
Resistance grounding has typical voltage between

Ans: 3.3 11 kV
Percentage conductivity of pure annealed silver wire

Ans: 108.8%
Percentage conductivity of 99.5% pure gold

Ans: 72.6%
Percentage conductivity of 63% pure aluminum

Ans: 63%
Corona is maximum on

Ans: transmission lines

Transformer that operates on the frequency range of 20 kHz to 20 MHz

Ans: Carrier frequency transformer

JFET configuration for buffer amplifier

Ans: common drain

JFET configuration for good voltage amplification

Ans: common source

JFET configuration for high frequency amplifier

Ans: common gate

The dc-dc converterwith unregulated input voltage and regulated output voltage

Ans: SMPS (Single Mode Power Supply)

Corona is due to

Ans: radio interference

A transformer on the frequency of 15 kHz

Ans: Converter transformer

Ingredients of wet cell

Ans: Zinc and copper

Main ingredient of dry cell

Ans: Zinc container

It reduces gain to a limiting level

Ans: Limiter

First transistor

Ans: Point contact

First fuel battery was invented by _____ in 1959.

Ans: F.T. Bacon

Unlike buck and boost converter, the buck boost converter featured output voltage:

Ans: opposite polarity to input. Lattice in which the lattice points are only shown in the crystal Ans: Bravais Lattice An error due to shortcoming of instruments Ans: Systematic error An error that cannot be corrected Ans: Random error It is a substance where the bulk is composed Ans: Element Typical voltage of lead-acid Ans: 2.1 V What type of cell used in the emergency system? Ans: Silver-zinc cell Microcontroller consists of Ans: Microprocessor, memory, input and output unit Percentage of the transistor current flows in the collector Ans: 95% SMPC operates between ON state and OFF state at a frequency of Ans: 10 kHz and 40 kHz A camera with imaging positron effect with multiple layer of silicon detector Ans: Compton camera NMOS is _____ than PMOS Ans: 6 times What is the diameter of the wafer used in manufacturing? Ans: 3 to 8 inches Standard spacing for IC chip Ans: 2 um and 3 um Advanced spacing for IC chip Ans: 1 um BCC crystal structure Ans: Chromium HPC crystal structure Ans: Zinc

Another name for differential amplifier Ans: Subtractor A factor that determines the filter response Ans: Damping factor Unity gain amplifier has ____ input impedance Ans: Extremely high Megger is Ans: used to measure high resistance

Increasing transmitter height Ans: Decrease capacitance and inductance remains the same. Undergrounding conductor is Ans: Maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath A transformer that has a frequency range from 100 Hz 150 kHz Ans: Converter transformer Surge impedance of cable Ans: 50 Ideal input impedance of op-amp Ans: 50 Formula for the increase % in saturation current Ans: 2((T2-T1)/10) X 100% Ideal noise factor Ans: 0 dB Vacant lattice site with missing atom relocated to a interstitial space with no atom. Ans: Frenkel effect FCC packing factor Ans: 0.74 Linear change of input Ans: Ramp input Instantaneous, finite input Ans: Step input Indicating device orientation of object Ans: Selsyn An AC bridge that measures mutual inductance Ans: Heaviside bridge One of the most important bridge in determining link capacitances Ans: Schering bridge Highest dielectric strength Ans: Glass

High sensitivity Ans: Permanent magnet A transformer in laminated core reduced Ans: Eddy current An analysis used for more than one voltage source Ans: Superposition theorem Maximum magnitude of the output voltage from an op-amp is called Ans: Saturation voltage A graph of amplitude versus input frequency Ans: Bode plot Effect of recombination on depletion region Ans: Emission coefficient or ideality factor Magnetic amplifier operates at a frequency at ____ or less Ans: 100 Hz Most commonly used coupling Ans: Transformer coupling Typical LED voltage Ans: 1.6 V Capacitance of disc ceramic capacitor Ans: 100 pF A bypass capacitor at high frequency Ans: Ceramic capacitor Indicating device orientation of object Ans: Selsyn Odd parity checker Ans: XOR Shelf life of lithium cell Ans: 5 to 10 years

Negative feedback Ans: Increases bandwidth and decrease voltage gain Alkaline cell ingredient Ans: Potassium hydroxide Advantage of NiCd over lead acid Ans: Cell on NiCd can be replaced By adding parallel circuit to the inverting amplifier Ans: Inverting summing Linear amplification

Ans: Level clamper Theory of magnetic flux in a closed system equal to zero Ans: Gauss theorem Personal error Ans: Gross error Advantage of magnetic disk to magnetic tape Ans: Easier to read The maximum current can safely handle Ans: Ampacity JFET reference voltage Ans: Source Buffer amplifier gain Ans: 1 AWG no. 6 Ans: 0.395 /1000 ft. AWG no. 12 Ans: 6350 cmil Indicating device orientation of object Ans: Selsyn A mass of 1.66 x 10-27 kg. Ans: Unified amu Reciprocal of Avogadros number Ans: amu Electrostatic radius of an atom Ans: 10-14 Manipulator has ___ degrees of freedom Ans: 3 Arrange in data arrays Ans: RAM OS memory Ans: BIOS Voltage amplifier Ans: Pre-amplifier Latest used data Ans: Cache memory

LIFO Ans: Stack memory

Minimum distance of features in a chip Ans: Geometry Number of elements not found in nature but also prepared in laboratories Ans: 105 IC advantage Ans: Reliability Minimum to maximum range Ans: Span 1/5 of the Wi-Fi range Ans: Bluetooth Temperature of Class B motor Ans: 130C Temperature of Class F motor Ans: 155C Pure ac voltage single frequency Ans: Single pip Cannot be used as a permanent magnet Ans: Caryon In doubles Kelvin bridge, 1 to 10 u Ans: 0.05% - 0.2% Wien bridge oscillator Ans: f = 1/(2RC) Most important IEEE standard interface Ans: IEEE 488 digital interface Common method of coupling used in cascade amplifier stages Ans: Transformer It is most obvious at higher frequencies Ans: Corona Early IC packaging method used in transistors Ans: TO (Transistor Outline) PLCC Ans: Plastic Lead chip memory It is used in Hi-Fi audio system to split frequencies to fed tweeter and woofer Ans: Crossover network Resistance offered by a PN junction in AC conditions Ans: Dynamic resistance Characteristic of shared systems to avoid mixing up of print outs or programs

Ans: Spooling Absorption of slow moving electrons by an interleaving matter Ans: Ramsauer effect If a load is removed from a long transmission line, the sending voltage end is less than receiving end Ans: Ferranti effect Corona results in Ans: Radio interference Ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of all metals Ans: Weidemann Franz Law Color of neutral in 3-core flexible cable Ans: Blue It is neglected in short transmission line analysis Ans: Shunt admittance It is located near transformer Ans: Lightning arrester Volume of atom ratio to cell volume Ans: Packing factor RLC circuit that provides undamped oscillation Ans: Ringing circuit Contact between metal and heavily doped-semiconductor Ans: Ohmic contact Comparator with hysteresis Ans: Schmitt trigger Negative electron Ans: Negatron Input continuously increases constant output Ans: Level Clamp Four arm AC bridge measures inductance by standard capacitance Ans: Maxwell Bridge Shows positions of lattice points Ans: Bravais Lattice Measures the diameter of an atom Ans: Ernest Rutherford Ratio of the AC power supply to the plate power supply Ans: Plate efficiency Electromechanical device that converts electrical to mechanical by attraction of iron plunger to the electromagnet Ans: Solenoid

Lithium battery Ans: Microcomputer memory back-up Protection against electric shock Ans: Earthing The heat generated melts the portion at the tip of the electrode and the base of the metal Ans: Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW)

Advantages of PCB Ans: Eliminates bigger chassis and point to point mounting Energy to raise the electron to another orbit Ans: Excitation It is used in high voltage and high current application for most efficient regulator Ans: Switching regulator What refers to garaging the two adjustments of an Ac bridge together in such a way that changing one adjustment changes the other in a special way, but changing the second adjustment does not change first? Ans: Orthogonal nulling Not common sine wave generator Ans: Multivibrator Range of degrees of freedom Ans: Work envelope Physical bend, twist, and reach Ans: Manipulator Poor selectivity Ans: Wide bandwidth It has amplifier and feedback Ans: Electronic amplifier Maintenance of oscillation Ans: Flywheel effect Free electrons collidal to bound electrons causing mere current carriers Ans: Avalanche effect Magnetic leakage due to 100% coupling Ans: Electromagnetic effect A particle resulting to an atom of an element combined to form a compound Ans: Molecule P shell number of electrons Ans: 72 Solid formed by covalent bonding Ans: Crystal The resistance in the magnetic path to the magnetic lines of force Ans: Reluctance

The flux density in an iron core when the magnetic intensity is zero Ans: Residual magnetism When an electron rises to the conduction band a hole is created in the valence band, this called _____ Ans: Electron hole pair Operating temperature of silicon. Ans: -175 to 350C Highly sensitive material Ans: Permanent magnet Smallest ripple voltage Ans: Multi-section LC filter Highest torque Ans: Series motors Motivating input in a control system which is independent with the output Ans: Command input Development process of a microcrystal molten Ans: Crystal growth The voltage regulator, the component used as a comparator Ans: Op-amp It is not an resistance welding Ans: Arc welding Atom to atom bond on surface with oxide free surface Ans: Pressure welding Elimination of stray capacitance Ans: Shielding and grounding 2 identical shunt motor Ans: Hopkinson In doubles Kelvin bridge, 1 to 10 u Ans: 0.05% - 0.2% AC voltage frequency converter from one form to another Ans: Cyclo converter Skin effect seen at Ans: High frequencies Indicates the address of next instruction Ans: Program counter Drift current is directly proportional to mobility, diffusion is directly proportional to concentration of diffusion Ans: Einstein relation dV/dt in SCR

Ans: False trigerring It divides an HF signal so that a low frequency counter would be able to display the operating frequency Ans: Prescaler circuit Responds to the variation in incident photon Ans: Quantum detector Draws less current from circuit under test Ans: FETVM It provides very high electrical isolation between control ckt and power ckt, has high impedance between light source and phototransistor. Ans: Optoisolator It is used to measure variations by the changing metallic resistance Ans: Bolometer Most common bolometric device Ans: Thermistor These are mostly used in robot than AC because it can with stand large overload. Ans: DC motor and stepper motor Converting sine wave to series of pulses Ans: Timing Marker Generator Current regulator alone Ans: Regulator IC alone What do you call a short circuit having minimum resistance? Ans: Dead short What is used in measuring wires from number 0 to number 36? Ans: AWG Discharge of electricity from a conductor with a high potential Ans: Corona Power transformer normally operates at ____ alternating current. Ans: 60 or 400 Hz What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 0 to 1 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 0 to 4 mA DC? Ans: Perception What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 1 to 4mA, 60 Hz, AC or 4 to 15 mA DC? Ans: Surprise What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 4 to 21 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 15 to 80 mA DC? Ans: Reflex action What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 21 to 40 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 80 to 160 mA DC? Ans: Muscular Inhibition What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 40 to 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 160 to 300 mA DC? Ans: Respiratory failure

What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of over 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 300 mA DC? Ans: Fatal What is the effect of hydrogen surrounding the anode of a cell which increases the internal resistance of the cell? Ans: Polarization What is the anode of a lead acid cell? Ans: Lead peroxide What is the cathode of a lead acid cell? Ans: Sponge lead What is the anode of a NiCad Cell ? Ans: Hydroxide What is the anode of a silver zinc cell? Ans: Silver oxide What is the cathode of a silver zinc cell ? Ans: Zinc What is the production of the hydrogen gas caused by a portion of the charge current breaking down the water in the electrolyte? Ans: Gassing What is the shelf life of lithium organic cell and lithium inorganic cell? Ans: 20 years In what charge is the charging rate determined by the battery voltage rather than a definite current value? Ans: Floating charge What charge is used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle or light duty? Ans: Floating charge Floating charge is sometimes referred to as ___ and is accomplished with low current. Ans: Trickle charge What is used when a battery must be recharged in the shortest possible time? Ans: Fast charge Electrical safety precatutions must be observed. A fatal shock can occur from ___ ampere of current. Ans: 0.1 Voltages as low as ___ volts have been recorded as causing sufficient current to be fatal. Ans: 30 What type of extinguishers are used to extinguish electrical fires? Ans: CO2 Under favorable conditions, the body resistance may be as low as ___ ohms Ans: 300 The body resistance is possibly as low as ___ from temple to temple if the skin is broken. Ans: 100

In a voltage divider, bleeder current is usually determined by the ___ percent rule of thumb. Ans: 10 A theory of magnetism based upon the electron-spin principle. Ans: Domain Theory. What action results in the increase in current that generates more heat and the cycle repeats itself until the diode draws excessive current? Ans: Thermal runaway What is the faithful reproduction of a signal in an amplifier? Ans: Fidelity What dc generators are designed to act as high gain amplifier? Ans: Amplidynes What is the range of the dc resistance of most motor armatures? Ans: 0.05 to 0.5 ohms What is usually the lamination thickness of the armature core of a small generator? Ans: 1/64 inches Mechanical rotation of frequency is measured using a device called___. Ans: Tachometer The rotation of frequency of recording devices and teletypewriter motors can be measured by the use of _____. Ans: Stroboscope. What is an instrument that allows you to view rotating or reciprocating objects intermittently and produces the optical effect of a slowing down or stopping motion? Ans: Stroboscope What is an electronic flash device in which the flash duration is very short, a few millionths of a second and can measure very rapid motion? Ans: Strobotac What is a combination of watch and revolution counter? Ans: Chronometric tachometer What type of bolometer is characterized as an increase in resistance as the dissipated power rises? Ans: Barreter What type of bolometer is characterized by decrease in resistance as the power increases? Ans: Thermistor What instrument is used for measuring radio frequency (rf) power? Ans: Thermocouple ammeter Which of the following robots is used for machining processes? Ans: Cincinatti T3 Kuka spot welding has ___ degrees of freedom. Ans: 6 Exx1x Ans: All positions Exx2x

Ans: horizontal positions Magnetic audio tape Ans: Parallel Magnetic video tape Ans: Diagonal Thickness of magnetic audio tape Ans: 1 mil A sawtooth wave has a ____ added to become trapezoidal wave. Ans: resistor Absent of current welding Ans: cool sub-interval 1.5 H Ans: Air pot core Who coined the term robotics? Ans: Isaac Asimov Oldest welding Ans: Forge welding Klystron Ans: High achievable power output Inert gas Ans: MIG Active gas Ans: MAG Antrophomorphic robot is Ans: more maneuverable It is also known as metal inert gas. Ans: Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW) Robot with facial expression Ans: Kismet Toy dinosaur robot Ans: Pleo Snap acting switch Ans: Microswitch Approach in which introduce factory automation technology Ans: Islands of automation Degree of automatic. Ans: Level of automation

Orange, blue and gray diode Ans: IN368 It is the welding electrode comes forward and engage the metal pressing against the surface. Ans: squeeze interval It is the welding in which the welding transformer energized and the current flows and create a weld. Ans: weld interval It is the weld interval that is finished Ans: hold interval Welding electrode is retracted Ans: release interval A time after release interval to the next start sequence. Ans: Standby interval. It is a closed loop feedback control system in which one or more of the system signals represent mechanical motion. Ans: Servomechanism. Exx3x Ans: Flat E60xx has a tensile strength of ___ Ans: 60,000 psi With AC or DC similar to E6010 Ans: E6011 Major power supply of MIG Ans: DCRP Medium penetration Ans: E6013 Can be prevented by arc welding Ans: Arc flow Faying surfaces in one spot Ans: Resistance spot welding Faying surfaces Ans: Resistance seam welding Resistance of the work Ans: Resistance welding Mass of 60-lb IR robot Ans: 60 kg Deep penetration Ans: Submerged arc Deep penetration Ans: DC reverse

Medium penetration Ans: DC straight Fast welding Ans: Flash welding 10,000 to 50,000 Hz welding Ans: High frequency welding Image resolution Ans: Dot pitch Voltage of dry electrolytic capacitor Ans: 500 V Apply electrostatic voltage in plastic Ans: Electroactive polymer In electrolytic positive, ___ of the total heat. Ans: 2/3 Prevents corona Ans: Braid 450F below Ans: Soldering above 450F joining of two metals Ans: Brazing Metal active gas Ans: CO2 Multimeter on the lower center switch Ans: Range switch Multimeter on the lower left switch Ans: Function switch Aluminum D-ARsonval movement Ans: Bobbin Positive lead Ans: Red Negative lead Ans: Black Angular momentum of robot Ans: Yaw GaAs disadvantage Ans: more expensive

Disadvantage of Transformer to capacitive coupling Ans: more expensive A motor or transducer that converts energy (electrical, hydraulic, or pneumatic) into power used to produce motion or power. Ans: actuator The ability of a robot to position its end effector at a programmed location in space. Ans: accuracy Control signals that are processed by directly measuring quantities (voltages, resistances or rotation). This can be hydraulic, electronic or pneumatic. Ans: analog control A robot or machine that resembles a human. Ans: android A robot with rotary joints that can move much like a persons arm. Ans: anthrophomorphic robot An interconnected set of links and powered joints comprising a manipulator that supports or moves a wrist, hand or end effector. Ans: arm The ability of a machine system to perceived anticipated or unanticipated new conditions, decide what actions must be performed under the conditions and plan the actions accordingly. The main areas of applications are expert systems and computer vision. Ans: artificial intelligence Also known as assembly cell or assembly station. A concentrated group of equipment such as manipulators, vision modules, parts presenters, and support tables that are dedicated to compute assembly operations at one physical location. Ans: assembly The use of any one several techniques to determine the presence or absence of features. This technique include simple mechanical probes and vision systems. Ans: automated inspection Automatically controlled operation of an apparatus, process or system by mechanical or electronic devices that replace human observation, effort and decision. Ans: automation A traveled path in space, usually referred to as a linear direction of travel in any of three dimensions. Ans: axis A robot in which motions are controlled by driving each axis or degree of freedom against a mechanical limit stop. Ans: bang-bang robot A platform or structure to which a robot arm is attached; the end of a kinematic chain of arm links and joints opposite to which grasps or processes external objects. Ans: base A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more workstations or machines and the material transport mechanisms and storage buffers that interconnect them. Ans: cell A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more cells, and the material transport mechanisms and storage buffers that interconnect them. Ans: center

An assembly between two closely related rigid members enabling on member to rotate in relation to the other around a mobile axis. Ans: complex joint The use of an interactive terminal workstation usually with graphics capability to automate the design of products. It includes functions such as drafting and fit-up parts. Ans: computer aided design (CAD) Working from a product design likely to exist in a CAD data base, it encompases the computer based technologies that physically produce the product, including parts program preparation, process planning, tool design, process analysis and parts processing by numerically controlled machines. Ans: computer-aided manufacturing (CAM) A numerical control system with a dictated mini or micro computer that performs the functions of data processing and control. Ans: computerized numerical control (CNC) The unit of automatic work for a robot. Within a cycle, subelements called trajectories define lesser but integral elements. Each trajectory is made up of points where the robot performs an operation or passes through depending upon the programming. Ans: cycle (program) The number of independent ways the end effector can move. It is defined by the number of rotational or translational axes through which motion can be obtained. Ans: degrees of freedom The joint that connects the upper arm and forearm on a robot. Ans: elbow Also known as end of arm tooling or simply a hand. The subsystem that links the mechanical portion of the robot (manipulator) to the part being handled or work on, and gives the robot the ability to pick yp and transfer parts and/or handle a multitude of different tools to perform work on parts. Ans: end effector Robots with little if any computer power. Their only intelligent functions consist of learning a sequence of manipulative actions, choreographed by a human operator using a teach box. Ans: first generation robot system Also known as nonservo robot or open robot. A robot with stoppoint control but no trajectory control. Ans: fixed stop robot Multipurpose robots that are adaptable and capable of being redirected trained or used for new purposes. Ans: flexibility operational An arrangement of machine tools that is capable of standing alone, interconnected by a workpiece transport system and controlled by a central computer. Ans: flexible manufacturing system (FMS) Also known as pedestal robot. A robot with its base permanently or semi-permanently attached to the floor or bench. Such a robot is working at one location with a maximum limited work area and in many cases servicing only one machine. Ans: floor mounted robot That portion of a jointed arm which is connected to the wrist and elbow Ans: forearm. An overhead mounted, rectilinear robot with a minimum of three degrees of freedom and normally not exceeding six. Ans: gantry robot.

The grasping hand of a robot, which manipulates objects and tools to fulfill a given task. Ans: gripper An approach used to introduce factory automation technology into manufacturing by selective application of automation. Ans: islands of automation. The degree to which a process has been made automatic. Relevant to the level of automation are questions of automatic failure recovery, the variety of situations that will be automatically handled, and the conditions under which manual intervention or action by human beings is required. Ans: level of automation An electrical switched positioned to be switched where a motion limit occurs, thereby deactivating the actuator that causes the motion. Ans: limit switch A mechanism usually consisting of a series of segments or links, jointed or sliding to one another, for grasping or moving objects, usually in several degrees of freedom. Ans: manipulator A method for the control of machine tool systems. A program containing all the information, in symbolic numerical form, needed for processing a workpiece is stored on a medium such as paper or magnetic tape. Ans: numerical control Developing robot programs partially or completely without requiring the use of the robot itself. The program is loaded into the robots controller for subsequent automatic action of the manipulator. Ans: off-line programming Software that controls the execution of computer programs, may provide scheduling, allocation, debugging data management, and other functions. Ans: operating systems Also known as positioning. The consistent movement or manipulation of an object into controlled position and altitude in space. Ans: orientation The equipment used in conjunction with the robot for a complete robotic system. This includes grippers, conveyors, parts positioners and parts or materials feeders that are needed with the robot. Ans: peripheral equipment Also known as bend. The angular rotation of a moving body about an axis that is perpendicular to its direction of motion and in the same plane as its top side. Ans: pitch Also known as photoelement or photosite. A digital picture or sensor element, picture is short for picture cell. Ans: pixel The act of providing the control instructions required for a robot to perform its intended task. Ans: programming The envelope of variance of the robot tool print position for repeated cycles under the same conditions. It is obtained from the deviation between the positions and orientations reached at the end of several similar cycles. Contrast with accuracy. Ans: repeatability A reprogrammable, multifunctional manipulator designed to move a material, parts, tools, or specialized devices through variable programmed motions for the performance of a variety of tasks. Ans: robot The science of designing, building and applying robots.

Ans: robotics Also known as twist. The rotational displacement of a joint around the principal axis of its motionj, particularly at the wrist. Ans: roll A robot with a computer processes added to the robotic controller. This addition makes it possible to perform, in real time, the calculations required to control the motions of each degree of freedom in a cooperative manner to effect smooth motions of the end effector along predetermined paths. It also become possible to integrate simple sensors, such as force torque, and proximity into the robot system ,providing some degree of adaptability to the robots environment. Ans: second generation robot system A controller that operates an application though a fixed sequence of events. Ans: sequencer A robot driven by servomechanisms, that is, motors or actuators whose driving signal is a function of the difference between a commanded position and/or rate is measured actual position and/or rate. Ans: servocontrolled robot An automatic control mechanism consisting of a motor or actuator driven by a signal that is a function of the difference between a commanded position and/or rate and measured actual position and/or rate. Ans: servomechanism The manipulator arm linkage joint that is attached to the base. Ans: shoulder The maximum velocity at which a manipulator joint can move; a rate imposed by saturation in the servoloop controlling the joint. Ans: slew rate The use of two or more cameras to pinpoint the location of an object in a three dimensional space. Ans: stereo imaging The detection by a robot though contact of touch, force, pattern slip and movement. It allows for the determination of local shape, orientation and feedback forces of a grasped workspace. Ans: tactile sensing A robot system characterized by the incorporation of multiple computer processors, each operating asynchronously to perform specific functions. It includes a separate low level processor for each degree of freedom and a master computer supervising and coordinating these processors, as well as providing higher-level functions. Ans: third generation robot system The orientation of a view with a video camera, in elevation. Ans: tilt A continuous position control response to continuously changing input requirements. Ans: tracking A movement such that all axes remain parallel to what they were. Ans: translation The acquisition, movement thorugh space, and release of an object by a robot. Ans: transport The portion of a jointed arm that is connected to the shoulder. Ans: upper arm Also known as the robot operating envelope. The set of points representing the maximum extent or reach of the robot tool in a directions.

Ans: work envelope The envelope reached by the center of the interface between the wrist and the tool, using all available axis motions. Ans: workspace A set of joints, usually rotational, between the arm and the hand or end effector, which allow the hand or end effector to be oriented relative to the workpiece. Ans: wrist The angular displacement of a moving joint about an axis which is perpendicular to the line of motion and the top side of the body. Ans: yaw What magnet is used in computer memory circuits? Ans: Ring magnet What magnet is used in some meter circuits? Ans: Horseshoe magnet If the electrons of the atom in a material spin more in one direction than in the other, the material will become magnetized. This refers to what theorem? Ans: The Domain theory of Magnetism What theorem assumes that all magnetic materials are made up of magnetic molecules which, if lined up in north to south pole order, will be a magnet. If not lined up, the magnetic fields about the molecules will neutralize each other and no magnetic effect will be noted? Ans: Webers theory of magnetism What do you call a short circuit having minimum resistance? Ans: Dead short What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is no external load? Ans: Local action The amount of increase in the resistance of 1 ohm sample of the conductor per degree of temperature rise above 0C is called what? Ans: Temperature coefficient of resistance What do you call the resistance to current leakage through the insulation? Ans: Insulation resistance What is the common name for enamel insulated wire? Ans: Magnet wire What term is general one and usually applies only to the larger sizes of conductors? Ans: Cables The process of applying thin coat of solder to materials prior to their being soldered. Ans: Tinning The addition of atmospheric oxygen to metal to form rust, or to cause a breakdown in the internal construction of the metal. Ans: Oxidation What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is not external load? Ans: Local action A continuous jacket of lead molded around a single conductor or multiple conductor cable.

Ans: Lead sheath What do you call the force exerted on an insulator by the voltage in a conductor? Ans: Electrostatic stress The discharge of electricity from a conductor with a high potential. Ans: Corona A material that removes oxides from surfaces to be joined by soldering or welding. Ans: Flux A synthetic mixture of rosins that is flexible and used as an insulating material. Generally used as an insulator for low and medium range voltages. Ans: Thermoplastic The capacity of a soldering iron to generate and maintain a satisfactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the material being soldered. Ans: Thermal inertia What is the working voltage of a dry electrolytic capacitor? Ans: 500 V If arcing should occur between the plates of an oil filled capacitor, the oil will tend to reseal the hole caused by the arcing. Such a capacitor is referred to as ____ capacitor. Ans: self-healing The maximum voltage that can be steadily applied to the capacitor without the capacitor breaking down (shorting) is called ____ of the capacitor. Ans: working voltage What is meant by local action? Ans: Current flow in cell with no external load. The left side of the pulse Ans: Leading edge The right side of the pulse Ans: Trailing edge What is the process by which an atoms gain or losses electrons? Ans: Ionization Any group of energy levels that results from the close proximity of atoms in a solid. Ans: Energy bands How many pulsations per revolution have the output voltage of an elementary single coil dc generator? Ans: Two How many commutator segments are required in a two-coil generator? Ans: Four What is the distortion of the main field due to the effects of armature current? Ans: Armature reaction What type of prime mover requires a specially designed high speed alternator? Ans: Steam turbine

What type of rotor is used in slower speed alternators? Ans: Salient pole rotor What type of rotor is wound in a manner to allow high-speed use without flying apart? Ans: Turbine driven type rotor What term is used to denote the difference in speed between the rotor which is always somewhat less than the speed of the rotating field? Ans: Slip What mechanical device reverses armature connections in motors and generators at the proper instant so that current continues to flow only in one direction? Ans: Commutator What motor characteristic is affected by counter emf? Ans: Speed How is EPROM erased? Ans: with a burst of ultraviolet light Whenever data is transferred between devices, it involves the exchange of prearranged signals. What is this process called? Ans: Handshaking What test is used to check for opens (or to see if the circuit is complete or continuous) and is accomplished with an ohmmeter? Ans: Continuity test What type of circuits are caused by some conducting part of the circuit making contact either directly or indirectly with the metallic structure of the ship or chassis? Ans: Ground circuits Shunts are usually made from what alloy? Ans: Manganin What property of shunt is desired because of the heavy currents that often flow through shunts producing heat? Ans: Zero-temperature coefficient In DArsonval meter, many turns of fine wire would be used, each turn adding more effective length to the coil. The coil is wound on an aluminum frame called ___. Ans: bobbin What is an important point to remember when you are making an accurate resistance measurement? Ans: Zero the meter each time you select a new range. BJT better than FET Ans: radio receiver Wineglass Ans: Plasma arc welding plasma Ans: Plasma arc welding Slow speed Ans: Salient pole

High speed Ans: Turbine driven type rotor Differentiation Ans: Submerged Comparison solenoid Ans: Relay fixed core Human arm Ans: Serial robot Input display signal voltage Ans: Vertical deflection coil Replacing DC motor/recently used Ans: Piezo motor Rapid discharge of electrical energy Ans: Percussion welding Hydrogen Electrode Ans: E7018 False Ans: Air has the concentrated magnetic field Electron gun tube Ans: CRT Electron field tube Ans: Electron beam Multicavity Klystron Ans: Variable electron speed Fuse Ans: Quick break type Magnetic frequency increases Ans: Power output decreases Cause of electrons due to the longitudinal Ans: Magnetic field Along a joint Ans: Upset welding Fastest memory Ans: Flash memory Tungsten electrode Ans: TIG Use of non-interlaced monitor Ans: Fast graph

CMOS disadvantage Ans: cannot handle high power TTL Ans: least susceptible to noise E stands for Ans: American Wire Electrode Exceeding 450F Ans: Brazing Not exceeding 450F Ans: Soldering Generators used Ans: Magnetic Battery used as Ans: chemical Responsible of pulsating DC Ans: Commutator Low voltage high power Ans: Center tapped Full Wave Oldest 1940 general magnetic phenomenon Ans: Colding or cold contact Joints Ans: Direct Kinematics End effector Ans: Inverse Direct Kinematics Nothing but to memory Ans: Flag field Unwanted connection Ans: Fault connection Frequency synthesizer used as Ans: Divider Output amplitude Ans: Amplitude stability DC motor is preferred as driver in robotics because Ans: it can withstand large overload Welding is not used direct source because Ans: it is impracticable to draw heavy currents Atomic hydrogen is long lived because

Ans: ac is used

RF power amplifier Ans: Common base Choke Ans: passes dc but not RF Multivibrator Ans: Common emitter or common source Algorithm better than ZMP Ans: Dynamic balancing One feet with small Ans: Hopping Automatic welding Ans: 5 intervals Control grid of a tube Ans: gate of a FET Impedance mismatch reactance output Ans: Transformer Laminated core Ans: reduces eddy current loss No load loss but not electrical loss Ans: Windage Manganese Dioxide Alkaline Acid Ans: Alkaline Cell Draws large amount of current Ans: Rheostat Increase RL Ans: Improved Efficiency Single coil Ans: Elementary generator 3 classifications of robot Ans: Anthrophomorphic, SCARA, and articulated Connects arm and end effectors Ans: Wrist ____ for bones, ____ for muscle and ____for degrees of freedom. Ans: links, actuator, and joints Early actuator Ans: Elastic nanotube

Changing of electric energy Ans: Electroactive polymer Variable speed Ans: DC generator Constant speed Ans: AC generator More robot than worker Ans: Japan Transient suppression prevents Ans: diode failure Tunnel diode Ans: Dr. Leo Esaki Zener Diode Ans: Dr. Carl Zener Varactor diode uses Ans: Frequency stability 2 terminal communicate Ans: Handshaking Highest fidelity Ans: Class A Portion Ans: Class AB FET amplifier Ans: Class AB2 Medium penetration Ans: E6013 Oxy fuel arc Ans: Oxy fuel gas welding Electrical requirement of arc welding Ans: high open circuit voltage Horizontal oscilloscope Ans: Time/division Joining of metals Ans: Welding Radio using tubes Ans: Bulk and heavy The purpose of I in PIN diode

Ans: minimizes junction capacitance 1/16 to 5/16 in in diameter Ans: American Welding Society Degrees of freedom for General purpose effectors Ans: 20 Deep penetration welding Ans: Submerge arc welding JFET except Ans: transconductance Pinch off voltage Ans: Transconductance is zero Formula for IC with leakage current Ans: IC = IB + (+1)ICBO IE Ans: IE = IC - ICBO ICQ Ans: ICQ = IBQ + ICEO IEQ Ans: IEQ = ICQ + IBQ

Increase temperature leakage current Ans: ICBO = ICBO (T2-T1)/10 Charge of a capacitor Ans: Q = CV Charge Ans: Q = Qo (1-e(-t/RC)) Dependent on gap Ans: Charge efficiency NRZI means Ans: Non-return to zero invert Pilot cell Ans: identifies the condition of the battery More likely to occur than zener breakdown because lightl doped Ans: Avalanche breakdown How wire Ans: measure dc and ac Dielectric constant of mica Ans: 6

Buck boost lossless Ans: D = (V2)/(V1+V2) Buck Ans: D = V2/V1 Op-amp filter Ans: Polysterene TTL Ans: open circuit high level I2L Ans: bipolar saturated logic EAROM Ans: Degrade data if used 6 rectifying elements Ans: Gratz rectifier Superconductivity thin film memory consisting of a superconducting inductor Ans: Permistor Register and counters are the same because Ans: they have the same array of flip flop and gates High Q Ans: High selectivity 2 principles of detector Ans: Rectifier and filter Microprocessor Ans: ALU and control unit CPU Ans: ALU and control unit Simulate Ans: Simulator Servocontrolled robot Ans: Soft stop Nonservo robot Ans: Hard stop Lowest resistivity at 293 K Ans: Copper BIG elements Ans: Trivalent PAA elements Ans: Pentavalent

Analog preferred than digital because Ans: of measuring signal strength Opposing torques Ans: Deflecting and restoring torques Code that Ans: Absolute code Equal ripple Ans: Eliptic filter Illuminance Ans: Lux Ripple sharp cutoff Ans: Chebyshev filter Adds all harmonics Ans: Sawtooth Odd harmonics Ans: Square All even harmonics Ans: Push pull The single grid of vacuum Ans: Control grid In low frequency cutoff, amplitude decreases by ___ from midrange value Ans: 3 dB Change in audio range Ans: 1 dB

EXCEL

Fiber Optics (Chapter 11: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following refers to the relative refractive index difference of single mode fibers? 0.1 - 0.3 % ECE Board Exam November 2000 A parameter of light beam that do not change the quality when it enters one medium from another. Frequency ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following limits the top speed of transmitting information in fiber optic communication?

Detector speed ECE Board Exam November 1999 Type of multi-channel signal transmission in the optic fiber communication that uses twisted pair coupler to transmit two signals of different wavelengths. Frequency-division multiplexing ECE Board Exam April 1999 Best applies to an optical fiber core. A higher refractive index than the cladding ECE Board Exam November 1998 How many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over cable? 100 times bigger ECE Board Exam April 1998 What law does a light travelling in an optical fiber follow? Snell's ECE Board Exam November 1997 Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye. Ultraviolet ECE Board Exam April 1997 Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable. 0.38dB ECE Board Exam November 1996 An object father from a converging lens than its focal point always has an ________ image. inverted ECE Board Exam March 1996 The dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core. Cladding ECE Board Exam April 2001 An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication is not intended to determine one of the following: Kind of multiplexing --------------------- An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication------Refractive index Loss per kilometer Length of fiber ECE Board Exam November 2000

In wire communications system using fiber optic, the packing fraction is related to one of the following statements when referred to fiber optic bundle. Ratio of the total cross-sectional area to the total cross-sectional area of the fiber bundle ECE Board Exam April 2000 Why are fiber optic cables considered less expensive compared to coaxial cables in communication system? Use of less repeaters ECE Board Exam November 1999 An optic fiber regenerator which is used in communication is consisting of a ________ to clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and a similar system for the opposite direction. transmitter and receiver ECE Board Exam April 1999 How do you account the effect of light intensity on the refractive index of a fiber optic? Increases ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the following referred to as a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer. Pulse generator laser ECE Board Exam April 1998 __________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency. Laser ECE Board Exam November 1997 The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communication system. APDs ECE Board Exam April 1997 A non-coherent light source for optical communications system. LED ECE Board Exam November 1996 The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is attenuation ECE Board Exam March 1996 It is made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-gallium-arsenide or gallium-arsenidephosphide. Light emitting diode ECE Board Exam April 2001 How much bigger does the bandwidth of a single mode fiber optic have over the multimode fiber? 20 times bigger

ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following refers to the bandwidth of optical fiber? 1 MHz - 500 MHz ECE Board Exam April 2000 Refers to a characteristic of a multimode fiber optic. Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core must be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried. ECE Board Exam November 1999 What do you call the loss in signal power as the light travels the fiber optic? Attenuation ECE Board Exam April 1999 One of the characteristics of a fiber optic used in order to carry light in several modes of propagation or to become a multimode fiber. Diameter of the core must be very muuch greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried. ECE Board Exam November 1998 What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a detector? Photovoltaic effect ECE Board Exam April 1998 Quantity that do not change when a beam of lifgt enters one medium to another Frequency ECE Board Exam April 1997 Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion. Step-index multimode ECE Board Exam November 1997 Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light intensity at 1.55 um.

ECE Board Exam November 1996 The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted is known as __________.

mode ECE Board Exam March 1996 An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the siica material from which fibers are manufactured. Ultraviolet absorption ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following is not a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication? vertical and horizontal plates -------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication--------------------Laser Beam splitter Pulse generator ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following is a part of an optical time domain reflectometer? Beam splitter ECE Board Exam April 2000 This refers to a certain material which is most sensitive to light. Photoresist ECE Board Exam November 1999 Referred to as a light source of fiber optic which supplies level of 5 to 7 milliwats and having a narrow spectrum of emission. Injection laser diode ECE Board Exam April 1999 Most likely, how many times would a fiber optic break in a span of thirty years? 2 - 3 times ECE Board Exam November 1998 An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signal from magnetic field or solar storm flux Immunity to noise ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength? Violet ECE Board Exam April 1997

Fiber optic cable operates near ________ frequencies. 800 THz ECE Board Exam November 1997 If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the detector rise time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE. Board Exam November 1996 Proposed the used of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide Bockham and Kao ECE Board Exam November 2000 ln electronic communications where fiber optic material is used, a reflected wave is a possibility. what happen to the polarization of this reflected wave when compared to its original form? Shifts to 180 degrees ECE Board Exam April 2000 The effect of multimode propagation caused the rays leaving the fiber to interfere constructively and destructively as they leave the end of the fiber this effect is called _________. modal delay spreading ECE Board Exam November 1999 What is the wavelength for deep violet light? 500 nmeter ECE Board Exam April 1999 A device in the fiber optic that is used to attenuate the reflected signal from the polished end of the fiber which has a possibility of developing into a noise. Isolator ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the advantages of the fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it can carry Bandwidth ECE Board Exam April 1998 Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links. Optical repeater ECE Board Exam November 1997 A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems

Optical attenuator ECE Board Exam April 1997 Lifetime of ILDs 50.000 h ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon? Molten ECE Board Exam November 2000 One of the major limitations of a plastic fiberoptic used in communication Due to its high losses ECE Board Exam April 2000 One of following is considered the largest source of signal power loss in the use of fiber optic as communications medium such as due to misalignment. ConnectionECE Board Exam NOvember 1999 One of the following is related to the application of solid material as a medium where light travels. medium where Ilght travels. apphcatlon of 5DHd mater-ja}; as 3 Fiber optics ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the following is not considered as one of the causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic? Inter-modulation ----------------causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic----------------Scattering Fiber bending Absorption ECE Board Exam November 1997 The core of the optical fiber has _______ a higher index of refraction than the cladding ECE Board Exam November 1997 Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed during the manufacturing process of the fiber optics. Rayleigh scattering loss ECE Board Exam November 1996 If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the detector rise time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE Board Exam November 2000 A phenomenon which causes the speed of light rays propagation in the fiber material changes, as it passes through different medium in the fiber Refraction ECE Board Exam April 2000 At what intenial does a fiber optic needs a repeater in communications system? 30 to 300 miles ECE Board Eanm November 1999 Referfeq to as a limit in reducing further the loss of signal passing through a fiber optic caused by scattering. Rayleigh effect ECE Board Exam April 1999 These are band of light wavelengths, that are too short to be seen by the human eye. Ultraviolet ECE Board Exam November 1998 A quarter wavelength device made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the optic fiber communication Retarder ECE Board Exam April 1999 At what power levels does fiber optic have when used in electronic communications? Range of micro to milliwatts ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication. Semi-graded multimode ECE Board Exam November 1998 How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber optic? By application of antireflection coating ECE Board Exam November 1998 What is the device use in used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter use tc clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in opposite direction? Optic regenerator

ECE Board Exam November 2000 An advantage of fiber optic over co-axial cable as a result of coupling signals from one to the other due to changing magnetic field in one or both. Crosstalk ECE Board Exam April 2001 What is the index of refraction of a certain substance if light travels through the substance at 100 meters at a time is to 140 meters to air'?

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Saturday, June 16, 2012

Satellite Communications (Chapter 10: Past Board Exce)
ECE Board Exam April 2001 What balance the gravitational pull of the earth to allow the satellite to stay on its orbit? Centripetal force ECE Board Exam November 2000 Satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern. Nonsynchronous satellite ECE Board Exam April 1999 In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a reply is heard? 600 ms ECE Board Exam November 1999 What are the repeaters inside communications satellite known for? Transponders ECE Board Exam April 2000 Under a circular satellite orbiy, how high is a certain satellite located above the surface of the earth if the total satellite height is 9869 miles?

ECE Board Exam November 1998 Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period if rotation of the earth about its axis. Geosynchronous satellite ECE Board Exam April 1998 A radio land station in the land mobile service. Base station ECE Board Exam November 1997 The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the distance from the measuring instrument. Telemetry ECE Board Exam April 1997 _______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna. Azimuth ECE Board Exam November 1996 How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU? 6 ECE Board Exam MArch 1996 The point on satellite orbit, closest to the earth is perigee ECE Board Exam April 2001 A mobile service between base stations and land mobile stations or between land mobile stations. Mobile service ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following refers to the basic component of a communication satellite receiver? Transponder ECE Board Exam April 2000 Determine from the following the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite. Spin ECE Board Exam November 1999 A space distance iin satellite communication from the earth, to or greater than 2,000,000

kilometers is referred to as ___________. deep space ECE Board Exam April 1999 How many satellites does the GPS system consist? 24 satellites ECE Board Exam November 1999 Which point on the satellite orbit is closest to the earth? perigee ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following is refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antenna's radiation pattern? spot beam ECE Board Exam April 1998 A major and basic advantage for the use of klystron. Hiigh power ECE Board Exam November 1997 Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion. Land station ECE Board Exam April 1997 __________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current, amplifies and lower its frequency. LNB ECE Board Exam November 1996 Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite. Satellite dish ECE Board Exam March 1996 It is a spacecraft replaced in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiving and transmitting equipments Communications satellite ECE Board Exam April 2001 A what apogee in an elliptical orbit must a geosynchronous satellite be initially stationed before it is finally fired into its final geostationary orbit? 22,300 miles ECE Board Exam November 2000 Satellite orbit around the earth are either: they are either circular or elliptical

ECE Board Exam April 2000 Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the cooperating stations. Satellite network ECE Board Exam November 1999 A resultant effect in launching a satellite from the earth caused by both forward motion away from the earth that provides inertia tending the satellite to travel in straight line upwards and the gravitational pull towards the earth is referred to as ___________. centripetal acceleration ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following refers to the first active satellite? Sputnik 1 ECE Board Exam April 1998 A band where most military satellite often operate. X ECE Board Exam November1997 Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously. Telstar I ECE Board Exam April 1997 What kind of battery panels are used in some advanced satellites? Gallium arsenide solar panels ECE Board Exam November 1996 Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's station. Downlink ECE Board Exam November 1999 In satellite communications where satellites revolve in an orbit that forms a plane passing through the center of gravity of the earth, this center is called ____________ geocenter ECE Board Exam April 1998 The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate functions of equivalent at a distance. Telecommand ECE Board Exam November 1997 The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate modify or terminate functions of equipment at a distance. Telecommand

ECE Board Exam April 1997 Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe. Satellite coverage ECE Board Exam November 1996 The first commercial satellite Early bird ECE Board Exam November 1996 What band does VSAT first operate? C-band ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which part of transponder converts the received signal to another lower frequency? Mixer ECE Board Exam April 1998 In satellite communications, the geostationary satellites are conveniently located with respect to the equator at __________. 0 degrees latitude ECE Board Exam November 1997 The Ku-band in the satellite service. 14/11 GHz ECE Board Exam April 1997 Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia? 38 ECE Board Exam November 1996 Satellite engine uses ion propulsion system ECE Board Exam April 2001 How do you increase or double the channel capacity of a satellite without increasing the frequency bandwidth? Re-use frequency ECE Board Exam April 1998 A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of earths surface. Global beam ECE Board Exam November 1997 Receives and collects satellite signals from a broadcast satellite. Satellite disk

ECE Board Exam April 1997 Sound intensity level is __________ 10 log I/Iref ECE Board Exam November 1996 The first passive satellite transponder. Moon ECE Board Exam April 1998 The most common application of satellite Communications ECE Board Exam November 1997 Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between mobile stations. Mobile service ECE Board Exam April 2001 Referred to as function and/or a designed of a double conversion satellite transponder. Equipped with two mixers ECE Board Exam November 2000 How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference? Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the first satellite systems catering personal based communications services scheduled for operation. Iridium system ECE Board Exam NOvember 1997 A radio communications service used in radio regulation between specified fixed points provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and economical air transport. Aeronautical Fixed Service ECE Board Exam November 1999 When do you consider that there is a satellite pass, having reference from the ground? When satellite passes at its orbit at 90 degrees from its azimuth. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion of the earths athmospehere. Space Station ECE Board Exam November 1997

An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal the period of rotation of the earth about its axis. Geosynchronous ECE Board Exam April 1998 Known as the satellite transmitted signal from a satellite transponder to earths station. Down link ECE Board Exam November 1997 A satellite receives an uplink frequency of __________ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz.

ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call the signal booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver? Low noise amplifier ECE Board Exam November 1997 Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern? Spot Beam ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred by a radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion Land Station ECE Board Exam November 1997 Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the operating earth station. satellite network ECE Board Exam April 2001 Typical bandwidth of a communications satellite. 500 MHz ECE Board Exam November 2000 An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam. Footprint ECE Board Exam April 1999 A twenty four (24) satellite system used in modern telecommunications to determine a location(s) on the surface of the earth.

GPS ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which type of satellite transponder improves the S/N ratio which demodulates the up-link signal to recover the baseband signals and use them to remodulate the downlink transmitter? Baseband ECE Board Exam April 1998 In shipboard satellite dish antenna system, azimuth is referred as the __________ horizontal aiming of the antenna ECE Board Exam November 1997 Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service. Coast station ECE Board Exam November 1998 __________ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting simultaneously. Telstar I ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the frequency range of C-band? 3.4 to 6.424 GHz ECE Board Exam November 1997 An area on the surface of the earth within the boresight of the steerable satellite beam intended to be pointed. Effective boresight area ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the approximate percentage of earth's coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree elevation? 42.5 % ECE Board Exam April 2001 One of the following devices in satellite transponder serves as output of the receive antenna. low noise amplifier ECE Board Exam November 2000 In a re-use frequency technique of increasing satellite channel capacity of corresponding transponders, how do you control the antenna used to prevent interference? High directional antenna ECE Board Exam November 2000 Refers to a mobile earth station in the mobile-satellite service located on board ship Ship earth station

ECE Board Exam April 2001 A technique in satellite communications which uses a highly directional spot-beam antenna to prevent interference from frequency sharing. Frequency re-use technique ECE Board Exam November 2000 How do you determine the satellite location in latitude and longitude measurement? Designate a point on earth directly below the satellite ECE Board Exam November 2000 A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of the earth. Perigee ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which satellite transponder has the most number of mixers? Double-conversion 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Satellite

Monday, June 4, 2012

Microwave Communications (Chapter 9: Past Board Excel)
ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following will you avoid in the construction of a microwave station? Long horizontal runs ECE Board Exam November 2000 Radio frequency where waveguides are not used extensively. 150 MHz ECE Board Exam April 2000 Term used to describe a process of approaching a desired point by directing the vehicle towards that point Homing ECE Board Exam November 1999 A system which does not refer to a technique in reducing the propagation errors in navigational system such as multipath effects Pulse transmission ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the following is a navigational equipment which utilizes a ground radar system to determine the position of a plane during its approach? GCA

ECE Board Exam November 1998 _____________ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget. Power margin ECE Board Exam April 1998 Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on __________. two or more antennas operating on the same frequency ECE Board Exam November 1996 One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup? 312 to 552 kHz ECE Board Exam March 1996 The k-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile calculation is equal to __________ 4/3 ECE Board Exam March 1996 LORAN is navigational system used primarily for _________ obtaining your fixed location over a large distances ECE Board Exam April 2001 What navigational system technique uses an antenna directivity to reduce an undesired multipath signals? LORAN-C ECE Board Exam November 2000 In microwave frequencies, the LOS distance is something extended through the occurrence of ____________ ducting ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following if not a part of the navigational radar? Duplexer ------------- part of navigational radar----------Pulser Display unit Synchronizer ECE Board Exam November 1999 How do you account the effect of selective fading on the transmitted signal in terms of its

bandwidth? more affirmative at wider bandwidth ECE Board Exam April 1999 Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction. VHF and UHF ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refers to an effect of selective fading. A fading effect caused by phase difference between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station. ECE Board Exam November 1996 When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zones at the point of reflection the RSL is decreased ECE Board Exam March 1996 LORAN is a navigation system used primary for obtaining fixes over large distances ECE Board Exam November 1966 When the value of k increases, the effective result is _______ of the equivalent curvatures. flattening ECE Board Exam March 1996 TACAN is a navigational aid providing _________ bearing and distance indication ECE Board Exam November 1996 If Ns = 250 determine the earth radius k-factor. ECE Board Exam March 1996 A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system is in a space diversity arrangement. Determine how many receivers in all are used? 2 ECE Board Exam November 1996 A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is 92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D ECE Board Exam March 1996 Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses. Log normal fading

ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna. Circulator ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies over the same path? Frequency ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the free space loss, in dB, between two microwave parabolic antennas 38.0 kilometer apart operating at 7.0 GHz? ECE Board Exam November 1996 Low-power radar uses IMPATT ECE Board Exam November 2000 A component of a microwave station that samples signal traveling in one direction down to the transmission line. Directional coupler ECE Board Exam April 2000 A navigational error which is caused by reflection of obstruction close to the location of navigational aid having a normal concern on directional bearing. Site error ECE Board Exam April 1999 An aircraft deviation measured by an ILS localizer. Horizontal ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging? Amplitude modulation ----------- systems used in radio detection and ranging---------Frequency shift Frequency modulation Pulse radar ECE Board Exam April 1997 A microwave system that requires the use of repeater. Intervening system that requires the use of repeater. Distances involved are greater

ECE Board Exam November 1996 Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies ECE Board Exam April 1997 RADAR means Radio Detection and Ranging ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which band in the radio spectrum does the radio navigational system Omega transmit? VLF ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following is not a common microwave application? Mobile radio ------------- common microwave application -------------Radar Data transmission Space communications ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output? Modulator ECE Board Exam April 1997 A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal Terrestrial link ECE Board Exam November 1997 Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used. Space diversity ECE Board Exam April 2000 In radio navigation, one of the following deviations of an airplane is determined by an ILS localizer. Horizontal ECE Board Exam April 1997 The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave. Shorten waveguide link ECE Board Exam April 2000 In navigational system, one of the following indication is provided by the localizer unit of the ILS. A horizontal deviation of an airpalne from its optimum path of descent along the axis of the

runway. ECE Board Exam April 1999 Referred to as the cycle time difference between the master and the slave signals to reach the receiver in the operation of loran navigational equipment. Time delay ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the HF marine antenna safety link is intended to be broken during the unusual movement of the ship? Weak part ECE Board Exam April 1999 What is being measured in radar theory to complete the determination of a distance to a target or object, after a high radio frequency signal is transmitted to a target? Echo time off the object to the source FIBER OPTICS

Fiber Optics (Chapter 11: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following refers to the relative refractive index difference of single mode fibers? 0.1 - 0.3 % ECE Board Exam November 2000 A parameter of light beam that do not change the quality when it enters one medium from another. Frequency ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following limits the top speed of transmitting information in fiber optic communication? Detector speed ECE Board Exam November 1999 Type of multi-channel signal transmission in the optic fiber communication that uses twisted pair coupler to transmit two signals of different wavelengths. Frequency-division multiplexing ECE Board Exam April 1999 Best applies to an optical fiber core. A higher refractive index than the cladding ECE Board Exam November 1998 How many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over cable?

100 times bigger ECE Board Exam April 1998 What law does a light travelling in an optical fiber follow? Snell's ECE Board Exam November 1997 Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye. Ultraviolet ECE Board Exam April 1997 Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable. 0.38dB ECE Board Exam November 1996 An object father from a converging lens than its focal point always has an ________ image. inverted ECE Board Exam March 1996 The dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core. Cladding ECE Board Exam April 2001 An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication is not intended to determine one of the following: Kind of multiplexing --------------------- An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication------Refractive index Loss per kilometer Length of fiber ECE Board Exam November 2000 In wire communications system using fiber optic, the packing fraction is related to one of the following statements when referred to fiber optic bundle. Ratio of the total cross-sectional area to the total cross-sectional area of the fiber bundle ECE Board Exam April 2000 Why are fiber optic cables considered less expensive compared to coaxial cables in communication system? Use of less repeaters ECE Board Exam November 1999 An optic fiber regenerator which is used in communication is consisting of a ________ to clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and a similar system for the opposite direction. transmitter and receiver

ECE Board Exam April 1999 How do you account the effect of light intensity on the refractive index of a fiber optic? Increases ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the following referred to as a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer. Pulse generator laser ECE Board Exam April 1998 __________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency. Laser ECE Board Exam November 1997 The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communication system. APDs ECE Board Exam April 1997 A non-coherent light source for optical communications system. LED ECE Board Exam November 1996 The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is attenuation ECE Board Exam March 1996 It is made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-gallium-arsenide or gallium-arsenidephosphide. Light emitting diode ECE Board Exam April 2001 How much bigger does the bandwidth of a single mode fiber optic have over the multimode fiber? 20 times bigger ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following refers to the bandwidth of optical fiber? 1 MHz - 500 MHz ECE Board Exam April 2000 Refers to a characteristic of a multimode fiber optic. Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core must be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried. ECE Board Exam November 1999 What do you call the loss in signal power as the light travels the fiber optic? Attenuation

ECE Board Exam April 1999 One of the characteristics of a fiber optic used in order to carry light in several modes of propagation or to become a multimode fiber. Diameter of the core must be very muuch greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried. ECE Board Exam November 1998 What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a detector? Photovoltaic effect ECE Board Exam April 1998 Quantity that do not change when a beam of lifgt enters one medium to another Frequency ECE Board Exam April 1997 Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion. Step-index multimode ECE Board Exam November 1997 Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light intensity at 1.55 um.

ECE Board Exam November 1996 The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted is known as __________. mode ECE Board Exam March 1996 An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the siica material from which fibers are manufactured. Ultraviolet absorption ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following is not a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication? vertical and horizontal plates

-------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication--------------------Laser Beam splitter Pulse generator ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following is a part of an optical time domain reflectometer? Beam splitter ECE Board Exam April 2000 This refers to a certain material which is most sensitive to light. Photoresist ECE Board Exam November 1999 Referred to as a light source of fiber optic which supplies level of 5 to 7 milliwats and having a narrow spectrum of emission. Injection laser diode ECE Board Exam April 1999 Most likely, how many times would a fiber optic break in a span of thirty years? 2 - 3 times ECE Board Exam November 1998 An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signal from magnetic field or solar storm flux Immunity to noise ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength? Violet ECE Board Exam April 1997 Fiber optic cable operates near ________ frequencies. 800 THz ECE Board Exam November 1997 If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the detector rise time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE. Board Exam November 1996 Proposed the used of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide Bockham and Kao

ECE Board Exam November 2000 ln electronic communications where fiber optic material is used, a reflected wave is a possibility. what happen to the polarization of this reflected wave when compared to its original form? Shifts to 180 degrees ECE Board Exam April 2000 The effect of multimode propagation caused the rays leaving the fiber to interfere constructively and destructively as they leave the end of the fiber this effect is called _________. modal delay spreading ECE Board Exam November 1999 What is the wavelength for deep violet light? 500 nmeter ECE Board Exam April 1999 A device in the fiber optic that is used to attenuate the reflected signal from the polished end of the fiber which has a possibility of developing into a noise. Isolator ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the advantages of the fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it can carry Bandwidth ECE Board Exam April 1998 Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links. Optical repeater ECE Board Exam November 1997 A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems Optical attenuator ECE Board Exam April 1997 Lifetime of ILDs 50.000 h ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon? Molten ECE Board Exam November 2000 One of the major limitations of a plastic fiberoptic used in communication Due to its high losses

ECE Board Exam April 2000 One of following is considered the largest source of signal power loss in the use of fiber optic as communications medium such as due to misalignment. ConnectionECE Board Exam NOvember 1999 One of the following is related to the application of solid material as a medium where light travels. medium where Ilght travels. apphcatlon of 5DHd mater-ja}; as 3 Fiber optics ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the following is not considered as one of the causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic? Inter-modulation ----------------causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic----------------Scattering Fiber bending Absorption ECE Board Exam November 1997 The core of the optical fiber has _______ a higher index of refraction than the cladding ECE Board Exam November 1997 Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed during the manufacturing process of the fiber optics. Rayleigh scattering loss ECE Board Exam November 1996 If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the detector rise time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE Board Exam November 2000 A phenomenon which causes the speed of light rays propagation in the fiber material changes, as it passes through different medium in the fiber Refraction ECE Board Exam April 2000 At what intenial does a fiber optic needs a repeater in communications system? 30 to 300 miles ECE Board Eanm November 1999

Referfeq to as a limit in reducing further the loss of signal passing through a fiber optic caused by scattering. Rayleigh effect ECE Board Exam April 1999 These are band of light wavelengths, that are too short to be seen by the human eye. Ultraviolet ECE Board Exam November 1998 A quarter wavelength device made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the optic fiber communication Retarder ECE Board Exam April 1999 At what power levels does fiber optic have when used in electronic communications? Range of micro to milliwatts ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication. Semi-graded multimode ECE Board Exam November 1998 How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber optic? By application of antireflection coating ECE Board Exam November 1998 What is the device use in used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter use tc clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in opposite direction? Optic regenerator ECE Board Exam November 2000 An advantage of fiber optic over co-axial cable as a result of coupling signals from one to the other due to changing magnetic field in one or both. Crosstalk ECE Board Exam April 2001 What is the index of refraction of a certain substance if light travels through the substance at 100 meters at a time is to 140 meters to air'?

0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Excel, Fiber Optics, Past Board

Saturday, August 6, 2011

OPTICAL FIBER TRANSMISSION MEDIA (C13 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 13

OPTICAL FIBER TRANSMISSION MEDIA

1)Uses light as a carrier of information. Optical communications system 2)Electronic communications system is directly proportional to bandwidth. Information-carrying capacity 3)Bandwidth of an analog communications system as a percentage of its carrier frequency. bandwidth utilization ratio 4)Device constructed from mirrors and selenium detectors that transmitted sound waves over a beam of light. Photophone 5)Experimented with an apparatus called photophone. Alexander Graham Bell 6)Used extensively in medical field. Flexible fiberscope 7)Invented in 1960. Laser (light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation) 8)Advantages of Optical Fiber cables.

1. wider bandwidth and greater information capacity 2.immunity to crosstalk 3. immunity to statistic interference 4. environmental immunity 5. safety and convenience 6. lower transmission loss 7. security 8. durability and reliability 9. economics 9)Disadvantages of Optical Fiber cables. 1. interfacing cost 2. strength 3. remote electrical power 4. optical fiber cables are more susceptible to losses introduced by bending the cable 5. specialized tools, equipment, and training 10)Reduces the possibility of the occurrence of a detrimental phenomenon. Stress corrosion 12)Protective coating. Buffer jacket 14)Increases the tensile strength of the over all cable assembly. Strength member 15)Process of decaying from one energy level to another energy level. Spontaneous decay or spontaneous emission 16)Science of measuring only light waves that are visible to human eye. Photometry 17)Measures the rate at which electromagnetic waves transfer light energy. Optical power 18)Spectral separation of white light. Prismatic refraction 19)Simply the ratio of velocity of propagation of a light ray in free space to the velocity of propagation of a light ray in a given material. Refractive index 20)Angle at which the propagating ray strikes the interface with respect to the normal. Angle of incidence

21)Angle formed between the propagating ray and the normal after the ray has entered the second medium. Angle of refraction 22)Closely related to acceptance angle and is the figure of merit commonly used to measure the magnitude of the acceptance angle. Numerical aperture 23)Simply means path. Mode 24)More than one path. Multimode 26)Probably the most important characteristic of the cable. Power loss 27)Three factors that contribute to the absorption losses in optical fibers: 1. ultra violet absorption 2. infrared absorption 3. ion resonance absorption 28)Caused mainly by small bends and kinks in the fiber. Radiation losses 29)Caused by excessive pressure and tension and generally occur when fibers are bent during handling or installation. Contants-radius bends 30)Caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays that take different path down a fiber. Modal dispersion 32)A p-n junction made from two different mixtures of the same types of atom. Mojunction structure 33)Generally constructed of silicon-doped gallium-arsenide. Epitaxially grown 34)Homojunction LEDs output approximately 500 at a wavelength of 900 nm. Planar diffused 35) Advantages of heterojunction devices over homojunction devices; 1. increase in current density generates a more brilliant light spot.

2. smaller emitting area makes it easier to couple its emitted light into a fiber. 3. small effective area has a smaller capacitance, which allows the planar heterojunction LED to be used at a higher speed. 36)Depletion-layer photo diode and is probably the most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communications system. PIN diode 37)Characteristic of a light detector. 1. responsivity 2. dark currents 3. transit time 4. spectral response 5. light sensitivity 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Fiber Optics, Tomasi, Transmission Lines

Tuesday, May 3, 2011

Fiber-Optic Systems (Blake C25)
Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems
TRUE/FALSE 1. Most new telephone trunk cables are fiber-optic. ANS: T 2. Cable TV systems use fiber-optic cable. ANS: T 3. Many data network cables are fiber-optic. ANS: T 4. Fiber-optic cable is not practical for telephone trunk cables. ANS: F 5. CATV uses analog modulation on fiber-optic cables.

ANS: T 6. Usually, splicing losses can be disregarded in loss-budget calculations. ANS: F 7. The rise time of a transmitter limits its bandwidth. ANS: T 8. RZ encoding allows twice as much pulse spreading as NRZ. ANS: F 9. The product of bandwidth times distance describes dispersion in a multimode fiber-optic cable. ANS: T 10. Regenerative repeaters for fiber-optic cables typically convert the light signal to an electrical signal, and then back to light. ANS: T 11. Optical amplifiers are not suitable for digital signals. ANS: F 12. Dispersion effects accumulate when optical amplifiers are used. ANS: T 13. Most fiber-optic systems use TDM. ANS: T 14. Fiber-optic cables shorter than 100 km typically do not require repeaters. ANS: T 15. SONET operates at a base speed of 25 Mbps. ANS: F 16. SONET solves many of the timing problems in synchronizing digital signals.

ANS: T 17. SONET is typically used on LANs. ANS: F 18. FDDI can be used on a LAN. ANS: T 19. Soliton pulses can travel down a fiber-optic cable with no dispersion. ANS: T 20. TDR cannot be used on fiber-optic cables. ANS: F MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. FDDI stands for: a. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. FITL stands for: a. Fiber In The Loop b. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A 3. FTTC stands for: a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. SONET stands for: a. Simple Optical Network b. Standard Optical Network c. Synchronous Optical Network d. none of the above c. Frequency Input to The Loop d. Fiber Input Timing Loop c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. Frequency-Division Data Interface

ANS: C 5. DWDM stands for: a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. A Soliton is a: a. defect in the glass b. type of particle ANS: C 7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. bit stuffing c. SDH b. bit-synch d. WDM ANS: A 8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. gain margin c. excess gain b. system margin d. overdrive ANS: B 9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. 1000 miles c. 100 km b. 100 miles d. 10 km ANS: C 10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for: a. Optical Carrier level one b. Optical Coupler unidirectional c. Optical Channel one d. Optical Cable type 1 c. type of pulse d. type of optical network

ANS: A 11. In SONET, STS stands for: a. Synchronous Transport Signal b. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. FDDI c. gigabit Ethernet b. high-speed Ethernet d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. common c. obsolete b. experimental d. not possible ANS: B 14. OTDR stands for: a. Optical Time-Delay Response b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. FDDI c. FITL b. FTTC d. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. ANS: Curb 2. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. Optical Time-Division Relay c. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. Synchronous Transmission System

ANS: Loop 3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________. ANS: Hierarchy 4. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. ANS: Wavelength 5. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network. ANS: Synchronous 6. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface. ANS: Distributed 7. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass. ANS: erbium 8. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. ANS: pump 9. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. ANS: WDM 10. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps. ANS: 51.84 11. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals. ANS: stuffing 12. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. ANS: pointer 13. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. ANS: token

14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. ANS: opposite 15. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. ANS: node 16. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables. ANS: multi 17. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps. ANS: 100 M 18. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. ANS: overhead 19. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 810 20. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 774 21. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 9 22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: 4 23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: 1 24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. ANS: transport 25. In SONET, SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________.

ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: 1 MHz 2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver, and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds. ANS: 86.6 nanoseconds FILTERS

CHAPTER 15 ACTIVE FILTERS

CHAPTER 15 ACTIVE FILTERS 1. The ___________ of a band-pass filter is the ratio of the center frequency to the bandwidth. Quality factor 2. An active filter category that rejects the frequencies within a certain bandwidth and passes frequencies outside the bandwidth Band-stop filter 3. A filter response characteristic that provides a very flat amplitude response in the passband and a roll-off rate of -20dB/decade/pole Butterworth characteristic 4. Each filter in a cascaded arrangement is called ___________. Stage or section 5. It is one of the most common configurations for two-pole filter. It is also known as a voltagecontrolled voltage source filter. Sallen-Key 6. A filter required to get a third-order low-pass response. This is done by cascading a two-pole Sallen-key low-pass filter and a single-pole low-pass filter Three-pole filter

7. Each additional filter in a cascaded arrangement adds _______dB to the roll-off rate -20 dB 8. The rate of decrease in gain, below or above the critical frequencies of a filter. Roll-off 9. Technology that enables the tracking and/or identification of objects. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) 10. Four categories of active filters Low-pass, high-pass, band-pass, and band-stop 11. Low-pass bandwidth is equal to Cutoff frequency 12. Filters with the Bessel characteristic are used for filtering ________ waveforms Pulse 13. Two common types of band-stop filters. Multiple-feedback and state-variable 14. Tiny, very thin microchips with memory and a coil antenna RFID tags 15. This type of tag does not require batteries. The tag is inactive until powered by the energy from the electromagnetic field of an RFID reader Passive RFID tag 16. This type of tag is powered by a battery and is capable of communicating up to 100ft. Or more from the RFID reader. Active RFID tag 17. Another type of tag that is a paper labelled with printing with the RF circuitry and antenna embedded in it. Smart label 18. The property of selecting signals with certain selected frequencies while rejecting signals with other frequencies. Selectivity 19. A pole is simply a circuit with how many resistor or capacitor? 1 20. The damping factor affects the filter response by negative feedback action. True/false True

21. The more poles a filter has , the faster its roll-off rate is True 22. Another term for state-variable filter Universal active filter 23. Two methods of determining a filters response by measurement Discrete point measurement and swept frequency measurement 24. Produces a constant amplitude output signal whose frequency increases linearly between two preset limits. Swept frequency generator 25. How many poles does a Sallen-Key high pass filter have? 2 26. The center frequency of a state variable resistor is set by the _______ circuits in both integrators, RC GEAS

CHEM 101 (EDGE)

Electron was discovered by A.J.J. Thompson The isotopes of an element differ in the number of Neutrons Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration Isoelectronic Which group in the periodic table is known as the alkali metals. Group 1 Which group in the periodic table is known as the halogens. Group 7 Which group in the periodic table is known as the alkaline earth metals. Group 2 Which group in the periodic table is known as the noble gases. Group 8

The components resulting from a reaction is called Products What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference between atoms is less than 1.5 Covalent bond Compounds which only contain carbon and hydrogen are called Hydrocarbon Which of the following designation means that the amount of solute is expressed in physical mass units, i.e. grams and the amount of solution is expressed in volume units, i.e. milliliters w/v What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference between atoms is greater than 2.0 Ionic bond The isotope of hydrogen Protium, Tritium, Deuterium The isotope of hydrogen with only one neutron Tritium The atoms having different atomic number but the same mass number are called Isobars What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between atoms is less than 1.5? Covalent bond The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is beryllium (Be), atomic number 4. What is the charge on the Be atom? Neutral The mass of an alpha particle is how many times more than that of an electron 7300 Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called Isotopes The forces that hold atoms together are called Chemical bond An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called Ion

A positive ion is called Cation A negative ion is called Anion The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called Ionic bonding The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called Period The vertical arrangement of elements of in a periodic table is called Group If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of gas, the pressure Is doubled A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called Electron dot diagram For which elements does the number of electrons in their outer or valence shelll correspond to their group number Representative or main group What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit in a p orbital 5 The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called Viscosity The anions and cations which are unaffected by the reaction in solution are called Spectator ions A reaction in which heat is produced is called Exothermic The atoms having different mass number but the same number of neutrons are called Isotones Rutherford model of an atom failed to explain The position of proton and neutrons The concept that electrons revolve around the nucleus in specific paths called orbits or energy levels was proposed by Niels Bohr

The number of atoms present in 6.023 x 10^23 12 grams of carbon-12 is called Avogadros constant An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their individual relative masses. Mass spectrometer These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components. Hydrates If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is: Replacement reactions If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of reaction is: Decomposition The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is: 760 mm Hg Any process of extracting the metal in a fused state is called Smelting Which of the following does not change with change in temperature? Mass A device used to measure density. Hydrometer The statement mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction is known as: The law of conservation of mass What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between atoms is greater than 2.0 Ionic bond A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called Endothermic In redox reaction, the component supplying the electrons is called the Reductant In redox reaction, the component receiving the electrons is called the Oxidant

A covalent bond formed by the combination of collinear p orbitals is also called a Sigma bond The central part of an atom is called Nucleus The mass of a proton is about how many times that of an electron 1837 The particles in the nucleus, namely the neutrons and the protons are collectively referred to as Nucleons The number of orbiting electron is normally _____ the number of the protons in the nucleus of an atom Equal The chemical formula which shows the relative number of atoms of all the elements present in a compound is called the Empirical formula The chemical formula which shows the exact number of atoms of all the elements present in a compound is called the Molecular formula When an atom loses an electron it forms Cation When an atom gains an electron it forms Anion The maximum number of electrons that the first energy level can accommodate is 2 The X-rays are discovered by W.C. Roentgen Refers to atoms or ions, which have the same electronic configuration. Isoelectronic Which group of the periodic table is known as the akali metals? Group I Which group is known as the halogens? Group VII The horizontal arrangement of elements increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called: Period

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called Atomic number The measure of the resistance of an object to a change in its state of motion is called Inertia Refers to agreement of a particular value with the true value Precision Refers to the degree of agreement among several measurements of the same quantity Accuracy A property of matter often used by chemist as an identification number for a substance Density Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called Quarks The principle of constant composition of compound, originally called Prousts Law is now known as Law of definite proportion The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the reaction. In precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as: The law of conservation of mass When the same elements can form two different compounds, the ratio of masses of one of the elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the other elements. This is known as: The law of multiple proportion The ratio of the density of the test liquid to the density of the reference liquid is called Specific gravity How many electrons are there in a covalent bond? 2 SI unit of temperature Kelvin The elements that a compound is composed of is present in fixed and precise proportion by mass. This is known as Law of constant composition The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10 neutrons 19 amu

The net electric charge of any atom is 0 The tendency of atoms to attract electrons into their valence shells to form anions is described by the concept of Electron affinity The tendency of atoms to attract electrons shared in a covalent bond is called Electronegativity A covalent bond between atoms of identical electronegativity is called Nonpolar A formula which describes only the number of each element in the molecule is called the Molecular formula The formula which shows how atoms are joined together is called the Structural formula The pairs of electrons not shared in the covalent bond are called Nonbonded electrons or lone pair The word atom comes from the Greek word atomos meaning Cannot be cut Under normal state an atom is said to be Electrically neutral The word electron comes from the Greek word elektron meaning Amber The word proton comes from the Greek word proteios meaning Of first importance A solid which has no crystalline structure is called Amorphous A chemical substance which readily evaporates and readily diffuses at ordinary room temperature and pressure conditions is called Volatile Which of the following falls under fluids Both liquid and gas The gases that rarely take part in a chemical reaction are called

Noble gases Which type of ions, metals form when enter into a chemical reaction Positive ions The chemical name for baking soda Sodium bicarbonate The subatomic particle with a negative charge and mass of 9.1 x 10^ -31 kg is Electron The subatomic particle with a positive charge of mass 1.6 x 10 -27 kg is Proton Neutron was discovered by Chadwick 1 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: EDGE, GEAS

Tuesday, October 18, 2011

GEAS 1
Employee's perception on the probability that he or she gets what he/she expects Expectancy Theory The type of leadership appropriate when manning professionals free rein leadership "A satisified employee is motivated from within and a dissatisified employee is not motivated" Herzberg's Two-factor theory The kind of authority usually given to budgets officers in the organization functional authority The type of organization for small firms functional organization The process that focuses on how subunits can use allocated resources intermediate planning The type of reward that includes money, promotion.. extrinsic reward types of rewards

extrinsic or intrinsic The type of power in the people of higher position towards those in the lower position in the organizational heirarchy legitimate power Measure the ability to learn aptitude test The type of control when the engineer manager collects data on a completed task, and evaluation,comments, and suggestions on how to improve the task feedback control Temperature unchanged, The pressure of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to its volume boyle's law The rankine value that refers to the absolute temperature 460 degrees Fahrenheit ( alam ko negative to.. please check sa notes ) The average kinetic energy of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature according to the modern view of the atomic model electron cloud.. the quantum number that refers to the spin of the electron spin quantum number permeability is slightly greater than 1 aluminum Used in DNA making? zinc Used to make galvanized iron zinc most common metal mixed with copper zinc the first law of thermodynamics is also called law of conservation of energy states that the amount of heat that is converted into heat is dependent on the temperature where it takes place second law of thermodynamics

the process in which a highly energetic particle transfers energy to an adjacent less energetic particle conduction emission of electromagnetic waves or photons radiation a device that transfers heat between fluids without mixing the two heat exchanger Ideal Gas Constant 8.314 kJ per kmol-K Series of changes or processes in the system that repeats CYCLE At standard temperature and pressure, the volume of 1 mol is SAME FOR ALL PERFECT GASSES. Reluctance of an object to change its state of rest or its uniform motion INERTIA 1 slug 14.6 kg. 1 lb 4.45 Newtons The law of reaction - "For every force that acts on one body, there is a second force equal in magnitude but opposite in direction that acts upon another body." Third law of Motion The law of acceleration - " Whenever a net resultant force acts on a body, it produces an acceleration in the direction of the resultant force that is directly proportional to the resultant foce and inversely propoportional to the mass of the body." Second law of Motion The law of inertia - "There is no change in the motion of the body unless an unbalanced external force is acting upon it." First law of Motion pH Positive Hydrogen ion pH 1 to 6

Acid Mass of electrons in grams 9.107 times 10 to the -28 Mass of protons in grams 1.672 times 10 to the -24 Mass of neutron in grams 1.675 times 10 to the -24 Charge of electron negative 1.602 times 10 to the -19 charge of proton 1.602 times 10 to the -19 Charge of neutron 0 The mass of the neutron is approximately 1,839 times greater than electrons 1839 The mass of the proton is approximately 1,836 times greater than electrons 1836 Top 3 conductor Silver, Copper, Gold least conductor nichrome atoms building blocks of engineering materials Aluminum most abundant metal in earth Ductility ratio of ultimate shear to yielding stress period the time taken by a body in uniform motion to travel an orbit 760 torr equal to 1 ATM

Charle's Law Constant Pressure, Variable Temperature and Volume Twice amplitude twice maximum velocity R.A. 8792 Philippine Electronic Commerce Act or E-Commerce Act each orbital has 1 electron placed in it before pairing of electron in orbitals occurs Hunds' Rule angular speed (momentum) Spin Quantum # resistance(internal friction) of fluids to flow viscosity S.I. unit of pressure Newton per square meter Pascal losses due to friction in oscillation damped oscillator cohesive attraction that causes liquid to minimize its surface area surface tension Maximum stress before permanent deformation elastic limit also known as modulus of rigidity shear modulus thermodynamic properties volume, pressure, temperature defined as mass per unit volume. Independent of size and shape density another term for specific gravity weight density ability of metal to be permanently deformed ductility

elastic modulus applicable to liquids bulk modulus Combine two small elements fussion Larger element divided into 2 smaller elements Fission object subjected to equal and opposite forces on different lines of direction is said to be under shear stress unit of mechanical shear joule conduction band where free electrons move gives off a yellow green appearance Chlorine Gives off blue-black-violet color Iodine young's modulus is also known as modulus of elasticity stress at which a material begins to plastically deform yield strength irregularity within a crystal structure Dislocation most common defect of crystal Line defect What is the S I unit of momentum kg. meter per sec. Kg-m / s What is the S I unit of impulse Newton - sec. N-s total momentum of a closed system is constant Conservation of linear momentum number of cycles as a result of time

period A common copper alloy Zinc a solution that is a liquid conductor electrolyte determines the acidity or base PH measurement what is PH 7 neutral delegation of authority assigning of different degrees of authority Vander Waals bonding Connection between crystal atoms / forms eight pairs of electrons when bonded Covalent bonding aggregate less when near each other than when separated from one another metallic bonding interaction of ionic lattice and electron gas electrostatic bonding bonding between positive and negative charges atomic number element identity spin quantum direction Element a pure substance that cannot be broken down by chemical means to a simpler substance. Valence Electrons determines the ability of atoms to combine with other atoms. Nitrogen Group V-A Electronics Engineer appearnce fee per hour 500

Electronics engineer retainer's fee 1500 maximum allowable exposure to radiation from an electronic equipment must not exceed to, 100 ms keystone of professional conduct integrity Requiring the services of a duly licenced ECE planning, designing Department Order No. 88 law provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Phils. R.A. 3846 policy to improve the provision of Local Exchange carrier service E.O 109 Foundation of Moral philosophy Justice, Honesty and Courtesy Philippines is under what region in terms of frequency allocation Region 3 Data network operated by enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is authorized to provide data. Public Switched Data Network An ECE board member must be a citizen & resident of the Philippine for at least, BLANK, consecutive years prior to his appointmnt 5 Years Testing and quality control of electronics product Manufacturing If the engineer approves that a certain electronic product were according to engineering standard.. ( something like this ) Acceptance Implementing rules and regulations ( IRR ) of R.A 9292 August 31, 2007 Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 R.A. 8792

VOIP service provider performance bond 5 million The certificate of Authority issued by NTC to A CATV maximum term. 15 years Maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for Channels 7 - 13 1000 Kw Metro Manila Commercial load in radio stations 15 minutes Minimum carrier power output of a Standard AM Broadcast direct supervision of an Electronics engineer is required 1 Kw Maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila 50 kW at what temperature does a magnetic material loses its ferromagnetic properties Curie Temperature Specific Gravity also termed as Relative Density Moment of Inertia is dependent on Mass, Axis of rotation, Size and Shape diatonic scale with added 5 half tones Chromatic Scale binds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an atom exchange force depend on the number of harmonics present Quality of Sound Avogadros Number 6.022 x 10 to the ___ power 23rd controlled testing of the properties of a substance or system through carefully recorded measurements Experiment father of scientific method Galileo

number of S.I. base units 7 Father of Modern Chemistry Antoine Lavoissier means indivisible Atomos Pressure held constald, Volume of gas is inversely proportional to volume Charles Law Naming Chemical Compounds Chemical Nomenclature Best Conductor of Electricity Silver Denser metal settles on less dense Floatation the closeness of two sets of measured group of values Precision bending of a strip of metal Elastisity of Flexion twisting of spring Elasticity of Torsion Acid and base balanced Neutralization lacking of mass over something Mass defect where fission is controlled Nuclear Reactor operating at low temperature Cryogenics what property of plastic changes with heat distortion Mechanical

increasing in the small diameter tube with fluid Capillarity Relating 2 different volume / density Relative Humidity Speech density volume Absolute Humidity Density of material with respect to density of air Specific humidity Same/Like materials Cohesion Different/Unlike materials Adhesion Necessary nuclear reactor (uranium) Critical Size Radioactivity Curie Flow of fluid in pipe; pressure Bernoulli principle atomic mass Physicists atomic weight High production, something will limit Law of diminishing return Mix different quantities of some element Law of multiple proportion Indistinguishable liquid and gas Critical Point Constant angular momentum, increasing kinetic energy Keplers Law Light actually passes through Real image Light seemed to pass through

Virtual image Capital mobile dealer P 100,000 Defect of lens, Rays near the edge Spherical Aberration comet-shaped coma Differences in vertical and horizontal distance Astigmatism Unit of electrostatic charge Statvolt SI unit of potential difference volt Electrostatic measuring device? Leaf electroscope Class B FM 500 ft. Primary FM stations allowed of how many translators 2 Acids formed from weak bases dissolved in H2O Hydrolysis Matter can be broken down Democritus Property of gas equals individual property Gibbs Theorem Neutron Chadwick Summary observed fact Scientific Law Partial volume Azamat's Theorem

Liquid not used as solvent in a chromatography Water Not an ionization Bond C6H12O6 1 molecule enters an orbit, spread, about atom spin Hunds rule of multiplicity AM primetime 6:00 AM 8:00 PM Change of temp w/o change of phase Sensible Heat oil or mining / nauubos na resources Depletion Cost Penetrate;molecules Diffusion Quantitative measurement Stoichiometry Shield for x-ray Lead (ratio of something to air to e) Absolute Index of Refraction Incident angle is greater than critical angle Total Reflection Temperature, konting pressure na lang solid to liquid na Critical Temperature Removal of Energy Water to ice Separation of liquid through because of difference in its boiling points Distillation 1 dyne on separation of 1 cm 1 stat coloumb

Non performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially less than or different from what the contract is intended. Material Breach 1 Joule 10 raise to 7 ergs 10^7 ability to be mixed with other Miscibility Used as solute in stainless steel ( to prevent "kalawang" hehehe ) Chromium Used a slovent in stainless steel Iron Perfect absorber Black Body ratio of velocities before and after an impact coefficient of restitution Temperature where degree C = degree Fahrenheit - 40degrees Used in Vehicle Baterries Sulfuric Acid Medium travels fast at zero degrees ( 0 deg C) Glass Something about Bouyancy of material to water Archimedes Theory heat exceeds saturation at less pressure Superheated second most abundant element on earth oxygen energy gap of GaAs 1.43 V 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: GEAS, Notes

Wednesday, October 5, 2011

GEAS
GEAS Mechanical energy of pressure transferred into energy of heat Ans. enthalpy For a common microscope the image formed by the eyepiece is Ans. inverted Added to nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties Ans. alpha particle Ester of glycerol with unsaturated fatty acids Ans. oils Energy of an electron is assumed to be zero when Ans. it is far away from the nucleus Chief ore of zinc Ans. Sphalerite Punitive damage Ans. Exemplary damage Functional depreciation Ans. obsolescence Maritime communication law Ans. R.A. 3396 Brightness of light source Ans. luminous intensity Heated metal(hot bodies) Ans. Edison effect Producer gas is a mixture of nitrogen Ans. carbon monoxide 1BTU Ans. 1054 Joules Paramagnetic

Ans. Chromium How an element is connected to other Ans. Structural formula Arrangement of atoms in a molecule Ans. affects the reactivity of molecules False statement Ans. convex mirror can be used as main objective in a reflecting telescope Average decay time Ans. mean life Weightless environment, attach a ball to a spring and spin, the acceleration vector of the ball is Ans. always point inward towards you Change a sample of solid to liquid Ans. heat of fusion Failure to regain its original size and shape Ans. elastic lag Reciprocal of bulk modulus Ans. compressibility Period driving force Ans. resonance Willingness of an atom to receive electrons Ans. electron affinity Temperature below the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure Ans. subcooled liquid Venturimeter measures ___ of water Ans. velocity Temperature where Joule Thomson effect is zero Ans. inversion Unit of moment of inertia Ans. kg-m2 Copper alloy used as collectors for electric generator

Ans. Tin bronze Solution of weak acid and its conjugate base, or weak base and its conjugate acid Ans. buffer System remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium at all times Ans. quasi-equilibrium Hydrocarbon contain one or more double bonds Ans. alkene Process of making hydrocarbon gas Ans. Bosch Factor of safety Ans. yielding stress over working stress Propagate same speed as light Ans. heat wave Ratio of market price per share to earnings per share Ans. price-earnings ratio Degrees F equals degrees C Ans. -40 Unit of ionization radiation Ans. Becquerel Water is electrolyzed Ans. hydrogen and oxygen atoms are separated from each other. Black light Ans. UV radiation Retentivity Ans. permanent magnet Mass of atomic particles Ans. mass spectrograph 3G bond Ans. 300M Refrigerant

Ans. Dimethyl ether Amount of energy to fracture a given volume of material Ans. Impact strength Theory of light emitted in discrete amount Ans. Quantum theory Cast iron hard and wear resistance Ans. white iron Heat engine cant transfer heat An. 2nd law of thermodynamics Reflected sound waves return Ans. echo Irregular succession of compression and rarefaction Ans. unpitched sound Luminance of clear sky Ans. 3200 Blackbody radiation emitted at freezing platinum Ans. candle Result of atmospheric refraction Ans. mirage Absorbs radiant energy and re emits it in wavelengths Ans. fluorescence Design to detect radiation emanating from radioactive source Ans. Quartz-fiber electroscope Monosodium Glutamate (MSG) Ans. vegetable protein Kwashiorkor Ans. lack of protein Downer Ans. seconal Decay of a neutron to a proton

Ans. beta particle Known concentration Ans. standard solution A pressure measuring device to register the pressure at all times Ans. mercury manometer Work done is zero. Ans. isometric Drink salt water Ans. cell shrink Speaker Ans. 5 CU Doctoral Ans. 45 CU Gas is produce by the action of sunlight on automobile exhaust Ans. ozone Middle management level Ans. intermediate planning Process identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation Ans. decision-making Documents that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security Ans. Coupon Color that bends the least Ans. red Series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft of the building Ans. riser shaft Upon dissociation in water, acid yields hydrogen ions while gases yields hydroxide ions Ans. Arrhenius theory Friendliest metal Ans. Iron

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Tuesday, October 4, 2011

GENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED SCIENCES
GENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED SCIENCES Carnot engine when reversed becomes Refrigerator Highest average translational kinetic energy account to which state of matter Gas Aluminum is the lightest among the following metals except Magnesium Alpha particle test charge +2 Strength and machinability Normalizing Middle C 256Hz Radioactive source activity Becquerel The frequency of Middle C 256Hz Which of the following noble gases is most abundant on earth? Argon Given mass 1=mass 2=132 lb, distance=1 meter, calculate gravitational force. 2.4 x 10^-7 N Which of the following is the difference between ground state and excited state of an atom? Electron configuration Helmholtz free energy is the internal energy of the system ____ Minus the product of entropy and temperature

The escape velocity on earth is 11,200 m/s. What is the escape velocity to the moon? 2,400 The material known as austenite is transformed into bainite when subjected to ___ process. Rapid cooling Newly SROP provided that devices ___ output power Shall not exceed 25 watts What is the value of resistivity of aluminum in ohm-m? 2.7 x 10^-8 As stated under D.O.88 for AM broadcasting station, operation sation must be under the supervision of registered ECE if the carrier power exceeds ___ 1kW What is the unit charge of alpha particle? +2 Sound interference is required in order to attain the phenomenon known as Beats Aside from platinum, gold, and silver, which is considered as a noble metal? Iridium What is the velocity of a 100g ball on a 5cm string moving in horizontal circle that requires centripetal force of 1.0N? 2.2m/s What is the coefficient unit of viscosity? Poise What is the main characteristic of super__ whose major application are jet engines and gas turbines? Heat resistant Which ferromagnetic is BCC crystal structure? Iron What is the force of gravitational attraction between two 132-lb student who are standing 1m apart? 2.4 x 10^-7 N Which of the following would be different in ground state and excited state upon atom? The electron configuration

Another aspect of pressure and human body is blood pressure. 20/20 vision is ideal120/80, what is the unit? mmHg What is the amount of time of activity may delayed without changing the succeeding activity? Slack One Dalton is equivalent to how many MeV? 931 In alloy nickel is replaced by ___ to produce superinvar alloy. Cobalt Chart compare planned schedule information to actual. Tracking Gantt Chart PRC Modernization Act 8981 Type of brass with 85% copper Red brass What is the ratio of working temperature to the temperature of melting point? Homologous temperature Type of management that spend most of the time outside Management by wandering
MICROWAVE

Microwave Communications (Chapter 9: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following will you avoid in the construction of a microwave station? Long horizontal runs ECE Board Exam November 2000 Radio frequency where waveguides are not used extensively. 150 MHz ECE Board Exam April 2000 Term used to describe a process of approaching a desired point by directing the vehicle towards that point

Homing ECE Board Exam November 1999 A system which does not refer to a technique in reducing the propagation errors in navigational system such as multipath effects Pulse transmission ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the following is a navigational equipment which utilizes a ground radar system to determine the position of a plane during its approach? GCA ECE Board Exam November 1998 _____________ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget. Power margin ECE Board Exam April 1998 Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on __________. two or more antennas operating on the same frequency ECE Board Exam November 1996 One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup? 312 to 552 kHz ECE Board Exam March 1996 The k-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile calculation is equal to __________ 4/3 ECE Board Exam March 1996 LORAN is navigational system used primarily for _________ obtaining your fixed location over a large distances ECE Board Exam April 2001 What navigational system technique uses an antenna directivity to reduce an undesired multipath signals? LORAN-C ECE Board Exam November 2000 In microwave frequencies, the LOS distance is something extended through the occurrence of ____________ ducting

ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following if not a part of the navigational radar? Duplexer ------------- part of navigational radar----------Pulser Display unit Synchronizer ECE Board Exam November 1999 How do you account the effect of selective fading on the transmitted signal in terms of its bandwidth? more affirmative at wider bandwidth ECE Board Exam April 1999 Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction. VHF and UHF ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refers to an effect of selective fading. A fading effect caused by phase difference between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station. ECE Board Exam November 1996 When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zones at the point of reflection the RSL is decreased ECE Board Exam March 1996 LORAN is a navigation system used primary for obtaining fixes over large distances ECE Board Exam November 1966 When the value of k increases, the effective result is _______ of the equivalent curvatures. flattening ECE Board Exam March 1996 TACAN is a navigational aid providing _________ bearing and distance indication ECE Board Exam November 1996 If Ns = 250 determine the earth radius k-factor. ECE Board Exam March 1996 A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system is in a space diversity arrangement. Determine how

many receivers in all are used? 2 ECE Board Exam November 1996 A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is 92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D ECE Board Exam March 1996 Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses. Log normal fading ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna. Circulator ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies over the same path? Frequency ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the free space loss, in dB, between two microwave parabolic antennas 38.0 kilometer apart operating at 7.0 GHz? ECE Board Exam November 1996 Low-power radar uses IMPATT ECE Board Exam November 2000 A component of a microwave station that samples signal traveling in one direction down to the transmission line. Directional coupler ECE Board Exam April 2000 A navigational error which is caused by reflection of obstruction close to the location of navigational aid having a normal concern on directional bearing. Site error ECE Board Exam April 1999 An aircraft deviation measured by an ILS localizer. Horizontal ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging?

Amplitude modulation ----------- systems used in radio detection and ranging---------Frequency shift Frequency modulation Pulse radar ECE Board Exam April 1997 A microwave system that requires the use of repeater. Intervening system that requires the use of repeater. Distances involved are greater ECE Board Exam November 1996 Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies ECE Board Exam April 1997 RADAR means Radio Detection and Ranging ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which band in the radio spectrum does the radio navigational system Omega transmit? VLF ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following is not a common microwave application? Mobile radio ------------- common microwave application -------------Radar Data transmission Space communications ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output? Modulator ECE Board Exam April 1997 A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal Terrestrial link ECE Board Exam November 1997 Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used. Space diversity ECE Board Exam April 2000

In radio navigation, one of the following deviations of an airplane is determined by an ILS localizer. Horizontal ECE Board Exam April 1997 The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave. Shorten waveguide link ECE Board Exam April 2000 In navigational system, one of the following indication is provided by the localizer unit of the ILS. A horizontal deviation of an airpalne from its optimum path of descent along the axis of the runway. ECE Board Exam April 1999 Referred to as the cycle time difference between the master and the slave signals to reach the receiver in the operation of loran navigational equipment. Time delay ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the HF marine antenna safety link is intended to be broken during the unusual movement of the ship? Weak part ECE Board Exam April 1999 What is being measured in radar theory to complete the determination of a distance to a target or object, after a high radio frequency signal is transmitted to a target? Echo time off the object to the source
MODULATION

Modulation 2/2 (C3 Past board : excel)

CONTINUATION..... ECE Board Exam April 1997 Modulation means varying of some parameters of a carrier such as its amplitude to transmit information. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which of the following is not a baseband signal of modulation? RF carrier ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following components is used to produce AM at very high frequencies? PIN diode:

ECE Board Exam November 1999 A process which occurs in the transmitter part of the transceiver. Modulation ECE Board Exam April 1999 In radio rules and regulation, the extremely high frequency band is referred to as the millimetric waves ECE Board Exam November 1998 It frequency range of 401.000 MHz to 401.050 MHz has to be channelized at 12.5 kHz between channel, what is the center of its first channel from the lower limit?

ECE Board Exam April 1998 Type of modulation used in TV broadcast visual transmitter. Vestigial sideband ECE Board Exam November 1997 In the designation of bandwidth and emission, what letter in the first symbol represent a doublesideband type of modulation? A ECE board Exam March 1996 The carrier swing necessary to provide 80% modulation in the FM broadcasting band is ____ ECE Board Exam April 2001 One of the following refers to an output of a balanced modulator. DSB ECE Board Exam March 1996 In AM, the carrier carries _____ intelligence. no ECE Board Exam March 1996 Three audio waves with 100, 200, amd 300 volts amplitude respectively, simultaneously modulate a 450 volts carrier. What is the total percent of modulation of the AM wave? ECE Board Exam March 1996 Cross modulation on a receiver is eliminated at the detector stage ECE Board Exam March 1996

If the percentage modulation of an AM amplifier is 88% and the modulating signal is 1 volt, the carrier has an amplitude of ECE Board Exam November 1999 One of the following is also considered major reason in adopting a modulation/demodulation processes in radio communication transmission instead of transmitting directly the intelligence signal. A mile length of transmission antenna is impractical. ECE Board Exam April 1999 Intelligence signal in radio modulation transmission technique is not called Harmonics ECE Board Exam November 1998 In amplitude modulation technique the unmodulated carrier is referred to as having 0% modulation ECE Board Exam April 1998 If a transmitter supplies 8 kW to the antenna when it is unmodulated, determine the total radiated power when modulated at 30%. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the difference between phase and frequency modulation Lies in the different definitions of the modulation index. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the local oscillator frequency range in commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455 kHz? ECE Board Exam November 1999 Which of the following signal is suppressed by balanced modulator circuit? Carrier signal ECE Board Exam November 1998 A third symbol in radio emission which represents telephone transmission including sound broadcasting. E ECE Board Exam April 1998 How can receiver desensitizing be reduced? Decreased the receiver squelch gain ECE Board Exam March 1996 In an FM receiver, which circuit removes amplitude variations?

Limiter ECE Board Exam March 1996 After the IF stages have been aligned, the next stage to align in FM receiver is local oscillator. ECE Board Exam November 1999 Refers to the emission on frequency(ies) immediately outside its necessary bandwidth, resulted from the modulation process except spurious emission. Out of band ECE Board Exam April 1999 The first symbol of an emission designation having an amplitude modulated main carrier represented by letter C is referred to as vestigial sideband ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following is referred to as a radio emission without sidebands. Carrier ECE Board Exam March 2996 What is the primary advantage of DSBSC in AM? No transmitter power is wasted in the carrier ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the following is not among the advantages of series modulation. Suppressed white noise ECE Board Exam April 1999 What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? F3C ECE Board Exam November 1998 Type of emission produced by one of the early radio transmiotter trains of damped RF ac waves where its oscillator is coupled to a long wire antenna, normally used in radio telegraph and having sidebands on its carrier. Spark Emission ECE Board Exam April 1999 What is the modulation of index of an FM transmitter whose frequency deviation is 50 kHz, while its audio frequency is 10 kHz? ECE Board Exam November 1998 What is meant by the term deviation ratio?

The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the FM signal generator control which varies the phase of the modulating voltage applied to the oscillator of the sweep generator. Phase control ECE Board Exam November 1998 In the modulation technique, which of the following is referred to audible pitch? Harmonic ECE Board Exam November 1998 Assuming a UHF frequency range of 405.0125 MHz to 405.0875 MHz at 25 kHz channeling plan, how many channels can you produce? ECE Board Exam November 1998 A modulation which does not follow the sine wave pattern, it produces undesirable harmonics such as spurious emission. Over-modulated ECE Board Exam April 1999 What is the capture effect? The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal.
NOISE

Noise (C4 Past board: excel)

ECE Board Exam November 2000 Generally referred to as the primary cause of atmospheric noise. Lightning ECE Board Exam April 2000 Absence of one of the following components in a parametric amplifier renders, this circuit a lownoise amplifier. Resistance ECE Board Exam November 1998 What is the major cause of atmospheric or static noise? Thunderstorm ECE Board Exacta April 1998

Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF (150 MHz) marine-band receiver? In the receiver front end ECE Board Exam November 1997 Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from 8 to 1.43 GHz. ECE Board Exam April 1997 ________sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level, Shannon-Hartley theorem ECE Board Exam November 1996 Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per cycle, over a specified total frequency band. Thermal noise White noise Gaussian noise Board Exam April 1998 Referred to as the stage in the radio receiver that contributes most of the noise. Mixer Board Exam November 1997 NOise caused by the thermal agitation of electrons in resistance Thermal noise Johnson's noise White noise ECE Board Exam April 1997 Industrial noise frequency is between 5 to 160 MHz . ECE Board Exam March 1996 At what power level does a I kHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted)? -90 dBm ECE Board Exam November 1997 Background noise is the same as the following except impulse noise. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Reference noise temperature. 290 Kelvin ECE board exam November 1996 Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie.

dolby ECE Board Exam March 1996 A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 ohms has an equivalent noise resistance of 30 ohms. What is the receiver's noise temperature? ECE Board Exam April 1997 That is the reference frequency of CCITT psophometric noise measurement? 800 Hz ECE Board Exam November 1997 atmospheric noise is less severe at frequencies above audio level. 30 MHz ECE Board Exam November 1997 Two resistors, 20 kilo ohms and 50 kilo ohms are at ambient temperature. Calculate for bandwidth equal to 100 kHz, the thermal noise voltage for the two resistor connected in parallel. ECE Board Exam March 1996 The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise figure? ECE Board Exam November 1997 nif stands for.. noise improvement factor ECE Board Exam April 1997 Which does not affect noise in a channel? Quantizing level ECE Board Exam March 1996 The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dB while noise in the same channel is measured to be 9 dB. The signal to noise ratio therefore is ECE Board Exam March 1996 .. What does the noise weighting curve show? The interfering effect of other frequencies in a voice channel compared with a reference frequency of one kilohertz ECE Board Exam November 1997 The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise voltage testing NPR

ECE Board Exam April 1997 The random and unpredictable electric signals form natural causes, both internal and external to the system is known as Noise ECE Board Exam March 1996 The ratio of the level of the modulated output of a transmitter under conditions of standard test modulation to the level of the demodulated output with no modulation applied both measured with the same bandwidth. Residual noise level ECE Board Exam November 1997 A figure of merit used to measure the performance of a radiation detector. Noise equivalent power ECE Board Exam April 1997 The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise testing NPR ECE Board Exam March 1996 In measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -70dBm (F1A weighted), convert the reading into pWp. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Considered as the main source of an internal noise Thermal agitation ECE Board Exam April 1997 Unit of noise power of psophometer. pWp
NOTES

GEAS 1
Employee's perception on the probability that he or she gets what he/she expects Expectancy Theory The type of leadership appropriate when manning professionals free rein leadership "A satisified employee is motivated from within and a dissatisified employee is not motivated" Herzberg's Two-factor theory The kind of authority usually given to budgets officers in the organization

functional authority The type of organization for small firms functional organization The process that focuses on how subunits can use allocated resources intermediate planning The type of reward that includes money, promotion.. extrinsic reward types of rewards extrinsic or intrinsic The type of power in the people of higher position towards those in the lower position in the organizational heirarchy legitimate power Measure the ability to learn aptitude test The type of control when the engineer manager collects data on a completed task, and evaluation,comments, and suggestions on how to improve the task feedback control Temperature unchanged, The pressure of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to its volume boyle's law The rankine value that refers to the absolute temperature 460 degrees Fahrenheit ( alam ko negative to.. please check sa notes ) The average kinetic energy of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature according to the modern view of the atomic model electron cloud.. the quantum number that refers to the spin of the electron spin quantum number permeability is slightly greater than 1 aluminum Used in DNA making? zinc

Used to make galvanized iron zinc most common metal mixed with copper zinc the first law of thermodynamics is also called law of conservation of energy states that the amount of heat that is converted into heat is dependent on the temperature where it takes place second law of thermodynamics the process in which a highly energetic particle transfers energy to an adjacent less energetic particle conduction emission of electromagnetic waves or photons radiation a device that transfers heat between fluids without mixing the two heat exchanger Ideal Gas Constant 8.314 kJ per kmol-K Series of changes or processes in the system that repeats CYCLE At standard temperature and pressure, the volume of 1 mol is SAME FOR ALL PERFECT GASSES. Reluctance of an object to change its state of rest or its uniform motion INERTIA 1 slug 14.6 kg. 1 lb 4.45 Newtons The law of reaction - "For every force that acts on one body, there is a second force equal in magnitude but opposite in direction that acts upon another body." Third law of Motion The law of acceleration - " Whenever a net resultant force acts on a body, it produces an

acceleration in the direction of the resultant force that is directly proportional to the resultant foce and inversely propoportional to the mass of the body." Second law of Motion The law of inertia - "There is no change in the motion of the body unless an unbalanced external force is acting upon it." First law of Motion pH Positive Hydrogen ion pH 1 to 6 Acid Mass of electrons in grams 9.107 times 10 to the -28 Mass of protons in grams 1.672 times 10 to the -24 Mass of neutron in grams 1.675 times 10 to the -24 Charge of electron negative 1.602 times 10 to the -19 charge of proton 1.602 times 10 to the -19 Charge of neutron 0 The mass of the neutron is approximately 1,839 times greater than electrons 1839 The mass of the proton is approximately 1,836 times greater than electrons 1836 Top 3 conductor Silver, Copper, Gold least conductor nichrome atoms building blocks of engineering materials

Aluminum most abundant metal in earth Ductility ratio of ultimate shear to yielding stress period the time taken by a body in uniform motion to travel an orbit 760 torr equal to 1 ATM Charle's Law Constant Pressure, Variable Temperature and Volume Twice amplitude twice maximum velocity R.A. 8792 Philippine Electronic Commerce Act or E-Commerce Act each orbital has 1 electron placed in it before pairing of electron in orbitals occurs Hunds' Rule angular speed (momentum) Spin Quantum # resistance(internal friction) of fluids to flow viscosity S.I. unit of pressure Newton per square meter Pascal losses due to friction in oscillation damped oscillator cohesive attraction that causes liquid to minimize its surface area surface tension Maximum stress before permanent deformation elastic limit also known as modulus of rigidity shear modulus

thermodynamic properties volume, pressure, temperature defined as mass per unit volume. Independent of size and shape density another term for specific gravity weight density ability of metal to be permanently deformed ductility elastic modulus applicable to liquids bulk modulus Combine two small elements fussion Larger element divided into 2 smaller elements Fission object subjected to equal and opposite forces on different lines of direction is said to be under shear stress unit of mechanical shear joule conduction band where free electrons move gives off a yellow green appearance Chlorine Gives off blue-black-violet color Iodine young's modulus is also known as modulus of elasticity stress at which a material begins to plastically deform yield strength irregularity within a crystal structure Dislocation most common defect of crystal

Line defect What is the S I unit of momentum kg. meter per sec. Kg-m / s What is the S I unit of impulse Newton - sec. N-s total momentum of a closed system is constant Conservation of linear momentum number of cycles as a result of time period A common copper alloy Zinc a solution that is a liquid conductor electrolyte determines the acidity or base PH measurement what is PH 7 neutral delegation of authority assigning of different degrees of authority Vander Waals bonding Connection between crystal atoms / forms eight pairs of electrons when bonded Covalent bonding aggregate less when near each other than when separated from one another metallic bonding interaction of ionic lattice and electron gas electrostatic bonding bonding between positive and negative charges atomic number element identity spin quantum direction

Element a pure substance that cannot be broken down by chemical means to a simpler substance. Valence Electrons determines the ability of atoms to combine with other atoms. Nitrogen Group V-A Electronics Engineer appearnce fee per hour 500 Electronics engineer retainer's fee 1500 maximum allowable exposure to radiation from an electronic equipment must not exceed to, 100 ms keystone of professional conduct integrity Requiring the services of a duly licenced ECE planning, designing Department Order No. 88 law provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Phils. R.A. 3846 policy to improve the provision of Local Exchange carrier service E.O 109 Foundation of Moral philosophy Justice, Honesty and Courtesy Philippines is under what region in terms of frequency allocation Region 3 Data network operated by enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is authorized to provide data. Public Switched Data Network An ECE board member must be a citizen & resident of the Philippine for at least, BLANK, consecutive years prior to his appointmnt 5 Years Testing and quality control of electronics product

Manufacturing If the engineer approves that a certain electronic product were according to engineering standard.. ( something like this ) Acceptance Implementing rules and regulations ( IRR ) of R.A 9292 August 31, 2007 Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 R.A. 8792 VOIP service provider performance bond 5 million The certificate of Authority issued by NTC to A CATV maximum term. 15 years Maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for Channels 7 - 13 1000 Kw Metro Manila Commercial load in radio stations 15 minutes Minimum carrier power output of a Standard AM Broadcast direct supervision of an Electronics engineer is required 1 Kw Maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila 50 kW at what temperature does a magnetic material loses its ferromagnetic properties Curie Temperature Specific Gravity also termed as Relative Density Moment of Inertia is dependent on Mass, Axis of rotation, Size and Shape diatonic scale with added 5 half tones Chromatic Scale binds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an atom exchange force

depend on the number of harmonics present Quality of Sound Avogadros Number 6.022 x 10 to the ___ power 23rd controlled testing of the properties of a substance or system through carefully recorded measurements Experiment father of scientific method Galileo number of S.I. base units 7 Father of Modern Chemistry Antoine Lavoissier means indivisible Atomos Pressure held constald, Volume of gas is inversely proportional to volume Charles Law Naming Chemical Compounds Chemical Nomenclature Best Conductor of Electricity Silver Denser metal settles on less dense Floatation the closeness of two sets of measured group of values Precision bending of a strip of metal Elastisity of Flexion twisting of spring Elasticity of Torsion Acid and base balanced Neutralization

lacking of mass over something Mass defect where fission is controlled Nuclear Reactor operating at low temperature Cryogenics what property of plastic changes with heat distortion Mechanical increasing in the small diameter tube with fluid Capillarity Relating 2 different volume / density Relative Humidity Speech density volume Absolute Humidity Density of material with respect to density of air Specific humidity Same/Like materials Cohesion Different/Unlike materials Adhesion Necessary nuclear reactor (uranium) Critical Size Radioactivity Curie Flow of fluid in pipe; pressure Bernoulli principle atomic mass Physicists atomic weight High production, something will limit Law of diminishing return Mix different quantities of some element

Law of multiple proportion Indistinguishable liquid and gas Critical Point Constant angular momentum, increasing kinetic energy Keplers Law Light actually passes through Real image Light seemed to pass through Virtual image Capital mobile dealer P 100,000 Defect of lens, Rays near the edge Spherical Aberration comet-shaped coma Differences in vertical and horizontal distance Astigmatism Unit of electrostatic charge Statvolt SI unit of potential difference volt Electrostatic measuring device? Leaf electroscope Class B FM 500 ft. Primary FM stations allowed of how many translators 2 Acids formed from weak bases dissolved in H2O Hydrolysis Matter can be broken down Democritus

Property of gas equals individual property Gibbs Theorem Neutron Chadwick Summary observed fact Scientific Law Partial volume Azamat's Theorem Liquid not used as solvent in a chromatography Water Not an ionization Bond C6H12O6 1 molecule enters an orbit, spread, about atom spin Hunds rule of multiplicity AM primetime 6:00 AM 8:00 PM Change of temp w/o change of phase Sensible Heat oil or mining / nauubos na resources Depletion Cost Penetrate;molecules Diffusion Quantitative measurement Stoichiometry Shield for x-ray Lead (ratio of something to air to e) Absolute Index of Refraction Incident angle is greater than critical angle Total Reflection

Temperature, konting pressure na lang solid to liquid na Critical Temperature Removal of Energy Water to ice Separation of liquid through because of difference in its boiling points Distillation 1 dyne on separation of 1 cm 1 stat coloumb Non performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially less than or different from what the contract is intended. Material Breach 1 Joule 10 raise to 7 ergs 10^7 ability to be mixed with other Miscibility Used as solute in stainless steel ( to prevent "kalawang" hehehe ) Chromium Used a slovent in stainless steel Iron Perfect absorber Black Body ratio of velocities before and after an impact coefficient of restitution Temperature where degree C = degree Fahrenheit - 40degrees Used in Vehicle Baterries Sulfuric Acid Medium travels fast at zero degrees ( 0 deg C) Glass Something about Bouyancy of material to water Archimedes Theory

heat exceeds saturation at less pressure Superheated second most abundant element on earth oxygen energy gap of GaAs 1.43 V 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: GEAS, Notes

Wednesday, October 5, 2011

GEAS
GEAS Mechanical energy of pressure transferred into energy of heat Ans. enthalpy For a common microscope the image formed by the eyepiece is Ans. inverted Added to nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties Ans. alpha particle Ester of glycerol with unsaturated fatty acids Ans. oils Energy of an electron is assumed to be zero when Ans. it is far away from the nucleus Chief ore of zinc Ans. Sphalerite Punitive damage Ans. Exemplary damage Functional depreciation Ans. obsolescence Maritime communication law Ans. R.A. 3396 Brightness of light source

Ans. luminous intensity Heated metal(hot bodies) Ans. Edison effect Producer gas is a mixture of nitrogen Ans. carbon monoxide 1BTU Ans. 1054 Joules Paramagnetic Ans. Chromium How an element is connected to other Ans. Structural formula Arrangement of atoms in a molecule Ans. affects the reactivity of molecules False statement Ans. convex mirror can be used as main objective in a reflecting telescope Average decay time Ans. mean life Weightless environment, attach a ball to a spring and spin, the acceleration vector of the ball is Ans. always point inward towards you Change a sample of solid to liquid Ans. heat of fusion Failure to regain its original size and shape Ans. elastic lag Reciprocal of bulk modulus Ans. compressibility Period driving force Ans. resonance Willingness of an atom to receive electrons Ans. electron affinity Temperature below the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure

Ans. subcooled liquid Venturimeter measures ___ of water Ans. velocity Temperature where Joule Thomson effect is zero Ans. inversion Unit of moment of inertia Ans. kg-m2 Copper alloy used as collectors for electric generator Ans. Tin bronze Solution of weak acid and its conjugate base, or weak base and its conjugate acid Ans. buffer System remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium at all times Ans. quasi-equilibrium Hydrocarbon contain one or more double bonds Ans. alkene Process of making hydrocarbon gas Ans. Bosch Factor of safety Ans. yielding stress over working stress Propagate same speed as light Ans. heat wave Ratio of market price per share to earnings per share Ans. price-earnings ratio Degrees F equals degrees C Ans. -40 Unit of ionization radiation Ans. Becquerel Water is electrolyzed Ans. hydrogen and oxygen atoms are separated from each other. Black light

Ans. UV radiation Retentivity Ans. permanent magnet Mass of atomic particles Ans. mass spectrograph 3G bond Ans. 300M Refrigerant Ans. Dimethyl ether Amount of energy to fracture a given volume of material Ans. Impact strength Theory of light emitted in discrete amount Ans. Quantum theory Cast iron hard and wear resistance Ans. white iron Heat engine cant transfer heat An. 2nd law of thermodynamics Reflected sound waves return Ans. echo Irregular succession of compression and rarefaction Ans. unpitched sound Luminance of clear sky Ans. 3200 Blackbody radiation emitted at freezing platinum Ans. candle Result of atmospheric refraction Ans. mirage Absorbs radiant energy and re emits it in wavelengths Ans. fluorescence Design to detect radiation emanating from radioactive source

Ans. Quartz-fiber electroscope Monosodium Glutamate (MSG) Ans. vegetable protein Kwashiorkor Ans. lack of protein Downer Ans. seconal Decay of a neutron to a proton Ans. beta particle Known concentration Ans. standard solution A pressure measuring device to register the pressure at all times Ans. mercury manometer Work done is zero. Ans. isometric Drink salt water Ans. cell shrink Speaker Ans. 5 CU Doctoral Ans. 45 CU Gas is produce by the action of sunlight on automobile exhaust Ans. ozone Middle management level Ans. intermediate planning Process identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation Ans. decision-making Documents that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security Ans. Coupon

 Color that bends the least Ans. red Series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft of the building Ans. riser shaft Upon dissociation in water, acid yields hydrogen ions while gases yields hydroxide ions Ans. Arrhenius theory Friendliest metal Ans. Iron 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: GEAS, Notes

Tuesday, October 4, 2011

GENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED SCIENCES
GENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED SCIENCES Carnot engine when reversed becomes Refrigerator Highest average translational kinetic energy account to which state of matter Gas Aluminum is the lightest among the following metals except Magnesium Alpha particle test charge +2 Strength and machinability Normalizing Middle C 256Hz Radioactive source activity Becquerel The frequency of Middle C 256Hz

Which of the following noble gases is most abundant on earth? Argon Given mass 1=mass 2=132 lb, distance=1 meter, calculate gravitational force. 2.4 x 10^-7 N Which of the following is the difference between ground state and excited state of an atom? Electron configuration Helmholtz free energy is the internal energy of the system ____ Minus the product of entropy and temperature The escape velocity on earth is 11,200 m/s. What is the escape velocity to the moon? 2,400 The material known as austenite is transformed into bainite when subjected to ___ process. Rapid cooling Newly SROP provided that devices ___ output power Shall not exceed 25 watts What is the value of resistivity of aluminum in ohm-m? 2.7 x 10^-8 As stated under D.O.88 for AM broadcasting station, operation sation must be under the supervision of registered ECE if the carrier power exceeds ___ 1kW What is the unit charge of alpha particle? +2 Sound interference is required in order to attain the phenomenon known as Beats Aside from platinum, gold, and silver, which is considered as a noble metal? Iridium What is the velocity of a 100g ball on a 5cm string moving in horizontal circle that requires centripetal force of 1.0N? 2.2m/s What is the coefficient unit of viscosity? Poise What is the main characteristic of super__ whose major application are jet engines and gas

turbines? Heat resistant Which ferromagnetic is BCC crystal structure? Iron What is the force of gravitational attraction between two 132-lb student who are standing 1m apart? 2.4 x 10^-7 N Which of the following would be different in ground state and excited state upon atom? The electron configuration Another aspect of pressure and human body is blood pressure. 20/20 vision is ideal120/80, what is the unit? mmHg What is the amount of time of activity may delayed without changing the succeeding activity? Slack One Dalton is equivalent to how many MeV? 931 In alloy nickel is replaced by ___ to produce superinvar alloy. Cobalt Chart compare planned schedule information to actual. Tracking Gantt Chart PRC Modernization Act 8981 Type of brass with 85% copper Red brass What is the ratio of working temperature to the temperature of melting point? Homologous temperature Type of management that spend most of the time outside Management by wandering 1 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: GEAS, Notes

CHAPTER 18 COMMUNICATIONS

CHAPTER 18 COMMUNICATIONS 1. The circuit that recovers the modulating signal form 455 kHz intermediate frequency. Detector 2. Picks up all the radiated signals and feeds them into the RF amplifier. Antenna 3. Provides a dc level out of the detector that is proportional to the strength of the received signal Automatic Gain Control (AGC) 4. It brings the high frequency audio signals back to the proper amplitude relationship with the lower frequencies De-emphasis Network 5. Removes any unwanted variations in the amplitude of the FM signal as it comes out of the IF amplifier and produces a constant amplitude FM output at the 10.7 MHz intermediate frequency Limiter 6. A feedback circuit consisting of a phase detector, a low pass filter, and a VCO PLL 7. The range of frequencies over which the PLL can acquire lock with an incoming signal Capture range 8. The angle that defines whether a light ray will be reflected or refracted as it strikes a surface. Critical Angle 9. A linear device that produces an output voltage proportional to the product of two input voltages Four-quadrant Multiplier 10. An optical characteristic of a material that determines the critical angle. Index of refraction 11. A device for down-converting frequencies in a receiver system Mixer 12. The RF amplifier, mixer, and local oscillator are tuned simultaneously so that the LO frequency is always 455 kHz above the incoming RF signal frequency. Gang tuning 13. A special case of the multiplier that is realized by simply applying the same voltage to both inputs by connecting the inputs together. Squaring circuit

14. Reverse modulation Demodulation 15. The process of varying a parameter of a carrier signal with an information signal. Modulation 16. Most VCOs employed in PLLs operate in the principle of ____________ using the varactor diode as a voltage-variable capacitor. Variable reactance 17. The range of frequencies over which the PLL can maintain lock Lock range or tracking range 18. Independent of the bandwidth of the low-pass filter because when the PLL is in lock, the difference in frequency is zero or a very low instantaneous value the falls well within the bandwidth. Hold-in range 19. Uses light pulses to transmit information through fiber-optic cables. Fiber optics 20. Fiber optic cable in which the diameter of the core is fairly large relative to the diameter of the cladding. Multimode step index 21. Fiber optic cable in which the diameter core is very small relative to the diameter of the cladding. Single-mode step index 22. Fiber optic cable in which the diameter of the core is fairly large relative to the diameter of the cladding. Multimode graded index 23. A linear multiplier can be used as a _________ detector Phase 24. The output of a linear multiplier is the ________ of the inputs and a scale factor Product 25. The IF in a standard AM receiver is 455 kHz 26. A form of amplitude modulation in which the carrier is suppressed Balanced modulation

27. Another term for balanced modulation Suppresses-carrier modulation 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 17 VOLTAGE REGULATORS

CHAPTER 17 VOLTAGE REGULATORS 1. The percentage change in the output voltage for a given change in the input voltage Line regulation 2. The percentage change in output voltage for a given change in load current Load regulation 3. Occurs when the internal power dissipation becomes excessive and the temperature of the device exceeds a certain value Thermal Overload 4. An electronic circuit that maintains an essentially constant output voltage with a changing input voltage or load current Regulator 5. Typical of three-terminal IC regulators that provide a fixed negative output voltage. 79XX 6. An example of a three-terminal positive regulator with an adjustable output voltage. LM317 7. Negative output counterpart of the LM317 LM337 8. A universal device that can be used with external components to provide step-up, step-down, and inverting operation 78S40 9. A voltage regulator in which the control element operate as a switch Switching regulator 10. Two basic types of linear regulators are Series and shunt 11. In linear series regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load Series

12. In linear shunt regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load. Parallel 13. A change in input voltage does not significantly affect the output voltage of a regulator. (true/false) True 14. Can be used as a current source when an application requires that a constant current be supplied to a variable load. Three-terminal regulator 15. Amplitude modulation is a ____________________process Multiplication 16. is one method used to overcome the bandwidth limitation of the telephone system so that digital data can be sent over the phone lines. FSK 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Electronics, Notes, Regulators

CHAPTER 16 OSCILLATORS
CHAPTER 16 OSCILLATORS 1. A circuit that produces a periodic waveform on its output with only the dc supply voltage as an input Oscillator 2. The two major classifications for oscillators are feedback oscillators and _______________. Relaxation oscillators 3. Characterized by the condition wherein a portion of the output voltage of an amplifier is fed back to the input with no net phase shift resulting in a reinforcement of the output signal Positive signal 4. An amplifier gain of greater than ________ will cause the oscillator to limit both peaks of the waveform 100 5. The most widely used type of RC feedback oscillator for frequencies up to about 1 MHz Wien-bridge 6. Quarts is one type of crystalline substance found in nature that exhibits a property called

________ Piezolelectric effect 7. This type of LC feedback oscillator uses transformer coupling to feed back a portion of the signal voltage. It is sometimes called a tickler oscillator Armstrong Oscillator 8. Devices that produce more than one output function Function generators 9. A relaxation oscillator whose frequency can be changed by a variable dc control voltage Voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) 10. ___________ oscillators include the Colpitts, Clapp, Hartley, Armstrong, and crystalcontrolled Sinusoidal LC 11. ___________ oscillators include the Wien-bridge, phase-shift, and twin-T Sinusoidal RC 12. This type of oscillator used an LC circuit in the feedback loop to provide the necessary phase shift and to act as a resonant filter that passes only the desired frequency of oscillation Colpitts Oscillator 13. It is a variation of the Colpitts but with an additional capacitor in series with the inductor in the resonant feedback circuit Clapp Oscillator 14. He invented the Hartley oscillator and the Hartley transform, a mathematical analysis method , which contributed to the foundations of information theory Ralph Vinton Lyon Hartley 15. Similar to Colpitts except that the feedback circuit consists of two series inductors and a parallel capacitor Hartley oscillator 16. The most stable and accurate type of feedback oscillator uses a piezoelectric _________ in the feedback loop to control frequency. Crystal 17. The lowest frequency at which a crystal is naturally resonant. Fundamental frequency 18. For higher frequencies, the crystal must be operated in this mode Overtone mode

19. A type of relaxation oscillator because its operation is based on the charging and discharging of a capacitor Square-Wave oscillator 20. A two-state device whose output can be at either a high voltage or a low voltage level Flip-flop 21. For initial start-up, the voltage gain around the feedback loop must be greater that 1 (one) 22. The feedback signal in an Armstrong oscillator is derived by ________ coupling Transformer 23. A type of RC feedback oscillator which used two T-type RC filters used in the feedback loop, one has a low-pass response and the other has high-pass response Twin-T oscillator 24. A loop is created in which the signal sustains itself and a continuous sinusoidal output is produces Oscillation 25. The phase shift around the feedback loop must be effectively ________ degrees to sustain the state of oscillation 0 26. The voltage gain around the closed feedback loop must be equal to _________ to sustain state of oscillation. 1 (unity) 27. The product of the amplifier gain and the attenuation of the feedback circuit Voltage gain 28. He was involved in the development of oscillators and vacuum tube push-pull amplifiers at Western Electric in the early 1900 Edwin H. Colpitts 29. The frequency in a VCO can be varied with a _______ controlled voltage Dc 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Electronics, Notes, Oscillators

CHAPTER 15 ACTIVE FILTERS

CHAPTER 15 ACTIVE FILTERS

1. The ___________ of a band-pass filter is the ratio of the center frequency to the bandwidth. Quality factor 2. An active filter category that rejects the frequencies within a certain bandwidth and passes frequencies outside the bandwidth Band-stop filter 3. A filter response characteristic that provides a very flat amplitude response in the passband and a roll-off rate of -20dB/decade/pole Butterworth characteristic 4. Each filter in a cascaded arrangement is called ___________. Stage or section 5. It is one of the most common configurations for two-pole filter. It is also known as a voltagecontrolled voltage source filter. Sallen-Key 6. A filter required to get a third-order low-pass response. This is done by cascading a two-pole Sallen-key low-pass filter and a single-pole low-pass filter Three-pole filter 7. Each additional filter in a cascaded arrangement adds _______dB to the roll-off rate -20 dB 8. The rate of decrease in gain, below or above the critical frequencies of a filter. Roll-off 9. Technology that enables the tracking and/or identification of objects. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) 10. Four categories of active filters Low-pass, high-pass, band-pass, and band-stop 11. Low-pass bandwidth is equal to Cutoff frequency 12. Filters with the Bessel characteristic are used for filtering ________ waveforms Pulse 13. Two common types of band-stop filters. Multiple-feedback and state-variable 14. Tiny, very thin microchips with memory and a coil antenna

RFID tags 15. This type of tag does not require batteries. The tag is inactive until powered by the energy from the electromagnetic field of an RFID reader Passive RFID tag 16. This type of tag is powered by a battery and is capable of communicating up to 100ft. Or more from the RFID reader. Active RFID tag 17. Another type of tag that is a paper labelled with printing with the RF circuitry and antenna embedded in it. Smart label 18. The property of selecting signals with certain selected frequencies while rejecting signals with other frequencies. Selectivity 19. A pole is simply a circuit with how many resistor or capacitor? 1 20. The damping factor affects the filter response by negative feedback action. True/false True 21. The more poles a filter has , the faster its roll-off rate is True 22. Another term for state-variable filter Universal active filter 23. Two methods of determining a filters response by measurement Discrete point measurement and swept frequency measurement 24. Produces a constant amplitude output signal whose frequency increases linearly between two preset limits. Swept frequency generator 25. How many poles does a Sallen-Key high pass filter have? 2 26. The center frequency of a state variable resistor is set by the _______ circuits in both integrators, RC 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Electronics, Filters, Notes

Wednesday, September 28, 2011

CHAPTER 14 SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS
CHAPTER 14 SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS 1. Provides dc isolation between input and output Isolation amplifier 2. Ratio of the output current to the input voltage Transconductance 3. Transconductance is __________ of an OTA Gain 4. A comparator with hysteresis where the input voltage is large enough to drive the device into its saturated states Schmitt trigger 5. The ______________ of a number is the power to which the base must be raised to get that number. Logarithm 6. An amplifier that produces an output that is proportional to the logarithm of the input. Log amplifier 7. Used in applications where it is necessary to have an output current that is controlled by an input voltage. Voltage-to-current converter 8. The circuit used to detect the peak of the input voltage and store that peak voltage on a capacitor. Peak detector 9. The exponent to which the base e must be raised in order to equal a given quantity. Natural logarithm 10. In an OTA, transconductance varies with _________. Bias current 11. Amplifiers that are often used in HF communication systems, including fiber optics, for processing wide dynamic range signals. Log and antilog amplifiers 12. The key characterisctic of an instrumentation amplifier

CMRR 13. The voltage gain of instrumentation amplifier is set by a Resistor 14. The log amplifier may use the ___________ junction of a BJT in the feedback loop Base-emitter 15. The main purpose of an instrumentation amplifier is to amplify _____ signals that are riding on _____ common-mode voltages. small, large 16. The ___________ of an OTA is the input voltage times the transconductance Output current 17. The operation of log and antilog amplifiers is based on the __________ characteristics of a pn junction Nonlinear (logarithmic) 18. A log amplifier has a pn junction in the feedback loop, and an antilog amplifier has a pn junction in __________ with the input Series 19. In a peak detector, an op-amp is used as a __________ to charge a capacitor through a diode to the peak value of the input voltage. Comparator 20. A basic instrumentation amplifier is formed by three op-amps and ________ resistors, including the gain setting resistor. Seven (7) 21. An oscillator that can be either amplitude or pulse modulated by the signal from the input amplifier High-frequency oscillator 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 13 BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS

CHAPTER 13 BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS 1. A common interfacing process often used when a linear analog system must provide inputs to a digital system.

A/D conversion 2. Method of A/D conversion that uses parallel comparators to compare the linear input signal with various reference voltages developed by a voltage divider Flash 3. Produces an output that is proportional to the rate of change of the input voltage Differentiator 4. The difference between the UTP and the LTP Hysteresis voltage 5. Used to generate pulse waveform from the sine wave output of the audio generator. Voltage comparator 6. When the output is at the maximum positive voltage and the input exceeds UTP, the output switches to the _________ negative voltage Maximum 7. Uses a capacitor in the feedback path which is open to dc. This implies that the gain at dc is the open-loop gain of the op-amp. Practical integrator 8. Gives an op-amp noise immunity Hysteresis 9. Used to detect positive and negative voltages by connecting a fixed reference voltage source to the inverting input of a zero-level detector. Nonzero-Level detection 10. A good example of hysteresis Thermostat 11. A comparator with three trigger points Schmitt Trigger 12. The output of Schmitt trigger is Pulse waveform 13. In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode is used in the feedback loop? Zener 14. Necessary components for the design of a bounded comparator Rectifier and zener diodes 15. Type of circuit that uses comparators

Nonzero-level detector 16. Variations of the basic summing amplifier Averaging and scaling amplifier 17. Differentiation of a ramp input produces a step output with an amplitude proportional to the _________ Slope 18. Another term for flash Simultaneous 19. Integration of a step input produces a ramp output with the slope proportional to the _________ Amplitude 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 12 THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER

CHAPTER 12 THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER 1. The measure of an amplifiers ability to reject common-mode signals CMRR 2. It is the typical value of input offset voltage in the ideal case. 0V 3. It is the dc current required by the inputs of the amplifier to properly operate the first stage. Input bias current 4. It is the resistance viewed from the output terminal of the op-amp Output impedance 5. The total resistance between the inverting and noninverting inputs Differential input impedance 6. Differential impedance is measured by determining the change in ___________ for a given change in differential input voltage. Bias current 7. Common temperature coefficient for the offset current 0.5nA/C

8. Functions of negative feedback in an op-amp Stabilize gain and increase frequency response 9. The voltage gain of an op-amp with external feedback Closed-loop voltage gain 10. A special case of the noninverting amplifier where all of the output voltage is fed back to the inverting input by a straight connection Voltage-follower configuration 11. The value of the frequency at which the gain steadily decreases to a point where it is equal to unity Unity-gain frequency Or unity gain bandwidth 12. It is always equal to the frequency at which the op-amps open- loop gain is unity or 0 dB. Gain-bandwidth product 13. The relative angular displacement of a time-varying function relative to a reference. Phase shift 14. The three terminals of the basic op-amp not including power and ground Inverting input, noninverting input, and output 15. It has the highest input impedance and the lowest output impedance of the three amplifier configurations Voltage-follower 16. The _________ of an op-amp equals the upper critical frequency. Bandwidth 17. Two types of op-amp input operation. Differential mode and common-mode 18. A ____________ differentiator uses a capacitor in series with the inverting input. Ideal 19. An ideal op-amp has ___________ value for voltage gain, bandwidth, and input impedance. Infinite 20. What should be the output voltage of an op-amp when the differential input is zero Zero 21. The ideal op-amp has __________ output impedance Zero 22. The three basic op-amp configurations Inverting, noninverting, and voltage follower

23. The closed-loop voltage gain is _________ than the open-loop voltage gain. (more or less) Less 24. Does the gain of an op-amp decreases or increases as frequency increases above the critical frequency Decreases 25. Devices such as the diode and the transistor which are separate devices that are individually packaged and interconnected in a circuit with other devices to form a complete, functional unit. Discrete components 26. Most op-amps operate with how many dc supply voltage? 2 (positive and negative) 27. Datasheets often refer to the open-loop voltage gain as the ______________ Large-signal voltage gain 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 11 THYRISTORS
CHAPTER 11 THYRISTORS 1. It is like the four-layer diode but with the added gate connection SCR 2. This is the maximum continuous anode current that the device can withstand in the conduction state under specifies conditions. Average forward current 3. What bilateral thyristor functions basically like two parallel SCRs turned in opposite directions with a common gate terminal? Triac 4. ____________ does not belong to the thyristor family because it does not have a four-layer type of construction. UJT 5. It can be used a trigger device for SCRs and triacs. UJT 6. It is a type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the anode exceeds the voltage at the gate.

PUT 7. A region of forward bias in which the device has a very high forward resistance and is in the off state Forward-blocking region 8. A method for turning-off the SCR that basically requires momentarily forcing current through the SCR in the direction opposite to the forward conduction Forced commutation 9. The value of gate current necessary to switch the SCR from the forward-blocking region to the forward-conduction region under specified conditions. Gate Trigger Current 10. A four-layer semiconductor device that operates essentially as does the conventional SCR except that it can also be light-triggered. LASCR 11. Functions basically like two parallel 4- layer diodes turned in opposite directions. Diac 12. A diac with gate terminal Triac 13. A four-terminal thyristor that has two gate terminals that are used t trigger the device on and off Silicon Controlled Device (SCS) 14. A type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the anode exceeds the voltage at the gate. Programmable Unijunction Transistor (PUT) 15. The characteristic of a UJT that determines its turn-on point Standoff-ratio 16. The four-layer diode is also called Shockley diode 17. The region that corresponds to the on condition of the SCR where there is forward current from anode to cathode through the very low resistance of the SCR Forward_ conduction region 18. The SCR can only be turned on using its _________ terminal Gate 19. Acts as the trigger source in the LASCRs

Light 20. A thyristor that conducts when the voltage across its terminals exceeds the breakover potential 4-layer diode 21. Basic methods of for turning off an SCR Anode current interruption and forced commutation 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Electronics, Notes, Thyristors

CHAPTER 10 AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE

CHAPTER 10 AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE 1. The frequency at which the output power drops to one-half of its midrange value Corner frequency 2. At the critical frequencies the output voltage is 70.7% of its midrange value. What is the value of voltage gain in dB? -3 dB 3. What is the other term for lower critical frequency? All of the above 4. The condition where the gain is down 3 dB is logically called _________ of the amplifier response -3 dB point 5. The upper and lower dominant critical frequencies are sometimes called Half-power frequencies 6. A characteristic of an amplifier in which the product of the voltage gain and the bandwidth is always constant when the roll-off is -20 dB/ decade. Gain-bandwidth product 7. Critical frequencies are values of frequency at which the RC circuits reduce the voltage gain to ____________ of its midrange value. 70.7% 8. An octave of frequency change is a ________ -times change 2 9. Which of the following has no effect on the low-frequency response? Internal transistor capacitances

10. What is the gain that occurs for the range of frequencies between the lower and upper critical frequencies? Midrange gain 11. Which of the following is not a method in frequency response measurement? Roll-off measurement 12. If the voltage gain is less than one, what is the value of the dB gain? Negative 13. A plot of dB voltage gain versus frequency on semilog graph paper Bode plot 14. The critical frequency at which the curve breaks into a -20dB/decade drop Lower break frequency 15. The change in gain or phase shift over a specified range of input signal frequencies Frequency response 16. A unit of logarithmic gain measurement and is commonly used to express amplifier response Decibel 17. The lower and upper critical frequencies of an amplifier can be determined using the _____________ method by applying a voltage step to the input of the amplifier and measuring the rise and fall times of the resulting output voltage Step-response method 18. The coupling an bypass capacitors of an amplifier affect the _________ frequency response: high or low Low 19. The internal transistor capacitances affect the _________ frequency response: high or low High 20. Two frequency response measurement Frequency/amplitude and step 21. The Miller input and output capacitances for a BJT inverting amplifier depends on Voltage gain 22. When dB is negative, it is usually called_______ Attenuation 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

Friday, September 23, 2011

CHAPTER 9 FET AMPLIFIERS AND SWITCHING CIRCUITS
CHAPTER 9 FET AMPLIFIERS AND SWITCHING CIRCUITS 1. An amplifier that primarily uses only MOSFETs. Class D 2. A process in which an input signal is converted to a series of pulses with widths that varies proportionally to the amplitude of the input signal. PWM 3. It removes the modulating frequency and harmonics and passes only the original signal to the output. Low-Pass Filter 4. The voltage gain of a common-drain amplifier is always Slightly less than 1 5. The load resistance connected to the drain of a common-source amplifier reduces ____________ Voltage gain 6. What is the relationship between the input resistance of a common-gate amplifier to its transconductance? They are inversely proportional 7. The efficiency of a class D amplifier approaches 100% 8. The input signal is applied to the gate and the output is taken from source Common-drain 9. A nonlinear amplifier in which the transistors are operated as switches Class D 10. A device that switches an analog signal on and off Analog switch 11. Consists of two or more analog switches that connect sample portions of their analog input signals to single output in a time sequence Analog multiplexer 12. Used in low-power digital switching circuits

CMOS 13. Amplifier commonly used as frequency multiplier Class C 14. The least efficient amplifier Class A 15. An amplifier that is biased below cutoff Class c 16. A class of amplifier that operates in the linear region for only a small part of the input cycle Class C 17. In a class AB amplifier, if the VBE drops are not matched to the diode drops or if the diodes are not in thermal equilibrium with the transistors, this can result in Thermal runaway 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 8 FIELD EFFECT TRANSISTORS

CHAPTER 8 FIELD EFFECT TRANSISTORS 1. FETs are preferred device in low-voltage switching applications; while______ transistor is generally used in high-voltage switching applications. IGBT 2. What type of JFET operates with a reverse-biased pn junction to control current in the channel? JFET 3. An n-channel universal transfer characteristic curve is also known as Transconductance curve 4. The change in drain current for a given change in gate-to-source voltage with the drain-to-source voltage constant Forward transconductance 5. What is the most common type of JFET bias? Self-bias 6. It is a method for increasing the Q-point stability of a self-biased JFET by making the drain current essentially independent of gate-to-source voltage Current-source bias

7. What JFET bias uses a BJT as a constant-current source? Current-source bias 8. For increased Q-point stability, the value of RS in the self-bias circuit is increased and connected to a negative supply voltage. This sometimes called Dual-supply bias 9. VGS varies quite a bit for JFET self-bias and voltage-divider bias but ID is much more stable with Voltage-divider bias 10. ____________ is sometimes called depletion/enhancement MOSFET. D-MOSFET 11. LDMOSFET has a lateral channel structure and is a type of Enhancement MOSFET 12. It is an example of the conventional E-MOSFET designed to achieve higher power capability VMOSFET 13. Following are the three ways to bias a MOSFET except Current-source bias 14. The insulated-gate bipolar transistor combines which two transistors that make it useful in high-voltage and high-current switching applications? BJT and MOSFET 15. What are the three terminals of IGBT? Gate, collector, emitter 16. In terms of switching speed, __________ switch fastest and _____________ switch slowest. MOSFETs, BJTs 17. In a MOSFET, the process of removing or depleting the channel of charge carriers and thus decreasing the channel conductivity Depletion 18. The ratio of change in drain current to a change in gate-to source voltage in a FET Transconductance 19. A FET is called a ______________ because of the relationship of the drain current to the square of a term containing gate-to-source voltage Square-law device 20. Combines features from both the MOSFET and the BJT that make it useful in high-voltage and high-current switching applications. IGBT

21. Has a lateral channel structure and is a type of enhancement MOSFET designed for power applications. LDMOSFET 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Electronics, Notes, Transistor

CHAPTER 7 POWER AMPLIFIERS

CHAPTER 7 POWER AMPLIFIERS 1. It is the product of Q-point current and voltage of a transistor with no signal input Power dissipation 2. The ____________ of an amplifier is the ratio of the output signal power supplied to a load to the total power from the dc supply. Efficiency 3. Which amplifier operates in the linear region for 180 deg. Of the input cycle when biased in cutoff and is in cutoff for 180 deg? Class B 4. These amplifiers are biased to conduct for slightly more than 180 deg. Class AB 5. An amplifier that is generally used in Radio Frequency applications Class C 6. Implemented with a laser diode Current mirror 7. An amplifier that is biased below cutoff and is normally operated with resonant circuit load Class C 8. The four classes of power amplifiers are classified based on the percentage of the ____________which the amplifier operates in its ________region Input cycle, linear 9. It is the ratio of the output power to the input power Power gain 10. Product of the rms load current and the rms load voltage Output power

11. A type of class B amplifier with two transistors in which one transistor conducts for one halfcycle and the other conducts for the other half-cycle Push-pull 12. Amplifiers that are generally used in Radio Frequency Applications. Class C amplifiers 13. Another term for complementary Darlington Sziklai pair 14. An advantage of push-pull class B and class AB amplifiers over class A Efficiency 15. The Q-point is at _________ at class B operation Cutoff 16. Operates in the linear region where the output signal is an amplified replica of the input signal Class A 17. Amplifiers that have the objective of delivering power to a load Power amplifers 18. When the Q-point is at the center of the ac load line, a maximum class ________ signal can be obtained. A 19. The maximum efficiency of capacitively coupled class A amplifier cannot be higher than 25% 20. The low efficiency of class A amplifiers limits their usefulness to small power applications that require usually less than ________. 1W 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 6 BJT AMPLIFIERS

CHAPTER 6 BJT AMPLIFIERS 1. Amplifiers designed to handle small __________ signals are referred to as small-signal amplifiers. ac only 2. Which of the r parameters is the most important?

re 3. Determine the ac emitter resistance that is operating with a dc emitter current of 5mA. 5.0 4. If ac=hfe, ac=? hfb 5. Which of the three amplifier configurations exhibit high voltage gain and high current gain? Common-emitter 6. An amplifier configuration which has a voltage gain of approximately 1, a high input resistance and current gain, Common-collector 7. An amplifier configuration which provides high voltage gain with a maximum current gain of 1. Common-base 8. Which of the amplifier configurations is the most appropriate for certain applications where sources tend to have low-resistance outputs? Common-base 9. In a common-emitter amplifier, any change in input signal voltage results in Opposite change in collector signal voltage 10. The ac voltage gain is the ratio of ac output voltage at the collector to ac input voltage at the base 11. the reduction in signal voltage as it passes through a circuit attenuation 12. the overall voltage gain of the common-emitter amplifier is the product of the voltage gain from base to collector and reciprocal of the attenuation 13. Without the bypass capacitor, the CE amplifiers emitter is no longer at ac ground. How does this affect the amplifier? It decreases the ac voltage gain 14. The measure of how well an amplifier maintains its design values over changes in temperature, Stability 15. Swamping is a method used to minimize the effect of the ____________without reducing the voltage gain to its minimum value. ac emitter resistance

16. ___________ contains two transistors. The collectors of two transistors are connected and the emitter of the first drives the base of the second. Darlington pair 17. _____________ consists of two types of transistors, npn and a pnp. Complementary Darlington 18. An amplifier configuration in which the input signal is capacitively coupled to the emitter and the output is capacitively coupled from the collector, Common-base 19. Which of the amplifier configurations is/are useful at high frequencies when impedance matching is required? Common-base 20. The power gain of a common-base amplifier is approximately equal to Voltage gain 21. BJT amplifier that produces output that are a function of the difference between two input voltages, Differential amplifier 22. Ideally, a diff-amp provides a very high gain for single-ended or differential signals and _____________ gain for common-mode signals. 0 23. Input signals are out of phase Differential amplifier 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Amplifiers, Electronics, Notes CHAPTER 5 TRANSISTOR BIAS CIRCUITS 1. What biasing method is common in switching circuits? Base bias 2. A Base bias in linear region shows that it is Directly dependent on dc beta 3. In an emitter-feedback bias, if the collector current increases, the emitter voltage Increases 4. What happens to the base voltage in no. 10? Increases

5. In an emitter-feedback, the increase in base voltage _________ the base current. Reduces 6. For collector-feedback bias, what provides the bias for the base-emitter junction? Collector voltage 7. As temperature goes up in a collector-feedback circuit, DC and VBE goes _______ and __________, respectively. Up and down 8. Collector-feedback bias provides good stability using negative feedback from Collector to base 9. Innovations in technology would allow a doubling of the number of transistors in a given space every year and that the speed of those transistors would increase. This prediction is widely known as Moores law 10. If an amplifier is not biased with correct dc voltages on the input and output, it can go ___________ when an input signal is applied. Saturation or cutoff 11. Given a voltage-divider biased BJT, determine IC given VCC, R1, R2, RC, and RE which are 10V, 10kohms, 4.7kohms, 1kohm, and 470ohms respectively. Use DC= 100. 5.31mA 12. What is the value of VCE in no.20? 2.19 V 13. If an emitter resistor is added to a base bias circuit, what is the value of the emitter current given VCC, RE, RC, and RB as 10V, 1k, 470, and 180k, respectively. Use DC=100. 3.32mA 14. Calculate for VCE in no. 22 5.12 V 15. If the dc beta in the preceding drops half of its original value, find the percent change in IC. 39.16% 16. What is the percent change in VCE? 27.17% 17. The region along the load line including all points between saturation and cutoff Linear region

18. A voltage divider for which loading effects can be neglected Stiff voltage divider 19. The base bias circuit arrangement has poor stability because its Q-point varies widely with Dc beta 20. The purpose of biasing a circuit is to establish a proper stable ________. Q-point 21. The process of returning a portion of a circuits output back to the input in such a way as to oppose or aid a change in the output Feedback 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Electronics, Notes, Transistor

Saturday, September 10, 2011

CHAPTER 4 BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTORS
CHAPTER 4 BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTORS 1. Which is the least of the three transistor currents? Base 2. The ratio of the dc collector current to the dc base current of the transistor is, dc beta/dc current gain 3. the ratio of the dc collector current to the dc emitter current dc alpha 4. Determine the base current given dc beta=100 , dc alpha=0.85, and IC= 3.70mA 0.037mA 5. Nonconducting state of a transistor Cutoff 6. State of a BJT in which the collector current has reached maximum and is dependent of the base current Saturation 7. Neither the base-emitter nor the base-collector junctions are forward-biased cutoff 8. dc beta varies with

collector current and temperature 9. hFE varies with which transistor current/s? Collector only 10. Converts light energy to electrical signal Phototransistor 11. Devices used to electrically isolate circuits Optocouplers 12. A key parameter in optocouplers is the CTR. CTR stands for Current transfer ratio 13. Indication of how efficiently a signal is coupled from input to output CTR 14. RF transistors are designed to operate at EHF 15. What transistor category/ies uses plastic or metal packages? General-purpose transistors 16. To operate as an amplifier, BE junction must be forward-biased and the BC junction must be reverse-biased. This is called Forward-reverse bias 17. In a phototransistor, what transistor current/s is produced and controlled by light? Base 18. Two basic package types Through-hole and surface mount 19. The process of increasing the power, voltage, or current by electronic means. Amplification 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Electronics, Notes, Transistor

CHAPTER 3 SPECIAL- PURPOSE DIODES

CHAPTER 3 SPECIAL- PURPOSE DIODES 1. Diodes that were designed to operate in reverse breakdown Zener diode

2. A device that operates in reverse bias photodiode 3. A zener diode operating in breakdown acts as a Voltage regulator 4. A positive temperature means that the zener voltage Increases with an increase in temperature on decreases with decrease in temperature. 5. A diode that always operates in reverse-bias and is doped to maximize the inherent capacitance of the depletion region is Laser 6. When the light-emitting diode (LED) is forward-biased, __________pass the pn junction and recombine with____________ in the _________material. Electrons, holes, p-type 7. The first visible red LEDs were produced using GaAsp 8. The normalized output of the visible red, yellow, green and blue LED peaks at __________________ (nm) respectively. 660,590,540, and 460 9. Organic LEDs and LEDs produce light through the process of __________ and ___________ respectively. Electrophophorescence and electroluminescence 10. An increase in the amount of light intensity produces an increase in Reverse current 11. A diode that can be used as a variable-resistance device controlled by light intensity. Photodiode 12. A diode that operates only with majority carriers Schottky diode 13. A diode that takes advantage of the variable forward resistance characteristic. PIN diode 14. No reverse leakage current Schottky diode 15. Diode used in VHF and fast switching applications Step- Recovery diode

16. When a PIN diode is forward-biased, it acts like a Current-controlled variable resistance 17. If a tunnel diode is placed in series with the tank circuit and biased at the center of the negative-resistance portion of its characteristic curve, a _________ will result in the output. Constant sinusoidal voltage 18. The tunnel diode is only used at VHF 19. In a varactor diode, what happens to the capacitance if the reverse-bias voltage decreases a. Increases 20. The varactor capacitance ratio is also known as a. Tuning ratio 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Diode, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 2 DIODE APPLICATIONS

CHAPTER 2 DIODE APPLICATIONS 1. An open primary or secondary winding of a power supply transformer results in 0V 2. The output frequency of a half-wave rectifier is _________to/of the input frequency Equal 3. What is the average value of the half-wave rectified voltage given 25 V as its peak amplitude? 7.95 V 4. The PIV rating of the bridge diodes is __________to/than that required for the center-tapped configuration. Less 5. Diode circuits used to clip off portions of signal voltages above or below certain levels, Clippers 6. The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is ________ the input frequency Twice 7. A transformer is generally specified based on _____________rather than the turns ratio, Secondary voltage 8. The period of a full-wave rectified voltage is ____________ that of a half-wave rectified voltage

Half 9. The indication of the effectiveness of the filter is called Ripple factor 10. Eliminates the fluctuations in the rectified voltage and produces a relatively smooth dc voltage Filter 11. Circuit that maintains a constant dc voltage for variations in the input line voltage or in the load Regulator 12. A type of full-wave rectifier that uses two diodes connected to the secondary of a center-tapped transformer Center-tapped rectifier 13. Use clamping action to increase peak rectified voltages without the necessity of increasing the transformers voltage rating Voltage multipliers 14. Maximum voltage appearing across the diode in reverse bias PIV 15. Caused by the charging and discharging of the filter capacitor Ripple voltage 16. A systematic process of isolating, identifying, and correcting a fault in a circuit or system Troubleshooting 17. Allows unidirectional current through the load during the entire 360 of the input cycle Full-wave rectifier 18. Allows current through the load only during one-half of the cycle. Half-wave rectifier 19. Generally used because of the surge current that initially occur s when power is first turned on Slow-blow type fuse 20. A figure of merit used to specify the performance of a voltage regulator regulation
OSCILLATORS

CHAPTER 16 OSCILLATORS

CHAPTER 16 OSCILLATORS 1. A circuit that produces a periodic waveform on its output with only the dc supply voltage as an input Oscillator 2. The two major classifications for oscillators are feedback oscillators and _______________. Relaxation oscillators 3. Characterized by the condition wherein a portion of the output voltage of an amplifier is fed back to the input with no net phase shift resulting in a reinforcement of the output signal Positive signal 4. An amplifier gain of greater than ________ will cause the oscillator to limit both peaks of the waveform 100 5. The most widely used type of RC feedback oscillator for frequencies up to about 1 MHz Wien-bridge 6. Quarts is one type of crystalline substance found in nature that exhibits a property called ________ Piezolelectric effect 7. This type of LC feedback oscillator uses transformer coupling to feed back a portion of the signal voltage. It is sometimes called a tickler oscillator Armstrong Oscillator 8. Devices that produce more than one output function Function generators 9. A relaxation oscillator whose frequency can be changed by a variable dc control voltage Voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) 10. ___________ oscillators include the Colpitts, Clapp, Hartley, Armstrong, and crystalcontrolled Sinusoidal LC 11. ___________ oscillators include the Wien-bridge, phase-shift, and twin-T Sinusoidal RC 12. This type of oscillator used an LC circuit in the feedback loop to provide the necessary phase shift and to act as a resonant filter that passes only the desired frequency of oscillation Colpitts Oscillator

13. It is a variation of the Colpitts but with an additional capacitor in series with the inductor in the resonant feedback circuit Clapp Oscillator 14. He invented the Hartley oscillator and the Hartley transform, a mathematical analysis method , which contributed to the foundations of information theory Ralph Vinton Lyon Hartley 15. Similar to Colpitts except that the feedback circuit consists of two series inductors and a parallel capacitor Hartley oscillator 16. The most stable and accurate type of feedback oscillator uses a piezoelectric _________ in the feedback loop to control frequency. Crystal 17. The lowest frequency at which a crystal is naturally resonant. Fundamental frequency 18. For higher frequencies, the crystal must be operated in this mode Overtone mode 19. A type of relaxation oscillator because its operation is based on the charging and discharging of a capacitor Square-Wave oscillator 20. A two-state device whose output can be at either a high voltage or a low voltage level Flip-flop 21. For initial start-up, the voltage gain around the feedback loop must be greater that 1 (one) 22. The feedback signal in an Armstrong oscillator is derived by ________ coupling Transformer 23. A type of RC feedback oscillator which used two T-type RC filters used in the feedback loop, one has a low-pass response and the other has high-pass response Twin-T oscillator 24. A loop is created in which the signal sustains itself and a continuous sinusoidal output is produces Oscillation 25. The phase shift around the feedback loop must be effectively ________ degrees to sustain the state of oscillation 0

26. The voltage gain around the closed feedback loop must be equal to _________ to sustain state of oscillation. 1 (unity) 27. The product of the amplifier gain and the attenuation of the feedback circuit Voltage gain 28. He was involved in the development of oscillators and vacuum tube push-pull amplifiers at Western Electric in the early 1900 Edwin H. Colpitts 29. The frequency in a VCO can be varied with a _______ controlled voltage Dc
PAST BOARDS

Fiber Optics (Chapter 11: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following refers to the relative refractive index difference of single mode fibers? 0.1 - 0.3 % ECE Board Exam November 2000 A parameter of light beam that do not change the quality when it enters one medium from another. Frequency ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following limits the top speed of transmitting information in fiber optic communication? Detector speed ECE Board Exam November 1999 Type of multi-channel signal transmission in the optic fiber communication that uses twisted pair coupler to transmit two signals of different wavelengths. Frequency-division multiplexing ECE Board Exam April 1999 Best applies to an optical fiber core. A higher refractive index than the cladding ECE Board Exam November 1998 How many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over cable? 100 times bigger

ECE Board Exam April 1998 What law does a light travelling in an optical fiber follow? Snell's ECE Board Exam November 1997 Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye. Ultraviolet ECE Board Exam April 1997 Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable. 0.38dB ECE Board Exam November 1996 An object father from a converging lens than its focal point always has an ________ image. inverted ECE Board Exam March 1996 The dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core. Cladding ECE Board Exam April 2001 An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication is not intended to determine one of the following: Kind of multiplexing --------------------- An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication------Refractive index Loss per kilometer Length of fiber ECE Board Exam November 2000 In wire communications system using fiber optic, the packing fraction is related to one of the following statements when referred to fiber optic bundle. Ratio of the total cross-sectional area to the total cross-sectional area of the fiber bundle ECE Board Exam April 2000 Why are fiber optic cables considered less expensive compared to coaxial cables in communication system? Use of less repeaters ECE Board Exam November 1999 An optic fiber regenerator which is used in communication is consisting of a ________ to clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and a similar system for the opposite direction. transmitter and receiver

ECE Board Exam April 1999 How do you account the effect of light intensity on the refractive index of a fiber optic? Increases ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the following referred to as a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer. Pulse generator laser ECE Board Exam April 1998 __________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency. Laser ECE Board Exam November 1997 The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communication system. APDs ECE Board Exam April 1997 A non-coherent light source for optical communications system. LED ECE Board Exam November 1996 The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is attenuation ECE Board Exam March 1996 It is made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-gallium-arsenide or gallium-arsenidephosphide. Light emitting diode ECE Board Exam April 2001 How much bigger does the bandwidth of a single mode fiber optic have over the multimode fiber? 20 times bigger ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following refers to the bandwidth of optical fiber? 1 MHz - 500 MHz ECE Board Exam April 2000 Refers to a characteristic of a multimode fiber optic. Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core must be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried. ECE Board Exam November 1999 What do you call the loss in signal power as the light travels the fiber optic? Attenuation

ECE Board Exam April 1999 One of the characteristics of a fiber optic used in order to carry light in several modes of propagation or to become a multimode fiber. Diameter of the core must be very muuch greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried. ECE Board Exam November 1998 What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a detector? Photovoltaic effect ECE Board Exam April 1998 Quantity that do not change when a beam of lifgt enters one medium to another Frequency ECE Board Exam April 1997 Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion. Step-index multimode ECE Board Exam November 1997 Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light intensity at 1.55 um.

ECE Board Exam November 1996 The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted is known as __________. mode ECE Board Exam March 1996 An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the siica material from which fibers are manufactured. Ultraviolet absorption ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following is not a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication? vertical and horizontal plates -------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic

communication--------------------Laser Beam splitter Pulse generator ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following is a part of an optical time domain reflectometer? Beam splitter ECE Board Exam April 2000 This refers to a certain material which is most sensitive to light. Photoresist ECE Board Exam November 1999 Referred to as a light source of fiber optic which supplies level of 5 to 7 milliwats and having a narrow spectrum of emission. Injection laser diode ECE Board Exam April 1999 Most likely, how many times would a fiber optic break in a span of thirty years? 2 - 3 times ECE Board Exam November 1998 An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signal from magnetic field or solar storm flux Immunity to noise ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength? Violet ECE Board Exam April 1997 Fiber optic cable operates near ________ frequencies. 800 THz ECE Board Exam November 1997 If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the detector rise time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE. Board Exam November 1996 Proposed the used of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide Bockham and Kao

ECE Board Exam November 2000 ln electronic communications where fiber optic material is used, a reflected wave is a possibility. what happen to the polarization of this reflected wave when compared to its original form? Shifts to 180 degrees ECE Board Exam April 2000 The effect of multimode propagation caused the rays leaving the fiber to interfere constructively and destructively as they leave the end of the fiber this effect is called _________. modal delay spreading ECE Board Exam November 1999 What is the wavelength for deep violet light? 500 nmeter ECE Board Exam April 1999 A device in the fiber optic that is used to attenuate the reflected signal from the polished end of the fiber which has a possibility of developing into a noise. Isolator ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the advantages of the fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it can carry Bandwidth ECE Board Exam April 1998 Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links. Optical repeater ECE Board Exam November 1997 A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems Optical attenuator ECE Board Exam April 1997 Lifetime of ILDs 50.000 h ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon? Molten ECE Board Exam November 2000 One of the major limitations of a plastic fiberoptic used in communication Due to its high losses

ECE Board Exam April 2000 One of following is considered the largest source of signal power loss in the use of fiber optic as communications medium such as due to misalignment. ConnectionECE Board Exam NOvember 1999 One of the following is related to the application of solid material as a medium where light travels. medium where Ilght travels. apphcatlon of 5DHd mater-ja}; as 3 Fiber optics ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the following is not considered as one of the causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic? Inter-modulation ----------------causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic----------------Scattering Fiber bending Absorption ECE Board Exam November 1997 The core of the optical fiber has _______ a higher index of refraction than the cladding ECE Board Exam November 1997 Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed during the manufacturing process of the fiber optics. Rayleigh scattering loss ECE Board Exam November 1996 If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the detector rise time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE Board Exam November 2000 A phenomenon which causes the speed of light rays propagation in the fiber material changes, as it passes through different medium in the fiber Refraction ECE Board Exam April 2000 At what intenial does a fiber optic needs a repeater in communications system? 30 to 300 miles ECE Board Eanm November 1999 Referfeq to as a limit in reducing further the loss of signal passing through a

fiber optic caused by scattering. Rayleigh effect ECE Board Exam April 1999 These are band of light wavelengths, that are too short to be seen by the human eye. Ultraviolet ECE Board Exam November 1998 A quarter wavelength device made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the optic fiber communication Retarder ECE Board Exam April 1999 At what power levels does fiber optic have when used in electronic communications? Range of micro to milliwatts ECE Board Exam November 1998 One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication. Semi-graded multimode ECE Board Exam November 1998 How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber optic? By application of antireflection coating ECE Board Exam November 1998 What is the device use in used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter use tc clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in opposite direction? Optic regenerator ECE Board Exam November 2000 An advantage of fiber optic over co-axial cable as a result of coupling signals from one to the other due to changing magnetic field in one or both. Crosstalk ECE Board Exam April 2001 What is the index of refraction of a certain substance if light travels through the substance at 100 meters at a time is to 140 meters to air'?

0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Excel, Fiber Optics, Past Board

Saturday, June 16, 2012

Satellite Communications (Chapter 10: Past Board Exce)
ECE Board Exam April 2001 What balance the gravitational pull of the earth to allow the satellite to stay on its orbit? Centripetal force ECE Board Exam November 2000 Satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern. Nonsynchronous satellite ECE Board Exam April 1999 In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a reply is heard? 600 ms ECE Board Exam November 1999 What are the repeaters inside communications satellite known for? Transponders ECE Board Exam April 2000 Under a circular satellite orbiy, how high is a certain satellite located above the surface of the earth if the total satellite height is 9869 miles?

ECE Board Exam November 1998 Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period if rotation of the earth about its axis. Geosynchronous satellite ECE Board Exam April 1998 A radio land station in the land mobile service. Base station

ECE Board Exam November 1997 The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the distance from the measuring instrument. Telemetry ECE Board Exam April 1997 _______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna. Azimuth ECE Board Exam November 1996 How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU? 6 ECE Board Exam MArch 1996 The point on satellite orbit, closest to the earth is perigee ECE Board Exam April 2001 A mobile service between base stations and land mobile stations or between land mobile stations. Mobile service ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following refers to the basic component of a communication satellite receiver? Transponder ECE Board Exam April 2000 Determine from the following the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite. Spin ECE Board Exam November 1999 A space distance iin satellite communication from the earth, to or greater than 2,000,000 kilometers is referred to as ___________. deep space ECE Board Exam April 1999 How many satellites does the GPS system consist? 24 satellites ECE Board Exam November 1999 Which point on the satellite orbit is closest to the earth? perigee ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following is refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antenna's radiation pattern?

spot beam ECE Board Exam April 1998 A major and basic advantage for the use of klystron. Hiigh power ECE Board Exam November 1997 Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion. Land station ECE Board Exam April 1997 __________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current, amplifies and lower its frequency. LNB ECE Board Exam November 1996 Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite. Satellite dish ECE Board Exam March 1996 It is a spacecraft replaced in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiving and transmitting equipments Communications satellite ECE Board Exam April 2001 A what apogee in an elliptical orbit must a geosynchronous satellite be initially stationed before it is finally fired into its final geostationary orbit? 22,300 miles ECE Board Exam November 2000 Satellite orbit around the earth are either: they are either circular or elliptical ECE Board Exam April 2000 Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the cooperating stations. Satellite network ECE Board Exam November 1999 A resultant effect in launching a satellite from the earth caused by both forward motion away from the earth that provides inertia tending the satellite to travel in straight line upwards and the gravitational pull towards the earth is referred to as ___________. centripetal acceleration ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following refers to the first active satellite?

Sputnik 1 ECE Board Exam April 1998 A band where most military satellite often operate. X ECE Board Exam November1997 Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously. Telstar I ECE Board Exam April 1997 What kind of battery panels are used in some advanced satellites? Gallium arsenide solar panels ECE Board Exam November 1996 Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's station. Downlink ECE Board Exam November 1999 In satellite communications where satellites revolve in an orbit that forms a plane passing through the center of gravity of the earth, this center is called ____________ geocenter ECE Board Exam April 1998 The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate functions of equivalent at a distance. Telecommand ECE Board Exam November 1997 The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate modify or terminate functions of equipment at a distance. Telecommand ECE Board Exam April 1997 Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe. Satellite coverage ECE Board Exam November 1996 The first commercial satellite Early bird ECE Board Exam November 1996 What band does VSAT first operate? C-band ECE Board Exam April 2001

Which part of transponder converts the received signal to another lower frequency? Mixer ECE Board Exam April 1998 In satellite communications, the geostationary satellites are conveniently located with respect to the equator at __________. 0 degrees latitude ECE Board Exam November 1997 The Ku-band in the satellite service. 14/11 GHz ECE Board Exam April 1997 Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia? 38 ECE Board Exam November 1996 Satellite engine uses ion propulsion system ECE Board Exam April 2001 How do you increase or double the channel capacity of a satellite without increasing the frequency bandwidth? Re-use frequency ECE Board Exam April 1998 A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of earths surface. Global beam ECE Board Exam November 1997 Receives and collects satellite signals from a broadcast satellite. Satellite disk ECE Board Exam April 1997 Sound intensity level is __________ 10 log I/Iref ECE Board Exam November 1996 The first passive satellite transponder. Moon ECE Board Exam April 1998 The most common application of satellite Communications ECE Board Exam November 1997

Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between mobile stations. Mobile service ECE Board Exam April 2001 Referred to as function and/or a designed of a double conversion satellite transponder. Equipped with two mixers ECE Board Exam November 2000 How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference? Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the first satellite systems catering personal based communications services scheduled for operation. Iridium system ECE Board Exam NOvember 1997 A radio communications service used in radio regulation between specified fixed points provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and economical air transport. Aeronautical Fixed Service ECE Board Exam November 1999 When do you consider that there is a satellite pass, having reference from the ground? When satellite passes at its orbit at 90 degrees from its azimuth. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion of the earths athmospehere. Space Station ECE Board Exam November 1997 An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal the period of rotation of the earth about its axis. Geosynchronous ECE Board Exam April 1998 Known as the satellite transmitted signal from a satellite transponder to earths station. Down link ECE Board Exam November 1997 A satellite receives an uplink frequency of __________ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz.

ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call the signal booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver? Low noise amplifier ECE Board Exam November 1997 Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern? Spot Beam ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred by a radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion Land Station ECE Board Exam November 1997 Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the operating earth station. satellite network ECE Board Exam April 2001 Typical bandwidth of a communications satellite. 500 MHz ECE Board Exam November 2000 An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam. Footprint ECE Board Exam April 1999 A twenty four (24) satellite system used in modern telecommunications to determine a location(s) on the surface of the earth. GPS ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which type of satellite transponder improves the S/N ratio which demodulates the up-link signal to recover the baseband signals and use them to remodulate the downlink transmitter? Baseband ECE Board Exam April 1998 In shipboard satellite dish antenna system, azimuth is referred as the __________ horizontal aiming of the antenna

ECE Board Exam November 1997 Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service. Coast station ECE Board Exam November 1998 __________ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting simultaneously. Telstar I ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the frequency range of C-band? 3.4 to 6.424 GHz ECE Board Exam November 1997 An area on the surface of the earth within the boresight of the steerable satellite beam intended to be pointed. Effective boresight area ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the approximate percentage of earth's coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree elevation? 42.5 % ECE Board Exam April 2001 One of the following devices in satellite transponder serves as output of the receive antenna. low noise amplifier ECE Board Exam November 2000 In a re-use frequency technique of increasing satellite channel capacity of corresponding transponders, how do you control the antenna used to prevent interference? High directional antenna ECE Board Exam November 2000 Refers to a mobile earth station in the mobile-satellite service located on board ship Ship earth station ECE Board Exam April 2001 A technique in satellite communications which uses a highly directional spot-beam antenna to prevent interference from frequency sharing. Frequency re-use technique ECE Board Exam November 2000 How do you determine the satellite location in latitude and longitude measurement? Designate a point on earth directly below the satellite ECE Board Exam November 2000 A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of the earth.

Perigee ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which satellite transponder has the most number of mixers? Double-conversion 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Satellite

Monday, June 4, 2012

Microwave Communications (Chapter 9: Past Board Excel)
ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which of the following will you avoid in the construction of a microwave station? Long horizontal runs ECE Board Exam November 2000 Radio frequency where waveguides are not used extensively. 150 MHz ECE Board Exam April 2000 Term used to describe a process of approaching a desired point by directing the vehicle towards that point Homing ECE Board Exam November 1999 A system which does not refer to a technique in reducing the propagation errors in navigational system such as multipath effects Pulse transmission ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the following is a navigational equipment which utilizes a ground radar system to determine the position of a plane during its approach? GCA ECE Board Exam November 1998 _____________ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget. Power margin ECE Board Exam April 1998 Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on __________. two or more antennas operating on the same frequency ECE Board Exam November 1996 One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is

noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup? 312 to 552 kHz ECE Board Exam March 1996 The k-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile calculation is equal to __________ 4/3 ECE Board Exam March 1996 LORAN is navigational system used primarily for _________ obtaining your fixed location over a large distances ECE Board Exam April 2001 What navigational system technique uses an antenna directivity to reduce an undesired multipath signals? LORAN-C ECE Board Exam November 2000 In microwave frequencies, the LOS distance is something extended through the occurrence of ____________ ducting ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following if not a part of the navigational radar? Duplexer ------------- part of navigational radar----------Pulser Display unit Synchronizer ECE Board Exam November 1999 How do you account the effect of selective fading on the transmitted signal in terms of its bandwidth? more affirmative at wider bandwidth ECE Board Exam April 1999 Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction. VHF and UHF ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refers to an effect of selective fading. A fading effect caused by phase difference between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station.

ECE Board Exam November 1996 When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zones at the point of reflection the RSL is decreased ECE Board Exam March 1996 LORAN is a navigation system used primary for obtaining fixes over large distances ECE Board Exam November 1966 When the value of k increases, the effective result is _______ of the equivalent curvatures. flattening ECE Board Exam March 1996 TACAN is a navigational aid providing _________ bearing and distance indication ECE Board Exam November 1996 If Ns = 250 determine the earth radius k-factor. ECE Board Exam March 1996 A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system is in a space diversity arrangement. Determine how many receivers in all are used? 2 ECE Board Exam November 1996 A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is 92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D ECE Board Exam March 1996 Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses. Log normal fading ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna. Circulator ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies over the same path? Frequency ECE Board Exam November 1996

What is the free space loss, in dB, between two microwave parabolic antennas 38.0 kilometer apart operating at 7.0 GHz? ECE Board Exam November 1996 Low-power radar uses IMPATT ECE Board Exam November 2000 A component of a microwave station that samples signal traveling in one direction down to the transmission line. Directional coupler ECE Board Exam April 2000 A navigational error which is caused by reflection of obstruction close to the location of navigational aid having a normal concern on directional bearing. Site error ECE Board Exam April 1999 An aircraft deviation measured by an ILS localizer. Horizontal ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging? Amplitude modulation ----------- systems used in radio detection and ranging---------Frequency shift Frequency modulation Pulse radar ECE Board Exam April 1997 A microwave system that requires the use of repeater. Intervening system that requires the use of repeater. Distances involved are greater ECE Board Exam November 1996 Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies ECE Board Exam April 1997 RADAR means Radio Detection and Ranging ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which band in the radio spectrum does the radio navigational system Omega transmit?

VLF ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following is not a common microwave application? Mobile radio ------------- common microwave application -------------Radar Data transmission Space communications ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output? Modulator ECE Board Exam April 1997 A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal Terrestrial link ECE Board Exam November 1997 Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used. Space diversity ECE Board Exam April 2000 In radio navigation, one of the following deviations of an airplane is determined by an ILS localizer. Horizontal ECE Board Exam April 1997 The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave. Shorten waveguide link ECE Board Exam April 2000 In navigational system, one of the following indication is provided by the localizer unit of the ILS. A horizontal deviation of an airpalne from its optimum path of descent along the axis of the runway. ECE Board Exam April 1999 Referred to as the cycle time difference between the master and the slave signals to reach the receiver in the operation of loran navigational equipment. Time delay ECE Board Exam April 1999 Which of the HF marine antenna safety link is intended to be broken during the unusual movement of the ship? Weak part

ECE Board Exam April 1999 What is being measured in radar theory to complete the determination of a distance to a target or object, after a high radio frequency signal is transmitted to a target? Echo time off the object to the source
RADIOWAVE

Radiation and Wave Propagation (C5 Past board: Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? Vertical ECE Board Exam November 2000 At what angle would you find the propagation direction in an xy plane . if the electric field is at 180 degrees from a reference zero degree vertical axis? 90 ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following is referred to as the electromagnetic spectrum range of infrared signals? 0.01 millimeter 0.70 micrometer ECE Board Exam November 1999 Which of the following conditions can cause tropospheric ducting? A stable high-pressure system ECE Board Exam April 1999 In study of wave propagation, a condition at which zero absorption of radio wave is describes as Free space medium ECE Board Exam November 1998 Determine from the following radio frequency that falls under the very high frequency band of the radio spectrum. 235.50 MHz ECE Board Exam April 1998 At what distances is VHF propagation normally limited? Around 500 miles ECE Board Exam November 1997 Production of radiation by a radio transmitting station Emission

ECE Board Exam April 1997 When waves bend away from straight line of travel, it is called Refraction ECE Board Exam November 1996 An electromagnetic wave consists of Both electric and magnetic fields ECE Board Exam March 1996 _________ occurs when microwave beam is at a point of grazing over an obstacle. Diffraction ECE Board Exam April 2001 Why are VHF or UHF radio signals which are transmitted towards the mountain or high structure received a distant point in different locations? Due to reflection caused by object ECE Board Exam November 2000 The medium frequency (MF) band is in the spectrum range of 0.3 to 3 MHz ECE Board Exam April 2000 The highest frequency where refracted signals are returned to the eath at a desired distance with usable strength, normally referred to as the critical frequency. Maximum usable frequency ECE Board Exam November 1999 Very High (radio) Frequency in the spectrum refers to _______ waves. Metric ECE Board Exam 1999 What is a wavefront? A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave ECE Board Exam 1998 Electromagnetic waves of frequencies arbitrarily lower than 3,000 GHz propagated in space without artificial guide. Hertzian waves ECE Board Exam April 1998 ________ is a major cause of the sporadic-E condition. Sunspot ECE Board Exam November 1997

This type of transmission permits communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60 MHz over distance from about 1000 to 2000 km. Ionospheric scatter ECE Board Exam April 1997 Highest frequency that can be used for skywave HF communications between two given points on earth. Maximum usable frequency ECE Board Exam March 1996 The wavelength of light has no role in Polarization ECE Board Exam March 1996 Atmospheric condition is controlled by Humidity Pressure Temperature ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which part of globe is considered where sporadic-E is most common? Equatorial regions ECE Board Exam April 2000 Refers to the speed of radio waves traveling through space 300,000 km/sec ECE Board Exam November 1999 What is the reason why VHF radio waves can be propagated several hundred miles over oceans? Widespread temperature inversion ECE Board Exam April 1999 Region of the atmosphere where ducting occurs Troposphere ECE Board Exam November 1998 Frequencies above _____ kHz, are referred to as the radio frequencies. 20 ECE Board Exam April 1998 A radio frequency in the Ultra High Frequency band of the radio spectrum band 0.31250 GHz ECE Board Exam November 1997 The electric field lines in a plane perpendicular to the earths surface Vertical polarization

ECE Board Exam April 1997 Electromagnetic radiation theory was propounded by James Clerk Maxwell ECE Board Exam November 1996 Electromagnetic waves travel at _______ in free space 300,000 km/sec ECE Board Exam March 1996 When the transmitting and receiving antennas are in line-of-sight of each other, the mode of propagation is _______ wave. Space or direct ECE Board Exam April 2000 One of the following referred to as the long infrared signals in the electromagnetic spectrum range. 0.010 millimeter 1000 nanometer ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the period of a wave? The time required to complete in one cycle ECE Board Exam April 2001 Determine the critical frequency value of an HF signal if its maximum usable frequency is 7050.50 kHz at 35 degrees incidence. ECE Board Exam November 1997 Any small element of space in the path of a wave may be considered as source of secondary wavelet. Huygens principle ECE Board Exam April 1997 / November 1997 Type of transmission path that permits communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60 MHz and over distance from about 1000 to 2000 km Ionospheric scatter ECE Board Exam April 1998 What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a station over 5000 miles away? Tropospheric ducting ECE Board Exam November 1997 At height of 180 km above the earth and existing during daylight. F1 layer ECE Board Exam April 1997

What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere? F2 ECE Board Exam November 1996 Tropospheric scatter uses the frequencies in the _________ band UHF ECE Board Exam March 1996 The lowest layer in the ionosphere. D ECE Board Exam April 2001 Except for ________ electromagnetic radiation or signal all others cannot be used for communication purposes. Infrared ECE Board Exam April 2000 What type of signal propagation increases the distance of reach as you select a higher frequency? HF ECE Board Exam April 1998 In radio high frequency communications, the higher the radio frequency the __________ Longer it can reach ECE Board Exam November 1997 An electromagnetic wave is ________ polarized when the electric field lies wholly in one plane containing the direction of propagation. Linearly ECE Board Exam April 1997 Distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cyvle. Wavelength ECE Board Exam March 1996 In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent? The equatorial regions ECE Board Exam April 2001 A possible type of propagation occurring if a weak and distorted signal from a distant station on a frequency that is closed to the maximum usable frequency is received. Sky-wave ECE Board Exam April 2000 By how many farther does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? More or less 15% of the distance

ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized? The electric field is parallel to the earth ECE Board Exam November 1997 Which of the following falls under the high frequency band of the radio spectrum? 8.2345 MHz ECE Board Exam April 1997 Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long distance night time communications? F layer ECE Board Exam April 2000 What is the refractive index of air? 1 ECE Board Exam November 1999 Where in the spectrum band should the line of sight or direct waves is appropriate for radio transmission and reception? UHF ECE Board Exam November 1998 The extremely high frequency (EHF) band is in the radio spectrum range. 3 to 30 MHz ECE Board Exam April 1998 What are electromagnetic wave? A wave consisting of an electric field and magnetic field at right angles to each other ECE Board Exam November 1997 The electric field lies in a plane parallel to the earths surface. Horizontal polarization ECE Board Exam November 1997 A means of beyond the line of sight propagation of microwave signal Troposcatter ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the effective earths radius when Ns=300? ECE Board Exam April 1997 Which is atmospheric attenuation? Due to water vapor and oxygen

ECE Board Exam November 2000 One of the following is not among the medium of primary communication. Radio ----medium of primary communication--Free space Wire Fiber optic cable ECE Board Exam April 2000 What is the propagation condition called where scattered patches of relatively dense ionization develop seasonally at E-layer heights? Sporadic-E ECE Board Exam November 1997 What is the unit of electric field strength? V/m or N/C ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following is the best time for transequatorial propagation? Afternoon or early evening ECE Board Exam November 1999 When the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? Horizontal ECE Board Exam November 2000 What type of radio propagation where signal travels along the surface of the earth? Ground wave propagation ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following radio communications and effects, does the auroral activity inflict? Fluttery tone on continuous wave signals ECE Board Exam November 2000 Referred to as the ionospheric layer with an average height of 225 km at night. F2 layer
REGULATORS

CHAPTER 17 VOLTAGE REGULATORS

CHAPTER 17 VOLTAGE REGULATORS

1. The percentage change in the output voltage for a given change in the input voltage Line regulation 2. The percentage change in output voltage for a given change in load current Load regulation 3. Occurs when the internal power dissipation becomes excessive and the temperature of the device exceeds a certain value Thermal Overload 4. An electronic circuit that maintains an essentially constant output voltage with a changing input voltage or load current Regulator 5. Typical of three-terminal IC regulators that provide a fixed negative output voltage. 79XX 6. An example of a three-terminal positive regulator with an adjustable output voltage. LM317 7. Negative output counterpart of the LM317 LM337 8. A universal device that can be used with external components to provide step-up, step-down, and inverting operation 78S40 9. A voltage regulator in which the control element operate as a switch Switching regulator 10. Two basic types of linear regulators are Series and shunt 11. In linear series regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load Series 12. In linear shunt regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load. Parallel 13. A change in input voltage does not significantly affect the output voltage of a regulator. (true/false) True 14. Can be used as a current source when an application requires that a constant current be supplied to a variable load. Three-terminal regulator

15. Amplitude modulation is a ____________________process Multiplication 16. is one method used to overcome the bandwidth limitation of the telephone system so that digital data can be sent over the phone lines. FSK
SATELLITE

Satellite Communications (Chapter 10: Past Board Exce)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 What balance the gravitational pull of the earth to allow the satellite to stay on its orbit? Centripetal force ECE Board Exam November 2000 Satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern. Nonsynchronous satellite ECE Board Exam April 1999 In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a reply is heard? 600 ms ECE Board Exam November 1999 What are the repeaters inside communications satellite known for? Transponders ECE Board Exam April 2000 Under a circular satellite orbiy, how high is a certain satellite located above the surface of the earth if the total satellite height is 9869 miles?

ECE Board Exam November 1998 Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period if rotation of the earth about its axis. Geosynchronous satellite ECE Board Exam April 1998 A radio land station in the land mobile service.

Base station ECE Board Exam November 1997 The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the distance from the measuring instrument. Telemetry ECE Board Exam April 1997 _______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna. Azimuth ECE Board Exam November 1996 How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU? 6 ECE Board Exam MArch 1996 The point on satellite orbit, closest to the earth is perigee ECE Board Exam April 2001 A mobile service between base stations and land mobile stations or between land mobile stations. Mobile service ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following refers to the basic component of a communication satellite receiver? Transponder ECE Board Exam April 2000 Determine from the following the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite. Spin ECE Board Exam November 1999 A space distance iin satellite communication from the earth, to or greater than 2,000,000 kilometers is referred to as ___________. deep space ECE Board Exam April 1999 How many satellites does the GPS system consist? 24 satellites ECE Board Exam November 1999 Which point on the satellite orbit is closest to the earth? perigee ECE Board Exam November 1998

Which of the following is refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antenna's radiation pattern? spot beam ECE Board Exam April 1998 A major and basic advantage for the use of klystron. Hiigh power ECE Board Exam November 1997 Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion. Land station ECE Board Exam April 1997 __________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current, amplifies and lower its frequency. LNB ECE Board Exam November 1996 Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite. Satellite dish ECE Board Exam March 1996 It is a spacecraft replaced in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiving and transmitting equipments Communications satellite ECE Board Exam April 2001 A what apogee in an elliptical orbit must a geosynchronous satellite be initially stationed before it is finally fired into its final geostationary orbit? 22,300 miles ECE Board Exam November 2000 Satellite orbit around the earth are either: they are either circular or elliptical ECE Board Exam April 2000 Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the cooperating stations. Satellite network ECE Board Exam November 1999 A resultant effect in launching a satellite from the earth caused by both forward motion away from the earth that provides inertia tending the satellite to travel in straight line upwards and the gravitational pull towards the earth is referred to as ___________. centripetal acceleration ECE Board Exam November 1998

Which of the following refers to the first active satellite? Sputnik 1 ECE Board Exam April 1998 A band where most military satellite often operate. X ECE Board Exam November1997 Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously. Telstar I ECE Board Exam April 1997 What kind of battery panels are used in some advanced satellites? Gallium arsenide solar panels ECE Board Exam November 1996 Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's station. Downlink ECE Board Exam November 1999 In satellite communications where satellites revolve in an orbit that forms a plane passing through the center of gravity of the earth, this center is called ____________ geocenter ECE Board Exam April 1998 The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate functions of equivalent at a distance. Telecommand ECE Board Exam November 1997 The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate modify or terminate functions of equipment at a distance. Telecommand ECE Board Exam April 1997 Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe. Satellite coverage ECE Board Exam November 1996 The first commercial satellite Early bird ECE Board Exam November 1996 What band does VSAT first operate? C-band

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which part of transponder converts the received signal to another lower frequency? Mixer ECE Board Exam April 1998 In satellite communications, the geostationary satellites are conveniently located with respect to the equator at __________. 0 degrees latitude ECE Board Exam November 1997 The Ku-band in the satellite service. 14/11 GHz ECE Board Exam April 1997 Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia? 38 ECE Board Exam November 1996 Satellite engine uses ion propulsion system ECE Board Exam April 2001 How do you increase or double the channel capacity of a satellite without increasing the frequency bandwidth? Re-use frequency ECE Board Exam April 1998 A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of earths surface. Global beam ECE Board Exam November 1997 Receives and collects satellite signals from a broadcast satellite. Satellite disk ECE Board Exam April 1997 Sound intensity level is __________ 10 log I/Iref ECE Board Exam November 1996 The first passive satellite transponder. Moon ECE Board Exam April 1998 The most common application of satellite Communications

ECE Board Exam November 1997 Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between mobile stations. Mobile service ECE Board Exam April 2001 Referred to as function and/or a designed of a double conversion satellite transponder. Equipped with two mixers ECE Board Exam November 2000 How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference? Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the first satellite systems catering personal based communications services scheduled for operation. Iridium system ECE Board Exam NOvember 1997 A radio communications service used in radio regulation between specified fixed points provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and economical air transport. Aeronautical Fixed Service ECE Board Exam November 1999 When do you consider that there is a satellite pass, having reference from the ground? When satellite passes at its orbit at 90 degrees from its azimuth. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion of the earths athmospehere. Space Station ECE Board Exam November 1997 An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal the period of rotation of the earth about its axis. Geosynchronous ECE Board Exam April 1998 Known as the satellite transmitted signal from a satellite transponder to earths station. Down link ECE Board Exam November 1997 A satellite receives an uplink frequency of __________ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz.

ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call the signal booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver? Low noise amplifier ECE Board Exam November 1997 Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern? Spot Beam ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred by a radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion Land Station ECE Board Exam November 1997 Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the operating earth station. satellite network ECE Board Exam April 2001 Typical bandwidth of a communications satellite. 500 MHz ECE Board Exam November 2000 An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam. Footprint ECE Board Exam April 1999 A twenty four (24) satellite system used in modern telecommunications to determine a location(s) on the surface of the earth. GPS ECE Board Exam April 2001 Which type of satellite transponder improves the S/N ratio which demodulates the up-link signal to recover the baseband signals and use them to remodulate the downlink transmitter? Baseband ECE Board Exam April 1998 In shipboard satellite dish antenna system, azimuth is referred as the __________ horizontal aiming of the antenna

ECE Board Exam November 1997 Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service. Coast station ECE Board Exam November 1998 __________ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting simultaneously. Telstar I ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the frequency range of C-band? 3.4 to 6.424 GHz ECE Board Exam November 1997 An area on the surface of the earth within the boresight of the steerable satellite beam intended to be pointed. Effective boresight area ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the approximate percentage of earth's coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree elevation? 42.5 % ECE Board Exam April 2001 One of the following devices in satellite transponder serves as output of the receive antenna. low noise amplifier ECE Board Exam November 2000 In a re-use frequency technique of increasing satellite channel capacity of corresponding transponders, how do you control the antenna used to prevent interference? High directional antenna ECE Board Exam November 2000 Refers to a mobile earth station in the mobile-satellite service located on board ship Ship earth station ECE Board Exam April 2001 A technique in satellite communications which uses a highly directional spot-beam antenna to prevent interference from frequency sharing. Frequency re-use technique ECE Board Exam November 2000 How do you determine the satellite location in latitude and longitude measurement? Designate a point on earth directly below the satellite ECE Board Exam November 2000 A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of the earth.

Perigee ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which satellite transponder has the most number of mixers? Double-conversion 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Satellite

Wednesday, September 7, 2011

SATELLITE MULTIPLE ACCESSING ARRANGEMENTS (c26)

CHAPTER 26 SATELLITE MULTIPLE ACCESSING ARRANGEMENTS

1) Also called as Multiple Destination, It implies that more than one user has access to one or more radio channels within a satellite communications channel. Multiple Accessing Multiple Accessing Arrangement: Frequency-division multiple accessing (FDMA) Time-division multiple accessing (TDMA) Code-division multiple accessing (CDMA) 2)A given number of the available voice-band channels from each earth station are assigned a dedicated destination. Pre-assignment(dedicated) 3)Voice channels are assigned on an as-needed basis. Demand Assignment 4)The method of assigning adjacent channels different electromagnetic polarizations and is possible by using orthogonal polarization and spacing adjacent channels 20 MHz apart. Frequency Reuse 5)Eskimo word meaning little brother. Anik 6)Domestic Satellites operated by Telsat Canada. Anik-E communications Satellite 7)A method of multiple accessing where a given RF bandwidth is divided into smaller frequency bands.

FDMA 8)Multiple channel per carrier formats assigned and remain fixed for a long Period of time. Fixed-Assignment, Multiple Access (FAMA) 9)Assigning carrier frequency on temporary basis using a statistical assignment process. Demand-Assignment Multiple Access 10)An acronym for Single-channel-per-carrier PCM multiple Access Demandassignment Equipment. SPADE 11)Stands for Single-Carrier-Per-Channel. SCPC 12)A time division-multiplexed transmission that is frequency division multiplexed. Common Signaling Channel (CSC) 13)The predominant Multiple-access method of time-division multiplexing digitally modulated carriers between participating earth stations within a satellite network through a common satellite transponder. TDMA 14)An RF-to-RF repeater that simply receives the earth station transmissions, amplifies them, and then re-transmit them in a downlink beam that is received by all other participating station. Transponder 15)It is where transmissions from all earth stations are synchronized. Reference Burst 16)It is where all receiving stations recover a frequency and phase coherent carrier for PSK demodulation Carrier Recovery Sequence (CRS) 17)An acronym for Conference of European Postal and Telecommunications Administrations, is commonly used TDMA frame format for digital satellite system CEPT 18)Sometimes referred to as Spread-Spectrum Multipleentire allocated bandwidth Access, the transmissions can spread throughout the Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA)

19)A unique binary word that each earth stations transmissions are encoded. Chip Code 20)It compare two signals and recover the original data. Correlator 21)It assigns an individual terrestrial channel (TC) to a particular satellite channel (SC) for the duration of the call. Digital non interpolated Interface 22)It assigns a terrestrial channel to a satellite channel only when speech energy is present on the TC. Digital Speech Interpolated Interface 23)A form of analog channel compression that has been used for sub oceanic cables for many years. Time-Assignment Speech Interpolation (TASI) 24)The art or science of plotting, ascertaining or directing the course of movements, in other words, knowing where you are and being able to find your way around. Navigation 25)It is the most ancient and rudimentary method of navigation and simply continuing to travel about until you reach your destination, assuming of course that you have one. Wandering 26)Earliest effective means of navigation wherein direction and distance are determined from precisely timed sightings of celestial bodies, including the stars and moon. Celestial Navigation 27)Method of navigation by means of fixing a position and direction with respect to familiar, significant landmarks such as railroad tracks, water towers, barns, mountains and bodies of water. Piloting 28)A navigation technique that determines position by extrapolating a series of measured velocity increments. Dead Reckoning 29)The term derived from the word deduced and not necessarily from the fate of the people who used the technique. Dead 30)He used dead reckoning successfully in 1927 during his historic 33-hour transatlantic journey.

Charles Lindbergh 31)She attempted to make the first around-the-world in 1937 using the dead reckoning technique. Amelia Earhart 32)Navigation technique wherein the position is deter-mined by measuring the travel time of an electro magnetic wave as it moves from a transmitter to a receiver. Radio Navigation 33)A radio Navigation system for terrestrial surface broadcast. Decca 34)Radio Navigation system that provide global coverage and terrestrial surface broadcast. Omega 35)Also a terrestrial surface broadcast. LORAN 36)Low-orbit satellite broadcast, provides global coverage. Navy Transit GPS 37)Medium-orbit satellite broadcast also provides global coverage. Navstar GPS 38)Means of radio navigation in which receivers acquire Coded signals from two pairs of high-powered, land based transmitters whose locations are precisely known. LORAN 39)An acronym for Navigation System with Time and Ranging. Navstar 40)An abbreviation for Global Positioning System. GPS Two levels of service or accuracy: Standard Positioning Service Precise Positioning Service 41)A satellite-based open navigation system which simply means that it is available to anyone equipped with a GPS receiver. Navstar GPS Consists of three segments: a space segment a ground control segment user segment

42)It is when was the Navstar declared as fully operational by the U.S. Air Force Space Command. April 27, 1995 43)It was completed in 1994 and is maintained by the United States Air Force. Navstar Satellite System 44)A positioning and timing service that is available to all GPS users on a continuous, worldwide basis with no direct change. Standard Positioning Service 45)Sometimes called Space Segment, consists of 24operational satellites revolving around Earth in six orbital planes approximately 60 apart with four satellites in each plane. Satellite Segment 46)It produces highly accurate timing signals for satellites. Cesium Atomic Clock 47)A unique integer number that is used to encrypt the signal from that satellite. Pseudorandom Noise (PRN) Code Number 48) A term associated with a table showing the position of a heavenly body on a number dates in a regular sequence, in essence, an astronomical almanac. Ephemeris 49)Error in the receivers clock which affects the accuracy of the time-difference measurement. Clock Bias Error 50)The Navstar control segment. It consists of : Fixed-location ground based monitor stations Master Control Station uplink transmitter Operational Control System 51)It makes standard GPS more accurate. It works by canceling out most of the natural and man-made errors that creep into normal GPS measurements. Differential GPS 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Satellite, Tomasi

SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS (c25 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 25 SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS

1)A celestial body that orbits around a planet. Satellite 2)Man-made satellites that orbit earth, providing a multitude of communication functions to a wide variety of consumers, including military, governmental, private and commercial subscriber. Communications Satellites 3)A satellite radio repeater which a satellite may have many. Transponder Consists of : input Bandlimiting device (BPF) input low-noise amplifier (LNA) frequency translator low level amplifier output bandpass filter 4)It consists of one or more satellite space vehicles, a ground-based station to control the operation of the system, and a user network of earth stations that provides the interface facilities for the transmission and reception of terrestrial communications traffic through the satellite system. Satellite System 5)It includes control mechanism that support the payload operation. Bus 6)The actual user information conveyed through the system. Payload 7)A type of satellite wherein it simply bounces signals from one place to another. Passive Reflector 8)A natural satellite of Earth, visible by reflection of sunlight having a slightly elliptical orbit. Moon 9)Used by passive satellites for tracking and ranging purposes. Radio Beacon Transmitters 10)Launched by Russia, the first active earth satellite in 1957. It transmitted telemetry for 21 days. Sputnik I 11)A type of satellite capable of receiving, amplifying, reshaping, regenerating and retransmitting information. Active Satellite 12)Satellite launched by U.S., it transmitted telemetry information for nearly five months. Explorer I

13)Satellite launched by NASA in 1958, a 150-pound conical-shaped satellite. It was the first artificial satellite used for relaying terrestrial communications. Score 14)The first active satellite to simultaneously receive and transmit radio signals. Telstar I 15)Launched in 1963, and was used for telephone television, facsimile and data transmission and accomplished the first successful transatlantic video transmission. Telstar II 16)Launched in February 1963, was the first attempt to place a geosynchronous satellite into orbit. Syncom I 17)It was the first commercial telecommunications satellite. It launched from Cape Kennedy in 1965 and used two transponders. Also called as Early Birds.It stands for International Telecommunications Sate-llite. Intelsat I 18)Domestic satellite launched by former Soviet Union in 1966. It means lighting. Molya 19)A German astronomer who discovered the laws thatgoverns satellite motion. Johannes Kepler 20)It may be simply stated as: The planets move in ellipses with the sun at one focus The line joining the sun and the planet sweeps out equal intervals of time. The square of the time of revolution of a planet divided by the cube of its mean distance from the sun gives a number that is the same for all planets. Keplers Law 21)The point in an orbit closest to earth Perigee 22)The point in an orbit farthest from the earth. Apogee 23)It states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is proportional to the cube of the mean distance between the primary and the satellite. Harmonic Law 24)High-altitude earth-orbit satellites operating primarily in the 2-GHz to 18 GHz frequency spectrum with orbits Satellite 22,300 miles above earths surface. Geosynchronous Satellite Advantages of Geosynchronous Satellite: It remain almost stationary in respect to a given earth station. Available to earth within their shadows 100% of the time. No need to switch from one geosynchronous satellite to another as they orbit overhead The effects of Doppler shift are negligible Disadvantages of geosynchronous Satellite: It requires sophisticated and heavy propulsion device onboard to keep them in a fixed orbit Much longer propagation delays

Requires higher transmit power and more sensitive receivers because of the longer distances and greater path loss. High precision spacemanship is required. 25)The angle between the earths equatorial plane and the orbital plane of a satellite measured counter clockwise at the point in the orbit where it crosses the equatorial plane traveling from south to north called the ascending node. Angle of Inclination 26)The point where the polar or inclines orbit crosses the equatorial plane travelling from north to south Descending Node 27)The line joining the ascending and descending node Line of Nodes 28)It is when the satellite rotates in an orbit directl above the equator, usually in a circular path. Equatorial Orbit 29)It is when the satellite rotates in path that takes over the North and the South poles in an orbit that is close to earth and passes over and very close to both the North and South Poles. Polar Orbit 30)The noise power normalized to a 1 Hz bandwidth, or the noise power present in a 1Hz bandwidth Noise Density 31)It identifies the system parameters and is used to determine the projected carrier-tonoise ratio and energy Bit-to-noise density ratio at both the satellite and earth station receivers for a given modulation scheme. Link Budget 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Satellite, Tomasi

Tuesday, February 1, 2011

Satellite Communications (Blake C20)
TRUE/FALSE 1. Communications satellites could be just passive reflectors. ANS: T 2. A typical communications satellite can cover half of the earth's surface. ANS: F

3. Most communications satellites are in a geosynchronous orbit. ANS: T 4. Most communications satellites are in a geostationary orbit. ANS: T 5. "Geostationary" means the same thing as "geosynchronous". ANS: F 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about 3,600 km above the equator. ANS: F 7. Signals from satellites in a geosynchronous orbit suffer a great deal of free-space attenuation. ANS: T 8. It is easier to reach a geosynchronous satellite from higher northern latitudes. ANS: F 9. At the frequencies satellites use, the ionosphere has negligible effect. ANS: T 10. The closer a satellite is to earth, the faster the velocity it needs to stay in orbit. ANS: T 11. In the Northern Hemisphere, an antenna must face south to reach a satellite. ANS: T 12. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the Southern Hemisphere. ANS: F 13. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the South Pole. ANS: T 14. Typically, ground antennas must be movable to "track" a geosynchronous satellite.

ANS: F 15. The azimuth and elevation needed for an antenna to "see" a certain satellite depend on the location of the antenna on the ground. ANS: T 16. The power in the uplink signal to a typical communications satellite is in the range of 50 to 240 watts. ANS: F 17. The power in the downlink signal from a typical communications satellite is in the range of 10 to 250 watts per transponder. ANS: T 18. The EIRP of a satellite depends on the gain of its antenna. ANS: T 19. The EIRP of a satellite is the same anywhere reception is possible. ANS: F 20. It takes over half a second for a signal to go from point A to point B and back again via geostationary satellite. ANS: T 21. The useful life of a communications satellite is over when it runs out of fuel. ANS: T 22. The maximum useful life of a communications satellite is about three years. ANS: F 23. Using the C band for satellites may conflict with terrestrial microwave communications. ANS: T 24. Ku-band antennas can be smaller than C-band antennas. ANS: T

25. Conventional analog satellite transponders cannot be used with digital data signals. ANS: F 26. It is possible to transmit signals from one satellite to another. ANS: T 27. In practice, the beamwidth of a parabolic reflector is independent of its diameter. ANS: F 28. Communications satellites are particularly well suited to long-distance telephony. ANS: F 29. With TDMA, more than one hundred earth stations can use the same satellite transponder. ANS: T 30. LEO communications satellite systems have been a great commercial success. ANS: F MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. 3,578 km c. 357,800 km b. 35,780 km d. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,: a. apogee and perigee c. uplink and downlink b. perigee and apogee d. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. earth station c. footprint b. downlink d. plate ANS: C

4. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. is constant b. is zero (freefall) c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. azimuth and elevation c. declination and elevation b. azimuth and declination d. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. 5 to 25 watts c. 500 to 2500 watts b. 50 to 250 watts d. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. 101 watts c. 103 watts b. 102 watts d. 104 watts ANS: C 8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. transponders c. solar cells b. batteries d. all of the above ANS: A 9. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. antenna maintenance b. power-level adjustments ANS: C 10. DBS stands for: c. orbital adjustments d. none of the above

a. decibels of signal b. down-beam signal ANS: D 11. LNA stands for: a. low-noise amplifier b. low north angle ANS: A

c. direct-broadcast system d. direct-broadcast satellite

c. low-noise amplitude d. low-noise array

12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. backdown c. power-down b. backoff d. EIRP drop ANS: B 13. TVRO stands for: a. television receive only b. television repeater only ANS: A 14. TDMA stands for: a. transponder-directed multiple antennas c. time-division multiple access b. television distribution master antenna d. transmit delay minimum aperture ANS: C 15. VSAT stands for: a. video satellite b. video signal antenna terminal ANS: D 16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT system uses: a. high power to a small antenna c. low power to a large antenna b. low power to a small antenna d. LEO satellites c. very small antenna terminal d. very small aperture terminal c. television remote origin d. none of the above

ANS: B 17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. star c. ring b. mesh d. repeater ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit b. low-earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit. ANS: 24 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. ANS: uplink 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. ANS: downlink 4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. c. lateral earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit

ANS: geostationary 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites. ANS: orbital 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth. ANS: 35,780 7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to. ANS: footprint 8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape. ANS: elliptical 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. ANS: perigee 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: elevation 13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. ANS: declination 14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz. ANS: Ku 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds.

ANS: 500 16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. ANS: transponder 17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________. ANS: diameter 18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration. ANS: star 19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________. ANS: failure 20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas. ANS: larger SHORT ANSWER 1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T. ANS: 25 dB 2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. ANS: 139 K. 3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. ANS: 38 dB
SEMICONDUCTOR

CHAPTER 1 INTRODUCTION TO SEMICONDUCTORS

CHAPTER 1 INTRODUCTION TO SEMICONDUCTORS 1. The forces between the opposite charges form an Electric field 2. What is the least accurate approximation of a diode that can be represented by a simple switch? The Ideal diode model 3. The best conductors are the _________ element materials Single 4. Occurs when a conduction-band electron loses energy and falls back into a hole in the valence band Recombination 5. Refers to the fact that the region near the pn junction is depleted of charge carriers due to diffusion across the junction. Depletion 6. The condition that essentially prevents current through the diode Reverse bias 7. The absence of an electron in the valence band of an atom Hole 8. The removal or addition of an electron from or to a neutral atom so that the resulting atom has a net positive or negative charge. Ionization 9. The resistance of a forward-biased diode is called the Dynamic or ac resistance 10. One that has no impurities Intrinsic crystal 11. Most good insulators are ________ rather than the single-element materials Compounds 12. To increase the number of conduction-band electrons in intrinsic silicon, ___________ impurity atoms are added. Pentavalent 13. To increase the number of holes in intrinsic silicon, __________ impurity atoms are needed. Trivalent

14. A ___________ material consists of silicon atom and trivalent impurity atoms such as boron p-type 15. A silicon material that consists of silicon atoms and pentavalent impurity atoms such as antimony. N- type 16. What is the value of the reverse current of practical diode model? 0 17. Semiconductor atoms bond together in a symmetrical pattern to form a solid material called ___________. crystal

TELEPHONE

CELLULAR TELEPHONE SYSTEM (C20 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 20
CELLULAR TELEPHONE SYSTEM
1)Stands for Standard Cellular Telephone Service CTS 2)An acronym for Personal Communications System. PCS 3)Stands for Personal Communications Satellite System. PCSS 4)An acronym for Advanced Mobile Telephone System. AMPS 5)Proposed the cellular telephone concept in 1971. Bell Telephone Laboratories 6)A standard cellular telephone service (CTS) initially placed into operation on Oct. 13, 1983. AMPS

7)It was used by AMPS cellular telephones with a usable audio-frequency band from 300 Hz to 3 KHz and a maximum frequency deviation of + 12 KHz for 100% modulation. Narrowband Frequency Modulation (NBFM) 8)Correspond to an approximate bandwidth of 30 KHz. Carsons Rule 9)A transmission with simultaneous transmission in both direction. Full Duplex (FDX) or Duplexing 10)It is used in AMPS and occurs when two distinct frequency bands are provided to each user. Frequency-division Duplexing 11)A special device used in each mobile unit to allow simultaneous transmission and reception on duplex channels. Duplexer 12)Transmissions from base station to mobile units. Forward Links 13)Transmissions from mobile units to base stations. Reverse Links 14)Another name for forward links. Down Links 15)Another term for reverse link. Uplink 16)Additional frequencies of 10 MHz to the original40 MHz band which increased the number of simplex channels by 166 for a total of 832 (416 Full duplex) Expanded Spectrum 17)Specified frequencies in a small geographic area. Cellular Geographic Serving Areas (CGSA) 18)Defines geographic areas used by marketing agencies. Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area 19)A technique used by standard telephone subscriber to access the AMPS system. Frequency Division Multiple Access

20)A 34 bit binary code which in the U.S. represents the standard 10-digit telephone number. Mobile Identification Number (MIN) 21)A 34 bit binary code permanently assigned to each mobile unit. Electronic Serial Number (ESN) 22)Stands for Vehicle Identification Number. VIN 23)An acronym for Network Interface Card. NIC 24)A four bit code which indicates whether the terminal has access to all 832 AMPS channel or only 666. Station Class Mark (SCM) 25)A 15 bit binary code used by FCC to an operating company when it issues it a license To provide AMPS System Identifier (SID) 26)It is one of the three analog frequencies (5970 Hz, 6000 Hz, or 6030 Hz) that helps mo bile system distinguish one base station from a neighboring base station. Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT) 27)One of four binary codes, also helps mobile system distinguish one base station from a neighboring base station. Digital Color Code (DCC) 28)One set of channels dedicated for exchanging control information between mobile units and base stations. Control Channels 29)Also termed as Voice channel, used for propagating actual voice conversations or subscriber data. User Channel 30)Another name of control channels. Setup or Paging Channel 31)Sometimes called as Camped. Locked

32)A sequence of alternating 1s and 0s. Dotting Scheme 33)A unique sequence of 1s and 0s that enables the receiver to instantly acquire synchronization. Synchronization Word 34)It controls or command mobile units to do a particular task when the mobile unit has not been assigned a voice channel. Mobile Station Control Messages 35)It is used to indicate the current status of the reversecontrol channel. Busy-idle Bits 36)It contains the following: System parameter overhead messages global action overhead messages control filter messages Typical mobile-unit control messages: Initial voice channel designation messages directed retry messages alert messages change power messages Overhead Message 37)Transmitted at a 10-kbps rate. Control data includes: page responses access request registration requests Control Data 38)Transmission of voice. Blank 39)Data transmission. Burst 40)The entity of SS7 interoffice protocol that distinguishes the physical components of the switching network. Switching Network: Signal Service Point Signal Control Point Signal Transfer Point

Intelligent Network 41)A family of mobile or portable radio comunications services which provides servIces to the individuals and business and is integrated with a variety of competing networks. Differences in PCS and cellular telephone system: Smaller Size all digital additional features Personal Communications System (PCS) 42)Acronym for Personal Communications Network. PCN 43) It is assigned to everyone which is stored the on the SS7 network. Personal Telephone Number 44)It determines where and how the call should be directed. Artificial Intelligence Network (AIN) 45)A database that stores information about the user,including home subscription information and what supplementary services the user is subscribed to. Home Location Register (HLR) 46)A database that stores information pertaining to theidentification and type of equipment that exists in the mobile unit. Equipment Identification Registry (EIR) 47)It allows all calls to pass through the network to the subscriber except for a minimal number of telephone numbers that can be blocked. Available Mode 48) The PCS equivalent of caller ID. Screen Mode 49)All calls except those specified by the subscriber are automatically forwarded to a forwarding destination without ringing the subscribers handset. Private Mode 50)No calls are allowed to pass through to the subscriber. Unavailable Mode

51)PCS operating in the 1900 MHz range. PCS 1900 52)Interference avoidance scheme which uses voice companding to provide synthetic voice channel quieting. Interference (MRI) 53)A narrowband AMPS system that increased the capacity of the AMPS system in large cellular market. N-AMPS 54)It is developed with the intent of supporting a higher user density within a fixed bandwidth frequency spectrum. United States Digital Cellular 55)Cellular telephone systems that use digital modulation. Digital cellular 56)Allows one mobile unit to use a channel at the same time by further dividing transmissions within each cellular channel. Time-division Multiple Accessing (TDMA) 57)A database that stores information about subscriber in a particular MTSO serving area, such as whether the unit is on or off Visitor Location Register(VLR) 58)Technique used that allows more mobile-unit subscribers to use a system at virtually the Same time within a given geographical area. Time-Sharing Channels 59)It stands for Electronics Industries Association and Telecommunications Industry Association. EIA/TIA 60)It specifies that a mobile station complying with the IS-54 standard must be capable of operating in either the analog AMPS or the digital (USDC) mode for voice transmissions. Dual Mode 61)It is often called North American Time Division Multiple Accessing. IS-136.2

62)It was introduced to provide PSK rather than FSK on dedicated USDC control channels to in crease the control data rates and provide additional specialized services such as paging and short messaging between private mobile user groups. IS-54 Rev.C 63)Allows for brief paging-type messages and Short e-mail messages that can be read on the mobile phones display and entered using the keypad. Short Message Service 64)It was developed to provide a host of new features and services, positioning itself in a competitive within the newer PCS systems. IS-136 65)It is used by mobile units to request access to the cellular telephone system. It is a unidirectional channel specified for transmissions from mobile-base units only. Random Access Channel (RACH) 66)It is used to transmit information from base stations to specific mobile stations. SMS point-to-point Paging and access response Channel (SPACH) 67) It is dedicated to delivering pages and orders. It transmit : paging messages message-waiting messages user alerting messages call history count updates shared secret data updates Paging Channel (PCH) 68)A logical subchannel of SPACH used to carry assignments to another resource or other responses to the mobile stations access attempt. Access Response Channel (ARCH) 69)It is used to deliver short point-to-point messages to a specific mobile station. SMS Channel (SMSCH) 70)It refers to : F-BCCH, E-BCCH and S-BCCH logical sub channels. Channel (BCCH) 71)Broadcasts digital control channel structure parameters.

Fast Broadcasts Control channel (F-BBCH) 72)Carries less critical broadcast information than F-BCCH intended for mobile units. Extended Broadcasts Control Channel (E-BBCH) 73)Individual mobile units. A logical channels used for sending short messages. SMS Broadcasts Control channel (F-BBCH) 74)Stands for Digital speech interpolation. DSI 75) Carries digital voice information and consists of RDTC and FDTC. Digital Traffic Channel(DTC) 76)It consists of an eight bit digital voice color code number between 1 and 255 appended with four Coded Digital Verification Color Code 77)Mobile-assisted handoff. MAHO 78)A blank-and burst type of transmission that replaces digitized speech information with control and supervision messages with in a subscribers time slot. Fast Associated Control Channel (FACCH) 79)A special speech coder. Vector sum exciter linear predictive (VSLP) 80)A special microprocessor that is implemented on the telephone handset. Digital Signal Processor (DSP) 81)They are transmitted when a mobile unit begins operating in a larger diameter cell. Shortened Burst 82)An access method used with standard analog AMPS which use frequency channelization approach to frequency spectrum management. FDMA 83)It allows users to differentiate from one another by a unique code rather than a frequency or time assignment. Code Division Multiple Accessing (CDMA)

84)Stands for Qualcom 9600bps Code-Excited Linear Predictive coder. QCELP 85)The concept is to break the message into fixed sized blocks of data with each block transmitted in sequence except on a different carrier. Frequency Hopping 86)high bit pseudorandom code is added to a low-bit rate information signal to generate a high bit rate pseudorandom signal closely resembling noise that contains both the original data signal and the pseudo random code must be known. Direct-Sequence 87) It is a study group which is sometimes referred to as Pan-European cellular system. This is now known as the Global System for Mobile Communications. Classification of GSM telephone services: Bearer Services teleservices supplementary services Three primary subsystem of GSM: Base Station Subsystem Network Switching Subsystem Operational Support Subsystem Groupe Special Mobile (GSM) 88)All-digital data Network. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) 89)Sometimes known as radio subsystem, provides and manages radio frequency transmission paths between mobile units and the mobile switching center (MSC) Base Station Subsystem (BSS) 90)It manages switching functions for the system and allows MSCs to communicate with other telephone networks. Network Switching Subsystem (NSS) 91)The available forward and reverse frequency bands are subdivided into 200 KHz wide voice channels. Absolute Radio-Frequency Channel Numbers (ARFCN) 92)It provides the vehicle for a new generation of wireless telephone services called Personal Communications Satellite System (PCSS)

Mobile Satellite Systems (MSS) 93)It uses low earth-orbit (LEO) and medium earth orbit and MEO thar communicates diretly with small, low-powered mobile telephone units. key providers in PCSS market: American Mobile Satellite Communications (AMSC) Celsat Comsat Constellation Communications (ARIES) Ellipsat (Ellipso) INMARSAT LEOSAT Loral/qualcomm (global star) TMI communications TWR (Odysse) Iridium LLC Personal Communications Satellite System (PCSS) 94)An international consortium owned by a host of prominent companies, agencies and governments. Iridium LC 95)The largest commercial venture undertaken in the history of the world. Iridium Project 96)A satellite based wireless personal communications network designed to permit a wide range of mobile telephone services, including voice, data, networking,facsimile and paging. Iridium 97)FCC issued a report and order Dockett # 92-166 defining L band frequency sharing for subscriber units in the 1616 MHZ to 1626.5 MHz band. October 14, 1994 98)L-band subscriber-to-satellite voice links. 1.616 GHz to 1.6265 GHz 99)Ka-band gateway downlinks. 19.4 GHz to 19.6 GHz 100)Ka-band gateway uplinks 29.1 GHz to 29.3 GHz 101)Ka-intersatellite cross-links 23.18 GHz to 23.38 GHz

TELEVISION

Television (Blake C19)

TRUE/FALSE 1. Video systems form pictures by a scanning process. ANS: T 2. The NTSC system is used in North America. ANS: T 3. The NTSC system is used in Europe. ANS: F 4. The NTSC system is used in Japan. ANS: T 5. The PAL system is no longer used in much of the world. ANS: F 6. The SECAM system is used in Europe. ANS: T 7. In North America, TV uses 60 frames a second. ANS: F 8. NTSC systems use an interlaced scan. ANS: T 9. The standard TV aspect ratio is 5:3. ANS: F

10. The electron beam in a TV CRT is blanked during horizontal retrace. ANS: T 11. The electron beam in a TV CRT is blanked during vertical retrace. ANS: T 12. The standard analog TV signal is called composite video. ANS: T 13. A few commercial TV stations broadcast RGB video. ANS: F 14. Most color monitors for personal computers use RGB video. ANS: T 15. The luminance signal controls the brightness of a scan line. ANS: T 16. The standard synchronization for TV is called positive sync. ANS: F 17. The sync pulses are said to be "blacker than black". ANS: T 18. The negative peak of a video signal occurs during a sync pulse. ANS: T 19. The peak video signal occurs at the blanking level. ANS: F 20. The duration of the vertical blanking pulse identifies which picture field is present. ANS: F 21. Closed-caption signals can be sent during the vertical blanking time.

ANS: T 22. Horizontal and vertical resolution in a TV system are determined in the same way. ANS: F 23. The resolution seen by a viewer depends to a certain extent on the TV receiver. ANS: T 24. Horizontal resolution is equal to the number of visible scan lines. ANS: F 25. Resolution is proportional to bandwidth. ANS: T 26. Because of the way people perceive color, any color can be made with red, green, and blue. ANS: T 27. NTSC color television is not compatible with NTSC monochrome television. ANS: F 28. In an NTSC color TV system, luminance is derived from the RGB signals. ANS: T 29. Horizontal resolution for color in NTSC is much less than it is for luminance. ANS: T 30. NTSC uses a suppressed-carrier system to add color information to the video signal. ANS: T 31. NTSC uses a type of amplitude modulation for the video signal. ANS: T 32. A standard video broadcast channel is about 4.5 MHz wide. ANS: F

33. The audio signal in NTSC video uses FM. ANS: T 34. Color NTSC receivers use a "color-burst" oscillator to create the color signals. ANS: F 35. A standard broadcast video signal reaches zero level twice per frame. ANS: F 36. An analog television receiver uses a type of superheterodyne circuit. ANS: T 37. The accelerating voltage applied to the CRT in a TV receiver is several thousand volts. ANS: T 38. Color TVs use a higher accelerating voltage than do monochrome receivers. ANS: T 39. The CRTs commonly used in TV receivers use electrostatic deflection. ANS: F 40. The "yoke" is part of the deflection circuit. ANS: T 41. Color TV receivers do not have a "raster". ANS: F 42. There is very high voltage at the flyback transformer in a TV receiver. ANS: T 43. Most of the supply voltages in a TV receiver come from the horizontal output transformer. ANS: T 44. A typical color CRT contains three electron guns.

ANS: T 45. A typical monochrome CRT contains a "shadow mask". ANS: F 46. In a color CRT, "purity" means each electron beam hits the correct color phosphor. ANS: T 47. "Aquadag" is a color phosphor. ANS: F 48. "Ultor" is a color phosphor. ANS: F 49. In a CATV system, the main antenna is at the "head end". ANS: T 50. Like a PSTN central office, the typical CATV system is configured as a star network. ANS: F 51. Noninterlaced scanning is called "progressive" scanning. ANS: T 52. HDTV uses the same aspect ratio as standard NTSC. ANS: F 53. An HDTV signal cannot fit into the bandwidth of a standard broadcast TV channel. ANS: F 54. Digital encoding and compression play a significant role in HDTV. ANS: T 55. The FCC has set the phase-out of analog TV broadcasting for the year 2006. ANS: T

56. Color CRTs emit X rays. ANS: T MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. NTSC stands for: a. National Television Systems Commission b. National Television Systems Committee c. National Television Systems Council d. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. FCC c. EIA b. IRE d. IEEE ANS: C 3. RGB stands for: a. Red-Green Burst b. Red-Green Brightness ANS: D 4. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. 525 c. 1024 b. 625 d. 1250 ANS: A 5. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 25 c. 50 b. 30 d. 60 ANS: B 6. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. 25 c. 50 b. 30 d. 60 c. Red-Green Bandwidth d. Red-Green-Blue

ANS: D 7. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. 3 : 4 c. 525 : 625 b. 4 : 3 d. 625 : 525 ANS: B 8. Luminance refers to: a. brightness b. contrast ANS: A 9. Luminance is measured in: a. foot-candles b. lumins ANS: C 10. The maximum luminance level is called: a. max white b. peak white ANS: B 11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. white c. whiter than white b. black d. blacker than black ANS: B 12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. white c. whiter than white b. black d. blacker than black ANS: D c. all white d. whiter than white c. IRE units d. NTSC units c. chroma d. raster

13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. maintain horizontal sync b. maintain vertical sync ANS: A

c. equalize the DC level d. all of the above

14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution: a. is greater than vertical resolution b. is about the same as vertical resolution c. is less than vertical resolution d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. The smallest picture element is called a: a. dot b. pic ANS: C 16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to: a. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component b. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component c. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video color component d. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A 17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is: a. much greater c. much less b. about the same d. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: B c. pixel d. none of the above

19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: D 20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: C 21. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. detect the presence of a color video signal b. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. all of the above ANS: D 22. SAP stands for: a. separate audio program b. separate audio pulse ANS: A 23. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. the isolation transformer c. the flyback transformer b. the video transformer d. the yoke ANS: C 24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. about the same c. much lower b. much higher d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: c. sync amplitude pulse d. sync audio pulse

a. b. c. d.

magnetically for both vertical and horizontal electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal

ANS: A 26. AFPC stands for: a. allowed full picture chroma c. automatic frequency and picture control b. automatic frequency and phase control d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. ANS: Aquadag 2. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953. ANS: NTSC 3. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process. ANS: scanning 4. During the horizontal blanking interval, the electron beam ____________________ from right to left. ANS: retraces 5. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal. ANS: composite 6. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. ANS: aspect 7. Brightness information is called ____________________. ANS:

luma luminance 8. Color information is called ____________________. ANS: chroma chrominance 9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________. ANS: porch 10. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse. ANS: position 11. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds, not including blanking. ANS: 62.5 12. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds. ANS: 10 13. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 1.3 14. Picture elements are called ____________________. ANS: pixels 15. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________. ANS: 525 16. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________. ANS: green 17. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz. ANS: 3.58 18. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program.

ANS: separate 19. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________. ANS: ultor 20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV. ANS: 20 to 30 21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture. ANS: phosphor 22. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer. ANS: flyback 23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter. ANS: comb 24. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal. ANS: killer 25. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________. ANS: dBmV 26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end. ANS: head 27. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. ANS: vectorscope 28. Color intensity is called ____________________. ANS: saturation 29. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.

ANS: phase 30. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots. ANS: purity 31. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. ANS: convergence

THYRISTORS

CHAPTER 11 THYRISTORS
CHAPTER 11 THYRISTORS 1. It is like the four-layer diode but with the added gate connection SCR 2. This is the maximum continuous anode current that the device can withstand in the conduction state under specifies conditions. Average forward current 3. What bilateral thyristor functions basically like two parallel SCRs turned in opposite directions with a common gate terminal? Triac 4. ____________ does not belong to the thyristor family because it does not have a four-layer type of construction. UJT 5. It can be used a trigger device for SCRs and triacs. UJT 6. It is a type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the anode exceeds the voltage at the gate. PUT 7. A region of forward bias in which the device has a very high forward resistance and is in the off

state Forward-blocking region 8. A method for turning-off the SCR that basically requires momentarily forcing current through the SCR in the direction opposite to the forward conduction Forced commutation 9. The value of gate current necessary to switch the SCR from the forward-blocking region to the forward-conduction region under specified conditions. Gate Trigger Current 10. A four-layer semiconductor device that operates essentially as does the conventional SCR except that it can also be light-triggered. LASCR 11. Functions basically like two parallel 4- layer diodes turned in opposite directions. Diac 12. A diac with gate terminal Triac 13. A four-terminal thyristor that has two gate terminals that are used t trigger the device on and off Silicon Controlled Device (SCS) 14. A type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the anode exceeds the voltage at the gate. Programmable Unijunction Transistor (PUT) 15. The characteristic of a UJT that determines its turn-on point Standoff-ratio 16. The four-layer diode is also called Shockley diode 17. The region that corresponds to the on condition of the SCR where there is forward current from anode to cathode through the very low resistance of the SCR Forward_ conduction region 18. The SCR can only be turned on using its _________ terminal Gate 19. Acts as the trigger source in the LASCRs Light 20. A thyristor that conducts when the voltage across its terminals exceeds the breakover potential

4-layer diode 21. Basic methods of for turning off an SCR Anode current interruption and forced commutation

TOMASI

SATELLITE MULTIPLE ACCESSING ARRANGEMENTS (c26)

CHAPTER 26 SATELLITE MULTIPLE ACCESSING ARRANGEMENTS

1) Also called as Multiple Destination, It implies that more than one user has access to one or more radio channels within a satellite communications channel. Multiple Accessing Multiple Accessing Arrangement: Frequency-division multiple accessing (FDMA) Time-division multiple accessing (TDMA) Code-division multiple accessing (CDMA) 2)A given number of the available voice-band channels from each earth station are assigned a dedicated destination. Pre-assignment(dedicated) 3)Voice channels are assigned on an as-needed basis. Demand Assignment 4)The method of assigning adjacent channels different electromagnetic polarizations and is possible by using orthogonal polarization and spacing adjacent channels 20 MHz apart. Frequency Reuse 5)Eskimo word meaning little brother. Anik 6)Domestic Satellites operated by Telsat Canada. Anik-E communications Satellite 7)A method of multiple accessing where a given RF bandwidth is divided into smaller frequency bands.

FDMA 8)Multiple channel per carrier formats assigned and remain fixed for a long Period of time. Fixed-Assignment, Multiple Access (FAMA) 9)Assigning carrier frequency on temporary basis using a statistical assignment process. Demand-Assignment Multiple Access 10)An acronym for Single-channel-per-carrier PCM multiple Access Demandassignment Equipment. SPADE 11)Stands for Single-Carrier-Per-Channel. SCPC 12)A time division-multiplexed transmission that is frequency division multiplexed. Common Signaling Channel (CSC) 13)The predominant Multiple-access method of time-division multiplexing digitally modulated carriers between participating earth stations within a satellite network through a common satellite transponder. TDMA 14)An RF-to-RF repeater that simply receives the earth station transmissions, amplifies them, and then re-transmit them in a downlink beam that is received by all other participating station. Transponder 15)It is where transmissions from all earth stations are synchronized. Reference Burst 16)It is where all receiving stations recover a frequency and phase coherent carrier for PSK demodulation Carrier Recovery Sequence (CRS) 17)An acronym for Conference of European Postal and Telecommunications Administrations, is commonly used TDMA frame format for digital satellite system CEPT 18)Sometimes referred to as Spread-Spectrum Multipleentire allocated bandwidth Access, the transmissions can spread throughout the Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA)

19)A unique binary word that each earth stations transmissions are encoded. Chip Code 20)It compare two signals and recover the original data. Correlator 21)It assigns an individual terrestrial channel (TC) to a particular satellite channel (SC) for the duration of the call. Digital non interpolated Interface 22)It assigns a terrestrial channel to a satellite channel only when speech energy is present on the TC. Digital Speech Interpolated Interface 23)A form of analog channel compression that has been used for sub oceanic cables for many years. Time-Assignment Speech Interpolation (TASI) 24)The art or science of plotting, ascertaining or directing the course of movements, in other words, knowing where you are and being able to find your way around. Navigation 25)It is the most ancient and rudimentary method of navigation and simply continuing to travel about until you reach your destination, assuming of course that you have one. Wandering 26)Earliest effective means of navigation wherein direction and distance are determined from precisely timed sightings of celestial bodies, including the stars and moon. Celestial Navigation 27)Method of navigation by means of fixing a position and direction with respect to familiar, significant landmarks such as railroad tracks, water towers, barns, mountains and bodies of water. Piloting 28)A navigation technique that determines position by extrapolating a series of measured velocity increments. Dead Reckoning 29)The term derived from the word deduced and not necessarily from the fate of the people who used the technique. Dead 30)He used dead reckoning successfully in 1927 during his historic 33-hour transatlantic journey.

Charles Lindbergh 31)She attempted to make the first around-the-world in 1937 using the dead reckoning technique. Amelia Earhart 32)Navigation technique wherein the position is deter-mined by measuring the travel time of an electro magnetic wave as it moves from a transmitter to a receiver. Radio Navigation 33)A radio Navigation system for terrestrial surface broadcast. Decca 34)Radio Navigation system that provide global coverage and terrestrial surface broadcast. Omega 35)Also a terrestrial surface broadcast. LORAN 36)Low-orbit satellite broadcast, provides global coverage. Navy Transit GPS 37)Medium-orbit satellite broadcast also provides global coverage. Navstar GPS 38)Means of radio navigation in which receivers acquire Coded signals from two pairs of high-powered, land based transmitters whose locations are precisely known. LORAN 39)An acronym for Navigation System with Time and Ranging. Navstar 40)An abbreviation for Global Positioning System. GPS Two levels of service or accuracy: Standard Positioning Service Precise Positioning Service 41)A satellite-based open navigation system which simply means that it is available to anyone equipped with a GPS receiver. Navstar GPS Consists of three segments: a space segment a ground control segment user segment

42)It is when was the Navstar declared as fully operational by the U.S. Air Force Space Command. April 27, 1995 43)It was completed in 1994 and is maintained by the United States Air Force. Navstar Satellite System 44)A positioning and timing service that is available to all GPS users on a continuous, worldwide basis with no direct change. Standard Positioning Service 45)Sometimes called Space Segment, consists of 24operational satellites revolving around Earth in six orbital planes approximately 60 apart with four satellites in each plane. Satellite Segment 46)It produces highly accurate timing signals for satellites. Cesium Atomic Clock 47)A unique integer number that is used to encrypt the signal from that satellite. Pseudorandom Noise (PRN) Code Number 48) A term associated with a table showing the position of a heavenly body on a number dates in a regular sequence, in essence, an astronomical almanac. Ephemeris 49)Error in the receivers clock which affects the accuracy of the time-difference measurement. Clock Bias Error 50)The Navstar control segment. It consists of : Fixed-location ground based monitor stations Master Control Station uplink transmitter Operational Control System 51)It makes standard GPS more accurate. It works by canceling out most of the natural and man-made errors that creep into normal GPS measurements. Differential GPS 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Satellite, Tomasi

SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS (c25 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 25 SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS

1)A celestial body that orbits around a planet. Satellite 2)Man-made satellites that orbit earth, providing a multitude of communication functions to a wide variety of consumers, including military, governmental, private and commercial subscriber. Communications Satellites 3)A satellite radio repeater which a satellite may have many. Transponder Consists of : input Bandlimiting device (BPF) input low-noise amplifier (LNA) frequency translator low level amplifier output bandpass filter 4)It consists of one or more satellite space vehicles, a ground-based station to control the operation of the system, and a user network of earth stations that provides the interface facilities for the transmission and reception of terrestrial communications traffic through the satellite system. Satellite System 5)It includes control mechanism that support the payload operation. Bus 6)The actual user information conveyed through the system. Payload 7)A type of satellite wherein it simply bounces signals from one place to another. Passive Reflector 8)A natural satellite of Earth, visible by reflection of sunlight having a slightly elliptical orbit. Moon 9)Used by passive satellites for tracking and ranging purposes. Radio Beacon Transmitters 10)Launched by Russia, the first active earth satellite in 1957. It transmitted telemetry for 21 days. Sputnik I 11)A type of satellite capable of receiving, amplifying, reshaping, regenerating and retransmitting information. Active Satellite 12)Satellite launched by U.S., it transmitted telemetry information for nearly five months. Explorer I

13)Satellite launched by NASA in 1958, a 150-pound conical-shaped satellite. It was the first artificial satellite used for relaying terrestrial communications. Score 14)The first active satellite to simultaneously receive and transmit radio signals. Telstar I 15)Launched in 1963, and was used for telephone television, facsimile and data transmission and accomplished the first successful transatlantic video transmission. Telstar II 16)Launched in February 1963, was the first attempt to place a geosynchronous satellite into orbit. Syncom I 17)It was the first commercial telecommunications satellite. It launched from Cape Kennedy in 1965 and used two transponders. Also called as Early Birds.It stands for International Telecommunications Sate-llite. Intelsat I 18)Domestic satellite launched by former Soviet Union in 1966. It means lighting. Molya 19)A German astronomer who discovered the laws thatgoverns satellite motion. Johannes Kepler 20)It may be simply stated as: The planets move in ellipses with the sun at one focus The line joining the sun and the planet sweeps out equal intervals of time. The square of the time of revolution of a planet divided by the cube of its mean distance from the sun gives a number that is the same for all planets. Keplers Law 21)The point in an orbit closest to earth Perigee 22)The point in an orbit farthest from the earth. Apogee 23)It states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is proportional to the cube of the mean distance between the primary and the satellite. Harmonic Law 24)High-altitude earth-orbit satellites operating primarily in the 2-GHz to 18 GHz frequency spectrum with orbits Satellite 22,300 miles above earths surface. Geosynchronous Satellite Advantages of Geosynchronous Satellite: It remain almost stationary in respect to a given earth station. Available to earth within their shadows 100% of the time. No need to switch from one geosynchronous satellite to another as they orbit overhead The effects of Doppler shift are negligible Disadvantages of geosynchronous Satellite: It requires sophisticated and heavy propulsion device onboard to keep them in a fixed orbit Much longer propagation delays

Requires higher transmit power and more sensitive receivers because of the longer distances and greater path loss. High precision spacemanship is required. 25)The angle between the earths equatorial plane and the orbital plane of a satellite measured counter clockwise at the point in the orbit where it crosses the equatorial plane traveling from south to north called the ascending node. Angle of Inclination 26)The point where the polar or inclines orbit crosses the equatorial plane travelling from north to south Descending Node 27)The line joining the ascending and descending node Line of Nodes 28)It is when the satellite rotates in an orbit directl above the equator, usually in a circular path. Equatorial Orbit 29)It is when the satellite rotates in path that takes over the North and the South poles in an orbit that is close to earth and passes over and very close to both the North and South Poles. Polar Orbit 30)The noise power normalized to a 1 Hz bandwidth, or the noise power present in a 1Hz bandwidth Noise Density 31)It identifies the system parameters and is used to determine the projected carrier-tonoise ratio and energy Bit-to-noise density ratio at both the satellite and earth station receivers for a given modulation scheme. Link Budget 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Satellite, Tomasi

MICROWAVE RADIO COMMUNICATIONS AND SYSTEM GAIN (c22 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 24 MICROWAVE RADIO COMMUNICATIONS AND SYSTEM GAIN

1)Electromagnetic waves with frequencies that range from approximately 500 MHz to 300 GHz or more. Microwaves 2)The wavelengths for microwave frequencies, which is than infrared energy. 1 cm and 60 cm slightly longer

3)The name given to microwave signals, because of their inherently high frequencies, have short wavelengths. Microwave waves 4)Each frequency is divided in half with the lower half identified as the low band and the upper half as narrow band. Full-Duplex (Two-way) 5)Communications system used to carry information for relatively short distances such as between cities with the same state. Short Haul 6)Microwave systems that is used to carry information for relatively long distances, such as interstate and backbone route applications. Long Haul 7)It propagate signals through Earths atmosphere between transmitters and receivers often located on top of tower spaced about 15 miles to 30 miles apart. Microwave Radios Advantages of Microwave Radio: Radio systems do not require a right-of way acquisition between stations. Each station requires the purchase or lease ofonly a small area of land. Because of their high operating frequencies, microwave radio systems can carry large quantities of information. High frequencies mean short wavelengths, which require relatively small antennas. Radio signals are more easily propagated around physical obstacles such as water and high mountains Fewer repeaters are necessary for amplification. Distances between switching centers are less. Underground facilities are minimized. Minimum delays are introduced. Minimal crosstalk exists between voice channels. Increased reliability and less maintenance are important factors. Disadvantages of Microwave Radio: It is more difficult to analyze and design circuits at microwave frequencies. Measuring techniques are more difficult to perfect and implement at microwave frequencies. It is difficult to implement conventional circuit components at microwave frequencies. Transient time is more critical at microwave frequencies. It is often necessary to use specialized components for microwave frequencies. Microwave frequencies propagate in a straight line, which limits their use to line-ofsight applications. 8)Propagates signals outside the Earths atmosphere and are capable of carrying signals much farther while utilizing fewer transmitters and receivers. Satellite Systems 9)It is used in microwave radio systems rather than amplitude modulation because AM signals are more sensitive to amplitude nonlinearities inherent in wide-band microwave amplifiers. Frequency Modulation

10)Major factor when designing FM Radio systems. It is caused by repeater amplitude nonlinearity in AM, while in FM, it is caused by transmission gain and delay distortion. Intermodulation Noise 11)The composite signal that modulates the FM carrier and may comprise one or more of the following: Frequency-division multiplexed voice-band channels Time-division-multiplexed voice-band channels Broadcast-quality composite video or picture phone Wideband data Baseband 12)It provides an artificial boost in amplitude to the higher baseband frequencies. Preemphasis Network 13)Frequency modulation index used in the FM deviator. Typically, modulation indices are kept between 0.5 and 1. Low-Index 14)FM signal that is produces at the output of the deviator with a low-index frequency modulation. Narrowband FM 15)A receiver and a transmitter placed back to back or in tandem with the system. Microwave Repeaters 16)It receives a signal, amplifies and reshapes it, and then retransmit the signal to the next repeater or terminal station down line from it. Repeater Station Types of Microwave repeaters: IF Baseband RF 17)The received RF carrier is down-converted to an IF frequency, amplified, reshaped, up-converted to an RF frequency, and then retransmitted. IF Repeater 18)Generally less than 9 MHz. Baseband Frequencies 19)The range id 60 MHz to 80MHz. IF frequencies 20)Another name for a Local oscillator, is considerably lower in frequency than either the received or the transmitted radio frequencies. Shift Oscillator 21)Transmission used by microwave systems wherein a direct signal path must exist between the transmit receive antennas. Line-of Site Transmission 22)A temporary reduction in signal strength which last in milliseconds for several hours or even days. Radio Fade

23)It suggests that there is more than one transmission path or method of transmission available a transmitter and a receiver. Diversity 24)It is simply modulating two different RF carrier frequencies with the same IF intelligence, then transmitting both RF signals to a given destination. Frequency Diversity 25)The output of a transmitter is fed to two or more antennas that are physically separated by an appreciable number of wavelengths. Space Diversity 26)A single RF carrier is propagated with two different electromagnetic polarizations. It is generally used in conjunction with space diversity. Polarization Diversity 27)It is more than one receiver for a single radio-frequency channel. With frequency diversity, it is necessary to also use receiver diversity because each transmitted frequency requires its own receiver Receiver Diversity 28)Another form of Hybrid diversity and undoubtly provides the most reliable transmission but most expensive. It combines frequency, space, polarization and receiver diversity into one system. Quad Diversity 29)A specialized form of diversity that consist of a standard frequency diversity path where the two transmitter/ receiver pairs at one end of the path are separated from each other and connected to different antennas that are vertically separated as in space diversity. Hybrid Diversity 29)Alternate facilities temporarily made to avoid a service interruption during periods of deep fades or equipment failures. Protection Switching Arrangement types of protection switching arrangements: hotstandby diversity 30)Each working radio channel has a dedicated backup or spare channel. Hot Standby Protection 31)A single backup channel is made available to as many as 11 working channels. Diversity Protection 32)In hotstandby protection, it splits the signal power and directs it to the working and the spare (standby)microwave channels simultaneously. Head-End Bridge 33)It has two working channels, one spare channel, and an auxiliary channel. Diversity Protection 34)A low-capacity low-power microwave radio that is designed to be used for a maintenance channel only. Auxilliary Channel

35)It is where the number of repeater stations between protection switches depends. Reliability Objectives of the Systems 36)Points in the system where baseband signals either originate or terminate. Terminal Stations four major sections: baseband wireline entrance link (WLEL) FM-IF RF sections 37)Points in a system where baseband signals may be reconfigured or where RF carriers are simply repeated or amplified. Repeater Stations 38)Stands for WireLine Entrance Link, it serves as the interface between the multiplex terminal equipment and the FM_IF equipment. WLEL 39)A balanced modulator that, when used in conjunction with a microwave generator, power amplifier, and band-pass filter, up-converts the IF carrier to an RF carrier and amplifies the RF to the desired output power. Transmod 40)It must be capable of amplifying very high frequencies and passing very wide bandwidth signals for microwave radios. Power Amplifiers devices used in microwave amplifiers: Klystron Tubes Traveling-wave tubes (TWTs) IMPATT (Impact avalanche and transit time) 41)It provides the RF carrier input to the up-converter. It is called as microwave generator rather than an oscillator because it is difficult to construct a stable circuit that will oscillate in the gigahertz range. Microwave Generator 42)It operates in the range 5 MHz to 25 MHz, used to provide a base frequency that is multiplied up to the desired RF carrier frequency. Crystal-controlled Oscillator 43)A unidirectional device often made from ferrite material. It used in conjunction with a channel-combining network to prevent the output of one transmitter from interfering with the output of another transmitter. Isolator 44)Stands for Automatic Gain Control, is a circuit in an IF amplifier. AGC 45)It occurs only when three stations are placed in a geographical straight line in the system. Multi-hop Interference

46)It prevents the power that leaks out the back and sides of a transmit antenna from interfering with the signal entering the input of a nearby receive antenna. High/Low-Frequency Scheme 47)The signal entering the input of a nearby receive antenna. Ring around 48)It means that this channels are propagated with vertical polarization. V Channels 49)The line-of-sight directly between the transmit and receive antenna. Also called as the Direct Wave. Free-Space Path 50)It consists of the electric and magnetic fields associated with the currents induced in earths surface. Surface Wave 51)The portion of the transmit signal that is reflected off Earths surface and captured by the receive antenna. Ground-Reflected Wave 52)The portion of the transmit signal that is returned back to Earths surface by the ionized layers of earths atmosphere. Sky Wave 53)The loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a straight line through a vacuum with no absorption or reflection of energy from nearby objects. Free-Space Path Loss 54)A phenomenon wherein electromagnetic energy is spread out as it propagates away from the source resulting in lower relative power densities. Spreading Loss 55)The reduction in signal strength at the input to a receiver. Fading 56)The difference between the nominal output power of a transmitter and the minimum input power to a receiver necessary to achieve satisfactory performance. System Gain 57)Sometimes called as Link Margin, is essentially a fudge Factor included in system gain equations that considers the non ideal and less predictable characteristics of radio wave propagation and terrain sensitivity. Fade Margin 58)He described ways of calculating outage time due to fading on a non diversity path as a function of terrain, climate, path length, and fade margin, in April 1969. W.T. Barnett 59)From Bell Laboratories, he derived formulas for calculating the effective improvement achievable by vertical space diversity as a function of the spacing distance, path length, and frequency in June 1970. Arvids Vignant 60)The ratio of the wideband carrier to the wideband noise power. Carrier-to-Noise Ratio (C/N) 61)Also called Receiver Sensitivity, is the minimum wide band carrier power at the input to a receiver that will

provide a usable baseband output. Receiver Threshold 62)The carrier-to-noise ratio before the FM demodulator. Pre-detection Signal to-Noise Ratio 63)The carrier-to-noise ratio after the FM demodulator. Postdetection Signal-to-Noise Ratio 64)A ratio of input signal-to-noise ratio to output signal to noise ratio. Noise Factor (F) 65)The noise factor stated in dB and is a parameter commonly used to indicate the quality of a receiver. Noise Figure 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Microwave, Tomasi

Tuesday, September 6, 2011

DATA-LINK PROTOCOLS AND DATA COMMUNICATIONS NETWORKS (c23 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 23
DATA-LINK PROTOCOLS AND DATA COMMUNICATIONS NETWORKS
1)The primary goal of __________ is to give users of a network the tools necessary for setting up the network and performing data flow control. Network Architecture 2)A set of rules implementing and governing an orderly exchange of data between two layer devices. Data-Link Protocol 3)The transmitting station in a data link protocol. Master Station 4)The receiving station in a data link protocol. Slave Station 5)Data link network wherein all stations have equal access to the network. Peer-to Peer Network 6)Discipline, Flow Control and Error Control. Functions of Data-link Protocol

7)Coordinates hop-to-hop data delivery where a hop may be a computer, a network controller, or some type of network-connecting device Line Discipline 8)Determines which device is transmitting and which is receiving at any point in time. Line Discipline 9)Coordinates the rate which data are transported over a link and generally provides an acknowledgement mechanism. Flow Control 10)Specifies means of detecting and correcting transmission errors. Error Control 11)Two fundamental ways that line discipline is accomplished in a data communications network. Enquiry/Acknowledgement(ENQ/ACK) and Poll/Select 12)It determines which device on the network can initiate a transmission and whether the intended receiver is available and ready to receive a message. ENQ/ACK 13)The initiating station begins a session by transmitting a frame, block, or packet of data called _________, which identifies the receiving station. Enquiry(ENQ) 14)The response of the destination station when it is ready to receive. Positive Acknowledgement (ACK) 15)The response of the destination station when it is not ready to receive. Negative Acknowledgement (NAK) 16)The best application of the poll/select line discipline. Centrally Controlled Data Network 17)A solicitation sent from the primary to a secondary to determine if the secondary has data to transmit Poll 21)A set of procedures that tells the transmitting station how much data it can send before it must stop transmitting and wait for an acknowledgment from the destination station Flow Control

22)The transmitting station sends one message frame and then waits for an acknowledgement before sending the next message frame. Stop-and Wait Flow Control 23)A source station can transmit several frames in succession before receiving an acknowledgement. Sliding Window Flow Control 24)It refers to imaginary receptacles at the source and destination stations with the capacity of holding several frames of data. Sliding Window 25)Primary advantage of sliding window control. Network Utilization 26)Primary disadvantages of sliding window flow control. Complexity and Hardware Capacity 27)Interpret a frame of data as a group of successive bits combined into predefined patterns of fixed length, usually eight bits each. Character Oriented Protocols 28)Another name for character oriented protocols. Byte-oriented Protocols 29)A discipline for serial by bit information transfer over a data communications channel. Bit Oriented Protocol 30)A character-oriented protocols generally used on two point networks using asynchronous data and asynchronous modems. Asynchronous Data link Protocols 31)Developed the first file transfer protocol designed to facilitate transferring data between two personal computers in 1979. Ward Christiansen 32)Cristiansen's protocol which is relatively simple data link protocol intended for low-speed applications. XMODEM 33)Remote stations can have more than one PC or printer. Synchronous Data-Link Protocols 34)A group of computers, printers, and other digital devices. Cluster

35)A synchronous character-oriented data link protocol developed by IBM. Binary Synchronous Communications (BSC) 36)Another name for BSC. Bisync 37)Another name for enquiry (ENQ) character. Format or line turn around 38)The __________ uses longitudinal redundancy checking (LRC) with ASCIIcoded messages and cyclic redundancy checking. Block Check Character (BCC) 39)A synchronous bit oriented protocol developed in the 1970's by IBM for use in system network architecture environment. Synchronous Data-Link Control (SDLC) 40)Three transmission states. Transient, Idle and Active 41)Flag Fields, Address Field, Control Field, Information and Frame Check Sequence Field are __________. SDLC Frame Fields 42)It is used for the delimiting sequence for the frame and to achieve frame and character synchronization. Flags 43)It is used for polling, confirming previously received frames, and several other data link management functions Control Field 44)Three frame formats with SDLC. Information, Supervisory and Unnumbered 45)A command or a response that is used to send unnumbered information. Unnumbered Information (UI) 46)A command that places a secondary station into the initialization mode. Set Initialization Mode 47)A response sent by a secondary station to request the primary to send a SIM command. Request Initialization Mode (RIM)

48)A command that places a secondary into the normal response mode. Set Normal Response Mode (SNRM) 49)A response transmitted from a secondary station if the primary attempts to send numbered information frames to it when the secondary is in the normal disconnect mode. Disconnect Mode (DM) 50)A response sent by a secondary when it wants the primary to place it in the disconnect mode. Request Disconnect (RD) 52)An affirmative response that indicates compliance to SIM, SNRM or DISC commands Unnumbered Acknowledgement 53)An exchange of frames between the primary station and a secondary station. TEST 54)A flag followed by eight consecutive logic 0's. Turnaround Sequence 55)A SDLC subcommand causes all previously set functions to be cleared by the secondary. Clear 56)A SLDC subcommand causes the secondary receiving it to turn on or turn off its carrier. Beacon Test 57)A SDLC command causes the addressed secondary station to pace itself into the monitor mode. Monitor Mode 58)A SDLC command causes a secondary station to loop its transmission directly to its receiver input. Wrap 59)A SDLC command causes the addressed secondary to initiate a series of internal diagnostic tests. Self-Test 60)The transparency mechanism used with SDLC. Zero Bit Insertion or Zero Stuffing

61)It is used prematurely terminate an SDLC frame. Message Abort 62)The encoding scheme used in SDLC. Invert-On-Zero Coding 63)Standard that defines the frame structure, delimiting sequence, transparency mechanism and error detection method used with HDLC. ISO 3309 64)Operational Mode of SDLC. Normal Response Mode (NRM) 65)A mode of operation logically equivalent to a two point private line circuit where each station has equal data link responsibilities. Asynchronous Balanced Mode 66)A switched data communications network similar to the public telephone network except a PDN is designed for transferring data only. Public Switched Data Network (PDN) 67)It is used when making a standard telephone call on the public telephone network. Circuit Switching 68)Is a form of store and forward network. Message Switching 69)Another name for packet switching. Hold and Forward Network 70)A user interface as the international standard for packet network access. X.25 71)SA logically equivalent to a two point dedicated private line circuit except slower. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC) 72)A logically equivalent to making a telephone call through the DDD network except no direct end to end connection is made. Virtual Call 73)Identifies whether the packet is a new call request or a previously established call. Format Identifier

74)A 12 bit binary number that identifies the source and destination users for a given virtual call. Logical Channel Identifier 75)This four bit gives the number of digits that appear in the calling address filed. Calling Address Field 76)This field is the same as the calling address field except that it identifies the number of digits that appear in the called address field Called Address Length 77)This field contains the destination address. Called Address 78)This field is the same as the called address field except that it contains up to 15 BCD. Calling Address 79)This field identifies the number of eight bit octets present in the facilities field. Facilities Length Field 80)This 32 bit field is reserved for the subscriber to insert user level protocol. Protocol Identifier 81)A proposed network designed by the major telephone companies in conjunction with the ITU-T. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) 82)Customers gain access to the ISDN system through a local interface connected to a digital transmission medium. Digital Pipe 83)ISDN objectives that ensure universal access to the network. System Standardization 84)Said objectives that allow customers to use a variety of protocols and applications Achieving Transparency 85)ISDN should not provide services that preclude competitiveness Separating Functions 86)Provide private-line and switched services refers what objectives of ISDN. Variety of Configurations

87)ISDN services should not be directly related to cost and independent of the nature of the data. Addressing Cost-Related Tariffs 88)Provide a smooth transition while evolving. Migration 89)Provide service to low capacity personal subscribers as well as to large companies. Multiplexed Support 90)Translation between non-ISDN data protocol and ISDN is performed in this device. Terminal Adapter 91)A boundary to the network and may be controlled by the ISDN provider. Network Termination 1 92)Refers to interfaces between the common carrier subscriber loop and the central office switch U-Reference Point 93)The media interface point between an NT1 and the central office. U Loop 94)It is defined by ITU-T as a service that provides transmission channels capable of supporting transmission rates greater than the primary data rate. Broadband ISDN 95)Information transfer is primarily from service provider to subscriber Distribution Services 96)Codes the data information into smaller packets used by the BISDN network Broadband Node 97)A connection between a source and a destination, which may entail several ATM links. Virtual Channel 98)Once data have entered the ATM network, they transferred into fixed time slots called ________. Cells

99)Controls the flow of traffic across the user network interface (UNI) and into the network. Generic Flow Control Field (GFC) 100)The first three bits of the second half of byte 4 specify the type of message in cell. Payload Type Identifier 101)Information fields that are designed to accommodate PCM-TDM traffic, which allows the ATM network to emulate voice or DSN services. Constant Bit Rate 102)A portion of a public service provider's switching system where the service provider could be a local telephone company or a long-distance carrier. Public ATM Switches 103)Provides the most effective and economical means of handling local data communications field. Local Area Networks (LAN) 104)A communications system that allows users to send messages to each other through their computers. E-Mails 105)LAN Topologies. Star, Bus and Ring Topology 106)It describes how users access the communications channel in a LAN. Network Access Methodologies 107)Access method used primarily in bus topology. CDMA/CD 108)It two stations transmit at the same time, ________ occurs. Collision 109)The time it takes a signal to travel from a source to a destination. Propagation Delay 110)A base band transmission system designed in 1972 by Robert Metcalfe and David Boggs. Ethernet 111)Its purpose is to establish clock synchronization. Preamble

112)It is simply a series of two logic 1's appended to the end of the preamble. Start Frame Delimiter 113)Consists of six bytes the corresponds to the address of the station sending the frame. Source Address
TRANSISTOR

CHAPTER 8 FIELD EFFECT TRANSISTORS

CHAPTER 8 FIELD EFFECT TRANSISTORS 1. FETs are preferred device in low-voltage switching applications; while______ transistor is generally used in high-voltage switching applications. IGBT 2. What type of JFET operates with a reverse-biased pn junction to control current in the channel? JFET 3. An n-channel universal transfer characteristic curve is also known as Transconductance curve 4. The change in drain current for a given change in gate-to-source voltage with the drain-to-source voltage constant Forward transconductance 5. What is the most common type of JFET bias? Self-bias 6. It is a method for increasing the Q-point stability of a self-biased JFET by making the drain current essentially independent of gate-to-source voltage Current-source bias 7. What JFET bias uses a BJT as a constant-current source? Current-source bias 8. For increased Q-point stability, the value of RS in the self-bias circuit is increased and connected to a negative supply voltage. This sometimes called Dual-supply bias 9. VGS varies quite a bit for JFET self-bias and voltage-divider bias but ID is much more stable with Voltage-divider bias

10. ____________ is sometimes called depletion/enhancement MOSFET. D-MOSFET 11. LDMOSFET has a lateral channel structure and is a type of Enhancement MOSFET 12. It is an example of the conventional E-MOSFET designed to achieve higher power capability VMOSFET 13. Following are the three ways to bias a MOSFET except Current-source bias 14. The insulated-gate bipolar transistor combines which two transistors that make it useful in high-voltage and high-current switching applications? BJT and MOSFET 15. What are the three terminals of IGBT? Gate, collector, emitter 16. In terms of switching speed, __________ switch fastest and _____________ switch slowest. MOSFETs, BJTs 17. In a MOSFET, the process of removing or depleting the channel of charge carriers and thus decreasing the channel conductivity Depletion 18. The ratio of change in drain current to a change in gate-to source voltage in a FET Transconductance 19. A FET is called a ______________ because of the relationship of the drain current to the square of a term containing gate-to-source voltage Square-law device 20. Combines features from both the MOSFET and the BJT that make it useful in high-voltage and high-current switching applications. IGBT 21. Has a lateral channel structure and is a type of enhancement MOSFET designed for power applications. LDMOSFET 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Electronics, Notes, Transistor CHAPTER 5 TRANSISTOR BIAS CIRCUITS 1. What biasing method is common in switching circuits?

Base bias 2. A Base bias in linear region shows that it is Directly dependent on dc beta 3. In an emitter-feedback bias, if the collector current increases, the emitter voltage Increases 4. What happens to the base voltage in no. 10? Increases 5. In an emitter-feedback, the increase in base voltage _________ the base current. Reduces 6. For collector-feedback bias, what provides the bias for the base-emitter junction? Collector voltage 7. As temperature goes up in a collector-feedback circuit, DC and VBE goes _______ and __________, respectively. Up and down 8. Collector-feedback bias provides good stability using negative feedback from Collector to base 9. Innovations in technology would allow a doubling of the number of transistors in a given space every year and that the speed of those transistors would increase. This prediction is widely known as Moores law 10. If an amplifier is not biased with correct dc voltages on the input and output, it can go ___________ when an input signal is applied. Saturation or cutoff 11. Given a voltage-divider biased BJT, determine IC given VCC, R1, R2, RC, and RE which are 10V, 10kohms, 4.7kohms, 1kohm, and 470ohms respectively. Use DC= 100. 5.31mA 12. What is the value of VCE in no.20? 2.19 V 13. If an emitter resistor is added to a base bias circuit, what is the value of the emitter current given VCC, RE, RC, and RB as 10V, 1k, 470, and 180k, respectively. Use DC=100. 3.32mA 14. Calculate for VCE in no. 22 5.12 V

15. If the dc beta in the preceding drops half of its original value, find the percent change in IC. 39.16% 16. What is the percent change in VCE? 27.17% 17. The region along the load line including all points between saturation and cutoff Linear region 18. A voltage divider for which loading effects can be neglected Stiff voltage divider 19. The base bias circuit arrangement has poor stability because its Q-point varies widely with Dc beta 20. The purpose of biasing a circuit is to establish a proper stable ________. Q-point 21. The process of returning a portion of a circuits output back to the input in such a way as to oppose or aid a change in the output Feedback 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Electronics, Notes, Transistor

Saturday, September 10, 2011

CHAPTER 4 BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTORS
CHAPTER 4 BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTORS 1. Which is the least of the three transistor currents? Base 2. The ratio of the dc collector current to the dc base current of the transistor is, dc beta/dc current gain 3. the ratio of the dc collector current to the dc emitter current dc alpha 4. Determine the base current given dc beta=100 , dc alpha=0.85, and IC= 3.70mA 0.037mA

5. Nonconducting state of a transistor Cutoff 6. State of a BJT in which the collector current has reached maximum and is dependent of the base current Saturation 7. Neither the base-emitter nor the base-collector junctions are forward-biased cutoff 8. dc beta varies with collector current and temperature 9. hFE varies with which transistor current/s? Collector only 10. Converts light energy to electrical signal Phototransistor 11. Devices used to electrically isolate circuits Optocouplers 12. A key parameter in optocouplers is the CTR. CTR stands for Current transfer ratio 13. Indication of how efficiently a signal is coupled from input to output CTR 14. RF transistors are designed to operate at EHF 15. What transistor category/ies uses plastic or metal packages? General-purpose transistors 16. To operate as an amplifier, BE junction must be forward-biased and the BC junction must be reverse-biased. This is called Forward-reverse bias 17. In a phototransistor, what transistor current/s is produced and controlled by light? Base 18. Two basic package types Through-hole and surface mount 19. The process of increasing the power, voltage, or current by electronic means. Amplification

TRANSMISSION LINES

TRANSMISSION FUNDAMENTALS (C1 Past Board :excel:)

CHAPTER 1 TRANSMISSION FUNDAMENTALS (Past Board :excel:) ECE Board Exam April 2001 An SWR reading which has a short circuit termination. Infinity ECE Board Exam November 2000 In an open wire transmission line, what is the normal separation between its two (2) conductors? 2 to 6 cm ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following term is used to describe the attenuation and phase shift per unit length of a transmission line? Propagation constant ECE Board Exam November 1999 An indication in radio communication when the voltage standing wave ratio is equal to zero. No input power ECE Board Exam April 1999 Refers to a connector that normally connects RG-213 coaxial. cable to an HF transceiver. PL-259 ECE Board Exam November 1998 Width of frequency band just enough to ensure the transmission of information at a required rate and quality required, and under a specified condition and class of emission. Necessary bandwidth ECE Board Exam. April 1998 Best describe a dip meter. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current ECE Board Exam. April 1997 The standard test tone. 0 dBm ECE Board April 1997 If voltage change is equal to twice its original value,. what is it corresponding change In dB? 6 dB

ECE Board Exam November 1996 Energy that has neither been-radiated into space,nor completely transmitted. Standing waves ECE Board Exam April 1997 To a couple a coaxial line, it is better to use a________ Balun ECE Board Exam November 2000 What is the main reason,why coaxial cable is not used in microwe signal transmission? High attenuation ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is impedance of a balance 4-wire with a diameter of 0.25 spaced 2.5 cm apart using an insulator with a dielectric constant of 2.56? 100 ohms

ECE Board April 2000 In wire communications, non-resonat transmission lines are referred to as __________ Flat lines ECE Board Exam November 1999 An electronic equipment used in radio communications to measure standing wave ratio. Reflectometer ECE Board Exam April 1999 How does a shorted half-wave line act at a certain operating frequency? Series resonant circuit ECE Board Exam November 1998 Best choice of transmission line component to couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line. Balun ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred to the dielectric constant of a transmission line material. Velocity factor ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the characteristic impedance of a single wire with a diameter d=0.25 mm placed at the center between grounded parallel planes separated by 1 mm apart? The wire is held by a material with a velocity factor of 0.75? 75 ohms

ECE Board Exam March 1996 The power of standard test tone is normally ______ 1mW ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which tester is used to measure SWR? Reflectometer ECE Board Exam March 1996 The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its________ Length ECE Board Exam April 2000 What is the input impedance equivalent of an open ended transmission line which is longer than a quarter wavelength? As pure inductor ECE Board Exam November 1999 In the study of transmission cable, twin lead. is also referred to as a_________ ribbon cable ECE Board Exam April 1999 The greater the diameter of a wire, the _________ is the resistance. Lesser ECE Board Exam November 1998 What determines the velocity factor in transmission line? Dielectrics in the line

ECE Board Exam April 1998 Technical study which deals with production, transport and delivery of a quality signal from source to destination Transmission System Engineering ECE Board Exam April 1997 If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each how many such amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB? 3 amplifiers

ECE Board Exam March 1996 What :is the reference tone level for dBm? -90dBm ECB Board Exam April 2060 What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum? Velocity factor ECE Board Exam November 1999 Referred to as a cause of crosstalk. Electrical coupling between transmission media ECE Board Exam November 1998 What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line? The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of the light in a vacuum ECE Board Exam April 1998 It is used to connect computers in the same building or in same area. LAN ECE Board Exam April 1997 What do you call the energy that was not radiated into space or completely transmitted? Standing waves

ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the applied power if a thermal RF wattmeter is connected to a transmitter through variable attenuator? The wattmeter reads 84 mW when 15 dB of attenuation is used. 2.656 Watts

ECE Board Eaagl.March 1996 If the terminating impedance is exactly equal to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line the return loss is ______ infinite ECE Board Exam April 1997 A singie.q nductor running from the transmitter to the antenna. Single line wire ECE Board Exam November 1996 Ina transmission line if the maximum current to minimum current ratio is 2:1. what is the ratio of the maximum voltage to minimum voltage? 2.1 ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the main purpose of a communications system? To provide an acceptable replica of the information at the destination ECE Board Exam April 1997 __________ sets the limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a gin noise level. Shannon-Hartley theorem ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which stands for dB relative level? dBr ECE Board Exam March 1996 To connect coaxial line to a parallel-wire, _______ is the best to use Balun ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following determines the characteristics of a transmission line? Physical dimensions

ECE Board Exam.April 1998 Which of the fotlowing is an impedance matching ratio of coax balun? 4:1 ECE Board Exam November 1997 An electronic equipment used to measure standing wave ratio. Reflectometer ECE Board Exam April 1997 What frequency does oxygen cause excessive attenuation? 60 GHz ECE Board Exam November 1996 The standing wave ratio is equal to _________ if the load is properly matched with the transmission line. 1 ECE Board Exam March 1996 Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured at the ____ when its length is infinite. Input ECE Board Exam March 1996 What.quarterwave transformer will match a 100 ohms line to an antenna whose value is 175 ohms? 132.29 ohms

ECE Boardd Exam March 1996 When a transmission line uses ground return, it is called a/an __________ line. Unbalanced ECE Board Exam November 1996 Transmission lines when connected to antenna have resistive load atthe resonant frequency ECE Board Exam March 1996 Termination means load connected to the output end of a transmission line

ECE Board Exam March 1996 Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced will respect to ground ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohms flexible coaxial cable such as RG 8, 11, 58, and 59? 0.66 Board Exam November 1997 Propagation mode of microwave in a waveguide is known as _____ TE Board Exam November 1998 A transmission line consisting of two conductors that have equal resistance per unit length. Balanced line ECE Board Exam November 1966 What is the equivalent output of a circuit in dBm, if it has an output of 10 Watts? 40 dBm

ECE Board Exam March 1996 Power is always ___________ a definite amount of energy the rate at which energy is used expressed in watts ECE Board Exam November 1998 Which of the following is not a common transmission line impedance? A. 50 ohms B. 120 ohms C. 75 ohms D. 650 ohms ECE Board Exam November 1997 The Width of the frequency band which is just sufficient to ensure the transmission of information of information at the rate and with the quality required under a specified condition and class of emission. Necessary bandwidth

ECE Board Exam November 1996 Transmission line must be matched to the load to transfer maximum power to the load ECE Board Exam November 1996 When electromagnetic waves are propagated through a waveguide, they are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them ECE Board Exam November 1997 Coaxial lines are used on those system operating Below 2 GHz ECE Board Exaru.November 1996 You are measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads 73 dBm (pure test tone) convert the reading into dBrnCO. 21 dBrnCO

ECE Board Exam November 1996 1 micron is equal to ___________ meter(s) 10^-6 ECE Board Exam November 1998 Best reason for pressurizing waveguides with dry air. To reduce the possibility of internal arcing ECE Board Exam November 1997 The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission line is always.grounded at the input and output ECE Board Exam November 1996 You are measuring noise in a voice channel at 7 dB test point level. The meter reads -56 dBm (FIA weighted). What is the reading in dBrnC? 34 dBrnC

ECE Board Exam November 1998 What do you call the phenomenon in digital circuits that describe the duration of time digital signal passes a circuit? Propagation delay 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Transmission Lines

Saturday, August 6, 2011

OPTICAL FIBER TRANSMISSION MEDIA (C13 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 13
OPTICAL FIBER TRANSMISSION MEDIA
1)Uses light as a carrier of information. Optical communications system 2)Electronic communications system is directly proportional to bandwidth. Information-carrying capacity 3)Bandwidth of an analog communications system as a percentage of its carrier frequency. bandwidth utilization ratio 4)Device constructed from mirrors and selenium detectors that transmitted sound waves over a beam of light. Photophone 5)Experimented with an apparatus called photophone. Alexander Graham Bell 6)Used extensively in medical field. Flexible fiberscope

7)Invented in 1960. Laser (light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation) 8)Advantages of Optical Fiber cables. 1. wider bandwidth and greater information capacity 2.immunity to crosstalk 3. immunity to statistic interference 4. environmental immunity 5. safety and convenience 6. lower transmission loss 7. security 8. durability and reliability 9. economics 9)Disadvantages of Optical Fiber cables. 1. interfacing cost 2. strength 3. remote electrical power 4. optical fiber cables are more susceptible to losses introduced by bending the cable 5. specialized tools, equipment, and training 10)Reduces the possibility of the occurrence of a detrimental phenomenon. Stress corrosion 12)Protective coating. Buffer jacket 14)Increases the tensile strength of the over all cable assembly. Strength member 15)Process of decaying from one energy level to another energy level. Spontaneous decay or spontaneous emission 16)Science of measuring only light waves that are visible to human eye. Photometry 17)Measures the rate at which electromagnetic waves transfer light energy. Optical power 18)Spectral separation of white light. Prismatic refraction 19)Simply the ratio of velocity of propagation of a light ray in free space to the velocity of propagation of a light ray in a given material. Refractive index

20)Angle at which the propagating ray strikes the interface with respect to the normal. Angle of incidence 21)Angle formed between the propagating ray and the normal after the ray has entered the second medium. Angle of refraction 22)Closely related to acceptance angle and is the figure of merit commonly used to measure the magnitude of the acceptance angle. Numerical aperture 23)Simply means path. Mode 24)More than one path. Multimode 26)Probably the most important characteristic of the cable. Power loss 27)Three factors that contribute to the absorption losses in optical fibers: 1. ultra violet absorption 2. infrared absorption 3. ion resonance absorption 28)Caused mainly by small bends and kinks in the fiber. Radiation losses 29)Caused by excessive pressure and tension and generally occur when fibers are bent during handling or installation. Contants-radius bends 30)Caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays that take different path down a fiber. Modal dispersion 32)A p-n junction made from two different mixtures of the same types of atom. Mojunction structure 33)Generally constructed of silicon-doped gallium-arsenide. Epitaxially grown 34)Homojunction LEDs output approximately 500 at a wavelength of 900 nm.

Planar diffused 35) Advantages of heterojunction devices over homojunction devices; 1. increase in current density generates a more brilliant light spot. 2. smaller emitting area makes it easier to couple its emitted light into a fiber. 3. small effective area has a smaller capacitance, which allows the planar heterojunction LED to be used at a higher speed. 36)Depletion-layer photo diode and is probably the most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communications system. PIN diode 37)Characteristic of a light detector. 1. responsivity 2. dark currents 3. transit time 4. spectral response 5. light sensitivity ANTENNAS AND WAVEGUIDES

ANTENNAS AND WAVEGUIDES (C15 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 15
ANTENNAS AND WAVEGUIDES
1)A metallic conductor system capable of radiating and capturing electromagnetic energy Antenna 2)Couples energy from a transmitter to an antenna or from antenna to a receiver Transmission Lines 3)A special type of transmission line that consists of a conducting metallic tube through which high-frequency electromagnetic energy is propagated. Waveguide 4)Electrical energy that has escaped into free space in the form of transverse electromagnetic waves Radio Waves

5)The plane parallel to the mutually perpendicular lines of the electric and magnetic fields. Wavefront 6)The ratio of radiated to reflected energy. Radiation Efficiency 7)Antenna wherein two conductors are spread out in a straight line to a total length of one quarter wavelength. Quarter Wave Antenna 8)Another name for quarter wave antenna. Vertical Monopole or Marconi 9)A half-wave dipole. Hertz Antenna 10)A special coupling device that can be used to direct the transmit and receive signals and provide the necessary isolation. Diplexer 11)A polar diagram or graph representing field strengths or power densities at various angular positions relative to an antenna. Radiation Pattern 12)Radiation pattern plotted in terms of electric field strength or power density. Absolute Radiation Pattern 13)Radiation pattern plots field strength or power density with respect to the value at a reference Relative Radiation 14)The primary beam of an antenna. Major Lobes 15)The major lobes that propagates and receivethe most energy. Front Lobe 16)Lobes adjacent to the front lobe. Side lobes 17)The secondary beam of an antenna. Minor Lobes

18)Lobes in a direction exactly opposite the front lobe Back Lobe 19)The ratio of the front lobe power to the back lobe power. Front to Back Ratio 20)The ratio of the front lobe to a side lobe. Front to Side Ratio 21)The line bisecting the major lobe, or pointing from the center of the antenna in the direction of maximum radiation. Line of Shoot or Point of Shoot 22)Antenna that radiates energy equally in all directions. Omni-directional Antenna 23)Radiates power at a constant rate uniformly in all directions. Isotropic Radiator 24)The direction in which an antenna is always pointing. Maximum Radiation 25)It is defined as an equivalent transmit power. It stands for Effective Isotropic Radiated Power. EIRP 26)The equivalent power that an isotropic antenna would have to radiate to achieve the same power density in the chosen direction at a given point as another antenna. Effective Radiated Power (ERP) or (EIRP) 27)The power density in space and the actual power that a receive antenna produces at its output terminals. Captured Power Density 28)It describe the reception properties of an antenna Capture Area 29)Another name for capture area. Effective Area 30)The relationship of captured power to the received power density and the effective capture area of the received antenna. Directly Proportional 31)It refers to the orientation of the electric field radiated from the antenna.

Polarization 32)The angular separation between the two half-power (-3dB) points on the major lobe of an antenna's plane radiation pattern. Antenna Beamwidth 33)The frequency range over which antenna operation is satisfactory. Antenna Bandwidth 34)Another name for antenna input terminal Feedpoint 35)The feedpoint presents an ac load to the transmission line. Antenna Input Impedance 36)The simplest type of antenna. Another names for elementary doublet Short Dipole, Elementary Dipole Hertzian Dipole Elementary Doublet 37)Any dipole that is less than one-tenth wavelength Electrically Short 38)Hertz antenna is name after him and he was the first to demonstrate the existence of electromagnetic waves. Heinrich Hertz 39)A single pole antenna one quarter wavelength long, mounted vertically with the lower end either connected directly to ground or grounded through the antenna coupling network. Marconi Antenna 40)Main disadvantage of Marconi Antenna. Must be close to the Ground 41)A technique use to increase the electrical length of an antenna Loading 42)A coil added in series with a dipole antenna which effectively increases antenna's electrical length. Loading Coil 43)A loading coil approximately increases the radiation resistance of the antenna. 5 Ohms

44)An individual radiator, such as a half or quarter wave dipole. Two types of antenna elements Driven Parasitic Two Elements of a single antenna Two Wire Folded Dipole Antenna Element 45)Its purpose is to increase the directivity and concentrate the radiated power within a smaller geographic area. Array 46)Elements that are directly connected to the transmission line and receive power from the source. Driven 47)Elements are not connected to the transmission line; they receive energy only through mutual induction with a driven element. Parasitic 48)A parasitic element that is shorter that its associated driven element. Director 49)Radiation pattern depends on the relative phase of feeds. Driven 50)The simplest type of antenna arrays. Broadside Arrays 51)A widely used antenna commonly uses a folded dipole as the driven element and named after two Japanese scientists. Yagi Uda 52)Typical directivity of a yagi-uda antenna. 7 dB and 9 dB 53)Formed by placing two dipoles at right angles to each other. Turnstile Antenna 54)A class of frequency-independent antennas. Log Periodic

55)A broadband VHF or UHF antenna that is ideally suited for applications for which radiating circular rather than horizontal or vertical polarized electromagnetic waves are required. Modes of propagation: Normal Axial Helical Antenna 56)Antennas having half power beamwidths on the order of 1o or less. Three important characteristics: Front-to Back Ratio, Side-toSide Coupling Back-to-Back Coupling Microwave Antenna 57)Antenna that provides extremely high gain and directivity and are very popular for microwave and satellite communications link. Two main part Parabolic Reflector Feed Mechanism Parabolic Reflector Antenna 58)The effective area in a receiving parabolic antenna and is always less than the actual mouth area. Capture Area

WIRE COMMUNICATIONS

Wire and Wireless Communications (C7 Pastboard: Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 A duration of traffic path occupancy from a call, sometimes referred to as an average duration of occupancy of one or more path from calls. Holding time ECE Board Exam November 2000 Frequency band where Total Access Communication System (TACS) is allocated. 935-960 MHz; 890-915 MHz ECE Board Exam April 2000 Referred as the forward link channel of the cellular duplex system Cell to mobile unit

ECE Board Exam November 1999 This referred to a condition in a telephone network where the calling party cannot get connected to the party being called Blocked call ECE Board Exam April 1999 One of the components of a basic cellular system that handles the billing activities of the network. Mobile telephone switching office ECE Board Exam November 1998 Refers to a continuous tone generated in a local exchange terminal through a combination of two frequencies 350 Hz and 440 Hz Call waiting tone ECE Board Exam April 1998 A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system. TDMA ECE Board Exam November 1997 What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory telephone services? 30 dB ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the advantage of sidetone? Assures that the telephone is working ECE Board Exam November 1996 A special device circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX). Tie trunk ECE Board Exam March 1996 The modulation system used for telegraphy is Frequency shift keying ECE Board Exam Board April 2001 Describe as the signal-to-noise ratio required to meet a satisfactory telephone service 30 dB ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following system uses frequency band 870-890 MHz as a transmit band of its base station? Advanced Mobile Phone Service AMPS ECE Board Exam April 2000 What third symbol in emission designation indicates cellular voice transmission? E

ECE Board Exam November 1999 A term for a conventional land telephone line which is attached to the local telephone exchange by a pair of twisted copper wires. Fixed wire ECE Board Exam April 1999 A mobile telephone system, which used analogue cellular radio standard which was superceded by the Advanced Mobile Phone System in the US. IMTS ECE Board Exam November 1998 Refers to the duration occupancy period of call during its use. Holding time ECE Board Exam April 1998 How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single GSM carrier? 200 kHz ECE Board Exam November 1997 The standard deviation of the variation in the transmission loss of a circuit should not exceed 1 dB ECE Board Exam April 1997 One (1) Erlang is equal to ________. 36 CCS ECE Board Exam April 2001 A type of call where cell cannot receive the supervisory audio tones in 5 seconds causing the cell site to turn the cell transceiver. Call drop ECE Board Exam November 2000 Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristics occupying the frequency range of ______ 300 3400 Hz ECE Board Exam April 2000 A digital mobile telephone system which called a European derivative of a Global System for Mobile Communication System operating at a higher frequency band. DCS-1800 ECE Board Exam 1999 The receiving and transmission of printed materials over the telephone wires. Facsimile ECE Board Exam April 1999

One of the following central office switching equipment resistance limits refers to the longest subscriber loop length. 2000 ohms ECE Board Exam April 1998 The modulation technique used by GSM cellular system Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying ECE Board Exam November 1997 Nominal voice channel 4 kHz ECE Board Exam April 1997 Transmission of printed material over telephone lines Facsimile ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular system? 270 kbps ECE Board Exam March 1996 A device to be connected across the headset in telephone receivers to reduce the effects of acoustic shock. Two rectifiers in parallel with opposite polarities ECE Board Exam April 2001 The signal quality of the cells is constantly monitored by the base station, when the quality of the calls drops below a certain specified level, the base request the MTSO to try and find a better cell site is referred as _________. Hand off ECE Board Exam November 2000 In mobile communication such as the cellular service, the current maximum power is rated at __________ 3 watts ECE Board Exam April 2000 A special tone frequency which is transmitted by the mobile unit to cell site signaling call termination. 10 kHz ECE Board Exam November 1999 This is the Nordic analogue mobile radio telephone system originally used in Scandinavia. NMT ECE Board Exam April 1999

An analogue mobile telephone system which was designed for United Kingdowm using 900 MHz frequency band. TACS ECE Board Exam April 1998 An interfering current in a telegraph or signaling channel due to telegraph or signaling current by another channel. Cross fire ECE Board Exam November 1997 What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analogue telephone system? 300 3400 Hz ECE Board Exam April 1997 1 CCS is equal to 100 ECE Board Exam March 1996 Crosstalk coupling is ___________ dBm (disturbing pair) minus dBm (disturbed pair). the difference between readings on a cable pair with a tone and a cable pair without tone read at the far end of the cable. signals from one circuit that get into another circuit ECE Board Exam April 2001 Process of automatically changing frequencies as the mobile unit transfer into a different frequency zones so that the conversation can be continued in the new zone without redialing. Hand-off ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance of 100 ohms/km?

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Process of automatically changing frequencies as the mobile unit transfer into a different frequency zone so that the conversation can be continued in the new zone without redialing. Hand-off ECE Board Exam November 2000 A stage in cellular communication where voice channel is assigned to link up a call connection after a mobile or network originated a call. Call completion ECE Board Exam November 1999 How much approximate maximum power can a human voice possibly produce? 1 milliwatt ECE Board Exam April 1999 A transmission facility connecting points 1 and 2 which is either permanent or temporary, normally voice grade facility provided by a public network provider. Channel ECE Board Exam April 1998 Best described as an amplifier used in radio telephony. Class C ECE Board Exam November 1997 Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology Analogue cellular

ECE Board Exam April 1997 1 Erlang is ____________ 1 TU ECE Board Exam November 1996 Combination of modulator, channel and detector. Discrete channel ECE Board Exam March 1996 The local loop of the telephone system is understood to be A two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customers premise and the central office. ECE Board Exam November 1997 Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology Analogue cellular ECE Board Exam April 1997 _________ is used to measure speech volume Volume unit meter ECE Board Exam November 1996 What component in the telephone set has the primary function of interfacing the handset to the local loop? Induction coil ECE Board Exam March 1996 The ______ filter attenuates signals but passes frequencies below and above that band. Band stop ECE Board Exam November 1996 ____________ is out-of-bound signaling between toll central offices (Bell System Standard) 3700 Hz ECE Board Exam March 1996 In a telephone system, the customers telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999, what is the capacity of the system? 1,000 lines ECE Board Exam April 2001 How much signal-to-noise ratio is required to attain a satisfactory local exchange network? 35 dB ECE Board Exam April 2000 What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analog telephone system? 300-3400 kHz

ECE Board Exam November 1996 A voice grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of 0 to 4 kHz ECE Board Exam November 1996 What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset? Electromagnetic ECE Board Exam April 2001 In telecommunications the acronym NAM stands for Numeric assignment module ECE Board Exam November 2000 Referred as the reverse link channel of the cellular duplex system. Mobile unit to cell ECE Board Exam April 2000 Provides interface between the mobile telephone switching office and the mobile units Cell site ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid? 3 Db ECE Board Exam April 2001 This is small radio transceiver communication device which is normally wall mounted and where the WLL subscriber plugs its telephone handset. Telephone wireless terminal ECE Board Exam April 2000 A term used in wireless telegraphy and telephony to counter irregular disturbing radiation due to various causes which is produced by arc transmitter causing a rushing sound in receiving telephones. Mush ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 deg.?

ECE Board Exam November 1996 A digital identification associated with a cellular system SIM ECE Board Exam April 2001 Component of a basic cellular system that provides interface between the switching office and the mobile units. Cell site ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following cellular system is the only system allowed inside United States? AMPS ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following system uses frequency band 825 845 MHz as a receive band of it base station? Advanced Mobile Phone Services (AMPS) 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Wire communications, Wireless Communications

Tuesday, December 14, 2010

The Telephone System (Blake C8)

TRUE/FALSE 1. A telephone from 1930 could not work on today's public switched telephone network. ANS: F 2. The public switched telephone network is changing from an all analog to a mostly digital system. ANS: T 3. A LATA is a local calling area. ANS: T 4. A feature of the public switched telephone system is that calls cannot be "blocked". ANS: F 5. Telephones connect to the central office via trunk lines. ANS: F 6. The telephone switching hierarchy is being replaced by a "flat" network topology. ANS: T 7. Most local loops still use copper wire. ANS: T 8. A "twisted-pair" is twisted to minimize "crosstalk". ANS: T 9. The wires in a local loop are called TIP and GND. ANS: F 10. In a local loop, the red wire is positive. ANS: F 11. In a local loop, the TIP wire is positive. ANS: T 12. Local loops can carry voice signals in only one direction at a time. ANS: F 13. Local loops carry DC current. ANS: T 14. Local loops carry signaling information. ANS: T 15. Loading coils allow high-speed data loads to be carried on a local loop. ANS: F

16. Typically, when a phone is on hook, a voltage of 48 volts appears across it. ANS: T 17. When a telephone is off hook, the DC voltage across it can drop substantially from its on-hook value. ANS: T 18. The DC resistance of a telephone is about 2000 ohms. ANS: F 19. When a telephone is on hook, the DC current through it is in the range of 20 to 80 mA. ANS: F 20. Touch-Tone is a registered trademark of AT&T. ANS: T 21. DTMF is the same as Touch-Tone. ANS: T 22. DTMF uses sets of 3 tones. ANS: F 23. The technology to "dial" telephone numbers was invented in 1893. ANS: T 24. A crosspoint switch allows any incoming line to be connected to any outgoing line. ANS: T 25. The central office uses 24 volts AC at 20 hertz to cause a telephone to ring. ANS: F 26. The local-loop is full-duplex. ANS: T 27. Telephones usually contain a hybrid coil or an equivalent circuit. ANS: T 28. To allow for "sidetone", a hybrid coil should be slightly unbalanced. ANS: T 29. The signal levels in analog telephone systems have increased substantially over the past 100 years. ANS: F 30. The signal levels in modern analog telephone systems are still based on 19th-century technology. ANS: T

31. To allow multiplexing, the bandwidth of voice-grade telephone signals is deliberately restricted. ANS: T 32. The net gain of a telephone system must be greater than 0 dB for an acceptable signal level. ANS: F 33. Too much gain in a telephone system causes "singing". ANS: T 34. Echo suppressors prevent oscillations on long-distance telephone circuits. ANS: T 35. Echo suppressors can be switched off by a subscriber's equipment. ANS: T 36. C-message weighting increases the bandwidth of a local loop. ANS: F 37. The reference level for measuring noise in a telephone system is 1012 Watts. ANS: T 38. In a telephone system, signal strength is given relative to the zero transmission loss point. ANS: T 39. TDM is being replaced by the newer FDM technology in telephone systems. ANS: F 40. DS-1 can be used to carry digital data that did not originate as a voice signal. ANS: T 41. When using DS-1 to carry data, it is common to use each channel to carry 64 kbps. ANS: F 42. Digital carriers up to T3 can use copper wires. ANS: F 43. A DS-1C signal carries twice as many channels as a DS-1 signal. ANS: T 44. A DS-1C signal uses twice the bit rate of a DS-1 signal. ANS: F 45. "Stuff" bits are used to compensate for differences in clock rates. ANS: T

46. Every "in-channel" signal is also an "in-band" signal. ANS: F 47. Common-channel signaling is being replaced by the more modern MF signaling. ANS: F 48. Common-channel signaling reduces opportunities for stealing telephone service. ANS: T 49. ADSL is faster than ISDN. ANS: T 50. B-ISDN is a slower version of standard ISDN. ANS: F MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. DTMF stands for: a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency b. Dial Tone Master Frequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency ANS: C 2. PSTN stands for: a. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Private Switched Telephone Network ANS: A 3. POTS stands for: a. Private Office Telephone System b. Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4. LATA stands for: a. Local Access and Transport Area b. Local Access Telephone Area ANS: A 5. A LATA is a: c. Local Area Telephone Access d. Local Area Transport Access c. Primary Operational Test System d. Plain Old Telephone Service c. Primary Service Telephone Network d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers

a. a local calling area b. a type of digital local network ANS: A 6. Central offices are connected by: a. local loops b. trunk lines ANS: B 7. Local loops terminate at: a. a tandem office b. a toll station ANS: C

c. a way of accessing a tandem office d. a way of accessing a central office

c. both a and b d. none of the above

c. a central office d. an interexchange office

8. Call blocking: a. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. occurs only on long-distance cables d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded ANS: D 9. In telephony, POP stands for: a. Post Office Protocol b. Point Of Presence ANS: B 10. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. twisted-pair copper wire b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire ANS: A 11. FITL stands for: a. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. Fiber In the Toll Loop c. Framing In The Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop c. coaxial cable d. fiber-optic c. Power-On Protocol d. none of the above

ANS: D 12. Loading coils were used to: a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. reduce crosstalk d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. DC current flows through a telephone: a. when it is on hook b. when it is off hook ANS: B 14. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. 20 A to 80 A c. 2 mA to 8 mA b. 200 A to 800 A d. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. step-by-step switching control c. common control b. crossbar control d. ESS ANS: C 16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC c. as long as it is attached to a local loop d. only when it is ringing

ANS: D 18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above ANS: C 19. VNL stands for: a. voltage net loss b. volume net loss ANS: C 20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. eliminate reflections c. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. prevent oscillation d. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. 1 mW c. 1 pW b. 0 dBm d. 0 dBr ANS: C 22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. 6 c. 24 b. 12 d. 60 ANS: B 23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. supergroups b. mastergroups ANS: D 24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using: a. SSB c. PDM c. jumbogroups d. all of the above c. via net loss d. voice noise level

b. DSBSC ANS: A

d. PCM

25. PABX stands for: a. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B 26. SLIC stands for: a. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. Standard Line Interface Card ANS: C 27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to: a. provide synchronization b. carry signaling ANS: B 28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. compensation b. rectification ANS: C 29. ISDN stands for: a. Integrated Services Digital Network b. Information Services Digital Network ANS: A 30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. it took to long to develop b. it is too slow c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies c. Integrated Services Data Network d. Information Systems Digital Network c. justification d. frame alignment c. cancel echoes d. check for errors c. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit

d. all of the above ANS: D 31. ADSL stands for: a. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line ANS: B 32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically: a. much faster c. much more expensive b. about the same speed d. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. A ____________________ is a local calling area. ANS: LATA 2. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines. ANS: trunk 3. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. ANS: tandem 4. With 7-digit phone numbers, ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. ANS: ten 5. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. ANS: blocking 6. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. ANS: digital c. Allocated Digital Service Line d. Access to Data Services Line

7. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. ANS: twisted-pair 8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. ANS: flat 9. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. ANS: Loading 10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red wire is called ____________________. ANS: ring 11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the green wire is called ____________________. ANS: tip 12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. ANS: green 13. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. ANS: seized 14. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. ANS: BORSCHT 15. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing full-duplex operation over a single pair of wires. ANS: hybrid 16. In a crosspoint switch, not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time. ANS: lines 17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage.

ANS: large 18. The generic term for Touch-Tone signaling is ____________________. ANS: DTMF 19. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. ANS: conditioned 20. In the telephone system, amplifiers are called ____________________. ANS: repeaters 21. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation. ANS: suppressor 22. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. ANS: C-message 23. In FDM telephony, the modulation is usually ____________________. ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. In FDM telephony, ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. ANS: guard 25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. ANS: 56 26. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. ANS: superframe

27. In DS-1C, ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. ANS: stuff 28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. ANS: in-channel 29. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. ANS: common-channel 30. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. ANS: packet 31. In ISDN, the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. ANS: D 32. In ISDN, the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data. ANS: B 33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment. ANS: TE1 34. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. ANS: asymmetrical 35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER 1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?

ANS: 1000 ohms 2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. ANS: 1 dB 5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. If Cweighting produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP

WIRELESS COMMUNICATIONS

Wire and Wireless Communications (C7 Pastboard: Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001 A duration of traffic path occupancy from a call, sometimes referred to as an average duration of occupancy of one or more path from calls. Holding time ECE Board Exam November 2000 Frequency band where Total Access Communication System (TACS) is allocated. 935-960 MHz; 890-915 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000 Referred as the forward link channel of the cellular duplex system Cell to mobile unit ECE Board Exam November 1999 This referred to a condition in a telephone network where the calling party cannot get connected to the party being called Blocked call ECE Board Exam April 1999 One of the components of a basic cellular system that handles the billing activities of the network. Mobile telephone switching office ECE Board Exam November 1998 Refers to a continuous tone generated in a local exchange terminal through a combination of two frequencies 350 Hz and 440 Hz Call waiting tone ECE Board Exam April 1998 A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system. TDMA ECE Board Exam November 1997 What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory telephone services? 30 dB ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the advantage of sidetone? Assures that the telephone is working ECE Board Exam November 1996 A special device circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX). Tie trunk ECE Board Exam March 1996 The modulation system used for telegraphy is Frequency shift keying ECE Board Exam Board April 2001 Describe as the signal-to-noise ratio required to meet a satisfactory telephone service 30 dB ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following system uses frequency band 870-890 MHz as a transmit band of its base station? Advanced Mobile Phone Service AMPS

ECE Board Exam April 2000 What third symbol in emission designation indicates cellular voice transmission? E ECE Board Exam November 1999 A term for a conventional land telephone line which is attached to the local telephone exchange by a pair of twisted copper wires. Fixed wire ECE Board Exam April 1999 A mobile telephone system, which used analogue cellular radio standard which was superceded by the Advanced Mobile Phone System in the US. IMTS ECE Board Exam November 1998 Refers to the duration occupancy period of call during its use. Holding time ECE Board Exam April 1998 How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single GSM carrier? 200 kHz ECE Board Exam November 1997 The standard deviation of the variation in the transmission loss of a circuit should not exceed 1 dB ECE Board Exam April 1997 One (1) Erlang is equal to ________. 36 CCS ECE Board Exam April 2001 A type of call where cell cannot receive the supervisory audio tones in 5 seconds causing the cell site to turn the cell transceiver. Call drop ECE Board Exam November 2000 Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristics occupying the frequency range of ______ 300 3400 Hz ECE Board Exam April 2000 A digital mobile telephone system which called a European derivative of a Global System for Mobile Communication System operating at a higher frequency band. DCS-1800 ECE Board Exam 1999 The receiving and transmission of printed materials over the telephone wires.

Facsimile ECE Board Exam April 1999 One of the following central office switching equipment resistance limits refers to the longest subscriber loop length. 2000 ohms ECE Board Exam April 1998 The modulation technique used by GSM cellular system Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying ECE Board Exam November 1997 Nominal voice channel 4 kHz ECE Board Exam April 1997 Transmission of printed material over telephone lines Facsimile ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular system? 270 kbps ECE Board Exam March 1996 A device to be connected across the headset in telephone receivers to reduce the effects of acoustic shock. Two rectifiers in parallel with opposite polarities ECE Board Exam April 2001 The signal quality of the cells is constantly monitored by the base station, when the quality of the calls drops below a certain specified level, the base request the MTSO to try and find a better cell site is referred as _________. Hand off ECE Board Exam November 2000 In mobile communication such as the cellular service, the current maximum power is rated at __________ 3 watts ECE Board Exam April 2000 A special tone frequency which is transmitted by the mobile unit to cell site signaling call termination. 10 kHz ECE Board Exam November 1999 This is the Nordic analogue mobile radio telephone system originally used in Scandinavia.

NMT ECE Board Exam April 1999 An analogue mobile telephone system which was designed for United Kingdowm using 900 MHz frequency band. TACS ECE Board Exam April 1998 An interfering current in a telegraph or signaling channel due to telegraph or signaling current by another channel. Cross fire ECE Board Exam November 1997 What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analogue telephone system? 300 3400 Hz ECE Board Exam April 1997 1 CCS is equal to 100 ECE Board Exam March 1996 Crosstalk coupling is ___________ dBm (disturbing pair) minus dBm (disturbed pair). the difference between readings on a cable pair with a tone and a cable pair without tone read at the far end of the cable. signals from one circuit that get into another circuit ECE Board Exam April 2001 Process of automatically changing frequencies as the mobile unit transfer into a different frequency zones so that the conversation can be continued in the new zone without redialing. Hand-off ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance of 100 ohms/km?

ECE Board Exam April 2001 Process of automatically changing frequencies as the mobile unit transfer into a different frequency zone so that the conversation can be continued in the new zone without redialing. Hand-off ECE Board Exam November 2000 A stage in cellular communication where voice channel is assigned to link up a call connection after a mobile or network originated a call. Call completion ECE Board Exam November 1999 How much approximate maximum power can a human voice possibly produce? 1 milliwatt ECE Board Exam April 1999 A transmission facility connecting points 1 and 2 which is either permanent or temporary, normally voice grade facility provided by a public network provider. Channel ECE Board Exam April 1998 Best described as an amplifier used in radio telephony. Class C ECE Board Exam November 1997 Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology Analogue cellular

ECE Board Exam April 1997 1 Erlang is ____________ 1 TU ECE Board Exam November 1996 Combination of modulator, channel and detector. Discrete channel ECE Board Exam March 1996 The local loop of the telephone system is understood to be A two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customers premise and the central office. ECE Board Exam November 1997 Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology Analogue cellular ECE Board Exam April 1997 _________ is used to measure speech volume Volume unit meter ECE Board Exam November 1996 What component in the telephone set has the primary function of interfacing the handset to the local loop? Induction coil ECE Board Exam March 1996 The ______ filter attenuates signals but passes frequencies below and above that band. Band stop ECE Board Exam November 1996 ____________ is out-of-bound signaling between toll central offices (Bell System Standard) 3700 Hz ECE Board Exam March 1996 In a telephone system, the customers telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999, what is the capacity of the system? 1,000 lines ECE Board Exam April 2001 How much signal-to-noise ratio is required to attain a satisfactory local exchange network? 35 dB ECE Board Exam April 2000 What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analog telephone system? 300-3400 kHz

ECE Board Exam November 1996 A voice grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of 0 to 4 kHz ECE Board Exam November 1996 What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset? Electromagnetic ECE Board Exam April 2001 In telecommunications the acronym NAM stands for Numeric assignment module ECE Board Exam November 2000 Referred as the reverse link channel of the cellular duplex system. Mobile unit to cell ECE Board Exam April 2000 Provides interface between the mobile telephone switching office and the mobile units Cell site ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid? 3 Db ECE Board Exam April 2001 This is small radio transceiver communication device which is normally wall mounted and where the WLL subscriber plugs its telephone handset. Telephone wireless terminal ECE Board Exam April 2000 A term used in wireless telegraphy and telephony to counter irregular disturbing radiation due to various causes which is produced by arc transmitter causing a rushing sound in receiving telephones. Mush ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 deg.?

ECE Board Exam November 1996 A digital identification associated with a cellular system SIM ECE Board Exam April 2001 Component of a basic cellular system that provides interface between the switching office and the mobile units. Cell site ECE Board Exam November 2000 Which of the following cellular system is the only system allowed inside United States? AMPS ECE Board Exam April 2000 Which of the following system uses frequency band 825 845 MHz as a receive band of it base station? Advanced Mobile Phone Services (AMPS) 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Wire communications, Wireless Communications

Tuesday, February 1, 2011

Paging and Wireless Data Networking (Blake C23)

TRUE/FALSE 1. Traditional paging systems use low-power transmitters. ANS: F 2. Traditional paging systems use widely spaced transmitters. ANS: T 3. Pagers use the VHF band. ANS: T 4. Pagers use the UHF band. ANS: T 5. Pager messages typically require a lot of bandwidth. ANS: F 6. Each pager has a unique address. ANS: T 7. Typically, pager systems keep track of each pager's location. ANS: F 8. Satellite systems are used by pagers. ANS: T 9. All pagers are one-way only. ANS: F 10. Wireless LANs are typically slower than wired LANs. ANS: T 11. Wireless LANs are typically more expensive than wired LANs. ANS: T

12. The IEEE 802.33 covers wireless LANs. ANS: F 13. Few companies actually use the IEEE 802 wireless LAN specifications. ANS: F 14. Wireless LANs typically use a spread-spectrum modulation. ANS: T 15. IEEE 802 allows up to 1 watt of transmitter power. ANS: T 16. The typical range of a wireless LAN in an office environment is about 10 meters. ANS: F 17. The range of a Bluetooth system in an office environment is about 0.01 meters to 10 meters. ANS: T 18. Any Bluetooth device should be able to communicate with any other Bluetooth device. ANS: T 19. Bluetooth has a channel bit rate of 100 Mbps. ANS: F 20. Bluetooth devices communicate automatically once they are in range of each other. ANS: T 21. Bluetooth uses spread-spectrum modulation. ANS: T 22. Bluetooth uses frequency hopping. ANS: T 23. Bluetooth is designed for audio as well as data.

ANS: T 24. Currently, no wireless LAN uses light-wave transmission. ANS: F 25. A wireless LAN based on light waves would need direct line of sight for connections. ANS: F MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Pagers use: a. the VHF band only b. the UHF band only c. both the VHF and UHF bands d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band ANS: C 2. ISM stands for: a. IEEE Standard Message b. IEEE Secure Message ANS: D 3. CAPCODE is: a. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. In a one-way pager system: a. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. transmitters use relatively high power d. all of the above ANS: D c. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging d. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical

5. POCSAG stands for: a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6. A typical pager system does not: a. require "handoffs" b. allow "roaming" ANS: A 7. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. 802.10 c. 802.12 b. 802.11 d. 802.13 ANS: B 8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. VHF band c. ISM band b. UHF band d. infrared band ANS: C 9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. CSMA/CA c. CDMA b. CSMA/CD d. all of the above ANS: A 10. BSS stands for: a. Basic Service Set b. Basic Service System ANS: A 11. Bluetooth uses: a. CDMA c. QPSK c. Bluetooth Service System d. none of the above c. require error detection d. all of the above

b. frequency hopping ANS: B 12. Bluetooth uses the: a. VHF band b. UHF band ANS: C 13. TDD stands for: a. Time-Division Duplex b. Time-Delayed Duplex ANS: A 14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. 2 nodes b. 2 to 4 nodes ANS: C 15. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. micronet b. multinet ANS: D 16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. 10 cm to 1 meter b. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17. IRDA stands for: a. Infrared Data Association b. Infrared Digital Association ANS: A

d. all of the above

c. ISM band d. infrared band

c. Time Delay Difference d. Total Distance Delay

c. 2 to 8 nodes d. 2 to 16 nodes

c. TDD net d. scatternet

c. 10 cm to 100 meters d. within 10 feet

c. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. Infrared Roaming Data Area

18. The range of an IRDA system is: a. 1 meter b. 10 meters ANS: A 19. Infrared networks: a. cannot penetrate walls b. can use diffused infrared beams ANS: D

c. 1 foot d. 10 feet

c. can use reflected infrared beams d. all of the above

20. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. 1 meter c. several hundred meters b. several meters d. several thousand meters. ANS: D COMPLETION 1. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________. ANS: capcode 2. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________. ANS: TDMA 3. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office. ANS: Post 4. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code. ANS: 10 5. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs. ANS: 802.11 6. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs.

ANS: 1 watt 7. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band. ANS: ISM 8. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________. ANS: piconet 9. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________. ANS: piconets 10. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________. ANS: 1 meter