Dr. Ariel C.

Manlusoc
Dean, College of Criminology
Review Director
Introduction to Criminology
 1. The term criminology was originally derived
from what word:
a. French c. Criminologia
b. Italian d. Criminologie
 2. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort
of the society to prevent and repressed them?
a. Crime c. Criminology
b. Victimology d. Criminal justice
3. The study of Criminology involves the use of knowledge and
concept of other sciences and field of study which makes the
study of criminology:
a. Dynamic (It evolves with the society)
b. Nationalistic (relative to the law of the country)
c. Social science( crime is a social creation)
d. An applied science.
4. Criminal _______________ refers to the study of the
relationship between criminality and the inhabitants
of a certain locality:
a.Ecology (Criminality & Spatial distribution in a community)
b) Demography (Criminality &Population)
c) Epidiomology (Criminality & Environment)
d) Physical anthropology (Criminality & physical
constitution of men)
5. It is the study of human society, Its origin, structure,
functions and direction.
a. Sociology c. Psychology
b. Criminology d. Anthropology
6. It deals primarily with the study of crime
commission.
a. Criminology c, Victimology
b. Criminal Etiology d. Criminal Sociology
7. An act or omission in violation of the public law
commanding or forbidding it.
a. Crime c. Offense (Spl. Penal law)
b. Felony (RPC) d. Infraction of law (C/M.
Ord.)
e. delinquency (social norms)
8. Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by
_____________.
a. Culpa c. Negligence
b. Fault d. Imprudence e. All of these
9. The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit,
EXCEPT:
a. Intelligence c. Freedom
b. Intent d. Negligence
10. Pedro Penduco, a victim of robbery, was able to
identify his assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on
the way to the hospital where he was declared
dead on arrival, This crime is called,
a. complex crime c) instant crime
 b. simple crime d) situational crime
11. Ms. Mikee Ketong is a skilled woman in making
deception through verbal communication. She had
committed estafa to several persons through illegal
recruitment. What crime according to result did she
committed?
a. acquisitive crime c) instant crime
b. extinctive crime d) situational crime

12. It refers to the study of the role of the victim in the

commission of a crime.
a. criminal victim c. criminal psychiatry
b. criminal enthomology d. victimology
13. It is the scientific study of human behavior or
man’s external manifestation in relation to
criminality.
a) Epidiomology c) Criminal Psychiatry
b) Criminal psychology d) Physical anthropology
14. A crime can be classified according to its stages of
commission. What crime is committed when the
offender merely commences the execution of an
offense by overt act but which nevertheless did not
perform all acts of execution which would produce
the felony by reason of some cause other than his
own spontaneous desistance?
 a. Attempted crime c. Consummated crime
 b. Frustrated crime d. Complex crime
15. Crimes can also be classified according to plurality
of its result. What crime is committed when a
single acts resulted into two or more grave or
less grave felonies or when a crime is a
necessary means to commit the other.
a. simple crime c. complex crime
b. compound crime d. continuing crime
16. Crimes are classified under the revised penal code
according to their gravity. What crime to which the
law attaches the capital punishment or afflictive
penalties.
a. grave felonies c. less grave felonies
(Correctional)
b. light felonies (arresto menor) d. complex
felonies
 17. What crimes according to the time or period of
the commission are those which are committed only
when the circumstances or situation is conducive to
its commission like for instance, committing theft in
a crowded place.
a. seasonal crimes c. situational crimes
b. instant crimes d. continuing
crimes.
 18. There are crimes that are committed within a
certain length of time. What crime is committed by a
series of acts in a lengthy space of time?
 a. static crime c. situational crime
 b. instant crime d. episoidal crime.
19. Crimes such as theft, shop lifting, and others
which are committed to maintain one’s livelihood or
as a means for living are what crimes?
a. Rational crimes c. Blue-collar crimes
b. Irrational crimes d. White collar crimes
20. It is that element of intentional felony which means
that the person who committed the felony has the
capacity to distinguish between what is right and
wrong and fully understands the consequences of
his actions:
a. intelligence c. imprudence
b. intent d. freedom
 21. Refers to a person who has been found
guilty by competent court by virtue of final
verdict.
a. felon c. criminal
b. suspect d. recidivist
22. One way of classifying criminals is on the
basis of etiology. What kind of criminal is that
whose action arises from the intra-psychic
conflict between the social and anti-social
components of his personality?
a. Acute c. Chronic
b. neurotic d. normal
 23. Criminals can also be classified according to
this behavioral system. What are those criminals
who have high degree of organization that enables
them to commit crime without being detected and
usually operates in a large scale?
a. ordinary criminals c. professional
criminals
b. situational criminals d. organized
criminals
 24. On the basis of criminal activities criminals are
classified: what type of criminals make the
commission of crime as a way of living. It serves as
their means of livelihood.
a. situational c. accidental
b. habitual d. professional
25. This is a branch of public law which defines crime,
treats of their nature and provides for their
punishment.
a. Civil law c) Criminal law
 b) Political law d) Commercial law
26. It is a characteristic of criminal law which states
that criminal laws are enforceable only within the
Philippines:
a. prospectivity c. territoriality
b. generality d. uniform
27. It is the most essential part of the definition of the
criminal law:
a. elements c. degree of evidence
 b. penalty d. motive
28. The Revised penal code is the primary source of
our criminal law. It is otherwise known as:
a. Act 3815 d. Batas Pambansa 3815
b. Republic Act 3815 c. Commonwealth Act 3815
29. The revised penal code is consist of how many
books?
a. One c. Three
b. Two d. Four
30. During the prehistoric times, there was no formal
criminal justice system, and crimes where punished
based on:
a. formal laws c. conscience
b. customs d. the Bible
31. Criminal whose actions arise from intra-psychic
conflict between social and anti-social components
of his personality.
a. neurotic c. criminaloids
b. abnormal d. psychotic
32. The term criminology was originally derived from
the Italian word _____:
a. criminologie c. criminologie
b. criminologia d. crimienologia
33. He is recognized as the first codifier of laws:
a. Drakon c. the Hittites
b. Solon d. Hammurabi
34. Which of the following statement best
describes the latin maxim"There is no crime
where there is no law punishing it".
a. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege.
b. dura lex sed lex (The law maybe harsh but it
is the law)
c. ignorantia legis neminem excusat (Ignorance
of the law excuses no one from compliance
therewith)
d. actus me invitus factus non est meus actus.
(An act done by me against my will is not my
act)
35. This theory is also known as the "labeling
theory"
a. social reaction c. cultural deviance
b. social control d. strain
36. According to this principle, the punishment
should be the same as the harm inflicted on the
victim. Therefore, a man who broke the hipbone
of another during the fight will be punished by
also breaking his hipbone:
a. law of talion c. utiliarianism
b. classical d. neo-classical
37. It is the study that deals with the relationship
between the skull and human behavior.
a. physiognomy c. phrenology
b. physiology d. craniology

38. This school of thought in criminology states that

although individuals have free will, there are other
factors that affect the exercise of their free will,
which cause them commit crimes:
a. neo-classical c. utilitarianism
b. classical d. positivist
39. He said that individuals are like human calculators.
Before a person commits a crime, he first analyzes
whether the satisfaction he would gain is greater
than the possible negative effect he would have to
suffer if the gets caught doing the crime:
a. Cesare Beccaria c. Edwin Sutherland
b. Cesare Lombroso d. Jeremy Bentham

40. Who stated that crime is normal in a society?

a. Cesare Beccaria c. Emile Durkheim
b. Cesare Lombroso d. Enrico Ferri
41. Who is the founder of the cartographic school of
criminology?
a. Adolphe Quetelet c. Enrico Ferri
b. Michael Guerry d. Cesare Beccaria

42. He founded Sociology and applied scientific

methods in the study of society, which to him
passes through stages divided on the basis of how
people try to understand it, leading them to adopt a
rational scientific understanding of the world.
Comte called this the positive stage and those who
followed his writings were called,
a. Positivism c. Sociologists
b. Positivists d. Scientists
43. In the book “On Crimes and Punishment”, what was
said to be the most effective means of controlling
crime?
a. death penalty c. certainty of punishment
b. monetary fine d .life imprisonment

44. This theory contested the findings of Beccaria’s Free

Will Study, stating that its absence among mentally
retardate persons or those with some psychological
imbalances and personality disorders or physical
disabilities, could likewise lead to violation of laws
thereby citing said theory as one of crime causation.
a. Classical Criminology c. Neoclassical Criminology
b. Positivist Criminology d. Social Structure Theory
45. Having spent half of his life in the study of the
causes of crime and true to his dedication to his
lifetime works, upon his death he willed his brain and
body to the Institute of Anatomy at the University of
Turin in Italy to be further studied. To this, he was
named the Father of Modern and Empirical
Criminology.
a) Cesare Beccaria c) Edwin Sutherland
b) Cesare Lombroso d) Jeremy Bentham
46. Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by
____ wherein he concluded that the main difference
between a criminal and a non-criminal is that each is
responding to different sets of conduct norms.
a) Emile Durkheim c) Andre Michael Guerry
b) Thorsten Sellin d) Abraham Maslow
47. This school of thought in criminology states
that although individuals have self-rule, there are
other factors that affect the exercise of their
autonomy, which cause them commit crimes:
a) neo-classical c) utilitarianism
b) classical d) positivist

48. This refers to an individual’s physical features

that resemble those of apes and are said to be
factors as to whether a person will become a
criminal or not:
a) atavistic stigmata c) ape-like peculiarities
b) ape-like features d) physical deviation
50. He was the one who introduced the following
definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of
knowledge regarding crime as a social
phenomenon. It includes within its scope the
process of making laws, of breaking laws and of
reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
a) Raffaelle Garofalo c) Edwin Sutherland
b) Cesare Beccaria d) Paul Topinard
51. Frustration can be manifested by the presence
of anxiety, irritability and
a) state of fear c) self fulfillment
b) satisfaction d) peace
52. Refers to the standard of behavior or conduct
accepted in a given society which expected of an
individual living in that society.
a) Culture c) Norms
b) Principles d) Laws

53. This theory reflects the way people react to a given

situation based on the social influences they acquired
from other people that practically determine their
behaviors. This theory likewise serves as the learning
process of delinquent behaviors and considered as one
of the most important theory in crime causation.
a) Social Disorganization theory
b) Culture Conflict theory
c) Differential Association Theory
d) Social Reaction Theory
54. It is the breakdown of social order as a result of
the loss of order in a society.
a. synomie c) anarchy
b. anomie d) chaos
55. He introduced the “theory of imitation” which
states that individuals copy behavior patterns of
other individuals, and that those with weaker
personalities tend to get influenced easier by
those with stronger personalities:
a. Emile Durkheim c) Adolphe Quetelet
b. Gabriel Tarde d) Enrico Ferri
56. In Biological Theory, the following can lead to
criminal behavior, except:
a) Physical Defects
b) Chromosome Irregularity
c) Abnormal Brain Function
d) Inferior body construction

57. In this theory, Gecah is said to have an obligation

to the consequences of her actions and it points out
in the effect of her felonious act than upon herself:
a) Classical c) Positivist
b) Neo Classical d) Biological
58. This theory presented the view that individuals
tend to commit crime because of the irregularities in
the functions of their brain.
a) Biological c) Psychoanalytical
b) Sociological d) Psychological
59. Classical Theory states that individuals have
freewill. It is focused on an individual's choice as to
whether or not he will commit a crime and the
purpose of Classical Theory in giving punishment
is________________.
a) Restoration c) Treatment
b) Retribution d) Deterrence
60. This theory argues that intelligence is largely
determined genetically; that ancestry determines
IQ; and, that low intelligence as demonstrated by
low IQ is linked to behavior including criminal
behavior:
a. Nature Theory c) Psychological theory
b. Strain Theory d) Labeling theory
61. He explained that individuals learn criminal
behavior by means of communication with
persons who dwell in criminality:
a) Cesare Lombroso c) Edwin
Sutherland
b) Charles Buckman Goring d) Emile Durkheim
62. According to the psychoanalytic theory of
personality, this component of an individual’s
personality operates under the “reality principle”:
a. superego c) ego
b) conscience d) id
63. The theory which states that attachment,
connection and link to society will determine
whether a person shall commit a crime or not:
a. social control c) social disorganization
b. social bond d) social learning
64. Having spent half of his life in the study of the
causes of crime and true to his dedication to his
lifetime works, upon his death he willed his brain
and body to the Institute of Anatomy at the
University of Turin in Italy to be further studied.
To this, he was named the Father of Modern and
Empirical Criminology.
a. Giambatista dela Porta c) Casare Lombroso
b. Cesare Beccaria d) Charles B. Goring
65. A doctrine that treats juvenile
offenders not violators of the law but
victims of parental neglect where the
State extend to them the parental care
that they need, thus the State becomes
the Father.
a. Substitute Parental Authority
b. Parens Patriae
c. Parens Ad Litem
d. Loco Parentis
66. His theory was that God did not make all the
various species of animals in two days, as what the
bible says but rather that the species had evolved
through a process of adoptive mutation and natural
selection which led to his conclusion that man was
traced to have originated from the apes.
a. Jeremy Bentham c) Charles Darwin
b. Prince Charles d)Charles de Gaulle
67. It refers to the study of the external formation of
the skull that indicates the conformation of the brain
and the development and mal development of its
parts which is related to the behavior of the
offender.
a. Charles B. Goring c) Physiognomy
b. Phrenology d) William Sheldon
68. All the statements EXCEPT one, are
CORRECT;
a. The external formation of the skull correspond
to the interior formation of the brain;
b. The external formation of the skull do not
carry the same formation of the brain;
c. The mind can be analyzed into faculties and
functions;
d. These faculties are related to the shape of the
skull.
69. Physiognomy as a factor in crime causation
refers to the:
a. study of the body built of a person in relation
to his personality behavior and the type of
offense he or she is most prone to commit
b. study of the external formation of the skull and
brain formation
c. study of the facial features of man and its
relation to human behavior
d. study of human mind
70. One of these was studied and presented by
William Sheldon, a theory that established a link
between different body types and criminality;
a. ectomorph c) physiology
b. physiognomy d) craniology
71. It refers to an study showing the relationship
between the physical built of a person to his
personality structure and the type of offense he
is most prone to commit
a. physiognomy c) somatotype
b. phrenology d) psychology
72. Among the different body types Sheldon presented
in his study, he considered this ONE to be the most
likely to become criminal
a. endomorph c) mesomorph
b. ectomorph d) dysplastic
73. In the Social Structure Theory of Emile Durkheim,
he said, ______based on the prevalence of law
violation among the lowest strata of our society
which comprises the majority members of societies
all over the world.
a. “crime does not pay”
b. “crime is an structure of society”
c. “crime is normal in a society”
d. “crime exist only in some part of the society”
74. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his
ambition and goals in life both as an officer of
the law, and as a private citizen, can push him to a
life of crime, as pointed out in this particular theory.
a. Disorganization Theory c) Differential Association
Theory
b. Culture Conflict Theory d) Strain Theory
75. This refers to the learning process by which a
person learns and internalizes the ways of society
so that he can function and become an active part
of society.
a) socialization c) interaction
b) assimilation d) culture
76. A phenomenon that refers to the handling down of
delinquent behaviors as socially learned and
transferred from one generation to the next taking
place mostly among disorganized urban areas.
a. Cultural Transmissionc) Social Phenomenon
b. Crime d) Delinquent behavior
77. This part of man’s personality is present at birth
representing unconscious biological drives for sex,
food and other life-sustaining necessities and
follows the pleasure principle which requires instant
gratification and has no concern for the rights of
others.
a. Id c) Superego
b. Ego d) Alter ego
78. This theory manifests an individual’s frustration and
disappointments over his inability to reach a set goal,
in spite of hard works, that eventually pushed a
person to a life of crime.
a. Conflict theory c) Sociological theory
b. Strain theory d) Social Structure theory
79. This theory explains facts as to whether a person
becomes law-abiding or law-violator, largely depends
on contacts with criminal values, attitudes, principles
and behavior patterns. And, this theory is one of the
most important theories of crime education in the
field of criminology.
a. Culture Conflict theory
b. Sociological theory
c. Differential Association theory
d. Social Structure theory
Criminology 2 - CJS
1. Which of the following is NOT included in the
components of criminal justice system of the United
States?
a. Law enforcement c. Corrections
b. Prosecution d. Courts

2. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that

the most important function of the CJS is the
protection of the public and the repression of
criminal conduct.
a. Crime prevention c. Crime control
b. Law and order d. Due process
3. According to this criminal justice model, the
rights of an individual must be co-equal with the
concern for public safety.
a. Crime prevention c. crime control
b. Law and order d. due process

4. This concerns to the obligations of the

community to individuals, and requires fair
disbursement of common advantages and
sharing of common burden.
a. Prosecution c. justice
b. equality d. trial
5. This function of the law enforcement is being done
through elimination of factors influencing the
occurrence of crimes, good community relations,
educating the citizens about their role, introduction of
delinquency prevention programs, good parenting and
others.
a. Maintenance of law and order
b. Reduction of crime
c. crime prevention
d. crime control
6. This principal character of the criminal justice
process links all components of the CJS.
a. Offender c. Victim
b. witness d. Crime
7. The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS.
a. Prosecution b. Correction
c. Police d. Court
8. It consists the ordering of human relations in
accordance with general principles impartially
applied.
a. Privilege b. System
c. Justice d. Right
9. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the
police have gathered and deciding whether it is
sufficient to warrant the filing of charge(s) against
the alleged violator.
a. Investigator b. prosecutor c. judge d. jury
10. He is an arbitrator in court who ensues that the
defense and the prosecution adhere to the legal
requirements of introducing evidences.
a. Clerk of court b. sheriff c. judge d. jury
11. This is a governmental body that is charged with
the responsibility of administering justice.
a. Law enforcement c. correction
b. Prosecution d. court
12. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction,
whether as an individual or as a member of some
court, Government Corporation, board or
commission.
a. Agent of person in authority c. Government officer
b. Government employee d. person in authority
13. An act or omission of one party in violation of the
legal of the other for which the latter suffers damage
and prejudice and the existence of which affords a
party to a right of judicial interference or intervention
on his behalf.
a. Cause of action c. plan of action
b. Criminal action d. legal action
14. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s
Office before it can entertain a complaint on a case
covered by the Barangay Court.
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement c. Certificate to file action
b. Certificate of Non-arbitration d. complaint
affidavit
15. It refers to the study of the various agency of our
government in charged of processing law violators
to ensure the protection of the society and
maintenance of peace and order.
a. Criminology c. Criminal Justice
b. Victimlogy d. Sociology

16. Refers to the person who is being implicated to the

commission of a crime and subject of an
investigation.
a. Convict c. respondent
b. Accused d. suspect
17. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules
of conduct necessary to protect life and property and to
maintain peace and order?
a. Criminal Justice System c. Criminology
b. Criminal law d. Criminal jurisprudence
18. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case
which would convince a reasonable mind based on
moral certainty but which nevertheless does not
preclude the possibility of error.
a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Clear and convincing evidence
c. substantive evidence
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
19. In the Philippine Criminal Justice System
______________ is the one that is primarily
responsible for securing the rights of the state over
an accused person for he directs the proceeding
and he institute an offense on behalf of the State.
a. Law enforcement c. Prosecution
b. Court d. Correction
20. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the
country which is under the ________?
a. Department of Justice
b. NAPOLCOM
c. Department of Interior and Local Gov't
d. Department of Social welfare and Dev't
21. A person who is under custodial investigation is
basically protected by a number of rights mandated
under the constitution and this was even expounded
in the legislative statute known as _______?
a. Miranda Doctrine c. R.A. 7438
b. Bill of Rights d. R.A.
6975

22. If Crime control model should emphasize on

"efficiency and productivity, the due process model
should emphasize on ____?
a. resourcefulness c. readiness
b. reliability d. responsibility
23. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying the
regulations of the Department of State. This was armed
and considered as the mounted police who later
discharged the duties of a port, harbor and river police.
a. Carabineros de Seguridad Publica
b. Guardrilleros (Body of rural police organized in each
town established by the Royal Decrees of 18 January 1836.)
c. Guardia Civil (Feb. 12, 1852, consisted of a body of
Filipino policemen under Alkalde Mayor)
d. Barangay Chieftains
24. On January 9, 1901, the Metropolitan Police Force
of Manila was organized pursuant to :
 a. Act No 70 c. Act 225
 b. Act 175 d. E.O. 389
25. On January 9, 1901, the Metropolitan Police
Force of Manila was organized pursuant to :
a. Act No 70
b. Act 175 (Insular Constabulary, Passed on July 18,
1901)
c. Act 225 (renamed the Insular Constabulary to
Philippine constabulary on October 3, 1901.
d. E.O. 389 (ordered that the PC be one of the four
services of the AFP, dated December 23, 1940).
26. It created the POLCOM (Police Commission) as a supervisory
agency to oversee the training and professionalization of the
local police under the Officer of the President. Otherwise
known as the Police Professionalization act of 1966, dated
September 8, 1966. It was later renamed as the National
Police Commission (NAPOLCOM).
a. R.A. 4864
b. P.D. 765 (Integration Act of 1975, dated August 8, 1975,
established the Integrated National Police (INP) composed
of the PC as the nucleus and the Integrated local police
forces as components, under the Ministry of National
Defense.
c. E.O. 1012 (transferred to the city and municipal government
the operational supervision and direction over the INP units
assigned within their locality.
d. E.O. 1040. Transferred the Admin. Control and Supervision
of the INP from the ministry of National Defense to the
National Police Commission)
27. It is otherwise known as the Department of Interior
and Local Government Act of 1990, enacted on
December 13, 1990. Established the PNP, BFP,
BJMP and the PPSC.
a. R.A.6975
b. R.A> 8551 (Philippine National Police Reform and
Reorganization Act pf 1998, enacted 1998, amending
the provision of R.A. 6975).
c. Act No. 181 (created the Division of Investigation (DI)
of the Department of Justice dated November 1938)
d. R.A. 157 (created the National Bureau of
Investigation, enacted June 19, 1947 and later
reorganized by R,A. 2678)
28. It shall a community and service oriented agency
responsible for the maintenance of peace and order
and public safety. It is an organization which is
national in scope and civilian in character.
 PNP c. All law enforcement
agency
 NBI d. PNPA
29. It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the
existence of a cause from initially occurring, thus,
lessen the police work as suppressing the spread of
criminality.
 Crime Prevention c. Crime control
 Criminal apprehension d. law enforcement
30. A law enforcement agency patterned after the
Federal Bureau of Investigation under the
Department of Justice headed by a Director.
a. NBI b. PNP c. NAPOLCOM d. PNPA

31. It is the unit of the police force which serves as the

backbone of the organization and to which majority
of its personnel should be assigned for it is in this
unit that all the primary functions of the police force
are carried on.
a. Patrol Unit c. Criminal Investigation Unit
b. Intelligence Unit d. Arrest and warrant unit
32. What is that term which refers to the wise use of
one’s own judgment in a given situation without
referring to your superior due to the eminence of the
situation?
a. Police resourcefulness c. Police discretion
b. Police integrity d. police prudence
33. It refers to the art or science of identifying law
violators, locating and tracing them in order to affect
their arrest and gather evidence to prove their guilt
in court.
b. Crime prevention c. criminal investigation
a. Crime control d. Intelligence work
34. It is the office of the government which provides
for prosecutorial services in the country.
a. National capital region
b. Public Attorney’s Office
c. National Prosecution Office
d. Department of Interior and Local Government

35. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party,

any peace officer of public officer in charged of
enforcement of the law violated filed either to the
court or to the office of the prosecutor.
– Complaint c. Information
– Pleadings d. affidavit
36. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether
there is sufficient ground to engender a well-
founded belief that a crime has been committed and
the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and
should be held for trial.
a. preliminary investigation c. Prejudicial question
b. inquest proceeding d. custodial investigation
37. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases
punishable by:
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one
(1) day.
b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
d. six years, one day and above
38. Is the taking of a person into custody in order that
he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense.
a. Arrest c. jurisdiction
b. warrant d. seizure

39. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and

capturing the law breakers in the execution of their
criminal plan.
 a. Instigation c. Entrapment
 b. Investigation d. Entertainment
40. In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is
the ____?
a. Plaintiff c. defendant
b. offended party d. respondent

41. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor

who directs the prosecution of the offense and
he/she did it on the behalf of the state. Once a case
is elevated to the higher court such as Court of
Appeals, who represents the State in the
prosecution of the offense?
a. Chief State Prosecutor c. Solicitor General
b. National or provincial prosecutor d. Judge
42. It refers to the questioning initiated by law
enforcement officer after a person has been taken
into custody.
a. custodial investigation c. interview
b. inquest d. interrogation
43. In cases committed by Public officer with salary
grade 27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
1379 or Art. 210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code
a complaint should first be filed to the office of
_______ for the conduct of the required preliminary
investigation.
a. Ombudsman c. Office of the Solicitor General
b. Judges of Municipal trial court
d. National and City State Prosecutor
44. In flagrante delicto means ______?
a. caught in the act c. caught after commission
b. instigation d. entrapment
45. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power
or try cases submitted to for adjudication. What term
is use in referring to the authority or power to hear
and decided cases.
a. Jurisdiction
b. Jurisprudence (Opinion/interpretation by SC)
c. Venue (Geographic/territorial limit where the authority
of the court is exercise)
d. Territory
46. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for
the first time to the exclusion of other courts.
a. original jurisdiction (First judicial trial of the case
b. appellate jurisdiction (Power to review,modify etc.)
c. exclusive jurisdiction
d. concurrent jurisdiction (Vested in several courts)
47. It is the formal reading of the charges against a
person accused of a crime and latter asking him
whether he pleads guilty or not to the crime
charged.
a. arraignment
b. preliminary investigation
c. plea (Answer to arraignment)
d. promulgation of judgment (reading of the judgment)
48. This is the primary objective of the police:
a. Law enforcement c. criminal apprehension
b. crime prevention d. public safety

49. It is the most common way by which the police

discovers or it informed that a crime has been
committed:
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the crime.
b. When the police discovers the crime
c. When the victim reports the crime
d. When the suspect surrenders
50. This law renamed the Bureau of Investigation into
National Bureau of Investigation:
a. R.A. 157 c. E.O. 292
b. R.A. 175 d. E.O. 94

51. When arrest may be made?

a. At any time of the day and night
b. At day time
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn
52. Under what circumstances arrest can be made
even without a warrant?
a. All of these
b. When the crime was committed in the presence
of the arresting officer.
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and
there is personal knowledge based on probable
cause that the person to be arrest has committed it.
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapees
e. Arrest of a person under Release on
Recognizance.
f. Arrest of a person who is under surety bond.
53. Refers to the counsel provided by the government
to assist destitute litigant?
a. Counsel de officio c. counsel de parte
b. Public Attorney’s Office d.National Prosecution
Office
54. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to
attend and to testify or to bring with him any books
or documents under his control at the trial of an
action.
a. subpoena
b. subpoena ad testificandum (to come & testify)
c. subpoena duces tecum (to bring a document)
d. warrant of arrest
55. One of the goals of criminal investigation is:
a. to determine is a crime has been committed;
b. to discourage people from violating the law;
c. to prove that the police are doing their job;
d. to arrest persons suspected of committing a
crime.
56. This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to
provide free legal assistance to poor members of
society:
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. National Prosecution Service
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Public Attorney’s Office
57. This is the power to apply the law to contests or
disputes concerning legally recognized rights or
duties between the state and private persons, or
between individual litigants in cases properly
brought before the judicial tribunal.
a. Judicial Power c. Judicial Review
b. Court d. Court of Justice
58. This is the process or method whereby
accusations are brought before the court of justice
to determine the innocence or guilt of the accused.
a. Prosecutor c. Prosecution
b. Trial d. Preliminary Investigation
59. The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen
to hear both sides and to come to a decision.
a. Mediation c. Settlement
b. Arbitration d. Agreement
60. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the
name of the government?
a. Public Prosecutor c. Private
Prosecutor
b. Prosecution d. Ombudsman
61. The number of justices of the Supreme Court.
a. 20 c. 25
b. 15 d. 30
62. This court was created under RA 1125, as
amended, which has exclusive appellate
jurisdiction to review on appeal decisions of the
Commissioner of the Internal Revenue involving
internal revenue taxes and decisions of the
Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties.
a. Court of Justice c. Court of Appeals
b. Sandiganbayan d. Court of Tax Appeals
63. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed
by high-ranking public officials (with salary grade of
27 above), which can only be committed because of
their position.
a. Court of Justice c. Court of Appeals
b. Sandiganbayan d. Court of Tax Appeals
64. It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the
signature of the judge directing the jail or prison
authorities to receive the convicted offender for
service of sentence.
a. Commitment Order c. Mittimus
b. warrant of arrest d. habeas corpus

65. Is that branch of the criminal justice system

charged with the custody, supervision and
rehabilitation of a convicted offender.
a. Penology c. Probation
b. Correction d. Criminology
66. A Jail is a place for the temporary confinement for
persons awaiting court action as well as convicted
persons serving short sentence. It was derived from
what Spanish word?
a. jaula c. caula
b. gaol d. hawla e. a and c

67. Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise

by the president. Which of the following is not one of
them?
a. Pardon c. Amnesty
b. Commutation of Sentence d. Parole
e. Reprieve
68. Prison is a place for confinement of convicted
prisoners. What classification of prisoners is
sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to
three (3) years or whose fine is less than 6,000 but
more than 200 or both?
a. National or insular prisoner b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner d. municipal
prisoner
69. Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted
offenders sentenced to more than three (3) years of
imprisonment. IT is derived from the Greco-Roman
word _____?
a. Presinto c. Precindio
b. presidio d. precinto
70. There are how many members the composed the
Lupon?
a. 3 members c. 5 to 10 members
b. 10 to 20 members d. 5 members
71. It is granted to convicted offenders who have served
a portion of their service granted by the Board of
Pardons and Parole.
a. Pardon c. Probation
b. Amnesty d. Parole
72. They serve as the conciliation panel consisting of
three (3) members.
a. Lupon tagapagkasundo c. Pangkat
tagapagkasundo
b. Lupon Tagapamayapa d. Pangkat tagapamayapa
73. It is a security facility, usually operated by the
police stations, for the temporary detention of
persons held for investigation or awaiting
preliminary investigation before the prosecutor.
a. Lock-up jail c. Ordinary jail
b. workhouses, jailfarms or camp d. prison

74. It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of

Prisons whereby a number of days are deducted
from the length of years that a prisoner have been
sentenced to serve for his good conduct.
a. Commutation of sentence c. Parole
b. good conduct time allowance d. reprieve
75. Correctional institutions in the country is divided
into National and local institution. What Department
of the Executive Office is the one in charge of the
National Penitentiary?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. . Department of Justice
 c. Department of Interior and Local Government
d. Bureau of Correction
76. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the
transgression of the law.
a. penalty c. self-defense
b. exemplarity d. punishment
77. City and Municipal is the division of our
correctional institution which primarily in charge of
those detention prisoner, awaiting for final judgment
of their trial and serving short sentences and under
the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology.
While it is true that even the Provincials Jails like
the City and Municipal Jails are under the DILG, it is
subject to the control and supervision of the
__________?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice
c. Bureau of Correction
d. Provincial government
78. This is the process wherein the inmate, after
serving his sentence, is released to be able to mingle
with the community.
a. Reintegration c. reincarnation
b. Realization d. Rehabilitation

79. It refers to the examination of an individual’s

person, house, papers or effects, or other buildings
and premises to discover contraband or some
evidence of guilt to be used in the prosecution of a
criminal action:
a. Search c. Search and seizure
b. Raid d. entrapment
80. This court was established by virtue of PD1083:
a. Court of Tax Appeals c. Shari Court
b. Sandiganbayan d. Family Court

81. This is the law that reorganized the Judiciary:

a. R.A. 229 c. E.O. 129
b. BP 129 d. P.D. 29
• Crim. 3 – Ethics and Values
1. Police Community relation is:
a. The honest effort of both the police and the public to
understand one another.
b. A pet project of the DILG
c. Building confidence
d. On its way out
2. The general rule states that the concept which is
emerging as the cornerstone of effective police
community relation is:
a. Community Crime Prevention
b. Greater citizen’s empathy towards police and vice
versa.
c. Direct citizen’s arrest
d. Increase citizen involvement in crime control
3. There has become a growing requirement for police
and public alike to:
a. Get to know one another better;
b. Pretend there is no problem at all;
c. Look forward to conflict in the future;
d. Ignore each other.
4. Depending on the front line officer is:
a. Much of the sum and substance of police
community;
b. The apprehension of crooks;
c. whether or not people will commit crime;
d. Whether the criminal will hesitate or not to
commit crime.
5. What is the primary purpose of a public relation
program?
a. to develop mutual understanding between the
police and public;
b. To plan for a community relation program;
c. To recruit new members for community relations;
d. To train police officers in community relations.
6. What program is concerned with creating a
favorable public image of the police?
a. Human relations c. Press relations
b. Community relations d. Public relations
 7. What changes must occur given an effective
police community relations program?
A. Attitudinal and behavioral changes in policemen;
B. Political and social changes in policemen.
C. Attitudinal and mental changes in policemen.
D. Social and economic Changes in policemen.
8. The key to professionalism is the implementation of
a _____ program which includes the equitable
distribution of recruitment, fair promotion, and
rationalized approach in assignment, skills
development, grant of awards and reward and decent
living upon retirement.
a. Human resource dev’t c. System and Procedure
b. Organizational dev’t d. compensation
9.Which of this statement is FALSE?
a. Religion in advance societies tends to the
collective or group experience.
b. Participation in organized religious activity is
higher among women, especially widows.
c. Come religions are attractive to the deprived
because they promise rewards in the other world.
d. Religion has served as a functional alternative to
political extremism.
10. The authority to make decisions without reference
to the specific rules or facts, using instead one’s
own judgment.
a. Discretion c. Negotiation
b. prudence d. conviction
11. All PNP members must have the moral courage to
sacrifice self-interest in keeping with the time-
honored principle of _______>
a. Delicadeza c. Amor propio
b. Pride d. Pakikisama
12. It is the state of affairs requiring tact to protect the
integrity of a person
a. Virtue c. Delicadeza
b. Courage d. prudence
13. PO1 Moulic governs and disciplines himself by
means of reason and sound judgment. What values
does he practice?
a. Prudence c. Endurance
b. Courtesy d. Patriotism
13. What is the most important supervisory principle in
order to improve the morale of staff?
a. Be fair and just c. BE strict on attendance
b. Be Kind and respectful d. Be forgiving
14. It refers to the planned use of mass
communication for public purpose:
a. Press release c. advertisement
b. Publication d. Propaganda
15. The best measure for the competence of police
officer is ______>
a. High morale of his men
b. Ability of his men to prepare reports.
c. Good command of words
d. High level of education among his men
16. An example of Police immorality is _________.
a. Living with a woman not his wife
b. Going to the office not in uniform
c. Smoking while patrolling
d. Always absent from his post
17. Police Ethics means:
a. Adherence to what is moral and legal
b. Normal science of conduct of people living in a
society.
c. Obedience to authority
d. efficiency in police duties
18. A good community relation requires the following:
sincerity in serving the public; full knowledge of the
job; deep conviction in the nobility of the work; and:
a. sound police ethics;
b. open communication between the police and the
people;
c. frequent consultation with the people;
d. serving the public with utmost dedication.
19. Fortitude when use in police service means:
a. Firmness of the mind and the courage to endure
without yielding.
b. calmness and composure in enduring something
(patience)
c. The ability to last (endurance) d. voice of reason
20. This particular program makes the policemen a
friend and partner of the people as well as their
defender. In short, this program makes the police a
part of, and not apart from society.
a. Civic Action Program c. Public relation Program
b. Public information Prog. d. Masscom
Program
21. It is the sum total of all the dealings of the police
with the people it serves and whose goodwill and
cooperation the police needs for the greatest
possible efficiency in public service.
a. Police Community Relations
b. Human relations
c. Police Public relation
22. A police-community relations programs must have
the following objectives, EXCEPT:
a. to enforce the law and arrest violators
b. to obtain public cooperation and assistance
c. to create broader understanding and sympathy
with the problems and needs of the Police
d. to maintain and develop the goodwill and
confidence of the community .
23. The best relation a ;aw enforcement organization
can give to the community is :
a. good and credible performance
b. frequent media coverage of police work
c. good public press relations
d. community visitations
24. In launching a police community program, to attain
a sound degree of success, link or “ugnayan”
should be made first with:
a. Community Civic organization c. local ladies club
b. Local prominent residents d. Barangay officials

25. To develop public good will, a policemen on duty

must do the following, EXCEPT.
a. be selective of people to serve
b. be courteous and fair
c. be quick to assist individuals in their problem
d. perform job with dedication and efficiency
26. All the statements EXCEPT ONE, are correct:
a. A good will relation program should be aimed in
promoting better and closer relation between
members of the force.
b. The essence of a good public relations is simply
good service.
c. Making the public well-informed on the good work
done by the police, is one way of letting them know
the positive side of policemen.
d. The police should work on building good image
through actual and commendable performance.
27. This program is designed to influence the
opinions, emotions, attitudes, and behavior of the
public so that they will behave in a manner
beneficial to the unit in particular and the whole
PNP in general.
a. Mass Communication Program
b. Public Information Program
c. Civic Action Program
d. Public Information Program
28. A council that involves local officials and citizenry
in the preservation of peace and order and the
promotion of public safety.
a. Integrated Police Advisory Council
b. Samahan Kabataan
26. Police Community relation is designed to:
a. Bring citizens support to criminal justice to
remove apathy, and cause total community
involvement.
b. Encourage police officers to project better image
c. Promote a set of examples to citizens.
d. improve the public image.
27.
1. A person who under the legal system may be dealt
with for an offense in a manner different from an
adult.
a. Delinquent c. Child in Conflict with the law
b. Child at risk d. Youth or minor

2. Act or omission which may not be punishable if

committed by an adult, but becomes unlawful when
they are committed by a child or a person of tender
year or one who is in need of supervision or
assistance.
a. crime c. status offense
b. delinquency d. felonies
3. The power of the state to give any form of charity of
public nature. It is the philosophy behind the view
that youthful offender/child in conflict with the law is
the victim of improper care and that the state is duty
bound to provide protection.
A. positivism c. loco parentis
B. patria potestas d. parens patriae
4. Youth problems to include juvenile delinquency,
their welfare and rehabilitation are considered to be
the concerns and function of :
a. Department of Health c. DILG
b. DePEd d. DSWD
5. Still considered to be the vital force in the prevention
of juvenile delinquency.
a. the school c. the home
b. the law enforcement agency d. the church
6. The PD. 603 is otherwise known as (December 10, 1974
)
a. The child welfare code
b. The Child and Youth Welfare Code
c. The Child and Youth Code
d. Child and Youth Welfare Code
7. The civil personality of the child is deemed to have
been commenced upon:
a. birth of the child b. conception
8. Under the law, They are the one responsible for
preventing the child from becoming addicted to
intoxicating drinks, narcotic drugs, smoking,
gambling or any harmful practices.
a. DSWD c. parents
b. state d. police

9. Truancy means absence from school without cause

for more than _____ days not necessarily
consecutive.
a. 30 days c. 5 days
b. 20 days d. 15 days
10. Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as
the legal guardian of the child even though the
parents of the child are still alive when the best
interest of the said child so require.
a. adopter c. guardian ad litem
b. loco parentis d. temporary guardian
11. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is
exempt from criminal liability unless:
a. he is committed a henious crime
b. he is the principal accused
c. he acted without discernment
d. he acted with discernment
12. Considered as the inviolable social institution.
Being the foundation of the basic social
autonomous institution.
a. home c. marriage
b. family d. adoption
13. A child left by himself without provisions for his
needs/or without proper supervision falls under
what special category of a child?
a. abandoned child c. abused child
b. neglected child d. dependent child
14. A child that was conceived outside of a marriage,
born during the marriage of the parents.
a. Illegitimate c. legitimated
b. legitimate d. adopted
15. In the absence of death of both parents of the child
who shall continue to exercise authority over the
child?
I. Surviving grand parents
II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age
III. Surviving parents of child
IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of age.
a. I, II and IV only c. I and II only
b. I, II, III only d. all of the above
16. The following are example of status offense
except:
a. truancy from school c. use of profanity
b. malicious mischief d. running away from
17. Is a self association of peers, bound together by
mental interest, who acted in concert in order to
achieve a specific purpose which includes the
conduct of illegal activities and control over a
particular territory, facility or type of enterprises.
a. Juvenile gang c. a bond
b. Organized criminal d. street corner gang
18. The court can suspend parental authority if it finds
that the parent is:
I. Treats the child with excessive harshness of cruelty.
II. Gives the child corrupting order, counsel or example
III. Compel the child to beg
IV. Imposed to a child disciplinary actions.
a. I and II only b. I, II, III and IV c. I and III d. I, II and III
19. Is the mass obligation which the parents have in
relation to the persons and property of their an
unemancipated child.
a. Parental authority c. Loco parentis
b. Patria Potestas d. Parental Responsibility
20. Means freedom from parental authority both over
the persons and proper of the child.
a. adoption c. emancipation
b. legitimation d. recognition
21. In case of separation between parents of the child,
a child of such age is given by the court the
preference to choose between either parents.
a. under 9 years of age
b. 7 years of age
c. 10 years of age
d. 5 years of age
22. Executive order 209 otherwise known as the
Family Code of the Philippines which has repeated
some provisions of the PD 603 was made effective:
a. December 10, 1978
b. August 3, 1988
c. July 6, 1987
d. June 10, 1988
23. Which of the following best describe the
philosophy behind the adoption?
a. for the childless home to be filled-in
b. to established paternity and filiation
c. to raise a child from illegitimacy to legitimacy
d. to promote the welfare of the child
24. No descendants shall be compelled to testify his
ascendants both in criminal and civil cases.
a. false b. true c. doubtful d. misleading
25. Is a juridical act, a proceeding in re which creates
a relationship between two persons similar to that
resulting from legitimate paternity and filiation.
a. marriage b. legitimation c. adoption d. annulment
26. Refers to aggregate of persons working in
commercial, industrial and agricultural
establishments or enterprises whether belonging to
the labor or management.
a. civic association of adult
b. community
c. Samahan
d. youth association
27. Parental authority is deemed terminated upon:
a. death of the parents
b. emancipation of the child
c. death of the child
d. All of the above
28. The primary duty of the law enforcer is apprehending a
youthful offender is:
a. subject him to psychological test
b. interview / interrogate him
c. take him to the nearest health center for the necessary
medical, physical and mental examination
d. None of the above
29. Which of the following is the best way for the police to
win youth’s trust and confidence.
a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are strong
c. show to them that your bearing is good and stand with
pride.
d. let them know that you are an agent of a person in
authority.
30. The act of engaging in the trading, dealing with
children like buying and selling of a child or minor for
money or consideration.
a. child abuse
b. exploitation
c. child trafficking
d. abduction
31. Is a special classification of a child characterized by
his behavioral disorder, either functional or organic
which is in need of hospitalization.
a. emotionally disturbed child
b. physically handicapped
c. mentally ill child
d. neglected child
32. Who may file a complaint concerning abuse of
child (in order)
a. parents, offended party, grand parents, the state
b. the offended party, parents, grandparents, any
peace officer or public officer in charge with the law
violated the state.
c. the parents, any peace officer, grandparents, that
state and any other public officer in charge of the
law violated.
d. Peace officer, any public officer, the parents,
grand parents, the state.
33. They are unable to acquire a higher academic skill
but usually acquire basic skill for learning their I.Q.
range from 25 to 50.
a. educable (50 to 75)
b. borderline (75 to 89)
c. trainable
d. custodial group (1 to 25)
34. Refers to any maltreatment made either habitual
or not be it psychological, physical, or emotional
maltreatment.
a. child trafficking c. exploitation
b. child abuse d. child prostitution
 Foundlings = an infant by other abandoned or
exposed without a known parent or persons having
custody or in charge of them.
 Abandoned child = one who has no proper
parental care or guardianship, or whose parents or
guardians have deserted him for a period of six
continuous months.
 Neglected child = one whose basic needs have
been deliberately unattended or inadequately
attended. Neglected child can be due to physical or
emotional neglect.
 Abused child = sexually maltreated or abuse by
his parents or of other persons.
35. R.A. 6809 is an act which amends for such
purpose the provision of the E.O. 209 lowering the
age of majority from:
a. 20 to 17 years old
b. 18 to 21 years old
c. 17 to 20 years old
d. 21 to 18 years old
36. Is a process in which a child is given the same
status and rights as legitimate child, both in relation
to the parents and to the relatives of the later.
a. adoption c. legitimation
b. marriage d. emancipation
 A family type homes which provides temporary
shelter from ten to twenty days for children who
shall during this period be under observation and
study for eventually placement by the Dept. of
Social Welfare.
a. shelter care c. detention home
b. receiving homes d. child caring inst.
A child-caring institution is one that provides twenty-four
resident group care service for the physical, mental,
social and spiritual well-being of nine or more mentally
gifted, dependent, abandoned, neglected, handicapped
or disturbed children, or youthful offenders.
A detention home is a twenty-four hour child-caring
institution providing short term resident care for
youthful offenders who are awaiting court disposition of
their cases or transfer to other agencies or jurisdiction.
A shelter-care institution is one that provides temporary
protection and care to children requiring emergency
reception as a result of fortuitous events, abandonment
by parents, dangerous conditions of neglect or cruelty in
the home, being without adult care because of crisis in
the family, or a court order holding them as material
witnesses.
Receiving homes are family-type homes which provides
temporary shelter from ten to twenty days for children
who shall during this period be under observation and
study for eventual placement by the Department of Social
Welfare. The number of children in a receiving home shall
not at any time exceed nine: Provided, That no more than
two of them shall be under three years of age.
A nursery is a child-caring institution that provides care for
six or more children below six years of age for all or part
of a twenty-four hour day, except those duly licensed to
offer primarily medical and educational services.
A maternity home is an institution or place of
residence whose primary function is to give
shelter and care to pregnant women and their
infants before, during and after delivery.
A rehabilitation center is an institution that
receives and rehabilitates youthful offenders or
other disturbed children.
A reception and study center is an institution that
receives for study, diagnosis, and temporary
treatment, children who have behavioral
problems for the purpose of determining the
appropriate care for them or recommending
their permanent treatment or rehabilitation in
other child welfare agencies.
A child-placing agency is an institution or person
assuming the care, custody, protection and
maintenance of children for placement in any
child-caring institution or home or under the
care and custody of any person or persons for
purposes of adoption, guardianship or foster
care. The relatives of such child or children
within the sixth degree of consanguinity or
affinity are excluded from this definition.
37. Which of the following is not a qualification of an
adopter.
a. he must be accused of a crime involving moral
turpitude
b. he must be at least 18 years of age
c. he must be in possession of full civil capacity
d. in a position to support and care not only his
children but also the adopted
38. Shall mean the local government, together with the
society of individuals or institution, both public and
private in which a child lives.
a. family c. barangay
b. community d. home
39. The following are some grounds for suspension or
revocation of the license of a child welfare agency,
except:
a. the agency is being used for immoral practices
b. there are few numbers of children under its care
c. Lacks of financial capability to continue its
activities
d. Unsanitary place which is unfit for children
40. Is a law which provides for the protection of Youth
from any form of abuses or maltreatment.
a. R.A. 6909 c. R.A. 7610
b. P.D. 603 d. R.A. 7658
41. It is the Juvenile Justice and Welfare act of 2006:
a. RA 9262 c. RA 9344
b. RA 9346 d. PD 603
42. He is a child who has a greater tendency to
commit crimes
a. child in conflict with the law c. child at risk
b. child offender d. child
43. A child whose age does not exceed fifteen years is
totally exempt from criminal liability, pursuant to:
a. Criminal justice and Welfare Act of 2006
b. Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006
c. law against child abuse
d. Revised Penal Code
44. This refers to the apprehension or taking into
custody of a child who committed an offense by the
law enforcement officer:
a. initial contact with the child
b. preliminary investigation
c. initial investigation
d. inquest proceedings
45. This government office is created pursuant to RA
9344 and it shall be and attached agency to the
Department of Justice:
a. Local council for the Protection of Children
b. Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council
c. Sangguniang Kabataan
d. Samahan
46. A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen
years of age shall be turned over to the ______ by
the police for the determination of appropriate
program.
a. nearest police station c. family
b. local DSWD d. court
47. This common procedure applied when arresting an
offender shall NOT be employed when the person
who is the subject of apprehension is a child.
a. informing the suspect is a child
b. stating the reason for the arrest
c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
48. It is the Anti-Violence Against women and their
Children Act of 2006
a. RA 9346 c. RA 9262
b. RA 9344 d. RA 9263
49. A girl may file a complaint against his guy
classmate who sexually harassed her, citing RA
9262 as the law he violate.
a. True b. False c. party true d. party false
50. The diversion proceedings must be completed
within ________ days
a. 30 c. 45
b. 60 d. 20
51. If the court finds that the child in conflict with the
law is guilty of the crime he is accused of doing, the
__________ of the sentence shall automatically
suspended:
a. imposition c. determination
b. execution d. discharge
52. The child in conflict with the law whose sentence
has been suspended shall be brought back to the
court when he reaches the age of _________ for
final disposition of his case.
a. 21 c. 18
b. 19 d. 20
53. This approach in the study of juvenile delinquency
attributes youthful misdeeds to a learning process
through interactions with other members of society
and other social conditions:
a. sociogenic c. physiogenic
b. biogenic d. psychogenic
54. It is the inter-country Adoption Act of 1995
a. R.A. 8043 c. R.A. 8552
b. R.A. 6809 d. R.A. 7610
55. It is the Domestic Adoption Act of 1998
a. R.A. 8043 c. R.A. 8552
b. R.A. 6809 d. R.A. 7610
56. In domestic adoption, only persons ____ can be
adopted:
a. eighteen years old and below
b. fifteen years old and below
c. below eighteen years old
d. below fifteen years old
57. This is the age requirement for the adopter who is
petitioning for adoption under the Inter-country
adoption Act of 1995.
a. 27 years old or under c. at least 27 years
old
b. above 27 years old d. below 27
years old
58. Who among the following type of delinquent youth
has internalized his conflict and pre-occupied with
his own feelings?
a. social b. accidental c. asocial d.
neurotic
59. A family style wherein the father is the final
authority on all family matters and exercises
complete control over his wife and children:
a. Paternalistic c. maternalistic
b. mudralistic d. fraternalistic
60. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and
conditions, which are most congenial to the survival,
protection and feeling of security of the child and
most encouraging to the child’s physical,
psychological and emotional development:
a. Restorative juvenile justice
b. best interest of the child
c. anti-youth exploitation measure
d. special protection of child
61. It refers to the programs provided in a community
setting developed for purposes of intervention and
diversion, as well as rehabilitation of the child in
conflict with the law, fro reintegration into his/ her
family and/ or community.
a. Community Rehabilitation Programs
b.Community Juvenile Programs
c.Community Outreach Programs
d.Community – based programs
62. Which among the following is the most preferred
court to handle cases involving Child in Conflict
with the law?
a. Regional Trial Court c. Family Court
b. Supreme Court d. Barangay Court
63. It refers to any form of detention or imprisonment,
or to the placement of a child in conflict with the law
in a public or private custodial setting, from which
the child in conflict with the law is not permitted to
leave at will by order of any judicial or administrative
authority.

a. Apprehension c.
Incarceration
b. Deprivation of Liberty d. Confinement
64. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed
to address issues that caused the child to commit an
offense. It may take the form of an individualized
treatment program, which may include counseling,
skills training, education, and other activities that will
enhance his/ her psychological, emotional and
psychosocial well-being.

a. Probation c. Diversion
b. Intervention d. Rehabilitation
65. It refers to a principle, which requires a process of
resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of
the victim, the offender and the community. It seeks
to obtain reparation for the victim; reconciliation of
the offender, the offended and the community; and
reassurance to the offender that he/ she can be
reintegrated into society. It also enhances public
safety by activating the offender, the victim and the
community in prevention strategies.

a. Reformative Justice c. Reintegrative

Justice
b. Rehabilitative Justice d. Restorative Justice
66. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed by the
Department of Social Welfare and Development (DSWD),
LGU’s, licensed and/or accredited NGO’s monitored by the
DSWD, which provides care, treatment and rehabilitation
services for children in conflict with the law. Rehabilitation
services are provided under the guidance of a trained staff
where residents are cared fro under a structured therapeutic
environment with the end view of reintegrating them into their
families and communities as socially functioning individuals.
Physical mobility of residents of said centers may be
restricted pending court disposition of the charges against
them.

a. Youth Reformative Center c. Youth Reintegrative Center

b. Youth Rehabilitative Center d. Youth Restorative Center
67. It refers to offenses where there is no private
offended party.

a. Culture Infractions c. Status Offenses

b. Public felonies d. Victimless Crime

68. Who shall be the Chair of Juvenile and Welfare

Council (JJWC)?

a. Dep. Ed. Under Secretary c. DOJ Under

Secretary
b. DILG Under Secretary d. DSWD Under
Secretary
69. Who among the following shall primarily ensure
that the status, rights and interests of children are
upheld in accordance with the Constitution and
International instruments of human rights?

a. Commission of Human Rights

b. Kabataan Partylist
c. National Youth Commission
d. Sangguniang Kabataan
70. The following are considered mentally retarded
children except:

a. Essentially Incurable b. Retarded at

Maturity
b. Mentally Subnormal d. Late bloomer

71. What type of delinquent is characterized by serious

emotional disturbances within the individual and in
some cases associated with tendencies towards
mental illness?
a. Biologically Inherited Delinquents
b. Genetically Maladjusted Delinquents
c. Environmental Delinquents
d. Psychiatric Delinquents Offender
 Human Behavior
1. In medicine, this is the prolonged departure of the
individual from his natural mental state arising
from illness.
a. Mental disorder c. Psychoticism
b. Schizophrenia d. Neuroticism

2. This is a serious mental and emotional disorder

that is a manifestation of withdrawal from reality.
a. Psychosomatic illness c. Psychoticism
b. Psychoneurosis d. Psychosis
3. This is a mentally disturbed person who is
opposed to the principles upon which society is
based.
a. Anti-social c. Psychopath
b. Schizophrenic d. Sociopath

4. This is a person who lacks any sense of social or

moral responsibility due to illness.
a. Anti-social person c. Psychopath
b. Schizophrenic d. Sociopath

5. This occurs when goal achievement is blocked.

a. frustration c. conflict
b. anxiety d. apathy
6. This type of conflict occurs when there is an
attraction to an object or state of affairs at the
same time repulsion towards something
associated with it.

a. avoidance-avoidance c. approach-approach
b. approach-avoidance d. multiple

7. This is the process of excluding from the

consciousness a thought or feeling that cause
pain, shame or guilt.

a. identification c. regression
b. repression d. fixation
8. This an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt
deficiencies or undesirable traits by emphasizing
a desirable type of behavior.

a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection

9. The aggregate observable responses of an

organism to internal and external stimuli.

a. human behavior c. behavior

b. personality d. attribute
10. This refers to habitual pattern of behavior of any
individual as expressed by physical and mental
activities and attitudes.

a. human behavior c. behavior

b. personality d. attitude

11. The voluntary and involuntary attitude a person

adopts in order to fit society’s ideas of right or
wrong.

a. human behavior c. behavior

b. personality d. attitude
12. The process by which behavior changes as a
result of experience or practice.

a. actualization c. learning
b. thinking d. feeling

13. A field of medicine that specializes in the

understanding, diagnosis, treatment, and
prevention of mental problems.

a. psychology c. psychiatry
b. philosophy d. sociology
14. This type of conflict occurs when there are two
desirable but mutually exclusive goals.

a. avoidance-avoidance c. approach-approach
b. approach-avoidance d. multiple

15. This type of conflict occurs when there are two

desirable but mutually exclusive goals.

a. avoidance-avoidance c. approach-approach
b. approach-avoidance d. multiple
16. This type of conflict when there are two courses
of action, each of which has both pleasant and
unpleasant consequences.

a. avoidance-avoidance c. approach-approach
b. approach-avoidance d. multiple

17. This is the process of excluding into the

consciousness a thought or feeling that causes
pain, shame, or guilt.

a. identification c. repression
b. suppression d. fixation
18. This response to frustration is the tendency to
repetitive, stereotyped behavior.

a. identification c. repression
b. suppression d. fixation

19. This is an attempt to disguise or cover up felt

deficiencies or undesirable traits by emphasizing
a desirable type.

a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
20.This is the process of interpreting our behavior in
ways more acceptable to the self by using
reasoning and alibis to substitute causes.

a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection

21. This is the region of the mind in which the

perception of the individual whether within or
outside is brought into awareness.

a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
22. This is the region of the mind the materials of
which one is not aware of but with the effort
maybe brought to the consciousness.

a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious

23. This is the region of the mind the individual is not

ware of.

a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
24. This part of the psychic structure is the source of
instinct, instinctive energy, occupies the unconscious
region, reservoir of percept, libido, habit tendencies,
pleasure principle region, immoral, illogical, no unity of
purpose and the repressed materials join or pleasure it.

a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego

25. This part of the psychic structures merges with the id. It
is mostly conscious and partly unconscious.

a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
26. This part of the outgrowth modification of the ego. It
is generally unconscious and partly conscious.

a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego

27. This is the persistent inability to adapt oneself to the

ordinary environment and the individual’s loss of
power to regulate his actions and conduct according
to the rules of society.

a. inadequate personality c. mental disorder

b. feeble mindedness d. abnormality
28. This is a false interpretation of an external
stimulus.

a. hallucination c. delusion
b. compulsion d. illusion

29. This is a form of mental disorder resulting from

the degeneration or disorder of the brain
characterized by general mental weakness,
forgetfulness, and loss of coherence and total
inability to reason.

a. melancholia c. amnesia
b. dementia d. apathy
30. A false or erroneous belief in something, which is
not a fact.

a. hallucination c. delusion
b. compulsion d. illusion

31.This is a state of excitement accompanied by

exaltation or a feeling of well being which is out
of harmony with the surrounding circumstances
of the patient.

a. melancholia c. phobia
b. exaltation d. mania
32. This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable
fear of a perfectly natural situation or object.

a. melancholia c. phobia
b. exaltation d. mania

33. This is a sudden and irresistible force compelling

a person to the conscious performance of some
action without motive or forethought.

a. compulsion c. impulsion
b. obsession d. delusion
34. This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a
person performs an act while sleeping.

a. somnambulism c. mesmerism
b. somnolencia d. delirium

35. This is an act wherein a person is compelled to

perform some actions against his free will, and
with duress as a result of external factors.

a. compulsion c. impulsion
b. obsession d. delusion
36. A person is in this state when he is half asleep or
in a condition between sleeping and being awake.

a. somnambulism c. mesmerism
b. somnolencia d. delirium

37. These are sexual acts forbidden by law, or crimes

involving expression of sexual urges.

a. crimes against chastity c. sexual deviation

b. acts of lasciviousness d. sexual offenses
38. This is any pattern of behavior including a
habitual, preferred, and compelling need for
sexual gratification by any technique, other than
willing coitus between man and woman and
involving actions that are directly results in
genital excite.

a. crime against chastity c. sexual deviation

b. acts of lasciviousness d. sexual offenses

39. This is impairment in desire for sexual

gratification in the male or an inability to achieve
it.

a. masturbation c. prostitution
b. exhibitionism d. frigidity
40. The indiscriminate provision of sexual relations
or habitual indulgence to lascivious conduct in
return for money or profit.

a. nymphomania c. prostitution
b. exhibitionism d. frigidity

41. Animals are used for the achievement of sexual

excitation and gratification.

a. voyeurism c. fetishism
b. pedophilia d. bestiality
42. The achievement of sexual pleasure though
clandestine peeping.

a. voyeurism c. fetishism
b. pedophilia d. bestiality

43. There is typically a centering of sexual interest on

some body part or upon an intimate object, such
as an article of clothing.

a. exhibitionism c. voyeurism
b. masochism d. fetishism
44. The individual attains sexual pleasure through
having pain inflicted on him.

a. masochism c. pedophilia
b. necrophilia d. sadism

45. This person has an I.Q. of 120-129.

a. very superior c. superior

b. bright normal d. genius
 EXCEPT,
a. Preservation of life c. recover and protect
property
b. Arrest of hostage taker d. involve the media
47. Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to:
a. police handling of the situation c. contact
b. negotiation d. control of area and people

48. A hostage taker is characteristically all of these,

EXCEPT
a. mental derange c. sociopath personality
b. suffers servere depression and mental aberration
d. mental balance
49. A hostage taker is one who,
a. feel threatened and persecuted and are highly
suspicious of people.
b. Suffers from delusion and hallucination
c. have anti-social bahavior or mal-adoptive pattern
of behavior.
d. has no conscience and unable to hold on self –
gratification.
50. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking
situation is,
a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators
should not command.
b. open the communication at once
c. negotiate d. ask for demands
51. These are not negotiable, in a hostage taking
situation:
a. guns and ammunition c. drinks
b. foods d. swapping of prisoners
52. When both hostage and hotage taker develop a
mutual feeling of sympathy, understanding, and other
shared stand on issues, leading them to become
enemies of the State, this turn referred to as,
a. Stockholm Syndrome c. Confrontation
b. Negotiation d. familiarization
53. These are important in a hostage taking situation,
EXCEPT:
a. presence of linguist negotiator
b. considerable screening of all members
54. One of the following is not a terrorist act:
a. Hostage taking c. robbery
b. bombing d. assassination