SMA
DAFTAR ISI
DAFTAR ISI ....................................................................................................................2
IPA SMP ...........................................................................................................................3
MATEMATIKA SMP ...................................................................................................20
BAHASA INGGRIS SMP .............................................................................................35
MATEMATIKA SMA ...................................................................................................57
KIMIA SMA ...................................................................................................................70
FISIKA SMA ..................................................................................................................84
BIOLOGI SMA ..............................................................................................................98
EKONOMI SMA .........................................................................................................114
BAHASA INGGRIS SMA ...........................................................................................133
KALKULUS .................................................................................................................168
DAFTAR ISI
IPA SMP
3 Alkohol dan garam adalah contoh zat yang larut dalam air. Alkohol dan
garam dapat dipisahkan dari air dalam larutan tersebut dengan cara …..
A. Memanaskan larutan alkohol hingga semua alkohol menguap dan
memanaskan larutan garam hingga semua garam menguap
B. Memanaskan larutan alkohol hingga titik didih alkohol dan
memanaskan larutan garam hingga titik didih air
C. Mendinginkan larutan alkohol hingga semua air membeku dan
menyaring larutan garam
D. Menyaring larutan alkohol dan mendinginkan larutan garam hingga
semua garam membeku
5 Keping bimetal terdiri atas dua keping logam dengan koefisien muai panjang
berbeda. Jika keping bimetal dipanaskan, maka akan melengkung dengan
bagian luar lengkungan adalah ….
A. Logam dengan koefisien muai panjang lebih besar
B. Logam dengan koefisien muai panjang lebih kecil
C. Logam dengan koefisien muai ruang lebih besar
D. Logam dengan koefisien muai ruang lebih kecil
13 Sirup merupakan campuran larutan gula, air, pengharum, dan zat lainnya.
Jika kita ingin mendapatkan air murni dari sirup, metode pemisahan zat yang
sesuai adalah ….
A. Penyaringan
B. Kromatografi
C. Sublimasi
D. Destilasi
15 Atom 39
19K memiliki jumlah elektron, proton dan neutron sebanyak ….
20 Ibu Wira, guru IPA kelas VII menugaskan siswanya untuk membawa
sekelompok tumbuhan dengan ciri-ciri sebagai berikut.
(1) Memiliki akar, batang, dan daun
(2) Tumbuh di tempat lembab
(3) Tidak berbunga
(4) Memiliki spora yang terletak di bawah permukaan daun
Kelompok tumbuhan yang memiliki ciri-ciri tersebut adalah ….
A. Lumut
B. Tanaman kacang-kacangan
C. Paku-pakuan
D. Rumput-rumputan
21 The gaps in the leaves that we usually refer to as stomata have a function
as a place that has a function as a place for gas to enter. These stomata
come from tissue modification….
A. Cortex
B. Epidermis
C. Parenchyma
D. Meristem
22 Based on the theory, it is known that the energy available from one trophic
rank to the next is only 10%. If the tertiary consumer has 100 kcal of energy,
then the energy producer is worth….
A. 1.000.000 kcal
B. 100.000 kcal
C. 10.000 kcal
D. 1.000 kcal
24 Currently, the satria and their families live in the city of Surabaya. Two years
ago, Satrio and his family lived in Suka Maju Village in a remote area of
East Java. The migration of people carried out by Satria and her family is….
A. Emigration
B. Immigration
C. Transmigration
D. Urbanization
26 FOSSIL FUELS
Many power plants burn carbon-based fuel and emit carbon dioxide (CO2).
CO2 released into the atmosphere has a negative impact on global climate.
Engineers have used different strategies to reduce the amount of CO 2
released into the atmosphere.
One such strategy is to burn biofuels instead of fossil fuels. While fossil fuels
come from long-dead organisms, biofuel comes from plants that lived and
died recently.
Another strategy involves trapping a portion of the CO 2 emitted by power
plants and storing it deep underground or in the ocean. This strategy is called
carbon capture and storage.
Using biofuels does not have the same effect on atmospheris levels of CO 2
as using fossil fuels. Which of the statements below best explains why?
A. Biofuels do not release CO2 when they burn.
B. Plants used for biofuels absorb CO2 from the athmosphere as they grow.
C. As the burn, biofuels take in CO2 from the atmosphere.
D. The CO2 released by power plants using biofuels has different chemical
properties than that released by power plants using fossil fuels.
27
1. This released unit focuses on the distribution pattern of volcanoes and the
impact of volcanic eruptions on climate and the atmosphere. Stimulus
materials include a map showing the location of volcanoes and earthquakes
around the globe and graphs illustrating the impact that volcanic eruptions
have on the amount of solar radiation that reaches Earth’s surface and on
carbon dioxide concentrations in the atmosphere.
Please read the following information:
VOLCANIC ERUPTIONS
Atmospheric Crbon Dioxide
Volcanoes emit carbon dioxide (CO2) during eruptions. The graph below
shows atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations that scientists have
measured since 1960.
The table shows the relative contribution of different sources to the carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere.
Source Contribution to CO2 in the
Atmosphere
Volcanic emissions < 1%
Human-caused emissions 20%
Plant respiration 40%
Microbial respiration and 40%
decomposition
Based on the information provided, what effect do volcanic eruptions have
on the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
A. A major effect, because there have been many eruptions.
B. A major effect, because each eruption ejects large amounts of material.
C. A minor effect, because volcanoes release little CO2 compared to other
sources.
D. A minor effect, because CO2 levels in the atmosphere decrease during
eruptions.
28
2. This released unit describes an innovative type of eyeglasses that use fluid
to adjust the shape of the lenses. The interactive portion of the unit first
allows students to investigate the effect of adjusting the amount of fluid in
the lens on the shape of the lens. Students are then able to investigate the
effect of the lens adjustments on the vision of three different people: one
with normal vision, one with farsighted vision, and one with nearsighted
vision.
ADJUSTABLE GLASSES
A new technology, called adjustable glasses, has been developed to help
people without access to eye doctors to correct their vision. The lenses of
thes glasses contain a fluid. The shape of the lens changes as the amount of
fluid in the lens is adjusted.
The idea of adjustable lenses is not new. The human eye also has a lens that
is adjustable.
The shape of the eye’s lens is adjusted by muscle action. Why is it important
for the eye’s lens to change shape?
A. To facilitate seeing objects that have different brightnesses
B. To facilitate seeing objects that have different colours
C. To facilitate seeing objects that have different distances
D. To facilitate seeing objects that have different sizes
29 BIRD MIGRATION
Bird migration is a seasonal large-scale movement of birds to and from their
breeding grounds. Every year volunteers count migrating birds at specific
locations. Scientists capture some of the birds and tag their legs with a
combination of coloured rings and flags. The scientists use sightings of
tagged birds together with volunteers’ counts to determine the migratory
routes of birds.
Most migratory birds gather in one area and then migrate in large groups
rather than individually. This behaviour is a result of evolution. Which of
the following is the best scientific explanation for the evolution of this
behaviour in most migratory birds?
A. Birds that migrated individually or in small groups were less likely to
survive and have offspring.
B. Birds that migrated individually or in small groups were more likely to
find adequate food.
C. Flying in large groups allowed other bird species to join the migration.
D. Flying in large groups allowed each bird to have a better chance of
finding a nesting site.
30 BIRD MIGRATION
Golden Plovers
Golden plovers are migratory birds that breed in northern Eeurope. In
autumn, the birds travel to where it is warmer and where more food is
available. In spring the trave back to their breeding grounds.
The maps below are based on more than ten years of research on the
migration of the golden plover. Map 1 shows the southward migratory routes
of the golden plover during auntumn, and map 2 shows the northward
migratory routes during spring. Areas coloured grey are land, and areas
coloured white are water. The thickness of the arrows indicated the size of
the migrating groups of birds.
Which statements about the golden plover’s migration do the maps support?
A. The maps show a decrease in the number of golden plovers migrating
southward in the past ten years.
B. The maps show that northward migratory routes of the some golden
plovers are different from southward migratory routes.
C. The maps show that migratory golden plovers spend their winter in areas
that are south and southwest of their breeding or nesting grounds.
D. The maps show that the migratory routes of the golden plover have
shifted away from coastal areas in the past ten years.
31 Terdapat dua buah balok di atas lantai. Balok P diletakkan di atas balok Q.
Balok P memiliki massa 100 gram dan balok Q memiliki massa 300 gram.
Balok Q didorong oleh gaya 3 N vertikal ke atas. Jika balok tidak saling
bergerak, maka besar gaya normal oleh balok Q dan balok P adalah …. N
32 Diketahui sebuah benda P bermassa m1. Benda tersebut diberi gaya sebesar
12 N sehingga benda P mengalami percepatan sebesar 8 m.s-2. Selain benda
P, terdapat benda Q bermassa m2 yang diberi gaya F, sehingga benda Q
mengalami percepatan sebesar 2 m.s-2. Jika gaya F bekerja pada benda R
yang memiliki massa (m1 + m2), maka percepatan yang terjadi pada benda
R sebesar …. m.s-2
34 Sungai yang cukup lebar dan dalam berbatasan dengan bibir laut. Dari
kejauhan terlihat sebuah kapal berlayar menuju ke arah sungai. Jika massa
jenis air laut sebesar 1.100 kg.m-3 dan massa jenis air tawar 1.000 kg.m-3,
maka perbandingan gaya Archimedes yang dialami kapal di laut dan di
sungai adalah …
35 Sebuah mobil bergerak dengan kelajuan 36 km/jam di jalan yang datar dan
lurus dan memiliki massa 1.500 kg. Jika jalan mobil tersebut dipercepat
hingga kelajuannya menjadi 2 kali lipat kelajuan semula, maka usaha yang
diperlukan untuk mempercepat mobil tersebut sebesar …. Joule
40 Molekul H2SO4 terdiri atas dua atom H dan satu molekul SO4. Dua atom H
dapat melepaskan dua elektron menjadi dua ion H+ dan molekul SO4
menangkap dua elektron menjadi ion SO42-. Pada peristiwa tersebut, yang
merupakan kation adalah ….
49 The results of urine tests conducted by laboratory personnel show that the
urine contains protein. The presence of protein indicates damage to the
excretion channel, to be precise in….
50 A woman who is pregnant often uses a test pack to detect her pregnancy.
The tool actually tests the content of a hormone in the urine. The hormone
in question is….
MATEMATIKA SMP
1 Jika n bilangan bulat positif terkecil sehingga 7 + 30n bukan bilangan prima,
maka nilai dari 64 + 16(-n)+(-n)2 adalah …
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
4 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Jika 1 + + 9 + 16 + 25 + ⋯ = 𝐴, maka nilai dari dari + 25 + 49 +
4 9
⋯ adalah ….
3
A. 𝐴−1
4
3
B. 𝐴+1
4
3
C. 𝐴
4
3
D. − 4 𝐴 − 1
7 Panjang sisi papan persegi adalah 63 cm. Luas area yang diarsir adalah ….
A. 1215 cm2
B. 1512 cm2
C. 1125 cm2
D. 1521 cm2
8 Jajar genjang ABCD memiliki luas 35 cm 2 dan tinggi h = 5 cm. Ini dibagi
menjadi AECF belah ketupat. dan segitiga EBC dan AFD. Luas belah
ketupat enam kali luas segitiga. Luas belah ketupat AECF adalah ....
A. 22,65 cm2
B. 26,25 cm2
C. 62,25 cm2
D. 62,52 cm2
11 Kucing saya lebih sering menyendiri. Saya hanya mendengar dia mengeong,
mendesis, dan mendengkur pada satu hari dari 25 hari terakhir. Tapi aku
mendengar dia membuat setidaknya satu suara ini setiap hari. Saya
mendengar dia mendesis selama 8 hari, mendengkur selama 14 hari, dan
mengeong pada 16 hari. Pada 3 hari, saya mendengar dia mengeong dan
mendesis tetapi tidak mendengkur, dan pada 3 hari, saya mendengar dia
mendengkur dan mendesis tetapi tidak mengeong. Berapa hari saya
mendengar dia mengeong dan mendengkur tetapi tidak mendesis?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
12 Simpul dari segi enam ABCDEF biasa terletak pada lingkaran seperti yang
ditunjukkan pada gambar. Diameter lingkaran adalah 50 sentimeter.
Keliling segi enam adalah ...
A. 200 cm
B. 150 cm
C. 100 cm
D. 50 cm
13 Suatu pagi Raka berdiri di dekat menara. Panjang bayangan Raka adalah
1,25 m, dan panjang bayangan menaranya adalah 23,30 m. Jika tinggi Raka
1,50 m, berapa tinggi menaranya?
A. 29,76 m
B. 27,96 m
C. 26,79 m
D. 26,97 m
A. 600
B. 300
C. 150
D. 75
16 Bilangan bulat terkecil dari kumpulan bilangan bulat berurutan adalah -25.
Jika jumlah dari bilangan bulat ini adalah 26, berapa banyak bilangan bulat
dalam himpunan ini?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 44
D. 52
19 Abel, Brisca, Chaca dan Daniel adalah teman sekelas di SD Cerdas. Hasi
ujian mata pelajaran Matematika yang didapat hari ini adalah sebagai berikut
:
2
Nilai ujian Brisca sama dengan nilai ujian Abel
3
3
Nilai ujian Abel sama dengan 4 nilai ujian Chaca
3
Nilai ujian Chaca sama dengan 4 nilai ujian Daniel
Jika rata-rata nilai ujian mereka berempat adalah 72, maka nilai ujian Brisca
adalah ...
A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
20 Apabila Zuhri, Zahra dan Izza mengecat kamar mereka bersama maka
membutuhkan waktu 4 jam untuk menyelesaikannya. Namun, apabila hanya
Zuhri yang mengerjakan membutuhkan waktu 7 jam. Jika mereka memulai
mengecat kamar pukul 09.35. Setelah mendapatkan setengah pekerjaan,
Zahra dan Izza pergi bermain. Lalu Zuhri mengerjakan sisanya sendiri.
Zuhri selesai mengecat kamar pada pukul ….
A. 14.50
B. 15.00
C. 15.05
D. 15.10
21 The same three drums below will become one, the three drums are tied
together three times. If you know that the radius is 50 cm and the height is 3
m, then the length of the rope that is wrapped around the drum is as long
as….
A. 50,23 m
B. 40,23 m
C. 20,23 m
D. 10,23 m
A. 27 : 8
B. 8 : 27
C. 4 : 9
D. 2 : 3
26 Awarded:
A = (200320032003 × 2004200420042004)
B. = (2003200320032003 × 200420042004)
The values of A - B are….
A. 0
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1000
28 The results of the ordered numbers are 11, 27, 59,. . . , 262139. If 11 is the
first number and 27 is the second number, then 262139 is the number to….
A. 30
B. 15
C. 7
D. 3
A. 2,50
B. 0,20
C. 0,50
D. 0,25
31 Didefinisikan [[y]] adalah bilangan bulat yang lebih kecil atau sama dengan
y
Contoh:
[[3]] = 3
[[0,2]] = 0
[[1,5]] = 1
adalah …
32 Untuk menarik minat pelanggan, suatu restoran penyedia layanan cepat saji
memberi kupon berhadiah kepada setiap orang yang membeli makanan di
restoran tersebut dengan nilai lebih dari Rp 25.000,00. Dibalik kupon
tersebut tertera nilai salah satu dari bilangan-bilangan berikut: 9, 12, 42, 57,
69, 21, 15, 75, 24, dan 81. Pengunjung yang berhasil mengumpulkan jupon
dengan jumlah bilangan dibalik kupon tersebut sama dengan 80 akan diberi
TV 21’’. Kalau pemilik toko menyediakan sebanyak 20 buah TV 21’’, maka
TV yang harus diserahkan kepada pelanggannya paling banyak adalah ….
33 Misalkan p,q, dan r adalah tiga bilangan asli berbeda, faktor persekutuan
terbesar ketiganya adalah 16, sedangkan kelipatan persekutuan terkecil
ketiganya adalah 1056, maka nilai terbesar untuk p + q + r adalah ….
34 Suatu bilangan terdiri dari empat angka berbeda. Bilangan itu habis dibagi
91 dan hasil baginya adalah jumlah angka-angkanya. Banyak bilangan
dengan ketentuan tersebut adalah ….
36 Jika 10! Mempunyai nilai yang sama dengan 2a × 3b × 5c × 7d, maka nilai
dari a + b + c + d adalah ….
37
Nilai x dari √4𝑥 + √4𝑥 + √4𝑥 + ⋯ = 26 adalah ….
𝑎𝑛
38 Sebuah barisan dinyatakan sebagai berikut: a 0 = 4, a1 = 6 dan an+1 =
𝑎𝑛−1
39 Jika suku ke-5, suku ke-9, suku ke-13, dan suku ke-2019 suatu barisan
aritmatika dapat dinyatakan secara berturut-turut 5t, 2t2, 11t, dan
3031
𝑡. Maka selisih suku ke-100 dan suku ke-150 adalah ….
2
40 Hari ini usiaku 1 kali usia ayahku. Lima tahun yang lalu, usiaku ¼ kali usia
3
42 Digit satuan dari bilangan bulat positif dua digit adalah 3. Jika digit puluhan
dan digit satuan dari nomor tersebut ditukar, bilangan baru tersebut adalah
36 lebih kecil dari nomor aslinya. Berapa jumlah angka asli dan bilangan
baru….
44 Temukan hasil akhir yang paling mungkin untuk x2 + 20y2 – 8xy – 8y + 2021
adalah …
45 Pada segitiga ABC sudut ABC sebesar 2α dan sudut 140o - α. D adalah titik
pada garis segment AB sehingga CB = BD. Berapakah ukuran (dalam
derajat) sudut DCA adalah…. o
47 In 2019 the ratio of the number of male deer and female deer at Surabaya
Zoo is 4: 5.In 2020, the number of male deer increases by 15 and the number
of female deer decreases by 11, so the ratio becomes 3: 2.The difference in
the number of flavors of male and female deer in the year 2020 at the zoo
is…
49 Nearing the closing point, the cake shop left 2 chocolate cakes, 1 cheese
cake and 3 peanut cookies. Alvin will buy 3 pieces of cake, at least one of
them is a chocolate cake, there are many ways Alvin chooses the three types
of cakes ... ways
50 Ken looks at cars at shows and notices cars that are red, white, or blue. Every
white car has a black roof. Half the cars that are blue have black roofs, and
half the cars that have black roofs are white cars. There are 20 blue cars and
15 white cars. Many cars with black roofs and as many red as ...
BAHASA INGGRIS SMP
3 Mary Garden , ____ the early 1900’s , was considered one of the best singing
actresses of her time .
A. a soprano was popular
B. in a popular soprano
C. was a popular soprano
D. a popular soprano in
9 Abraham Lincolin insisted that _____ not just on mere opinion but on moral
purpose
A. to base democracy
B. for democracy to be based
C. democracy be based
D. whenever democracy is based
10 World trade patterns are indicative of the important economic issues _____
confront the world today
A. what
B. that
C. who
D. they
11 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Nocturnal creatures , raccoons forage primarily at night and spend their days
rest in their dens.
A. Nocturnal
B. primarily
C. at night
D. rest
12 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
A. in additions
B. soloist
C. served
D. delegates
13 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Good dental hygiene and a proper diet are necessary for the maintain of
sound teeth .
A. a proper diet
B. necessary
C. maintain
D. sound
14 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Rice adapt better than other grain corps to areas with unfavorable saline ,
alkaline , or acid sulfate soils.
A. adapt
B. grain
C. unfavorable
D. or
15 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Jeanette Rankin , pacifist and lifetime crusader for social and electoral
reform , was the first woman to be a membership of the United States
Congress
A. and
B. social
C. to
D. membership of
16 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
17 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
The social games of children help to prepare themselves for their adult roles.
A. social
B. of children
C. themselves
D. adult roles
18 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Algae have been an extremely important link in the food chain after the
beginning of life on Earth as we know it .
A. extremely
B. link
C. after
D. of life
19 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
The chorus plays a large part in any oratorio , linking areas were sung by
soloist with segments of choral music .
A. a large
B. in any
C. linking
D. were sung
20 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Butte , Montana , had built above large deposits of silver , gold , and copper
and became known as “ the richest hill on Earth “.
A. had built
B. deposits
C. became
D. richest
21 Changing lifestyles, changes in diet, reduced physical exercises, as well as
increased human life expectancy, have accidentally increased the prevalence
of various non-contagious diseases such as diabetes mellitus. Diabetes
mellitus is a chronic disease caused by inherited and / or acquired deficiency
in the production of insulin hormone by the pancreas, or by the
ineffectiveness of the insulin produced. This deficiency results in
increased concentrations of glucose in the blood, which can develop into
other serious complications like heart disease / stroke, high blood pressure,
circulation problems, nerve damage and damage to the kidneys or eyes. The
main symptoms of untreated diabetes are increased thirst, overactive
bladder, especially during the night, extreme tiredness, weight loss, genital
itching or regular episodes of thrush and blurred vision. There are two main
types of diabetes mellitus. Insulin-dependent diabetes, known as type-1
diabetes, develops when the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas have
been destroyed. This type of diabetes generally affects younger people.
Type-2 diabetes, or noninsulin-dependent diabetes, develops when the body
develops insufficient insulin, or when the produced insulin does not work
properly, also known as insulin resistance. People at risk of developing type-
2 diabetes are those with a family history of diabetes, people aged between
40 years and 75 years old, those of Asian or Afro-Caribbean origin, people
who are very overweight and women who have given birth to a large baby.
Certain medications, hormones, and steroids can also increase a person's risk
of acquiring diabetes mellitus. People with type-1 diabetes need injections
of insulin for the rest of their lives. They also need to have a healthy diet
containing the right balance of foods. Insulin cannot be taken orally because
it is destroyed by the digestive juices. People with type-1 diabetes usually
take either two injections or four injections of insulin per day. People with
type-2 diabetes need to eat a healthy diet, and sometimes take additional oral
hypoglycemia tablets. These tablets can help the pancreas produce more
insulin, assist the body to make better use of the insulin that the pancreas
does produce, or slow down the speed at which the body absorbs glucose
from the intestine. There is currently no cure for diabetes, but with correct
treatment, the blood glucose level can be controlled, to give the patient a
relatively normal lifestyle. Eating healthily and taking regular physical
exercise would also reduce the risk of developing complications.
34 “ even though he has seen a doctor , I can see that his condition is not
improving “
“ ______ a specialist then !”
38 X : “When are you going to tell your sister the good news ?”
Y : “When she____ from her business trip .”
40 “ There's a letter stating that Darius has to leave the U.S . next week .”
“ well , he _____ the news right away then .”
41 After the student has completed the test Day handed in the paper and left the
room .We can also say : _____that the students in the paper and left the room
43 The financial report states that the petty cash has been used for reimbursing
transportation cost and ___ computers .
45 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase
Imagine the Advertiser’s Chagrin when he realized that he had put the wrong
date in the ad.
46 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase
47 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase
The gas company detected a leak in the main line an evacuated all the tenants
of the building
49 World trade patterns are indicative of the important economic issues _____
confront the world today
MATEMATIKA SMA
1 1 𝑥−𝑦+2𝑧+2
Hasil penjumlahan dari x, y, dan z yang memenuhi 32x+y-z = (27) ,
1
1 𝑥
log (x – y + z) = 1 + 02 log 5 dan | 2 | = 2 adalah ….
2𝑦 2
16
A. − 3
26
B. − 3
C. -1
4
D. − 3
5
E. − 3
2 2 −1
Diberikan fungsi f(x) = x2 – x – 2 dan matriks A = ( ),maka det (f(A))
3 2
adalah ….
A. 3
B. 9
C. 12
D. 18
E. 36
4 1 1
Jika A(x) = 2 (𝑝 𝑥 − 𝑝−𝑥 ) dan B(x) = 2 (𝑝 𝑥 + 𝑝−𝑥 ), dengan p > 1, maka
B(nx) adalah …
1
𝑥
A. (B(𝑥 ) – A(𝑥 ))𝑛 + 𝐴 (𝑛)
1
B. (B(𝑥 ) – A(𝑥 ))𝑛 + 𝐴(𝑛𝑥 )
C. (B(𝑥 ) – A(𝑥 ))𝑛 + 𝐴(𝑛𝑥 )
D. (−B(𝑥 ) + A(𝑥 ))𝑛 + 𝐴(𝑛𝑥 )
𝑥
E. (−B(𝑥 ) + A(𝑥 ))𝑛 + 𝐴 (𝑛)
A. 36
B. 27
C. 16
D. 9
E. 4
7 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 𝑏𝑏log 4
Jika { 3 dan log 3 𝑎 = 𝑥 + 𝑦, maka a adalah ….
𝑥 − 3𝑦 = √216
A. 2
B. 7
C. 9
D. 12
E. 16
8 Jika sudut lancip x memenuhi log sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥 + log sin 𝑥 cos 2 𝑥 =
3 + log sin 𝑥 3√3, maka tan x adalah ….
A. 1
B. √6
1
C. 3
√3
D. √3
E. 3√3
2 +𝑥−12
9 Diketahui f(x) = 2𝑥 dan g(x) = 42𝑥−7 . Jika (a,b) adalah interval
dengan grafik y = f(x) berada di bawah grafik y = g(x), maka nilai 𝑎2 + 𝑏2
adalah ….
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 13
E. 17
11 Gina menabung sejumlah uang di Bank dengan suku bunga 20% per tahun.
Dalam waktu 3 tahun uang Gina menjadi Rp. 345.600,00. Agar tabungan
Gina lebih dari Rp 497.664,00, maka lamaya waktu yang diperlukan oleh
Gina untuk menabung adalah ….
A. Kurang dari 2 tahun
B. Lebih dari 3 tahun
C. Lebih dari 5 tahun
D. Lebih dari 9 tahun
E. 10 tahun
13 Daerah R persegi panjang yang memiliki titik sudut (-1,1), (4,1), (-1,-5),
dan (4,-5). Suatu titik akan dipilih dari R. Probabilitas akan terpilihnya titik
3
yang berada di atas garis 𝑦 = 2 𝑥 − 5 adalah ….
A. 1/5
B. 2/5
C. 3/5
D. ¼
E. ¾
14 Tono mengetos 2 buah dadu, peluang Tono mendapatkan jumlah mata dadu
5 sebanyak 3 kali dalam 4 percobaan sebanyak …
16
A. 272
18
B. 322
18
C. 812
32
D. 812
16
E. 812
17 𝑥+1
Jika fungsi f dan g mempunyai invers dan memenuhi f(2x) = x dan g(𝑥+2) =
18 Diketahui dua buah fungsi f(x) = 10x dan g(x) = x2 + 5, maka f-1(g(x2)) adalah
….
A. log x2
B. log (x4 + 5)
C. log x4 – 5
D. log x4 + 5
E. log (x2 + 5)
19 2 𝑥−1
Jika f-1(𝑥+2) = 𝑥+2, maka nilai a agar f(a) = -1 adalah ….
A. ½
B. 3/2
C. 1
D. 2
E. 5/2
E. g-1(2x) – 6
23 The line g goes through the point (2,4) and pertains to the parabola y2 = 8x.
if line h passes through (0,0) and is perpendicular to line g, then the equation
for line h is….
A. x + y = 0
B. x – y = 0
C. x + 2y = 0
D. x – 2y = 0
E. 2x + y = 0
24 𝑘
A value of k between 0 and π which gives ∫0 (sin 𝑥 + cos 𝑥)𝑑𝑥 is the
maximum….
5𝜋
A.
4
3𝜋
B. 4
2𝜋
C.
3
𝜋
D.
3
𝜋
E. 2
25 The slope of the tangent to the curve y = f(x) at point (x,y) is 3x2 + 4x + 6.
If the curve passes through the point (1,14), then it intersects the y-axis at….
A. (0,5)
B. (0, 4 ½ )
C. (0,4)
D. (0,3)
E. (0,2)
26 If the curve y = f(x) through (-1,1) and the slope of the tangent at each point
is m(x) = 3x(x - 2), then the curve intersects the y axis at point (0,c), with c
….
A. – 8
B. – 5
C. 0
D. 5
E. 8
27 𝑑𝑥
Value for ∫ 1+cos 𝑥 is ….
A. cot x + sec x + c
B. cot x - csc x + c
C. - cot x + csc x + c
D. - cot x - sec x + c
E. cot x + 2 sec x + c
B. 𝜋
3𝜋
C. 2
D. 2π
5𝜋
E.
4
31 1 1 1 1 1
Nilai dari 10−2021 +1 + 10−2020 +1 + 10−2019+1 + ⋯ + 100 +1 + ⋯ + 102019+1 +
1 1
+ 102021+1 adalah ….
102020+1
34 Banyaknya penduduk suatu negara adalah 210 juta jiwa dan 60% di
antaranya mempunyai hak pilih dengan komposisi 70% laki-laki dan
sisanya perempuan. Jika 15% dari pemilih laki-laki dan 15% dari pemilih
perempuan tidak menggunakan hak pilihnya, maka banyaknya orang yang
tidak menggunakan hak pilihnya adalah …. Juta orang.
35 Jika median data pada tabel di bawah adalah 66,5, maka nilai x adalah ….
Interval Frekuensi
50-56 4
57-63 x
64-70 14
71-77 7
78-84 5
36 1
Hanya 3 dari seluruh perusahaan di suatu kota yang memberlakukan UMK
37 Kecepatan atau laju pertumbuhan penduduk suatu kota untuk t tahun yang
akan datang dinyatakan sebagai N(t) = 400t + 600√𝑡, 0 ≤ t ≤ 9. Jika banyak
penduduk saat ini adalah 5.000 jiwa, maka banyak penduduk 9 tahun yang
akan datang adalah ,,,, jiwa
38 36 3
Nilai dari ∫1 3 𝑑𝑥 adalah ….
√𝑥(3+√𝑥)2
39 0 6𝑥 2 −10𝑥+7
Jika ∫−2 (cos(−𝜋𝑘𝑥 ) + 𝑘+2
) 𝑑𝑥 = (𝑘 − 2)(𝑘 + 7). Untuk nilai k
40 1
Diketahui f(x) = |x – 1|. Nilai ∫0 𝑓 (𝑥 ) 𝑑𝑥 ….
41 1 𝑥 1 1
Jika ∫0 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑎, maka ∫0 𝑑𝑥 adalah ….
1+𝑥 1+𝑥
42 Diketahui prisma tegak ABC.DEF dengan luas bidang dasar 15 cm 2. Luas
ADBC = 25 cm2, BC = 5 cm. Tinggi prisma tersebut adalah … cm
44 Seorang mahasiswa di luar negeri ingin menambah uang saku dengan cara
bekerja sambil kuliah. Ia hanya diperbolehkan bekerja selama 10 jam setiap
minggu. Dalam satu minggu ia dapat bekerja pada hari jum’at, sabtu, dan
minggu. Jika ia bekerja dihitung dalam satuan jam dan bekerja paling
sedikit 2 jam setiap hari, maka banyak komposisi lama jam kerja pada hari-
hari tersebut yang mungkin adalah ….
46 A food store provides ice cream with 6 different flavors. The many ways a
buyer can choose 5 ice creams with 3 different flavors are….
14
A wall clock has a 21 cm long hand with a P point and a 14 cm short needle
with a Q point that is formed from the center of the clock to the number 4.
The projection of the point P on the connecting line numbers 9 and 3 is the
point P' and the projection of Q on the connecting line it is Q'. If the starting
point of the short needle is O, then the length of OQ' reaches 7 cm at….
𝜋
50 If x1 and x2 are the solution of csc2x + 3 csc x – 10 = 0,, where − 2 < 𝑥 <
𝜋 sin 𝑥1 +sin 𝑥2
, 𝑥 ≠ 0, then =⋯
2 sin 𝑥1 .sin 𝑥2
KIMIA SMA
11. Sebanyak 1 L larutan mengandung ion Ca2+ dan Mg2+ masing-masing 10-4
M ke dalam larutan tersebut ditambahkan larutan yang mengandung OH-.
Jika Ksp Ca(OH)2 = 5,5 × 10-6 dan Ksp Mg(OH)2 = 1,8 × 10-11, ion Ca2+ dan
Mg+2 akan terpisah pada pH .... (Diketahui: √2 = 1,4 dan log 4,2 = 0,6)
A. 3,4
B. 6,8
C. 5,3
D. 10,6
E. 11,0
sebanyak 8 partikel alfa dan 5 partikel beta, inti terakhir yang terbentuk pada
deret ini adalah ….
241
A. 94Pu
209
B. 83Bi
209
C. 82Pb
221
D. 92U
209
E. 99Es
3 Larutan 0,1 M yang akan membentuk endapan dengan larutan 0,1 M KOH
berlebihan, tetapi tidak mengendap dengan larutan 0,1 M NH 3 berlebih
adalah ….
A. AgNO3
B. Cu(NO3)3
C. BaCl2
D. AlCl3
E. MgCl2
4 Bila diketahui:
X = CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
Y = CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
Z = HOCH2CH2CH2OH
Berdasarkan konsep kepolaran dan ikatan hidrogen, maka urutan kenaikan
kelarutan zat-zat tersebut di atas dalam air adalah ….
A. Z < Y < X
B. X < Z < Y
C. Y < Z < X
D. X < Y < Z
E. Y < X < Z
6 Seorang siswa ingin mengukur 17,3 mL larutan standar. Ini bisa dilakukan
paling baik menggunakan wadah mana?
A. gelas kimia 25 mL
B. Pipet volumetrik 25 mL
C. 25 mL buret
D. Labu ukur 25 mL
E. gelas ukur 20 Ml
7 Jika asam klorida 6 M ditambahkan pada suatu contoh padatan, ternyata
dihasilkan suatu gas tak berwarna. Kemungkinan padatan tersebut adalah ….
A. Kalsium nitrat
B. Tembaga (II) klorida
C. Potasium sulfat
D. Sodium karbonat
E. Natrium klorida
8 Dua senyawa anorganik murni meleleh berturut-turut pada 112 oC dan 114
o
C. Jika sejumlah massa yang sama dari kedua senyawa tersebut
dicampurkan, campuran tersebut akan mulai meleleh pada suhu ….
A. Dibawah 112 oC
B. Pada 112 oC
C. Antara 112 oC dan 114 oC
D. Diatas 114 oC
E. Pada 114 oC
9 Cara membedakan dua contoh padatan putih, timbal (II) klorida dan perak
klorida adalah …
A. Tambahkan 10 mL air dingin pada kedua contoh. Perak klorida akan
larut
B. Tambahkan 10 mL air panas pada kedua contoh. Timbal (II) klorida
akan larut
C. Tambahkan 10 mL natrium klorida pada kedua contoh. Timbal (II)
klorida akan menjadi hangat dan menghasilkan gas klorin
D. Tambahkan 10 mL seng klorida pada kedua padatan. Perak klorida akan
berubah menjadi logam perak.
E. Tambahkan 10 mL seng klorida pada kedua padatan. Timbal (II) klorida
akan berubah menjadi logam timbal.
10 Suatu mineral yang mengandung besi (II) sulfida tetapi tidak mengandung
senyawa sulfida lain, direaksikan dengan asam klorida berlebih sehingga
menghasilkan asam sulfida. Bila 3,15 gram contoh mineral menghasilkan
448 mL gas asam sulfida (diukur pada 0 oC dan 760 mmHg), maka massa
besi (II) sulfida dalam contoh sebanyak ….
A. 20,4
B. 25,5
C. 55,8
D. 71,0
E. 98,9
11 Talium yang ditempatkan di alam mengandung dua isotop stabil, Tl-203 dan
Tl-205, dan mempunyai massa atom rata-rata sebesar 204,4, maka
persentase dari Tl-205 adalah ….
A. 14,0 %
B. 30,0 %
C. 50,0 %
D. 70,0 %
E. 80,0 %
12 Massa maksimum (dalam gram) NO yang dapat terbentuk dari reaksi antara
15,5 g N2O4 dan 4,86 g N2H4 (massa molar N2O4 = 92,0; N2H4 = 32,0)
dengan persamaan reaksi:
2N2O4 + N2H4 → 6NO + 2H2O
adalah ….
A. 4,38
B. 5,04
C. 15,2
D. 26,2
E. 52,4
13 Volume H2SO4 0,108 M yang diperlukan untuk menetralkan 25 mL KOH
0,145 M adalah …. mL
A. 16,8
B. 33,6
C. 37,2
D. 67,1
E. 124,2
14 Suatu campuran gas pada 27 oC dan 760 mmHg mengandung He, H2, N2 dan
CO2 masing-masing 1,0 gram, perbandingan kecepatan rata-rata
molekularnya adalah ….
A. He = H2 = N2 = CO2
B. CO2 < H2 = N2 < He
C. He < H2 < N2 < CO2
D. CO2 < N2 < He < H2
E. CO2 < H2 < N2 < He
19 Dalam larutan alkali, klorin akan berubah menjadi ion-ion Cl- dan ClO3-,
maka perbandingan ion Cl- dan ClO3- yang terbentuk adalah ….
A. 1 : 1
B. 2 : 1
C. 3 : 1
D. 5 : 1
E. 7 : 1
20 Bila 1,3 gram sulfur dilarutkan dalam 15 gram naftalena ternyata larutan
tersebut membeku pada 77,2 oC. Massa relatif dari sulfur tersebut adalah ….
(diketahui: titik beku naftalena = 80 oC dan Kf naftalena = 6,80 oC/m)
A. 180
B. 190
C. 240
D. 260
E. 300
21 If 0,1 M solution of HClO4, NH4Br, KOH, and KCN are dissolved in water
with the same volume, then if the solution formed is arranged according to
the increase in [H+] then the correct order is….
A. KOH < KCN < NH4Br < HClO4
B. KCN < KOH < HClO4 < NH4Br
C. HClO4 < NH4Br < KCN < KOH
D. NH4Br < HClO4 < KOH < KCN
E. KCN < NH4Br < KOH < HClO4
22 Is known:
CS2(l) + 3O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2SO2(g) ΔH = -1077 kJ
H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O2(l) ΔH = -188 kJ
H2(g) + ½ O2(g) → H2O2(l) ΔH = -286 kJ
ΔH value for the reaction:
CS2(l) + 6H2O2(l) → CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) + 2SO2(g) is …. kJ
A. -1175
B. -1551
C. -1665
D. -3921
E. -4000
23 Equilibrium reaction:
H2C2O4 + 2H2O ⇆ 2H3O+ + C2O42-
Oxalic acid, H2C2O4, is a diprotic acid with the equilibrium constant values
K1 = 5,36 × 10-2 and K2 = 5,3 × 10-5. Then the value of the reaction
equilibrium constant (K) is….
A. 5,36 × 10-2
B. 5,30 × 10-5
C. 2,80 × 10-6
D. 2,00 × 10-10
E. 2,00 × 10-13
24 Benzene and toluene form the ideal solution. The saturated vapor pressure
of toluene at 20 oC is 22 torr. For an equimolar mixture of benzene and
toluene at 20 oC, the toluene vapor pressure is… torr
A. 5,5
B. 11
C. 7,3
D. 44
E. 22
28 C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O. What is the total mass, in grams, of products
when 2,20 g of propane is burned in excess oxygen?
A. 2,20
B. 6,60
C. 3,60
D. 10,2
E. 12,0
34 Perubahan entalpi, ΔH, untuk pembakaran 11,2 L gas hidrogen, yang diukur
pada 0 oC dan tekanan 1 atm, membentuk H2O(g) adalah …. kJ
(Diketahui ΔHfo H2O(g) = -241,8 kJ/mol)
38 Volume zat cair A yang memiliki massa yang sama dengan 80 cm 3 zat cair
B… cm3
Massa jenis (g / cm3) cairan A = 0,66 dan cairan B = 1,59
42 Sebuah sampel gas oksigen ditimbang secara terpisah dalam labu dievakuasi
yang sama. Gunakan data yang diberikan untuk mencari massa molar dari
gas yang tidak diketahui (eksperimen aaume dilakukan pada tekanan dan
suhu yang sama).
Data:
Massa labu evakuasi = 124,46 g
Massa labu + oksigen = 125,1 g
Massa labu + gas tidak diketahui = 125,34 g
44 Es batu pada suhu 0 oC ditempatkan dalam 200 g air suling pada suhu 25 oC.
Suhu akhir setelah es mencair seluruhnya adalah 5 oC, berapa massa es
batu…. g
(ΔHfus = 340 Jg-1, Cp = 4,18 Jg-1 oC-1)
45 Sebanyak 1 L larutan mengandung 0,01 mol NH4OH dan 0,01 mol NiCl2.
Banyaknya mol NH4CI yang harus ditambahkan ke dalam larutan agar
Ni(OH)2 tidak mengendap adalah ... mol
(Kb NH4OH = 1 × 10-5, Ksp Ni(OH)2 = 5 × 10-16)
50 Hydrazine, N2H4, contains a N-N single bond and 4 N-H bonds. Une bond
energies to calculate ΔH in kJ for the reaction;
N2 + 2H2 → N2H4
Bond energies (kJ/mol)
H-H = 436 N-N = 159 N≡N = 941
N-H = 389 N=N = 418
FISIKA SMA
Dari data tabel perjalanan mobil tersebut yang termasuk ke dalam besaran
vektor adalah ….
A. Massa dan waktu tempuh mobil
B. Waktu dan jarak tempuh mobil
C. Perpindahan dan kelajuan mobil
D. Perpindahan dan kecepatan mobil
E. Kelajuan dan kecepatan mobil
Kecepatan
Waktu
Benda A Benda B Benda C
t(s) v (m/s) v (m/s) v (m/s)
2 10 10 10
4 5 10 10
6 15 15 20
8 10 20 30
10 20 5 20
12 30 10 15
Berdasarkan data tersebut dapat disimpulkan benda yang mengalami
percepatan terbesar adalah ….
A. Benda A untuk t = 10 s sampai t = 12 s
B. Benda B untuk t = 8 s sampai t = 10 s
C. Benda B untuk t = 4 s sampai t = 6 s
D. Benda C untuk t = 6 s sampai t = 8 s
E. Benda C untuk t = 8 s sampai t = 10 s
7 Mobil sport bergerak dipercepat dengan percepatan tetap dari keadaan diam
sampai mencapai kecepatan 108 km/jam dalam waktu 8 detik. Jarak yang
ditempuh selama selang waktu tersebut adalah …. m
A. 9.060
B. 480
C. 120
D. 60
E. 564
8 Dua buah kendaraan meninggalkan tempat yang sama dengan beda waktu
30 menit. Kendaraan yang pertama mempunyai kelanjutan tetap 40 km/jam
dan kendaraan yang kedua mempunyai kelanjutan tetap 60 km/jam.
Kendaraan kedua akan menyusul kendaraan pertama pada selang waktu …
menit
A. 30
B. 40
C. 60
D. 90
E. 120
9 Dua orang anak bermain bola. Keduanya melepas bola ke atas dari
ketinggian yang sama dengan perbandingan kecepatan awal 1:2.
Perbandingan tinggi maksimum kedua bola jika diukur dari ketinggian
semula adalah ….
A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : 3
C. 1 : 4
D. 2 : 3
E. 3 : 4
11 Sebuah peluru ditembakkan dari puncak menara yang tingginya 500 meter
dengan kecepatan 100 m/s dan arah mendatar. Apabila g = 10 m/s2 maka
peluru akan menyentuh tanah jika dihitung dari kaki menara adalah pada
jarak …. M
A. 1.000
B. 900
C. 800
D. 600
E. 500
𝑣𝑜2
C. 2𝑔
𝑣𝑜2
D.
𝑔
2𝑣𝑜2
E. 2𝑔
14 Suatu benda jatuh dari ketinggian tertentu. Apabila gesekan benda dengan
udara diabaikan, kecepatan benda pada saat menyentuh tanah ditentukan
oleh ….
A. Massa benda dan ketinggiannya
B. Percepatan gravitasi bumi dan massa benda
C. Ketinggian benda jatuh dan gravitasi
D. Waktu jatuh yang diperlukan dan berat benda
E. Kecepatan awal benda dan gravitasi
17 Sebuah benda dilepaskan tanpa kecepatan awal dari sebuah menara yang
tingginya 100 m. (gesekan udara diabaikan). Jika percepatan gravitasi 10
m.s-2, maka ketinggian benda yang diukur dari tanah pada detik ke-2 adalah
…. m
A. 20
B. 25
C. 50
D. 70
E. 80
19 Seorang siswa menerjunkan diri dari papan kolam renang setinggi 8 meter
dari permukaan air tanpa kecepatan awal. Jika massa siswa tersebut 40 kg
dan gravitasi 10 m/s2, maka kecepatan siswa tersebut saat membentur
permukaan air adalah …. m/det
A. 80
B. 16
C. 4√10
D. 4√5
E. 4√2
21 The amount of work to move the car (the mass of the car and its contents is
1000 kg) from rest to reach a speed of 72 kg/hour is …. (friction ignored)
A. 1,25 × 104 J
B. 2,50 × 104 J
C. 2,00 × 105 J
D. 6,25 × 105 J
E. 4,00 × 106 J
22 A child throws a stone with an initial speed of 12,5 m.s-1 and an angle of 30o
with the horizontal. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m.s -2, how long
does it take the stone to reach the ground …. s
A. 0,40
B. 0,60
C. 1,25
D. 1,60
E. 2,50
23 A bullet is placed in such a way that its range is equal to three times its
maximum height. If the angle of elevation then the object tan α is ….
4
A. 3
B. 1
3
C. 4
1
D. 2
1
E.
4
24 Two bullets A and B are fired from the same rifle with the same initial
velocity but the angle of elevation of the object is 45 o and 60o, then the ratio
of the distance between A and B is ....
1
A.
√3
√3
B. 2
2
C. 3
√3
√3
D.
√2
√3
E. 4
25 Two moons and the planet Jupiter have the same radius, while their masses
are in a 3 : 2 ratio, then the ratio of the acceleration due to gravity on the
surface is...
A. 9 : 4
B. 2 : 3
C. 3 : 2
D. 6 : 1
E. 4 : 9
26 A ball is kicked with a speed of 6,5 m/s making an initial angle (sin α = 12),
13
and g = 10 m/s2, then the time it takes the ball to reach the ground again is
…. s
A. 3
B. 2,2
C. 2
D. 1,2
E. 1
28 The toy car moves in a circular path of radius 2 m. If the angular speed of
the car is 40 rpm, what is the linear velocity and centripetal acceleration of
the toy …
4𝜋 8𝜋2
A. 𝑚. 𝑠 −1 and 𝑚. 𝑠 −2
3 9
6𝜋 12𝜋2
B. 𝑚. 𝑠 −1 and 𝑚. 𝑠 −2
3 9
8𝜋 32𝜋2
C. 𝑚. 𝑠 −1 and 𝑚. 𝑠 −2
3 9
10𝜋 20𝜋2
D. 𝑚. 𝑠 −1 and 𝑚. 𝑠 −2
3 9
12𝜋 824
E. 𝑚. 𝑠 −1 and 𝑚. 𝑠 −2
3 9
29 A wheel pulley rotates at 300 rpm (rotations per minute), then the linear
velocity of the particle located at a distance of 150 mm from the center point
is ....
A. 0,5 𝜋 m/s
B. 0,75 𝜋 m/s
C. 𝜋 m/s
D. 1,5 𝜋 m/s
E. 2 𝜋 m/s
35 Seorang anak berada di dalam lift yang bergerak ke atas dengan percepatan
4 m.s-2. Jika massa anak 40 kg dan percepatan gravitasinya 10 m.s-2, maka
gaya normal (N) yang bekerja pada anak tersebut adalah … N
38 Reza bermassa 40 kg berada di dalam lift yang sedang bergerak ke atas. Jika
gaya lantai lift terhadap kaki Reza 520 N dan percepatan gravitasi 10 m.s -2,
maka percepatan lift tersebut adalah …. m.s-2
39 Sebuah benda 2 kg diikat dengan seutas tali yang panjangnya 1,5 m lalu
diputar menurut lintasan lingkaran vertikal dengan kecepatan sudut tetap.
Jika g = 10 m/s2 dan pada saat benda berada di titik terendah tali mengalami
tegangan sebesar 47 newton, maka kecepatan sudutnya (dalam rad/s) adalah
….
42 Koefisien gesek statik antara sebuah lemari kayu dengan lantai kasar suatu
bak truk sebesar 0,75. Percepatan maksimum yang masih boleh dimiliki truk
agar lemari tetap tak bergerak terhadap bak truk itu adalah … m/s 2
44 Sebuah benda ditempatkan pada sebuah bidang mendatar, massa benda 2 kg.
pada benda bekerja gaya dalam arah horizontal sebesar 20 N. Apabila
koefisien gesekan kinetik antara benda dengan bidang 0,4 percepatan yang
dialami benda adalah …. m/s2
46 A block lies on a flat plane. At time t = 0 s the block is at rest. Then, from
time t = 0 s to t = 5 s the block is pushed with a constant force of 40 newtons
parallel to the plane so that it moves and just stops at t = 10 s. If the
coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the plane is 0,2, then the
weight of the block is equal to …. N
47 Object A (2 kg) is at a distance of 5 m from object B (4,5 kg), while object
C (3 kg) is between objects A and B. If the gravitational force on object C is
equal to zero, it means that the distance between objects A and C are … m
48 An object placed on the surface of the earth of radius R has a weight of 360
N. If the object is placed at a height of 2R from the surface of the earth, then
the object's weight becomes … N
49 An earth satellite orbits as high as 3.600 km above the earth's surface. If the
radius of the earth is 6.400 km and the satellite's motion is considered
uniform circular, then its speed (in km/s) is...
50 An object on earth weighs w1 and on a planet is w2. If the mass of the planet
is three times the mass of the earth and the radius of the planet is twice the
radius of the earth, then the ratio of the weight of the object on the earth to
the planet is...
BIOLOGI SMA
4 Suhu rata-rata global pada permukaan bumi telah meningkat 0,74 ± 0,18°C
selama seratus tahun terakhir. Hasil analisis lingkungan sebagai berikut:
(1) penurunan permukaan air laut;
(2) atmosfer diselimuti gas karbon dioksida;
(3) berkurangnya volume es di kutub;
(4) eutrofikasi sungai dan danau;
(5) volume ozon di atmosfer berkurang;
(6) efek rumah kaca.
Faktor yang berkaitan erat dengan peningkatan suhu permukaan bumi adalah
….
A. (1), (2), dan (5)
B. (1), (3), dan (6)
C. (2), (3), dan (4)
D. (2), (3), dan (6)
E. (3), (4), dan (5)
7 Seorang pasien yang telah mengalami pendarahan parah secara tidak sengaja
menerima transfusi akuades dalam jumlah besar, dan langsung masuk ke
dalam pembuluh darah utama. Efek yang akan terjadi pada pasien tersebut
adalah …
A. tidak memiliki efek yang tidak menguntungkan, asalkan air bebas dari
bakteri
B. memiliki efek yang serius, bahkan mungkin fatal karena akan ada terlalu
banyak cairan untuk dipompa
C. memiliki efek yang serius, bahkan mungkin fatal karena sel-sel darah
merah akan menyusut
D. memiliki efek yang serius, bahkan mungkin fatal karena sel-sel darah
merah akan membengkak dan pecah
E. tidak memiliki efek serius karena ginjal dengan cepat bisa
menghilangkan kelebihan air
12 Industri tekstil akhir-akhir ini kesulitan mendapatkan bahan baku kain sutra.
Untuk mengatasi masalah tersebut, masyarakat melakukan budi daya ulat
sutra yang tergolong hewan kelas Insekta dalam kelompok Arthropoda. Ciri-
ciri kelas Insekta adalah ….
A. kaki beruas-ruas dan memiliki sayap
B. jumlah kaki 3 pasang dan tubuh terdiri atas 2 bagian (kepala, dada, dan
perut)
C. jumlah kaki sepasang dan tubuh terdiri atas 3 bagian (kepala, dada, dan
perut)
D. jumlah kaki 3 pasang, tubuh terdiri atas 3 bagian (kepala, dada, dan
perut)
E. jumlah kaki 3 pasang, tubuh beruas- ruas
15 Proses pembentukan nitrit dan nitrat disebut nitrifikasi yang dibantu oleh
bakteri dengan reaksi sebagai berikut.
(1) NH3 + H2O → NH4OH
(2) NH4OH+3O2→2NO2 + H2O + 4H+
(3) 2NO2 + 02→2NO2 +
Energi Bakteri (1), (2), dan (3) berturut-turut adalah ....
A. Nitrosomonas – Clostridium – Azotobacter
B. Nitrococcus – Nitrosomonas – Nitrobacter
C. Nitrobacter - Nitrosomonas Nitrobacter
D. Nitrosomonas - Azotobacter - Clostridium
E. Azotobacter - Nitrosomonas – Nitrosomonas
19 Ketika istirahat makan siang, Maya dan Lira mengonsumsi makanan yang
mengandung protein tinggi. Dalam sistem pencernaan, organ yang
menghasilkan enzim yang berfungsi untuk memecah protein tinggi yang
dikonsumsi oleh Maya dan Lira adalah ….
A. mulut dan lambung
B. lambung dan usus besar
C. lambung dan usus halus
D. mulut dan usus besar
E. mulut dan usus halus
22 In an area, there are children whose conditions are: thin body, distended
stomach, stunted growth, damaged eyes, and dull skin. The child turned out
to have a deficiency ...
A. protein and vitamins
B. protein and minerals
C. protein and carbohydrates
D. protein and fat
E. Carbs and fat
23 Tubes A and B were each filled with rice solution, then saliva was added to
tubes A and B, specifically to tube A, orange juice was added. Next to each
tube, Fehling A and Fehling B were dropped, then heated. From the
observations, tube B shows a brick red color and tube A does not show a
color change.
From this one might expect ...
A. ptialin does not work in acidic situations
B. ptialin can function in acidic situations
C. ptialin does not work in acidic situations
D. ptialin only works after heating
E. ptialin can convert maltose into glucose
25 The endosperm is a food reserve for the embryo in its early stages of growth,
the endosperm comes from the fusion between ....
A. Haploid sperm with haploid ovum
B. 1 haploid sperm nucleus with secondary institutional nucleus
C. 1 diploid sperm nucleus with secondary nucleus
D. 2 haploid sperm nucleus with secondary institutional nucleus
E. 2 diploid sperm nucleus with secondary nucleus
27 In its life cycle, liverworms have two hosts, namely herbivores and
Lymnea snails. Eggs that come out with the feces of herbivorous animals
will become….
A. Cyst that is inactive
B. metacercariae which has a tail
C. cercariae which is inactive
D. miracidium which has cilia
E. redia which is inactive
33 Pada siklus hidup cacing pita (Taenia saginata) telur yang dilepaskan
bersama feses manusia akan menetas membentuk larva. Bila larva tertelan
oleh sapi (sebagai inang perantara) lalu masuk ke usus, selanjutnya larva
dewasa akan berkembang menjadi …
37 Pada saat luka, kita tidak mengalami pendarahan karena darah mengandung
faktor penggumpalan yang dapat menutup luka. Tetapi pada kasus tertentu,
ada orang vang bila terluka, lukanya tidak mudah menutup, sebab tidak
mempunyai faktor penggumpal. Orang tersebut menderita penyakit …
38 Suatu jaringan tumbuhan memiliki sifat: merupakan jaringan dasar, tersusun
dari sel hidup, mempunyai struktur morfologi yang bervariasi, masih dapat
membelah, dan berfungsi dalam pembentukan tunas. Jaringan tumbuhan
yang dimaksud adalah ....
39 Seorang ahli tentang insekta meneliti ciri-ciri insekta. Dari 100 ekor insekta,
kebanyakan insekta itu tidak bersayap, tidak mengalami metamorfosis,
mulut menggigit, maka ahli tersebut memutuskan insekta-insekta tersebut
kebanyakan masuk golongan ....
42 Tumbuhan paku yang dapat digunakan sebagai pupuk organik karena dapat
bersimbiosis dengan alga untuk mengikat N, dari udara adalah ….
46 Rina often experiences heartburn that goes away immediately after taking
medication. This pain occurs after eating, so Rina becomes lazy to eat. After
seeing the doctor, it turned out that the doctor stated that there was a wound
on the inside of his stomach. Based on this information, Rina is thought to
be suffering from a disease ...
48 Biuret test on a food product shows a negative result (no red or purple color
appears). If the food product is used as the only food source, it will cause ...
49 Meri's face always looks pale, her body is lethargic, and her blood laboratory
test results show that her leukocytes are far above normal, while her red
blood cells are very low. Meri is suspected of suffering….
50 A child often feels dizzy and tired. After checking and checking the blood,
it turned out that the Hb level in his blood was very low. This disorder in the
circulatory system is called ...
EKONOMI SMA
Ekspor +600
Impor -800
_____
10. Bu Siti baru saja merintis usaha barunya di bidang kuliner, yaitu dengan
membuka usaha catering. Respons dari konsumen sangat baik sehingga
permintaan meningkat drastis. Namun, Ia memiliki kendala yaitu
kekurangan modal dalam mengembangkan usahanya. Untuk mengatasi
masalah tersebut hal yang harus ditempuh oleh Ibu Siti adalah …
A. Mencari tenaga kerja yang profesional
B. Mencari mitra kerja dalam modal untuk pengembangan usaha
C. Melakukan promosi melalui media sosial untuk mengembangkan
usaha
D. Mencari bahan baku yang murah dan berkualitas
E. Mencari orang-orang yang dapat mengelola keuangan usahanya
dengan baik
11. Ada memiliki sejumlah uang dari hasil tabungannya .Iya berencana
menggunakan uang tersebut untuk berwirausaha .Namun, Ia belum
menentukan jenis usaha apa yang akan ia geluti .Berdasarkan hal tersebut
cara untuk mengatasi masalah tersebut adalah …
A. Memilih tempat yang akan dijadikan lokasi usaha
B. Merekrut tenaga kerja yang dibutuhkan
C. Memilih teknik pemasaran usaha yang optimal
D. Menyusun anggaran biaya produksi yang dibutuhkan
E. Membuat daftar bidang usaha yang akan ditekuni dan mempelajari
prospeknya
15. Bidang usaha yang memiliki peran penting bagi perekonomian negara dan
menyangkut hajat hidup orang banyak dikuasai oleh negara. Beberapa
bidang usaha tersebut antara lain minyak dan gas bumi, listrik, dan air
minum. Berdasarkan uraian tersebut keuntungan bagi masyarakat adalah…
A. Meningkatkan laju pertumbuhan ekonomi
B. Mencegah monopoli pihak swasta dalam pemenuhan kebutuhan
barang dan jasa
C. Kemudahan untuk memperoleh kebutuhan dengan harga yang relatif
terjangkau
D. Mengisi kas negara sehingga dapat memajukan dan mengembangkan
perekonomian
E. Membuka dan memperluas lapangan pekerjaan bagi masyarakat
NO A B C
Kas Rp8.000.000,00
Peralatan Rp25.000.000,00
Modal Rp62.000.000,00
Piutang Rp4.500.000,00
Perlengkapan Rp5.200.000,00
19. Tidak setiap pinjaman yang diajukan kepada bank dapat diproses dengan
cepat bahkan ada yang tidak terlayani.Hal ini disebabkan oleh penyaluran
kredit yang dilakukan oleh bank Harus melihat kondisi ekonomi negara dan
aturan dari bank sentral.
Dari Pernyataan diatas peranan bank dalam menyalurkan Kredit adalah …..
A. Meningkatkan gairah para pengusaha
B. Menjadi salah satu alat stabilitas ekonomi
C. Meningkatkan peredaran dan lalu lintas uang
D. Meningkatkan daya guna dan Peredaran uang
E. Meningkatkan daya guna dan Peredaran barang
A B C
Berdasarkan tabel diatas yang termasuk ciri-ciri pasar oligopoli adalah …..
A. A1, B1, dan C1
B. A1, B2, dan C3
C. A2, B1, dan C2
D. A2, B2, dan C2
E. A3, B3, dan C3
21. Maju always set aside some of her income from trading to save in the bank,
and Nuri deposited some of the inheritance she received to increase the
amount. Meanwhile, Eka applied for credit to the bank as an additional
business capital. Based on the statement above, the role of banks in the
economy is….
A. Improve usability and circulation of goods
B. Become one of the tools of economic stability
C. Increase enthusiasm for business
D. Improving income distribution
E. Increase the circulation of money traffic
22. The difference between a bank and a non-bank financial institution is….
A. Banks are under the guidance of the Ministry of Finance while non-
bank financial institutions are under the guidance of Bank Indonesia
B. Banks are official financial institutions while non-bank financial
institutions are informal financial institutions
C. Which is a government institution while non-bank financial institutions
are private institutions
D. Banks are the main financial institutions while non-bank financial
institutions are supporting financial institutions
E. Banks are under the responsibility of Bank Indonesia while non-bank
financial institutions are under the Ministry of Finance
Assets Rp120.000.000,00
Money Rp15.000.000,00
Model Rp210.000.000,00
Prive Rp8.000.000,00
Sale Rp350.000.000,00
Purchase Rp175.000.000,00
Burden Rp25.000.000,00
25. The following are the regulations that form the basis for the formation of
the OJK:
A. Law No.1 Year 2013
B. Law No. 2 Year 2008
C. Law No. 6 Year 2009
D. Law No. 21 of 2011
E. Law No. 23 of 1999
26. Since the amendment of Number 6 of 1992 to Law Number 10 of 1998,
Indonesia has recognized other types of banks, namely Islamic banks. The
following that distinguishes Islamic banks from conventional banks is that
Islamic banks …..
A. Determining the reward based on the provisions that have been set
while conventional banks are based on mutual agreement
B. All types of businesses that meet the Shari'a while conventional banks
always make observations on these types of businesses
C. Have different products from conventional banks
D. Data financing is based on a percentage, while conventional banks are
based on customer benefits
E. Profit sharing system while conventional banks are based on interest
27. Mrs. Susi's total acceptance as a cake producer is shown by the equation
TR = 2.000 Q - 8Q2 And the total cost is shown by the equation TC =
10.000 - 400Q, then Mrs. Susi's company will get ….
A. Maximum profit 75.000
B. Minimum loss 70.000
C. Maximum profit 70.000
D. Minimum loss 150.000
E. Maximum profit 150.000
30. The goods produced by the company are sold at a price of Rp. 2.000.00/unit.
The total cost incurred to produce these goods is shown by the equation TC
= 1.000,000 + 1.800 Q.
The amount of goods that must be sold at the point of return is ……
A. QBEP = 10.000 units
B. QBEP = 2.000 units
C. QBEP = 5.000 units
D. QBEP = 1.000 units
E. QBEP = 500 units
1 Most natural post are located where the shoreline is irregular and ___ .
A. deep water
B. is the water deep
C. the water is deep
D. there is the deep water
E. the water are deep
2 ____ to the reproductive rates of other small mammals , that of the bat is
very low indeed .
A. Compared
B. It is compared
C. To be comparing
D. Have compared
E. Has been comparing
3 ____ native to Europe , the daisy has now spread throughout most of North
America .
E. Although
F. If it were
G. In spite of
H. That it is
I. It is there
4 The financial report states that the petty cash has been used for reimbursing
transportation cost and ___ computers .
A. Upgrading
B. it is to upgrade
C. to upgrade
D. we upgrade
E. be upgrade
5 The luggage is twice the baby’s weight. The luggage is ____ the baby
A. as heavy as
B. lighter than
C. heavier than
D. as light as
E. be light as
A. was
B. have
C. can be
D. am
E. can had been
10 “ You were supposed to be here ten minute ago . Where were you ?.”
“ I ____ a specialist then !.”
A. am looking
B. looked
C. was looking
D. look
E. had been looking
11 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
The surface conditions on the Planet Mars are the more like the earth than
are those of any other Planets In The Solar system.
A. Condition
B. The more
C. Than
D. Other
E. System
13 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
The Humber river and it's valley from a major salmon fishing, lumbering ,
hunting , and Farmer region In The western new foundland Canada .
A. It’s
B. From
C. Major
D. Farmer
E. Foundland
14 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
When eggs of some species of Insects hatch ,the newly born insects look
almost like its adult counterparts.
A. When
B. Species
C. Look
D. Its
E. Counterparts
15 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
The capital of the United States ,originally New York city, was moved to
Philadelphia where stayed until 1800.
A. The capital
B. Originally
C. was moved
D. Where stayed
E. Until
16 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
17 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
18 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
19 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Hawaii’s eight major islands and numerous islets from the only state in the
United States that is not lie on the mainland of North America .
A. Major
B. numerous
C. only
D. not
E. lie
20 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
30 Sugar impacts your white blood cells by competing for space in those cells
with Vitamin C. Some research in the 1970s discovered that white blood
cells need Vitamin C to destroy bacteria and viruses. Sugar and Vitamin C
are similar in their chemical structure. When you eat sugar, it directly
competes for space in your immune cells with Vitamin C. The more sugar
in your system, the less Vitamin C can get into your white blood cells. Sugar
does not help your immune system fight infection at all, resulting in a
weakened defense from infections. Eating more fresh fruits and vegetables
is a great way to get immune boosting benefits from Vitamin C and other
phytonutrients found in fresh raw foods. The colors of produce give you a
clue for how they help the immune system. Choose orange fruits and
vegetables like carrots to get more beta carotene, the precursor your body
turns into Vitamin A. This nutrient helps your immune system by supporting
healthy lungs and lymph. Do not stress about it if you find it hard to
completely throw out the sugar and load up on fresh whole fruits and
veggies. Diet changes take time and if you want your new healthy habits to
stick, be persistent as you try switching out a large salad for that fast food
sandwich at lunch. If you normally eat sweet processed food like donuts for
breakfast, try replacing it with mixed fresh fruit and see how much better
you feel over time. Your taste buds will need a few weeks to get used to
changes in what you're eating. Your body will get over the cravings, which
are actually a symptom of the deficiencies of empty foods until you have
nourished your body well for a time. In the long term, the more fresh whole
foods you eat, the more energy you'll have and the stronger your immune
system will be.
Based on the passage , it can be hypothesized that our body ‘s immune
system will get stronger if …
A. we replace sugar with low sugar diet
B. our diet consists of fresh fruits and vegetables
C. our food produces energy to convert nutrients into vitamins
D. we consume salads to replace sugar and fast food
E. we eat low - calorie food
31 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase.
A democratic leader delegates authority and responsibility to order
32 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase.
When it comes to buying clothes Herman is impetutous
33 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase.
There is campaign against those hunter who mercilessly slaughter baby
seals.
34 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase.
As we approached the pyramids , a massive stone sphinx greeted us at the
entrance .
35 VOCABULARY
The sentence has the word or phrase underlined. determine the word or
phrase that has the same meaning when using the underlined word or phrase.
The speaker walked confidently an quickly to the podium .
36 (5) Europa is the smallest of planet Jupiter's four largest moons and the
second moon out from Jupiter. Until 1979, it was just another astronomy
textbook statistic Then came the close-up images obtained by the
exploratory spacecraft Voyager 2, and within days, Europa was transformed-
in our perception, at least-into one of the solar system's most intriguing
worlds. The biggest initial surprise was the almost total lack of detail,
especially from far away. Even at close range, the only visible features are
thin, kinked brown lines resembling cracks in an eggshell. And this analogy
is not far off the Mark .
(10) The surface of Europa is almost pure water ice, but a nearly
complete absence of craters indicates that Europa's surface ice resembles
Earth's Antarctic ice cap. The eggshell analogy may be quite accurate since
the ice could be as little as a few kilometers thick a true shell around what is
likely a subsurface liquid ocean that, in turn, encases a rocky core. The
interior of Europa has been kept warm over the eons by tidal forces generated
by the varying gravitational tugs of the other big moons as
(15) they wheel around Jupiter. The tides on Europa pull and relax in
an endless cycle. The resulting internal heat keeps what would otherwise be
ice melted almost to the surface. The crack like marks on Europa's icy face
appear to be fractures where water mark. or slush oozes from below.
(20) Soon after Voyager 2's encounter with Jupiter in 1979, when the
best images Europa were obtained, researchers advanced the startling idea
that Europa's of subsurface was releasing a vast store of internal
heat. Jupiter's early heat was produced by the compression of the material
forming the giant planet. Just as the Sun is far less radiant today than the
primal Sun, so the internal heat generated by Jupiter is minor compared to
its former intensity. During this warm phase, some 4.6 billion years ago,
Europa ocean may have been liquid right to the surface, making it a crucible
for life. ocean might harbor life. Life processes could have begun when
Jupiter was realising a vast store of internet heat . Jupiter’s early heat was
produced by the compression of the material forming the giant planet . Just
as the sun is far less radiant today then the primal sun, so the internal heat
generated by jupiter is minor compared
(25) to its former intensity . During this warm phase , some 4.6 billion
years ago , Europa’s ocean may have been liquid right to the surface , making
it a crucible for life .
The word “ intriguing “ in line 5 is closest in meaning to ….
37 (5) Europa is the smallest of planet Jupiter's four largest moons and the
second moon out from Jupiter. Until 1979, it was just another astronomy
textbook statistic Then came the close-up images obtained by the
exploratory spacecraft Voyager 2, and within days, Europa was transformed-
in our perception, at least-into one of the solar system's most intriguing
worlds. The biggest initial surprise was the almost total lack of detail,
especially from far away. Even at close range, the only visible features are
thin, kinked brown lines resembling cracks in an eggshell. And this analogy
is not far off the Mark .
(10) The surface of Europa is almost pure water ice, but a nearly
complete absence of craters indicates that Europa's surface ice resembles
Earth's Antarctic ice cap. The eggshell analogy may be quite accurate since
the ice could be as little as a few kilometers thick a true shell around what is
likely a subsurface liquid ocean that, in turn, encases a rocky core. The
interior of Europa has been kept warm over the eons by tidal forces generated
by the varying gravitational tugs of the other big moons as
(15) they wheel around Jupiter. The tides on Europa pull and relax in
an endless cycle. The resulting internal heat keeps what would otherwise be
ice melted almost to the surface. The crack like marks on Europa's icy face
appear to be fractures where water mark. or slush oozes from below.
(20) Soon after Voyager 2's encounter with Jupiter in 1979, when the
best images Europa were obtained, researchers advanced the startling idea
that Europa's of subsurface was releasing a vast store of internal
heat. Jupiter's early heat was produced by the compression of the material
forming the giant planet. Just as the Sun is far less radiant today than the
primal Sun, so the internal heat generated by Jupiter is minor compared to
its former intensity. During this warm phase, some 4.6 billion years ago,
Europa ocean may have been liquid right to the surface, making it a crucible
for life. ocean might harbor life. Life processes could have begun when
Jupiter was realising a vast store of internet heat . Jupiter’s early heat was
produced by the compression of the material forming the giant planet . Just
as the sun is far less radiant today then the primal sun, so the internal heat
generated by jupiter is minor compared
(25) to its former intensity . During this warm phase , some 4.6 billion
years ago , Europa’s ocean may have been liquid right to the surface , making
it a crucible for life .
39 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
Twenty thousand years ago a sheet of ice a thousand meters thick covered
the coastal region which the cities of Vancouver and Juneau now are
located.
40 ERROR RECOGNITION
Choose the one word or phrase which would not be appropriate in standart
written English!
The Crow , Blackfoot , and Sioux tribes traditionally
adorned they dwellings and costumes with colorful
and highly valued beaded decorations
43 The 17th Winter Games, held in Norway in 1994, are part of an Olympic
tradition which goes back almost 3,000 years. The first modern Games were
held in Athens in 1896, and four vears later, in Paris, women began to take
part. Although the winter Olympics did not begin until 1924, figure skating
was part of the 1908 London summer Olympics, both skating and ice hockey
were included in the Antwerp Games in 1920. But generally winter sports
were felt to be too specialized. Only cold-weather countries had much
experience of activities such as skiing-a means of transport overland across
ice and snow during long winters. The Scandinavians, for whom skiing is a
part of everyday life, had objected to a winter games. They feared it would
threaten their own Nordic games, which had been held every four years since
1901. But the International Olympic Committee (1OC) agreed to stage an
International Sports Week in Chamonix, France, in 1924. It was a success
and the Scandinavians won 28 of the 43 medals, including nine golds. They
dropped their objections and the event was retrospectively named the First
Olympic Winter Games. Apart from the Second World War period the
Winter Olympics were held every four years, a few months before the
summer Olympics. But in 1986 the 1OC changed the schedule so that the
summer and winter games would be held different years. Thus, for the only
time in history, the Lillehammer (Norway) Games took place just two years
after the previous Winter Olympics which were held in Albertville, France.
Since the Winter Games began, 55 out of 56 gold medals in the men's nordic
skiing events have been won by competitors from Scandinavia or the former
Soviet Union. For teams from warm weather countries, cross-country skiing
can pose problems, At the Calgary Games in 1988, one competitor in the 50-
kilometre even was so slow that race officials feared he was lost and sent out
a search party. Roberto Alvarez of Mexico had never skied more than 20
kilometers before and finished 61st and last 52 minutes behind the 60th
place.
When was the first olympic winter games held ?
44 The 17th Winter Games, held in Norway in 1994, are part of an Olympic
tradition which goes back almost 3,000 years. The first modern Games were
held in Athens in 1896, and four vears later, in Paris, women began to take
part. Although the winter Olympics did not begin until 1924, figure skating
was part of the 1908 London summer Olympics, both skating and ice hockey
were included in the Antwerp Games in 1920. But generally winter sports
were felt to be too specialized. Only cold-weather countries had much
experience of activities such as skiing-a means of transport overland across
ice and snow during long winters. The Scandinavians, for whom skiing is a
part of everyday life, had objected to a winter games. They feared it would
threaten their own Nordic games, which had been held every four years since
1901. But the International Olympic Committee (1OC) agreed to stage an
International Sports Week in Chamonix, France, in 1924. It was a success
and the Scandinavians won 28 of the 43 medals, including nine golds. They
dropped their objections and the event was retrospectively named the First
Olympic Winter Games. Apart from the Second World War period the
Winter Olympics were held every four years, a few months before the
summer Olympics. But in 1986 the 1OC changed the schedule so that the
summer and winter games would be held different years. Thus, for the only
time in history, the Lillehammer (Norway) Games took place just two years
after the previous Winter Olympics which were held in Albertville, France.
Since the Winter Games began, 55 out of 56 gold medals in the men's nordic
skiing events have been won by competitors from Scandinavia or the former
Soviet Union. For teams from warm weather countries, cross-country skiing
can pose problems, At the Calgary Games in 1988, one competitor in the 50-
kilometre even was so slow that race officials feared he was lost and sent out
a search party. Roberto Alvarez of Mexico had never skied more than 20
kilometers before and finished 61st and last 52 minutes behind the 60th
place.
Where was the first olympic winter games held ?
45 The 17th Winter Games, held in Norway in 1994, are part of an Olympic
tradition which goes back almost 3,000 years. The first modern Games were
held in Athens in 1896, and four vears later, in Paris, women began to take
part. Although the winter Olympics did not begin until 1924, figure skating
was part of the 1908 London summer Olympics, both skating and ice hockey
were included in the Antwerp Games in 1920. But generally winter sports
were felt to be too specialized. Only cold-weather countries had much
experience of activities such as skiing-a means of transport overland across
ice and snow during long winters. The Scandinavians, for whom skiing is a
part of everyday life, had objected to a winter games. They feared it would
threaten their own Nordic games, which had been held every four years since
1901. But the International Olympic Committee (1OC) agreed to stage an
International Sports Week in Chamonix, France, in 1924. It was a success
and the Scandinavians won 28 of the 43 medals, including nine golds. They
dropped their objections and the event was retrospectively named the First
Olympic Winter Games. Apart from the Second World War period the
Winter Olympics were held every four years, a few months before the
summer Olympics. But in 1986 the 1OC changed the schedule so that the
summer and winter games would be held different years. Thus, for the only
time in history, the Lillehammer (Norway) Games took place just two years
after the previous Winter Olympics which were held in Albertville, France.
Since the Winter Games began, 55 out of 56 gold medals in the men's nordic
skiing events have been won by competitors from Scandinavia or the former
Soviet Union. For teams from warm weather countries, cross-country skiing
can pose problems, At the Calgary Games in 1988, one competitor in the 50-
kilometre even was so slow that race officials feared he was lost and sent out
a search party. Roberto Alvarez of Mexico had never skied more than 20
kilometers before and finished 61st and last 52 minutes behind the 60th
place.
What position did Roberto Alvarez finished ?
2 𝑑𝑥
Nilai dari ∫ 1+sin 𝑥+cos 𝑥 adalah ….
𝑥
A. ln | tan 2 − 1| + 𝐶
𝑥
B. ln | tan 2 + 1|
𝑥
C. ln | tan 2 − 1| + 𝐶
𝑥
D. ln | tan 2 + 1| + 𝐶
E. ln | tan 𝑥 + 1| + 𝐶
1
3 (𝑥 3 −1)2 tan(𝑥−1)
Nilai dari lim 1 adalah …
𝑥→1 (𝑥 2 −1)2 sin(𝑥−1)
1
A. 2
1
B. 2
√2
1
C. 2
√6
1
D. 4
1
E. − 2 √6
4 Luas bidang di kuadran I dan II yang dibatasi oleh kurva 𝑦 =
1
− 3 ((𝑥 − 1)2 − 4), 𝑦 = |𝑥 − 1|, dan 𝑦 = √9 − (𝑥 − 1)2 adalah … satuan
luas
9 13
A. − 𝜋
4 9
9 13
B. 𝜋−
4 9
9 13
C. 𝜋+
4 9
9 13
D. − 4 𝜋 − 9
9 13
E. 4
+ 9
𝜋
𝜋
5 Nilai dari ∫0 (sin2 𝑥 cos 3 𝑥 − sin3 𝑥 cos 2 𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 adalah ….
4
A. − 15
2
B. − 5
4
C. 5
2
D. 5
2
E. 3
6
3
Nilai dari ∫ √𝑥 ∗ √𝑥 ∗ √𝑥 ∗ 5√𝑥 … 𝑑𝑥 adalah …
4
𝑥 𝑒−1
A. +𝑐
𝑒−1
𝑥 𝑒+1
B. +𝑐
𝑒−1
𝑥 𝑒−1
C. +𝑐
𝑒+1
𝑥 𝑒+1
D. +𝑐
𝑒+1
𝑥 𝑒−1
E. +𝑐
𝑒
7 𝑎 𝑥=√𝑎2 +𝑦 2
Nilai dari ∫0 ∫𝑥=0 √𝑎2 − 𝑦 2 𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 adalah ...
A. a
B. 2𝑎3
1
C. 𝑎3
3
D. 3𝑎3
2
E. 𝑎3
3
8 0 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑧
Nilai dari ∭𝐷 (1+ 𝑥 2+𝑦2+𝑧 2)2 if D adalah daerah yang memenuhi
C. 𝜋 2
D. -1
E. 1
9 𝑑2 𝑦
Nilai dari 𝑑𝑥2 untuk fungsi t jika x = t – 2t2, y = 3t3 adalah ...
12−6𝑡+12𝑡 2
A.
(1−4𝑡)2
12−6𝑡+12𝑡 2
B.
1−4𝑡
12−6𝑡+12𝑡 2
C.
(1−4𝑡)3
12−6𝑡+12𝑡 2
D.
2
12−6𝑡+12𝑡 2
E.
4
10 𝑥
Nilai dari ∫ 𝑑𝑥 adalah …
√(2𝑥−1)2
1 1
A. (1 − )+𝐶
2 √2𝑥−1
1 1
B. (√2𝑥 − 2𝑥−1) + 𝐶
2 √
1 1
C. (√𝑥 − 2𝑥−1) + 𝐶
2 √
1 1
D.
2
(√2𝑥 − 1 − )+𝐶
√2𝑥−1
1
E. (√2𝑥 − 1 − )+𝐶
√2𝑥−1
11 𝑑𝑥
Nilai dari ∫ adalah …
𝑥 2 √4− 𝑥 2
1
A. − cot 𝑥 + 𝑐
4
√4−𝑥 2
B. +𝑐
𝑥
1 √4−𝑥 2
C. +𝑐
4 𝑥
1 √4−𝑥 2
D. −
4 𝑥
1 √4−𝑥 2
E. − +𝑐
4 𝑥
E. ln |x + 1| - ln |x + 2| + 𝐶
(𝑡 2 +2)
A.
√𝑡 2+4
2(𝑡 2+1)
B.
√𝑡 2+4
2(𝑡 2+2)
C.
√𝑡 2+4
2(𝑡 2+2)
D.
√𝑡 2+2
(𝑡 2+2)
E.
√𝑡 2 +2
B. 5𝜋𝑏𝑐
C. 2𝜋𝑎𝑏𝑐
4
D. 𝜋𝑎𝑏𝑐
3
4
E. 5
𝜋𝑎𝑏𝑐
21 If D is the area between the line y = 2x and the parabola y = x – 3, then the
0
value of ∬𝐷 𝑥𝑦 𝑑𝐴is ….
527
A.
24
527
B.
12
527
C. 6
527
D. 3
E. 527
22 A plate is bounded by the x-axis, the y-axis, the line x = 2 and the circle 𝑦 =
√4 − 𝑥 2 , the density is determined by ρ (x, y). From this information, the
correct statement is indicated by the number ...
8
1) The mass M is 3
2) The moment with respect to the x-axis is π and the moment with respect
to the y-axis is 2
64
3) The moment of inertia with respect to the x-axis is 15 and the moment of
96
inertia with respect to the y-axis is 15
160
The moment of inertia of the poles is
15
23 The equation of the plane containing the line r = (2 – t, 3 + 4t, -1 – 2t) and
through the point (5, -2, 7) is …
A. 22x - 2y – 7x – 57 = 0
B. 22x + 2y – 7x + 57 = 0
C. 22x + 2y + 7x + 57 = 0
D. 22x + 2y – 7x – 57 = 0
E. 2x + 2y – 7x – 57 = 0
24 An area with the equation z = x3 + 3xy2 – 3x2 – 3y2 + 4, then the minimum
point of the area is …
A. (0,2,0)
B. (2,0,0)
C. (0,0,2)
D. (2,2,0)
E. (0,2,2)
25 An area with the equation z = x3 + 3xy2 – 3x2 – 3y2 + 4, then the the saddle
point of the area is ….
A. (2,1,1)
B. (1,2,1)
C. (1,1,2)
D. (2,2,1)
E. (1,2,2)
26 An area with the equation z = x3 + 3xy2 – 3x2 – 3y2 + 4, then the maximum
point of the area is …
A. (0,0,4)
B. (0,4,0)
C. (4,0,0)
D. (4,4,0)
E. (0,4,4)
27 The equation for the plane containing the points P(1, 0, -3), Q(2, -5, -6),
and R(6, 3, -4) is ….
A. - x + y + 2z + 5 = 0
B. - x – y - 2z - 5 = 0
C. x – y + 2z + 5 = 0
D. x + y + 2z + 5 = 0
E. 2x – 2y + 2z + 5 = 0
C. 1
9
D. 13
E. 3
A. 1
1
B. 2
√3
1
C. 2
√2
1
D. 2
E. 0
34 Diketahui fungsi.
sin 2𝑥 , 𝑥 ≤ 0
( )
𝑓 𝑥 ={ 𝑎𝑥, 0<𝑥<1
2
𝑥 + 𝑏, 𝑥 ≥ 1
Mempunyai turunan di x = 0 and x = 1, nilai dari a – b adalah …
35
Diketahui , maka
….
46 Steve says to Jon, “I am thinking of a polynomial whose roots are all positive
integers. The polynomial has the form P(x) = 2x3 – 2ax2 + (a2 – 81)x – c for
some positive integers a and c. Can you tell me the values of a and c?” After
some calculations, Jon says, “There is more than one such polynomial.”
Steve says, “You’re right. Here is the value of a.” He writes down a positive
integer and asks, “Can you tell me the value of c?” Jons says, “There are still
two possible values of c.” Find the sum of the two possible values of c is ….
47 For positive integer n, let s(n) donate the sum of the digits of n. Find the
smallest positive integer satisfyings (n) = s(n + 864) = 20 is ….