1 61

PETUNJUK UMUM
1 Sebelum mengerjakan ujian, telitilah terlebih dahulu jumlah dan nomor halaman
yang terdapat pada naskah ujian.
2 Tulislah nomor peserta saudara pada lembar jawaban, sesuai dengan petunjuk
yang diberikan oleh panitia.
3 Bacalah dengan cermat setiap petunjuk yang menjelaskan cara menjawab soal.
4 Jawablah dahulu soal-soal yang menurut saudara mudah, kemudian lanjutkan
dengan menjawab soal-soal yang lebih sukar sehingga semua soal terjawab.
5 Tulislah jawaban saudara pada lembar jawaban ujian yang disediakan dengan
cara dan petunjuk yang telah diberikan oleh petugas.
6 Untuk keperluan coret-mencoret dapat menggunakan tempat yang luang pada
naskah ujian ini dan jangan sekali-kali menggunakan lembar jawaban.
7 Selama ujian saudara tidak diperkenankan bertanya atau minta penjelasan menge-
nai soal-soal yang diujikan kepada siapapun, termasuk pengawas ujian.
8 Setelah ujian selesai, harap saudara tetap duduk di tempat saudara sampai pen-
gawas datang ke tempat saudara untuk mengumpulkan lembar jawaban.
9 Perhatikan agar lembar jawaban ujian tidak kotor, tidak basah, tidak terlipat dan
tidak sobek.
10 Kode Naskah ujian ini 55
PETUNJUK KHUSUS
1 Jumlah soal sebanyak 50 butir yang terdiri dari 15 soal listening test dan 35 soal
written test.
2 Pilihlah salah satu jawaban yang paling tepat dengan menghitamkan pada salah
satu huruf a, b, c, atau d di Lembar Jawaban.
3 Untuk membetulkan jawaban, hapuslah dengan karet penghapus sampai bersih,
kemudian hitamkan jawaban yang benar
1
A. LISTENING SECTION
In this section of the test you will have the chance to show how well
you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section
with special directions for each part.
PART I. There are three items in this part. For each item, you
Directions: will see a picture on your test paper and you will
hear four short statements. The statements will be
spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your test
paper, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers say. When you hear the four state-
ments, look at the picture on your test paper and
choose the statement that best describes what you
see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find
the number of the question and mark your answer.
Look at the sample below. Now listen to the

four statements: Sample Answer:
A B C D
Statement (B), “The screen is on the wall”,

best describes what you see in the picture.
Therefore, you should mark (B) on your an-
swer sheet.
Now let’s begin with the picture marked number one (1) on your test
paper.
1 2 3
PART II. There are four items in this part of the test. For each
Directions: item, you will hear a question or statement spoken in
English followed by three responses, also spoken in Eng-
lish. They will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed
on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to under-
stand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best
response to each question or statement and mark it on
your answer sheet.
2
Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear :
You will also hear : Sample Answer
A B C
The best response to the question, “Would you like a seat in the front
row?” is choice (C), “Sure. That would be better.” Therefore you should
mark (C) on your answer sheet.
Now let’s begin with question number four (4) on your test paper.
4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

PART III. There are four items in this part of the test. For each
Directions: item you will hear a short conversation between two
people. You will hear the conversations TWICE. They will
not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers say. On your
test paper, you will read a question about each conver-
sation. The question will be followed by four answers.
You are to choose the best answer to each question and
mark it on your answer sheet.
Now, let’s begin with the question number eight (8) on your test
paper.
8. What did the man do to the woman?

A. Tell director about her new audition.
B. Suggest her to try any opportunities.
C. Tell her about the new movie.
D. Ask her to join the audition.
9. What did Leon Uris do?

A. He was spy.
B. He was bullfighter.
C. He wrote about bullfighting.
D. He wrote an adventure novel.
10. The relationship between the speakers is that they are ... .
A. Students
B. Principals
C. Colleagues
D. Job seekers
3
11. What will the people probably do next?
A. Postpone their plans.
B. Arrange time to meet.
C. Travel by themselves.
D. Meet some other friends.
PART IV. In this part of the test you will hear two short talks. Each
Directions: will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your
test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand and
remember what is said. On your test paper, you will read
two or more questions about each short talk. Each ques-
tion will be followed by four answers. You have to choose
the best answer to each question and mark it on your an-
swer sheet.
Now let’s begin with the following short talk.

12. Who is the speaker?
A. The employees.
B. The jacksons.
C. The customer.
D. The manager.
13. Why does the company use a lighter paper?

A. To reduce the costs.
B. To suggest the customers.
C. To direct them to Monica.
D. To spend much on supplies.
14. The talk is about ... in a manufacture.

A. the late shift
B. missing materials
C. a problem solving
D. a supervisor assistant
15. What should the workers do before they begin their shift?
A. Tell your supervisor.
B. Check the inventory.
C. Solve the problems.
D. Order the materials.
B. READING SECTION
In this part of the test you will have the chance to show how well
you understand written English. There are four parts to this sec-
tion, with special directions for each part.
4
PART V. From questions 16 – 25, four clauses/sentences,
Directions: marked (A), (B), (C), or (D), are given beneath each in-
complete dialog. Choose the one clause/sentence that
best completes the dialog. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the question and mark your answer.
16. Fizha : I need to finish this product proposal today and I have to
catch a train at 5:15.
Alisha : ... .
Fizha : That’s very kind of you.
A. I am sure you can finish it soon.
B. I don’t think I can help you.
C. Can I give you my hand?
D. Can you help me?
17. Melati : What do you usually do during the day ?

Dika : I start working at sevenA.M and finish it at seven P.M.
Usually, ….
Melati : You are asales, aren’t you?
Dika : Absolutely right.
A. I meet my siblings for a discussion
B. I help the customers to complain
C. I sellall the declined products
D. I market the products
18. Adzkia : I need to find a lot of sources for my script. Do you have
any recommendation?
Adna: ... And I think it is easy to do and ofcourse you need reference
books.
A. Do you have a calculator?
B. The script is not so difficult.
C. You can help me find it soon.
D. Have you browsedthe internet?
19. Firda : What do you think is the best way for us to get to the
conference?
Baiza : We take the train. We could get some work done on
the way.
irda : ... That is the best plan, I think.
A. I am not sure
B. I don’t think so
C. I couldn’t agree more
D. I have no idea about it
5
20. Ibal : Ilham, are you going to be in your office Thursday morning?
If you are not, could I work there? ...
Ilham : You are in luck, Ibal. I’ll be out until Friday.
A. I can accompany you all day.
B. My office is being painted.
C. I left my key there.
D. I will be off.
21. Supervisor : We are going to have the sales meeting this afternoon.
...., please.
Shinta : Of course, sir. I still need the sales manager’s
signature.
Supervisor : Do it right away. We don’t have much time.
A. Finish the meeting result
B. Get the report ready
C. Sign the report
D. Send it to me
22. Aleesha : Have you made any vacation plans?

Mika : Yes. ... .
A. I’m going to go snorkling
B. I was in London last month
C. I went to Dieng with my friends
D. I have been to Raja Ampat in Papua
23. Memet : What is Mr. Tito doing ?

Icut : ... .
Memet : Really ? Is he leaving now ?
Icut : Yes.
A. He’s going to work the whole day
B. He’s painting a beautiful view
C. He’s preparing his luggage
D. He’s baking some bread
24. Gatot : Your math score was so good in the final test. Did you
make any preparation?
Lutfi : … and I understoodall the item tests.
A. I joined education exhibition last week
B. I alwaysrevised math’s problem after school
C. My brotherwas good in solving the problem
D. My teacher gave extra lessons to other school
25. Ikrami : Which sport do you prefer, Fathir?

Fathir: … I always do it every week.
A. I enjoy doing it.
B. I am keen on riding horses.
C. I like reading sports magazine.
D. I’m interested in writing about it.
6
PART VI. Questions 26 – 31 are based on a selection of text di-
Directions: alogs. Choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to
each question. Answer all the questions following each
text dialog on the basis of what is stated or implied in
the selection. Then, on your answer sheet, find the num-
ber of the question and mark your answer.
Questions 26 – 28 are based on the following text dialog.
Bunga : Dinda, do you have something to do this evening? If you

are free, can youaccompany me to go to Fia’s house? I want to bor-
row
her science book.
Dinda : Ok. What time do you pick me up?
Bunga : About 6.30. Inform me as soon aspossible.
26. Who are Bunga and Dinda?

A. Siblings
B. Classmates
C. Colleagues
D. Bookkeepers
27. Based on the dialog, Bunga shows her request by asking Dinda ... .
A. to borrow Fia’s book
B. that she will pick her up
C. whether she is free this evening
D. to accompany her to Fia’s house
28. “Inform me as soon as possible.” (last sentence)

It means that Dinda has to contact Bunga ... after she makes
the decision.
A. carefully
B. directly
C. exactly
D. surely
Questions 29 – 31 are based on the following text dialog.
Wiena : Does the hotel offer a courtesyshuttle from the airport? Al-
isha : Yes, we do. Pick-up is from the Arrivals at Terminal 1. Wiena
: Could you reserve us three places? Our flight gets in at 2 p.m Al-
isha : There is no need for that. There’s plenty of room on board,
and our service runs every 20 minutes.
7
29. What is the purpose of the dialog?
A. To inform about the flight reservation
B. To tell when the flight gets in
C. To check the pick-up service
D. To provide the flight service
30. Based on the dialog, What will hotel officer do to Wiena?

A. Arrive early to welcome her
B. Pick her up at Terminal 1
C. Reserve three places
D. Run in 20 minutes
31. The underlined word in the dialog can be replaced by ... .

A. reserved
B. polite
C. free
D. full
PART VII. Questions 32 – 46 are based on a selection of reading ma-
Directions: terials, such as notices, letters, forms, articles, adver-
tisements, etc. Choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C),
or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions follow-
ing each reading selection on the basis of what is stated
or implied in the selection. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the question and mark your answer.
Questions 32 – 34 are based on the following text.
UNESCO Beirut office launched a Media training programme for

youth NGOs to enhance their communication skills, through en-
abling them to build media relations, increase their capacity to
produce media material, push their news through national and in-
ternational channels, and efficiently monitor this process.
Mr. George Awad, UNESCO Communication & Information pro-

gramme officer, talked about the programme, its stages, benefits
and the commitments needed from each NGO. This was followed
by a brief on each NGO current communication status, which was
lead by Ms. Nada Hamzeh, UNESCO consultant.
The second session was a panel discussion with Mr. Sam

Menassa, General Manager of Radio Voice of Lebanon and Mr.
Ghassan Hajjar, managing editor at Annahar Newspaper. The two
guests shared their perspective on “Understanding the Media” and
how it is dealt with at different media outlets through their own ex-
periences. Mr. Menassa talked about the structure of the media
outlets and the changes that have happened over the years. While
8
Mr. Hajjar emphasis was on the quality of information to be shared
as not any information is Media Information and not any informa-
tion is important enough to be published.
The Round-table also addressed the fact that Youth are not inter-
ested in Radio, nor Newspaper and even less in TV (as per UN-
ESCO latest study). Social Media is the Youth Hub nowadays; that
is why it was crucial to develop websites and phone applications in
order to advance at the same pace with Youth on the level of Tech-
nology.
32. What is the text about?

A. Radio voice of Lebanon
B. Media Training Program
C. The quality of information
D. Understanding the technology
33. What will the NGOs probably do after the discussion?

A. Develop websites and phone applications
B. Ask people to be interested to newspaper
C. Develop the programs of the panel
D. Publish some information
34. The underlined word in line 1 paragraph 1 can be replced by ... .

A. decrease
B. improve
C. manage
D. reach
What do you have for everyday meal? Yes, we have rice for our meal.
Do you know how do the farmers plant the rice? You can learn the fol-
lowing steps to plant rice.
The first step is selecting the seeds. Choose the seeds there are com-
pletely dry. These seeds must have been storage at least 40 to 50 days
in the storage.
The second step is seedling the seeds. Prepare the seedbed by hoeing
and loosening the soil in the watering sufficiently in the surface of
seedling. Finally spread the seeds.
The following step is cultivating the soil. While you are doing rice
seedling, you can hoe the whole soil for planting. Plow the soil and
spread the fertilizer. Mix the fertilizer with the soil thoroughly to make
the soil fertile. Give the water for about 3 cm above the surface of the
soil to make the fertilizer settled in the soil.
The last step is moving the seeds from the seedling to the planting
area, pull out the seed carefully from the seedling and the root of the
seed stick some soil.
9
35. What is the purpose of the text ?
A. To ask to do farmers’ job
B. To instruct to grow seedling
C. To tell to make our everyday meal
D. To tell the procedure of planting rice
36. What should we do after selecting the seeds?

A. Store them in the storage
B. Dry them directly
C. Seedling them
D. Spread them
37. “... plow the soil and spread the fertilizer”. The underlined word
is closest in meaning to ... .
A. loosen
B. plough
C. dry
D. do
38. What is the writer’s intention to write the text?
A. To invite people only for a meditation
B. To ask people to come to the place
C. To learn how to do surfing in Bali
D. To describe cities in Indonesia
39. In paragraph 2, the writer tries to explain that ... .

A. Gamelan will be banned by the local government
B. We can do surfing, diving in Uluwatu and Ubud
C. There are so many volcanic mountains in Bali
D. Monkeys can be endangered in Bali
40. The underlined word in the second paragraph is closest in

meaning to ... .
A. complex
B. original
C. general
D. visible
Keumalahayati, or Malahayati(16th century), was an admiral in the

navy of theAceh Sultanate, which ruled the area of modernAceh
Province,Sumatra,Indonesia. She was the first woman admiral in
the modern world.
Malahayati's reputation as the guardian of the Aceh Kingdom
ledEnglandto choose a peaceful, diplomatic method by which to
enter the Malacca Strait. A letter fromQueen Elizabeth Iwas
10
brought byJames Lancasterto the Sultan, and it was Malahayati
who led the negotiation with Lancaster. The agreement opened the
English route to Java, and they were soon afterwards able to build
merchant offices inBanten. Elizabeth I rewarded Lancaster with
aknighthoodfor his successful diplomacy in Aceh and Banten.
Malahayati was killed in combat while attacking the Portuguese
fleet at Teuluk Krueng Raya. She was buried at lereng Bukit Kota
Dalam, a small fishing village 34km from Banda Aceh.
Today, Malahayati has become the namesake for naval ships, uni-
versities, hospitals and roads in several Sumatran cities.
41. The text is written to ... .

A. know the name of streets, ships and universities in Aceh
B. give reward to Queen Elizabeth 1 for the negosiation
C. remind us of a heroic woman from Aceh Sultanate
D. explain admiral in Aceh Sultanate
42. What did she do in the agreement?

A. She led the negosiation with Lancaster
B. She built merchant offices in Banten
C. She attacked the Portuguse fleet
D. She entered Malacca strait
43. The underlined word in the text (paragraph 3) is closest

in meaning to ... .
A. in a battle
B. in a trap
C. in a gun
D. in a trip
This is to inform that the Ministry of Railways is hereby in need for

vendors who can assure an efficient and effective delivery of rail-
way coaches as per the directions of the authority from time to
time.
Vendors are expected to go through theattached rules and policies
before applying for the same.The shortlisted vendors would be in-
vited to attend the bidding to be held at the adress mentioned
below on the 31st March,’14, 12.30 p.m.
Venue: 5th Floor, Transportation Building,Jl. Abdul Muis No.1 Cen-
ter of Jakarta For further details, please contact our helpdesk at
contact@railway.com.
We look forward to a successful deal with you.
11
44. What is the topic of the text?
A. The railways vendors
B. The Ministry Railways
C. The invitation for a bid
D. Deal between the vendors
45. What will the readers do after reading the text?

A. Attach the rules
B. Visit the websites
C. Apply for the tender
D. Contact the bid owner
46. The underlined word in the text can be replaced by ... .

A. revised
B. applied
C. registered
D. accompanied
Part VIII. From questions 47 – 50, four words/phrases, marked (A),

Directions: (B), (C), or (D), are given beneath a close-test text.
Choose the one word/phrase that best completes the
text. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and mark your answer.
Dear valued customers,
We are excited to announce that we are officially changing our

company name to IDP Corporation from I&A System effective from
November 1, 2014.
The new name ... (47) our dedication to ID card industry, and sig-
nificant expansion of the business activities since ... (48) first
began operating under the name of I&A System in the year of
2005. Please take a note that “Smart” brand of existing products
remian unchanged representing continuity in these new and excit-
ing times.
The company will continue to operate in its ... (49) structure and
there has been no change in ownership, staff and its location. At
the same time we will have the new web domain, www.idp-
corp.com, and all our e-mail addresses, name@idp-corp.com, to
reflect and strengthen the corporate identity. The old e-mail ad-
dresses and website ... (50) our company will continue to be opera-
tional for the next two years. For accounting purpose, bank
information remains unchanged except the name of account
holder to the new business name.
12
We look forward to your continues success sharing with you in our
excitement about the progress and changes we are making under
the new business name. As always, we will continue to serve our
customers with the same devotion and quality which you have
come to expect from us.
Sincerely yours, Brian Roh

CEO – IDP Corporation
47. A. reflects
B. originates
C. examines
D. establishes
48. A. they
B. you
C. we
D. he
49. A. powerful
B. previous
C. current
D. secure
50. A. of
B. at
C. in
D. to
13
Listening Section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well
you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section
Part I. Pictures
Questions: 1 to 4.
Directions:
For each item, there is a picture in your test book and four short
statements about it on the tape. They are spoken twice, and are NOT
WRITTEN out on your test book, so you must listen carefully. You must
choose one statement – (A), (B), (C), or (D) – that best describes the
picture. Then, on your answer, mark your choice.
Example:
Look at the picture and listen to the four sentences.
Now listen to the four statements

a. They’re looking out the window.
b. They’re having a meeting.
c. They’re eating in the restaurant.
d. They’re moving the furniture. Sample answer
A B C D
Choice (B) “They’re having a meeting.” best describes what is seen in

the picture.
Therefore, you should mark (B) on your answer sheet.Now let’s begin
part one with question number one.
1. Look at picture number 1.
14
2. Look at picture number 2. 3. Look at picture number 3.
Part II. Questions – Responses

Questions: 4 to 6
Direction: In this part of the test, you will hear questions spoken in
English, followed by three responses, also spoken in English. The
questions and responses will be spoken twice. They will not be printed
in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the
speakers say. You have to choose the best response to each question.
Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear : Woman : Could you work until nine tonight?
You will also hear : Man :
A. No, It doesn’t work.

B. Yes, you can go to work now.
C. No, I have to be home by eight
Choice ( C ),-- “No, I have to be home by eight.” – is the best response

to the question “Could you work until nine tonight?” Therefore, you
should mark (C) on your answer sheet.
4. Mark on your answer sheet.

Part III. Short Conversations

Questions: 7 to 10
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short con-
versations twice.The conversation will not be printed in
your test book, so you must listen carefully to under-
stand what the speakers say.
In your test book, you will read a question about each
conversation. The question will be followed by four an-
swers. You have to choose the best answer to each
question, and mark it on your answer sheet.
15
Example:
You will hear: Man : The driver will meet you at the gate.
Woman : What kind of car will he be driving?
Man : He’ll be driving a large, black limousine
You will read: What will the woman do?
A. Look for a specific automobile. Sample answer
B. Wait at the door.
C. Drive a car. A B C D
D. Call a taxi.
Choice (A) – Look for a specific automobile.” – is the best answer to the
question, “What will the woman do?” Therefore you should mark (A) on
your answer sheet.
7. What time does the woman go to work?

A. 5 a.m.
B. 6 p.m.
C. 7 a.m.
D. 8 a.m.
8. What will the man have for his meal?

A. Sweet and sour shrimp.
B. Tenderloin steak.
C. Baked salmon.
D. Fruit salad.
9. When will they meet for dinner?

A. 6:00
B. 6:30
C. 7:00
D. 7:30
10. What did the woman possibly do at 10 p.m?

A. Going to bed.
B. Calling the man.
C. Working on her report.
D. Answering the man’s call.
Part IV
Questions: 12 to 15
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks.
Each will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in
your test book, so you must listen carefully to under-
stand and remember what is said.
In your test book, you will read two or more questions
about each short talk. Each question will be followed by
four answers. You have to choose the best answer to
each question and mark it on your answer sheet.
16
Questions 12 through 13 are based on following procedure text.
11. Why must attendees wear their identification tags?

A. Because presentations are starting shortly.
B.So that people can see their names .
C.To get into the presentations.
D.Not to disturb any lectures.
12. How can attendees find out about presentation?

A. By looking at the schedule they were given earlier.
B. By checking the information on their telephones.
C. By checking with the conference organizers.
D. By activating their mobile phone .
Questions 13 and 15 refer to the following announcement.

13. Where is this announcement being made ?
A. At a train station.
B. At a coffee shop.
C. At a bus station.
D. At an airport.
14. What is the problem ?

A. A ticket counter has closed
B. A bus service has been interrupted
C. Passengers have been refused a refund
D. Some construction work has been canceled
15. How can the passengers continue their trip to Jakarta?

A. Take the 3:55 bus.
B. Cross the Bantar bridge.
C. Go directly to Jakarta by bus.
D. Take a shuttle bus and then a train.
*** This is the end of the listening section ***
17
Reading Section.
Numbers 16 – 20: choose the inappropriate structure in the following

sentences below.
16. The new cellular phone is low in cost than the previous one; but it
A B
is more stylish and user-friendly.
C D
17. One of the most visited hotels in the country is Hotel Sargede,
A
whose is located in Jalan Pramuka 5F Yogyakarta. It offers
B
reasonable rates and standard facilities with friendly staff.
C D
18. Zaskia is a really good-looking pop singer. She is slim, tall and
A B C
have long black hair.
D
19. I am sure if you try hard, you will successful; but if you don’t,
A B C
you will fail.
D
20. This mathematic problem is really confused. I guess there is

A B C
something wrong here.
D
Numbers 21 – 30:
choose the best answer for each question based on the text provided.
Yogyakarta, December 12, 2013
Mr. Rafa Hafidz

ABCD Company
87 KIIC
Cikarang, West Java, Indonesia
Dear Mr. Hafidz,

I am writing to apply for the programmer position advertised in Kompas,
December 10th, 2013. As requested, I am enclosing my certification, my
resume and three references. The opportunity presented in this listing is
very interesting, and I believe that my strong technical experience and
education will make me a very competitive candidate for this position.
The key strengths that I possess for success in this position include:
18
• I have successfully designed, developed, and supported live use appli-
cations
• I strive for continued excellence
• I provide exceptional contributions to customer service for all cus-
tomers
Please see my resume for additional information on my experience.

I can be reached anytime via email at zack.zachary@emailku.com or my
cell phone, 111-555-7766.
Thank you for your time and consideration. I look forward to having an
interview with you about this employment opportunity.
Sincerely,
Azka Zachary
21. What are enclosed on the application letter?

A. The certificate, the resume, and three references
B. The competition, the candidate, and the position
C. The email and the telephone number
D. The newspaper and magazine.
22. The key strengths that I possess for success in this position
include …. The synonym of the underlined word in the sentence
above is ….
A. struggle
B. belong
C. find
D. own
23. What kind of a person do you think the applicant is?

A. He is very understanding
B. He is optimistic
C. He is friendly
D. He is shy
ARM Holdings is the world's leading semiconductor intellectual property

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electronic products. Headquartered in Cambridge, UK, and employing
over 2,000 people, ARM has offices around the world, including design
centers in Taiwan, France, India, Sweden, and the US.
Company Highlights
• The world’s leading semiconductor IP company
• Founded in 1990
• Over 20 billion ARM based chips shipped to date
• 800 processor licenses sold to more than 250 companies
• Royalties received on all ARM-based chips
19
• Gaining market share in long-term secular growth markets
• ARM revenues typically grow faster than overall semiconductor in-
dustry revenues
The ARM business model involves the designing and licensing of IP
rather than the manufacturing and selling of actual semiconductor
chips. We license IP to a network of Partners, which includes the world's
leading semiconductor and systems companies.
http://arm.com/about/company-profile/index.php
24. What kind of merchandise does the company develop?

A. semiconductor industry revenues
B. digital camera products
C. semiconductor chips
D. intellectual property
25. What do the ARM Holdings get from their partners if they
use ARM-based chips?
A. Secular growth markets
B. Electronic products
C. ARM revenues
D. Royalties
26. We license IP to a network of Partners, …. The word we in

the sentence above refers to ….
A. The company profile
B. Headquarters
C. ARM Holdings
D. Partners
Mohammad Hatta (12 August 1902 – 14 March 1980) was Indonesia's

first vice president, later also serving as the country's Prime Minister.
Known as "The Proclamator", he and a number of Indonesians, including
the first president of Indonesia, Sukarno, fought for the independence of
Indonesia from the Dutch. Hatta was born in Bukittinggi, West Sumatra,
Dutch East Indies (now Indonesia)…..
On 18 August 1945, Hatta was selected as Indonesia's first Vice Presi-

dent by the PPKI to accompany Sukarno, who had been elected as the na-
tion's first president. As Vice President, Hatta quickly established himself
as the day-to-day administrator of the government, with Sukarno setting
government policy and then trying to win support for it. Although they had
different styles of governing, many agree that the style difference compli-
mented both men's talents perfectly. They were nicknamed the Duumvi-
rate (Dwitunggal) and until today are hailed by many as the best President
and Vice President partnership in Indonesia's history
20
27. Why were Hatta and Soekarno nicknamed as the Duumvirate?
A. They are the twin brothers
B. They can work together perfectly
C. They are known as the proclamators
D. They are the President and the Vice President
28. “… Soekarno, who had been elected as the nation's first president”.
What is the synonym of the underlined word?
A. accompanied
B. established
C. governed
D. chosen
Here's how to make containers for melted wax candles.
Gather: Candle wax and pre-waxed, pre-tabbed wicks (available at craft

stores)
Containers for candles, tea cups, old glasses, etc
Double boiler, Wood chopsticks or skewers
Create:
1 Prepare your containers by cleaning them and filling them with water
to be sure they don't leak.
2 Add a bit of melted wax on the bottom of the wicks' tin base and place
at the bottom of your container. Lay a skewer over the container and
wrap the wick around the skewer so it stands straight up.
3 Using the double boiler, melt enough wax to fill your candle contain-
ers. Be very careful with the hot wax. Wax is very flammable. Please
take all the necessary precautions before melting the wax.
4 Pour the wax into the containers. When they harden, you can add an-
other layer of wax to the top if you need to create a smoother surface.
5 Let the wax fully harden (about 24 hours), and trim the excess wick.
That's it! These make the loveliest gifts. Add a personal label, a
friend's monogram or just a strip of pretty vintage paper around a tin
to make a one-of-a-kind gift.
29. What should you do after you melt the wax?

A. Take all the necessary precautions
B. Pour the wax into the containers
C. Add another layer of wax
D. Let the wax fully harden
30. How can we make it as the exquisite gifts?

A. Put the chopsticks and skewers
B. Glue some paper around the tin
C. Add a friend's monogram
D. Tear a strip of pretty vintage paper
21
Numbers 31 – 40 :
choose the appropriate option to complete the dialogues.
31. Dwi : What do you think of the music they are playing?
Do you like it?
Retno : Wonderful. .... Thanks for taking me here.
Dwi : What about the singer?
A. I don’t like the way they sing.
B. They are so disgusting.
C. I really enjoy it.
D. It isn’t interesting at all.
32. Sania : Glad that you enjoy the music they’re playing. …?
Yuri : Wow, that would be nice! I’ll be free then.
Sania : Okay I’ll pick you up at 4.00.
A. Do you stay at home everyday
B. Is she coming to your office next week
C. What shall I do for you on the weekend
D. Shall we go to another concert next Friday
33. Customer : I’m looking for a present for my wife. ....

Shop Assistant : This batik dress is quite good, Sir.
Customer : Let me have a look. Hmm, it’s too short.
A. You should find it.
B. What’s her suggestion?
C. What do you recommend?
D. You had better tell it to me.
34. Interviewer : What do you do for a living?

Interviewee : .... I work for a supermarket. Assisting the teller
is one of my tasks.
Interviewer : Do you work every day?
Interviewee : Sure. I usually start at 6.30 Monday through Friday,
but sometimes I work at weekends too.
A. No, I don’t think so
B. I live in Yogyakarta
C. I’m a checkout operator
D. I don’t know what to do
35. Waiter : Are you ready to order, Sir?

Guest : Yes. I want “sate”, please.
Waiter : Sure. ..., rare or medium?
Guest : Medium, please.
A. How would you like it
B. How many do you need
C. Why do you want it
D. Do you like it
22
36. Student : It’s very hot and stuffy here. ….
Teacher : Yes, please do. You can also turn on the fan, if you wish.
Student : All right, Sir.
A. Would you turn off the air conditioner, Sir?
B. Would you like to shut the door?
C. May I open the window?
D. Let’s switch on the light.
37. Sania : Mom, I had a bad day this morning. I failed to get
a scholarship in Germany. My friend, Dika got it.
Mother : That’s fine, my dear. I wish ….
Sania : Thanks Mom for your support.
A. You can get it next year
B. You would have it later
C. Dika had got the prize
D. I can help you to get it
38. Dinda : I see you have some guests in your home.

They look different. Are they Chinese?
Heni : No. They are my friends from Seoul.
Dinda : …
Heni : Yes, they are.
A. They are Japanese, aren’t they?
B. Their country is China, isn’t it?
C. I believe they are Korean, don’t they?
D. I love Korean cuisine and songs.
39. Yuli : How old is this museum? ....

Anta : I don’t know for sure, but I guess it was built more than
50 years ago
Yuli : So it is older than the monument.
A. When was it built?
B. When will they renovate it?
C. How did they rebuild it?
D. When do they refurbish it?
40. Yuli : You can type your report in my office.

Sinta : Yes, Sir. I’ll do that.
Nina : What did Yuli tell you?
Sinta : He told me ….
A. to type report in his office
B. to get your report in my office
C. to try his report in your office
D. to write my report in your office
23
Numbers 41 – 50:
complete the following text with the word provided.
Dear Krisna Harmoko,

Thank you for applying for the position of receptionist in Chantika
Hotel.
We would like to invite you to come to our 41) …office to interview for
the position. Your interview has been scheduled on May 1, 1pm, at 123
Sudirman St. Yogyakarta.
Please 42)… me at +62-0274-555-666 or email me at
terrawilson@chantikahotel.com if you have any questions or need to
43) ….
Sincerely,
Terra Wilson
Personnel Manager
41. A. main 42. A. call 43. A. arrange

B. mainly B. write B. terminate
C. maintain C. talk C. withdraw
D. maintenance D. send D. reschedule
Good afternoon passengers. This is your captain speaking. First I'd

like to welcome everyone on Rightwing Flight 86A. We are 44) … cruis-
ing at an altitude of 33,000 feet at an airspeed of 400 miles per hour.
The time is 1:25 pm. The weather looks good and with the tailwind on
our side we are expecting to land in London approximately fifteen
minutes ahead of schedule. The weather in London is clear and 45) …,
with a high of 25 degrees for this afternoon. If the weather cooperates
we should get a great view of the city as we 46) …. The cabin crew will
be coming around in about twenty minutes time to offer you a light
snack and beverage, and the in-flight movie will begin shortly after
that. I'll talk to you again before we reach our destination. Until then,
sit back, relax and enjoy the rest of the flight.
44.A. early 45. A. sunny 46. A. take off

B. formerly B. shady B. come up
C. currently C. gloomy C. fall down
D. previously D. cloudy D. go down
The Communication Strategies workshop will help participants under-

stand the different methods of communication and how to make the
most of each of them. These strategies will 47) … a great benefit for
any organization and its employees. They will trickle down throughout
the organization and 48) … impact everyone involved.
24
47. A. provide
B. grant
C. impart
D. take
48. A. harmfully
B. hopefully
C. positively
D. harmlessly
Beef burgers are 49) …very simple food. All you need is a pound of
minced beef, which you make with the other thing-salt and pepper,
paprika, a teaspoon of mustard, oh, and an egg as well. You break the
egg in a bowl, of course, and mix all the things together with a fork.
When it’s smooth and well 50) …, make round burgers from the mix-
ture, and roll them in some flour. Then you need a frying pan and some
oil. Fry the burgers on both sides for about 15 minutes, until they are
brown. When they are ready, get some soft bread rolls and cut them in
a half. Put the burgers inside them and eat them as soon as possible.
49. A. really
B. sincerely
C. especially
D. carefully
50. A. mixed
B. varied
C. merged
D. joined
25
LISTENING SECTION
Part I Questions 1 to 4
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues spoken in English.
The dialogue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test
book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are
saying.
After you hear a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possi-
ble answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the
question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:
Man : Hi, Tina! Are you free on Saturday morning? Woman: Yes. Any
plan to do?
Man : We’ll see a bo ok fair at Senayan. Would you care to join us?
Woman: I’d love to.
Narrator : What are the speakers talking about?
A. Loving books
B. Asking free time
C. Buying some books
D. Planning to see book fare
E. Activity on Saturday morning
The best answer to the question “What are the speakers talking
about?” is choice (D). Therefore, you should answer choice (D)
1. A. Nice woman.
B. Handwriting.
C. Composition.
D. Flattering.
E. Honesty.
2. A. New company.
B. Looking for a job.
C. Getting a new job.
D. Having an interview.
E. An assistant manager.
3. A. Go to the library.
B. Attend Ms Tina’s class.
C. Go to the nearest book store.
D. Buy an expensive grammar book.
E. Buy the grammar book in the book store.
26
4. A. The man is Linda’s friend.
B. The woman knows Linda.
C. The man doesn’t know Linda.
D. Johan has found a better girl friend.
E. Johan is the woman’s ex-boy-friend.
Part II
Questions: 5 to 7 Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several questions or statements
spoken in English followed by four responses, also spoken in English.
The questions and responses will be spoken twice. They will not be
printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to
each question or statement.
Now listen to a sample question:
Man : You look uncomfortable. Woman: It’s very hot here.

Woman: I’ll switch on the fan for you. Man :
You will also hear: A. I’ll be glad.

B. I’ll be happy.
C. Thank you.
D. It’ll be okay.
Narrator: What is the best response to the woman’s statement?

The best response to the woman’s statement “I’ll switch on the fan for
you.” is ” (Thank you.) Therefore, you should answer Choice “C”.

Part III
Questions 8 to 11
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or monologues
spoken in English. The dialogues or monologues will be spoken twice.
They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully
to understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to the dia-
logue or monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test
book, and decide which one would be the most suitable with the dia-
logue or monologue you have heard.
27
8 A B C
D E
A B C
9.
D E
28
A B C
10.
D E
A B C
11.
D E
29
Part IV
Questions 12 to 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each mono-
logue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book,
so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are say-
ing. After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the
five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer
to the question you have heard.
12.
A. Three kinds of category costing
B. The venue of the grand final match
C. The prices of the grand final tickets
D. Donation for the earthquake victims
E. The condition of earthquake victims
13.
A. It would be donated to the victims
B. It would be used for improving the football players
C. It would be spent for conducting grand final match.
D. It would be used for the improvement of Pekansari Stadium.
E. It would be given to the people who suffered from
the earthquake in Pidie.
14.
A. Ice
B. Ball
C. Rice
D. Sugar
E. Shoes
15.
A. He met a coach.
B. He registered to a university
C. He met a professional footballer.
D. He played football for inter-village tournament.
E. He sold cake and ice at inter-village tournament.
THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING SECTION
30
READING SECTION
This text is for questions 16 and 17.
ANNOUNCEMENT
For those who are interested in becoming outstanding debaters for
our school team
Do you fit to the followings?
10th and 11th graders Knowledgeable

fluent in English Committed
Disciplined
If so, come for the interview that will be held:
Date : December 17th, 2016 Time : 9 AM

Venue: AV Room
Point to ponder:
Most debaters will succeed in their higher education and career
due to their trained personal and communicative skills,
Confirmation to come, contact to Almira: 08158030833
16. What is the text mainly about?

A. English debate competition
B. The interview of school debating team
C. The recruitment of school debating team
D. The participants of school debating team
E. The establishment of school debating team
17. Why does the writer suggest the students to join the program?
A. It will have positive impacts on their education and jobs.
B. It encourages the students to be knowledgeable.
C. It motives the students to be fluent in English.
D. It will have effects on their incomes.
E. It promotes the school reputation.
31
24th Clinton St. Iowa City. IA. 58076
January 15th, 2016
To all Colleagues and Friends,
As those close to me know, I am not good with goodbyes so I do
apologize to those who feel offended that I have left having written
only this farewell letter, without personally shaking their hand and
exchanging best wishes.
I have so many people to thank for their support and dedication
that it is impossible to personally get to see you all with the short
time that was available.
I truly am humbled to have worked with such a group of "get in
and get it happening people" and I am so proud of the achieve-
ments that you have accomplished both in the operation and (for
quite a lot of you) for your own personal accomplishments.
To those of you that I had the opportunity to coach and or set goals
for, I commend each of you for your achievements and hope that
you continue to succeed through life journeys.
I can be contacted if required on 08159030832
I wish you all a Healthy, Safe and Prosperous Year.
Thanks, regards and best wishes,
Bill Jones
18. Why does Bill Jones write the letter?

A. To wish good things to his colleagues.
B. To inform his leaving of the office.
C. To apologize his mistakes.
D. To admire his colleagues.
E. To tell his new office.
19. What has the writer done in the office?

A. Having trained the employees
B. Having collaborated intensively
C. Having conducted a farewell party.
D. Having supported innovative efforts.
E. Having shaken hands to all his colleagues.
20. What is the writer’s intent to write the text?

A. To tell Edison’s working experience
B. To tell Edison’s teenage years
C. To describe Edison’s difficult time
D. To report Edison’s company
E. To expose Edison’s life
32
21. What made Edison have great reputation?
A. He moved to the biggest town in the States
B. His work influenced modern society.
C. He invented telegraph. D. He worked very hard.
E. He saved a boy’s life.
22. “… as well as other printing telegraphs, while working out of

Newark”(paragraph 3) What is the closest in meaning to
the underlined phrase?
A. However.
B. Although.
C. Despite.
D. And.
E. But.
The following text is for questions 23 to 25.
Have you ever been stuck on the side of the road with a flat tire? Do you
want to be able to change a tire without having to ask for help? Fortu-
nately, changing a tire is a pretty simple task, provided you're prepared
and willing to exert a little effort.
1 Find a flat, stable and safe place to change your tire. You should have
a solid, level surface that will restrict the car from rolling. If you are
near a road, park as far from traffic as possible and turn on your
emergency flashers (hazard lights). Avoid soft ground and hills.
2 Apply the parking brake and put car into "Park" position. If you have
a standard transmission, put your vehicle in first or reverse.
3 Place a heavy object (e.g., rock, concrete, spare wheel, etc.) in front
of the front and back tires.
4 Take out the spare tire and the jack. Place the jack under the frame
near the tire that you are going to change. Ensure that the jack is in
contact with the metal portion of your car's frame
5 Raise the jack until it is supporting (but not lifting) the car. The jack
should be firmly in place against the underside of the vehicle. Check
to make sure that the jack is perpendicular to the ground.
6 Remove the hubcap and loosen the nuts by turning counterclockwise.
Don't take them all the way off; just break the resistance. By keeping
the wheel on the ground when you first loosen the nuts, you'll make
sure that you're turning the nuts instead of the wheel.
7 Pump or crank the jack to lift the tire off the ground. You need to lift
it high enough to remove the flat tire and replace it with a spare.
8 Remove the nuts the rest of the way. Turn them counterclockwise
until they are loose. Repeat with all lug nuts, then remove the nuts
completely.
33
9 Remove the tire. Place the flat tire under the vehicle so in the
event of a jack failure the vehicle will fall on the old wheel, hope-
fully preventing injury. If the jack is placed on a flat, solid base, you
shouldn't have any problems.
10 10. Place the spare tire on the hub. Take care to align the rim of
the spare tire with the wheel bolts, then put on the lug nuts.
11 Tighten the nuts by hand until they are all snug
12 Lower the car without applying full weight on the tire. Tighten the
nuts as much as possible.
13 Lower the car to the ground fully and remove the jack. Finish tight-
ening the nuts and replace the hubcap.
23. What is the purpose of the writer to write the text?

A. To tell how to lift a tire
B. To tell how to place a tire
C. To tell how to move a tire
D. To tell how to change a tire
E. To tell how to remove a tire
24. After removing the flat tire, why do we place it under the car?
A. To support the spare tire.
B. To prevent from a jack failure.
C. To make it easier to be removed.
D. To prevent our body from getting hurt.
E. To prevent the car from falling on the old wheel.
25. “Find a flat, stable and safe place to change your tire. You should
have a solid, level surface that will restrict the car from rolling.”
What is the closest in meaning to the underlined word?
A. Lift.
B. Limit.
C. Leave.
D. Restore.
E. Support.
34
In 1991, Shark Bay was inscribed into the UNESCO World Heritage list in
recognition of its outstanding natural beauty, biological diversity, fasci-
nating ecology and unique insights into the Earth's history. Here, you can
meet the Monkey Mia dolphins, the world's largest population of
dugongs, walk among the largest and oldest living fossils on the planet
and discover the 30,000 year history and culture of its Indigenous people.
The only town in the Shark Bay region is Denham. It's an eight hour drive
or a two hour flight from Perth and, from here, you can join the Shark Bay
World Heritage Drive, taking in all the main attractions. If you don't have
wheels, there are plenty of extended tours from Perth, or day and half-
day adventures from Denham.
A closer look at this vast landscape will reveal an abundance of rare and
unique plant and animal life, some of which are found nowhere else on
Earth. It's home to over 100 known species of reptiles and amphibians,
240 varieties of birds, 320 types of fish, 80 different corals and 820
species of plants, including 700 flowering species. Protecting many en-
dangered species, Shark Bay's Francois Peron National Park is one of
the most important wilderness areas in Australia. Just off-
shore, in Shark Bay Marine Park, lies Dirk Hartog Island National Park -
a haven for rare burrowing frogs and white fairy wrens, and a top spot for
fishing, diving, snorkeling and four-wheel-drive
adventures. Today, you can arrive by barge with your 4WD, chartered
flight or in your own boat.
Further south in Shark Bay, you can walk along one of only two beaches
in the world formed entirely of tiny white shells, or visit the Hamelin Pool
Stromatolites and get a glimpse of life on Earth over 3,500 million years
ago.
By far the most popular and spectacular attraction is Monkey Mia, where
wild dolphins come in to shore every day to meet and interact with peo-
ple.
Choose from a huge variety of accommodation options in Denham, or
base yourself in Monkey Mia for an early morning dolphin encounter.
26. What is mainly described in the text?

A. Dendham.
B. Shark Bay.
C. Hamelin Pool Stromatolites.
D. Francois Peron National Park.
E. Dirk Hartog Island National Park.
35
27. What makes Francois Peron National Park significant in tourism?
A. The species are dangerous.
B. People hunt for sharks there.
C. Its role to care for scare species.
D. There are different kinds of species.
E. A lot of people look for endangered species there.
28. “ Further south in Shark Bay, you can walk along one of only two
beaches in the world formed entirely of tiny white shells, …”
(Paragraph 5)
What is the closest in meaning to the underlined word?
A. Rarely.
B. Totally.
C. Scarcely.
D. Frequently.
E. Commonly.
The following text is for questions 29 to 31
Indonesia is developing unmanned submarine technology in the hope

of securing the country’s vast ocean territory at an efficient cost.
The unmanned submarine, called Kaledupa, will be able to operate at
a depth 150 meters, the Defense Ministry’s director for defense in-
dustry and technology, Brig. Gen. Jan Pieter Ate, said on Tuesday.
The product is made by PT Robo Marine Indonesia, a technology com-
pany based in Bandung, West Java.
“The Defense Ministry has ordered the defense industry to develop
the technology for this unmanned submarine. We have appointed PT
Robo Marine Indonesia because the company has skills in this tech-
nology,” Jan Pieter told The Jakarta Post.
Kaledupa was tested on Sunday in Wakatobi waters, Southeast Su-
lawesi, to obtain the ministry’s certificate of eligibility.
Jan Pieter said Kaledupa had many strengths. For instance, it has un-
derwater sensing technology, an underwater recorder with HD reso-
lution and LED lighting tools that help the submarine see hundreds of
meters under the ocean.
“During the test, Kaledupa managed to prove all of its advantages. We
hope this new technological development will reduce our dependency
on foreign weaponry systems,” he said. (hwa)
32. What happened to the boy before he was able to pull out a stick?
A. He mocked villagers.
B. He travelling down a hill.
C. He was sailing on a “lesung”.
D. He was shown by an old woman to go to a village nearby.
E. He was given a shelter, meat and “lesung” by an old female
villager.
36
33. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. A hungry and weak boy
B. Nobody cared about the poor boy
C. A big wooden mortar for pounding rice
D. The generous old woman who lived in a village
E. The generous old woman who helped the poor boy
34. What can we learn from the story?

A. Honesty makes happy.
B. We should be humble.
C. We should work together.
D. Kindness makes happiness.
E. Great efforts make success.
35. The boy wanted to try his luck; … , he stepped forward and pulled
out the stick.”
A. So.
B. As.
C. Despite.
D. Although.
E. Additionally.
During the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries, European traders

started to get involved in the Slave Trade. European traders had pre-
viously been interested in African nations and kingdoms, such as
Ghana and Mali, due to their sophisticated trading networks. Traders
then wanted to trade in human beings.
They took enslaved people from western Africa to Europe and the
Americas. At first this was on quite a small scale but the Slave Trade
grew during the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, as European
countries conquered many of the Caribbean islands and much of
North and South America.
Europeans who settled in the Americas were lured by the idea of
owning their own land and were reluctant to work for others. Con-
victs from Britain were sent to work on the plantations but there
were never enough so, to satisfy the tremendous demand for labor,
planters purchased slaves.
They wanted the enslaved people to work in mines and on tobacco
plantations in South America and on sugar plantations in the West
Indies. Millions of Africans were enslaved and forced across the At-
lantic, to labor in plantations in the Caribbean and America.
Slavery changed when Europeans became involved, as it led to
generation after generation of peoples being taken from their home-
lands and enslaved forever. It led to people being legally defined as
chattel slaves.
37
A chattel slave is an enslaved person who is owned forever and
whose children and children's children are automatically enslaved.
Chattel slaves are individuals treated as complete, property to be
bought and sold. Chattel slavery was supported and made legal by Eu-
ropean governments and monarchs. This type of enslavement was
practiced in European colonies from the sixteenth century onwards.

A. Slavery in Europe
B. The abolition of slavery
C. Countries in which slaves were taken
D. Human beings trade committed by Europeans
E. Slaves in plantations in the Caribbean and America
37. We can conclude that … .

A. Chattel slavery occurred in Europe
B. Chattel slavery was against human right
C. Chattel slavery was applied by poor settlers
D. Chattel slavery only went to a slave’s children
E. Chattel slavery was caused by plantation and mine
38. At first this was on quite a small scale but the Slave Trade grew
during the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, … European
countries conquered many of the Caribbean islands and much of
North and South America.
A. Despite.
B. Because.
C. Although.
D. Therefore.
E. Moreover.
This text is for questions 39 to 42.
Singapore had the highest global average peak internet connection

speed in the third quarter of this year, and ranked third in the world in
average internet connection speed, according to a new report.
South Korea and Hong Kong took the top spots in average connec-
tion speed at 26.3 megabytes per second (Mbps) and 20.1 Mbps re-
spectively, according to the Akamai State of the internet report for Q3,
released by Massachusetts-based content delivery network services
provider Akamai. Singapore came in third at 18.2 Mbps, but led the
pack in average peak connection speed at 162 Mbps, with Hong Kong
and South Korea trailing behind at 116.2 Mbps and 114.2 Mbps respec-
tively. This is the fifth consecutive quarter for which Singapore has
snagged the top spot.To explain the difference between average con-
38
nection speed and average peak connection speed, executive director of
Deloitte Consulting in South-east Asia Jan Wupperman used an analogy
of a highway, The Straits Times reported in July.
"When the highway is empty, your car can go at its maximum speed,
or peak speed," he said. "But when there are many cars on the highway
- such as when everyone is using the same bandwidth for streaming,
surfing and downloading during peak hours - you end up with traffic
jams, or a lower average speed."
Connectivity has grown globally, with the average connection speed
growing 2.3 per cent quarter-on-quarter and increasing 21 per cent to
6.3 Mbps year-on-year, according to Akamai's report.
The global average peak connection speed increased 3.4 per cent
quarter-on-quarter and 16 per cent year-on-year to 37.2 Mbps.
In the Asia-Pacific region, India had the lowest average connection
speed at 4.1 Mbps, and the lowest average peak connection speed at
27.0 Mbps.
39. What topic is reported?

A. Internet connection speed in Asia.
B. Internet use in different countries.
C. Internet connection speed in Asean countries.
D. Internet connection speed in American region.
E. Internet connection speed in different countries.
40. Why does the speed of internet decrease?

A. Many people have access on internet.
B. A lot of people play games on internet.
C. Some people use high speed internet connection.
D. A lot of people use the same bandwidth at the same time.
E. People use internet for streaming, surfing and downloading.
41. It is implied that … .

A. People in Asean countries use internet faster than
those in Hongkong
B. People in Korea use internet faster than those in Singapore.
C. People in Hongkong use internet faster than those in Korea.
D. People in Singapore use internet faster than those in Korea.
E. People in India use internet faster than those in Singapore.
42. People can use it at maximum speed …”the highway” of internet

connection is “empty”,
A. As.
B. Before.
C. Although.
D. Meanwhile.
E. Furthermore.
39
Ability to speak in public is an asset and it comes with several bene-

fits. It can not only boost some aspects of your personal life, but your
professional life as well.
Public speaking can contribute to the growth of knowledge. It helps
you share whatever valuable ideas and thoughts you might have, with
a larger group of people. In return, you also learn a lot when those
people challenge your ideas and question your opinions. It allows you
to develop a clearer picture of the subject.
Public speaking helps you develop the ability to persuade. When you
speak confidently and convincingly to a large group of people, per-
suading an individual to carry out a task becomes much easier.
Besides persuasion attempt and knowledge growth, public speaking
can improve your critical thinking abilities. When you sit and prepare a
speech for a seminar or a workshop, you automatically tend to focus
on the quality of your work. You will be forced to do a lot of research in
order to get the content right. It will help you develop better ways to
deliver your content and design it with relevance.
Your personal life also gains a lot from public speaking. The confi-
dence you develop from public speaking can support you with building
more personal relationships. It becomes much easier to socialize and
make new friends.
So, public speaking skills enhance your professional and personal
lives. These will boost your personal quality in connecting with people.

A. The use of public speaking
B. The effect of public speaking in cognitive process
C. The advantages of having public speaking skills
D. The importance of developing public speaking skills
E. The relation between public speaking skills and personal life.
44. What is mainly told in paragraph 3?

A. The benefit of a confident speaker
B. The development of public speaking
C. The effect of public speaking in communication
D. The benefit of public speaking in persuading people
E. The power of public speaking during communication
40
45. Regarding the positive effects of public speaking in professional
life, what argument is given by the writer?
A. People who speak in front of the public is knowledgeable.
B. Knowledge, persuasion skill, and critical thinking can
be improved.
C. The chance to get knowledge, persuasion skill, and critical
thinking is obvious.
D. We can use knowledge, persuasion skill, and critical thinking
appropriately.
E. The contribution of knowledge for improving persuasion skill
and critical thinking is apparent.
46. … persuasion attempt and knowledge growth, public speaking

can improve your critical thinking abilities.
A. When.
B. Because.
C. Although.
D. Therefore.
E. A part from.
A developed country, industrialized country, or "more economically

developed country" (MEDC), is a sovereign state that has a highly de-
veloped economy and advanced technological infrastructure relative to
other less industrialized nations. Most commonly, the criteria for eval-
uating the degree of economic development are gross domestic prod-
uct (GDP), gross national product (GNP), the per capita income, level of
industrialization, amount of widespread infrastructure and general
standard of living. Which criteria are to be used and which countries
can be classified as being developed are subjects of debate.
Developed countries have post-industrial economies, meaning the
service sector provides more wealth than the industrial sector. They
are contrasted with developing countries, which are in the process of
industrialization, or undeveloped countries, which are pre-industrial
and almost entirely agrarian. As of 2015, advanced economies com-
prise 60.8% of global GDP based on nominal values and 42.9% of
global GDP based on purchasing-power parity (PPP) according to the
International Monetary Fund. In 2015, the ten largest advanced
economies by GDP in both nominal and PPP terms were Australia,
Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Spain, the United
Kingdom, and the United States.
41
A. Developed country
B. Gross domestic product
C. Gross national product D. Purchasing-power parity
E. Criteria used as being developed
48. A country is considered to be developed when … .

A. its economy and technological infrastructure are developing
B. both its economy and infrastructure are sophisticated
C. its economy depends on industrialization
D. its gross national product is developed
E. its gross domestic product is high
49. What is mainly discussed in the second paragraph?

A. Developed countries
B. Undeveloped countries
C. Purchasing-power parity
D. Process of industrialization
E. International Monetary Fund
50. “ Most commonly, the criteria for evaluating the degree of

economic development are gross domestic product (GDP),
gross national product (GNP), the per capita income, level of in
dustrialization, amount of widespread infrastructure and general
standard of living.”
(Paragraph 1)
What is the closest meaning of the underlined word?
A. Urgent.
B. Extensive.
C. Important.
D. Necessary.
E. Fundamental.
42
LISTENING SECTION
Listening Section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well
you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section,
Part I
Questions 1 to 3
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues spoken in English.
The dialogue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test
sheet, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers
are saying.
After you hear a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possi-
ble answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the
question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:
Man : How is the meal?

Woman: It’s very delicious. I’ve never thought you can do it.
Man : On every weekend I always help my mother to cook.
Woman: I am ashamed not to do that.
You will also hear:

Narrator : What does the woman admire?
You will read in your test sheet:

A. The man’s cooking
B. The man’s mother’s meal
C. The man’s diligence to cook Sample answer
A B C D
D. The way how the man cooks
E. How the man spends his weekend
The best answer to the question ‘What does the woman admire?’ is
choice (A), ‘The man’s cooking’. Therefore, you should answer choice
(A)
1. A.winter
B.autumn
C.summer
D.weather
E.wet season
43
2. A. To arrange his schedule.
B. To postpone his meeting.
C. To make an appointment.
D. To cancel his appointment.
E. To reschedule his appointment.
3. A. Egypt
B. France
C. Hungary
D. North America
E. The Holy Land
Part II
Questions: 4 to 8
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several questions or statements
spoken in English followed by four responses, also spoken in English.
The questions and responses will be spoken twice. They will not be
printed in your test sheet, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to
each question or statement.
Now listen to a sample question:
You will hear:

Woman : I’m sorry I couldn’t attend to the party last night?
Man : Why?
Woman : My grandma passed away. Sample answer
A B C D
Man :…
You will also hear:

A. I passed the exam.
B. I’m sorry to hear that.
C. I’m sorry I didn’t go there.
D. You must come at the next party.
The best response to the statement ‘My grandma passed away’ is

choice (B), ‘I’m sorry to hear that.’ Therefore, you should choose
choice (B).

44
Part III
Questions 9 to 11.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some monologues spoken in Eng-
lish. The monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in
your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the
speakers are saying.
After you hear t the monologue and the question about it, look at the
pictures and decide which one would be the best answer to the ques-
tion you have heard.
9 A B C
D E
10.
A B C
D E
45
A B C
11.
D E
Questions 12 to 15
Directions:
In this part of the test you will hear several monologues. Each mono-
logue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book,
so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are say-
ing. After you hear the monologue and the questions about it, read the
five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer
to the questions you have heard.
12. A. Labor laws

B. Home work
C. Policy development
D. Homeworkers seminar
E. Indonesian homeworkers
13. A. November 6
B. November 16
C. December 6
D. December 16
E. December 17
14. A. There was no prey.

B. Tyawan disturbed him.
C. A centipede approached him..
D. His hole was filled with stones.
E. A girl’s screamed woke him up.
15. A. Angry
B. Nervous
C. Worried
D. Regretful
E. Disappointed
46
READING SECTION
ANNOUNCEMENT
Let’s Explore the World through Reading Club
In connection with Literacy Program Development we are going to form

a reading club. In the club, we are going to read and discuss various
books such as education, history, geography, psychology etc. The meet-
ing for discussion is held:
Day: Saturday
Time: 09.00 a.m. to 11.00 p.m.
Venue: AV room
If you have interest in reading and are committed individuals, you are
deserved to be members of the club.
For further information contact Nila: 08158030833
16. What is the announcement mainly about?

A. Recruitment for Reading Club members
B. The place of Reading Club meeting
C. Literacy Program Development
D. Exploring the world
E. Various text books
17. What is the primary reason to establish the Reading Club?

A. To go to overseas
B. To explore the world
C. To develop education
D. To read historical books
E. To develop literacy program
18. It is implicitly expected that the Reading Club members will be … .

A. kind
B. friendly
C. wealthy
D. generous
E. knowledgeable
47
This text is for questions 19 and 20.
17 December 2015
Mr. William Chan

Personnel Manager
Wong And Lim Consulting
PO Box 583
Kwai Chung
Kowloon
Dear Mr. Chan,
I am writing to apply for the post of Management Trainee, which was
advertised on the Student Affairs Office notice board of the Hong Kong
Polytechnic University on 17 December 2015.
My working experience at Lucky Star Garment Manufactory Limited

improved my leadership skills, communication skills and ability to
work in a team environment. I have fluent spoken and written English.
I also have fluent spoken and written Mandarin, and can therefore
work in mainland China.
Currently I am studying a B.A. in Management at the Hong Kong Poly-
technic University, graduating in 2016. Subjects which I am studying
that are relevant to the post of Management Trainee include Opera-
tions Management, Human Resources Management, Accounting, Mar-
keting and Strategic Management.
My final year project is entitled Knowledge Management Practices in

HK. Carrying out this project has improved my communication skills,
my leadership skills and my ability to lead and supervise subordinates
effectively. I have also learned how to run a project from the planning
stage to its completion.
During my studies I have held the post of Executive in the Manage-

ment Society. While leading and organising Management Society activ-
ities I have improved my ability to lead and supervise subordinates
effectively, ability to work under pressure and ability to work in a team
environment.
Working for Wong And Lim Consulting appeals to me because it has a

good reputation and it provides excellent training. Your organization
produces a high-quality service, and I can contribute to this with my
leadership skills and my ability to work under pressure.
48
I am available for interview at any time. I can be con-
tacted most easily on the mobile phone (08158030837). I
look forward to meeting you.
Yours sincerely
Wong Wai Man Wilfred
Encl: Resume
19. What is excluded from Wilfred’s expertise?

A. Accounting
B. Operations Management
C. Human Resources Management
D. Marketing and Strategic Management.
E. Supply and Maintenance Management
20. What reason does Wilfred intend to work at Wong And

Lim Consulting?
A. It offers excellent training.
B. It gives a good amount of salary.
C. It provides satisfactory facilities.
D. It produces a high-quality service.
E. He can contribute to the company.
How to Improve Scores on Writing and Speaking in IELTS
Writing
1 Write correct and simple sentences is just not enough. Try to

use different word if you have use the same word over and
over.
2 Punctuation is very important in achieving the score you
hope to. Before attempting writing exercises it is better to re-
fresh you basic knowledge in things like punctuation.
3 It is good to keep sentences short as it helps to express the
ideas more clearly.
4 Practice makes perfect. Get good study material and go
through the given examples to familiarize your self with the
patter of the exam.
49
Speaking
1 Realize that this has lot to do with your own ability to speak
English. If you are not able to clearly speak, the best thing is
to listen to day-to-day English conversations .you may be
able listen to radio, TV or may be to read dialogues written in
English.
2 Remember to answer the question asked, in order to do
this you need to listen to the examiner carefully. For exam-
ple, if the examiner asks you to talk about food in your coun-
try, just don't start to talk about the diet your people take.
But you can talk about cuisine when talking about food.
3 If you have a friend who has done IELTS, get that friend to
practice few topics given for exam. Ask the friend to be the
examiner and you be the candidate, keep lot of practice ses-
sions and speak on different topics, keeping to what is asked.
4 Speak as normal as you can, as if you are talking to some
body in your day today life. Use lots of different words, and
remember to use expressions.
5 Relax when you speak, don't fill the gaps with ellipses. Just
keeping a little gap between your words is ok, but practice to
be fluent.

A. Improving English skills
B. Improving scores in IELTS
C. Improving two language skills of IELTS
D. Improving writing and speaking scores
E. Improving IELTS scores on writing and speaking
22. During taking the speaking test, what does the test taker
do before answering the question?
A. Watching a video
B. Reading the question
C. Looking at the picture
D. Listening to the examiner
E. Listening to the tape recorder
23. Why is it suggested to write in short sentences in the test?

A. It saves the time.
B. It is clearer to read.
C. It is easy for the examiner to check.
D. It helps to express the ideas more clearly.
E. It is easier to connect ideas between sentences.
50
About 500 ancient masks from many regions across Indonesia are
being displayed at the Sonobudoyo Museum in Yogyakarta from
Nov. 20 to 29.
The event, called The Power of Topeng (The Power of the Mask),
presents 400 masks that are simulacrums of statues from all over
the country and the other masks that are from the collection of
the Sonobudoyo Museum.
The curator of the event, I Wayan Dana, said that based on Indone-
sian history, masks not only functioned as works of art, but also
as instruments of religious rituals.
“The two functions strengthen the mask's position as having

strong roots in Indonesian cultures,” he said when speaking at the
event's opening ceremony on Thursday night.
In religious rituals, he said, masks were used as instruments to

communicate with supernatural powers, while their shapes were
adjusted to the traditions in each era. He added that the masks
also developed side by side with the changes of kingdoms in this
archipelago.
Van Heekeren, the author of Prehistoric Life of Indonesia, pub-

lished in 1955, noted that masks had been parts of Indonesian
prehistory thousands of years ago. The Mask of Panji, which de-
veloped during the Majapahit Kingdom, for example, told a love
story in the era.
Other examples are the Ramayana Mask, which was developed

during the Indonesian Hindu kingdoms, and the Ngayogyakarta
Palace Mask that was made during the era of Hamengkubuwono
VII.
The head of Yogyakarta Culture Agency, Umat Priyono, expressed
his appreciation to the organizers of the event with the hope that it
would widen people’s understanding of the development of masks
as a cultural product in Indonesia.
(Retrieved from
http://www.thejakartapost.com/news/2015/11/21/hundreds-an-
cient-masks-displayed-yogyakarta.html)
51
24. As a part of religious rituals, what is the function of masks?
A. They are used as a means of communication.
B. They represent the changes of kingdoms in the era.
C. They are used among the kingdoms in the archipelago.
D. They function as adjusting the tradition and the religion.
E. They are used for communicating with supernatural power.
25. The second paragraph tells about....

A. the venue of the event
B. the purpose of the event
C. the statues from all over the country
D. the number of masks being presented
E. the collection of the Sonobudoyo Museum.
26. A part from being artistic, in the past masks were considered … .
A. scary
B. funny
C. exotic
D. sacred
E. expensive
27. “ In religious rituals, he said, masks were used as instruments

to communicate with supernatural powers, while their shapes
were adjusted to the traditions in each era.” (Paragraph 5)
The underlined word is closest in meaning to … .
A. shown
B. created
C. matched
D. promoted
E. classified
The government will announce a decrease in the prices of subsidized

fuel after a Cabinet meeting held in the State Palace this afternoon,
according to Energy and Mineral Resources Minister Sudirman Said.
"There will be a Cabinet meeting in the afternoon; [the cuts] will be

announced later," Sudirman Said in Jakarta on Wednesday.
He explained the new prices will take effect on Jan. 5 to give gas sta-
tions time to prepare, including by selling their current stocks.
"It needs a transition to avoid chaos. So perhaps the new prices will
be effective on Jan. 5," he add.
52
Currently, the price of subsidized premium gasoline outside of Java,
Madura and Bali is Rp 7,300 (49 US cents) per liter, subsidized diesel
is Rp 6,700 per liter and kerosene is Rp 2,500 per liter.
Earlier, the director general of oil and gas, I Gusti Nyoman Wirat-
madja Puja, said the government will cut the price of Premium by Rp
200 to Rp 300 per liter, while subsidized diesel will go down by more
than Rp 500 in January 2016.
Referring to Energy and Mineral Resources Ministerial Regulation No.

4/2015, the government evaluates fuel prices every three months
based on the latest update of the benchmark price.
(Retrieved from
http://www.thejakartapost.com/news/2015/12/23/government-an-
nounce-cut-price-subsidized-fuel-today.html)
28. What is the current price of the subsidized premium gasoline

outside of Java, Madura and Bali?
A. Rp 7,600
B. Rp 7,300
C. Rp 6,700
D. Rp 4,900
E. Rp 2,500
29. Why will the new prices be realized on January 5?

A. To prevent disorder
B. To wait for the decision
C. To adjust the government rules
D. To wait for the president’s decision
E. To agree to the parliament’s proposal
30. It implies that every three months of fuels will ….

A. change
B. decline
C. increase
D. be stable
E. be stagnant
53
The early 1600s saw the beginning of a great tide of emigration

from Europe to North America. Spanning more than three cen-
turies, this movement grew from a trickle of a few hundred Eng-
lish colonists to a flood of millions of newcomers. Impelled by
powerful and diverse motivations, they built a new civilization on
the northern part of the continent.
The first English immigrants to what is now the United States

crossed the Atlantic long after thriving Spanish colonies had been
established in Mexico, the West Indies and South America. Like all
early travelers to the New World, they came in small, overcrowded
ships. During their six- to 12-week voyages, they lived on meager
rations. Many died of disease; ships were often battered by storms
and some were lost at sea.
Most European emigrants left their homelands to escape politi-

cal oppression, to seek the freedom to practice their religion, or
for adventure and opportunities denied them at home. Between
1620 and 1635, economic difficulties swept England. Many people
could not find work. Even skilled artisans could earn little more
than a bare living. Poor crop yields added to the distress. In addi-
tion, the Industrial Revolution had created a burgeoning textile in-
dustry, which demanded an ever-increasing supply of wool to
keep the looms running. Landlords enclosed farmlands and
evicted the peasants in favor of sheep cultivation. Colonial expan-
sion became an outlet for this displaced peasant population.
(Retrieved from http://www.let.rug.nl/usa/outlines/history-
1994/early-america/early-settlements.php)
31. What was the minimum period for the European immigrants
to travel to North America?
A. 6 weeks
B. 7 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 10 weeks
E. 12 weeks
32. What is the main idea of paragraph 3?

A. Industrial Revolution
B. Freedom of religion practices
C. Economic difficulties sweeping England
D. The political oppression of European rulers
E. The reason of travelling to the North America
54
33. Why did peasants travel to the New World?
A. They liked adventure.
B. They were given free farmlands.
C. They earned little more than a bare living.
D. They could not do their religion practices.
E. Their lands were converted to sheep cultivation.
Cheating is the getting of a reward for ability or finding an easy

way out of an unpleasant situation by dishonest means. It is gen-
erally used for the breaking of rules to gain unfair advantage in a
competitive situation. This broad definition will necessarily include
acts of bribery, cronyism, sleaze, nepotism and any situation
where individuals are given preference using inappropriate crite-
ria. The rules infringed may be explicit, or they may be from an
unwritten code of conduct based on morality, ethics or custom,
making the identification of cheating conduct a potentially subjec-
tive process. Cheating can refer specifically to marital infidelity.
Someone who is known for cheating is referred to as a cheat in
British English, and a cheater in American English. A person de-
scribed as a "cheat" doesn't necessarily cheat all the time, but
rather, relies on unfair tactics to the point of acquiring a reputa-
tion for it.
Academic cheating is a significantly common occurrence in high

schools and colleges in the United States. Statistically, 70% of
public high school students admit to serious test cheating. 60%
say they have plagiarized papers. Only 50% of private school stu-
dents, however, admit to this. The report was made in June 2005
by Rutgers University professor Donald McCabe for The Center for
Academic Integrity. The findings were corroborated in part by a
Gallup survey. In McCabe's 2001 of 4500 high school students,
"74% said they cheated on a test, 72% cheated on a written work,
and 97% reported to at least had copied someone's homework or
peeked at someone's test. 1/3 reported to have repeatedly
cheated."https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cheating - cite_note-3 The
new revolution in high-tech digital info contributes enormously to
the new wave in cheating: online term-paper mills sell formatted
reports on practically any topic; services exist to prepare any kind
of homework or take online tests for students, despite the fact
that this phenomenon, and these websites, are well known to ed-
ucators, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cheating - cite_note-4and
camera phones are used to send pictures of tests; MP3 players
can hold digitalized notes; graphing calculators store formulas to
solve math problems.
(Retrieved from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cheating)
55
34. What is the percentage of high school students who have
plagiarized papers?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 72%
E. 74%
35. What is considered to be a cheat?

A. One who commits bribery
B. One who performs nepotism
C. One who cheats on a written work
D. One who always cheats all the time
E. One who relies on unfair tactics to get a reputation
36. What does paragraph 2 mainly inform?

A. Devices used for cheatings
B. Students who perform plagiarism
C. Students whose habit are cheating
D. The occurrence of cheating in high schools
E. The research done by professor Donald McCabe
Ecommerce has become so popular and profitable. This article tells

about some advantages of online shopping that attract both shop-
pers and online shop owners.
The vast majority of online stores offer prices that are much lower
than what you will find at a physical store. There are a few reasons
for this. The first is because many people use the Internet to find
cheaper items. Online business owners understand this. They will
usually reduce their profit margin to get more customers.
Another reason is because you can easily browse through dozens of

different websites to find the best price. You can do the same at a
mall, but it would take about an hour or longer. You also may not be
taxed because most ecommerce stores won’t tax you unless they
are stationed in your state.
The other advantage of shopping online is convenient. You don’t

need to get dressed and drive to your favorite store. You can easily
visit their website, find the product you want and buy it without get-
ting out of your pajamas. It’s also convenient because you don’t
need to wait for the store to open.
These three above reasons makes online shopping get higher in
56
demand. It is common sense for buyers to have better prices, con-
venience, and variety while shopping. The shoppers obtain these
privileges at online shopping.
(Adapted from http://quartsoft.com/blog/201303/top-online-shop-
ping-benefits)
37. In terms of convenience, what can the buyers do while shopping

at online stores?
A. They may not be taxed.
B. They can wear pajamas.
C. They get cheaper prices.
D. They can browse different websites.
E. They can choose variety of products.
38. How can prices at ecommerce stores be lower?

A. Profit margin is reduced.
B. There are a lot of buyers.
C. Buyers do not have to drive.
D. Ecommerce stores do not employ workers.
E. Online stores at the state do not tax the buyers.
39. “Ecommerce has become so popular and profitable.”

(Paragraph 1)
A. advantageous
B. convenient
C. interesting
D. famous
E. kind

An estimated 26 million animals are used every year in the
United States for scientific and commercial testing. Animals are
used to develop medical treatments, determine the toxicity of
medications, check the safety of products destined for human
use, and other biomedical, commercial, and health care uses.
Research on living animals has been practiced since at least 500
BC.
Proponents of animal testing say that it has enabled the develop-

ment of numerous life-saving treatments for both humans and
animals, that there is no alternative method for researching a
complete living organism, and that strict regulations prevent the
mistreatment of animals in laboratories.
57
Opponents of animal testing say that it is cruel and inhumane to
experiment on animals, that alternative methods available to re-
searchers can replace animal testing, and that animals are so
different from human beings that research on animals often
yields irrelevant results.
We are in the position that animals may be used for research as

long as it is strictly regulated. Strict regulation prevents re-
searchers to perform inhumane treatment on animals.
(Adapted from http://animal-testing.procon.org/)
40. How often are 26 million animals used in the United States for
scientific and commercial testing?
A. Every week
B. Every month
C. Every year
D. Every century
E. Every other year
41. Why do people use animals for scientific and commercial testing?
A. Animals are easy to find for testing.
B. Animals are quite affordable for testing.
C. Animals and human are exactly the same in organism.
D. People are free to use animals for scientific and
commercial testing
E. There is no other method for researching a complete
living organism.
42. “ Opponents of animal testing say that it is cruel and inhumane

to experiment on animals … ” (Paragraph 3)
A. messy
B. pitiless
C. arrogant
D. boastful
E. offensive
58
Squirrels are generally small animals, ranging in size from the

African pygmy squirrel at 7–10 cm (2.8–3.9 in) in length and just 10
g (0.35 oz) in weight, to the Alpine marmot, which is 53–73 cm (21–
29 in) long and weighs from 5 to 8 kg (11 to 18 lb). Squirrels typi-
cally have slender bodies with bushy tails and large eyes. In
general, their fur is soft and silky, although much thicker in some
species than others. The color of squirrels is highly variable be-
tween—and often even within—species.
In general, the hind limbs are longer than the fore limbs, and they
have four or five toes on each paw. Their paws include an often
poorly developed thumb, and have soft pads on the undersides.[6]
Unlike most mammals, Tree squirrels can descend a tree head-
first. They do so by rotating their ankles 180 degrees so the hind
paws are backward-pointing and can grip the tree bark.
Squirrels live in almost every habitat from tropical rainforest to

semiarid desert, avoiding only the high polar regions and the dri-
est of deserts. They are predominantly herbivorous, subsisting on
seeds and nuts, but many will eat insects and even small verte-
brates.
As their large eyes indicate, in general squirrels have an excellent

sense of vision, which is especially important for tree-dwelling
species. They also have very versatile and sturdy claws for grasp-
ing and climbing. Many also have a good sense of touch, with vib-
rissae on their heads and limbs.
(Retrieved from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Squirrel)
43. What is the maximum length of African pygmy squirrel?

A. 5 cm
B. 7 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 10 cm
E. 18 cm
44. What does the third paragraph mainly tell about squirrels?
A. Their magnificent sight
B. Their habitat and food
C. Their physical appearance
D. Their behavior and food
E. The specialty of squirrels
59
45. How can Tree squirrels descend a tree head-first?
A. They live on tree.
B. They rotate their ankles.
C. Their paws are so strong.
D. Their paws are very sharp.
E. Their paws can grip the tree bark.
46. Arrange these sentences into the correct and a meaningful

paragraph !
1 As soon as his invention was complete, he tested it by calling a

rival scientist to announce his success.
2 The first real mobile telephone call was made in 1973 by Dr
Martin Cooper.
3 Within a decade, mobile phones became available to the pub-
lic.
4 The streets of modern cities began to feature sharp-suited
characters shouting into giant plastic bricks.
5 Then the giant plastic bricks of the 80s had evolved into
smooth little objects that fitted nicely into pockets and bags.
6 In the mid-90s, cheaper handsets and cheaper calling rates
made everyone had a mobile phone.
The correct arrangement of the sentences is … .

A. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
B. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 6 – 5
C. 2 – 1 – 3 – 5 – 4 – 6
D. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 6 – 5
E. 2 – 1 – 4 – 6 – 5 – 3
47. Arrange these sentences into the correct and a meaningful

paragraph !
1. Highlight the word/phrase/sentence that you want to be linked.
2. Right-click and find “Hyperlink”, then click it.
3. Select the file you want to link.
4. Put the file in the same folder with your power point file
5. Then an underline appears on the word/phrase/sentence that
you want to be linked,
6. Find the file you want to link, then highlight it, and click “OK”.
The correct arrangement of the sentences is … .

A. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2 – 6 – 5
B. 3 – 4 – 1 – 5 – 2 – 6
C. 3 – 4 – 1 – 5 – 6 – 2
D. 3 – 4 – 1 – 6 – 2 – 5
E. 3 – 5 – 1 – 6 – 4 – 2
60
For questions 48 to 50,
complete the text with the correct words provided !
The history of the tank began in World War I, when armoured all-ter-
rain fighting vehicles were first deployed as a response to the prob-
lems of trench warfare, ushering in a new era of mechanized warfare.
Though initially crude and unreliable, tanks eventually (48) …a main-
stay of ground armies. By World War II, tank design had advanced (49)
… , and tanks were used in quantity in all land theatres of the war. The
Cold War saw the rise of modern tank doctrine and the rise of the gen-
eral-purpose (50) … battle tank. The tank still provides the backbone
to land combat operations in the 21st century.
48. A. become
B. became
C. becomes
D. will become
E. is becoming
49. A. Signify
B. Signifying
C. Significant
D. Significance
E. significantly
50. A. interesting
B. general
C. main
D. expensive
E. protective
61

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PETUNJUK UMUM

Look at the sample below. Now listen to the

Statement (B), “The screen is on the wall”,

4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

8. What did the man do to the woman?

9. What did Leon Uris do?

Now let’s begin with the following short talk.

13. Why does the company use a lighter paper?

14. The talk is about ... in a manufacture.

17. Melati : What do you usually do during the day ?

22. Aleesha : Have you made any vacation plans?

23. Memet : What is Mr. Tito doing ?

25. Ikrami : Which sport do you prefer, Fathir?

Questions 26 – 28 are based on the following text dialog.

Bunga : Dinda, do you have something to do this evening? If you

26. Who are Bunga and Dinda?

28. “Inform me as soon as possible.” (last sentence)

Questions 29 – 31 are based on the following text dialog.

30. Based on the dialog, What will hotel officer do to Wiena?

31. The underlined word in the dialog can be replaced by ... .

Questions 32 – 34 are based on the following text.

UNESCO Beirut office launched a Media training programme for

Mr. George Awad, UNESCO Communication & Information pro-

The second session was a panel discussion with Mr. Sam

32. What is the text about?

33. What will the NGOs probably do after the discussion?

34. The underlined word in line 1 paragraph 1 can be replced by ... .

36. What should we do after selecting the seeds?

39. In paragraph 2, the writer tries to explain that ... .

40. The underlined word in the second paragraph is closest in

Questions 41 – 43 are based on the following text.

Keumalahayati, or Malahayati(16th century), was an admiral in the

41. The text is written to ... .

42. What did she do in the agreement?

43. The underlined word in the text (paragraph 3) is closest

This is to inform that the Ministry of Railways is hereby in need for

We look forward to a successful deal with you.

45. What will the readers do after reading the text?

46. The underlined word in the text can be replaced by ... .

Part VIII. From questions 47 – 50, four words/phrases, marked (A),

Dear valued customers,

We are excited to announce that we are officially changing our

Sincerely yours, Brian Roh

Now listen to the four statements

Choice (B) “They’re having a meeting.” best describes what is seen in

Part II. Questions – Responses

A. No, It doesn’t work.

Choice ( C ),-- “No, I have to be home by eight.” – is the best response

4. Mark on your answer sheet.

Part III. Short Conversations

7. What time does the woman go to work?

8. What will the man have for his meal?

9. When will they meet for dinner?

10. What did the woman possibly do at 10 p.m?

11. Why must attendees wear their identification tags?

12. How can attendees find out about presentation?

Questions 13 and 15 refer to the following announcement.

14. What is the problem ?

15. How can the passengers continue their trip to Jakarta?

*** This is the end of the listening section ***

Numbers 16 – 20: choose the inappropriate structure in the following

20. This mathematic problem is really confused. I guess there is

Mr. Rafa Hafidz

* This is the end of the listening section *