www.syaiflash.

com
www.syaiflash.com
 www.syaiflash.com

TOEFL® INTRODUCTION

A. A Brief Introduction
TOEFL® (Test of English as a Foreign Language) adalah suatu tes yang terdiri dari kumpul-
an pertanyaan-pertanyaan yang terstandarkan secara internasional. TOEFL® memiliki fungsi
untuk mengukur sejauh mana kecakapan atau proficiency bahasa Inggris kita. Pada perkem-
bangannya, TOEFL® menjadi sebuah tes yang paling banyak digunakan di dunia. Hal ini dapat
diketahui karena TOEFL® diterima di lebih dari 9.000 perguruan tinggi, universitas, dan agen
tersebar di lebih dari 130 negara. Sehingga, ke manapun kita akan belajar, tes TOEFL® akan
membantu kita untuk mencapainya.
Berikut ini adalah beberapa keuntungan yang akan kita dapatkan dengan tes TOEFL®.
1. Lebih Banyak Pilihan
Dengan kita memiliki sertifikat tes TOEFL®, kita akan memiliki lebih banyak pilihan se-
bagai tempat untuk belajar kita. Ribuan perguruan tinggi dan universitas di lebih dari
130 negara menggunakan TOEFL® sebagai salah satu persyaratan administrasinya.

2. Lebih Tepat/Cocok
Anda sangat dipermudah dengan terdapatnya lebih dari 4.500 lembaga penyelenggara
tes TOEFL® yang tersebar di sekitar 165 negara, termasuk Indonesia. Selain itu, kita juga
dapat menghemat waktu karena tes TOEFL® hanya diselenggarakan dalam satu hari se-
hingga kita tidak perlu datang kembali pada hari berikutnya.

3. Mengukur Kemampuan Akademik

Tes TOEFL® menjadi suatu alat untuk membuktikan kemampuan kita dalam penguasaan
keterampilan berbahasa Inggris yang nantinya akan sangat kita butuhkan ketika dalam
perkuliahan. Hal ini dikarenakan pertanyaan dan tugas yang terdapat dalam tes TOEFL®
bersifat akademik. Karena pertanyaan dan tugas bersifat akademik, banyak perguruan
tinggi dan universitas menganggap bahwa tes TOEFL® adalah tes yang paling tepat
dalam proses seleksi masuk.

B. Jenis-Jenis Tes TOEFL®

Tes TOEFL® memiliki beberapa jenis dengan kegunaan yang berbeda pula. Berikut ini adalah
tabel yang menjelaskan tentang jenis-jenis tes TOEFL®.

3
 www.syaiflash.com

No. Nama Keterangan

Tes ini digunakan untuk mengukur proficiency siswa-siswa
yang berada pada sekolah menengah pertama. Tes ini
didistribusikan dalam format paper-based. Tes ini meng-
1. TOEFL Junior® Test
ukur kecakapan dalam kemampuan listening, language
form dan meaning, dan reading.

Tes ini mengukur kecakapan berbahasa Inggris pada tatar-

an intermediate sampai dengan advanced dan digunakan
TOEFL® ITP Assessment pada situasi di mana tidak membutuhkan suatu lingkung-
2.
Series an tes yang aman. Contoh: untuk evaluasi kemajuan, tes
penempatan akademik, dan lain-lain.

Tes ini digunakan untuk mengukur kecakapan berbaha-

sa Inggris penutur yang bahasa Inggris sebagai bahasa
asing. Tes ini mengukur sejauh mana kecakapan ses-
eorang dalam berkomunikasi dengan menggunakan ba-
3. TOEFL® Test
hasa Inggris dalam konteks kelas di perguruan tinggi atau
universitas. Bentuk dari tes ini yang sering dikenal adalah
TOEFL iBT test.

Tes ini didesain untuk mengukur proficiency siswa-siswa

4. TOEFL® PrimaryTM Test
usia 8+.

C. Bagian-bagian dalam Tes TOEFL®

Khusus untuk pembahasan pada bagian ini, bagian-bagian tes TOEFL® yang akan dijelaskan
adalah yang terdapat dalam tes TOEFL® ITP yang sering dijumpai dalam konteks akademik
di Indonesia. Tes TOEFL® terbagi menjadi 3 bagian utama, yakni: Listening Comprehension,
Structure and Written Expression, dan Reading Comprehension. Dan untuk mengerjakannya
pun selalu berurutan, dimulai dengan Listening Comprehension dan diakhiri dengan Reading
Comprehension.
1. Listening Comprehension
Sesi Listening Comprehension akan mengukur kecakapan kita dalam memahami apa
yang terdapat dalam rekaman. Terdapat 3 jenis rekaman dalam sesi ini, yakni: short con-
versations, longer conversations, dan talks/lectures. Sesi ini memiliki 50 pertanyaan dalam
bentuk pilihan ganda. 50 pertanyaan ini dibagi dalam 3 bagian, yakni Part A, B, dan C.
Part A terdiri dari 30 pertanyaan. Seluruh pertanyaan dalam bagian ini diawali oleh
percakapan pendek (short conversation) antara dua orang penutur. Sedangkan Part B
terdapat kurang lebih 8 pertanyaan yang diawali dengan percakapan yang lebih panjang

4
 www.syaiflash.com

(longer conversation). Part C memiliki kurang lebih 12 pertanyaan. Biasanya pertanyaan-

pertanyaan yang terdapat pada bagian ini didistribusikan ke dalam 3 talks/lectures.
Alokasi waktu yang diberikan untuk mengerjakan sesi Listening Comprehension ini
adalah sekitar 35 menit. Selain itu, kita juga hanya memiliki waktu sekitar 12 detik untuk
menjawab setiap pertanyaan.

2. Structure and Written Expression

Sesi Structure and Written Expression akan mengukur kemampuan kita dalam mema-
hami kalimat-kalimat dalam bahasa Inggris secara gramatikal. Sesi ini dibagi dalam dua
bagian, yakni melengkapi kalimat rumpang dan mengidentifikasi kata/frasa yang salah
dalam kalimat.
Bagian melengkapi kalimat rumpang terdiri dari 15 pertanyaan. Dan sisanya, 35 per-
tanyaan, terdapat dalam bagian mengidentifikasi kata/frasa yang salah. Sehingga jum-
lah pertanyaan dalam sesi Structure and Written Expression berjumlah 40.
Alokasi waktu yang diberikan untuk mengerjakan sesi Structure and Written Expres-
sion adalah 25 menit. Ini berarti, kita hanya memiliki waktu 37,5 detik untuk setiap per-
tanyaan.

3. Reading Comprehension
Sesi Reading Comprehension akan mengukur kemampuan kita mengenai sejauh
mana kita dapat memahami bacaan yang akademis dalam bahasa Inggris. Sesi ini tidak
terdapat pembagian seperti halnya pada sesi-sesi sebelumnya. Akan tetapi, pada sesi
ini terdapat kurang lebih lima bacaan yang masing-masing disertai dengan beberapa
pertanyaan.
Jumlah pertanyaan pada sesi Reading Comprehension adalah 50 pertanyaan. Jadi, se-
tiap satu bacaan terdapat kurang lebih 10 pertanyaan yang mengikuti.
Alokasi waktu yang diberikan untuk menjawab seluruh pertanyaan dalam sesi ini
adalah 55 menit. Maka, kita memiliki waktu sekitar 1 menit 6 detik untuk menjawab
setiap pertanyaan.

D. Kegunaan Tes TOEFL®

Tes TOEFL® memiliki banyak kegunaan. Berikut ini beberapa kegunaan dari tes TOEFL®.
1. Untuk mengetahui tingkat proficiency bahasa Inggris seseorang.
2. Sebagai salah satu persyaratan untuk melengkapi persyaratan administrasi untuk melan-
jutkan kuliah atau melamar pekerjaan.
3. Jika kita memiliki skor TOEFL® yang baik (>550), kita akan merasa nyaman untuk beper-
gian ke banyak negara.

E. Penilaian dalam Tes TOEFL®

Penilaian dalam tes TOEFL® memiliki ciri khas tersendiri. Tabel berikut ini menunjukkan pe-
nilaian dalam tes TOEFL®.

5
 www.syaiflash.com

Konversi Nilai Konversi Nilai Konversi Nilai

Jumlah Jawaban Listening Structure and Reading
Benar Comprehension Written Expression Comprehension
I II III
50 68 - 67
49 67 - 66
48 66 - 65
47 65 - 63
46 63 - 61
45 62 - 60
44 61 - 59
43 60 - 58
42 59 - 57
41 58 - 56
40 57 68 55
39 57 67 54
38 56 65 54
37 55 63 53
36 54 61 52
35 54 60 52
34 53 58 51
33 52 57 50
32 52 56 49
31 51 55 48
30 51 54 48
29 50 53 47
28 49 52 46
27 49 51 46
26 48 50 45
25 48 49 44
24 47 48 43
23 47 47 43
22 46 46 42
21 45 45 41
20 45 44 40
19 44 43 39

6
 www.syaiflash.com

18 43 42 38
17 42 41 37
16 41 40 36
15 41 40 35
14 39 38 34
13 38 37 32
12 37 36 31
11 35 35 30
10 33 33 29
9 32 31 28
8 32 29 28
7 31 27 27
6 30 26 26
5 29 25 25
4 28 23 24
3 27 22 23
2 26 21 23
1 25 20 22
0 24 20 21

Bagaimanakah cara menggunakan tabel di atas?

Sebagai contoh, kita mendapatkan jawaban benar pada sesi Listening comprehension adalah 30, 28
jawaban benar pada sesi Structure and Written Expression, dan 43 jawaban benar untuk sesi Reading
Comprehension. Konversi nilai dari 30 jawaban benar pada sesi I adalah 51. Konversi nilai dari 28
jawaban benar pada sesi II adalah 52. Konversi nilai dari 43 jawaban yang benar pada sesi III adalah
58. Perhatikan tabel berikut ini.

Sesi I Sesi II Sesi III

Jumlah jawaban benar 30 28 43
Konversi nilai 51 52 58

Berikut ini adalah cara penghitungannya.

1. Semua nilai yang sudah dikonversi dijumlahkan. 51 + 52 + 58 = 161
2. Hasil penjumlahan dibagi 3. 161 / 3 = 53.7
3. Hasil pembagian dikali 10. 53.7 x 10 = 537

Hasil skor keseluruhan TOEFL® pada contoh di atas adalah 537.

7
 www.syaiflash.com

SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION

Time - approximately 35 minutes (including the reading of the directions for each
part)
In the Listening Comprehension section of the TOEFL test, you will have an opportunity to
demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the
questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do not take
notes or write in your book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so.

Part A
Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and
questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in
your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Now, we will begin with Part A. 4. (Listening)

1. (Listening) (A) He was so surprised there were
(A) He is selfish. eight skirts.
(B) He does not sell fish. (B) It was an unexpectedly
(C) David is selfish. inexpensive skirt.
(D) What David said was unjust. (C) He wants to know the price of
the skirt.
2. (Listening) (D) The skirt was not cheap.
(A) She thinks it’s better than the
others. 5. (Listening)
(B) The two other books are better. (A) The man should give an
(C) It resembles the last one. assignment to her this week.
(D) It’s the best book ever. (B) The woman will help the man
with the assignments this week.
3. (Listening) (C) The man needs to study harder
(A) He graduated last in his class. to complete the assignments.
(B) He is the last person to (D) The man will not do the
graduate. assignments this week.
(C) He believes that he is gradually
improving. 6. (Listening)
(D) He has finally finished his (A) He does not like to hold the CD.
studies. (B) There is no store in his town.

8
 www.syaiflash.com

(C) It’s not possible to obtain the 12. (Listening)

CD yet. (A) She doesn’t have time to
(D) He needs to talk to the complete additional reports.
shopkeeper. (B) She has finished doing the
reports she’s working on.
7. (Listening) (C) She doesn’t have responsibility.
(A) It was incomplete. (D) It’s not time to do the field
(B) It was finished on time. report.
(C) It was not ending.
(D) It was too long. 13. (Listening)
(A) He will fix the computer later.
8. (Listening) (B) He’s had enough computers at
(A) She needs to use the man’s home..
notes. (C) He’s going to stay for quite
(B) The chemistry class yesterday some time.
was boring. (D) He will not continue trying to
(C) She took some notes in the repair the computer.
class.
(D) She will let the man borrow her 14. (Listening)
notes. (A) He cannot see the big
mountain.
9. (Listening) (B) The mountain is not huge.
(A) It’s the man’s birthday today. (C) He would like the woman to
(B) She’s looking for a birthday repeat what she said.
present. (D) He agrees with the woman.
(C) She will go shopping with her
sister. 15. (Listening)
(D) She’s going to buy a new pair of (A) The exam was postponed.
shoes for herself. (B) The man should have studied
harder.
10. (Listening) (C) Night is the best time for
(A) He likes cold water. studying when there is an exam.
(B) His toes are big. (D) She is completely ready for the
(C) He doesn’t like the beach. exam.
(D) He did not enjoy the water.
16. (Listening)
11. (Listening) (A) The woman must turn around.
(A) She just left her uncle’s house. (B) Problems will occur if the
(B) She knows where her scarf is. woman turns.
(C) Her uncle is at home. (C) The project report must be
(D) She is not sure where her scarf is. handed in immediately.

9
 www.syaiflash.com

(D) The project report shouldn’t be (D) Asking the doctor to meet the
turned in. woman.

17. (Listening) 22. (Listening)

(A) In a garden. (A) It’s almost six o’clock.
(B) In a field. (B) The man doesn’t really need
(C) In a grocery. the pens.
(D) In a pharmacy. (C) It’s a long way to the stationary
shop.
18. (Listening) (D) It would be better to go after
(A) A visit to the man’s house. six o’clock.
(B) The man’s name is Bill.
(C) The high electricity cost. 23. (Listening)
(D) The bill of the new electronic (A) The book was placed on reserve.
tools. (B) The woman must ask the
professor for a copy.
19. (Listening) (C) The woman should search for
(A) She hasn’t met her new the book herself.
secretary yet. (D) He has reservations about the
(B) She has a good opinion of her book.
secretary.
(C) Her secretary asked her about 24. (Listening)
her impression of the company. (A) He needs to take a holiday.
(D) She has been putting to much (B) He hopes the woman will help
push on her secretary. him to be more relaxed.
(C) The woman just phoned him.
20. (Listening) (D) He is extremely relaxed.
(A) The performance starts in two
hours. 25. (Listening)
(B) He intends to do two (A) She doesn’t think what Sarah
performances. said is false.
(C) He will perform on the third of (B) She has never before told the
the month. man about it.
(D) He thinks that the performance (C) She trusts Sarah.
begins at three. (D) She shares the man’s opinion
about what Sarah said.
21. (Listening)
(A) Choose a new doctor. 26. (Listening)
(B) Cure the pain himself. (A) The department will offer a
(C) Make an appointment with his new dean next week.
doctor.

10
 www.syaiflash.com

(B) The new dean has not yet (B) She thinks she did a good job
decided. on the exam.
(C) The department is looking for (C) She has not yet taken the
air. history exam.
(D) The man likes to discuss about (D) She’s unhappy with how she
the new dean. did.

27. (Listening) 29. (Listening)

(A) He doesn’t believe that it is (A) The door was unlocked.
raining hard. (B) It is better to wait outside.
(B) The hard rain had been (C) He couldn’t open the door.
predicted. (D) He needed to have a walk.
(C) The exact amount of hard rain
is unclear. 30. (Listening)
(D) He expected the woman to go (A) He nailed the wall.
out in the rain. (B) He is heading to the library.
(C) He is absolutely correct.
28. (Listening) (D) He has some nails.
(A) She’s going to take the test over
again.

Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversation. After each
conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not
be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose
the best answer. Then blacken the space of the answer you have chosen.

31. (Listening) 32. (Listening)

(A) Because he has much money. (A) It’s brand new.
(B) Because he can repair the old (B) It’s a second hand one.
one. (C) It has bad quality.
(C) Because the old computer was (D) It’s difficult.
broken.
(D) Because he wanted to have 33. (Listening)
more computers. (A) It’s good.
(B) It’s bad.
(C) It’s cheap.
(D) It’s better than brand new
computers.

11
 www.syaiflash.com

34. (Listening) Part C

(A) He felt happy. Directions: In this part of the test, you
(B) He felt that it was easy for him will hear several talks. After each talk,
to choose a computer. you will hear some questions. The talks
(C) He was confused. and questions will not be repeated.
(D) He was not amazed. After you hear a question, read the four
possible answers in your test book and
35. (Listening) choose the best answer. Then blacken
(A) She ate in the canteen. the space of the answer you have
(B) She met her best friend in the chosen.
canteen
(C) She phoned Sarah and had a 39. (Listening)
long chat. (A) 25 km2
(D) She spent fifteen minutes in the (B) 250 km2
canteen. (C) 1 km2
(D) 26 km2
36. (Listening)
(A) Sarah is unkind. 40. (Listening)
(B) Sarah rarely gives suggestions. (A) Indonesian architecture
(C) Sarah makes her calm. collection.
(D) Sarah is not busy. (B) Indonesian clothing collection.
(C) Indonesian dances and
37. (Listening) traditions.
(A) Sarah is kind. (D) Indonesian paintings.
(B) Sarah is the woman’s best friend.
(C) The woman is a student. 41. (Listening)
(D) Both women can be met easily. (A) TMII has a swimming pool.
(B) TMII is one of the most popular
38. (Listening) tourist destinations.
(A) Because Sarah doesn’t want to. (C) There are many miniatures in
(B) Because Sarah is meeting her TMII.
supervisor. (D) There is a theatre in TMII.
(C) Because Sarah works on
weekends. 42. (Listening)
(D) Because Sarah preferred talking (A) Have lunch.
on the phone. (B) Buy tickets for the tour.
(C) Have a tour.
(D) Finish the tour.

12
 www.syaiflash.com

43. (Listening) 47. (Listening)

(A) It’s about the life of Habibie’s (A) Astronomer
family. (B) Astronomy
(B) It’s about Habibie’s career. (C) Galaxy
(C) It’s about the decription of (D) Universe
Habibie.
(D) It’s about the life of Habibie. 48. (Listening)
(A) It’s the sun only.
44. (Listening) (B) It’s the planets and the stars.
(A) He became the president of (C) It’s the stars only.
Indonesia in 1998. (D) It’s the Sun and the objects that
(B) He married a woman from orbit the Sun.
Yogyakarta.
(C) He studied in Germany. 49. (Listening)
(D) He had a son in 1960. (A) 46 million years ago
(B) 4.6 million years ago.
45. (Listening) (C) 46 billion years ago.
(A) Habibie got his doctoral degree (D) 4.6 billion years ago.
in Indonesia.
(B) Habibie only became a vice 50. (Listening)
president. (A) They are all of the planets.
(C) Habibie moved to Germany in (B) They are the small planets.
1960. (C) They are the four small planets
(D) Habibie married the daughter closest to the sun.
of R. Mohamad Besari. (D) The biggest planet.

46. (Listening) — This is the end of the Listening

(A) Because he got ill. Section—
(B) Because he got married.
(C) Because he had a son.
(D) Because he has finished his
study.

13
 www.syaiflash.com
SECTION2: STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
STRUCTURE
1. _____________, the inventor of
light bulb, was one of the first
invetors to apply the principles.
(A) It is Thomas Alva Edison
(B) Thomas Alva Edison
(C) Thomas Alva Edison is
(D) Thomas Alva Edison is famous
2. Elizabeth in Pride and Prejudice
and Elinor Dashwood in Sense and
Sensibility __________ of Jane
Austen’s famous characters.
(A) they are two
(B) two of them are
(C) two of them
(D) are two
3. Barack Obama has not one
__________ two children.
(A) and also
(B) but
(C) and there are
(D) but there are
4. During the Indonesian
Independence, the Indonesian
society was happy, and the new
government_________.
(A) was formed
(B) was to from
(C) is forming
(D) forming
5. World War II is generally considered
to have happened _________ and
1945, although some conflicts in
14
Asia that are commonly viewed as
becoming part of the world war
had begun earlier than 1939.
(A) the 1939
(B) between 1939
(C) in between 1939
(D) in the between 1939
6. Conditions required to be
accepted in reputable international
universities include good mastery
of the field of study, good mastery
of English, and __________.
(A) the confidence must be high.
(B) having high confidence.
(C) high confidence.
(D) highly confident.
7. When the earth, sun and moon are
lined up in a row, _____________.
(A) spring tides are formed.
(B) forming spring tides.
(C) the forming of spring tides.
(D) to form spring tides.
8. Some people _________of money.
(A) have a limited number
(B) have a limited amount
(C) having a limited number
(D) having a limited amount
9. In the presidential election in
Indonesia, the government invites
the society to determine who
_________by voting.
(A) should the president be
(B) the president being
 www.syaiflash.com

(C) the president should be (C) does the sun

(D) it should be the president (D) is the sun

10. Electricity can be produced by 15. J.K. Rowling wrote many amazing
____________ or combs. novels _________ famous
(A) rulers are rubbed worldwide.
(B) rubbing rulers (A) that are became
(C) to rub rulers (B) that became
(D) rulers rubbing (C) what became
(D) what had became
11. Orville Wright and Wilbur Wright,
__________ of the world’s first
successful airplane, were both born WRITTEN EXPRESSION
in Dayton.
(A) they were inventing 16. Thunder happen because of the
(B) were inventors A B
(C) invented vibration resulting from lightening
(D) the inventors C D
when it strikes.
12. The particles in an atom ________a
neutral charge are called neutrons. 17. A atom consists of a dense central
(A) having A B
(B) is having nucleus surrounded by a cloud of
(C) it is having
(D) which having negatively charged electrons.
C D
13. Glaciers are made up of ________
that, over many years, compresses 18. Most heart attacks involves discom-
into large, thickened ice masses. A B C
(A) the snow is falling fort in the center or left side of the
(B) snow is falling D
(C) fallen snow chest.
(D) snow fallen
19. When the general price level rises,
14. Not only ________ provide energy A
that maintains many things on each unit of currency buys fewer
earth, but it also provides sunlight B C
which is important for vitamin D goods as well services.
production. D
(A) The sun
(B) It is the sun that

15
 www.syaiflash.com

20. The cerebral hemispheres, the ce- black patches around it eyes, over
A B C
rebrum, form the largest part of the the ears, and across its round body.
B D
human brain and are situated
C 25. The outer space has effectively
above other brain structure. A
D no friction, allowing stars, plan
B
21. Borobudur is the world’s largest ets and moons to move free
A C
Buddhist temple, as well as one of along their ideal orbits.
B D
the great Buddhist monuments in
C D 26. Port Jackson is known for its
the world. A
beauty, and in particular, as the
B
22. Although George Washington lost location of the Sydney Opera
A B
many of his battles, he never surren House and Sydney Harbor Bridge

dered his army during the war, and which connect central Sydney
C
he continued to fighting the British with the Northern Suburbs region
C
relentlessly until the war ended. metropolitan area.
D D

23. Uluru is notable for appear to 27. A stiil camera is an optically device
A A
change color at different times of which creates a single image of an
B C
the day and year, most notably object or scene, and records it on an
B C
glowing red at dawn and sunset. electronic sensor or photographic
D D
film.
24. The giant panda is easily recog-
A 28. Different species of bats selecting
nized by the large, distinctive A B
different habitats during different
C
16
 www.syaiflash.com

seasons, ranging from mountains 33. Born in Stratford-upon-Avon, Wil

A
and even deserts. liam Shakespeare produces most of
D B
his known work between 1589 and
29. Managing the balance between rec C D
A 1613.
reational, commercial, and industry
B
uses has been a challenge for the 34. Hail consists of balls or irregular
C A B
stewards of the Niagara falls since lumps of ice, they of which is called
D C D
the 19th century. a hailstone.

35. Orchidaceae is a diverse and wide-

30. Captain James Cook reached the A
spread family of flowering plants
south-eastern coast of Australia on
A with blooms that are often colorful
19 April 1770, and in doing so his B
B and often fragrant, commonly
expedition became the first record C
C known as the orchid family.
Europeans to have encountered its D
D
eastern coastline. 36. Many newspapers, besides employ-
A
31. Roald Dahl rose to prominence in ing journalists on its own payrolls,
A B
the 1940s with works for both chil- also subscribe to news agencies.
B C D
dren and adults and became one of
C 37. The term cartoon originated in the
the world’s best-selling author. A
D Middle Ages and first describe a
B
32. Unlikely other birds in this world, preparatory drawing for a piece of
A B C
penguins cannot fly. art, such as a painting, fresco, tapes
D C

17
 www.syaiflash.com

try, or stained glass window. 40. The bicycle’s invention has had
D A
an enormous effects on society,
38. The successful completing of the B C
A both in terms of culture and of
Suramadu bridge has encouraged
B advancing modern industrial
interest in the possibility of con- D
methods.
structing a much larger Sunda Strait
C
Bridge across the Sunda Strait at the
D
western end of Java.

39. Bill Clinton presided over the longer

A
period of peacetime economic
B
expansion in American history, and
C
signed into law the North American
D
Free Trade Agreement.

18
 www.syaiflash.com

SECTION 3: READING COMPREHENSION

Questions 1-10

Line The platypus (Ornithorhynchus anatinus) is a semiaquatic mammal endemic to

eastern Australia, including Tasmania. Together with the four species of echidna, it is one
of the five extant species of monotremes, the only mammals that lay eggs instead of
giving birth. It is the sole living representative of its family (Ornithorhynchidae), and genus
5 (Ornithorhynchus), though a number of related species have been found in the fossil record.
The unusual appearance of this egg-laying, duck-billed, beaver-tailed, otter-footed
mammal baffled European naturalists when they first encountered it, with some
considering it an elaborate fraud. It is one of the few venomous mammals, the male
platypus having a spur on the hind foot that delivers venom capable of causing severe
10 pain to humans. The unique features of the platypus make it an important subject in the
study of evolutionary biology and a recognizable and iconic symbol of "VTUSBMJB it has
appeared as a mascot at national events and is featured on the reverse of its 20-cent coin.
The platypus is the animal emblem of the state of New South Wales.
Until the early 20th century, it was hunted for its fur, but it is now protected
15 throughout its range. Although captive breeding programs have had only limited
success and the platypus is vulnerable to the effects of pollution, it is not under any
immediate threat.

(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Platypus)

1. The topic of this passage is 3. The possessive its in line 4 refers to

(A) the general information of (A) platypus
platypus (B) species
(B) the features of platypus (C) mammal
(C) the unusual appearance of (D) representative
platypus
(D) the platypus in this world 4. It can be inferred from the passage
that
2. It can be inferred from the passage (A) the platypus gives birth
that (B) the platypus is not famous in
(A) the platypus is not a mammal Australia
(B) the platypus does not lay eggs (C) the platypus is not hunted for
(C) the platypus can be dangerous its fur today
for human being (D) there are still many platypus
(D) the platypus does rarely lives in living in Australia
Australia

19
 www.syaiflash.com

5. The word ‘features’ in line 10 is clos- 8. The passage states that

est in meaning to (A) the female platypus can
(A) descriptions produce venom
(B) characteristics (B) the male platypus can produce
(C) explanations venom
(D) characters (C) all platypus can produce venom
(D) all platypus are poisonous
6. According to the passage, what is
NOT the unusual appearance of the 9. The passage states that the
platypus? platypus does not
(A) egg-laying (A) Live in Tasmania
(B) duck-billed (B) Give birth
(C) small-tailed (C) Have poison
(D) otter-footed (D) Have flat tails

7. The word ‘emblem’ in line 13 is 10. The word ‘immediate’ in line 17 is

closest in meaning to the closest in meaning to
(A) picture (A) direct
(B) drawing (B) sudden
(C) meaning (C) fast
(D) symbol (D) quick

Line The Wright brothers, Orville (August 19, 1871 – January 30, 1948) and Wilbur
(April 16, 1867 – May 30, 1912), were two American brothers, inventors, and aviation
pioneers who were credited with inventing and building the world’s first successful
airplane and making the first controlled, powered and sustained heavier-than-air
5 human flight, on December 17, 1903. From 1905 to 1907, the brothers developed
their flying machine into the first practical fixed-wing aircraft. Although not the first
to build and fly experimental aircraft, the Wright brothers were the first to invent
aircraft controls that made fixed-wing powered flight possible.
The brothers’ fundamental breakthrough was their invention of three-axis
10 control, which enabled the pilot to steer the aircraft effectively and to maintain its
equilibrium. This method became standard and remains standard on fixed-wing
aircraft of all kinds. From the beginning of their aeronautical work, the Wright brothers
focused on developing a reliable method of pilot control as the key to solving “the
flying problem”. This approach differed significantly from other experimenters of
15 the time who put more emphasis on developing powerful engines. Using a small
homebuilt wind tunnel, the Wrights also collected more accurate data than any
before, enabling them to design and build wings and propellers that were more
efficient than any before. Their first U.S. patent, 821,393, did not claim invention of

0
 www.syaiflash.com

a flying machine, but rather, the invention of a system of aerodynamic control that
20 manipulated a flying machine’s surfaces.
They gained the mechanical skills essential for their success by working for years
in their shop with printing presses, bicycles, motors, and other machinery. Their work
with bicycles in particular influenced their belief that an unstable vehicle like a flying
machine could be controlled and balanced with practice. From 1900 until their first
25 powered flights in late 1903, they conducted extensive glider tests that also developed
their skills as pilots. Their bicycle shop employee Charlie Taylo became an important
part of the team, building their first airplane engine in close collaboration with the
brothers.
The Wright brothers’ status as inventors of the airplane has been subject to counter-
30 claims by various parties. Much controversy persists over the many competing claims
of early aviators.

(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wright_brothers)

11. The passage is mainly about (D) the invention of a system of

(A) the life of the Wright brothers aerodynamic control by the
(B) the history of airplane Wright brothers
(C) the inventions of the Wright
brothers 14. The word ‘remains’ in line 11 is clos-
(D) the description of the Wright est in meaning to
Brothers (A) saves
(B) gives
12. The word ‘credited’ in line 3 is (C) stays
closest in meaning to (D) brings
(A) Honored
(B) Skilled 15. The word ‘any’ in line 16 refers to
(C) Determined (A) the Wright brothers
(D) Decided (B) other experimenters
(C) powerful engines
13. In the second paragraph, the author (D) accurate data
mainly discusses
(A) the three-axis control invented 16. The passage states that
by the Wright brothers (A) the Wright brothers did not
(B) how the Wright brothers in- make the first practical fixed-
vented fixed-wing aircrafts. wing aircraft in their life
(C) how the Wright brothers solve (B) the Wright brothers did not
the flying problem. invent the three-axis control at all

1
 www.syaiflash.com

(C) the Wright brothers collected (C) The three-axis control method
more accurate data using a became standard on fixed-wing
small homebuilt wind tunnel aircraft of all kinds.
(D) the Wright brothers’ first U.S. (D) The Wright brothers’ status as
patent was not the invention inventors of the airplane has
of a system of aerodynamic been credited by all parties
control that manipulated a
flying machine’s surfaces. 19. The word ‘their’ in line 26 refers to
(A) the Wrights
17. The word ‘essential’ in line 21 is (B) pilots
closest in meaning to (C) employee
(A) good (D) Charlie Taylor
(B) useful
(C) available 20. According to the passage, it is
(D) important concluded that
(A) The Wrights had a shop
18. The following statements are true (B) The Wrights worked with
according to the passage EXCEPT bicycles
(A) The Wright brothers are real (C) The Wrights contributed much
siblings to the invention of airplanes
(B) The Wrights invented aircraft (D) The Wrights could fly airplanes
controls that made fixed-wing
powered flight possible

Line Insomnia, or sleeplessness, is a sleep disorder in which there is an inability to

fall asleep or to stay asleep as long as desired. While the term is sometimes used
to describe a disorder demonstrated by polysomnographic evidence of disturbed
sleep, this sleep disorder is often practically defined as a positive response to either
5 of two questions: “Do you experience difficulty sleeping?” or “Do you have difficulty
falling or staying asleep?”
Insomnia is most often thought of as both a medical sign and a symptom that
can accompany several sleeps, medical, and psychiatric disorders characterized by
a persistent difficulty falling asleep and/or staying asleep or sleep of poor quality.
10 Insomnia is typically followed by functional impairment while awake. Insomnia
can occur at any age, but it is particularly common in the elderly. Insomnia can be
short term (up to three weeks) or long term (above 3–4 weeks), which can lead to
memory problems, depression, irritability and an increased risk of heart disease and
automobile related accidents.
15 Those who are having trouble sleeping sometimes turn to sleeping pills,
which can help when used occasionally but may lead to substance dependence or
addiction if used regularly for an extended period.

2
 www.syaiflash.com

Insomnia can be grouped into primary and secondary, or comorbid, insomnia.

Primary insomnia is a sleep disorder, not attributable to a medical, psychiatric, or
20 environmental cause. It is described as a complaint of prolonged sleep onset latency,
disturbance of sleep maintenance, or the experience of non-refreshing sleep. A
complete diagnosis will differentiate between free-standing primary insomnia,
insomnia as secondary to another condition, and primary insomnia co-morbid with
one or more conditions.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Insomnia)

21. What is the author’s main point in treat Insomnia?

the passage? (A) See the doctor
(A) Another name of insomnia (B) Do jogging
(B) The poor quality of sleep (C) Drink sleeping medicine
(C) The general idea of sleepless- (D) Eat much
ness
(D) The disadvantages of sleep 26. The word ‘dependence’ in line 16
disorder has similar meaning with
(A) Addiction
22. The word “demonstrated” in line 3 (B) Existence
can be best replaced by .... (C) Addition
(A) Showed (D) Usage
(B) Argued
(C) Demoed 27. It is stated in the passage that
(D) Suggested Insomnia
(A) can be occurred only to elderly
23. Who can get Insomnia? people.
(A) Children (B) is waking up problem.
(B) Elderly people (C) can cause memory problem.
(C) Teenager (D) can be treated by only consum-
(D) All of the people ing sleeping pills.

24. What is NOT the problem caused 28. The word “grouped” in line 18 is
by Insomnia? closest in meaning to
(A) Depression (A) classified
(B) Headache (B) formed
(C) Irritability (C) listed
(D) Heart disease (D) ranked

25. What is the simple solution which is 29. Which of the following is NOT true
usually conducted by the people to about the passage?

3
 www.syaiflash.com

(A) Sleep disorder is the other 30. Where in the passage does the au-
name of Insomnia. thor mention about the definition
(B) Insomnia can lead people to of Insomnia?
have physical impairment. (A) Line 1 and 2
(C) Consuming sleeping pills (B) Line 6 and 7
doesn’t cause addiction. (C) Line 13 and 14
(D) Insomnia can be grouped into (D) Line 19 and 20
two categories.

Questions 31-40
Line The Arecaceae are a botanical family of perennial lianas, shrubs, and trees
commonly known as palm trees. (Due to historical usage, the family is alternatively
called Palmae or Palmaceae.) They are flowering plants, the only family in the
monocot order Arecales. Roughly 202 gener with around 2600 species are currently
5 known, most of them restricted to tropical, subtropical, and warm temperate
climates. Most palms are distinguished by their large, compound, evergreen
leaves arranged at the top of an unbranched stem. However, many palms are
exceptions, and in fact exhibit an enormous diversity in physical characteristics.
As well as being morphologically diverse, palms also inhabit nearly every type of
10 habitat within their range, from rainforests to deserts.
Most palms grow in the tropics. They are abundant throughout the tropics,
and thrive in almost every habitat therein. Their diversity is highest in wet, lowland
tropical forests, especially in ecological “hotspots” such as Madagascars, which has
more endemic palms than all of Africa. Colombia may have the highest number of
15 palm species in one country. Palms are most commonly seen throughout Africa,
South America, Mexico, and areas of the United States such as North Carolina,
Texas, Florida, Arizona, California, Georgia, Louisiana, Alabama, Mississippi, South
Carolina, Puerto Rico, and Hawaii.
Palms are among the best known and most extensively cultivated plant
20 families. They have been important to humans throughout much of history. Many
common products and foods are derived from palms, and palms are also widely
used in landscaping for their exotic appearance, making them one of the most
economically important plants. In many historical cultures, palms were symbols
for such ideas as victory, peace, and fertility. Today, they remain a popular symbol
25 for the tropics and vacations.

(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arecaceae)
 www.syaiflash.com

31. The best title for this passage 36. The word ‘extensively’ in line 19 is
would be closest in meaning to
(A) Palm trees (A) large
(B) Types of palm tress (C) larger
(C) Palm trees in rainforests and (B) largely
desserts (D) largest
(D) The importance of palm trees
37. The word ‘they’ in line 24 refers to
32. The word ‘currently’ in line 4 is (A) palms
closest in meaning to (C) peace
(A) new (B) victory
(C) now (D) symbols
(B) present
(D) then 38. The word ‘appearance’ in line 22 is
closest in meaning to
33. The expression ‘distinguished by’ in (A) character
line 6 could be replaced by (C) scene
(A) Seen by (B) look
(C) Lost by (D) scenery
(B) Covered by
(D) Closed by 39. Which of the following is NOT
true about the cultural symbols of
34. It can be inferred from the passage palms?
that (A) They are symbols for victory
(A) Most of the leaves of palms are (B) They are symbols for peace
not green. (C) They are symbols for fertility
(B) Rarely do palms have com- (D) They are symbols for health
pound leaves.
(C) Most palm trees can live in 40. From the passage, it can be inferred
tropical areas. that
(D) All palms live in Cambodia. (A) Palms are not useful
(B) Palms do not live in subtropical
35. According to the passage, palms areas
live in these countries EXCEPT (C) There are not many kinds of
(A) Mexico palms
(D) South Africa (D) Palms are cultivated
(B) Florida
(E) Arctic
(C) Arizona

5
 www.syaiflash.com

Questions 41-50
Line The United Nations (UN) is an intergovernmental organization established on 24
October 1945 to promote international co-operation. A replacement for the ineffective
League of Nations, the organization was created following the Second World War to
prevent another such conflict. At its founding, the UN had 51 NFNCFS
TUBUFT there
5 are now 193. The UN Headquarters resides in international territory in New York City,
with further main offices in Geneva, Nairobi, and Vienna. The organization is financed
by assessed and voluntary contributions from its member states. Its objectives include
maintaining international peace and security, promoting human rights, fostering social
and economic development, protecting the environment, and providing humanitarian
10 aid in cases of famine, natural disaster, and armed conflict.
During the Second World War, US President Franklin D. Roosevelt initiated talks on a
successor agency to the League of Nations, and the United Nations Charter was drafted
at a conference JO
"QSJMo+VOF

UIJT
DIBSUFS
UPPL
FòFDU
PO

0DUPCFS

BOE
UIF

UN began operation. The UN’s mission to preserve world peace was complicated in its
15 early decades by the Cold War between the US and Soviet Union and their respective
allies. The organization participated in major actions in Korea and the Congo, as well
as approving the creation of the state of Israel in 1947. The organization’s membership
grew significantly following widespread decolonization in the 1960s, and by the 1970s
its budget for economic and social development programs far outstripped its spending
20 on peacekeeping. After the end of the Cold War, the UN took on major military and
peacekeeping missions across the world with varying degrees of success.
The UN has six principal organs: the General Assembly (the main deliberative
BTTFNCMZ 
UIF
Security Council (for deciding certain resolutions for peace and
TFDVSJUZ 
UIF
Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) (for promoting international
25 FDPOPNJD
BOE
TPDJBM
DPPQFSBUJPO
BOE
EFWFMPQNFOU 
UIF
Secretariat (for providing
TUVEJFT
JOGPSNBUJPO
BOE
GBDJMJUJFT
OFFEFE
CZ
UIF
6/ 
UIF
International Court of
Justice UIF
QSJNBSZ
KVEJDJBM
PSHBO 
BOE
UIF
United Nations Trusteeship Council
(inactive since 1994). UN System agencies include the World Bank Group, the World
Health Organization, the World Food Programme, UNESCO, and UNICEF. The UN’s
30 most prominent officer is the Secretary-General, an office held by South Korean Ban
Ki-moon since 2007. Non-governmental organizations may be granted consultative
status with ECOSOC and other agencies to participate in the UN’s work.
The organization won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2001, and a number of its officers
and agencies have also been awarded the prize. Other evaluations of the UN’s
35 effectiveness have been mixed. Some commentators believe the organization to be
an important force for peace and human development, while others have called the
organization ineffective, corrupt, or biased.

(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Nations)

6
 www.syaiflash.com

41. The passage is mainly about 46. Below are the principals organs
(A) The history of UN that are still active now of UN
(B) The story of UN EXCEPT
(C) The general description of UN (A) General Assembly
(D) The UN organization principals (B) Security Council
(C) Economic and Social Council
42. According to the passage (ECOSOC)
(A) UN did not replace League (D) United Nations Trusteeship
Nations Council
(B) UN first had more than
members 51 members 47. The word ‘prominent’ in line 30 is
(C) One of UN’s job is to prevent closest in meaning to
conflicts (A) large
(D) The UN office is only in New (B) famous
York. (C) well
(D) fond
43. These are the aims of UN EXCEPT
(A) Maintaining international 48. Where in the passage does the
peace and security author describe about UN System
(B) Promoting human rights agencies?
(C) Fostering social and economic (A) Line 20-24
development (B) Line 24-26
(D) Destructing the environment (C) Line 28-32
(D) Line 33-34
44. The word ‘its’ in line 14 refers to
(A) United Nations Charter 49. The word ‘granted’ in line 31 can be
(B) Conference best replaced by the word
(C) Operation (A) bought
(D) UN’s (B) brought
(C) given
45. The word ‘major’ in line 16 is closest (D) appeared
in meaning to
(A) basic 50. The paragraph following the
(B) big passage most likely discusses
(C) base (A) The next UN leaders
(D) many (B) The good status of UN
(C) The effectiveness of UN
(D) The ineffectiveness of UN

7
 www.syaiflash.com

ANSWER KEY AND DISCUSSION

LISTENING COMPREHENSION
PART A
1. (woman) : David said that you were rather selfish.
(man) : It’s unfair of him to say that about me.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: D
What David said was unjust.

2. (man) : I don’t think this book is very good.

(woman) : It’s better than the other two, isn’t it?
(narrator) : What does the woman say about the book?
JAWABAN: A
She thinks it’s better than the others.

3. (woman) : Your graduation ceremony is two days again.

(man) : I can’t believe it. I’ve graduated at last!
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: D
He has finally finished his studies.

4. (woman) : I got this skirt for only eight dollars!

(man) : Eight dollars! How did you get it so cheap?
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: B
It was an unexpectedly inexpensive skirt.

5. (man) : I just got a new assignment again this afternoon.

(woman) : You need to work harder this week.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
JAWABAN: C
The man needs to study harder to complete the assignments.

6. (woman) : Were you able to get a hold of the CD that you wanted?
(man) : I couldn’t. At the store, they told me that it wasn’t available yet.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: C
It’s not possible to obtain the CD yet.

8
 www.syaiflash.com

7. (woman) : Professor’s Ann lecture went on and on for quite some time.
(man) : I thought she was never going to end the class.
(narrator) : What does the man imply about the lecture?
JAWABAN: D
It was too long.

8. (man) : Do you have the notes from yesterday’s chemistry class?

(woman) : No, I don’t. Do you think I could borrow yours?
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
JAWABAN: A
She needs to use the man’s notes.

9. (man) : You said you wanted to go shopping this afternoon. What do you want to get?
(woman) : I think I’d like to get my sister a new pair of shoes for her birthday.

(narrator) : What does the woman mean?

JAWABAN: B
She’s looking for a birthday present.

10. (woman) : You didn’t even go into the water, even for a quick dip at the beach.
(man) : I put my big toe in and decided that the water is too cold for me.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: D
He did not enjoy the water.

11. (man) : Do you know where your scarf is?

(woman) : I think I left it at my uncle’s house yesterday.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
JAWABAN: B
She knows where her scarf is.

12. (man) : I need you to work on these field reports.

(woman) : But I hardly have time to finish the ones I already have.
(narrator) : What does the woman imply?
JAWABAN: A
She doesn’t have time to complete additional reports.

13. (woman) : How much longer do you think you’re going to work on that broken computer?
(man) : I give up!
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: D
He will not continue trying to repair the computer.

9
 www.syaiflash.com

14. (woman) : Look at that mountain. It’s the highest I’ve ever seen!
(man) : You can say that again.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: D
He agrees with the woman.

15. (man) : Are you ready for the geometry exam today? I stayed up all night studying for it.
(woman) : Didn’t you know that the professor put it off until next week?
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
JAWABAN: A
The exam was postponed.

16. (woman) : I haven’t turned in the project report yet. Do you think that’s a problem?
(man) : You haven’t turned it in yet? It’s absolutely essential that you turn the project
report immediately.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: C
The project report must be handed in immediately.

17. (woman) : I would like some apples, avocados, and grapes please.
(man) : Yes, certainly.
(narrator) : Where does this conversation probably take place?
JAWABAN: C
In a grocery.

18. (woman) : Look at this. You used the electronics too much last month. The bill is higher
than usual.
(man) : I had a lot of paper work to do. That’s why I always turn on the computer all day
long for a couple of weeks.
(narrator) : What are the man and woman probably discussing?
JAWABAN: C
The high electricity cost.

19. (man) : What do you think of your new secretary?

(woman) : I couldn’t be more impressed with him.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
JAWABAN: B
She has a good opinion of her secretary.

30
 www.syaiflash.com

20. (woman) : Tony, do you know when the performance starts?

(man) : It starts at two o’clock, doesn’t it?
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: D
He thinks that the performance begins at three.

21. (woman) : If your headache doesn’t get any better, perhaps you should see the doctor.
(man) : I don’t really want to, but I guess I don’t have much choice.
(narrator) : What will the man probably do next?
JAWABAN: C
Make an appointment with his doctor.

22. (man) : I need to buy some new pens.

(woman) : Then you’d better get to the stationary shop. It closes at six o’clock.
(narrator) : What can be inferred from the conversation?
JAWABAN: A
It’s almost six o’clock.

23. (woman) : Do you know where I can find the book for the exam next week?
(man) : The professor copied it and put it on reserve in the library.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: A
The book was placed on reserve.

24. (woman) : I think you should be a little bit relaxed.

(man) : If I were any relaxed, I’d be on my holidays.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: D
He is extremely relaxed.

25. (man) : I don’t think what Sarah said is possibly true.

(woman) : Neither do I!.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
JAWABAN: D
She shares the man’s opinion about what Sarah said.

26. (woman) : Has the department decided the new dean?

(man) : It’s still up in the air. I think it will be discussed again next week.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: B
The new dean has not yet decided.

31
 www.syaiflash.com

27. (woman) : I can’t believe it! It’s raining hard today.

(man) : It’s wasn’t exactly unexpected.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: B
The hard rain had been predicted.

28. (man) : How do you think you did on the history exam this morning?
(woman) : I really wish I could take it over again.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
JAWABAN: D
She’s unhappy with how she did.

29. (woman) : You didn’t have to wait outside. You could’ve just opened the door.
(man) : So the door was not locked!
(narrator) : What had the man assumed?
JAWABAN: C
He couldn’t open the door.

30. (man) : My guess is that you’re leaving the class now and heading straight to the library.
(woman) : You’ve hit the nail on the head!
(narrator) : What does the woman say about the man?
JAWABAN: C
(A) He is absolutely correct.

PART B
Questions 31-34 refer to the following conversation.
(narrator) : Listen to a conversation between a man and a woman about the man’s new com-
puter.
(woman) : Wow! You have a new computer.
(man) : Yes, I bought it yesterday. My old one is broken and I couldn’t do anything about it.
So I decided to buy one. It’s not new actually. It’s a second hand one.
(woman) : Why didn’t you buy a new one? Aren’t new things better?
(man) : Well, I have a lot of expense this semester and I need to take priority. And probably
I’ll only be using this one two semesters again.
(woman) : Well, it’s pretty good actually. Where did you buy it?
(man) : At the electronic center near the post office. There were so many choices there and
I was confused which one to choose. All of them were good.
(woman) : You certainly chose a good one.

32
 www.syaiflash.com

31. Why did the man buy a new computer?

JAWABAN: C
Because the old computer was broken.

32. What is right about his new computer?

JAWABAN: B
It’s a second hand one.

33. What is the woman’s opinion about the new computer?

JAWABAN: A
It’s good.

34. What did the man feel at the shop?

JAWABAN: C
He was confused.

Questions 35-38 refer to the following conversation.

(narrator) : Listen to a conversation between a man and a woman about the woman’s best friend.

(man) : Hi. What took you so long? You’re fifteen minutes late.
(woman) : I’m sorry. I met my best friend at the canteen and we had a chat. It was our first
meeting in two years.
(man) : Is she the one you keep talking to me about?
(woman) : Yes. Well now she lives in California and she came here to visit her supervisor. Mr.
Jones is a lecturer here too you know.
(man) : Oh, I see.
(woman) : She is so nice to me you know. Usually when I have problems, I tell her. Then she’ll
give me advices or suggestions. She always makes me calm. I also always try to do
the same thing to her. Usually we meet in the park or café. But now, we just talk
on the phone. It’s pretty difficult to meet each other now.
(man) : You can meet up with each other on weekends, can’t you?
(woman) : Unfortunately not, she works on weekends. She’s extremely busy.
(man) : Oh, I see.

35. Why was the woman late?

JAWABAN: B
She met her best friend in the canteen

36. How did the woman describe Sarah?

JAWABAN: C
Sarah makes her calm.

33
 www.syaiflash.com

37. What did the man assume?

JAWABAN: D
Both women can be met easily.

38. Why can’t the woman easily meet Sarah?

JAWABAN: C
(A) Because Sarah works on weekends.

PART C
Questions 39-42 refer to the following talk.
(narrator) Listen to a talk by a tour guide in a landmark.
(man) Let me give you a general overview of this beautiful place.
Taman Mini Indonesia Indah (TMII) or “Beautiful Indonesia Miniature Park” (literally
translated) is a culture-based recreational area located in East Jakarta, Indonesia.
It has an area of about 250 acres (1.0 km2). The park is a synopsis of Indonesian
culture, with virtually all aspects of daily life in Indonesia’s 26 (in 1975) provinces
encapsulated in separate pavilions with the collections of Indonesian architecture,
clothing, dances and traditions are all depicted impeccably. Apart from that, there
is a lake with a miniature of the archipelago in the middle of it, cable cars, museums,
Keong Emas Imax cinema, a theater called the Theatre of My Homeland (Theater
Tanah Airku) and other recreational facilities which make TMII one of the most
popular tourist destinations in the city. Since 2007 Taman Mini Indonesia Indah
launched new logo with branding slogan Pesona Indonesia (“Indonesian Charm”).
Okay, that’s enough. Let’s start the tour.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Taman_Mini_Indonesia_Indah)

39. What is the area of TMII?

JAWABAN: C
1 km2

40. Which is not available in TMII?

JAWABAN: D
Indonesian paintings

41. Which statement is false according to the talk?

JAWABAN: A
TMII has a swimming pool.

42. What will the participants probably do next?

JAWABAN: C
Have a tour.

34
 www.syaiflash.com

Questions 43-46 refer to the following talk.

(narrator) Listen to a talk by a professor about Habibie.
(woman) Today we will be discussing about a very famous Indonesian former president.
Bacharuddin Jusuf Habibie.
He was born 25 June 1936. He is a former politician of the State of Indonesia.
His presidency (1998–1999) was the third, and the shortest, after independence.
Habibie was born in Parepare, South Sulawesi Province to Alwi Abdul Jalil Habibie
and R. A. Tuti Marini Puspowardojo. His father was an agriculturist from Gorontalo
of Bugis descent and his mother was a Javanese noblewoman from Yogyakarta.
His parents met while studying in Bogor. Habibie’s father died when he was 14
years old.
Following his father’s death, Habibie continued his studies in Jakarta and then
in 1955 moved to Germany. In 1960, Habibie received a degree in engineering
in Germany, giving him the title Diplom-Ingenieur. He remained in Germany as a
research assistant under Hans Ebner to conduct research for his doctoral degree.
In 1962, Habibie returned to Indonesia for three months on sick leave. During this
time, he was reacquainted with Hasri Ainun, the daughter of R. Mohamad Besari.
Habibie had known Hasri Ainun in childhood, junior high school and in senior
high school at SMA-Kristen, Bandung. The two married on 12 May 1962, returning
to Germany shortly afterwards. Then, in May 1963 they had a son, Ilham Akbar
Habibie.
Okay, that’s only some information about Habibie. I would like all of you to find
more information on his next years of life.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/B._J._Habibie)

43. What is the talk about?

JAWABAN: D
It’s about the life of Habibie.

44. The following statements are TRUE according to the talk EXCEPT
JAWABAN: D
He had a son in 1960.

45. From the talk, it is known that

JAWABAN: D
Habibie married the daughter of R. Mohamad Besari.

46. Why did Habibie return to Indonesia in 1962?

JAWABAN: A
Because he got ill.

35
 www.syaiflash.com

Questions 47-50 refer to the following talk.

(narrator) Listen to a talk by a lecturer about the solar system.
(woman) This poster I have is a poster of the Solar System. Of course you knew that.
Well, the Solar System is the Sun and the objects that orbit the Sun. These are
aplanetary system of eight planets and various secondary bodies, dwarf planets
and small Solar System objects that orbit the Sun directly, as well as satellite
(moons) that orbit many planets and smaller objects. The Solar System formed 4.6
billion years ag. The vast majority of the system’s mass is in the Sun, with most of
the remaining mass contained in Jupiter. The four smaller inner planets, Mercury,
Venus, Earth and Mars, also called the terrestrial planets, are primarily composed of
rock and metal. The four outer planets, called the gas giants, are substantially more
massive than the terrestrials. The two largest, Jupiter and Saturn, are composed
NBJOMZ
PG
IZESPHFO
BOE
IFMJVN
UIF
UXP
PVUFSNPTU
QMBOFUT
Uranus and Neptune,
are composed largely of substances with relatively high melting points, called ices,
such as water, ammonia and methane, and are often referred to separately as “ice
giants”. All planets have almost circular orbits that lie within a nearly flat disc called
the ecliptic plane.
Okay, are there any questions?
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solar_System)

47. What subject might this lecture be?

JAWABAN: B
Astronomy

48. What is the Solar System?

JAWABAN: D
It’s the Sun and the objects that orbit the Sun.

49. The Solar System was formed...

JAWABAN: D
4.6 billion years ago.

50. What is meant by terrestrial planets?

JAWABAN: C
They are the four small planets closest to the sun.

STRUCTURE
1. Pembahasan:
Bagian yang hilang dalam kalimat ini adalah subjek kalimat. Walaupun terdapat frasa kata
benda di antara dua koma (...,the inventor of light bulb,...), frasa kata benda ini bukan merupakan

36