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BEE-SMART PRO 2021 SMP DAN

SMA
DAFTAR ISI
DAFTAR ISI ....................................................................................................................2
IPA SMP ...........................................................................................................................3
MATEMATIKA SMP ...................................................................................................20
BAHASA INGGRIS SMP .............................................................................................35
MATEMATIKA SMA ...................................................................................................57
KIMIA SMA ...................................................................................................................70
FISIKA SMA ..................................................................................................................84
BIOLOGI SMA ..............................................................................................................98
EKONOMI SMA .........................................................................................................114
BAHASA INGGRIS SMA ...........................................................................................133
KALKULUS .................................................................................................................168

DAFTAR ISI
IPA SMP

1 Empat orang siswa melakukan pengukuran benda, hasil percobaan


ditunjukkan dalam tabel berikut:
Siswa Massa (g) Volume (cm3)
A 44,8 64
B 38,4 48
C 21,6 27
D 18,9 30
Siswa yang mengukur benda dengan bahan yang sama adalah ….
A. A dan B
B. B dan C
C. B dan D
D. C dan D

2 Sepotong es dimasukkan ke dalam bejana, kemudian dipanaskan. Es


berubah menjadi air. Apabila terus menerus dipanaskan, air mendidih dan
menguap. Kesimpulan yang dapat diambil tentang hubungan antara kalor
dengan perubahan bentuk zat adalah ….
A. Melebur dan menguap membutuhkan kalor
B. Menguap dan mengembun membutuhkan kalor
C. Membeku dan melebur melepaskan kalor
D. Melebur dan mengembun melepaskan kalor

3 Alkohol dan garam adalah contoh zat yang larut dalam air. Alkohol dan
garam dapat dipisahkan dari air dalam larutan tersebut dengan cara …..
A. Memanaskan larutan alkohol hingga semua alkohol menguap dan
memanaskan larutan garam hingga semua garam menguap
B. Memanaskan larutan alkohol hingga titik didih alkohol dan
memanaskan larutan garam hingga titik didih air
C. Mendinginkan larutan alkohol hingga semua air membeku dan
menyaring larutan garam
D. Menyaring larutan alkohol dan mendinginkan larutan garam hingga
semua garam membeku

4 Sebatang kaca pada temperatur 25o C panjangnya 20 cm. kemudian, kaca


dipanaskan hingga bertambah panjang menjadi 20,018 cm. jika koefisien
muai panjang kaca α = 9 × 10-6 oC-1, maka temperatur akhir kaca sebesar ….
o
C
A. 50
B. 70
C. 125
D. 150

5 Keping bimetal terdiri atas dua keping logam dengan koefisien muai panjang
berbeda. Jika keping bimetal dipanaskan, maka akan melengkung dengan
bagian luar lengkungan adalah ….
A. Logam dengan koefisien muai panjang lebih besar
B. Logam dengan koefisien muai panjang lebih kecil
C. Logam dengan koefisien muai ruang lebih besar
D. Logam dengan koefisien muai ruang lebih kecil

6 Termometer X di dalam es mencair menunjukkan angka – 20oX dan pada


air mendidih menunjukkan angka 130oX. Pada saat temperatur skala
Fahrenheit dan Celcius menunjukkan angka yang sama, maka termometer X
menunjukkan angka …. oX
A. -32
B. -60
C. -80
D. -120
7 Pada temperatur 20oC, panjang sebuah batang aluminium 200 cm. Jika
dipanaskan sampai temperatur 100oC, panjangnya bertambah 0,00384 m.
Jika pada temperatur 20oC terdapat sebuah bola terbuat dari bahan
aluminium yang sama, maka agar volume bola itu bertambah 1% dari
volume semula, bola tersebut harus dipanaskan hingga temperatur …. oC
A. 139
B. 159
C. 208
D. 228

8 Sebuah kalorimeter berisi es sebanyak 40 g pada suhu -5oC. Ke dalam


kalorimeter tersebut dituangkan alkohol pada suhu 50oC sehingga suhu akhir
menjadi 8oC. Jika diketahui kalor jenis es 0,5 kal, kalor lebur es 80 kal/g,
dan kalor jenis alkohol 0,58 kal/goC, maka massa alkohol yang dituangkan
sebanyak …. gram
A. 148,60
B. 147,81
C. 146,62
D. 145,63

9 Sebuah partikel mengalami perlambatan konstan sehingga kecepatannya


berubah dari 20 m/s menjadi 10 m/s setelah menempuh jarak 75 meter.
Partikel tersebut akan berhenti setelah menempuh jarak …. meter
A. 25
B. 75
C. 100
D. 125
10 Dita dan Dahlia bermain bersama. Mereka mendorong sebuah mainan di
sebuah bidang licin dengan garis kerja yang sama. Dita mendorong dengan
gaya sebesar 5,7 N. Jika massa mainan 2 kg dan mainan mengalami
percepatan 2 m.s-2, maka besar gaya yang dilakukan Dahliah sebesar ….
A. 1,7 N dan arahnya berlawanan dengan gaya dorong Dita
B. 1,7 N dan searah dengan gaya dorong Dita
C. 2,3 N dan arahnya berlawanan dengan gaya dorong Dita
D. 2,3 N dan searah dengan gaya dorong Dita

11 Perhatikan data berikut!


(1) Urea
(2) KCl
(3) NPK
(4) TSP
Dari data di atas, jenis pupuk yang mengandung unsur nitrogen ditunjukkan
oleh nomor ….
A. (1) dan (2)
B. (1) dan (3)
C. (3) dan (4)
D. (2) dan (4)

12 Perhatikan sifat zat berikut!


(1) Materi pembentuknya terdiri atas satu jenis molekul
(2) Unsur-unsur pembentuknya selalu bergabung membentuk aturan
tertentu
(3) Tidak dapat diuraikan menjadi zat yang lebih sederhana
(4) Terbentuk dari perubahan fisika
Dari sifat zat tersebut, yang merupakan sifat campuran adalah ….
A. (1) dan (2)
B. (1) dan (4)
C. (2) dan (3)
D. (2) dan (4)

13 Sirup merupakan campuran larutan gula, air, pengharum, dan zat lainnya.
Jika kita ingin mendapatkan air murni dari sirup, metode pemisahan zat yang
sesuai adalah ….
A. Penyaringan
B. Kromatografi
C. Sublimasi
D. Destilasi

14 Perhatikan ketiga atom oksigen di bawah ini!


16 17 18
8O, 8O, 8O

Ketiga atom tersebut dapat disebut …. dan mempunyai ….


A. Isotop, nomor atom sama, nomor massa sama
B. Isobar, nomor atom sama, nomor masa berbeda
C. Isotop, nomor atom sama, nomor massa berbeda
D. Isoton, nomor atom berbeda, nomor massa sama

15 Atom 39
19K memiliki jumlah elektron, proton dan neutron sebanyak ….

A. Elektron = 39, Proton = 39, Neutron = 19


B. Elektron = 39, Proton = 39, Neutron = 20
C. Elektron = 19, Proton = 19, Neutron = 39
D. Elektron = 19, Proton = 19, Neutron = 20

16 Perhatikan data berikut!


(1) Air membeku ketika dimasukkan ke dalam freezer
(2) Daun petai cina mengatup ketika sore hari
(3) Kambing beranak untuk melestarikan jenisnya
(4) Air laut menguap membentuk awan
Data yang menunjukkan gejala alam biotik ditunjukkan oleh nomor ….
A. (1) dan (2)
B. (2) dan (3)
C. (3) dan (4)
D. (1) dan (4)

17 Perhatikan data berikut!


(1) Benih cepat tumbuh pada kondisi gelap
(2) Longsor dan erosi dikarenakan penebangan pohon di atasnya
(3) Daerah banyak pohon memiliki simpanan air
(4) Udara bersih dikarenakan masih banyak tumbuhan
Faktor abiotik yang berpengaruh terhadap biotik ditunjukkan oleh nomor ….
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)

18 Harimau sumatra memiliki warna penutup tubuh yang bermacam-macam,


yaitu antara warna kuning, jingga, coklat muda seperti rumput kering, coklat
tua, dan warna tanah. Warna penutup tubuh makhluk hidup tersebut
menunjukkan ciri makhluk hidup, yaitu ….
A. Iritabilitas
B. Adaptasi
C. Ekskresi
D. Asimilasi

19 Berikut nama makhluk hidup hasil pengamatan di ekosistem kolam


(1) Katak hijau
(2) Ganggang Sprigyra
(3) Ikan mas kecil
(4) Kecebong
(5) Semanggi
(6) Ular air
Makhluk hidup yang memiliki banyak persamaan morfologi ditunjukkan
oleh nomor …..
A. (1) dan (4)
B. (2) dan (5)
C. (3) dan (4)
D. (3) dan (6)

20 Ibu Wira, guru IPA kelas VII menugaskan siswanya untuk membawa
sekelompok tumbuhan dengan ciri-ciri sebagai berikut.
(1) Memiliki akar, batang, dan daun
(2) Tumbuh di tempat lembab
(3) Tidak berbunga
(4) Memiliki spora yang terletak di bawah permukaan daun
Kelompok tumbuhan yang memiliki ciri-ciri tersebut adalah ….
A. Lumut
B. Tanaman kacang-kacangan
C. Paku-pakuan
D. Rumput-rumputan

21 The gaps in the leaves that we usually refer to as stomata have a function
as a place that has a function as a place for gas to enter. These stomata
come from tissue modification….
A. Cortex
B. Epidermis
C. Parenchyma
D. Meristem
22 Based on the theory, it is known that the energy available from one trophic
rank to the next is only 10%. If the tertiary consumer has 100 kcal of energy,
then the energy producer is worth….
A. 1.000.000 kcal
B. 100.000 kcal
C. 10.000 kcal
D. 1.000 kcal

23 Industrial waste in the category of hazardous hazardous materials (B3) that


enters the Cipunegara river, Subang Regency, has polluted the waters,
threatening the preservation of biota in the ecosystem. Efforts that can be
made to overcome this pollution are….
A. Shut off the flow of industrial wastewater leading to the river
B. Closing the permit for the establishment of factories near the river
C. Treat wastewater effectively before discharging it into the river
D. Planting aquatic plants to help treat waste

24 Currently, the satria and their families live in the city of Surabaya. Two years
ago, Satrio and his family lived in Suka Maju Village in a remote area of
East Java. The migration of people carried out by Satria and her family is….
A. Emigration
B. Immigration
C. Transmigration
D. Urbanization

25 Pay attention to the following names!


(1) Pupa bone
(2) Flat bones
(3) Smooth muscles
(4) Striated muscles
(5) Cartilage
Those that have the function of producing red blood cells are indicated by a
number….
A. (1) and (2)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (3) and (4)
D. (4) and (5)

26 FOSSIL FUELS
Many power plants burn carbon-based fuel and emit carbon dioxide (CO2).
CO2 released into the atmosphere has a negative impact on global climate.
Engineers have used different strategies to reduce the amount of CO 2
released into the atmosphere.
One such strategy is to burn biofuels instead of fossil fuels. While fossil fuels
come from long-dead organisms, biofuel comes from plants that lived and
died recently.
Another strategy involves trapping a portion of the CO 2 emitted by power
plants and storing it deep underground or in the ocean. This strategy is called
carbon capture and storage.
Using biofuels does not have the same effect on atmospheris levels of CO 2
as using fossil fuels. Which of the statements below best explains why?
A. Biofuels do not release CO2 when they burn.
B. Plants used for biofuels absorb CO2 from the athmosphere as they grow.
C. As the burn, biofuels take in CO2 from the atmosphere.
D. The CO2 released by power plants using biofuels has different chemical
properties than that released by power plants using fossil fuels.

27
1. This released unit focuses on the distribution pattern of volcanoes and the
impact of volcanic eruptions on climate and the atmosphere. Stimulus
materials include a map showing the location of volcanoes and earthquakes
around the globe and graphs illustrating the impact that volcanic eruptions
have on the amount of solar radiation that reaches Earth’s surface and on
carbon dioxide concentrations in the atmosphere.
Please read the following information:

VOLCANIC ERUPTIONS
Atmospheric Crbon Dioxide
Volcanoes emit carbon dioxide (CO2) during eruptions. The graph below
shows atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations that scientists have
measured since 1960.
The table shows the relative contribution of different sources to the carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere.
Source Contribution to CO2 in the
Atmosphere
Volcanic emissions < 1%
Human-caused emissions 20%
Plant respiration 40%
Microbial respiration and 40%
decomposition
Based on the information provided, what effect do volcanic eruptions have
on the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
A. A major effect, because there have been many eruptions.
B. A major effect, because each eruption ejects large amounts of material.
C. A minor effect, because volcanoes release little CO2 compared to other
sources.
D. A minor effect, because CO2 levels in the atmosphere decrease during
eruptions.
28
2. This released unit describes an innovative type of eyeglasses that use fluid
to adjust the shape of the lenses. The interactive portion of the unit first
allows students to investigate the effect of adjusting the amount of fluid in
the lens on the shape of the lens. Students are then able to investigate the
effect of the lens adjustments on the vision of three different people: one
with normal vision, one with farsighted vision, and one with nearsighted
vision.
ADJUSTABLE GLASSES
A new technology, called adjustable glasses, has been developed to help
people without access to eye doctors to correct their vision. The lenses of
thes glasses contain a fluid. The shape of the lens changes as the amount of
fluid in the lens is adjusted.

The idea of adjustable lenses is not new. The human eye also has a lens that
is adjustable.

The shape of the eye’s lens is adjusted by muscle action. Why is it important
for the eye’s lens to change shape?
A. To facilitate seeing objects that have different brightnesses
B. To facilitate seeing objects that have different colours
C. To facilitate seeing objects that have different distances
D. To facilitate seeing objects that have different sizes
29 BIRD MIGRATION
Bird migration is a seasonal large-scale movement of birds to and from their
breeding grounds. Every year volunteers count migrating birds at specific
locations. Scientists capture some of the birds and tag their legs with a
combination of coloured rings and flags. The scientists use sightings of
tagged birds together with volunteers’ counts to determine the migratory
routes of birds.
Most migratory birds gather in one area and then migrate in large groups
rather than individually. This behaviour is a result of evolution. Which of
the following is the best scientific explanation for the evolution of this
behaviour in most migratory birds?
A. Birds that migrated individually or in small groups were less likely to
survive and have offspring.
B. Birds that migrated individually or in small groups were more likely to
find adequate food.
C. Flying in large groups allowed other bird species to join the migration.
D. Flying in large groups allowed each bird to have a better chance of
finding a nesting site.

30 BIRD MIGRATION
Golden Plovers
Golden plovers are migratory birds that breed in northern Eeurope. In
autumn, the birds travel to where it is warmer and where more food is
available. In spring the trave back to their breeding grounds.
The maps below are based on more than ten years of research on the
migration of the golden plover. Map 1 shows the southward migratory routes
of the golden plover during auntumn, and map 2 shows the northward
migratory routes during spring. Areas coloured grey are land, and areas
coloured white are water. The thickness of the arrows indicated the size of
the migrating groups of birds.

Which statements about the golden plover’s migration do the maps support?
A. The maps show a decrease in the number of golden plovers migrating
southward in the past ten years.
B. The maps show that northward migratory routes of the some golden
plovers are different from southward migratory routes.
C. The maps show that migratory golden plovers spend their winter in areas
that are south and southwest of their breeding or nesting grounds.
D. The maps show that the migratory routes of the golden plover have
shifted away from coastal areas in the past ten years.
31 Terdapat dua buah balok di atas lantai. Balok P diletakkan di atas balok Q.
Balok P memiliki massa 100 gram dan balok Q memiliki massa 300 gram.
Balok Q didorong oleh gaya 3 N vertikal ke atas. Jika balok tidak saling
bergerak, maka besar gaya normal oleh balok Q dan balok P adalah …. N

32 Diketahui sebuah benda P bermassa m1. Benda tersebut diberi gaya sebesar
12 N sehingga benda P mengalami percepatan sebesar 8 m.s-2. Selain benda
P, terdapat benda Q bermassa m2 yang diberi gaya F, sehingga benda Q
mengalami percepatan sebesar 2 m.s-2. Jika gaya F bekerja pada benda R
yang memiliki massa (m1 + m2), maka percepatan yang terjadi pada benda
R sebesar …. m.s-2

33 Terdapat beberapa liter minyak tanah yang diletakkan suatu bejana. Ke


dalam minyak tanah tersebut dimasukkan emas yang massanya 193 gram.
Emas tersebut mengalami gaya ke atas sebesar 8.000 dyne. Jika percepatan
gravitasi 10 m.s-2 dan massa jenis minyak tanah 0,8 gram.cm-3, maka massa
jenis emas sebesar … gram.cm-3

34 Sungai yang cukup lebar dan dalam berbatasan dengan bibir laut. Dari
kejauhan terlihat sebuah kapal berlayar menuju ke arah sungai. Jika massa
jenis air laut sebesar 1.100 kg.m-3 dan massa jenis air tawar 1.000 kg.m-3,
maka perbandingan gaya Archimedes yang dialami kapal di laut dan di
sungai adalah …

35 Sebuah mobil bergerak dengan kelajuan 36 km/jam di jalan yang datar dan
lurus dan memiliki massa 1.500 kg. Jika jalan mobil tersebut dipercepat
hingga kelajuannya menjadi 2 kali lipat kelajuan semula, maka usaha yang
diperlukan untuk mempercepat mobil tersebut sebesar …. Joule

36 Terdapat dua keping kayu yang mengapung di permukaan danau dengan


jarak antar kedua sejauh 6 m. Dari kedua kayu tersebut, terbentuklah
gelombang yang merambat di permukaan danau. Ketika kayu pertama telah
bergerak naik turun sebanyak tiga kali, kayu kedua hanya bergerak naik
turun sebanyak satu kali. Jika tiap 2 detik kedua kayu bergerak naik turun
sebanyak tiga kali, maka cepat rambat gelombang sebesar …. m/s
37 Ketika kilat petir terlihat, 4 detik kemudian terdengar suara bunyi gemuruh.
Jika cepat rambat bunyi di udara 340 m/s dan cepat rambat cahaya 3 × 10 8
m/s, maka jarak tempat terjadinya petir terhadap pengamat sejauh …. M
38 Logam emas dipanaskan hingga meleleh sehingga dapat dibentuk menjadi
bermacam-macam perhiasan. Perubahan yang terjadi pada pemanasan emas
ini tergolong perubahan ….

39 Larutan air kapur dengan pH = 12 apabila diuji dengan indikator fenolftalein,


warna yang terjadi adalah ….

40 Molekul H2SO4 terdiri atas dua atom H dan satu molekul SO4. Dua atom H
dapat melepaskan dua elektron menjadi dua ion H+ dan molekul SO4
menangkap dua elektron menjadi ion SO42-. Pada peristiwa tersebut, yang
merupakan kation adalah ….

41 Sebatang lidi yang sedang menyala dimasukkan ke dalam mulut tabung di


mana terjadi reaksi kimia. Ternyata, nyala lidi makin membesar. Gas yang
mungkin terbentuk pada reaksi tersebut adalah ….

42 Data pada komposisi kemasan makanan: tepung terigu, tepung tapioka,


minyak sayur, perisa ayam, rempah-rempah, pemantap nabati, tartrazine Cl
19140, monosodium glutamat, asam folat, garam, gula, dan bubuk cabe.
Bahan pewarna sintesis yang terdapat pada makanan tersebut adalah ….

43 Organ X mengalami kerusakan sehingga tidak mampu menghasilkan zat Y.


oleh karena itu, terjadi gangguan dalam proses pengubahan emulsi lemak
menjadi asam lemak dan gliserol. Organ X yang dimaksud adalah ….

44 Andika mengalami luka karena tersandung batu. Keesokan harinya, luka


Andika agak membengkak. Bagian darah yang berperan dalam proses
penyembuhan terhadap luka tersebut adalah …
45 Bagas terjatuh dari sepeda saat sedang bermain. Kakinya terluka dan
mengeluarkan darah. Darah tersebut merembes secara perlahan dari luka
yang terbentuk. Hal tersebut menunjukkan terjadi luka pada pembuluh ….

46 Paramita performs an examination of Sarah's group. The results showed that


the blood contained α and β agglutinins. However, Paramita's blood does not
contain agglutinogens. Based on this examination it can be concluded that
Paramita's blood type is….

47 Prastika conducted a blood group test experiment. The blood samples


obtained by Prastika when dripped with serum α and serum β both did not
experience clots. Based on the results of the Prastika experiment, it can be
concluded that the blood sample is of the blood type….

48 Satrio is bleeding from an accident. Therefore, he needs a blood donor. If


Satrio's blood sample when tested with anti-A serum experienced clots and
when tested with anti-B serum did not experience clots, then the donor blood
type that Satrio can accept for transfusion is the….

49 The results of urine tests conducted by laboratory personnel show that the
urine contains protein. The presence of protein indicates damage to the
excretion channel, to be precise in….

50 A woman who is pregnant often uses a test pack to detect her pregnancy.
The tool actually tests the content of a hormone in the urine. The hormone
in question is….
MATEMATIKA SMP

1 Jika n bilangan bulat positif terkecil sehingga 7 + 30n bukan bilangan prima,
maka nilai dari 64 + 16(-n)+(-n)2 adalah …
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7

2 f(a,b) merupakan penjumlahan bilangan bulat dari a sampai b.


Contoh:
f(1,5) = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15
f(11,15) = 11 + 12 + 13 + 14 + 15 = 65
jika nilai f(366,966) = R, maka jumlah digit-digit peyusun bilangan R adalah
….
A. 8
B. 16
C. 18
D. 32

3 Bilangan p terbesar sehingga 8p membagi 4444 adalah ….


A. 2
B. 11
C. 22
D. 33

4 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Jika 1 + + 9 + 16 + 25 + ⋯ = 𝐴, maka nilai dari dari + 25 + 49 +
4 9

⋯ adalah ….
3
A. 𝐴−1
4
3
B. 𝐴+1
4
3
C. 𝐴
4
3
D. − 4 𝐴 − 1

5 Nilai dari 1000002 – 999992 + 999982 + … + 42 – 32 + 22 – 12 adalah …


A. 5000500000
B. 5500000000
C. 5000050000
D. 5050000000

6 Diketahui suatu barisan dengan suku ke-n, an adalah


20𝑚 𝑢𝑛𝑡𝑢𝑘 𝑛 = 2𝑚 − 1
𝑎𝑛 = {
19 + 𝑚 𝑢𝑛𝑡𝑢𝑘 𝑛 = 2𝑚, 𝑚 𝑏𝑖𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑎𝑛 𝑎𝑠𝑙𝑖
Jumlah 20 suku pertama barisan tersebut adalah ….
A. 1345
B. 1435
C. 1534
D. 5134

7 Panjang sisi papan persegi adalah 63 cm. Luas area yang diarsir adalah ….

A. 1215 cm2
B. 1512 cm2
C. 1125 cm2
D. 1521 cm2
8 Jajar genjang ABCD memiliki luas 35 cm 2 dan tinggi h = 5 cm. Ini dibagi
menjadi AECF belah ketupat. dan segitiga EBC dan AFD. Luas belah
ketupat enam kali luas segitiga. Luas belah ketupat AECF adalah ....

A. 22,65 cm2
B. 26,25 cm2
C. 62,25 cm2
D. 62,52 cm2

9 Gunung Fuji adalah gunung berapi aktif yang terkenal di Jepang.


Gunung Fuji hanya terbuka untuk umum untuk pendakian mulai 1 Juli
hingga 27 Agustus setiap tahunnya. Sekitar 200.000 orang mendaki Gunung
Fuji selama ini.
Rata-rata, kira-kira berapa banyak orang yang mendaki Gunung Fuji setiap
harinya?
A. 340
B. 710
C. 3400
D. 7100

10 Isikan semua angka 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 pada sepuluh kotak di bawahnya,


sehingga jumlah angka yang terdapat pada setiap garis panah adalah 20. Dua
angka bijih sudah terisi . Angka pada kotak dengan tanda tanya ('' X ") adalah
....
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2

11 Kucing saya lebih sering menyendiri. Saya hanya mendengar dia mengeong,
mendesis, dan mendengkur pada satu hari dari 25 hari terakhir. Tapi aku
mendengar dia membuat setidaknya satu suara ini setiap hari. Saya
mendengar dia mendesis selama 8 hari, mendengkur selama 14 hari, dan
mengeong pada 16 hari. Pada 3 hari, saya mendengar dia mengeong dan
mendesis tetapi tidak mendengkur, dan pada 3 hari, saya mendengar dia
mendengkur dan mendesis tetapi tidak mengeong. Berapa hari saya
mendengar dia mengeong dan mendengkur tetapi tidak mendesis?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2

12 Simpul dari segi enam ABCDEF biasa terletak pada lingkaran seperti yang
ditunjukkan pada gambar. Diameter lingkaran adalah 50 sentimeter.
Keliling segi enam adalah ...
A. 200 cm
B. 150 cm
C. 100 cm
D. 50 cm

13 Suatu pagi Raka berdiri di dekat menara. Panjang bayangan Raka adalah
1,25 m, dan panjang bayangan menaranya adalah 23,30 m. Jika tinggi Raka
1,50 m, berapa tinggi menaranya?

A. 29,76 m
B. 27,96 m
C. 26,79 m
D. 26,97 m

14 Gambar berikut tidak diskalakan dengan benar. ABCD adalah persegi


panjang AB = 18 cm dan BC = 10 cm. jika persegi panjang AEHD dan
FBCG kongruen, dan EG tegak lurus terhadap FH, maka panjang AE adalah
...
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2

15 Massa sebuah benda berbentuk kubus pejal berukuran 3 x 3 x 3 adalah 810


gram. Jika tiga buah "Lorong" berukuran 1 x 1 x 3 dibuat menembus sisi-
sisi kubus tersebut seperti pada gambar di samping, maka massa benda yang
tersisa adalah ... gram.

A. 600
B. 300
C. 150
D. 75

16 Bilangan bulat terkecil dari kumpulan bilangan bulat berurutan adalah -25.
Jika jumlah dari bilangan bulat ini adalah 26, berapa banyak bilangan bulat
dalam himpunan ini?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 44
D. 52

17 Rata-rata dari bilangan 7, 77,777,7777,77777,777777, dan 7777777 adalah


...
A. 123456789
B. 12345678
C. 1234567
D. 123456

18 Seorang gembala membawa kawanan dombanya ke sebuah ladang. Dalam


sekejap, satu Berok kabur dari kawanannya. Saat penggembala menghitung
jumlah domba di sekitar, ia menemukan bahwa jumlah Beroks adalah © x 9
sedangkan jumlah Babon adalah © x 7. Setelah beberapa saat, Berok yang
melarikan diri kembali ke gembok. Namun, ketika semua domba kembali ke
lapangan, satu Babon melarikan diri dari kawanannya. Gembala menghitung
kembali dombanya dan titne ini jumlah Beroks adalah # x 7 sedangkan
jumlah Babon adalah # x 5 Perhatikan bahwa simbol yang sama mewakili
nomor yang sama. Berapa jumlah total domba dalam kawanan ini?
(Catatan: Berok- domba jantan dewasa, Babon- domba betina dewasa.)
A. 69
B. 59
C. 49
D. 39

19 Abel, Brisca, Chaca dan Daniel adalah teman sekelas di SD Cerdas. Hasi
ujian mata pelajaran Matematika yang didapat hari ini adalah sebagai berikut
:
2
Nilai ujian Brisca sama dengan nilai ujian Abel
3
3
Nilai ujian Abel sama dengan 4 nilai ujian Chaca
3
Nilai ujian Chaca sama dengan 4 nilai ujian Daniel

Jika rata-rata nilai ujian mereka berempat adalah 72, maka nilai ujian Brisca
adalah ...
A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48

20 Apabila Zuhri, Zahra dan Izza mengecat kamar mereka bersama maka
membutuhkan waktu 4 jam untuk menyelesaikannya. Namun, apabila hanya
Zuhri yang mengerjakan membutuhkan waktu 7 jam. Jika mereka memulai
mengecat kamar pukul 09.35. Setelah mendapatkan setengah pekerjaan,
Zahra dan Izza pergi bermain. Lalu Zuhri mengerjakan sisanya sendiri.
Zuhri selesai mengecat kamar pada pukul ….
A. 14.50
B. 15.00
C. 15.05
D. 15.10

21 The same three drums below will become one, the three drums are tied
together three times. If you know that the radius is 50 cm and the height is 3
m, then the length of the rope that is wrapped around the drum is as long
as….

A. 50,23 m
B. 40,23 m
C. 20,23 m
D. 10,23 m

22 If ∠𝐴𝐵𝐶 = 56𝑜 , 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐵𝐶, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 ∠𝐵𝐷𝐹 = …


A. 56o
B. 32o
C. 28o
D. 14o

23 The image below is a picture of 4 circles, namely circles A, B, C, and D.


The ratio of the radius of the circle A: B: C: D is 3: 5: 7: 9. Then the ratio of
the radius of the circle A: B: C: D is 3: 5: 7: 9. Then the ratio of the radius
of the circle A: B: C: D is 3: 5: 7: 9. Then the ratio of the radius of the circle
A: B: C: D is the shaded area to the largest circle area….

A. 27 : 8
B. 8 : 27
C. 4 : 9
D. 2 : 3

24 An ABCD square is formed from 9 small squares as shown below. Points A,


E, F, G, H, I, K, L, and M are connected to point C .. The number of angles
a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h, and I is….
A. 405
B. 360
C. 180
D. 120

25 Mother in a minimarket who is giving a big discount with the provisions of


the total shopping:
more than Rp. 25,000.00 get a 10% discount
More than Rp. 50,000.00 Get a 25% discount
more than Rp. 75,000.00 get a discount of 30% and
more than Rp. 100,000.00 get 50% discount.
If you buy 3 kg of sugar, 1 kg of wheat flour. and 2 sacks of rice. The price
of sugar is Rp.10,000.00/kg, wheat flour is Rp.5,600.00/kg and rice is
Rp.33,000.00/sack, so the money that must be paid by the mother is…
A. 50.800
B. 40.600
C. 30.400
D. 20.200

26 Awarded:
A = (200320032003 × 2004200420042004)
B. = (2003200320032003 × 200420042004)
The values of A - B are….
A. 0
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1000

27 Nita is asked to find a 6-digit number that meets the following


requirements:
i. The four numbers in the middle are 2013
ii. The leading number (hundred - thousand number) is an even number
iii. The number in question must be divisible by 8 and divisible by 3
iv. The last number is 6
The numbers that can meet the leading numbers are ...
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

28 The results of the ordered numbers are 11, 27, 59,. . . , 262139. If 11 is the
first number and 27 is the second number, then 262139 is the number to….
A. 30
B. 15
C. 7
D. 3

29 The solution set of the following equation is …


𝑥 4 − 2𝑥 3 − 2𝑥 2 − 1
≥1
𝑥2 − 1
A. {x | x ≤ 1 atau x > 3, x ≠ -1 dan 1}
B. {x | 1 ≤ x ≤ 3, x ≠ -1 dan 1}
C. {x | x < 1 atau x > 3, x ≠ -1 dan 1}
D. {x | x ≤ 1 atau x ≥ 3, x ≠ -1 dan 1}
30 Let p and q are real number, p,q ≠ 0 that satisfy the equation 25p2n – 20pq
𝑞
+ 4q2 = 0, determine the value of 𝑝 ….

A. 2,50
B. 0,20
C. 0,50
D. 0,25

31 Didefinisikan [[y]] adalah bilangan bulat yang lebih kecil atau sama dengan
y
Contoh:
[[3]] = 3
[[0,2]] = 0
[[1,5]] = 1

Jika P = [[√1850]] + [[√1851 + √1852]] + ⋯ + [[1950]]. Maka nilai P

adalah …

32 Untuk menarik minat pelanggan, suatu restoran penyedia layanan cepat saji
memberi kupon berhadiah kepada setiap orang yang membeli makanan di
restoran tersebut dengan nilai lebih dari Rp 25.000,00. Dibalik kupon
tersebut tertera nilai salah satu dari bilangan-bilangan berikut: 9, 12, 42, 57,
69, 21, 15, 75, 24, dan 81. Pengunjung yang berhasil mengumpulkan jupon
dengan jumlah bilangan dibalik kupon tersebut sama dengan 80 akan diberi
TV 21’’. Kalau pemilik toko menyediakan sebanyak 20 buah TV 21’’, maka
TV yang harus diserahkan kepada pelanggannya paling banyak adalah ….

33 Misalkan p,q, dan r adalah tiga bilangan asli berbeda, faktor persekutuan
terbesar ketiganya adalah 16, sedangkan kelipatan persekutuan terkecil
ketiganya adalah 1056, maka nilai terbesar untuk p + q + r adalah ….
34 Suatu bilangan terdiri dari empat angka berbeda. Bilangan itu habis dibagi
91 dan hasil baginya adalah jumlah angka-angkanya. Banyak bilangan
dengan ketentuan tersebut adalah ….

35 Jika diketahui (m – 1)(m)(m + 1) = 1, maka nilai dari m(m(m(m + 1) – 1) –


2) – 9 adalah ….

36 Jika 10! Mempunyai nilai yang sama dengan 2a × 3b × 5c × 7d, maka nilai
dari a + b + c + d adalah ….

37
Nilai x dari √4𝑥 + √4𝑥 + √4𝑥 + ⋯ = 26 adalah ….

𝑎𝑛
38 Sebuah barisan dinyatakan sebagai berikut: a 0 = 4, a1 = 6 dan an+1 =
𝑎𝑛−1

dengan n ≥ 1, maka nilai dari a2710 adalah …

39 Jika suku ke-5, suku ke-9, suku ke-13, dan suku ke-2019 suatu barisan
aritmatika dapat dinyatakan secara berturut-turut 5t, 2t2, 11t, dan
3031
𝑡. Maka selisih suku ke-100 dan suku ke-150 adalah ….
2

40 Hari ini usiaku 1 kali usia ayahku. Lima tahun yang lalu, usiaku ¼ kali usia
3

ayahku pada waktu itu, maka usiaku sekarang adalah … tahun

41 Temukan digit pertama setelah koma dari angka tersebut 1 + 1 + ⋯ +


1010 1011
1
2019

42 Digit satuan dari bilangan bulat positif dua digit adalah 3. Jika digit puluhan
dan digit satuan dari nomor tersebut ditukar, bilangan baru tersebut adalah
36 lebih kecil dari nomor aslinya. Berapa jumlah angka asli dan bilangan
baru….

43 Jika 1 + 𝑎 = 4, maka nilai dari a4 + 1 ….


𝑎 𝑎4

44 Temukan hasil akhir yang paling mungkin untuk x2 + 20y2 – 8xy – 8y + 2021
adalah …

45 Pada segitiga ABC sudut ABC sebesar 2α dan sudut 140o - α. D adalah titik
pada garis segment AB sehingga CB = BD. Berapakah ukuran (dalam
derajat) sudut DCA adalah…. o

46 To the five children who qualified as finalists of BEESMART 2021, three


of them will be given a souvenir as a memento. If there are 5 different
souvenirs, then many ways gave the souvenir is …. Way

47 In 2019 the ratio of the number of male deer and female deer at Surabaya
Zoo is 4: 5.In 2020, the number of male deer increases by 15 and the number
of female deer decreases by 11, so the ratio becomes 3: 2.The difference in
the number of flavors of male and female deer in the year 2020 at the zoo
is…

48 If the simplest fraction of 78.45845845… is 𝑚. Then the value of m - n is ...


𝑛

49 Nearing the closing point, the cake shop left 2 chocolate cakes, 1 cheese
cake and 3 peanut cookies. Alvin will buy 3 pieces of cake, at least one of
them is a chocolate cake, there are many ways Alvin chooses the three types
of cakes ... ways
50 Ken looks at cars at shows and notices cars that are red, white, or blue. Every
white car has a black roof. Half the cars that are blue have black roofs, and
half the cars that have black roofs are white cars. There are 20 blue cars and
15 white cars. Many cars with black roofs and as many red as ...
BAHASA INGGRIS SMP

1 ____ the demands of aeroscape , medicine , and agriculture , engineers are


creating ecxotic new metallic subtances.
A. Meet
B. Being met are
C. To meet
D. They are meeting

2 _____ James A. Bland , “ Carry Me Back to Old Virginny “ was adopted is


the state song of Virginia in 1940 .
A. Was written by
B. His writing was
C. He wrote the
D. Written by

3 Mary Garden , ____ the early 1900’s , was considered one of the best singing
actresses of her time .
A. a soprano was popular
B. in a popular soprano
C. was a popular soprano
D. a popular soprano in

4 In the realm of psychological theory , Margareth F . Washburn was a dualist


_____ that moor phenomena have an essential role in psychology.
A. who she believed
B. who believed
C. believed
D. who did she believed

5 ____ no real boundary to the part of the ocean referred to as a “ deep “


because of changing water levels and movement in the sea floor .
A. It is
B. To be
C. Being
D. There is

6 Unlike moderate antislavery advocates , abolitions ____ an immediate end


to slavery .
A. demanded
B. they demand
C. that they demanded
D. in that they demand

7 A few animals sometimes fool their enemies ____ to be dead .


A. appear
B. to appear
C. by appearing
D. to be appearing

8 ___ of the mourning dove is made only by the male .


A. That the sad cooning call
B. The sad cooning call
C. Is the sad cooning call
D. The cooning call is sad

9 Abraham Lincolin insisted that _____ not just on mere opinion but on moral
purpose
A. to base democracy
B. for democracy to be based
C. democracy be based
D. whenever democracy is based

10 World trade patterns are indicative of the important economic issues _____
confront the world today
A. what
B. that
C. who
D. they

11 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

Nocturnal creatures , raccoons forage primarily at night and spend their days
rest in their dens.
A. Nocturnal
B. primarily
C. at night
D. rest

12 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

Maria Anderson , in addition to gaining fame as a concert soloist , also


served as a UNited States delegates to the United Nations.

A. in additions
B. soloist
C. served
D. delegates

13 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

Good dental hygiene and a proper diet are necessary for the maintain of
sound teeth .
A. a proper diet
B. necessary
C. maintain
D. sound

14 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

Rice adapt better than other grain corps to areas with unfavorable saline ,
alkaline , or acid sulfate soils.
A. adapt
B. grain
C. unfavorable
D. or

15 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

Jeanette Rankin , pacifist and lifetime crusader for social and electoral
reform , was the first woman to be a membership of the United States
Congress
A. and
B. social
C. to
D. membership of

16 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

in the United States , Maryland ranks second only to Virginia as a oyster -


producing state .
A. the
B. second
C. only
D. a

17 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

The social games of children help to prepare themselves for their adult roles.
A. social
B. of children
C. themselves
D. adult roles

18 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Algae have been an extremely important link in the food chain after the
beginning of life on Earth as we know it .
A. extremely
B. link
C. after
D. of life

19 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

The chorus plays a large part in any oratorio , linking areas were sung by
soloist with segments of choral music .
A. a large
B. in any
C. linking
D. were sung

20 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

Butte , Montana , had built above large deposits of silver , gold , and copper
and became known as “ the richest hill on Earth “.
A. had built
B. deposits
C. became
D. richest
21 Changing lifestyles, changes in diet, reduced physical exercises, as well as
increased human life expectancy, have accidentally increased the prevalence
of various non-contagious diseases such as diabetes mellitus. Diabetes
mellitus is a chronic disease caused by inherited and / or acquired deficiency
in the production of insulin hormone by the pancreas, or by the
ineffectiveness of the insulin produced. This deficiency results in
increased concentrations of glucose in the blood, which can develop into
other serious complications like heart disease / stroke, high blood pressure,
circulation problems, nerve damage and damage to the kidneys or eyes. The
main symptoms of untreated diabetes are increased thirst, overactive
bladder, especially during the night, extreme tiredness, weight loss, genital
itching or regular episodes of thrush and blurred vision. There are two main
types of diabetes mellitus. Insulin-dependent diabetes, known as type-1
diabetes, develops when the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas have
been destroyed. This type of diabetes generally affects younger people.
Type-2 diabetes, or noninsulin-dependent diabetes, develops when the body
develops insufficient insulin, or when the produced insulin does not work
properly, also known as insulin resistance. People at risk of developing type-
2 diabetes are those with a family history of diabetes, people aged between
40 years and 75 years old, those of Asian or Afro-Caribbean origin, people
who are very overweight and women who have given birth to a large baby.
Certain medications, hormones, and steroids can also increase a person's risk
of acquiring diabetes mellitus. People with type-1 diabetes need injections
of insulin for the rest of their lives. They also need to have a healthy diet
containing the right balance of foods. Insulin cannot be taken orally because
it is destroyed by the digestive juices. People with type-1 diabetes usually
take either two injections or four injections of insulin per day. People with
type-2 diabetes need to eat a healthy diet, and sometimes take additional oral
hypoglycemia tablets. These tablets can help the pancreas produce more
insulin, assist the body to make better use of the insulin that the pancreas
does produce, or slow down the speed at which the body absorbs glucose
from the intestine. There is currently no cure for diabetes, but with correct
treatment, the blood glucose level can be controlled, to give the patient a
relatively normal lifestyle. Eating healthily and taking regular physical
exercise would also reduce the risk of developing complications.

People may get diabetes mellitus because of …..


A. a problem in the hormone production
B. an ineffective distribution of insulin
C. a decreased level of glucose in the blood
D. an inborn defect

22 Changing lifestyles, changes in diet, reduced physical exercises, as well as


increased human life expectancy, have accidentally increased the prevalence
of various non-contagious diseases such as diabetes mellitus. Diabetes
mellitus is a chronic disease caused by inherited and / or acquired deficiency
in the production of insulin hormone by the pancreas, or by the
ineffectiveness of the insulin produced. This deficiency results in increased
concentrations of glucose in the blood, which can develop into other serious
complications like heart disease / stroke, high blood pressure, circulation
problems, nerve damage and damage to the kidneys or eyes. The main
symptoms of untreated diabetes are increased thirst, overactive bladder,
especially during the night, extreme tiredness, weight loss, genital itching or
regular episodes of thrush and blurred vision. There are two main types of
diabetes mellitus. Insulin-dependent diabetes, known as type-1 diabetes,
develops when the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas have been
destroyed. This type of diabetes generally affects younger people. Type-2
diabetes, or noninsulin-dependent diabetes, develops when the body
develops insufficient insulin, or when the produced insulin does not work
properly, also known as insulin resistance. People at risk of developing type-
2 diabetes are those with a family history of diabetes, people aged between
40 years and 75 years old, those of Asian or Afro-Caribbean origin, people
who are very overweight and women who have given birth to a large baby.
Certain medications, hormones, and steroids can also increase a person's risk
of acquiring diabetes mellitus. People with type-1 diabetes need injections
of insulin for the rest of their lives. They also need to have a healthy diet
containing the right balance of foods. Insulin cannot be taken orally because
it is destroyed by the digestive juices. People with type-1 diabetes usually
take either two injections or four injections of insulin per day. People with
type-2 diabetes need to eat a healthy diet, and sometimes take additional oral
hypoglycemia tablets. These tablets can help the pancreas produce more
insulin, assist the body to make better use of the insulin that the pancreas
does produce, or slow down the speed at which the body absorbs glucose
from the intestine. There is currently no cure for diabetes, but with correct
treatment, the blood glucose level can be controlled, to give the patient a
relatively normal lifestyle. Eating healthily and taking regular physical
exercise would also reduce the risk of developing complications.

The topic of the text is ….


A. The effect of changing lifestyles
B. An overview of diabetes mellitus
C. The prevalence of non-contagious diseases.
D. A medical guide to healthy life.

23 Changing lifestyles, changes in diet, reduced physical exercises, as well as


increased human life expectancy, have accidentally increased the prevalence
of various non-contagious diseases such as diabetes mellitus. Diabetes
mellitus is a chronic disease caused by inherited and / or acquired deficiency
in the production of insulin hormone by the pancreas, or by the
ineffectiveness of the insulin produced. This deficiency results in increased
concentrations of glucose in the blood, which can develop into other serious
complications like heart disease / stroke, high blood pressure, circulation
problems, nerve damage and damage to the kidneys or eyes. The main
symptoms of untreated diabetes are increased thirst, overactive bladder,
especially during the night, extreme tiredness, weight loss, genital itching or
regular episodes of thrush and blurred vision. There are two main types of
diabetes mellitus. Insulin-dependent diabetes, known as type-1 diabetes,
develops when the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas have been
destroyed. This type of diabetes generally affects younger people. Type-2
diabetes, or noninsulin-dependent diabetes, develops when the body
develops insufficient insulin, or when the produced insulin does not work
properly, also known as insulin resistance. People at risk of developing type-
2 diabetes are those with a family history of diabetes, people aged between
40 years and 75 years old, those of Asian or Afro-Caribbean origin, people
who are very overweight and women who have given birth to a large baby.
Certain medications, hormones, and steroids can also increase a person's risk
of acquiring diabetes mellitus. People with type-1 diabetes need injections
of insulin for the rest of their lives. They also need to have a healthy diet
containing the right balance of foods. Insulin cannot be taken orally because
it is destroyed by the digestive juices. People with type-1 diabetes usually
take either two injections or four injections of insulin per day. People with
type-2 diabetes need to eat a healthy diet, and sometimes take additional oral
hypoglycemia tablets. These tablets can help the pancreas produce more
insulin, assist the body to make better use of the insulin that the pancreas
does produce, or slow down the speed at which the body absorbs glucose
from the intestine. There is currently no cure for diabetes, but with correct
treatment, the blood glucose level can be controlled, to give the patient a
relatively normal lifestyle. Eating healthily and taking regular physical
exercise would also reduce the risk of developing complications.
Which of the following is a characteristic of diabetes mellitus?
A. Its is difficult to find the cause
B. It is a result of circulation problems
C. It requires a very long time to cure
D. It does not infect other people

24 Changing lifestyles, changes in diet, reduced physical exercises, as well as


increased human life expectancy, have accidentally increased the prevalence
of various non-contagious diseases such as diabetes mellitus. Diabetes
mellitus is a chronic disease caused by inherited and / or acquired deficiency
in the production of insulin hormone by the pancreas, or by the
ineffectiveness of the insulin produced. This deficiency results in increased
concentrations of glucose in the blood, which can develop into other serious
complications like heart disease / stroke, high blood pressure, circulation
problems, nerve damage and damage to the kidneys or eyes. The main
symptoms of untreated diabetes are increased thirst, overactive bladder,
especially during the night, extreme tiredness, weight loss, genital itching or
regular episodes of thrush and blurred vision. There are two main types of
diabetes mellitus. Insulin-dependent diabetes, known as type-1 diabetes,
develops when the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas have been
destroyed. This type of diabetes generally affects younger people. Type-2
diabetes, or noninsulin-dependent diabetes, develops when the body
develops insufficient insulin, or when the produced insulin does not work
properly, also known as insulin resistance. People at risk of developing type-
2 diabetes are those with a family history of diabetes, people aged between
40 years and 75 years old, those of Asian or Afro-Caribbean origin, people
who are very overweight and women who have given birth to a large baby.
Certain medications, hormones, and steroids can also increase a person's risk
of acquiring diabetes mellitus. People with type-1 diabetes need injections
of insulin for the rest of their lives. They also need to have a healthy diet
containing the right balance of foods. Insulin cannot be taken orally because
it is destroyed by the digestive juices. People with type-1 diabetes usually
take either two injections or four injections of insulin per day. People with
type-2 diabetes need to eat a healthy diet, and sometimes take additional oral
hypoglycemia tablets. These tablets can help the pancreas produce more
insulin, assist the body to make better use of the insulin that the pancreas
does produce, or slow down the speed at which the body absorbs glucose
from the intestine. There is currently no cure for diabetes, but with correct
treatment, the blood glucose level can be controlled, to give the patient a
relatively normal lifestyle. Eating healthily and taking regular physical
exercise would also reduce the risk of developing complications.

To prevent any risk of serious complication , a diabetes mellitus patient


should do the following , except ….
A. having a diet with the right balance of food
B. controlling the level of blood glucose
C. taking regular treatment of insulin orally
D. doing regular physical exercise

25 Changing lifestyles, changes in diet, reduced physical exercises, as well as


increased human life expectancy, have accidentally increased the prevalence
of various non-contagious diseases such as diabetes mellitus. Diabetes
mellitus is a chronic disease caused by inherited and / or acquired deficiency
in the production of insulin hormone by the pancreas, or by the
ineffectiveness of the insulin produced. This deficiency results in increased
concentrations of glucose in the blood, which can develop into other serious
complications like heart disease / stroke, high blood pressure, circulation
problems, nerve damage and damage to the kidneys or eyes. The main
symptoms of untreated diabetes are increased thirst, overactive bladder,
especially during the night, extreme tiredness, weight loss, genital itching or
regular episodes of thrush and blurred vision. There are two main types of
diabetes mellitus. Insulin-dependent diabetes, known as type-1 diabetes,
develops when the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas have been
destroyed. This type of diabetes generally affects younger people. Type-2
diabetes, or noninsulin-dependent diabetes, develops when the body
develops insufficient insulin, or when the produced insulin does not work
properly, also known as insulin resistance. People at risk of developing type-
2 diabetes are those with a family history of diabetes, people aged between
40 years and 75 years old, those of Asian or Afro-Caribbean origin, people
who are very overweight and women who have given birth to a large baby.
Certain medications, hormones, and steroids can also increase a person's risk
of acquiring diabetes mellitus. People with type-1 diabetes need injections
of insulin for the rest of their lives. They also need to have a healthy diet
containing the right balance of foods. Insulin cannot be taken orally because
it is destroyed by the digestive juices. People with type-1 diabetes usually
take either two injections or four injections of insulin per day. People with
type-2 diabetes need to eat a healthy diet, and sometimes take additional oral
hypoglycemia tablets. These tablets can help the pancreas produce more
insulin, assist the body to make better use of the insulin that the pancreas
does produce, or slow down the speed at which the body absorbs glucose
from the intestine. There is currently no cure for diabetes, but with correct
treatment, the blood glucose level can be controlled, to give the patient a
relatively normal lifestyle. Eating healthily and taking regular physical
exercise would also reduce the risk of developing complications.

The difference between diabetes mellitus type-1 and type-2 lies in ….


A. the treatment to control the disease
B. the weight of the patient
C. the possibility to be cured
D. the symptoms shown by the patient
26 Although it seems like the spread of spam-unwanted junk e-mail sent to
millions of people each day-is a recent problem, spam has been around as
long as the Internet has. In fact, the first document case of spam occurred in
1978, when a computer company sent out 400 e-mails via the Arpanet, the
precursor to the modern internet. Now, spam emails account for more than
two-thirds of all the emails sent over the internet, and for some unlucky
users, spam makes up 80 percent of the message they receive. And despite
technological innovations such as spam filters and even new legislation
designed to combat spam, the problem will not go away easily. The reason
spammers-the people who and businesses that spread spam are difficult to
stop is that spam is so cost effective. It costs a spammer roughly one-
hundredth of a cent to send spam, which means that mail sent. This low rate
gives spammers a tremendous incentive to continue sending out millions and
millions of emails, even if the average person never purchased anything from
them. With so much at stake, spammers have gone to great lengths to avoid
or defeat spam blockers and filters. Most spam filters email on a fairly
primitive-fingerprinting system. In this system, a program several typical
spam message and identifies common features in them. Any arriving emails
that match these features are deleted. But the fingerprinting defense proves
quite easy for spammers to defeat. To confuse the program, a spammer
simply has to include a series of random characters or numbers. The
additions to the spam message change its-fingerprint and thus allow the
spam to escape detection. And when programmers modify the fingerprint
software to look for random strings of letters, spammers respond by
including. A second possible solution takes advantages of a computer's
limited learning abilities. So called-smart filters use complex algorithms,
which allow the to recognize new version of spam message. These filters
may be initially fooled by random characters or bogus content, but they soon
learn to identify these features. Unfortunately, spammers have learned how
to avoid these smart filters as well.

The best title for the above text is ….


A. The Success of the Development of Sam Filters
B. The disadvantages of using Emails
C. How to Make Profile through
D. Spam : Problems and Solutions

27 Although it seems like the spread of spam-unwanted junk e-mail sent to


millions of people each day-is a recent problem, spam has been around as
long as the Internet has. In fact, the first document case of spam occurred in
1978, when a computer company sent out 400 e-mails via the Arpanet, the
precursor to the modern internet. Now, spam emails account for more than
two-thirds of all the emails sent over the internet, and for some unlucky
users, spam makes up 80 percent of the message they receive. And despite
technological innovations such as spam filters and even new legislation
designed to combat spam, the problem will not go away easily. The reason
spammers-the people who and businesses that spread spam are difficult to
stop is that spam is so cost effective. It costs a spammer roughly one-
hundredth of a cent to send spam, which means that mail sent. This low rate
gives spammers a tremendous incentive to continue sending out millions and
millions of emails, even if the average person never purchased anything from
them. With so much at stake, spammers have gone to great lengths to avoid
or defeat spam blockers and filters. Most spam filters email on a fairly
primitive-fingerprinting system. In this system, a program several typical
spam message and identifies common features in them. Any arriving emails
that match these features are deleted. But the fingerprinting defense proves
quite easy for spammers to defeat. To confuse the program, a spammer
simply has to include a series of random characters or numbers. The
additions to the spam message change its-fingerprint and thus allow the
spam to escape detection. And when programmers modify the fingerprint
software to look for random strings of letters, spammers respond by
including. A second possible solution takes advantages of a computer's
limited learning abilities. So called-smart filters use complex algorithms,
which allow the to recognize new version of spam message. These filters
may be initially fooled by random characters or bogus content, but they soon
learn to identify these features. Unfortunately, spammers have learned how
to avoid these smart filters as well.

The following statements describe spam , except …


A. it affects millions of internet users
B. it totals more than 80% of emails
C. it is beneficial to the general public
D. it is an unwanted massage for mass audience

28 Although it seems like the spread of spam-unwanted junk e-mail sent to


millions of people each day-is a recent problem, spam has been around as
long as the Internet has. In fact, the first document case of spam occurred in
1978, when a computer company sent out 400 e-mails via the Arpanet, the
precursor to the modern internet. Now, spam emails account for more than
two-thirds of all the emails sent over the internet, and for some unlucky
users, spam makes up 80 percent of the message they receive. And despite
technological innovations such as spam filters and even new legislation
designed to combat spam, the problem will not go away easily. The reason
spammers-the people who and businesses that spread spam are difficult to
stop is that spam is so cost effective. It costs a spammer roughly one-
hundredth of a cent to send spam, which means that mail sent. This low rate
gives spammers a tremendous incentive to continue sending out millions and
millions of emails, even if the average person never purchased anything from
them. With so much at stake, spammers have gone to great lengths to avoid
or defeat spam blockers and filters. Most spam filters email on a fairly
primitive-fingerprinting system. In this system, a program several typical
spam message and identifies common features in them. Any arriving emails
that match these features are deleted. But the fingerprinting defense proves
quite easy for spammers to defeat. To confuse the program, a spammer
simply has to include a series of random characters or numbers. The
additions to the spam message change its-fingerprint and thus allow the
spam to escape detection. And when programmers modify the fingerprint
software to look for random strings of letters, spammers respond by
including. A second possible solution takes advantages of a computer's
limited learning abilities. So called-smart filters use complex algorithms,
which allow the to recognize new version of spam message. These filters
may be initially fooled by random characters or bogus content, but they soon
learn to identify these features. Unfortunately, spammers have learned how
to avoid these smart filters as well.

The word “ program “ in line 17 refers to …


A. a character or a number
B. a type of spam filter
C. a common feature
D. a fingerprint

29 Although it seems like the spread of spam-unwanted junk e-mail sent to


millions of people each day-is a recent problem, spam has been around as
long as the Internet has. In fact, the first document case of spam occurred in
1978, when a computer company sent out 400 e-mails via the Arpanet, the
precursor to the modern internet. Now, spam emails account for more than
two-thirds of all the emails sent over the internet, and for some unlucky
users, spam makes up 80 percent of the message they receive. And despite
technological innovations such as spam filters and even new legislation
designed to combat spam, the problem will not go away easily. The reason
spammers-the people who and businesses that spread spam are difficult to
stop is that spam is so cost effective. It costs a spammer roughly one-
hundredth of a cent to send spam, which means that mail sent. This low rate
gives spammers a tremendous incentive to continue sending out millions and
millions of emails, even if the average person never purchased anything from
them. With so much at stake, spammers have gone to great lengths to avoid
or defeat spam blockers and filters. Most spam filters email on a fairly
primitive-fingerprinting system. In this system, a program several typical
spam message and identifies common features in them. Any arriving emails
that match these features are deleted. But the fingerprinting defense proves
quite easy for spammers to defeat. To confuse the program, a spammer
simply has to include a series of random characters or numbers. The
additions to the spam message change its-fingerprint and thus allow the
spam to escape detection. And when programmers modify the fingerprint
software to look for random strings of letters, spammers respond by
including. A second possible solution takes advantages of a computer's
limited learning abilities. So called-smart filters use complex algorithms,
which allow the to recognize new version of spam message. These filters
may be initially fooled by random characters or bogus content, but they soon
learn to identify these features. Unfortunately, spammers have learned how
to avoid these smart filters as well.

Smart filters are superior to fingerprinting system because smart filters …


A. are eventually able to recognize new versions of spam
B. have the ability to learn from their previous mistakes
C. do not need to find common features to detect spam
D. are not fooled by random characters or content

30 Although it seems like the spread of spam-unwanted junk e-mail sent to


millions of people each day-is a recent problem, spam has been around as
long as the Internet has. In fact, the first document case of spam occurred in
1978, when a computer company sent out 400 e-mails via the Arpanet, the
precursor to the modern internet. Now, spam emails account for more than
two-thirds of all the emails sent over the internet, and for some unlucky
users, spam makes up 80 percent of the message they receive. And despite
technological innovations such as spam filters and even new legislation
designed to combat spam, the problem will not go away easily. The reason
spammers-the people who and businesses that spread spam are difficult to
stop is that spam is so cost effective. It costs a spammer roughly one-
hundredth of a cent to send spam, which means that mail sent. This low rate
gives spammers a tremendous incentive to continue sending out millions and
millions of emails, even if the average person never purchased anything from
them. With so much at stake, spammers have gone to great lengths to avoid
or defeat spam blockers and filters. Most spam filters email on a fairly
primitive-fingerprinting system. In this system, a program several typical
spam message and identifies common features in them. Any arriving emails
that match these features are deleted. But the fingerprinting defense proves
quite easy for spammers to defeat. To confuse the program, a spammer
simply has to include a series of random characters or numbers. The
additions to the spam message change its-fingerprint and thus allow the
spam to escape detection. And when programmers modify the fingerprint
software to look for random strings of letters, spammers respond by
including. A second possible solution takes advantages of a computer's
limited learning abilities. So called-smart filters use complex algorithms,
which allow the to recognize new version of spam message. These filters
may be initially fooled by random characters or bogus content, but they soon
learn to identify these features. Unfortunately, spammers have learned how
to avoid these smart filters as well.
From the text we can conclude that spammer’s …
A. have always managed to get responses from internet users
B. produce spam that can never be detected by spam blockers
C. have been able to sell cheap products to users
D. make a big profit from the combat against spam blockers

31 “ I haven’t got the report on the seminar held last week “


“ I’m sure it ____ on your desk yesterday “

32 “ Your train was delayed , wasn’t it ? “


“ Yes , therefore , when I arrived , the driver picking me up ___ for more
than an hour . “

33 “ What it are the workmen doing in your garden ?”


“ Oh , I ____ “

34 “ even though he has seen a doctor , I can see that his condition is not
improving “
“ ______ a specialist then !”

35 “ How did your sister get a scholarship to study in japan ?”


“ she got it after _____ A writing competition . “

36 “ You seem to be waiting for something these days.”


“ That’s true ; I’m waiting ____ for an interview .”

37 “ Has mother finally decided what to buy for herself?”


“ I don’t know ; let’s ask her what ____ “

38 X : “When are you going to tell your sister the good news ?”
Y : “When she____ from her business trip .”

39 “ which dress shall I wear ?”


“ I think the blue dress is____ the green one “

40 “ There's a letter stating that Darius has to leave the U.S . next week .”
“ well , he _____ the news right away then .”

41 After the student has completed the test Day handed in the paper and left the
room .We can also say : _____that the students in the paper and left the room

42 ____ the demands of aeroscape , medicine , and agriculture , engineers are


creating ecxotic new metallic subtances.

43 The financial report states that the petty cash has been used for reimbursing
transportation cost and ___ computers .

44 “ Your train was delayed , wasn’t it ? “


“ Yes , therefore , when I arrived , the driver picking me up ___ for more
than an hour . “

45 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase

Imagine the Advertiser’s Chagrin when he realized that he had put the wrong
date in the ad.

46 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase

Mathematic is a compulsory subject in Indonesian high schools.

47 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase

The gas company detected a leak in the main line an evacuated all the tenants
of the building

48 ____ no real boundary to the part of the ocean referred to as a “ deep “


because of changing water levels and movement in the sea floor .

49 World trade patterns are indicative of the important economic issues _____
confront the world today

50 sense, to name any closed low pressure circulation. Tornadoes come in


many shapes and sizes, but and is often encircled by a cloud of debris and
dust. Most tornadoes have wind speeds less than, in rare cases, the base of
a cumulus cloud. They are often A referred to as twisters or cyclones,
although the word cyclone is used in meteorology, in a wider they are
typically in the form of a visible condensation funnel, whose narrow end
touches the earth earth and a cumulonimbus cloud tornado is a violently
rotating column of air that is in contact with both the surface of the 110 miles
per hour (177 km / h), are about 250 feet (76 m) across, and travel a few
miles (severan kilometers) before dissipating. The most extreme tornadoes
can attain wind speeds of more than 300 miles per hour (483 km / h), stretch
more than two miles (3.2 km) across, and stay on the ground for dozens of
miles (more than 100 km). Various types of tornadoes include the landspout,
multiple vortex tornado, and waterspout. Waterspouts are characterized by
a spiraling funnel-shaped wind current, connecting to a large cumulus or
cumulonimbus cloud. They are generally classified as non-supercellular
tornadoes that develop over bodies of water, but there is disagreement over
whether to classify them as true tornadoes. These spiraling columns of air
frequently develop in tropical areas close to the equator, and are less
common at high latitudes. Other tornado-like phenomena that exist in nature
include the gustnado, dust devil, fire whirls, and steam devil; downbursts
are frequently confused with tornadoes, though their action is
dissimilar. Tornadoes have been observed on every continent except
Antarctica. However, the vast majority of tornadoes occur in the Tornado
Alley region of the United States, although they can occur nearly anywhere
in North America. They also occasionally occur in south-central and eastern
Asia, northern and east-central South America, Southern Africa,
northwestern and southeast Europe, western and southeastern Australia, and
New Zealand. Tornadoes can be detected before or as they occur through
the use of Pulse-Doppler radar by recognizing patterns in velocity and
reflectivity data. such as hook echoes or debris balls, as well as through the
efforts of storm spotters
“... and travel a few miles (several kilometers) before dissipating “.
(paragraph 1)
The underline word has the opposite meaning to …

MATEMATIKA SMA

1 1 𝑥−𝑦+2𝑧+2
Hasil penjumlahan dari x, y, dan z yang memenuhi 32x+y-z = (27) ,
1
1 𝑥
log (x – y + z) = 1 + 02 log 5 dan | 2 | = 2 adalah ….
2𝑦 2
16
A. − 3
26
B. − 3

C. -1
4
D. − 3
5
E. − 3

2 2 −1
Diberikan fungsi f(x) = x2 – x – 2 dan matriks A = ( ),maka det (f(A))
3 2
adalah ….
A. 3
B. 9
C. 12
D. 18
E. 36

3 Susi mempunyai 4 mobil yang masing-masing berusia 1, 2, 3, dan 4 tahun.


Jika harga tiap mobil tersebut berkurang menjadi setengah kali harga jual
tiap tahunnya dengan harga awal tiap mobil adalah Rp 200.000.000,00,
maka harga jual mobil-mobil tersebut adalah ….
A. Rp 200.000.000,00
B. Rp 187.500.000,00
C. Rp 175.000.000,00
D. Rp 165.000.000,00
E. Rp 150.000.000,00

4 1 1
Jika A(x) = 2 (𝑝 𝑥 − 𝑝−𝑥 ) dan B(x) = 2 (𝑝 𝑥 + 𝑝−𝑥 ), dengan p > 1, maka

B(nx) adalah …
1
𝑥
A. (B(𝑥 ) – A(𝑥 ))𝑛 + 𝐴 (𝑛)
1
B. (B(𝑥 ) – A(𝑥 ))𝑛 + 𝐴(𝑛𝑥 )
C. (B(𝑥 ) – A(𝑥 ))𝑛 + 𝐴(𝑛𝑥 )
D. (−B(𝑥 ) + A(𝑥 ))𝑛 + 𝐴(𝑛𝑥 )
𝑥
E. (−B(𝑥 ) + A(𝑥 ))𝑛 + 𝐴 (𝑛)

5 Nilai x yang memenuhi persamaan 104 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 − 5(10)2 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 = −4 adalah


….
A. 1
B. 4
C. 1 atau 2
D. 1 atau 4
E. 2 atau 4

6 Jika 𝑥1 . 𝑥2 adalah akar-akar 16𝑥 − 4𝑥 − 4𝑥+2 − 2 . 4𝑥+3 + 𝑐 = 0 dimana


3
𝑥1 + 𝑥2 = 2 . log 2 3, maka nilai c adalah …

A. 36
B. 27
C. 16
D. 9
E. 4

7 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 𝑏𝑏log 4
Jika { 3 dan log 3 𝑎 = 𝑥 + 𝑦, maka a adalah ….
𝑥 − 3𝑦 = √216
A. 2
B. 7
C. 9
D. 12
E. 16

8 Jika sudut lancip x memenuhi log sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥 + log sin 𝑥 cos 2 𝑥 =
3 + log sin 𝑥 3√3, maka tan x adalah ….
A. 1
B. √6
1
C. 3
√3

D. √3
E. 3√3

2 +𝑥−12
9 Diketahui f(x) = 2𝑥 dan g(x) = 42𝑥−7 . Jika (a,b) adalah interval
dengan grafik y = f(x) berada di bawah grafik y = g(x), maka nilai 𝑎2 + 𝑏2
adalah ….
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 13
E. 17

10 Semua nilai x yang memenuhi pertidaksamaan log |1−𝑥| (𝑥 + 5) > 2 adalah


….
A. -1 < x < 1
B. -1 < x < 0 atau 2 < x < 4
C. -5 < x < 1
D. -1 < x < 0 atau 1 < x < 4
E. 1 < x < 2

11 Gina menabung sejumlah uang di Bank dengan suku bunga 20% per tahun.
Dalam waktu 3 tahun uang Gina menjadi Rp. 345.600,00. Agar tabungan
Gina lebih dari Rp 497.664,00, maka lamaya waktu yang diperlukan oleh
Gina untuk menabung adalah ….
A. Kurang dari 2 tahun
B. Lebih dari 3 tahun
C. Lebih dari 5 tahun
D. Lebih dari 9 tahun
E. 10 tahun

12 Balok ABCD.EFGH dengan alas berbentuk persegi, AB = 6 cm, AE = 8


cm. Jika ∝ adalah sudut antara bidang ACH dan bidang ABCD, maka nilai
dari cos ∝ adalah ….
6
A. 41
√41
4
B. 41
√41
1
C.
41
√41
3
D. 41
√41
2
E. 41
√41

13 Daerah R persegi panjang yang memiliki titik sudut (-1,1), (4,1), (-1,-5),
dan (4,-5). Suatu titik akan dipilih dari R. Probabilitas akan terpilihnya titik
3
yang berada di atas garis 𝑦 = 2 𝑥 − 5 adalah ….

A. 1/5
B. 2/5
C. 3/5
D. ¼
E. ¾

14 Tono mengetos 2 buah dadu, peluang Tono mendapatkan jumlah mata dadu
5 sebanyak 3 kali dalam 4 percobaan sebanyak …
16
A. 272
18
B. 322
18
C. 812
32
D. 812
16
E. 812

15 Diberikan fungsi f: R → R dengan f(log 2 4𝑥) = 2𝑥 + 1. Jika 𝑓 −1 adalah


invers dari fungsi f, maka nilai dari 𝑓 −1 (3) adalah …
A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
E. -1

16 Diberikan fungsi f dan g dengan f(x – 2) = 3x2 – 16x + 26 dan g(x) = ax – 1.


Jika (f o g)(3) = 61, maka nilai a yang memenuhi adalah ….
A. -2
B. 8/9
C. 9/8
D. 2
E. 4

17 𝑥+1
Jika fungsi f dan g mempunyai invers dan memenuhi f(2x) = x dan g(𝑥+2) =

2𝑥, untuk x ≠ -2, maka (f o g)-1(x) adalah …


A. x
B. 2x
2𝑥−1
C. 2𝑥−2
2𝑥−1
D. 1−𝑥
𝑥+1
E. 𝑥+2

18 Diketahui dua buah fungsi f(x) = 10x dan g(x) = x2 + 5, maka f-1(g(x2)) adalah
….
A. log x2
B. log (x4 + 5)
C. log x4 – 5
D. log x4 + 5
E. log (x2 + 5)

19 2 𝑥−1
Jika f-1(𝑥+2) = 𝑥+2, maka nilai a agar f(a) = -1 adalah ….

A. ½
B. 3/2
C. 1
D. 2
E. 5/2

20 Jika fungsi f dan g mempunyai invers memenuhi f(x + 5) = g(2x – 3) maka


nilai dari 2f-1(x) adalah ….
A. g-1(x) + 13
B. g-1(x) – 10
C. g-1(x) + 5
𝑥
D. g-1(2)+ 4

E. g-1(2x) – 6

21 Graph y = ax2 + 3x + c through point (1,5). If the graph of the derivative is


y’ = f'(x) through point (2, -5), then …
A. a = - 2 and c = 4
B. a = 5 and c = - 3
C. a = 1 and c = 1
D. a = 2 and c = 0
E. a = - 3 and c = 5
22 Given that the curve f(x) = (a + 1)x2 - bx + a + b intersects the x-axis at two
different points. If f(x) is divided by x remainder -a, then ...
A. – ½ < a < 0
B. – 2 < a < 0
C. a < - ½ or a > 0
D. a < -2 or a > 0
E. a < 0 or a > ½

23 The line g goes through the point (2,4) and pertains to the parabola y2 = 8x.
if line h passes through (0,0) and is perpendicular to line g, then the equation
for line h is….
A. x + y = 0
B. x – y = 0
C. x + 2y = 0
D. x – 2y = 0
E. 2x + y = 0

24 𝑘
A value of k between 0 and π which gives ∫0 (sin 𝑥 + cos 𝑥)𝑑𝑥 is the
maximum….
5𝜋
A.
4
3𝜋
B. 4
2𝜋
C.
3
𝜋
D.
3
𝜋
E. 2

25 The slope of the tangent to the curve y = f(x) at point (x,y) is 3x2 + 4x + 6.
If the curve passes through the point (1,14), then it intersects the y-axis at….
A. (0,5)
B. (0, 4 ½ )
C. (0,4)
D. (0,3)
E. (0,2)

26 If the curve y = f(x) through (-1,1) and the slope of the tangent at each point
is m(x) = 3x(x - 2), then the curve intersects the y axis at point (0,c), with c
….
A. – 8
B. – 5
C. 0
D. 5
E. 8

27 𝑑𝑥
Value for ∫ 1+cos 𝑥 is ….
A. cot x + sec x + c
B. cot x - csc x + c
C. - cot x + csc x + c
D. - cot x - sec x + c
E. cot x + 2 sec x + c

28 Value for ∫ sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 − ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 is …


A. cos x – ¼ cos4 x + c
B. - cos x + ¼ cos4 x + c
C. - cos x – ¼ cos4 x + c
1
D. cos3 x + c
3
1
E. − 3cos3 x + c

29 Value for ∫(sin 𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛5 𝑥 + ⋯) 𝑑𝑥 is ….


A. ∞
B. ctg x + c
C. sec x + c
D. sec x + sin x + c
E. cosec x + c

30 The area of R is limited by y = √𝑥, y = x, for x ∈ [0,2]. The volume of the


solid that is obtained by rotating R about the x-axis is….
𝜋
A. 2

B. 𝜋
3𝜋
C. 2

D. 2π
5𝜋
E.
4

31 1 1 1 1 1
Nilai dari 10−2021 +1 + 10−2020 +1 + 10−2019+1 + ⋯ + 100 +1 + ⋯ + 102019+1 +
1 1
+ 102021+1 adalah ….
102020+1

32 Sebuah kapal berlayar dari pelabuhan A ke pelabuhan B dengan jurusan


120o sejauh 40 km. kemudian, kapal berlayar menuju pelabuhan C dengan
jurusan 240o sejauh 80 km. jarak antara pelabuhan A dan C adalah … km

33 Seorang ayah meninggalkan warisan sebesar Rp 100.000.000,00 untuk


dibagikan kepada 5 orang anaknya dengan ketentuan:
• Si bungsu mendapat warisan paling banyak
• Selisih yang diterima oleh dua anak berurutan adalah Rp 5.000.000,00
Banyaknya warisan yang didapatkan oleh Si Sulung sebesar …

34 Banyaknya penduduk suatu negara adalah 210 juta jiwa dan 60% di
antaranya mempunyai hak pilih dengan komposisi 70% laki-laki dan
sisanya perempuan. Jika 15% dari pemilih laki-laki dan 15% dari pemilih
perempuan tidak menggunakan hak pilihnya, maka banyaknya orang yang
tidak menggunakan hak pilihnya adalah …. Juta orang.
35 Jika median data pada tabel di bawah adalah 66,5, maka nilai x adalah ….
Interval Frekuensi
50-56 4
57-63 x
64-70 14
71-77 7
78-84 5

36 1
Hanya 3 dari seluruh perusahaan di suatu kota yang memberlakukan UMK

kepada karyawannya. Jika dipilih 10 perusahaan saja, maka peluang untuk


mendapatkan 3 perusahaan yang memberlakukan UMK kepada
karyawannya adalah ….

37 Kecepatan atau laju pertumbuhan penduduk suatu kota untuk t tahun yang
akan datang dinyatakan sebagai N(t) = 400t + 600√𝑡, 0 ≤ t ≤ 9. Jika banyak
penduduk saat ini adalah 5.000 jiwa, maka banyak penduduk 9 tahun yang
akan datang adalah ,,,, jiwa

38 36 3
Nilai dari ∫1 3 𝑑𝑥 adalah ….
√𝑥(3+√𝑥)2

39 0 6𝑥 2 −10𝑥+7
Jika ∫−2 (cos(−𝜋𝑘𝑥 ) + 𝑘+2
) 𝑑𝑥 = (𝑘 − 2)(𝑘 + 7). Untuk nilai k

bilangan bulat, maka k + 5 ….

40 1
Diketahui f(x) = |x – 1|. Nilai ∫0 𝑓 (𝑥 ) 𝑑𝑥 ….

41 1 𝑥 1 1
Jika ∫0 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑎, maka ∫0 𝑑𝑥 adalah ….
1+𝑥 1+𝑥
42 Diketahui prisma tegak ABC.DEF dengan luas bidang dasar 15 cm 2. Luas
ADBC = 25 cm2, BC = 5 cm. Tinggi prisma tersebut adalah … cm

43 Bidang U dan bidang V berpotongan pada garis g dengan sudut 𝛼. Titik P


1
berada pada bidang U dan berjarak 2√10 dari garis g. Jika tan 𝛼 = 3, maka

jarak titik P ke bidang V adalah ….

44 Seorang mahasiswa di luar negeri ingin menambah uang saku dengan cara
bekerja sambil kuliah. Ia hanya diperbolehkan bekerja selama 10 jam setiap
minggu. Dalam satu minggu ia dapat bekerja pada hari jum’at, sabtu, dan
minggu. Jika ia bekerja dihitung dalam satuan jam dan bekerja paling
sedikit 2 jam setiap hari, maka banyak komposisi lama jam kerja pada hari-
hari tersebut yang mungkin adalah ….

45 Seorang pemilik toko membuat nomor undian untuk pelanggannya yang


tersusun dari angka-angka 2, 3, 5, 8, dan 9. Jika nomor-nomor disusun
berdasarkan kodenya mulai dari yang terkecil, nomor undian 53829 berada
pada urutan ke- ….

46 A food store provides ice cream with 6 different flavors. The many ways a
buyer can choose 5 ice creams with 3 different flavors are….

47 If the line g: x – 2y = 5 intersects the circle x2 + y2 – 4x + 8y + 10 = 0 at


points A and B, then the area of the triangle formed by A, B, and the circle's
center is….

48 The Long and Short Hands of the Wall Clock


21

14

A wall clock has a 21 cm long hand with a P point and a 14 cm short needle
with a Q point that is formed from the center of the clock to the number 4.
The projection of the point P on the connecting line numbers 9 and 3 is the
point P' and the projection of Q on the connecting line it is Q'. If the starting
point of the short needle is O, then the length of OQ' reaches 7 cm at….

49 Given that triangle ABC with AC = 2, AB = 3, and BC = √7. If α represents


the angle BAC, β represents the angle ABC, p = cos 2α and q = cos 2β, then
8p2 + 7q equals… ..

𝜋
50 If x1 and x2 are the solution of csc2x + 3 csc x – 10 = 0,, where − 2 < 𝑥 <
𝜋 sin 𝑥1 +sin 𝑥2
, 𝑥 ≠ 0, then =⋯
2 sin 𝑥1 .sin 𝑥2
KIMIA SMA

11. Sebanyak 1 L larutan mengandung ion Ca2+ dan Mg2+ masing-masing 10-4
M ke dalam larutan tersebut ditambahkan larutan yang mengandung OH-.
Jika Ksp Ca(OH)2 = 5,5 × 10-6 dan Ksp Mg(OH)2 = 1,8 × 10-11, ion Ca2+ dan
Mg+2 akan terpisah pada pH .... (Diketahui: √2 = 1,4 dan log 4,2 = 0,6)
A. 3,4
B. 6,8
C. 5,3
D. 10,6
E. 11,0

2 Dalam suatu deretan peluruhan, yang dimulai dari 241


94Pu, dipancarkan

sebanyak 8 partikel alfa dan 5 partikel beta, inti terakhir yang terbentuk pada
deret ini adalah ….
241
A. 94Pu
209
B. 83Bi
209
C. 82Pb
221
D. 92U
209
E. 99Es

3 Larutan 0,1 M yang akan membentuk endapan dengan larutan 0,1 M KOH
berlebihan, tetapi tidak mengendap dengan larutan 0,1 M NH 3 berlebih
adalah ….
A. AgNO3
B. Cu(NO3)3
C. BaCl2
D. AlCl3
E. MgCl2
4 Bila diketahui:
X = CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
Y = CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
Z = HOCH2CH2CH2OH
Berdasarkan konsep kepolaran dan ikatan hidrogen, maka urutan kenaikan
kelarutan zat-zat tersebut di atas dalam air adalah ….
A. Z < Y < X
B. X < Z < Y
C. Y < Z < X
D. X < Y < Z
E. Y < X < Z

5 Di labolatorium, senyawa X dan senyawa Y yang terdapat dalam suatu


larutan dapat dipisahkan dengan cara kristalisasi fraksional. Teknik ini dapat
dilakukan karena X dan Y mempunyai perbedaan ….
A. Titik didih
B. Titik leleh
C. Massa jenis
D. Warna kristal
E. Kelarutan

6 Seorang siswa ingin mengukur 17,3 mL larutan standar. Ini bisa dilakukan
paling baik menggunakan wadah mana?
A. gelas kimia 25 mL
B. Pipet volumetrik 25 mL
C. 25 mL buret
D. Labu ukur 25 mL
E. gelas ukur 20 Ml
7 Jika asam klorida 6 M ditambahkan pada suatu contoh padatan, ternyata
dihasilkan suatu gas tak berwarna. Kemungkinan padatan tersebut adalah ….
A. Kalsium nitrat
B. Tembaga (II) klorida
C. Potasium sulfat
D. Sodium karbonat
E. Natrium klorida

8 Dua senyawa anorganik murni meleleh berturut-turut pada 112 oC dan 114
o
C. Jika sejumlah massa yang sama dari kedua senyawa tersebut
dicampurkan, campuran tersebut akan mulai meleleh pada suhu ….
A. Dibawah 112 oC
B. Pada 112 oC
C. Antara 112 oC dan 114 oC
D. Diatas 114 oC
E. Pada 114 oC

9 Cara membedakan dua contoh padatan putih, timbal (II) klorida dan perak
klorida adalah …
A. Tambahkan 10 mL air dingin pada kedua contoh. Perak klorida akan
larut
B. Tambahkan 10 mL air panas pada kedua contoh. Timbal (II) klorida
akan larut
C. Tambahkan 10 mL natrium klorida pada kedua contoh. Timbal (II)
klorida akan menjadi hangat dan menghasilkan gas klorin
D. Tambahkan 10 mL seng klorida pada kedua padatan. Perak klorida akan
berubah menjadi logam perak.
E. Tambahkan 10 mL seng klorida pada kedua padatan. Timbal (II) klorida
akan berubah menjadi logam timbal.
10 Suatu mineral yang mengandung besi (II) sulfida tetapi tidak mengandung
senyawa sulfida lain, direaksikan dengan asam klorida berlebih sehingga
menghasilkan asam sulfida. Bila 3,15 gram contoh mineral menghasilkan
448 mL gas asam sulfida (diukur pada 0 oC dan 760 mmHg), maka massa
besi (II) sulfida dalam contoh sebanyak ….
A. 20,4
B. 25,5
C. 55,8
D. 71,0
E. 98,9

11 Talium yang ditempatkan di alam mengandung dua isotop stabil, Tl-203 dan
Tl-205, dan mempunyai massa atom rata-rata sebesar 204,4, maka
persentase dari Tl-205 adalah ….
A. 14,0 %
B. 30,0 %
C. 50,0 %
D. 70,0 %
E. 80,0 %

12 Massa maksimum (dalam gram) NO yang dapat terbentuk dari reaksi antara
15,5 g N2O4 dan 4,86 g N2H4 (massa molar N2O4 = 92,0; N2H4 = 32,0)
dengan persamaan reaksi:
2N2O4 + N2H4 → 6NO + 2H2O
adalah ….
A. 4,38
B. 5,04
C. 15,2
D. 26,2
E. 52,4
13 Volume H2SO4 0,108 M yang diperlukan untuk menetralkan 25 mL KOH
0,145 M adalah …. mL
A. 16,8
B. 33,6
C. 37,2
D. 67,1
E. 124,2

14 Suatu campuran gas pada 27 oC dan 760 mmHg mengandung He, H2, N2 dan
CO2 masing-masing 1,0 gram, perbandingan kecepatan rata-rata
molekularnya adalah ….
A. He = H2 = N2 = CO2
B. CO2 < H2 = N2 < He
C. He < H2 < N2 < CO2
D. CO2 < N2 < He < H2
E. CO2 < H2 < N2 < He

15 Suatu wadah bervolume 2 L mempunyai massa 1050 g. Bila wadah tersebut


diisi dengan suatu gas pada tekanan 800 mmHg dan suhu 25 oC, massanya
menjadi 1052,4 g. Massa molar gas tersebut adalah …. g/mol
A. 28
B. 31
C. 54
D. 56
E. 98

16 Bila garam epsom mempunyai formula MgSO4.xH2O bila dipanaskan pada


temperatur 250oC akan mengalami reaksi:
MgSO4.xH2O(s) → MgSO4-(s) + xH2O(g)
Bila 5,061 gram MgSO4.xH2O dipanaskan ternyata terbentuk 2,472 gram
MgSO4. Berdasarkan data tersebut, maka formula garam epsom adalah
(MgSO4 = 120 g/mol, dan H2O = 18 g/mol)
A. MgSO4.3H2O
B. MgSO4.6H2O
C. MgSO4.7H2O
D. MgSO4.9H2O
E. MgSO4.14H2O

17 Reaksi brominasi aseton berlangsung sebagai berikut:


CH3COCH3(aq) + Br2(aq) → CH3COCH3(aq) + H+(aq) + Br-(aq)
Untuk menunjukkan laju reaksinya, diperoleh data (konsentrasi mula-mula
M) sebagai berikut:
[CH3COCH3(aq)] [Br2] awal [H+] awal Laju awal
awal (M) (M) (M) (M/s)
0,30 0,05 0,05 5,7 × 10-5
0,30 0,10 0,05 5,7 × 10-5
0,30 0,10 0,10 1,2 × 10-5
0,40 0,05 0,20 3,1 × 10-5
Persamaan laju reaksi brominasi berdasarkan data tersebut adalah ….
A. r = k[CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]
B. r = k[CH3COCH3][H+]
C. r = k[CH3COCH3][Br2]
D. r = k[CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]2
E. r = k[CH3COCH3][H+]2

18 Suatu senyawa mengandung kadar unsur (% berat) sebagai berikut: S =


35,97 %; O = 62,9 %; dan H = 1,13 %. Rumus molekul senyawa tersebut
adalah ….
A. H2SO3
B. H2S2O7
C. H2S2O8
D. H2SO4
E. H2SO7

19 Dalam larutan alkali, klorin akan berubah menjadi ion-ion Cl- dan ClO3-,
maka perbandingan ion Cl- dan ClO3- yang terbentuk adalah ….
A. 1 : 1
B. 2 : 1
C. 3 : 1
D. 5 : 1
E. 7 : 1

20 Bila 1,3 gram sulfur dilarutkan dalam 15 gram naftalena ternyata larutan
tersebut membeku pada 77,2 oC. Massa relatif dari sulfur tersebut adalah ….
(diketahui: titik beku naftalena = 80 oC dan Kf naftalena = 6,80 oC/m)
A. 180
B. 190
C. 240
D. 260
E. 300

21 If 0,1 M solution of HClO4, NH4Br, KOH, and KCN are dissolved in water
with the same volume, then if the solution formed is arranged according to
the increase in [H+] then the correct order is….
A. KOH < KCN < NH4Br < HClO4
B. KCN < KOH < HClO4 < NH4Br
C. HClO4 < NH4Br < KCN < KOH
D. NH4Br < HClO4 < KOH < KCN
E. KCN < NH4Br < KOH < HClO4

22 Is known:
CS2(l) + 3O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2SO2(g) ΔH = -1077 kJ
H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O2(l) ΔH = -188 kJ
H2(g) + ½ O2(g) → H2O2(l) ΔH = -286 kJ
ΔH value for the reaction:
CS2(l) + 6H2O2(l) → CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) + 2SO2(g) is …. kJ
A. -1175
B. -1551
C. -1665
D. -3921
E. -4000

23 Equilibrium reaction:
H2C2O4 + 2H2O ⇆ 2H3O+ + C2O42-
Oxalic acid, H2C2O4, is a diprotic acid with the equilibrium constant values
K1 = 5,36 × 10-2 and K2 = 5,3 × 10-5. Then the value of the reaction
equilibrium constant (K) is….
A. 5,36 × 10-2
B. 5,30 × 10-5
C. 2,80 × 10-6
D. 2,00 × 10-10
E. 2,00 × 10-13
24 Benzene and toluene form the ideal solution. The saturated vapor pressure
of toluene at 20 oC is 22 torr. For an equimolar mixture of benzene and
toluene at 20 oC, the toluene vapor pressure is… torr
A. 5,5
B. 11
C. 7,3
D. 44
E. 22

25 In a familiar classroom demonstration, concentrated H2SO4 is added to a


beaker containing sucrose (C12H22O11), to produce a column of carbon. In
this reaction the H2SO4 is acting primarily as a ….
A. Complexing agent
B. Dehydrating agent
C. Oxidizing agent
D. Precipitating agent
E. Reducing agent

26 A student is asked to determine the degree of hydration of a salt by finding


the mass of a clean dried crucible and lid followed by the mass of clean dried
crucible and lid containing a sample of the salt. The crucible, lid and salt are
heated in a Bunsen burner flame, cooled, and weighed. If the crucible, lid
and salt are heated only once instead of the recommended three times, what
will be the effect on the degree of hydration compared with the actual value?
A. Too high
B. Too low
C. Unaffected
D. Impossible to predict
E. Undefined
27 Magnetite, which has the formula Fe3O4, is comprised of iron (II) oxide and
iron (III) oxide. What is the ratio of iron (II) ions to iron (III) ions in
magnetite?
A. 1 : 1
B. 2 : 3
C. 1 : 2
D. 3 : 2
E. 2 : 1

28 C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O. What is the total mass, in grams, of products
when 2,20 g of propane is burned in excess oxygen?
A. 2,20
B. 6,60
C. 3,60
D. 10,2
E. 12,0

29 What volume, in mL, of concentrated sul-furic acid (18,0 M H2SO4) is


needed to prepare 2,50 L of a 1,00 M solution?
A. 7,20
B. 69,4
C. 14,4
D. 139
E. 150

30 The bromide impurity in a 2 g sample of a metal nitrate is precipitated as


silver bromide. If 6,4 mL of 0,2 M AgNO3 solution is required, what is the
mass percentage of bromide in the sample?
A. 1,28
B. 5,11
C. 2,56
D. 9,15
E. 10,5
31 Suatu campuran 0,1 mol N2 dan 0,2 mol O2 dikumpulkan di atas H2O pada
tekanan atmosfer 750 mmHg dan suhu 22 oC. Tekanan parsial O2 (dalam
mmHg) dalam campuran sebesar …..
(diketahui tekanan uap H2O pada suhu 22 oC adalah 22 mmHg)

32 C2H6(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(g) ΔHo = -1427,7 kJ


Bila entalpi penguapan untuk H2O(l) adalah 44,0 kJ/mol, maka ΔHo untuk
reaksi pembakaran di atas jika yang terbentuk adalah H2O(l) bukannya H2O(g)
adalah …. kJ

33 Suatu cincin emas seberat 3,81 g dipanaskan hingga 84 oC dan dimasukkan


ke dalam 50 g H2O yang bersuhu 22,1 oC, maka suhu akhirnya adalah …. oC
(Diketahui kalor jenis Au = 0,129 J/goC; H2O = 4,18 J/goC)

34 Perubahan entalpi, ΔH, untuk pembakaran 11,2 L gas hidrogen, yang diukur
pada 0 oC dan tekanan 1 atm, membentuk H2O(g) adalah …. kJ
(Diketahui ΔHfo H2O(g) = -241,8 kJ/mol)

35 Oksidasi ammonia menghasilkan nitrogen dan air sesuai dengan persamaan


berikut:
4NH3(g) + 3O2(g) → 2N2(g) + 6H2O(g)
Bila laju pembentukan N2 pada suhu tertentu adalah 3 mol/L.s, maka laju
pengurangan O2 adalah …. mol/L.s
36 Jika dalam larutan asam format (Ka = 1,7 × 10-4), konsentrasi ion hidrogen
[H+] = 2,3 × 10-3, maka konsentrasi asam format dalam mol/L sebanyak ….

37 Diketahui potensial reduksi standart


Zn2+(aq) + 2e → Zn(s) Eo = - 0,763 V
Tl+(aq) + e → Tl(s) Eo = - 0,336 V
Potensial sel standart Eosel, untuk reaksi berikut adalah … V
Zn(s) + 2Tl+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + 2Tl(s)

38 Volume zat cair A yang memiliki massa yang sama dengan 80 cm 3 zat cair
B… cm3
Massa jenis (g / cm3) cairan A = 0,66 dan cairan B = 1,59

39 Asetilen, C2H2, bereaksi dengan O2 menghasilkan CO2 dan H2O.


Perbandingan O2 : C2H2 dalam persamaan kesetimbangan tersebut adalah ....

40 Mg(OH)2 digunakan untuk menetralkan asam lambung yang berlebih.


Berapa mol asam lambung yang bisa dinetralkan oleh 1 g Mg(OH)2 adalah…
..
Massa molar Mg (OH) 2 = 58,33 g / mol

41 Sampel 25 mL 0,015 M H2SO4 dititrasi dengan larutan NaOH dengan


konsentrasi yang tidak diketahui. Titik akhir fenolftalein tercapai ketika
17,23 mL larutan NaOH telah ditambahkan. Berapa konsentrasi NaOH….
M

42 Sebuah sampel gas oksigen ditimbang secara terpisah dalam labu dievakuasi
yang sama. Gunakan data yang diberikan untuk mencari massa molar dari
gas yang tidak diketahui (eksperimen aaume dilakukan pada tekanan dan
suhu yang sama).
Data:
Massa labu evakuasi = 124,46 g
Massa labu + oksigen = 125,1 g
Massa labu + gas tidak diketahui = 125,34 g

43 Untuk reaksi yang ditampilkan, yang mendekati nilai ΔH adalah… .. kJ


2Cr3+(aq) + 3Ni(s) → 2Cr(s) + 3Ni2+(aq)
ΔHfo Cr3+(aq) = 143 kJ/mol
ΔHfo Ni2+(aq) = -54 kJ/mol

44 Es batu pada suhu 0 oC ditempatkan dalam 200 g air suling pada suhu 25 oC.
Suhu akhir setelah es mencair seluruhnya adalah 5 oC, berapa massa es
batu…. g
(ΔHfus = 340 Jg-1, Cp = 4,18 Jg-1 oC-1)

45 Sebanyak 1 L larutan mengandung 0,01 mol NH4OH dan 0,01 mol NiCl2.
Banyaknya mol NH4CI yang harus ditambahkan ke dalam larutan agar
Ni(OH)2 tidak mengendap adalah ... mol
(Kb NH4OH = 1 × 10-5, Ksp Ni(OH)2 = 5 × 10-16)

46 In standard conditions HCl gas is flowed in 200 mL of 0,25 M KOH solution.


The gas flow is stopped when the volume of HCl gas is exactly x mL. If the
excess KOH solution can be neutralized by 50 mL of 0,4 M H2SO4 solution,
the x value is …. mL

47 A total of 100 mL of Ba(OH)2 solution with pH = 13 are added to 150 mL


of 0,2 M HCOOH solution. If you know Ka, HCOOH = 2 × 10-4, the pH of
the solution formed is….
48 The amount of sodium benzoate salt (C6H5COONa) that must be dissolved
in 200 mL of water in order to obtain a solution with pH = 11 is…. gram
(Ka C6H5COONa = 5 ×10-10 dan Mr C6H5COONa = 144 g mol-1)

49 An ice cube of unknown mass at 0 oC is added to 265 g of H2O at 25 oC in a


calorimeter. If the final temperature of the resulting H2O is 21,7 oC, what is
the mass of the ice cube?
Properties of water
CP 4,18 J.g-1.K-1
ΔHfustion 333 J.g-1

50 Hydrazine, N2H4, contains a N-N single bond and 4 N-H bonds. Une bond
energies to calculate ΔH in kJ for the reaction;
N2 + 2H2 → N2H4
Bond energies (kJ/mol)
H-H = 436 N-N = 159 N≡N = 941
N-H = 389 N=N = 418
FISIKA SMA

1 Pemikiran-pemikiran para ilmuwan yang bergerak dalam bidang fisika


menggambarkan rasa ingin tahu yang diiringi dengan rasa percaya diri
terhadap suatu fenomena fisis menunjukkan bahwa …..
A. Fisika sebagai proses
B. Fisika sebagai proses
C. Fisika sebagai proses
D. Fisika sebagai proses
E. Fisika sebagai proses

2 Setelah melakukan percobaan, seorang ilmuwan ternyata mendapatkan hasil


yang tidak sesuai dengan hipotesis yang telah dirumuskan sebelumnya.
Sikap yang seharusnya diambil oleh ilmuwan tersebut adalah ….
A. Melakukan percobaan ulang hingga hipotesisnya dapat terbukti
B. Melakukan penelitian dengan judul baru
C. Tetap menyelesaikan penelitian dan data hasil percobaan yang tidak
sesuai hipotesis menjadi rujukan untuk percobaan selanjutnya
D. Mengubah hipotesis agar sesuai dengan hasil percobaan
E. Tidak melanjutkan penelitian karena hipotesis yang tidak terbukti sama
dengan bentuk kegagalan dalam penelitian

3 Sebuah mobil bermassa 1 ton bergerak dari kota A ke kota B sejumlah 3 km


ke arah timur dan kemudian berbelok ke arah utara sejauh 4 km selama 1,5
jam.
Perjalanan mobil tersebut dapat digambarkan dalam waktu berikut ini.

Massa mobil 1.000 kg


Waktu tempuh hingga kota C 1,5 Jam
Jarak tempuh mobil sampai di kota C 7 km
Perpindahan mobil sampai di kota C 5 km
Kelajuan mobil sampai di kota C 14
km/jam
3

Kecepatan mobil sampai di kota C 10


km/jam
3

Dari data tabel perjalanan mobil tersebut yang termasuk ke dalam besaran
vektor adalah ….
A. Massa dan waktu tempuh mobil
B. Waktu dan jarak tempuh mobil
C. Perpindahan dan kelajuan mobil
D. Perpindahan dan kecepatan mobil
E. Kelajuan dan kecepatan mobil

4 Ditentukan 2 buah vektor yang sama besarnya dengan F. Bila perbandingan


antara besar jumlah dan besar selisih kedua vektor sama dengan √3, maka
sudut yang dibentuk kedua vektor itu adalah …. o
A. 30
B. 37
C. 45
D. 60
E. 120

5 Satu partikel bergerak sepanjang sumbu-X, dimana posisinya dinyatakan


oleh: x = 5t2 + 1, x dalam meter dan t dalam sekon, kecepatan rata-rata dalam
selang waktu antara 2 sekon dan 3 sekon adalah … m/s
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 40
E. 50
6 Tabel di bawah menggambarkan kecepatan tiga benda yang bergerak dalam
selang waktu yang sama.

Kecepatan
Waktu
Benda A Benda B Benda C
t(s) v (m/s) v (m/s) v (m/s)
2 10 10 10
4 5 10 10
6 15 15 20
8 10 20 30
10 20 5 20
12 30 10 15
Berdasarkan data tersebut dapat disimpulkan benda yang mengalami
percepatan terbesar adalah ….
A. Benda A untuk t = 10 s sampai t = 12 s
B. Benda B untuk t = 8 s sampai t = 10 s
C. Benda B untuk t = 4 s sampai t = 6 s
D. Benda C untuk t = 6 s sampai t = 8 s
E. Benda C untuk t = 8 s sampai t = 10 s

7 Mobil sport bergerak dipercepat dengan percepatan tetap dari keadaan diam
sampai mencapai kecepatan 108 km/jam dalam waktu 8 detik. Jarak yang
ditempuh selama selang waktu tersebut adalah …. m
A. 9.060
B. 480
C. 120
D. 60
E. 564
8 Dua buah kendaraan meninggalkan tempat yang sama dengan beda waktu
30 menit. Kendaraan yang pertama mempunyai kelanjutan tetap 40 km/jam
dan kendaraan yang kedua mempunyai kelanjutan tetap 60 km/jam.
Kendaraan kedua akan menyusul kendaraan pertama pada selang waktu …
menit
A. 30
B. 40
C. 60
D. 90
E. 120

9 Dua orang anak bermain bola. Keduanya melepas bola ke atas dari
ketinggian yang sama dengan perbandingan kecepatan awal 1:2.
Perbandingan tinggi maksimum kedua bola jika diukur dari ketinggian
semula adalah ….
A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : 3
C. 1 : 4
D. 2 : 3
E. 3 : 4

10 Suatu benda dilemparkan vertikal ke atas dari permukaan bumi dengan


kecepatan awal vo m/s percepatan gravitasi g. Tinggi maksimum yang
dicapai h. Jika benda tersebut dilemparkan vertikal ke atas dari permukaan
sebuah planet dengan kecepatan awal 2 vo m/s dan percepatan gravitasi di
planet itu 2 g, maka tinggi maksimum di planet adalah …. h
A. 0,25
B. 0,50
C. 1
D. 2,0
E. 4,0

11 Sebuah peluru ditembakkan dari puncak menara yang tingginya 500 meter
dengan kecepatan 100 m/s dan arah mendatar. Apabila g = 10 m/s2 maka
peluru akan menyentuh tanah jika dihitung dari kaki menara adalah pada
jarak …. M
A. 1.000
B. 900
C. 800
D. 600
E. 500

12 Sebuah benda dilemparkan ke atas dengan kecepatan awal 40 m/s dan


membentuk sudut elevasi 30o. Kecepatan benda pada saat mencapai
ketinggian maksimum adalah …. m/s
A. 0
B. 20
C. 20√3
D. 40
E. 40√3

13 Sebuah benda dilemparkan vertikal ke atas dengan kecepatan awal vo,


percepatan gravitasi bumi g, maka tinggi maksimum yang dapat dicapai h
adalah …
2𝑣𝑜
A. 𝑔
𝑣𝑜
B. 2𝑔

𝑣𝑜2
C. 2𝑔

𝑣𝑜2
D.
𝑔
2𝑣𝑜2
E. 2𝑔

14 Suatu benda jatuh dari ketinggian tertentu. Apabila gesekan benda dengan
udara diabaikan, kecepatan benda pada saat menyentuh tanah ditentukan
oleh ….
A. Massa benda dan ketinggiannya
B. Percepatan gravitasi bumi dan massa benda
C. Ketinggian benda jatuh dan gravitasi
D. Waktu jatuh yang diperlukan dan berat benda
E. Kecepatan awal benda dan gravitasi

15 Dua buah benda masing-masing massanya 𝑚1 dan 𝑚2 , jatuh bebas dari


ketinggian yang sama pada tempat yang sama. Jika 𝑚1 = 2𝑚2, maka
percepatan benda pertama adalah …
A. 2 × percepatan benda kedua
1
B. × percepatan benda kedua
2

C. Sama dengan percepatan benda kedua


1
D. 4
× percepatan benda kedua

E. 4 × percepatan benda kedua

16 Benda jatuh bebas adalah benda yang memiliki:


(1) Kecepatan awal nol
(2) Percepatan = percepatan gravitasi
(3) Arah percepatan ke pusat bumi
(4) Besar percepatan tergantung dari massa benda
Pernyataan di atas yang benar ditunjukkan oleh nomor ….
A. (1), (2), dan (3)
B. (1), (2), (3), dan (4)
C. (1), (3), dan (4)
D. (2), (3), dan (4)
E. (2) dan (4)

17 Sebuah benda dilepaskan tanpa kecepatan awal dari sebuah menara yang
tingginya 100 m. (gesekan udara diabaikan). Jika percepatan gravitasi 10
m.s-2, maka ketinggian benda yang diukur dari tanah pada detik ke-2 adalah
…. m
A. 20
B. 25
C. 50
D. 70
E. 80

18 Seorang siswa menjatuhkan benda dari gedung bertingkat tanpa kecepatan


awal. Seorang temannya mengatur waktu benda sampai jatuh ke tanah,
hasilnya 2 sekon. Jika kecepatan gravitasi di tempat itu 9,8 m/s 2, maka tinggi
tempat gedung itu berada adalah …. m
A. 4,9
B. 9,8
C. 1,8
D. 19,6
E. 39,2

19 Seorang siswa menerjunkan diri dari papan kolam renang setinggi 8 meter
dari permukaan air tanpa kecepatan awal. Jika massa siswa tersebut 40 kg
dan gravitasi 10 m/s2, maka kecepatan siswa tersebut saat membentur
permukaan air adalah …. m/det
A. 80
B. 16
C. 4√10
D. 4√5
E. 4√2

20 Sebuah benda dijatuhkan dari ketinggian h di atas tanah. Setelah sampai di


tanah kecepatannya 10 m/s, maka waktu yang diperlukan untuk mencapai
1
ketinggian 2 h dari tanah (g = 10 m/s2) adalah …. S
1
A. 2
√2
B. 1
C. √2
D. 5
E. 5√2

21 The amount of work to move the car (the mass of the car and its contents is
1000 kg) from rest to reach a speed of 72 kg/hour is …. (friction ignored)
A. 1,25 × 104 J
B. 2,50 × 104 J
C. 2,00 × 105 J
D. 6,25 × 105 J
E. 4,00 × 106 J

22 A child throws a stone with an initial speed of 12,5 m.s-1 and an angle of 30o
with the horizontal. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m.s -2, how long
does it take the stone to reach the ground …. s
A. 0,40
B. 0,60
C. 1,25
D. 1,60
E. 2,50
23 A bullet is placed in such a way that its range is equal to three times its
maximum height. If the angle of elevation then the object tan α is ….
4
A. 3

B. 1
3
C. 4
1
D. 2
1
E.
4

24 Two bullets A and B are fired from the same rifle with the same initial
velocity but the angle of elevation of the object is 45 o and 60o, then the ratio
of the distance between A and B is ....
1
A.
√3

√3
B. 2
2
C. 3
√3
√3
D.
√2

√3
E. 4

25 Two moons and the planet Jupiter have the same radius, while their masses
are in a 3 : 2 ratio, then the ratio of the acceleration due to gravity on the
surface is...
A. 9 : 4
B. 2 : 3
C. 3 : 2
D. 6 : 1
E. 4 : 9
26 A ball is kicked with a speed of 6,5 m/s making an initial angle (sin α = 12),
13

and g = 10 m/s2, then the time it takes the ball to reach the ground again is
…. s
A. 3
B. 2,2
C. 2
D. 1,2
E. 1

27 A particle rotates with a constant angular velocity of 3𝜋 rad/s. If within 2,4


2

seconds. The particle travels an angular distance of 12,5, so the initial


angular distance from θ = 0 is …. rad
A. 1,2
B. 2,4
C. 4,8
D. 9,6
E. 10,8

28 The toy car moves in a circular path of radius 2 m. If the angular speed of
the car is 40 rpm, what is the linear velocity and centripetal acceleration of
the toy …
4𝜋 8𝜋2
A. 𝑚. 𝑠 −1 and 𝑚. 𝑠 −2
3 9
6𝜋 12𝜋2
B. 𝑚. 𝑠 −1 and 𝑚. 𝑠 −2
3 9
8𝜋 32𝜋2
C. 𝑚. 𝑠 −1 and 𝑚. 𝑠 −2
3 9
10𝜋 20𝜋2
D. 𝑚. 𝑠 −1 and 𝑚. 𝑠 −2
3 9
12𝜋 824
E. 𝑚. 𝑠 −1 and 𝑚. 𝑠 −2
3 9
29 A wheel pulley rotates at 300 rpm (rotations per minute), then the linear
velocity of the particle located at a distance of 150 mm from the center point
is ....
A. 0,5 𝜋 m/s
B. 0,75 𝜋 m/s
C. 𝜋 m/s
D. 1,5 𝜋 m/s
E. 2 𝜋 m/s

30 A block of mass 50 kg is placed on a smooth horizontal floor, then it is pulled


by a horizontal force of 75 N to the right and a horizontal force of 40 N is
pulled to the left. The block is moving with acceleration ....
A. 0,7 m/s2 to the right
B. 0,7 m/s2 to the left
C. 0,8 m/s2 to the right
D. 0,8 m/s2 to the left
E. 1,5 m/s2 to the right

31 Pada tendangan bebas sebuah permainan sepak bola, bola ditendang


melayang di udara selama 4 sekon. Jika gesekan dengan udara diabaikan dan
g = 10 m/s2, maka jarak antara titik awal dan titik jatuhnya bola adalah ….
m (α = 45o)

32 Sebuah benda bergerak melingkar dengan kecepatan awal 4 rad/s dan


mengalami percepatan sudut 0,5 rad/s2, maka kecepatan benda pada detik
keempat adalah …. rad/s

33 Benda bermassa 15 kg diletakkan di lantai licin dengan gaya gesekan


diabaikan. Jika benda tersebut ditarik gaya mendatar sebesar 6 N, maka
percepatan benda adalah …. m/s2
34 Sebuah benda bermassa 5 kg bergerak pada bidang datar yang licin,
kecepatan benda bertambah dari 4 m/det menjadi 8 m/det setelah menempuh
jarak 8 meter. Besar gaya mendatar yang menyebabkan pertambahan
kecepatan benda tersebut adalah …. newton

35 Seorang anak berada di dalam lift yang bergerak ke atas dengan percepatan
4 m.s-2. Jika massa anak 40 kg dan percepatan gravitasinya 10 m.s-2, maka
gaya normal (N) yang bekerja pada anak tersebut adalah … N

36 Seorang dengan massa 60 kg berada dalam lift yang sedang bergerak ke


bawah dengan percepatan 3 m.s-2. Jika percepatan gravitasi bumi 10 m.s-2,
maka desakan kaki orang pada lantai lift adalah … (dalam N)

37 Sebuah elevator yang massanya 1.500 kg diturunkan dengan percepatan 1


m/s2. Bila percepatan gravitasi bumi g = 9,8 m/s2, maka besar tegangan pada
kabel penggantung sama dengan … N

38 Reza bermassa 40 kg berada di dalam lift yang sedang bergerak ke atas. Jika
gaya lantai lift terhadap kaki Reza 520 N dan percepatan gravitasi 10 m.s -2,
maka percepatan lift tersebut adalah …. m.s-2

39 Sebuah benda 2 kg diikat dengan seutas tali yang panjangnya 1,5 m lalu
diputar menurut lintasan lingkaran vertikal dengan kecepatan sudut tetap.
Jika g = 10 m/s2 dan pada saat benda berada di titik terendah tali mengalami
tegangan sebesar 47 newton, maka kecepatan sudutnya (dalam rad/s) adalah
….

40 Balok bermassa 40 kg terletak di atas bidang datar dengan koefisien gesekan


0,02. Bila (g = 10 m/s2) maka gaya gesekan balok terhadap bidang …. N
41 Pada benda bermassa m, bekerja gaya F yang menimbulkan percepatan a .
Jika gaya dijadikan 2F dan massa benda dijadikan m, maka percepatan yang
ditimbulkan menjadi ….

42 Koefisien gesek statik antara sebuah lemari kayu dengan lantai kasar suatu
bak truk sebesar 0,75. Percepatan maksimum yang masih boleh dimiliki truk
agar lemari tetap tak bergerak terhadap bak truk itu adalah … m/s 2

43 Sebuah benda bermassa 2 kg mendapat gaya tekanan 20 N selama 2 sekon.


Bila gaya gesekan yang bekerja pada benda 10 N, maka benda akan berhenti
setelah menempuh jarak … m

44 Sebuah benda ditempatkan pada sebuah bidang mendatar, massa benda 2 kg.
pada benda bekerja gaya dalam arah horizontal sebesar 20 N. Apabila
koefisien gesekan kinetik antara benda dengan bidang 0,4 percepatan yang
dialami benda adalah …. m/s2

45 Sebuah benda meluncur dengan kecepatan 4 m/s pada permukaan bidang


kasar yang mempunyai koefisien gesekan kinetik 0,4. Bila massa benda 2 kg
dan percepatan gravitasi 10 m/s2, maka benda akan berhenti setelah
menempuh jarak … m

46 A block lies on a flat plane. At time t = 0 s the block is at rest. Then, from
time t = 0 s to t = 5 s the block is pushed with a constant force of 40 newtons
parallel to the plane so that it moves and just stops at t = 10 s. If the
coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the plane is 0,2, then the
weight of the block is equal to …. N
47 Object A (2 kg) is at a distance of 5 m from object B (4,5 kg), while object
C (3 kg) is between objects A and B. If the gravitational force on object C is
equal to zero, it means that the distance between objects A and C are … m

48 An object placed on the surface of the earth of radius R has a weight of 360
N. If the object is placed at a height of 2R from the surface of the earth, then
the object's weight becomes … N

49 An earth satellite orbits as high as 3.600 km above the earth's surface. If the
radius of the earth is 6.400 km and the satellite's motion is considered
uniform circular, then its speed (in km/s) is...

50 An object on earth weighs w1 and on a planet is w2. If the mass of the planet
is three times the mass of the earth and the radius of the planet is twice the
radius of the earth, then the ratio of the weight of the object on the earth to
the planet is...
BIOLOGI SMA

1 Penggunaan pupuk pertanian yang berlebihan atau menggunakan pestisida


secara berlebihan akan menyebabkan terjadinya pencemaran air, karena sisa
pupuk pertanian atau pestisida tersebut akan larut dalam air dan apabila
terbawa air hujan akan menimbulkan ….
A. pesatnya pertumbuhan hewan yang hidup di air
B. pesatnya pertumbuhan eceng gondok
C. penurunan kadar karbon dioksida di dalam air
D. peningkatan oksigen di dalam air
E. pertumbuhan eceng gondok terganggu

2 Di bawah ini merupakan ciri-ciri suatu bioma.


(1) Memiliki curah hujan merata sepanjang tahun.
(2) Memiliki curah hujan tinggi.
(3) Tumbuhan tidak berfotosintesis saat menjelang musim dingin
sehingga daun menjadi berwarna cokelat dan gugur.
(4) Memiliki kelembapan yang sangat rendah.
(5) Beberapa hewan melakukan hibernasi saat musim dingin.
Ciri-ciri yang dimiliki bioma hutan gugur ditunjukkan oleh nomor ….
A. (1), (2), dan (3)
B. (1), (2), dan (4).
C. (1), (3), dan (5)
D. (2), (3), dan (4)
E. (2), (4), dan (5)

3 Jika penggunaan zat-zat pewangi ruangan, obat nyamuk semprot yang


mengandung aerosol, dan lemari es yang menggunakan bahan pendingin
freon tidak dibatasi, dampak yang mungkin terjadi adalah ….
A. kadar karbon dioksida di udara meningkat
B. meluasnya lubang ozon
C. efek rumah kaca semakin meluas
D. atmosfer penuh asap
E. sungai-sungai tercemar bahan organik

4 Suhu rata-rata global pada permukaan bumi telah meningkat 0,74 ± 0,18°C
selama seratus tahun terakhir. Hasil analisis lingkungan sebagai berikut:
(1) penurunan permukaan air laut;
(2) atmosfer diselimuti gas karbon dioksida;
(3) berkurangnya volume es di kutub;
(4) eutrofikasi sungai dan danau;
(5) volume ozon di atmosfer berkurang;
(6) efek rumah kaca.
Faktor yang berkaitan erat dengan peningkatan suhu permukaan bumi adalah
….
A. (1), (2), dan (5)
B. (1), (3), dan (6)
C. (2), (3), dan (4)
D. (2), (3), dan (6)
E. (3), (4), dan (5)

5 Menyalakan mesin motor dalam ruang tertutup sangat berbahaya karena


menimbulkan buangan gas hasil pembakaran karbon yang tidak sempurna
dan berbahaya bagi kesehatan manusia bahkan dapat menyebabkan
kematian karena ….
A. karbon monoksida menimbulkan alergi pada sistem pernapasan
B. karbon monoksida mengganggu sistem pengangkutan oksigen
C. karbon monoksida memacu kerja jantung lebih cepat
D. asam karbonat menimbulkan iritasi pada kulit
E. asam karbonat menghalangi pandangan mata
6 Ekologi merupakan salah satu cabang biologi. Dalam ekologi perairan
dipelajari hubungan timbal balik antara faktor biotik dan abiotik. Untuk
memahami sifat fisika- kimia air diperlukan dasar pengetahuan yang kuat
dalam ilmu-ilmu lain. Dari pernyataan di atas dapat diambil simpulan bahwa
....
A. antara biologi dan kimia tidak ada hubungan sama sekali
B. ekologi memerlukan konsep-konsep penting dalam biologi, fisika, dan
kimia
C. biologi lebih banyak berhubungan dengan fisika daripada kimia
D. fisika dan kimia bertentangan dengan biologi
E. konsep kimia kurang dapat membantu untuk memahami ekologi
perairan

7 Seorang pasien yang telah mengalami pendarahan parah secara tidak sengaja
menerima transfusi akuades dalam jumlah besar, dan langsung masuk ke
dalam pembuluh darah utama. Efek yang akan terjadi pada pasien tersebut
adalah …
A. tidak memiliki efek yang tidak menguntungkan, asalkan air bebas dari
bakteri
B. memiliki efek yang serius, bahkan mungkin fatal karena akan ada terlalu
banyak cairan untuk dipompa
C. memiliki efek yang serius, bahkan mungkin fatal karena sel-sel darah
merah akan menyusut
D. memiliki efek yang serius, bahkan mungkin fatal karena sel-sel darah
merah akan membengkak dan pecah
E. tidak memiliki efek serius karena ginjal dengan cepat bisa
menghilangkan kelebihan air

8 Tuti sedang melakukan pengamatan pertumbuhan pada dua tumbuhan. Dia


ingin membuktikan bahwa suhu berpengaruh terhadap pertumbuhan kedua
tumbuhan tersebut. Tumbuhan ke-1 ditempatkan di tempat gelap sebagai
variabel kontrol, sedangkan tumbuhan ke-2 ditempatkan di tempat terang.
Kedua tumbuhan merupakan tumbuhan sejenis. Kesalahan apa yang dia
lakukan dalam percobaan tersebut?
A. tidak terdapat variabel bebas untuk kedua tumbuhan tersebut
B. tidak melakukan pengukuran suhu lingkungan
C. menggunakan tumbuhan sejenis untuk tempat berbeda
D. tempat yang dipilih tidak sesuai dengan tujuan pengamatan
E. variabel kontrol seharusnya tumbuhan ke-2

9 Dalam sistem pengelompokan tumbuhan ada beberapa macam cara


tergantung dari macam kelompoknya. Kelompok tumbuhan di bawah ini
yang merupakan keanekaragaman tingkat jenis dalam satu genus, adalah ....
A. aren, kelapa, pinang
B. lengkuas, jahe, kunir
C. kacang tanah, kacang panjang, kacang hijau
D. jeruk bali, jeruk nipis, jeruk peras
E. bawang merah, bawang daun, bawang putih

10 Jika jaringan muda tumbuhan diamati di bawah mikroskop akan tampak


banyak sel-selnya yang sedang membelah. Hal ini menunjukkan bahwa
jaringan muda tumbuhan mempunyai sifat …
A. banyak mengandung enzim auksin
B. meristematis
C. hormon pertumbuhannya sangat tinggi
D. mengandung inti sel
E. dinding selnya lebih tipis

11 Berikut ini adalah ciri-ciri tumbuhan.


(1) Batang bercabang.
(2) Pertulangan daun menyirip/menjari.
(3) Mempunyai empulur pada pusat akar.
(4) Pertulangan daun sejajar.
(5) Akarnya berkambium.
Berdasarkan data tersebut, tumbuhan yang termasuk ke dalam golongan
dikotil memiliki ciri-ciri ….
A. (1) – (2) – (4)
B. (1) – (2) – (5)
C. (1) – (3) – (4)
D. (2) – (3) - (4)
E. (2) – (4) – (5)

12 Industri tekstil akhir-akhir ini kesulitan mendapatkan bahan baku kain sutra.
Untuk mengatasi masalah tersebut, masyarakat melakukan budi daya ulat
sutra yang tergolong hewan kelas Insekta dalam kelompok Arthropoda. Ciri-
ciri kelas Insekta adalah ….
A. kaki beruas-ruas dan memiliki sayap
B. jumlah kaki 3 pasang dan tubuh terdiri atas 2 bagian (kepala, dada, dan
perut)
C. jumlah kaki sepasang dan tubuh terdiri atas 3 bagian (kepala, dada, dan
perut)
D. jumlah kaki 3 pasang, tubuh terdiri atas 3 bagian (kepala, dada, dan
perut)
E. jumlah kaki 3 pasang, tubuh beruas- ruas

13 Kepulauan Wakatobi di Sulawesi Tenggara akhir-akhir ini menarik


perhatian dunia dengan ditemukannya salah satu terumbu karang terindah di
dunia. Berikut ini beberapa kegiatan yang dapat dilakukan di kepulauan
Wakatobi, yaitu sebagai berikut.
(1) Menjual karang dan ikan warna-warni dengan harga yang mahal.
(2) Menjadikan Wakatobi sebagai daerah tujuan wisata bahari dengan
fasilitas yang tidak merusak terumbu karang.
(3) Melestarikan terumbu karang dengan melarang siapa pun menjamah
dan mendekatinya.
(4) Menjadikan wilayah Wakatobi sebagai daerah perlindungan bawah
air.
Tindakan yang paling tepat untuk melestarikan daerah tersebut adalah …..
A. (1) dan (2)
B. (1) dan (4)
C. (2) dan (3)
D. (2) dan (4)
E. (3) dan (4)

14 Di bawah ini merupakan beberapa sifat mikroorganisme:


(1) Dapat dikristalkan.
(2) Bentuk tubuh tidak tetap.
(3) Hanya dapat hidup dalam sel hidup.
(4) Merupakan bentuk peralihan antara benda mati dengan makhluk
hidup.
(5) Bersifat predator.
Sifat-sifat yang dimiliki virus adalah
A. (1), (2), (3)
B. (1), (2), (5)
C. (1), (3), (4)
D. (1), (3), (5)
E. (2), (3), (5)

15 Proses pembentukan nitrit dan nitrat disebut nitrifikasi yang dibantu oleh
bakteri dengan reaksi sebagai berikut.
(1) NH3 + H2O → NH4OH
(2) NH4OH+3O2→2NO2 + H2O + 4H+
(3) 2NO2 + 02→2NO2 +
Energi Bakteri (1), (2), dan (3) berturut-turut adalah ....
A. Nitrosomonas – Clostridium – Azotobacter
B. Nitrococcus – Nitrosomonas – Nitrobacter
C. Nitrobacter - Nitrosomonas Nitrobacter
D. Nitrosomonas - Azotobacter - Clostridium
E. Azotobacter - Nitrosomonas – Nitrosomonas

16 Pada akar tumbuhan, perjalanan air terjadi melalui transportasi


ekstravaskuler dan transportasi intravaskuler, yang merupakan transportasi
ekstravaskuler adalah …
A. mengalirnya air melalui xilem
B. perjalanan air di luar berkas pembuluh pengangkut
C. mengalirnya air di dalam xilem karena daya adhesi
D. keluarnya air dalam bentuk uap air melalui stomata
E. perjalanan air yang berlawanan dengan gaya berat

17 Mekanisme yang terjadi dalam kontraksi otot adalah .....


A. memanjangnya ukuran otot akibat geseran molekul aktin dan miosin
yang memerlukan energi dari pemecahan ATP
B. memanjangnya ukuran otot akibat geseran miofibril yang memerlukan
energi dari metabolisme aerobik glukosa
C. mengendurnya ukuran otot akibat geseran miofibril yang memerlukan
ion kalsium dan fosfat anorganik
D. menggesernya filamen-filamen yang lebih tebal ke filamen yang lebih
tipis dan diperlukan energi dari pemecahan asam piruvat
E. memendeknya ukuran otot akibat zona Z menjadi lebih panjang dan
zona H menjadi lebih pendek yang prosesnya memerlukan energi dari
pemecahan ATP
18 Sumber bahan makanan alternatif dapat digunakan untuk mengatasi krisis
bahan pangan dari kelompok alga, seperti Gellidium, Ulva, dan Eucheuma
spinosum. Secara berurutan ketiga spesies tersebut bermanfaat untuk
pembuatan ….
A. protein sel tunggal, agar-agar, dan sayuran
B. protein sel tunggal, sayuran, dan agar- agar
C. es krim, sayuran, dan agar-agar
D. es krim, jelly, dan agar-agar
E. agar-agar, jelly, dan sayuran

19 Ketika istirahat makan siang, Maya dan Lira mengonsumsi makanan yang
mengandung protein tinggi. Dalam sistem pencernaan, organ yang
menghasilkan enzim yang berfungsi untuk memecah protein tinggi yang
dikonsumsi oleh Maya dan Lira adalah ….
A. mulut dan lambung
B. lambung dan usus besar
C. lambung dan usus halus
D. mulut dan usus besar
E. mulut dan usus halus

20 Sporozoa adalah hewan yang memiliki alat perkembangbiakan mirip


tumbuhan yaitu dengan membentuk spora. Hal ini menunjukkan bahwa
Sporozoa …
A. memiliki alat pembiakan vegetatif
B. merupakan hasil evolusi di masa lalu
C. dapat juga dimasukkan dunia tumbuhan
D. mampu berkembang biak secara generatif
E. memiliki sifat seperti tumbuhan dan hewan

21 The following are the characteristics of protists that resemble fungi.


(1) The vegetative phase is in the form of movable plasmodium.
(2) Are heterotrophic by means of saprophytes or parasites.
(3) Sexual reproduction by forming oospores.
(4) Living in wet forests, damp soil, and rotten wood.
(5) Sexual reproduction with spores formed in the sporangia.
The characteristics that indicate Oomycota are….
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (3) and (4)
E. (4) and (5)

22 In an area, there are children whose conditions are: thin body, distended
stomach, stunted growth, damaged eyes, and dull skin. The child turned out
to have a deficiency ...
A. protein and vitamins
B. protein and minerals
C. protein and carbohydrates
D. protein and fat
E. Carbs and fat

23 Tubes A and B were each filled with rice solution, then saliva was added to
tubes A and B, specifically to tube A, orange juice was added. Next to each
tube, Fehling A and Fehling B were dropped, then heated. From the
observations, tube B shows a brick red color and tube A does not show a
color change.
From this one might expect ...
A. ptialin does not work in acidic situations
B. ptialin can function in acidic situations
C. ptialin does not work in acidic situations
D. ptialin only works after heating
E. ptialin can convert maltose into glucose

24 Here are some disorders of the digestive system:


(1) the large intestine absorbs excess water.
(2) feces become dry and hard.
(3) feces removal becomes difficult.
(4) the large intestine secretes too much water.
(5) the intestinal shaft is swollen.
From these characteristics, which is a symptom of constipation is….
A. (1), (2), and (3)
B. (1), (3), and (4)
C. (2), (3), and (4)
D. (2), (3), and (5)
E. (3), (4), and (5)

25 The endosperm is a food reserve for the embryo in its early stages of growth,
the endosperm comes from the fusion between ....
A. Haploid sperm with haploid ovum
B. 1 haploid sperm nucleus with secondary institutional nucleus
C. 1 diploid sperm nucleus with secondary nucleus
D. 2 haploid sperm nucleus with secondary institutional nucleus
E. 2 diploid sperm nucleus with secondary nucleus

26 Two fields of cultivation, one formerly overgrown with legumes


(Leguminoceae), while the other has been overgrown with reeds (Imperata
cylindris). It turns out that after being used as cultivation in the first field
(formerly overgrown with legumes), the plants thrive and on the second
(formerly overgrown with grass) plants are stunted. After researching the
cause is….
A. The first field has been abandoned for a long time
B. The second field has been abandoned for a long time
C. The second field is high in nitrate
D. The first field contains a lot of nitrate
E. The second field contains absolutely no nitrates

27 In its life cycle, liverworms have two hosts, namely herbivores and
Lymnea snails. Eggs that come out with the feces of herbivorous animals
will become….
A. Cyst that is inactive
B. metacercariae which has a tail
C. cercariae which is inactive
D. miracidium which has cilia
E. redia which is inactive

28 The characteristics of worms include:


(1) Found in the intestines.
(2) Living as a parasite and a cow intermediate host.
(3) On the scolex there is a hook tool.
(4) The digestive system has a mouth and anus.
(5) The reproductive system by means of fragmentation.
The characteristics of Taenia saginata are….
A. (1), (2), and (3)
B. (1), (2), and (4)
C. (1), (2), and (5)
D. (2), (3), and (4)
E. (3), (4), and (5)

29 Here is an example of 4 kinds of mushrooms:


1. ear mushroom
2. Mushroom
3. toadstool
4. Mushroom boards
From the example of the mushrooms above, the 3 properties that are shared
by these mushrooms are ...
A. has hyphae, does not have chlorophyll, has mycelium
B. has no hyphae, no chlorophyll, no mycelium
C. has no hyphae, has chlorophyll, has mycelium
D. does not have hyphae, saprophyte, chlorophyll
E. has hyphae, saprophyte, chlorophyll

30 The following are some of the worms that parasitize humans:


(1) Taenia solium
(2) Ascaris lumbricoides
(3) Ancylostoma duodenale
(4) Oxyuris vermicularis
(5) Taenia saginata
(6) Wuchereria bancrofti
These worms which are included in Nemathelminthes are….
A. (1), (2), (3)
B. (2), (4), (5)
C. (2), (4), (6)
D. (3), (4), (5)
E. (3), (5), (6)

31 Suatu takson yang anggotanya memiliki struktur tubuh lebih kompleks


daripada anggota Platyhelminthes, tetapi lebih primitif daripada anggota
Arthropoda adalah ….
32 Seorang siswa membedah isi lambung katak. Di dalamnya ditemukan
bagian-bagian dari tubuh hewan yang dimangsanya, yaitu satu pasang kaki
yang beruas-ruas, kepala lonjong, satu antena dan bagian dari sayap yang
tebal berwarna hitam. Maka dapat dipastikan bahwa hewan tersebut adalah
....

33 Pada siklus hidup cacing pita (Taenia saginata) telur yang dilepaskan
bersama feses manusia akan menetas membentuk larva. Bila larva tertelan
oleh sapi (sebagai inang perantara) lalu masuk ke usus, selanjutnya larva
dewasa akan berkembang menjadi …

34 Pemencaran tumbuhan tanpa bantuan dari luar dengan mekanisme


perubahan kadar air yang diikuti oleh pecahnya kulit buah ditemukan pada
tumbuhan ...

35 Suatu tumbuhan kecil, berklorofil, berbatang dan berdaun, tumbuh di lereng


gunung berbatu. Tumbuhan itu melekat dengan bantuan rhizoid.
Kemungkinan tumbuhan itu adalah …

36 Berdasarkan hasil pemeriksaan kesehatan, seorang siswa kelas XII memiliki


tekanan darah 150/90 mmHg, selang satu minggu masih memiliki tekanan
darah yang sama. Siswa tersebut merasa pusing yang amat sangat. Hasil
diagnosis dokter diduga siswa tersebut menderita ….

37 Pada saat luka, kita tidak mengalami pendarahan karena darah mengandung
faktor penggumpalan yang dapat menutup luka. Tetapi pada kasus tertentu,
ada orang vang bila terluka, lukanya tidak mudah menutup, sebab tidak
mempunyai faktor penggumpal. Orang tersebut menderita penyakit …
38 Suatu jaringan tumbuhan memiliki sifat: merupakan jaringan dasar, tersusun
dari sel hidup, mempunyai struktur morfologi yang bervariasi, masih dapat
membelah, dan berfungsi dalam pembentukan tunas. Jaringan tumbuhan
yang dimaksud adalah ....

39 Seorang ahli tentang insekta meneliti ciri-ciri insekta. Dari 100 ekor insekta,
kebanyakan insekta itu tidak bersayap, tidak mengalami metamorfosis,
mulut menggigit, maka ahli tersebut memutuskan insekta-insekta tersebut
kebanyakan masuk golongan ....

40 Suatu hewan berbentuk bilateral simetris, tidak mempunyai rangka,


bersegmen- segmen, dan hidup di air tawar. Berdasarkan sifat-sifat tersebut
hewan itu dapat kita golongkan ke dalam filum ….

41 Hewan yang mempunyai ciri-ciri:


• tubuh bersel banyak
• mempunyai tentakel
• tidak mempunyai anus
• reproduksi dapat dengan cara bertunas
Kemungkinan hewan tersebut termasuk ke dalam ....

42 Tumbuhan paku yang dapat digunakan sebagai pupuk organik karena dapat
bersimbiosis dengan alga untuk mengikat N, dari udara adalah ….

43 Ciri suatu organisme yang ditemukan di sepanjang pematang sungai adalah


sebagai berikut.
(1) Melekat di atas tanah dengan rhizoid.
(2) Bertubuh kecil, pipih, dan berwarna hijau.
(3) Tidak memilki batang maupun akar sejati
(4) Memiliki gigi peristom.
Organisme itu dapat digolongkan ke dalam …

44 Perhatikan ciri-ciri jamur berikut ini!


• Hifa bersekat.
• Memiliki tubuh buah yang dapat langsung terlihat oleh mata.
• Struktur tubuh bersel banyak dan bersel satu.
• Perkembangbiakan secara vegetatif dan generatif.
Jamur dengan ciri-ciri tersebut dikelompokkan ke dalam divisio ....

45 Dalam usaha manusia mencari sumber makanan baru, ternyata Chlorella


mendapat perhatian yang cukup besar. Hal ini dikarenakan Chlorella
mempunyai kandungan protein yang cukup tinggi dan mudah
berfotosintesis. Chlorella termasuk golongan ….

46 Rina often experiences heartburn that goes away immediately after taking
medication. This pain occurs after eating, so Rina becomes lazy to eat. After
seeing the doctor, it turned out that the doctor stated that there was a wound
on the inside of his stomach. Based on this information, Rina is thought to
be suffering from a disease ...

47 If the lining of the colon is stimulated by dysentery infection, peristalsis will


be accelerated, causing continuous bowel movements. Conversely, if the
feces are pushed out very slowly and much water is absorbed, the feces
(feces) harden. This is called….

48 Biuret test on a food product shows a negative result (no red or purple color
appears). If the food product is used as the only food source, it will cause ...
49 Meri's face always looks pale, her body is lethargic, and her blood laboratory
test results show that her leukocytes are far above normal, while her red
blood cells are very low. Meri is suspected of suffering….

50 A child often feels dizzy and tired. After checking and checking the blood,
it turned out that the Hb level in his blood was very low. This disorder in the
circulatory system is called ...
EKONOMI SMA

1. Andi berprofesi sebagai sopir pribadi dengan gaji Rp2.500.000,00/bulan.


Andi juga berpeluang menjadi karyawan bengkel dengan gaji
Rp3.000.000,00/bulan. Dan berpeluang pula menjadi karyawan di
perusahaan swasta dengan gaji Rp3.200.000,00/bulan. Apabila Andi
memilih wiraswasta maka biaya peluang yang dikorbankan sebesar ……
A. Sebagai sopir pribadi dengan gaji Rp2.500.000,00/bulan
B. Sebagai karyawan bengkel dengan gaji Rp3.000.000,00/bulan
C. Sebagai karyawan di perusahaan swasta dengan gaji
Rp3.200.000,00/bulan
D. Sebagai sopir dan karyawan bengkel dengan gaji
Rp5.500.000,00/bulan
E. Sebagai sopir pribadi, karyawan bengkel, karyawan swasta, dengan
gaji Rp8.700.000,00/bulan

2. Neraca pembayaran Negara “Abraham” (dalam miliar rupiah)Pada tahun


2017 sebagai berikut ini .

Ekspor +600

Impor -800
_____

Neraca perdagangan -200

Pinjaman otonom +100

Pinjaman akomodatif +75

Cadangan nasional +25


_____
Saldo 0

Berdasarkan data tersebut dapat disimpulkan bahwa ….

A. Negara mengalami defisit sebesar 200 dalam neraca perdagangan


kurang dari pinjaman otonom, akomodatif, dan cadangan nasional.
B. Negara mengalami surplus sebesar 200 disebabkan jumlah impor lebih
besar dari ekspor.
C. Negara mengalami defisit sebesar 100 yaitu pinjaman akomodatif dan
cadangan nasional.
D. Negara mengalami defisit sebesar 75 yaitu sebesar pinjaman
akomodatif
E. Negara mengalami defisit sebesar 100 yaitu pinjaman otonom

3. Farida merupakan seorang pelajar SMA yang memiliki beberapa kebutuhan


sebagai berikut.
- Buku paket seharga R50.000,00
- Pulsa internet seharga Rp60.000,00 Untuk 2 bulan
- Sepatu baru seharga Rp120.000,00
- Makan dan ongkos transportasi untuk satu minggu sebesar
Rp100.000,00
Cara memenuhi kebutuhan Farida apabila ia memiliki uang sebesar
Rp150.000,00, adalah …..
A. Beli buku paket dan pulsa internet
B. Membeli buku paket serta kebutuhan makan dan ongkos transportasi
C. Membeli buku paket dan sepatu baru sedangkan kekurangannya
mengambil uang dari tabungan
D. Membeli pulsa internet dan sepatu baru sedangkan kekurangannya ia
meminta kepada orang tua
E. Kebutuhan makan dan ongkos transportasi serta membeli sepatu baru
sedangkan kekurangannya meminjam kepada teman

4. Perhatikan pernyataan berikut ini .


(1) Memiliki keterampilan teknis .
(2) Memiliki keterampilan konsep.
(3) Bertugas memimpin dan mengawasi tenaga operasional.
(4) Merencanakan kegiatan dan strategi serta mengarahkan jalannya
perusahaan.
(5) Memilih, mengangkat, dan memberhentikan manajemen yang
berada dibawah otoritasnya.

Berdasarkan pernyataan tersebut yang merupakan kegiatan manajemen


puncak (Top level management) Ditunjukkan oleh nomor ….
A. (1), (2), dan (3)
B. (1), (3), dan (5)
C. (2), (3), dan (4)
D. (2), (4), dan (5)
E. (3), (4), dan (5)

5. Fungsi harga 𝑃 = 16 − 2𝑄,Maka fungsi TR adalah …..


A. 6𝑄 − 2𝑄
B. 16𝑄 − 2𝑄 2
C. 16 − 2𝑄
D. 16𝑄 − 2
E. 6𝑄 + 2𝑄 2

6. Suatu negara memiliki data pendapatan nasional sebagai berikut .

NNI Rp5.200,00 miliar


Pajak perseroan Rp 120,00 miliar

Laba ditahan Rp 75,00 miliar

Iuran asuransi Rp 5,00 miliar

Personal income Rp5.600,00 miliar

Berdasarkan data tersebut besarnya Transfer payment Adalah …


A. Rp200,00 miliar
B. Rp300,00 miliar
C. Rp500,00 miliar
D. Rp600,00 miliar
E. Rp800,00 miliar

7. Berikut ini yang merupakan tujuan Bank Indonesia menurut UU No. 3


Tahun 2004 adalah….
A. Menerapkan kebijakan fiskal yang tercermin dari kenaikan penerimaan
pajak setiap tahun
B. Mencapai APBN yang selalu surplus
C. Mencapai dan memelihara kestabilan nilai rupiah terhadap barang dan
jasa serta terhadap mata uang negara lain
D. Menjaga kestabilan nilai rupiah terhadap barang dan jasa
E. Mencapai nilai inflasi yang lalu rendah

8. Perhatikan tugas-tugas bank berikut ini!


(1) Menerima tabungan, deposito, dan giro
(2) Menetapkan kebijakan moneter
(3) Mengatur dan menjaga kelancaran sistem pembayaran
(4) Mengatur dan mengawasi bank
(5) Membeli kredit pada perusahaan
Berdasarkan tugas bank tersebut, Yang termasuk tugas dari bank sentral
adalah…..
A. 1 dan 2
B. 1 dan 4
C. 2 dan 3
D. 3 dan 4
E. 4 dan 5

9. Informasi akuntansi (Laporan keuangan)Yang dihasilkan oleh sebuah


perusahaan harus memenuhi Karakteristik Kualitas informasi akuntansi
sehingga bermanfaat bagi para penggunanya .Manfaat informasi akuntansi
bagi pemerintah adalah ….
A. Menentukan jumlah dana yang akan diinvestasikan kepada perusahaan
B. Menentukan kebijakan-kebijakan yang akan diambil dalam perusahaan
C. Menentukan besarnya pajak yang harus ditanggung perusahaan
D. Menganalisis kemampuan perusahaan dalam mengembalikan
pinjaman yang diberikan
E. Untuk melihat peluang lowongan kerja pada perusahaan tersebut

10. Bu Siti baru saja merintis usaha barunya di bidang kuliner, yaitu dengan
membuka usaha catering. Respons dari konsumen sangat baik sehingga
permintaan meningkat drastis. Namun, Ia memiliki kendala yaitu
kekurangan modal dalam mengembangkan usahanya. Untuk mengatasi
masalah tersebut hal yang harus ditempuh oleh Ibu Siti adalah …
A. Mencari tenaga kerja yang profesional
B. Mencari mitra kerja dalam modal untuk pengembangan usaha
C. Melakukan promosi melalui media sosial untuk mengembangkan
usaha
D. Mencari bahan baku yang murah dan berkualitas
E. Mencari orang-orang yang dapat mengelola keuangan usahanya
dengan baik
11. Ada memiliki sejumlah uang dari hasil tabungannya .Iya berencana
menggunakan uang tersebut untuk berwirausaha .Namun, Ia belum
menentukan jenis usaha apa yang akan ia geluti .Berdasarkan hal tersebut
cara untuk mengatasi masalah tersebut adalah …
A. Memilih tempat yang akan dijadikan lokasi usaha
B. Merekrut tenaga kerja yang dibutuhkan
C. Memilih teknik pemasaran usaha yang optimal
D. Menyusun anggaran biaya produksi yang dibutuhkan
E. Membuat daftar bidang usaha yang akan ditekuni dan mempelajari
prospeknya

12. Suatu negara memberikan kebebasan kepada masyarakatnya untuk


melakukan kegiatan ekonomi dalam batasan tertentu. Pemerintah juga ikut
aktif dalam perekonomian, misalnya dengan menyusun peraturan dan
penetapan kebijakan di bidang ekonomi. Berdasarkan hal tersebut dapat
disimpulkan bahwa peran pemerintah dan masyarakat dalam sistem
ekonomi tersebut adalah …
A. Pemerintah memiliki monopoli dalam perekonomian
B. Pemerintah berperan dominan dalam bidang ekonomi
C. Pemerintah dan swasta memiliki peran yang sama dalam
perekonomian
D. Swasta dapat melakukan eksploitasi karena diberi kebebasan seluas-
luasnya
E. Swasta dan pemerintah bersaing secara kompetitif dalam
perekonomian

13. Seorang penjual mangga memiliki harga jual Rp15.000,00/kg. Sementara


itu, beberapa konsumen memiliki daya beli sebagai berikut.
● Konsumen A Rp12.000, 00
● Konsumen B Rp17.000, 00
● Konsumen C Rp15.000, 00
Berdasarkan ilustrasi tersebut pernyataan yang tepat adalah …
A. Konsumen A termasuk pembeli super marginal
B. Hanya konsumen B yang memperoleh premi konsumen
C. Konsumen A dan konsumen C memperoleh premi konsumen
D. Semua konsumen memperoleh premi konsumen
E. Konsumen B menderita kerugian karena kemampuan membeli
dibawah harga pasar

14. Saksi perusahaan pengiriman paket barang “M&D” sebagai berikut.


(1) 3 Maret 2017 menginvestasikan Rp15.000.000,00 sebagai modal.
(2) 5 Maret 2017 membeli perlengkapan secara tunai Rp2.000.000,00
(3) 9 Maret 2017 kurir mengirim barang pelanggan senilai
Rp500.000,00 Namun pembayarannya akan diterima minggu depan.
(4) 11 Maret 2017 Bapak Budi mengambil sebagian kas perusahaan
untuk keperluan pribadinya sebesar Rp200.000,00
(5) 15 Maret 2017 membayar upah kurir sebesar Rp300.000,00
Berdasarkan transaksi di atas transaksi yang menyebabkan harta berkurang
adalah ….
A. (1), (2), dan (3)
B. (1), (2), dan (5)
C. (1), (3), dan (5)
D. (2), (4), dan (5)
E. (2), (4), dan (5)

15. Bidang usaha yang memiliki peran penting bagi perekonomian negara dan
menyangkut hajat hidup orang banyak dikuasai oleh negara. Beberapa
bidang usaha tersebut antara lain minyak dan gas bumi, listrik, dan air
minum. Berdasarkan uraian tersebut keuntungan bagi masyarakat adalah…
A. Meningkatkan laju pertumbuhan ekonomi
B. Mencegah monopoli pihak swasta dalam pemenuhan kebutuhan
barang dan jasa
C. Kemudahan untuk memperoleh kebutuhan dengan harga yang relatif
terjangkau
D. Mengisi kas negara sehingga dapat memajukan dan mengembangkan
perekonomian
E. Membuka dan memperluas lapangan pekerjaan bagi masyarakat

16. Beberapa manfaat pasar modal adalah sebagai berikut.

NO A B C

1. Mengatasi inflasi Mengatasi deflasi Menambah


lapangan
pekerjaan

2. Sebagai Wahana Mengawasi industri Mendorong


investasi keuangan kreativitas usaha

3. Meningkatkan Meningkatkan Melindungi


pajak kekayaan industri

Berdasarkan pernyataan-pernyataan diatas yang termasuk manfaat pasar


modal bagi investor, pemerintah, dan masyarakat adalah….
A. A1, B2, dan C1
B. A2, B2, dan C3
C. A3, B1, dan C2
D. A1, B2, dan C3
E. A2, B3, dan C1

17. Undang-undang yang mengatur pasar modal Indonesia adalah ….


A. UU No. 1 Tahun 1995
B. UU No. 8 Tahun 1995
C. UU No. 18 Tahun 1995
D. UU No. 8 Tahun 2000
E. UU No. 1 Tahun 2000

18. Data neraca perusahaan jasa ekspedisi “Bima” sebagai berikut :

Kas Rp8.000.000,00

Peralatan Rp25.000.000,00

Utang gaji Rp6.000.000,00

Modal Rp62.000.000,00

Piutang Rp4.500.000,00

Perlengkapan Rp5.200.000,00

Berdasarkan data tersebut agar neraca seimbang maka diperlukan akun


kendaraan ….
A. Rp30.000.000,00 dan akumulasi penyusutan kendaraan
Rp4.700.000,00
B. Rp20.000.000,00 dan akumulasi penyusutan kendaraan
Rp4.700.000,00
C. Rp15.000.000,00 dan akumulasi penyusutan kendaraan
Rp4.700.000,00
D. Rp25.000.000,00 dan akumulasi penyusutan kendaraan
Rp4.700.000,00
E. Rp35.000.000,00 dan akumulasi penyusutan kendaraan
Rp4.700.000,00

19. Tidak setiap pinjaman yang diajukan kepada bank dapat diproses dengan
cepat bahkan ada yang tidak terlayani.Hal ini disebabkan oleh penyaluran
kredit yang dilakukan oleh bank Harus melihat kondisi ekonomi negara dan
aturan dari bank sentral.
Dari Pernyataan diatas peranan bank dalam menyalurkan Kredit adalah …..
A. Meningkatkan gairah para pengusaha
B. Menjadi salah satu alat stabilitas ekonomi
C. Meningkatkan peredaran dan lalu lintas uang
D. Meningkatkan daya guna dan Peredaran uang
E. Meningkatkan daya guna dan Peredaran barang

20. Perhatikan matriks ciri-ciri pasar di bawah ini !

A B C

1. Terdapat beberapa 1. Terdapat rintangan 1. Persaingan melalui


penjual atau produsen untuk masuk ke pasar iklan sangat kuat
2. Jumlah penjual dan 2. Penjual bebas 2. Produk-produknya
pembeli banyak masuk ke pasar terstandarisasi
3. Output yang 3. Produk yang dijual 3. Distribusi produk
diproduksi sejenis bersifat homogen relatif lancar

Berdasarkan tabel diatas yang termasuk ciri-ciri pasar oligopoli adalah …..
A. A1, B1, dan C1
B. A1, B2, dan C3
C. A2, B1, dan C2
D. A2, B2, dan C2
E. A3, B3, dan C3

21. Maju always set aside some of her income from trading to save in the bank,
and Nuri deposited some of the inheritance she received to increase the
amount. Meanwhile, Eka applied for credit to the bank as an additional
business capital. Based on the statement above, the role of banks in the
economy is….
A. Improve usability and circulation of goods
B. Become one of the tools of economic stability
C. Increase enthusiasm for business
D. Improving income distribution
E. Increase the circulation of money traffic

22. The difference between a bank and a non-bank financial institution is….
A. Banks are under the guidance of the Ministry of Finance while non-
bank financial institutions are under the guidance of Bank Indonesia
B. Banks are official financial institutions while non-bank financial
institutions are informal financial institutions
C. Which is a government institution while non-bank financial institutions
are private institutions
D. Banks are the main financial institutions while non-bank financial
institutions are supporting financial institutions
E. Banks are under the responsibility of Bank Indonesia while non-bank
financial institutions are under the Ministry of Finance

23. Take a look at the following tasks!


(1) Maintaining monetary stability
(2) Banking regulation and supervision
(3) Capital market regulation and supervision
(4) Carry out transactions in the capital market
(5) Regulation and supervision of the non-bank financial industry (IKNB)
Based on the above statement, the tasks of the Financial Services Authority
are item …..
A. (1), (2), and (3)
B. (1), (3), and (5)
C. (2), (3), and (4)
D. (2), (3), and (5)
E. (3), (4), and (5)

24. Sukma store financial data as follows.

Assets Rp120.000.000,00

Money Rp15.000.000,00

Model Rp210.000.000,00

Prive Rp8.000.000,00

Sale Rp350.000.000,00

Purchase Rp175.000.000,00

Burden Rp25.000.000,00

Based on these data, the correct statement is...


A. If profit, capital will be reduced by Rp.142,000,000.00
B. If profit, the final capital will amount to Rp. 142,000,000.00
C. If profit, the final capital will amount to IDR 352,000,000.00
D. If there is a loss, the capital will be reduced by Rp. 142,000,000.00
E. If there is a loss, the final capital will be Rp. 142,000,000.00

25. The following are the regulations that form the basis for the formation of
the OJK:
A. Law No.1 Year 2013
B. Law No. 2 Year 2008
C. Law No. 6 Year 2009
D. Law No. 21 of 2011
E. Law No. 23 of 1999
26. Since the amendment of Number 6 of 1992 to Law Number 10 of 1998,
Indonesia has recognized other types of banks, namely Islamic banks. The
following that distinguishes Islamic banks from conventional banks is that
Islamic banks …..
A. Determining the reward based on the provisions that have been set
while conventional banks are based on mutual agreement
B. All types of businesses that meet the Shari'a while conventional banks
always make observations on these types of businesses
C. Have different products from conventional banks
D. Data financing is based on a percentage, while conventional banks are
based on customer benefits
E. Profit sharing system while conventional banks are based on interest

27. Mrs. Susi's total acceptance as a cake producer is shown by the equation
TR = 2.000 Q - 8Q2 And the total cost is shown by the equation TC =
10.000 - 400Q, then Mrs. Susi's company will get ….
A. Maximum profit 75.000
B. Minimum loss 70.000
C. Maximum profit 70.000
D. Minimum loss 150.000
E. Maximum profit 150.000

28. In economics what is meant by Decreasing return to scale is …..


A. If labor is added by 1 person, capital is reduced from 1 unit to obtain
the same amount of output
B. If the number of items consumed is increased by 1 additional unit, the
power will decrease even more
C. If the proportion of production exceeds the proportion of increase in
production
D. If the price of a good increases by 1%, the consumer's consumption of
that good decreases by less than 1%.
E. If a consumer's income increases by 1% it causes his consumption to
increase by less than 1%

29. If farmers in an economy are only able to produce two types of


commodities, apples and oranges, then The Law of Diminishing Return can
be reflected in the following, namely …..
A. For every additional apple that the farmer produces, the fewer oranges
he has to sacrifice
B. For every additional apple produced by the farmer, the more citrus
production has to be sacrificed
C. The more apples the farmers produce, the more oranges they have to
sacrifice
D. The more apples the farmer produces, the less citrus production he has
to sacrifice
E. The more apples and oranges the farmer produces, the lower the
additional utility perceived by the farmer

30. The goods produced by the company are sold at a price of Rp. 2.000.00/unit.
The total cost incurred to produce these goods is shown by the equation TC
= 1.000,000 + 1.800 Q.
The amount of goods that must be sold at the point of return is ……
A. QBEP = 10.000 units
B. QBEP = 2.000 units
C. QBEP = 5.000 units
D. QBEP = 1.000 units
E. QBEP = 500 units

31. Diketahui bahwa fungsi produksi adalah


𝑄 = 100 + 𝑥 + 0,25𝑥 2 ,Q Adalah output dan x adalah input .Pada tingkat
penggunaan input x sebesar 100 unit besarnya produksi marginal (Marginal
productivity) Adalah ….. unit

32 Apabila harga es krim naik dari Rp5.000,00 menjadi Rp5.500,00.Dan


jumlah permintaan turun dari 10 batang menjadi 8 batang maka koefisien
elastisitas permintaannya adalah ….

33 Diketahui harga buku tulis Rp2.000,00/buah. Dan jumlah permintaannya


adalah 1000 buah. Apabila harga buku tulis naik menjadi Rp2.500,00/buah.
Dan jumlah permintaannya menjadi 800 buah. Maka elastisitas permintaan
buku adalah ….

34 Jika pendapatan Santi 5 juta perbulan. Apakah Santi akan menggunakan


angkutan umum sebagai modal transportasi ke kantornya. Namun ketika
pendapatan Santi meningkat menjadi 10 juta per bulan Santi menggunakan
mobil pribadi sebagai modal transportasinya. Dengan demikian uang
angkutan umum bagi Santi merupakan barang …..

35 Suatu perusahaan memproduksi 7 unit output dengan average total cost


sebesar Rp15.000,00. Agar mampu berproduksi perusahaan harus
mengeluarkan fixed cost sebesar Rp35.000,00. Maka besarnya average
variable cost adalah ….

36 Koperasi “Cahaya Abadi” selama 2017 mencatat data sebagai berikut.


Modal -> Rp90.000.000,00
Pinjaman -> Rp25.000.000,00
SHU -> Rp10.000.000,00
Ketentuan :
Jasa modal 25% dan jasa pinjaman 20%. Teddy Seorang anggota koperasi
mempunyai simpanan wajib Rp600.000,00 dan Simpanan sukarela
Rp1.200.00,00.Iya juga memiliki pinjaman sebesar
Rp2.000.000,00.Berdasarkan data tersebut SHU yang diterima tadi adalah
….
37
Ketika mencoba menganalisis permintaan terhadap jasa kereta api pada saat
harga tiketnya naik maka diasumsikan bahwa harga tiket pesawat tidak
berubah. Asumsi ini dalam istilah ekonomi disebut sebagai …..
38
Pengalihan tugas pengaturan dan pengawasan perbankan dari Bank
Indonesia (BI) ke Otoritas Jasa Keuangan (OJK) dilakukan pada tanggal ….
39
Perhatikan data PD “Osika” berikut ini.
- Persediaan awal barang dagang Rp8.000.000,00
- Beban angkut pembelian Rp2.000.000,00
- Retur pembelian Rp2.000.000,00
- Potongan pembelian Rp1.000.000,00
- Barang tersedia untuk dijual Rp17.000.000,00
Berdasarkan data tersebut besar pembelian adalah ……….
40
Koperasi “ALAMRAYA” mempunyai SHU sebesar Rp70.000.000,00.
Alokasi pembagian untuk jasa penjualan 10% dan jasa modal 20%.Koperasi
itu mempunyai total sebesar Rp150.000.000,00 yang terdiri atas :
a. Simpanan wajib Rp40.000.000,00
b. Simpanan pokok Rp22.000.000,00
c. Cadangan SHU tahun lalu Rp16.000.000,00
Bandara itu total penjualan sebesar Rp20.000.000,00
Pak Didik mempunyai simpanan Rp1.500.000,00 dan melakukan
pembelian Rp3.200.000,00.
Dari data tersebut jumlah SHU yang diterima Pak Didik adalah ……..
41
Untuk perhitungan pendapatan nasional negara Krielin.
Upah Rp950 miliar
Bunga modal Rp300 miliar
Laba usaha Rp300 miliar
Sewa tanah Rp450 miliar
Pengeluaran rumah tangga Rp900 miliar
Belanja pemerintah Rp600 miliar
Investasi Rp700 miliar
Impor Rp150 miliar
Berdasarkan data tersebut jika pendapatan nasional dihitung menggunakan
pendekatan pengeluaran sebesar Rp2.150 miliar, Maka nilai ekspor adalah
Rp ……. Miliar
42
Pada tanggal 3 Desember 2017 dibeli dari Toko Bahagia sebanyak
Rp5.000.000,00 Dengan syarat pembayaran 2/10, n/30.Beban angkut
Rp200.000,00 FOB shipping Point .Pada tanggal 4 Desember 2017
dikembalikan karena tidak sesuai pesanan sebanyak Rp500.000,00.
Apabila pelunasan ke Toko Bahagia dilakukan pada tanggal 13 Desember
2017 maka jumlah uang yang harus dibayarkan adalah ……
43
PD Bima mempunyai data keuangan sebagian tahun 2016 sebagai berikut .
- Persediaan barang dagang awal Rp2.000.000,00
- Penjualan Rp58.000.000,00
- Beban angkut penjualan Rp1.200.000,00
- Pembelian Rp46.500.000,00
- Beban angkut pembelian Rp1.500.000,00
- Potongan pembelian Rp1.000.000,00
- Persediaan barang dagang akhir Rp13.000.000,00
- HPP Rp53.500.000,00
Dari data tersebut besar retur pembelian dan pengurangan harga adalah …..
44
Perhatikan data berikut ini (Dalam miliar rupiah)!
- GDP 125
- Produk WNI di luar negeri 10
- Produk WNA di dalam negeri 14
- Penyusutan 6
- Pajak tidak langsung 9
- Pajak perseroan 5
- Laba yang tidak dibagi 2
- Iuran pensiun 6
- Transfer payment 9
- Pajak langsung 6
Dari data diatas maka besarnya Disposible income (DI) adalah Rp …
45
PD mentari pada akhir periode akuntansi memiliki data sebagai berikut.
Penjualan Rp92.000.000,00
Potongan penjualan Rp 1.300.000,00
Retur penjualan dan PH Rp 4.000.000,00
HPP Rp65.200.000,00
Beban gaji Rp 6.000.000,00
Beban listrik dan telepon Rp 1.200.000,00
Beban angkut penjualan Rp 1.400.000,00
Beban pajak Rp 150.000,00
Berdasarkan data tersebut maka laba bersih sesudah pajak sebesar ….
46
The goods produced by the company are sold at a price of Rp. 2,000.00/unit.
The total cost incurred to produce the product is shown by the equation
TC=1,000,000 +1,800Q.
The amount of goods that must be sold at the point of return of principal is
……
47
Changes in consumption due to changes in income that classify an item into
a Normal or Inferior good can be shown by .....
48
Financing activities in the form of providing capital goods either on a
finance lease or operating lease for use by the lessee for a certain period of
time based on installment payments are called….
49
Andrew just finished his Masters at UI with cum laude predicate. Although
two universities and two companies in Jakarta wanted him to work there
because of his love for the village of his birth in Bangka, he chose to become
a lecturer at one of the universities in Bangka. His salary in Bangka was
only Rp. 1.000.000 ,00 a month. Smaller than the salary offered at
University A (Rp 2.500.000). What was Andrew's opportunity cost when he
chose to become a lecturer in Bangka?
50
A number of budgets in the APBN will be used by the government to build
infrastructure such as repairing roads, building terminals, train stations and
others. The expenditure above shows that there is a link between the
functions of the state budget, namely the function of ....
BAHASA INGGRIS SMA

1 Most natural post are located where the shoreline is irregular and ___ .
A. deep water
B. is the water deep
C. the water is deep
D. there is the deep water
E. the water are deep

2 ____ to the reproductive rates of other small mammals , that of the bat is
very low indeed .
A. Compared
B. It is compared
C. To be comparing
D. Have compared
E. Has been comparing

3 ____ native to Europe , the daisy has now spread throughout most of North
America .
E. Although
F. If it were
G. In spite of
H. That it is
I. It is there

4 The financial report states that the petty cash has been used for reimbursing
transportation cost and ___ computers .
A. Upgrading
B. it is to upgrade
C. to upgrade
D. we upgrade
E. be upgrade

5 The luggage is twice the baby’s weight. The luggage is ____ the baby
A. as heavy as
B. lighter than
C. heavier than
D. as light as
E. be light as

6 I am planning to go a party tonight , but it’s raining very hard now.


I wish ____ raining now
A. it stops
B. it would stop
C. it had stopped
D. it has stopped
E. have been stops

7 Anton has won a medal for swimming . I wish I ___ as good as he is .

A. was
B. have
C. can be
D. am
E. can had been

8 The traffic regulations in US are different from in Indonesia .


In the US , you ___ drive on the right side of the road .
A. can
B. may
C. must
D. would rather
E. be have

9 “ How was your test “


“ Not very good . I _____ much better if I had not misread the directions for
the last section .”
A. might do
B. must have done
C. should do
D. could have done
E. have been done

10 “ You were supposed to be here ten minute ago . Where were you ?.”
“ I ____ a specialist then !.”
A. am looking
B. looked
C. was looking
D. look
E. had been looking

11 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

On Ellesmere Island in the Arctic one fossil forest consists of a nearly


hundred large stumps scattered on an exposed coal bed .
A. Consists
B. a nearly
C. scattered
D. exposed
E. bed
12 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

The surface conditions on the Planet Mars are the more like the earth than
are those of any other Planets In The Solar system.
A. Condition
B. The more
C. Than
D. Other
E. System

13 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

The Humber river and it's valley from a major salmon fishing, lumbering ,
hunting , and Farmer region In The western new foundland Canada .
A. It’s
B. From
C. Major
D. Farmer
E. Foundland

14 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

When eggs of some species of Insects hatch ,the newly born insects look
almost like its adult counterparts.
A. When
B. Species
C. Look
D. Its
E. Counterparts

15 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

The capital of the United States ,originally New York city, was moved to
Philadelphia where stayed until 1800.
A. The capital
B. Originally
C. was moved
D. Where stayed
E. Until

16 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

Migration of animal maybe initiated by psychological stimuli such as


reproductive, changes external pressure such as whether changes or a
combination of either Time Of Changes.
A. by
B. such as
C. whether changes
D. either
E. of

17 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

The strength , size , and surefootedness of the Hama make it as excellent


beast of burden in mountainous regions today as it was in the past.
A. The strength
B. make it
C. excellent
D. as
E. was

18 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

Nuclear energy , despite its early promise as a source of electrical power, is


still insignificant in compared with older and safer energy sources.
A. Despite
B. source of
C. is still
D. in compared in
E. sources

19 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Hawaii’s eight major islands and numerous islets from the only state in the
United States that is not lie on the mainland of North America .
A. Major
B. numerous
C. only
D. not
E. lie

20 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!

Established about 1300 , the Acoma pucblo in New Mexico is believed to be


oldest continuously occupied settlement in the United States.
A. Established
B. is believed
C. be oldest
D. occupied
E. settlement

21 More than one-third of foreign students graduating from Australian


universities, mainly Asians, have such poor English skills they should never
have been admitted, research showed. A study by demographer Bob Birrell
found that more than 50 percent of South Korean and Thai students did not
have sufficient English to work professionally in Australia, along with more
than 43 percent of Chinese graduates. Some 17 percent of students from
Singapore and India, where English is more widely spoken also failed to
reach the required level. Overall, 34 percent of the graduating foreign
students offered permanent residence visas in 2006 did not have competent
English. Birrell of Melbourne's Monash University, said almost all the
12,000 graduates tested for the survey were from Asia because these students
are the most likely to apply for permanent residency on completing their
studies. However, he said that he believed the study to be representative of
all foreign students, partly because Asia was a major source of fee-paying
overseas students for Australian universities. 'It does raise questions about
university standards, Birrell told AFP. Tertiary institutions are reliant on
international students because they provide 15 percent of funding, leading to
suggestions that academic standards are sacrificed in favor of financial
rewards. Education Minister Julie Bishop described the survey as "an
extraordinary attack by Professor Birrell on our universities." 'International
students must meet international benchmarks in language in order to get a
place in a university in Australia, she said. The study found all graduates
tested had enough command of the language to cope in most situations. 'But
people who have reached this standard are still not capable of conducting
sophisticated discourse at the professional level,' it said.
In his report, Birrell said there was a "mountain of anecdotal material" that
many overseas students struggle to meet their course requirements and that
universities cope by lowering the English demands of the courses. 'There is
widening recognition of the English problem, he said. "But universities were
hesitant to make students take extra language courses because this would
make them more expensive and therefore less attractive than rival
institutions, 'he said. However, Professor Gerard Sutton, the president of the
Australian Vice-Chancellors Committee, said most foreign. students would
be proficient in reading, writing and listening to English. 'What I think has
been highlighted is a deficiency in spoken language, he told AFP, adding
that a deficiency in this area would not prevent them from completing a
university course.
The respondents of the survey were …
A. students entering Australian universities from Asia
B. all foreign students graduating from Australian universities
C. mostly Asian students who graduated from Australian universities
D. Foreign students at graduate programs in a Australian universities
E. Australian and foreign graduates of all Australian universities

22 More than one-third of foreign students graduating from Australian


universities, mainly Asians, have such poor English skills they should never
have been admitted, research showed. A study by demographer Bob Birrell
found that more than 50 percent of South Korean and Thai students did not
have sufficient English to work professionally in Australia, along with more
than 43 percent of Chinese graduates. Some 17 percent of students from
Singapore and India, where English is more widely spoken also failed to
reach the required level. Overall, 34 percent of the graduating foreign
students offered permanent residence visas in 2006 did not have competent
English. Birrell of Melbourne's Monash University, said almost all the
12,000 graduates tested for the survey were from Asia because these students
are the most likely to apply for permanent residency on completing their
studies. However, he said that he believed the study to be representative of
all foreign students, partly because Asia was a major source of fee-paying
overseas students for Australian universities. 'It does raise questions about
university standards, Birrell told AFP. Tertiary institutions are reliant on
international students because they provide 15 percent of funding, leading to
suggestions that academic standards are sacrificed in favor of financial
rewards. Education Minister Julie Bishop described the survey as "an
extraordinary attack by Professor Birrell on our universities." 'International
students must meet international benchmarks in language in order to get a
place in a university in Australia, she said. The study found all graduates
tested had enough command of the language to cope in most situations. 'But
people who have reached this standard are still not capable of conducting
sophisticated discourse at the professional level,' it said.
In his report, Birrell said there was a "mountain of anecdotal material" that
many overseas students struggle to meet their course requirements and that
universities cope by lowering the English demands of the courses. 'There is
widening recognition of the English problem, he said. "But universities were
hesitant to make students take extra language courses because this would
make them more expensive and therefore less attractive than rival
institutions, 'he said. However, Professor Gerard Sutton, the president of the
Australian Vice-Chancellors Committee, said most foreign. students would
be proficient in reading, writing and listening to English. 'What I think has
been highlighted is a deficiency in spoken language, he told AFP, adding
that a deficiency in this area would not prevent them from completing a
university course.
This passage is probably taken from …
A. a demographic report for the Australian Ministry of education .
B. a handbook for foreign university students in Australia
C. an article in the education column of a newspaper
D. a brochure about tertiary education in Australia
E. a popular lifestyle magazine for young people

23 More than one-third of foreign students graduating from Australian


universities, mainly Asians, have such poor English skills they should never
have been admitted, research showed. A study by demographer Bob Birrell
found that more than 50 percent of South Korean and Thai students did not
have sufficient English to work professionally in Australia, along with more
than 43 percent of Chinese graduates. Some 17 percent of students from
Singapore and India, where English is more widely spoken also failed to
reach the required level. Overall, 34 percent of the graduating foreign
students offered permanent residence visas in 2006 did not have competent
English. Birrell of Melbourne's Monash University, said almost all the
12,000 graduates tested for the survey were from Asia because these students
are the most likely to apply for permanent residency on completing their
studies. However, he said that he believed the study to be representative of
all foreign students, partly because Asia was a major source of fee-paying
overseas students for Australian universities. 'It does raise questions about
university standards, Birrell told AFP. Tertiary institutions are reliant on
international students because they provide 15 percent of funding, leading to
suggestions that academic standards are sacrificed in favor of financial
rewards. Education Minister Julie Bishop described the survey as "an
extraordinary attack by Professor Birrell on our universities." 'International
students must meet international benchmarks in language in order to get a
place in a university in Australia, she said. The study found all graduates
tested had enough command of the language to cope in most situations. 'But
people who have reached this standard are still not capable of conducting
sophisticated discourse at the professional level,' it said.
In his report, Birrell said there was a "mountain of anecdotal material" that
many overseas students struggle to meet their course requirements and that
universities cope by lowering the English demands of the courses. 'There is
widening recognition of the English problem, he said. "But universities were
hesitant to make students take extra language courses because this would
make them more expensive and therefore less attractive than rival
institutions, 'he said. However, Professor Gerard Sutton, the president of the
Australian Vice-Chancellors Committee, said most foreign. students would
be proficient in reading, writing and listening to English. 'What I think has
been highlighted is a deficiency in spoken language, he told AFP, adding
that a deficiency in this area would not prevent them from completing a
university course.
Which of the following statements is FALSE about Asian students studying
in Australian universities…
A. Most of these students do not meet the requirements for Australian
universities .
B. Students from Singapore and India are better in their English than those
from China
C. They pay the highest fees for their education compared to other foreign
students.
D. There is no problem for graduating foreign students to get permanent
resident visas
E. Australian universities consider Asian students as the major source of
their income .

24 More than one-third of foreign students graduating from Australian


universities, mainly Asians, have such poor English skills they should never
have been admitted, research showed. A study by demographer Bob Birrell
found that more than 50 percent of South Korean and Thai students did not
have sufficient English to work professionally in Australia, along with more
than 43 percent of Chinese graduates. Some 17 percent of students from
Singapore and India, where English is more widely spoken also failed to
reach the required level. Overall, 34 percent of the graduating foreign
students offered permanent residence visas in 2006 did not have competent
English. Birrell of Melbourne's Monash University, said almost all the
12,000 graduates tested for the survey were from Asia because these students
are the most likely to apply for permanent residency on completing their
studies. However, he said that he believed the study to be representative of
all foreign students, partly because Asia was a major source of fee-paying
overseas students for Australian universities. 'It does raise questions about
university standards, Birrell told AFP. Tertiary institutions are reliant on
international students because they provide 15 percent of funding, leading to
suggestions that academic standards are sacrificed in favor of financial
rewards. Education Minister Julie Bishop described the survey as "an
extraordinary attack by Professor Birrell on our universities." 'International
students must meet international benchmarks in language in order to get a
place in a university in Australia, she said. The study found all graduates
tested had enough command of the language to cope in most situations. 'But
people who have reached this standard are still not capable of conducting
sophisticated discourse at the professional level,' it said.
In his report, Birrell said there was a "mountain of anecdotal material" that
many overseas students struggle to meet their course requirements and that
universities cope by lowering the English demands of the courses. 'There is
widening recognition of the English problem, he said. "But universities were
hesitant to make students take extra language courses because this would
make them more expensive and therefore less attractive than rival
institutions, 'he said. However, Professor Gerard Sutton, the president of the
Australian Vice-Chancellors Committee, said most foreign. students would
be proficient in reading, writing and listening to English. 'What I think has
been highlighted is a deficiency in spoken language, he told AFP, adding
that a deficiency in this area would not prevent them from completing a
university course.
From the text we can infer that Australian universities …
A. are lowering their standards to get more foreign students
B. are making it easier for Asian students to learn English
C. Are willing to provide English language courses for students
D. are hesitant to admit students with insufficient English skills
E. don’t require foreign students to take course in English

25 More than one-third of foreign students graduating from Australian


universities, mainly Asians, have such poor English skills they should never
have been admitted, research showed. A study by demographer Bob Birrell
found that more than 50 percent of South Korean and Thai students did not
have sufficient English to work professionally in Australia, along with more
than 43 percent of Chinese graduates. Some 17 percent of students from
Singapore and India, where English is more widely spoken also failed to
reach the required level. Overall, 34 percent of the graduating foreign
students offered permanent residence visas in 2006 did not have competent
English. Birrell of Melbourne's Monash University, said almost all the
12,000 graduates tested for the survey were from Asia because these students
are the most likely to apply for permanent residency on completing their
studies. However, he said that he believed the study to be representative of
all foreign students, partly because Asia was a major source of fee-paying
overseas students for Australian universities. 'It does raise questions about
university standards, Birrell told AFP. Tertiary institutions are reliant on
international students because they provide 15 percent of funding, leading to
suggestions that academic standards are sacrificed in favor of financial
rewards. Education Minister Julie Bishop described the survey as "an
extraordinary attack by Professor Birrell on our universities." 'International
students must meet international benchmarks in language in order to get a
place in a university in Australia, she said. The study found all graduates
tested had enough command of the language to cope in most situations. 'But
people who have reached this standard are still not capable of conducting
sophisticated discourse at the professional level,' it said.
In his report, Birrell said there was a "mountain of anecdotal material" that
many overseas students struggle to meet their course requirements and that
universities cope by lowering the English demands of the courses. 'There is
widening recognition of the English problem, he said. "But universities were
hesitant to make students take extra language courses because this would
make them more expensive and therefore less attractive than rival
institutions, 'he said. However, Professor Gerard Sutton, the president of the
Australian Vice-Chancellors Committee, said most foreign. students would
be proficient in reading, writing and listening to English. 'What I think has
been highlighted is a deficiency in spoken language, he told AFP, adding
that a deficiency in this area would not prevent them from completing a
university course.
The minister of education thinks that the report is an attack on Australian
universities because it …
A. was made to undermine the position of the , Australian Minister of
Education
B. could damage the good reputation of Australian universities
C. aims at destroying the image of the universities accepting foreign
students
D. has been published without getting the approval of the ministry of
education
E. shows that Australian universities are not successful in teaching English

26 Eating on avocado a day as part of a heart healthy, cholesterol-lowering


moderate-fat diet can help improve bad cholesterol. Levels in overweight
and obese individuals, according to new research Researchers evaluated the
effect avocados had on traditional and novel cardiovascular risk published
in the Journal of the American Heart Association. factors. They replaced
saturated fatty acids from an average American diet with unsaturate fatty
acid from avocados. Forty-five healthy, overweight or obese patients
betwen the age of 21 and 70 were put on three different cholesterol-lowering
diets. Participants consumed an average American diet consisting of 34
percent of calories from fat, 51 percent carbohydrates, and 16 percent protein
for two weeks before they started one of the following three cholesterol
lowering diets: lower fat diet without avocado, moderate-fat diet without
avocado , and a moderate-fat diet with one avocado per day. The lower fat
diet is provided 24 percent of calories as fat (11 percent from MUFAS).
Meanwhile, the last two moderate fat diets both provided 34 percent of
calories as fat (17 percent of calories from monounsaturated fatty acids /
MUFAS). Each participant consumed each of the three test diets for five
weeks. Participants were randomly sequenced through each of the three
diets. Researchers found that, compared to the baseline average American
diet, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) -the so called "bad cholesterol" -was
13.5 mg / dL lower after consuming the moderate fat diet that included an
avocado. LDL was also lower on the moderate fat diet without the avocado
(8.3 mg / dL lower) and the lower fat diet (7.4 mg / dL lower), although the
result were not as striking as the avocado diet. In addition, several additional
blood measurements were also more favorable after the avocado diet versus
the other two cholesterol-lowering diets as well. These measurements are
all considered to be cardio-metabolic risk factors in way that are independent
of the heart-healthy acid effect, said distinguished professor at Pennsylvania
State University. "This was a controlled feeding study, but not the real-
world. So, it is a proof-of concept investigation. We need to focus on getting
people to eat a heart-healthy diet that included avocados and other nutrient-
rich food sources. of better fats." "In the United States avocados are no a
mainstream food yet. They can be expensive, especially at certain times of
the year. Also, most people do not really know how to incorporate them in
their diet except for making guacamole. Guacamole is typically eaten. with
corn chips, which are high in calories and sodium. Avocados, however, can
also be eaten with salads, vegetables, sandwiches, and lean protein foods like
chicken or fish or oven whole. " In addition to MUFAS, avocados also
provide other bioactive components that could have contributed to the
finding such as fiber, phytosterols, and other compounds. The
Mediterranean diet includes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, fatty fish, and
foods rich in monounsaturated fatty acids-like extra-virgin olive oil and nuts.
Like avocados, some research indicated that these contain not only better
fats but also certain micronutrients and bioactive components that may play
an important role in reducing risk of heart disease.
In relation to paragraph 2 , what does paragraph 3 inform ?
A. Procedures in carrying out research
B. Result of the treatment described in paragraph 2
C. Cholesterol contents that are discussed in paragraph 2
D. Conditions of the respondents when applying the diets
E. Relationships between the diets and Cholesterol contents

27 Eating on avocado a day as part of a heart healthy, cholesterol-lowering


moderate-fat diet can help improve bad cholesterol. Levels in overweight
and obese individuals, according to new research Researchers evaluated the
effect avocados had on traditional and novel cardiovascular risk published
in the Journal of the American Heart Association. factors. They replaced
saturated fatty acids from an average American diet with unsaturate fatty
acid from avocados. Forty-five healthy, overweight or obese patients
betwen the age of 21 and 70 were put on three different cholesterol-lowering
diets. Participants consumed an average American diet consisting of 34
percent of calories from fat, 51 percent carbohydrates, and 16 percent protein
for two weeks before they started one of the following three cholesterol
lowering diets: lower fat diet without avocado, moderate-fat diet without
avocado , and a moderate-fat diet with one avocado per day. The lower fat
diet is provided 24 percent of calories as fat (11 percent from MUFAS).
Meanwhile, the last two moderate fat diets both provided 34 percent of
calories as fat (17 percent of calories from monounsaturated fatty acids /
MUFAS). Each participant consumed each of the three test diets for five
weeks. Participants were randomly sequenced through each of the three
diets. Researchers found that, compared to the baseline average American
diet, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) -the so called "bad cholesterol" -was
13.5 mg / dL lower after consuming the moderate fat diet that included an
avocado. LDL was also lower on the moderate fat diet without the avocado
(8.3 mg / dL lower) and the lower fat diet (7.4 mg / dL lower), although the
result were not as striking as the avocado diet. In addition, several additional
blood measurements were also more favorable after the avocado diet versus
the other two cholesterol-lowering diets as well. These measurements are
all considered to be cardio-metabolic risk factors in way that are independent
of the heart-healthy acid effect, said distinguished professor at Pennsylvania
State University. "This was a controlled feeding study, but not the real-
world. So, it is a proof-of concept investigation. We need to focus on getting
people to eat a heart-healthy diet that included avocados and other nutrient-
rich food sources. of better fats." "In the United States avocados are no a
mainstream food yet. They can be expensive, especially at certain times of
the year. Also, most people do not really know how to incorporate them in
their diet except for making guacamole. Guacamole is typically eaten. with
corn chips, which are high in calories and sodium. Avocados, however, can
also be eaten with salads, vegetables, sandwiches, and lean protein foods like
chicken or fish or oven whole. " In addition to MUFAS, avocados also
provide other bioactive components that could have contributed to the
finding such as fiber, phytosterols, and other compounds. The
Mediterranean diet includes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, fatty fish, and
foods rich in monounsaturated fatty acids-like extra-virgin olive oil and nuts.
Like avocados, some research indicated that these contain not only better
fats but also certain micronutrients and bioactive components that may play
an important role in reducing risk of heart disease.
Based on the passage , the relationships between the Mediteranean diet and
heart disease is like the between …
A. Distressed patient and male doctor
B. Air condition and hot water weather
C. Severe hunger an big meal
D. Bush fire and black smoke
E. Fossil fuel and sports car

28 Eating on avocado a day as part of a heart healthy, cholesterol-lowering


moderate-fat diet can help improve bad cholesterol. Levels in overweight
and obese individuals, according to new research Researchers evaluated the
effect avocados had on traditional and novel cardiovascular risk published
in the Journal of the American Heart Association. factors. They replaced
saturated fatty acids from an average American diet with unsaturate fatty
acid from avocados. Forty-five healthy, overweight or obese patients
betwen the age of 21 and 70 were put on three different cholesterol-lowering
diets. Participants consumed an average American diet consisting of 34
percent of calories from fat, 51 percent carbohydrates, and 16 percent protein
for two weeks before they started one of the following three cholesterol
lowering diets: lower fat diet without avocado, moderate-fat diet without
avocado , and a moderate-fat diet with one avocado per day. The lower fat
diet is provided 24 percent of calories as fat (11 percent from MUFAS).
Meanwhile, the last two moderate fat diets both provided 34 percent of
calories as fat (17 percent of calories from monounsaturated fatty acids /
MUFAS). Each participant consumed each of the three test diets for five
weeks. Participants were randomly sequenced through each of the three
diets. Researchers found that, compared to the baseline average American
diet, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) -the so called "bad cholesterol" -was
13.5 mg / dL lower after consuming the moderate fat diet that included an
avocado. LDL was also lower on the moderate fat diet without the avocado
(8.3 mg / dL lower) and the lower fat diet (7.4 mg / dL lower), although the
result were not as striking as the avocado diet. In addition, several additional
blood measurements were also more favorable after the avocado diet versus
the other two cholesterol-lowering diets as well. These measurements are
all considered to be cardio-metabolic risk factors in way that are independent
of the heart-healthy acid effect, said distinguished professor at Pennsylvania
State University. "This was a controlled feeding study, but not the real-
world. So, it is a proof-of concept investigation. We need to focus on getting
people to eat a heart-healthy diet that included avocados and other nutrient-
rich food sources. of better fats." "In the United States avocados are no a
mainstream food yet. They can be expensive, especially at certain times of
the year. Also, most people do not really know how to incorporate them in
their diet except for making guacamole. Guacamole is typically eaten. with
corn chips, which are high in calories and sodium. Avocados, however, can
also be eaten with salads, vegetables, sandwiches, and lean protein foods like
chicken or fish or oven whole. " In addition to MUFAS, avocados also
provide other bioactive components that could have contributed to the
finding such as fiber, phytosterols, and other compounds. The
Mediterranean diet includes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, fatty fish, and
foods rich in monounsaturated fatty acids-like extra-virgin olive oil and nuts.
Like avocados, some research indicated that these contain not only better
fats but also certain micronutrients and bioactive components that may play
an important role in reducing risk of heart disease.
About avocados described in the passage , the author has the same belief a
the researches that ..
A. Research needs to reveal accurately their contents
B. Combined diets involving avocados need further studies
C. The current research on avocados has conclusive finding
D. People will take the diet regardless the price pf avocados
E. The fruit nutrients are equal to those of the Mediterranean diet

29 Eating on avocado a day as part of a heart healthy, cholesterol-lowering


moderate-fat diet can help improve bad cholesterol. Levels in overweight
and obese individuals, according to new research Researchers evaluated the
effect avocados had on traditional and novel cardiovascular risk published
in the Journal of the American Heart Association. factors. They replaced
saturated fatty acids from an average American diet with unsaturate fatty
acid from avocados. Forty-five healthy, overweight or obese patients
betwen the age of 21 and 70 were put on three different cholesterol-lowering
diets. Participants consumed an average American diet consisting of 34
percent of calories from fat, 51 percent carbohydrates, and 16 percent protein
for two weeks before they started one of the following three cholesterol
lowering diets: lower fat diet without avocado, moderate-fat diet without
avocado , and a moderate-fat diet with one avocado per day. The lower fat
diet is provided 24 percent of calories as fat (11 percent from MUFAS).
Meanwhile, the last two moderate fat diets both provided 34 percent of
calories as fat (17 percent of calories from monounsaturated fatty acids /
MUFAS). Each participant consumed each of the three test diets for five
weeks. Participants were randomly sequenced through each of the three
diets. Researchers found that, compared to the baseline average American
diet, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) -the so called "bad cholesterol" -was
13.5 mg / dL lower after consuming the moderate fat diet that included an
avocado. LDL was also lower on the moderate fat diet without the avocado
(8.3 mg / dL lower) and the lower fat diet (7.4 mg / dL lower), although the
result were not as striking as the avocado diet. In addition, several additional
blood measurements were also more favorable after the avocado diet versus
the other two cholesterol-lowering diets as well. These measurements are
all considered to be cardio-metabolic risk factors in way that are independent
of the heart-healthy acid effect, said distinguished professor at Pennsylvania
State University. "This was a controlled feeding study, but not the real-
world. So, it is a proof-of concept investigation. We need to focus on getting
people to eat a heart-healthy diet that included avocados and other nutrient-
rich food sources. of better fats." "In the United States avocados are no a
mainstream food yet. They can be expensive, especially at certain times of
the year. Also, most people do not really know how to incorporate them in
their diet except for making guacamole. Guacamole is typically eaten. with
corn chips, which are high in calories and sodium. Avocados, however, can
also be eaten with salads, vegetables, sandwiches, and lean protein foods like
chicken or fish or oven whole. " In addition to MUFAS, avocados also
provide other bioactive components that could have contributed to the
finding such as fiber, phytosterols, and other compounds. The
Mediterranean diet includes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, fatty fish, and
foods rich in monounsaturated fatty acids-like extra-virgin olive oil and nuts.
Like avocados, some research indicated that these contain not only better
fats but also certain micronutrients and bioactive components that may play
an important role in reducing risk of heart disease.
Which paragraphs of the passage most effectively illustrate the power of
avocados to deal with heart dissea ‘ se ?
A. 2 and 6
B. 3 and 6
C. 3 and 5
D. 4 and 5
E. 5 and 6

30 Sugar impacts your white blood cells by competing for space in those cells
with Vitamin C. Some research in the 1970s discovered that white blood
cells need Vitamin C to destroy bacteria and viruses. Sugar and Vitamin C
are similar in their chemical structure. When you eat sugar, it directly
competes for space in your immune cells with Vitamin C. The more sugar
in your system, the less Vitamin C can get into your white blood cells. Sugar
does not help your immune system fight infection at all, resulting in a
weakened defense from infections. Eating more fresh fruits and vegetables
is a great way to get immune boosting benefits from Vitamin C and other
phytonutrients found in fresh raw foods. The colors of produce give you a
clue for how they help the immune system. Choose orange fruits and
vegetables like carrots to get more beta carotene, the precursor your body
turns into Vitamin A. This nutrient helps your immune system by supporting
healthy lungs and lymph. Do not stress about it if you find it hard to
completely throw out the sugar and load up on fresh whole fruits and
veggies. Diet changes take time and if you want your new healthy habits to
stick, be persistent as you try switching out a large salad for that fast food
sandwich at lunch. If you normally eat sweet processed food like donuts for
breakfast, try replacing it with mixed fresh fruit and see how much better
you feel over time. Your taste buds will need a few weeks to get used to
changes in what you're eating. Your body will get over the cravings, which
are actually a symptom of the deficiencies of empty foods until you have
nourished your body well for a time. In the long term, the more fresh whole
foods you eat, the more energy you'll have and the stronger your immune
system will be.
Based on the passage , it can be hypothesized that our body ‘s immune
system will get stronger if …
A. we replace sugar with low sugar diet
B. our diet consists of fresh fruits and vegetables
C. our food produces energy to convert nutrients into vitamins
D. we consume salads to replace sugar and fast food
E. we eat low - calorie food

31 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase.
A democratic leader delegates authority and responsibility to order

32 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase.
When it comes to buying clothes Herman is impetutous

33 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase.
There is campaign against those hunter who mercilessly slaughter baby
seals.
34 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase.
As we approached the pyramids , a massive stone sphinx greeted us at the
entrance .

35 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase.
The speaker walked confidently an quickly to the podium .

36 (5) Europa is the smallest of planet Jupiter's four largest moons and the
second moon out from Jupiter. Until 1979, it was just another astronomy
textbook statistic Then came the close-up images obtained by the
exploratory spacecraft Voyager 2, and within days, Europa was transformed-
in our perception, at least-into one of the solar system's most intriguing
worlds. The biggest initial surprise was the almost total lack of detail,
especially from far away. Even at close range, the only visible features are
thin, kinked brown lines resembling cracks in an eggshell. And this analogy
is not far off the Mark .
(10) The surface of Europa is almost pure water ice, but a nearly
complete absence of craters indicates that Europa's surface ice resembles
Earth's Antarctic ice cap. The eggshell analogy may be quite accurate since
the ice could be as little as a few kilometers thick a true shell around what is
likely a subsurface liquid ocean that, in turn, encases a rocky core. The
interior of Europa has been kept warm over the eons by tidal forces generated
by the varying gravitational tugs of the other big moons as
(15) they wheel around Jupiter. The tides on Europa pull and relax in
an endless cycle. The resulting internal heat keeps what would otherwise be
ice melted almost to the surface. The crack like marks on Europa's icy face
appear to be fractures where water mark. or slush oozes from below.
(20) Soon after Voyager 2's encounter with Jupiter in 1979, when the
best images Europa were obtained, researchers advanced the startling idea
that Europa's of subsurface was releasing a vast store of internal
heat. Jupiter's early heat was produced by the compression of the material
forming the giant planet. Just as the Sun is far less radiant today than the
primal Sun, so the internal heat generated by Jupiter is minor compared to
its former intensity. During this warm phase, some 4.6 billion years ago,
Europa ocean may have been liquid right to the surface, making it a crucible
for life. ocean might harbor life. Life processes could have begun when
Jupiter was realising a vast store of internet heat . Jupiter’s early heat was
produced by the compression of the material forming the giant planet . Just
as the sun is far less radiant today then the primal sun, so the internal heat
generated by jupiter is minor compared
(25) to its former intensity . During this warm phase , some 4.6 billion
years ago , Europa’s ocean may have been liquid right to the surface , making
it a crucible for life .
The word “ intriguing “ in line 5 is closest in meaning to ….

37 (5) Europa is the smallest of planet Jupiter's four largest moons and the
second moon out from Jupiter. Until 1979, it was just another astronomy
textbook statistic Then came the close-up images obtained by the
exploratory spacecraft Voyager 2, and within days, Europa was transformed-
in our perception, at least-into one of the solar system's most intriguing
worlds. The biggest initial surprise was the almost total lack of detail,
especially from far away. Even at close range, the only visible features are
thin, kinked brown lines resembling cracks in an eggshell. And this analogy
is not far off the Mark .
(10) The surface of Europa is almost pure water ice, but a nearly
complete absence of craters indicates that Europa's surface ice resembles
Earth's Antarctic ice cap. The eggshell analogy may be quite accurate since
the ice could be as little as a few kilometers thick a true shell around what is
likely a subsurface liquid ocean that, in turn, encases a rocky core. The
interior of Europa has been kept warm over the eons by tidal forces generated
by the varying gravitational tugs of the other big moons as
(15) they wheel around Jupiter. The tides on Europa pull and relax in
an endless cycle. The resulting internal heat keeps what would otherwise be
ice melted almost to the surface. The crack like marks on Europa's icy face
appear to be fractures where water mark. or slush oozes from below.
(20) Soon after Voyager 2's encounter with Jupiter in 1979, when the
best images Europa were obtained, researchers advanced the startling idea
that Europa's of subsurface was releasing a vast store of internal
heat. Jupiter's early heat was produced by the compression of the material
forming the giant planet. Just as the Sun is far less radiant today than the
primal Sun, so the internal heat generated by Jupiter is minor compared to
its former intensity. During this warm phase, some 4.6 billion years ago,
Europa ocean may have been liquid right to the surface, making it a crucible
for life. ocean might harbor life. Life processes could have begun when
Jupiter was realising a vast store of internet heat . Jupiter’s early heat was
produced by the compression of the material forming the giant planet . Just
as the sun is far less radiant today then the primal sun, so the internal heat
generated by jupiter is minor compared
(25) to its former intensity . During this warm phase , some 4.6 billion
years ago , Europa’s ocean may have been liquid right to the surface , making
it a crucible for life .

The word “ endless” in line 15 is closest in meaning to ….


38 Hydrogen, one of earths's mast abundant elements once was seen as green
energy's answer to the petroleum ariven. easy to produce, available
everywhere and nonpolluting when burned. Hydrogen energy was defeated
by a mountain of obstacles, the fear of explosion by the highly flammable
gas, the difficulty of carrying the fuel in large, heavy tanks in the venicle and
the lack of a refueling network. Automakers turned to biofuels, electricity
or the gas-electricity hybrid. But hydrogen, it turns out, never was
completely put of the race Now Israeli scientists and entrepreneurs daim to
have brought hydrogen energy a step closer by putting it in much smaller,
lighter, containers. Rather than using metal or composite cylinders of
compressed gas that look like bulky scuba gear, hydrogen is packed into
glass filaments which, once out of the lab, will be only slightly thicker than
a human hair. These 370 glass capillaries are bundled into a glassed tube
called capillary array. about the width of a drinking straw. The scientist say
11000 such arrays will fuel a car for 400 kilometers, take less than half the
space and weight of tanks currently installed in the few hydrogen cars now
available. The scientist make no attempt to improve the standard fuel cell,
which is not much different today from when it was invented more than 150
years ago. A fuel cell makes electricity from chemical reactions involving
hydrogen and oxygen, producing only water vapor as a byproduct. The fuel
cell can be compared with a standard car's engine, while the capillary arrays
would be comparable to the gasoline tank. While its backers call the
technology a breakthrough, it is unlikely to gain traction without a large
injection of capital to scale up development. It also would need a
distribution system and the support of major car companies, which have
poured billions of dollars into their own closely guarded research
programs. Like electric cars, the driving force behind hydrogen research is
the need to break away from oil and rein in emissions of greenhouse gases
blamed for climate change, especially carbon dioxide from industry and
transport. Transportation adds about 13 percent of manmade carbon to the
atmosphere. Hydrogen boasts zero emissions. It can be produced from
water through electrolysis, or harvested as the waste product of nuclear
reactors and chemical plants. Within a few years, perhaps a decade,
hydrogen fuel will shift the world's energy balance away from oil.
The word rein in in line 21 could be best replaced by ___

39 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Twenty thousand years ago a sheet of ice a thousand meters thick covered
the coastal region which the cities of Vancouver and Juneau now are
located.

40 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
The Crow , Blackfoot , and Sioux tribes traditionally
adorned they dwellings and costumes with colorful
and highly valued beaded decorations

41 in 1991, according to the Department of Trade and Industry, a record


48,000 British companies went out of business. When businesses fail, the
post-mortem analysis is traditionally undertaken by accountants and market
strategists. Unarguably organizations do fail because of undercapitalization,
poor financial management, adverse market conditions etc. Yet, conversely,
organizations with sound financial backing, good product ideas and market
acumen
(5) often underperform and fail to meet shareholders' expectations. The
complexity, degree and sustainability of organizational performance
requires an explanation which goes beyond the balance sheet and the "paper
conversion" of financial inputs into profit making outputs. A more complete
explanation of "what went wrong" necessarily must consider the essence of
what an organization actually is and that one of the financial inputs, the most
important and often the most expensive, is people.
(10) An organization is only as good as the people it employs. Selecting
the right person for the job involves more than identifying the essential or
desirable range of skills, educational and professional qualifications
necessary to perform the job and then recruiting the candidate who is most
likely to possess these skills or at least is perceived to have the ability and
predisposition to acquire them. This is a purely person / skills match
approach to selection. Work invariably takes place in the presence and / or
under the direction of others, in a particular organizational setting.
(15) Poor selection decisions are expensive. For example, the costs of
training a policeman are about £ 20,000 (approx. US $ 30,000). The costs
of employing an unsuitable technician on an oil rig or in a nuclear plant
could, in an emergency, result in millions of pounds of damage or loss of
life. The disharmony of a poor person-environment fit (PE-fit) is likely to
result in low job satisfaction, lack of organizational commitment and
employee stress, which affect organizational outcomes i.e. productivity,
high labor turnover and absenteeism, and individual outcomes i.e. physical,
psychological
(20) and mental well-being. However, despite the importance of the
recruitment decision and the range of sophisticated and more objective
selection techniques available, including the use of psychometric tests,
assessment centers etc., y organizations are still prepared to make this
decision on the basis of a single 30 to 45 minute unstructured throw. Indeed,
research has demonstrated that a selection decision is often made within the
first four minutes of reaction. In the remaining time, the interviewer then
attends exclusively to information that reinforces the initial
(25) "accept" or "reject" decision. Research into the validity of selection
methods has consistently demonstrated that the unstructured interview,
where the interviewer asks any questions he or she likes, is a poor predictor
of future performance and fares little better that more controversial methods
like graphology and astrology.
It can be inferred from the passage , that employing untrained workers can
cause __

42 in 1991, according to the Department of Trade and Industry, a record


48,000 British companies went out of business. When businesses fail, the
post-mortem analysis is traditionally undertaken by accountants and market
strategists. Unarguably organizations do fail because of undercapitalization,
poor financial management, adverse market conditions etc. Yet, conversely,
organizations with sound financial backing, good product ideas and market
acumen
(5) often underperform and fail to meet shareholders' expectations. The
complexity, degree and sustainability of organizational performance
requires an explanation which goes beyond the balance sheet and the "paper
conversion" of financial inputs into profit making outputs. A more complete
explanation of "what went wrong" necessarily must consider the essence of
what an organization actually is and that one of the financial inputs, the most
important and often the most expensive, is people.
(10) An organization is only as good as the people it employs. Selecting
the right person for the job involves more than identifying the essential or
desirable range of skills, educational and professional qualifications
necessary to perform the job and then recruiting the candidate who is most
likely to possess these skills or at least is perceived to have the ability and
predisposition to acquire them. This is a purely person / skills match
approach to selection. Work invariably takes place in the presence and / or
under the direction of others, in a particular organizational setting.
(15) Poor selection decisions are expensive. For example, the costs of
training a policeman are about £ 20,000 (approx. US $ 30,000). The costs
of employing an unsuitable technician on an oil rig or in a nuclear plant
could, in an emergency, result in millions of pounds of damage or loss of
life. The disharmony of a poor person-environment fit (PE-fit) is likely to
result in low job satisfaction, lack of organizational commitment and
employee stress, which affect organizational outcomes i.e. productivity,
high labor turnover and absenteeism, and individual outcomes i.e. physical,
psychological
(20) and mental well-being. However, despite the importance of the
recruitment decision and the range of sophisticated and more objective
selection techniques available, including the use of psychometric tests,
assessment centers etc., y organizations are still prepared to make this
decision on the basis of a single 30 to 45 minute unstructured throw. Indeed,
research has demonstrated that a selection decision is often made within the
first four minutes of reaction. In the remaining time, the interviewer then
attends exclusively to information that reinforces the initial
(25) "accept" or "reject" decision. Research into the validity of selection
methods has consistently demonstrated that the unstructured interview,
where the interviewer asks any questions he or she likes, is a poor predictor
of future performance and fares little better that more controversial methods
like graphology and astrology.
It can be inferred from the passage , that unstructured interview is ______
predictor of future job performance .

43 The 17th Winter Games, held in Norway in 1994, are part of an Olympic
tradition which goes back almost 3,000 years. The first modern Games were
held in Athens in 1896, and four vears later, in Paris, women began to take
part. Although the winter Olympics did not begin until 1924, figure skating
was part of the 1908 London summer Olympics, both skating and ice hockey
were included in the Antwerp Games in 1920. But generally winter sports
were felt to be too specialized. Only cold-weather countries had much
experience of activities such as skiing-a means of transport overland across
ice and snow during long winters. The Scandinavians, for whom skiing is a
part of everyday life, had objected to a winter games. They feared it would
threaten their own Nordic games, which had been held every four years since
1901. But the International Olympic Committee (1OC) agreed to stage an
International Sports Week in Chamonix, France, in 1924. It was a success
and the Scandinavians won 28 of the 43 medals, including nine golds. They
dropped their objections and the event was retrospectively named the First
Olympic Winter Games. Apart from the Second World War period the
Winter Olympics were held every four years, a few months before the
summer Olympics. But in 1986 the 1OC changed the schedule so that the
summer and winter games would be held different years. Thus, for the only
time in history, the Lillehammer (Norway) Games took place just two years
after the previous Winter Olympics which were held in Albertville, France.
Since the Winter Games began, 55 out of 56 gold medals in the men's nordic
skiing events have been won by competitors from Scandinavia or the former
Soviet Union. For teams from warm weather countries, cross-country skiing
can pose problems, At the Calgary Games in 1988, one competitor in the 50-
kilometre even was so slow that race officials feared he was lost and sent out
a search party. Roberto Alvarez of Mexico had never skied more than 20
kilometers before and finished 61st and last 52 minutes behind the 60th
place.
When was the first olympic winter games held ?

44 The 17th Winter Games, held in Norway in 1994, are part of an Olympic
tradition which goes back almost 3,000 years. The first modern Games were
held in Athens in 1896, and four vears later, in Paris, women began to take
part. Although the winter Olympics did not begin until 1924, figure skating
was part of the 1908 London summer Olympics, both skating and ice hockey
were included in the Antwerp Games in 1920. But generally winter sports
were felt to be too specialized. Only cold-weather countries had much
experience of activities such as skiing-a means of transport overland across
ice and snow during long winters. The Scandinavians, for whom skiing is a
part of everyday life, had objected to a winter games. They feared it would
threaten their own Nordic games, which had been held every four years since
1901. But the International Olympic Committee (1OC) agreed to stage an
International Sports Week in Chamonix, France, in 1924. It was a success
and the Scandinavians won 28 of the 43 medals, including nine golds. They
dropped their objections and the event was retrospectively named the First
Olympic Winter Games. Apart from the Second World War period the
Winter Olympics were held every four years, a few months before the
summer Olympics. But in 1986 the 1OC changed the schedule so that the
summer and winter games would be held different years. Thus, for the only
time in history, the Lillehammer (Norway) Games took place just two years
after the previous Winter Olympics which were held in Albertville, France.
Since the Winter Games began, 55 out of 56 gold medals in the men's nordic
skiing events have been won by competitors from Scandinavia or the former
Soviet Union. For teams from warm weather countries, cross-country skiing
can pose problems, At the Calgary Games in 1988, one competitor in the 50-
kilometre even was so slow that race officials feared he was lost and sent out
a search party. Roberto Alvarez of Mexico had never skied more than 20
kilometers before and finished 61st and last 52 minutes behind the 60th
place.
Where was the first olympic winter games held ?

45 The 17th Winter Games, held in Norway in 1994, are part of an Olympic
tradition which goes back almost 3,000 years. The first modern Games were
held in Athens in 1896, and four vears later, in Paris, women began to take
part. Although the winter Olympics did not begin until 1924, figure skating
was part of the 1908 London summer Olympics, both skating and ice hockey
were included in the Antwerp Games in 1920. But generally winter sports
were felt to be too specialized. Only cold-weather countries had much
experience of activities such as skiing-a means of transport overland across
ice and snow during long winters. The Scandinavians, for whom skiing is a
part of everyday life, had objected to a winter games. They feared it would
threaten their own Nordic games, which had been held every four years since
1901. But the International Olympic Committee (1OC) agreed to stage an
International Sports Week in Chamonix, France, in 1924. It was a success
and the Scandinavians won 28 of the 43 medals, including nine golds. They
dropped their objections and the event was retrospectively named the First
Olympic Winter Games. Apart from the Second World War period the
Winter Olympics were held every four years, a few months before the
summer Olympics. But in 1986 the 1OC changed the schedule so that the
summer and winter games would be held different years. Thus, for the only
time in history, the Lillehammer (Norway) Games took place just two years
after the previous Winter Olympics which were held in Albertville, France.
Since the Winter Games began, 55 out of 56 gold medals in the men's nordic
skiing events have been won by competitors from Scandinavia or the former
Soviet Union. For teams from warm weather countries, cross-country skiing
can pose problems, At the Calgary Games in 1988, one competitor in the 50-
kilometre even was so slow that race officials feared he was lost and sent out
a search party. Roberto Alvarez of Mexico had never skied more than 20
kilometers before and finished 61st and last 52 minutes behind the 60th
place.
What position did Roberto Alvarez finished ?

46 I am rather ____ with this kind of movie

47 To win the prize , you have ____ the wheel


48 She was cooking when the package _____

49 _____ will not get you anywhere .

50 She was _____ by a motorcycle yesterday .


KALKULUS

1 Nilai a dan b sedemikian hingga fungsi berikut


−𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏, 𝑥 > −1
𝑓 (𝑥 ) = { 2 dapat diturunkan untuk setiap x bilangan real
𝑏𝑥 − 5, 𝑥 ≤ −1
adalah ….
5
A. a = 5 dan b = − 2
5
B. a = -5 dan b =
2
5
C. a = 5 dan b =
2
2
D. a = -5 dan b = − 5
5
E. a = -5 dan b = − 2

2 𝑑𝑥
Nilai dari ∫ 1+sin 𝑥+cos 𝑥 adalah ….
𝑥
A. ln | tan 2 − 1| + 𝐶
𝑥
B. ln | tan 2 + 1|
𝑥
C. ln | tan 2 − 1| + 𝐶
𝑥
D. ln | tan 2 + 1| + 𝐶

E. ln | tan 𝑥 + 1| + 𝐶

1
3 (𝑥 3 −1)2 tan(𝑥−1)
Nilai dari lim 1 adalah …
𝑥→1 (𝑥 2 −1)2 sin(𝑥−1)

1
A. 2
1
B. 2
√2
1
C. 2
√6
1
D. 4
1
E. − 2 √6
4 Luas bidang di kuadran I dan II yang dibatasi oleh kurva 𝑦 =
1
− 3 ((𝑥 − 1)2 − 4), 𝑦 = |𝑥 − 1|, dan 𝑦 = √9 − (𝑥 − 1)2 adalah … satuan

luas
9 13
A. − 𝜋
4 9
9 13
B. 𝜋−
4 9
9 13
C. 𝜋+
4 9
9 13
D. − 4 𝜋 − 9
9 13
E. 4
+ 9
𝜋

𝜋
5 Nilai dari ∫0 (sin2 𝑥 cos 3 𝑥 − sin3 𝑥 cos 2 𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 adalah ….
4
A. − 15
2
B. − 5
4
C. 5
2
D. 5
2
E. 3

6
3
Nilai dari ∫ √𝑥 ∗ √𝑥 ∗ √𝑥 ∗ 5√𝑥 … 𝑑𝑥 adalah …
4

𝑥 𝑒−1
A. +𝑐
𝑒−1
𝑥 𝑒+1
B. +𝑐
𝑒−1
𝑥 𝑒−1
C. +𝑐
𝑒+1
𝑥 𝑒+1
D. +𝑐
𝑒+1
𝑥 𝑒−1
E. +𝑐
𝑒

7 𝑎 𝑥=√𝑎2 +𝑦 2
Nilai dari ∫0 ∫𝑥=0 √𝑎2 − 𝑦 2 𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 adalah ...
A. a
B. 2𝑎3
1
C. 𝑎3
3

D. 3𝑎3
2
E. 𝑎3
3

8 0 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑧
Nilai dari ∭𝐷 (1+ 𝑥 2+𝑦2+𝑧 2)2 if D adalah daerah yang memenuhi

pertidaksamaan 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 ≤ 1 menggunakan koordinat bola adalah ...


1
A. (2 𝜋 − 1)
1
B. 𝜋 (2 𝜋 − 1)

C. 𝜋 2
D. -1
E. 1

9 𝑑2 𝑦
Nilai dari 𝑑𝑥2 untuk fungsi t jika x = t – 2t2, y = 3t3 adalah ...

12−6𝑡+12𝑡 2
A.
(1−4𝑡)2

12−6𝑡+12𝑡 2
B.
1−4𝑡
12−6𝑡+12𝑡 2
C.
(1−4𝑡)3

12−6𝑡+12𝑡 2
D.
2
12−6𝑡+12𝑡 2
E.
4

10 𝑥
Nilai dari ∫ 𝑑𝑥 adalah …
√(2𝑥−1)2
1 1
A. (1 − )+𝐶
2 √2𝑥−1
1 1
B. (√2𝑥 − 2𝑥−1) + 𝐶
2 √
1 1
C. (√𝑥 − 2𝑥−1) + 𝐶
2 √
1 1
D.
2
(√2𝑥 − 1 − )+𝐶
√2𝑥−1
1
E. (√2𝑥 − 1 − )+𝐶
√2𝑥−1

11 𝑑𝑥
Nilai dari ∫ adalah …
𝑥 2 √4− 𝑥 2
1
A. − cot 𝑥 + 𝑐
4

√4−𝑥 2
B. +𝑐
𝑥

1 √4−𝑥 2
C. +𝑐
4 𝑥

1 √4−𝑥 2
D. −
4 𝑥

1 √4−𝑥 2
E. − +𝑐
4 𝑥

12 Nilai dari ∫ −𝑥2 −2𝑥+1 𝑑𝑥 adalah ….


(𝑥+1)(𝑥+2)2
1
A. 2 ln |x + 1| - 3 ln |x + 2| + +𝐶
𝑥+2
1
B. ln |x + 1| - 3 ln |x + 2| + +𝐶
𝑥+2
1
C. 2 ln |x + 1| - ln |x + 2| + +𝐶
𝑥+2
1
D. 2 ln |x + 1| + 3 ln |x + 2| + +𝐶
𝑥+2

E. ln |x + 1| - ln |x + 2| + 𝐶

13 Persamaan lingkaran kelengkungan di titik P(1,1) pada kurva x3 – 2y3 + 3xy


= 2 adalah …
4
A. 5
5
B.
4
1
C. 2
1
D. 4
3
E.
4

14 Jika u = √(𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ) dengan x = t2 dan y = 2t, maka 𝑑𝑢 …


𝑑𝑡

(𝑡 2 +2)
A.
√𝑡 2+4
2(𝑡 2+1)
B.
√𝑡 2+4
2(𝑡 2+2)
C.
√𝑡 2+4
2(𝑡 2+2)
D.
√𝑡 2+2
(𝑡 2+2)
E.
√𝑡 2 +2

15 Luas daerah bidang yang dibatasi oleh parabola-parabola y2 = x, y2 = 2x, x2


= y, dan x2 – 2y adalah …
1
A. 10
1
B.
5
1
C. 4
1
D. 3
1
E. 6

16 Luas daerah yang terletak di luar lingkaran x2 + y2 = a2 dan di dalam


lingkaran x2 + y2 – 2ax = 0 adalah ….
𝑎2
A. (√3 − 𝜋)
24
𝑎2
B. (√3 − 2𝜋)
24
𝑎2
C. (3√3 − 2𝜋)
12
𝑎
D. 24
(3√3 − 2𝜋)
𝑎2
E. (3√3 − 2𝜋)
24

17 Jika diberikan vektor u = 4i – 6j + k dan vektor v = -3i – 2j + 5k, maka


Compvu adalah ….
5
A.
√18
5
B.
√28
5
C.
√38
4
D.
√28
4
E.
√38

18 Titik minimum dari F(x,y,z) = (x – 3)2 + (y – 2)2 + (z – 1)2 = 0 dengan kendala


G(x,y,z) = 2x – 3y – 4z – 25 = 0 adalah …
A. (-1, -1, -3)
B. (-1, 5, -3)
C. (5, -1, -3)
D. (-1, -3, 5)
E. (-3, 5, -1)

19 Volume ellipsoida 𝑥2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 = 1 adalah ….


𝑎2 𝑏2 𝑐2
3
A. 𝜋𝑎𝑏𝑐
4

B. 5𝜋𝑏𝑐
C. 2𝜋𝑎𝑏𝑐
4
D. 𝜋𝑎𝑏𝑐
3
4
E. 5
𝜋𝑎𝑏𝑐

20 Nilai ∫2 ∫𝑦=𝑥2 𝑑𝑦𝑑𝑥 adalah ….


0 𝑦=𝑥 −2
3
A. 10
10
B. 4
10
C. 3
4
D. 10
10
E. 5

21 If D is the area between the line y = 2x and the parabola y = x – 3, then the
0
value of ∬𝐷 𝑥𝑦 𝑑𝐴is ….
527
A.
24
527
B.
12
527
C. 6
527
D. 3

E. 527
22 A plate is bounded by the x-axis, the y-axis, the line x = 2 and the circle 𝑦 =
√4 − 𝑥 2 , the density is determined by ρ (x, y). From this information, the
correct statement is indicated by the number ...
8
1) The mass M is 3

2) The moment with respect to the x-axis is π and the moment with respect
to the y-axis is 2
64
3) The moment of inertia with respect to the x-axis is 15 and the moment of
96
inertia with respect to the y-axis is 15
160
The moment of inertia of the poles is
15

A. 1), 2), and 3)


B. 1) and 3)
C. 2) and 4)
D. Olny 4)
E. All answers are correct

23 The equation of the plane containing the line r = (2 – t, 3 + 4t, -1 – 2t) and
through the point (5, -2, 7) is …
A. 22x - 2y – 7x – 57 = 0
B. 22x + 2y – 7x + 57 = 0
C. 22x + 2y + 7x + 57 = 0
D. 22x + 2y – 7x – 57 = 0
E. 2x + 2y – 7x – 57 = 0

24 An area with the equation z = x3 + 3xy2 – 3x2 – 3y2 + 4, then the minimum
point of the area is …
A. (0,2,0)
B. (2,0,0)
C. (0,0,2)
D. (2,2,0)
E. (0,2,2)

25 An area with the equation z = x3 + 3xy2 – 3x2 – 3y2 + 4, then the the saddle
point of the area is ….
A. (2,1,1)
B. (1,2,1)
C. (1,1,2)
D. (2,2,1)
E. (1,2,2)

26 An area with the equation z = x3 + 3xy2 – 3x2 – 3y2 + 4, then the maximum
point of the area is …
A. (0,0,4)
B. (0,4,0)
C. (4,0,0)
D. (4,4,0)
E. (0,4,4)

27 The equation for the plane containing the points P(1, 0, -3), Q(2, -5, -6),
and R(6, 3, -4) is ….
A. - x + y + 2z + 5 = 0
B. - x – y - 2z - 5 = 0
C. x – y + 2z + 5 = 0
D. x + y + 2z + 5 = 0
E. 2x – 2y + 2z + 5 = 0

28 Given a function with f : R → R for f(x) = 4x2 + 1 each x ∈ R and line 𝑥𝑛 =


1
∑𝑛𝑘=1 for each n ∈ N. Value for lim 𝑓(𝑥𝑛 ) is ….
𝑘 2 +5𝑘+6 𝑥→∞
1
A.
3
13
B. 9

C. 1
9
D. 13

E. 3

29 Volume benda yang dibatasi oleh luasan-luasan z = 8 – x2 – y2 dan z = x2 –


3y2 adalah ….
A. 8𝜋
B. 8𝜋√2
C. 8𝜋√3
D. 4𝜋√5
E. 4𝜋√7

30 For each n ∈ ℕ, fn = nx (1 – x2)n for each x with 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and 𝑎𝑛 =


1
∫0 𝑓𝑛 (𝑥 )𝑑𝑥.
If sn = sin (𝜋𝑎𝑛 ) for each , then n ∈ ℕ, so lim 𝑠𝑛 is ….
𝑛→∞

A. 1
1
B. 2
√3
1
C. 2
√2
1
D. 2

E. 0

31 𝑥 3003 +18𝑥 2002−115𝑥 1001 −2244


Diketahui P = bilangan bulat. Jika nilai
𝑥 1001 +𝑘
maksimum k yang memenuhi adalah k1 dan nilai minimum k yang memenuhi
adalah k2, maka nilai k1 – k2 adalah ….
32 Diketahui f(2013x – 2012) = 3x2015 – 6x2014 + 1. Apabila f(n)(x) adalah turunan
20132012 × 𝑓(2013)(2014)
ke-n dari f(x), maka nilai dari
2014!
adalah ….
33 Nilai dari lim tan 𝑎−tan 𝑏
𝑎 𝑎 adalah ….
𝑎→𝑏 1+(1−𝑏 ) tan 𝑎 tan 𝑏 −𝑏

34 Diketahui fungsi.
sin 2𝑥 , 𝑥 ≤ 0
( )
𝑓 𝑥 ={ 𝑎𝑥, 0<𝑥<1
2
𝑥 + 𝑏, 𝑥 ≥ 1
Mempunyai turunan di x = 0 and x = 1, nilai dari a – b adalah …

35
Diketahui , maka

36 Suatu luasan dengan persamaan z = x3 + 3xy2 – 3x2 – 3y2 + 4, maka nilai


minimum luasan tersebut adalah …

37 Nilai maksimum F(x,y) = xy dengan kendala x2 + y2 = 8 adalah ….

38 Luas ellips (2x + y)2 + (x – y)2 = 9 adalah … 𝜋

39 Luas daerah antara parabola y = x2 – 2 dan garis y = x adalah ….

40 Volume yang dibatasi oleh luasan z = x2 + y2 + 4 dan bidang z = 8 adalah …


𝜋

41 Suatu luasan dengan persamaan z = x3 + 3xy2 – 3x2 – 3y2 + 4, maka nilai


maksimum luasan tersebut adalah …

42 Nilai minimum F(x,y) = xy dengan kendala x2 + y2 = 8 adalah ….

43 Nilai minimum dari F(x,y,z) = (x – 3)2 + (y – 2)2 + (z – 1)2 = 0 dengan kendala


G(x,y,z) = 2x – 3y – 4z – 25 = 0 adalah …
44 Jika f kontinue di R dan ∫𝑥2 𝑡𝑓 (𝑡)𝑑𝑡 = 𝑥 6 − 2𝑥 4 , maka nilai dari f(1) adalah
0

….

45 Nilai dari lim (𝑥 𝑥𝑥 ) adalah ….


𝑥→0

46 Steve says to Jon, “I am thinking of a polynomial whose roots are all positive
integers. The polynomial has the form P(x) = 2x3 – 2ax2 + (a2 – 81)x – c for
some positive integers a and c. Can you tell me the values of a and c?” After
some calculations, Jon says, “There is more than one such polynomial.”
Steve says, “You’re right. Here is the value of a.” He writes down a positive
integer and asks, “Can you tell me the value of c?” Jons says, “There are still
two possible values of c.” Find the sum of the two possible values of c is ….

47 For positive integer n, let s(n) donate the sum of the digits of n. Find the
smallest positive integer satisfyings (n) = s(n + 864) = 20 is ….

48 The force F = 3i + 5j moves an object along a line segment from (-1,2) to


(3,5). If the magnitude of F is in newtons and the distance is measured in
meters, then the work done is... J

49 If a rectangle is in a semicircle of radius 2, then the possible area of the


rectangle is … unit area

50 A spherical solid with a radius of 5 cm has a non-uniform moisture content,


depending on the distance and the center of the sphere. The equation for the
relationship of water content (C) in grams/cm 3 with the distance from the
center of the sphere (r) in cm is C = 0.4 (1 – 0.04r2), then the total mass of
water in the spherical solid is … gram

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