Composing Skills merupakan salah satu bagian penting tes AcEPT karena kemampuan
mengerjakan bagian ini akan memberikan gambaran kepada peserta tes tentang potensi
kemampuan menulis dalam bahasa Inggris, dan secara pragmatis, kemampuan mengerjakan
bagian ini akan memberikan kontribusi signifikan dalam scoring. Agar peserta tes dapat
mengantisipasi soal Composing Skills, berikut digambarkan tentang apa yang diujikan dalam
Composing Skill dan bagaimana mempersiapkan diri menghadapi tes ini.
Composing Skills mengujikan kemampuan menyusun kalimat dalam bahasa Inggris. Yang harus
diperhatikan peserta tes dalam uji kemampuan ini adalah:
(1) bagaimana kalimat itu tersusun, dan (2) bagaimana kalimat-kalimat itu disusun menjadi
sebuah paragraf. Secara kongkrit, Composing Skills mengujikan hal-hal yang berhubungan
dengan:
[B] membetulkan atau mengedit bagian yang secara gramatik dianggap error (editing),
[C] menentukan konstruksi kalimat yang berterima (correct sentences), [D] menyusun kalimat
secara logis (logical order), dan
[E] menyusun paragraf dengan cara mengurutkan kalimat-kalimat yang disediakan secara acak
(jumbled sentences).
Agar Anda tahu apa yang harus Anda lakuka untuk soal jenis ini, pelajari instruksi soal untuk
bagian A ini sebagaimana tertulis berikut ini:
Numbers 1 – 10 contain complete and correct sentences. For each number, you are required to
choose the most appropriate paraphrased sentence closest in meaning to the original one.
Soal nomor 1 – 10 berisi kalimat yang telah lengkap dan benar. Untuk masing-masing nomor
Anda diminta memilih parafrasa kalimat A, B, C, dan D yang paling dekat artinya dengan
kalimat asal.
Contoh soal:
1. Fredy has decided to quit her job. I have to turn in his room key.
(A) Fredy, who turned in his room key, has decided to quit his job.
(B) Fredy, whose room key I have to turn in, has decided to quit her job.
(C) Fredy, who had turned in his room key, decided to quit his job.
(D) Fredy, whose room key I have to turn it, he has decided to quit his job.
2. The snapping turtle is actually quite docile. It is believed by many to be an aggressive animal.
(A) The snapping turtle, is believed by many to be an aggressive animal, is actually quite docile.
(B) The snapping turtle, which is believed by many to be an aggressive animal, which is actually
quite docile.
(C) The snapping turtle, believed by many to be an aggressive animal, is actually quite docile.
(D) The snapping turtle, which is believed by many to be an aggressive animal, actually quite
docile.
Yang harus Anda lakukan untuk mengerjakan soal jenis ini adalah dengan mengubah kalimat
sedemikian rupa (dalam pikiran Anda) sehingga kalimat itu dapat berubah menjadi kalimat lain
yang susunan katanya berbeda tetapi memiliki makna yang sama. Itu tugas berat yang harus
dilakukan peserta tes; namun tugas berat ini telah diperingan dengan adanya pilihan-pilihan
jawaban yang sudah disediakan, sehingga Anda cukup melihat mana kalimat yang ditawarkan
dalam opsi jawaban itu yang memiliki makna sama dengan kalimat soal, dengan struktur
gramatika yang berterima dalam bahasa Inggris.
Parafrase adalah istilah linguistik yang berarti pengungkapan kembali suatu konsep dengan cara
lain dalam bahasa yang sama, namun tanpa mengubah maknanya. Parafrase memberikan
kemungkinan kepada sang penulis untuk memberi penekanan yang agak berlainan dengan penulis
asli. Istilah parafrase berasal dari bahasa Inggris paraphrase, dari bahasa Latin paraphrasis, dari
bahasa Yunani para phraseïn yang berarti “cara ekspresi tambahan”. Parafrasis adalah tindakan
atau kegiatan untuk membuat parafrase, yaitu:
For example, look at this original sentence and two paraphrased equivalents:
Original Text
Paraphrasing Text
If the original sentence has two or more clauses, change the order of the clauses.
Original Text
“If they have some help, most people can paraphrase effectively. However, practice is
Paraphrasing Text
“Most people can paraphrase effectively, if they have some help. Paraphrasing is difficult,
however, so practice is important.”
a. Change some of the words in the original sentence into different parts of speech (you will
often need to change the word order and some other words, too).
Original Text
“The most effective way to build your English skill is to study regularly.”
Paraphrasing Text
“The most effective way of building your English skill is to do studying on a regular basis.”
b. If the original sentence is in the active voice, change it to passive or vice versa.
Original Text
“To improve English, you should learn new vocabulary on a daily basis.”
Paraphrasing Text
Paraphrasing Examples 1
Original sentence:
The most effective way to build your English skill is to study regularly.”
After paraphrasing:
“The most effective way of building your English skill is to do studying on a regular basis.”
If the original sentence is in the active voice, change it to passive or vice versa.
Original sentence:
“To improve English, you should learn new vocabulary on a daily basis.”
After paraphrasing:
Directions: Rewrite each of the sentences, using the words in parentheses. Look first for the part
of the original sentence that will need to be replaced. Find the subject of any verbs—who is doing
what? Make any other changes you think are needed.
1. People trying to interpret a situation often look at those around them to see how to react.
(base reactions on)
2. There are three things bystanders must do if they are to intervene in an emergency.
(necessary)
3. In a crowd, then, each person is less likely to notice a potential emergency than when alone.
(tends to….less)
4. Even if a person defines an event as an emergency…(decides)
5. … the presence of other bystanders may still make each person less likely to intervene.
(may feel less inclined)
Sample Rewrites:
1. People trying to interpret a situation often base their reactions on those around them.
2. Three things are necessary for bystanders to intervene in an emergency.
3. In a crowd, then, each person tends to notice a potential emergency less than when alone.
4. Even if a person decides that an event is an emergency…
5. …each person may feel less inclined to intervene in the presence of other bystanders.
Paraphrasing Exercise
Original text:
“Romeo and Juliet is not only the tale of two young, doomed lovers; it is the story of how youth
can be destroyed when the banality of adulthood is imminent” (Smith 76).
1. Romeo and Juliet is not only a story of a young pair of tragic lovers; it is a tale of the
destruction of youth in the face of the monotony of adulthood (Smith 76).
1. It is the uninspired lifestyle of being an adult, and the destruction of one’s childhood
innocence that results from its onset, that truly characterizes Romeo and Juliet, not simply
the story of tragic unrequited love (Smith 76).
Original text
• “Students need to be more cognizant of the fact that universities are looking for both high grades
and extracurricular activities when accepting new students” (Jones, 2005, p. 255).
Which one is the correct paraphrase:
1. Young people must recognize that colleges are seeking good grades and outsides activities
when admitting students (Jones, 2005).
Choose the appropriate button to identify the statement that best paraphrases the topic
sentence.
1. There are those who claim the American dollar bill’s symbol of a pyramid topped with an
eye bears a secret meaning. However, the pyramid was never meant to be mysterious. On
the contrary, the pyramid on the dollar bill was a carefully chosen symbol designed to
characterize the United States as a place of progress and faith. The Roman numerals on the
pyramid base refer to 1776, the year the country was founded. The pyramid is also
unfinished, representing our country’s future growth. The eye in a triangle radiating light
represents the overseeing eye of a deity. The motto above the pyramid, “Annuit Coeptis,”
means “He has favored our undertakings.” Below the pyramid, the motto “Novus Ordo
Seculorum” means “a new order of the ages.”
1. All of the images printed on the $1 bill symbolize America’s principles and goals.
2. The pyramid and eye on the back of the $1 bill was carefully created to represent American
values.
3. The dollar’s symbolism is typical of American currency.
4. American currency should be redesigned to better reflect our country’s separation of
church and state.
1. In her famous 1969 book, On Death and Dying, author Elisabeth Kübler-Ross identified
five stages of death (denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance). Ever since the
publication of that best seller, Kübler-Ross’s five stages have generally been accepted as
accurate, even scientific. Recently, however, Kübler-Ross’s well-known sequence has
come under fire, in part because more attention is being paid to the eccentric views on
death she publicly expressed starting in the 1970s. For instance, Kübler-Ross began
claiming that death did not exist at all. Inspired by what she claimed was an “out of body”
experience, she started talking about death as the fountain of youth. From her new
perspective, death was not an end but the beginning of spiritual renewal, a time when
people would “become complete again.” Her description of death as a “sixth stage,” where
people refreshed themselves before returning to the living was criticized as irrational
nonsense. Kübler-Ross’s critics worried that she might be encouraging those of her fans
who had psychological problems to embrace death as a way out of their pain. With more
attention being paid to Kübler-Ross’s unusual views, it’s not surprising that her notions
about death are being taken less seriously
Which of the following best paraphrases the topic sentence?
1. One of the best-known first pets was Fala, Franklin D. Roosevelt’s black Scottish terrier.
The dog went everywhere with Roosevelt, once making the news when he was accidentally
left behind on a trip to the Aleutian Islands. Roosevelt’s Republican opponents accused
him of spending $8 million to send a destroyer back to fetch the dog. The president’s
humorous defense of his dog only increased his popularity and probably helped Roosevelt
win his historic fourth term. But Fala is not the only famous first pet; a number of other
presidential pets have earned the public’s notice. President Richard Nixon’s dog Checkers,
for instance, has been credited with saving his political career. In a speech on national
television, Nixon defended accusations of financial irregularities by acknowledging the
receipt of just one personal gift, a dog named Checkers. Nixon also claimed he would never
give Checkers up.Gerald Ford’s dog Liberty was so popular, the cast of the TV comedy
show Saturday Night Live often included Liberty in their skits about the president. Millie,
the springer spaniel of George and Barbara Bush, appeared as the author of a New York
Times bestseller. First Lady Hillary Clinton increased the fame of the Clinton’s first pets
with her book “Dear Socks, Dear Buddy: Kids’ Letters to the First Pets.”
1. Franklin D. Roosevelt’s dog Fala was America’s most famous First Pet.
2. Fala was the best-known of all the presidential pets.
3. Presidential pets are often in the news.
4. Several First Pets have achieved fame while residing in the White House.
1. Several grueling races around the globe test the limits of human endurance. For instance,
the Marathon des Sables is an ultramarathon held every April in Morocco. It covers 150
miles in 6 days through blazing heat and some of the most difficult conditions imaginable.
One participant said, “The most difficult part was waking up at 5 a.m. with your legs so
sore you can hardly stand up, feet blistered, bloodied, and bandaged, and then having to
run a marathon in 120-plus degree heat with a 20-pound pack.” In the Sahara Marathon,
participants run 26 miles on sand roads through the harsh and unforgiving Sahara Desert.
The Jungle Marathon is a 7-day, 124-mile race through the Amazon jungle of Brazil. For
runners who prefer cooler climates, the Pike’s Peak Marathon is known as one of the
toughest in the world, for participants must run 26.3 miles up a mountain in Colorado,
ascending 7,815 feet. The Everest Marathon is a 26.2-mile race over the rough mountain
terrain of Mount Everest, the highest mountain in the world. Runners can also participate
in the North Pole Marathon, a 26.2-mile run over Arctic ice floes in sub-zero temperatures
1. Marathon runners are the most physically fit people in the world.
2. Some marathon runners prefer races in hot climates, while others prefer racing in cold
climates.
3. The Marathon des Sables is the world’s most difficult race.
4. Many marathon races held all over the world force participants to push themselves
practically to the end of human endurance.
Original passage:
Nobody called him Abe–at least not to his face–because he loathed the nickname. It did not befit
a respected professional who’d struggled hard to overcome the limitations of his frontier
background. Frankly Lincoln enjoyed his status as a lawyer and politician, and he liked money,
too, and used it to measure his worth. By the 1850’s, thanks to a combination of talent and sheer
hard work, Lincoln was a man of substantial wealth. He had an annual income of around $5,000–
the equivalent of many times that today–and large financial and real-estate investments.
1. No one used Lincoln’s nickname, Abe, because he detested it. It didn’t go with a lawyer
and politician who had worked to get away from the restrictions of his country heritage.
Lincoln liked his new position, and his wealth, and used it to gauge his status. By mid-
century, his skill and labor had made him a fairly wealthy man. He had a yearly income of
approximately $5,000 – equal to several times that now – and hefty business and land
commitments.
1. By the middle of the century, Lincoln enjoyed life as a well-respected lawyer and
politician, having acquired a position of status and wealth that was well removed from his
early “frontier background”. He now was bringing in $5,000 a year (this translates to
$87,500 in 1997 dollars [Derks, 2]), and had substantial “financial and real estate
investments”. As a consequence, he disliked being called Abe because of its association
with his rural heritage. (Oates, 65)
Soal pertama yang akan Anda hadapi dalam tes AcEPT UGM adalah Listening Comprehension.
Tes ini menguji kemampuan Anda mendengarkan teks bahasa Inggris bernuansa akademik. Tes
dibagi ke dalam dua kelompok soal, yakni Short Statements (berisi 10 butir soal) dan Short Talks
(10 butir soal).
Semua soal Listening akan diperdengarkan oleh narrator dalam bentuk rekaman suara yang
dipancarkan melalui pengeras suara yang ada di dalam ruangan tes. Semua narrator adalah penutur
asli bahasa Inggris, yang membacakan teks soal dengan kecepatan antara 140 – 160 wpm (kata per
menit). Kecepatan ini sedikit di bawah kecepatan TOEFL yang dibacakan dalam kecepatan 180 –
220 wpm. Jeda waktu antara soal satu ke soal berikutnya adalah 15 detik dalam test AcEPT, atau
sedikit lebih lama dibanding TOEFL yang berjarak waktu 12 detik setiap soalnya. Jika Anda ingin
sukses dalam bagian ini, Anda harus membiasakan diri dengan tes ini sebelum tes yang asli Anda
ikuti. Pelajarilah dengan baik “apa yang diujikan” dalam tes ini dan “bagaimana mempersiapkan
diri” menghadapi tes. Anda pun akan lebih siap menghadapi tes jika mengetahui rahasia tes
Listening.
Untuk menghindari terjadinya mispersepsi, kita harus memahami proses menyimak secara
komprehensif. Secara umum, urut-urutan proses menyimak adalah: (1) Anda menangkap sinyal
akustik berupa bunyi ujaran dalam bahasa inggris; (2) Sinyal-sinyal dikirim lobus temporal ke otak
tengah menjadi data siap proses; (3) Data segera diproses dalam otak; sementara proses olah data
di otak dipengaruhi oleh kemampuan mempersepsi bunyi ujaran. Dan proses persepsi bunyi ujaran
itu sendiri dipengaruhi oleh memori jangka pendek kita, juga penguasaan kosa kata kita. Itulah
rahasia tes ini sekaligus jawaban mengapa banyak yang gagal dalam tes Listening Comprehension.
1. Sebelum anda mendengarkan pernyataan dari tape recorder/suara narator, sebaiknya anda
melihat terlebih dahulu jawaban/pilihan A,B,C,D pada lembar soal.
2. Bacalah sepintas lalu (scanning) setiap kalimat pada pilihan A,B,C,D.
3. Perhatikan secara seksama, ada beberapa kata dari setiap pilihan A,B,C,D yang tulisannya
sama/diulang lebih dari satu kali.
4. Kata – kata yang diulang itu merupakan TOPIK PEMBICARAAN.
5. Arahkan/fokus pikiran anda pada topik itu.
6. Dengarkan pernyataan pada tape recorder/narator.
7. Ada kata/kelompok kata yg merupakan KATA KUNCI dari pernyataan narator.
8. Buatlah KESIMPULAN dari kata kunci itu/CARI KATA LAIN/PENRNYATAAN LAIN yg mempunyai
makna yang mirip/sama dengan kata kunci itu.
9. 9. Kesimpulan/kata lain/pernyataan lain/sinonim dari kata kunci itu merupakan jawaban yg
benar.
Perhatikan contoh berikut: Anda akan mendengarkan pernyataan dari narrator/tape recorder sbb:
1. The assignment is due the day after tomorrow. No extension will be given for this.
Dari contoh di atas, dapat kita simpulkan bahwa topik dari pernyataan narrator adalah tentang
ASSIGNMENT. Perhatikan kata assignment pada pilihan B dan C diulang dua kali.
KATA KUNCI pada pernyataan narrator adalah assignment (tugas), due (jatuh tempo) the day
after tomorrow, No extension (tdk ada perpanjangan waktu).
Maka pilihan yang paling tepat adalah (D) It’s better for you to complete the task right away.
Alasannya, kata “assignment” (tugas) pada pernyataan narrator mempunyai makna yg sama
dengan “task” (tugas) pada pilihan (D). Selain itu, kelompok kata “due the day after tomorrow”
dan “No extension” dapat kita simpulkan dgn pernyataan lain yakni “It’s better for you to
complete the task right away” (sebaiknya dikerjakan sekarang).
Tips ini berlaku untuk Tes AcEPT Part 1 Listening Comprehension (NOMOR 1 – 10). Mudah –
mudahan tips saya ini dapat bermanfaat bagi teman – teman semua. Tips yang lain akan saya
bahas dilain kesempatan.
Section A
Directions : In this section, you will hear 10 short statements. The statements will be spoken just
once. They will not be written out for you, and you must listen carefully in order to understand
what the speaker says.
When you hear a statement, you will have a period of 15 to 20 seconds to read the four sentences
in your test book and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer by drawing
with a pencil a short bar across the corresponding letter in the brackets.
Sentence [B] “He used to live in Beijing” is closest in meaning to the statement “He is no longer
living in Beijing.” Therefore you should choose answer [B].
LANGKAH – LANGKAHNYA:
Pada contoh di atas kita mendengarkan sebuah pernyataan pendek yakni “He is no longer living
in Beijing (Dia tidak lagi tinggal di Beijing). Pada pilihannya terdapat hanya satu pernyataan
yang memiliki makna yang sama dengan pernyataan pada soal yakni [B] He used to live in
Beijing (yang artinya, dulu dia tinggal di Beijing dan sekarang tidak).
Kunci untuk memilih jawaban yang tepat pada Listening bagian pertama adalah memilih
sinonim/memilih pernyataan yang memiliki makna yang sama/mirip dengan pernyataan
pada soal.
1.
2.
3.
4.
6.
7.
8.
9.
[B] We are going to have a party when the house has been painted.
10.
Section B
In this part you will hear five short talks. After each talk, two questions will be asked based on the
information given. Answer the questions following the talk, by choosing A, B, C, or D which best
answers the questions. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
Soal no 11 – 20 menguji kemampuan Anda mendengarkan teks pendek yang dibacakan narrator.
Setelah teks diperdengarkan, Anda akan mendengarkan pula dua pertanyaan mengenai isi teks.
Pilihlah A, B, C, atau D yang secara tepat menjawab pertanyaan yang diajukan. Anda tidak
diperkenankan membuat catatan apapun pada buku soal.
Langkah – langkah:
1. Baca pernyataan pada pilihan A, B, C dan D secara cepat kemudian buatlah pertanyaan
sendiri.
2. Dengarkan percakapan pendek pada tape recorder namun lebih fokus pada pernyataan yang
sesuai dengan pertanyaan yang anda buat.
Catatan: Pada bagian ini biasanya pertanyaannya mengacu pada WH QUESTION (what, where,
when, who, how long, how many, how often).
Example
(woman) : Salt, which today seems so plentiful to us, in the past used to be a valuable commodity.
In the
ancient past in China, salt was used to make coins and in parts of Africa it was traded in place
of money. In the Roman Empire, soldiers were not paid in money but were instead paid in salt.
In fact, the English word “salary, “ which means the amount of money that one earns, comes
Questions:
(B) Salt.
(D) Money.
(A) Coins.
(B) Earnings
(C) Soldiers.
(D) Commodities.
(A) Salt.
(B) Rome.
(C) Money.
(D) Trade.
Analysis:
The first question asks about the topic of the talk. The speaker begins with salt and
continues to talk about it throughout the passage, so the best answer is answer (B).
The second question asks about the use of salt in China. The speaker says that in China,
salt was used to make coins, so the best answer is answer (C).
The third question asks the meaning of salary. The speaker says that salary means the
amount of money that one earns, so the best answer is answer (B).
The last question asks about the meaning of the root sal. The speaker says that “salary”..
comes from the Latin root for “salt,” so the best answer is answer (A).
Contoh Soal Tes Acept UGM: Vocabulary Test
Posted on Juli 6, 2014 by Mr Frans Cleophas
Bagian kedua tes AcEPT, yakni Vocabulary menguji pengetahuan Anda tentang kosakata bahasa
Inggris yang lazim digunakan dalam dunia akademik. Bagian tes yang diberi label nama
Vocabulary ini dibagi ke dalam dua bagian, yakni Bagian A dan Bagian B. Bagian A menguji
kemampuan Anda menggunakan kosakata dalam konteks bacaan, berupa Cloze Test; sementara
Bagian B menguji kemampuan Anda tentang pasangan kata dalam konteks kalimat (ko-lokasi).
Pada tes bagian A Anda akan diberi paparan teks bacaan yang di dalamnya terdapat bagian yang
dihilangkan, dan tugas Anda adalah memilih opsi yang paling tepat (A, B,C, atau D) untuk bisa
mengisi bagian kosong dalam bacaan tersebut. Sementara pada bagian B Anda akan diuji
memilih kata yang secara tepat mengisi pasangan kata lainnya yang telah diberi garis bawah.
Perhatikan contoh berikut:
Contoh soal VOCABULARY (Bag A)
For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each
blank space in the text.
This research aims at (1) ——- the correlation between the time spent between children and
parents and the choice of the language made by the children in their daily interaction with the
neighboring children in a multicultural community. The major source of (2) ———– is the
longitudinal report of the language use between the family in their daily interaction from 2005 –
2010. Etc
1. A. knowing
B. comprehending
C. admitting
D. investigating
2. A. knowledge
B. supply
C. data
D. entry
mengarahkan pembaca pada pilihan kata-kata tertentu lainnya yang lazim digunakan dalam
laporan penelitian. Dengan melihat bagian lanjutan dari kalimat tersebut, yakni :
seorang peserta tes akan dapat memilih kata yang secara tepat konteks mengisi kekosongan yang
ada pada bagian kalimat tersebut. Tentu, bagi yang terbiasa menulis atau membaca laporan
penelitian atau jurnal ilmiah internasional, kata-kata yang dapat masuk dalam slot kalimat di atas
sudah dapat diprediksi. Bagi peserta tes yang tidak memiliki pengalaman sama sekali dalam hal
membaca jurnal-jurnal berbahasa Inggris, disarankan untuk mempelajari karakter penulisan
jurnal ilmiah berbahasa Inggris. Ini adalah sisi positif dari tes ini; kita dapat belajar untuk
persiapan tes AcEPT sekaligus belajar mengenal atau bahkan menulis teks-teks ilmiah berbahasa
Inggris.
Untuk contoh soal nomor 1, pilihan yang secara tepat mengisi bagian kosong pada soal nomor 1
adalah D. investigating. Alasannya pilihan kata ini secara kontekstual paling tepat mengisi
bagian yang kosong tersebut. Agar kita mampu secara tepat memilih opsi, kita harus mengenal
betul kata-kata yang lazim digunakan dalam konteks bernuansa akademik. Peserta tes dapat pula
mencermati hubungan antar kata dalam kalimat yang didalamnya terkandung kata yang
dipersoalkan, seraya memastikan maksud penulis teks tersebut.
Dari konteks yang ada, jika kita menghubungkan bagian-bagian yang bergaris bawah, yakni
source dan the longitudinal report, kita dapat meyakini bahwa kata yang tepat mengisi bagian
kosong tersebut adalah kata data. Kata-kata (pilihan) yang lain seperti (A) knowledge, (B)
supply, dan (D) entry tidak memenuhi keserasian konteks.
CARA YANG LAZIM DIGUNAKAN UNTUK MENGERJAKAN SOAL BAGIAN B
Apabila dicermati, soal Vocabulary bagian B tampak jelas menguji kemampuan peserta tes
menghubungkan satu kata yang tersedia dalam pilihan A, B, C, atau D dengan kata yang bergaris
bawah. Inilah yang disebut COLLOCATION atau kolokasi. Kolokasi adalah sepasang kata atau
kelompok kata yang saling sesuai satu sama lain karena kecocokan kata dengan pasangan kata
tersebut. Beberapa kolokasi merupakan pasangan kata yang ‘fixed’ tak bisa diganggu gugat;
beberapa lainnya terbuka dengan pasangan lain yang jumlahnya terbatas.
Satu-satunya kata kerja yang dapat mendampingi kata ‘photo’ adalah kata ‘take’. Kita bisa
mengatakan bahwa kata ‘photo’ berkolokasi dengan kata ‘take’. Tidak ada kata lain yang bisa
masuk mengganti sebuah kata dalam ‘hubungan intim’ kedua kata tersebut (lihat McCharty and
O’Dell, 2000).
Kata-kata yang berkolokasi tidak dapat dipaksa untuk bisa dipasangkan dengan kata-kata lain
yang tidak berkolokasi. Perhatikan bahwa kata ‘fast’ dalam frasa “fast food” tidak bisa diganti
dengan kata ‘quick’ untuk membentuk frasa “quick food”. Frasa ‘quick food’ tidak bisa diterima
dalam kontruksi frasa bahasa Inggris karena kedua kata yang membangun frasa tersebut tidak
berkolokasi. Sebaliknya, kata ‘quick’ dalam frasa ‘quick glance’ tidak bisa diganti dengan kata
‘fast’ untuk membentuk frasa ‘fast glance’. Frasa ‘fast glance tidak dapat diterima dalam
konsttruksi frasa bahasa Inggris karena kedua kata yang membangun frasa tersebut
tidak berkolokasi.
Soal nomor 37 – 40 berisi kalimat-kalimat yang tidak disusun dengan urutan yang logis. Anda
diminta untuk memilih opsi yang menujukkan urutan kalimat logis yang membentuk paragraph.
Exercise 1
Look at the following text about growing cotton in India. The paragraphs have not been printed in
the correct order. Arrange the paragraphs in the correct order. Remember that the topic of one
paragraph should follow logically from the topic of the last paragraph and should lead on to the
topic of the next paragraph.
(A) Most of the farmers are extremely poor. Attracted by cheap loans from pesticides traders and
the prospect of a quick buck, they borrowed heavily to raise cotton on small plots of land.
(B) According to the Ministry of Agriculture, the crop losses and destruction in Andhra Pradesh
arose from the repeated application of excessive amounts of chemicals – a practice actively
encouraged by pesticides traders.
(C) The suicide of Samala Mallaiah in Nagara village grabbed media headlines. He owned one
acre of land, leased two more and grew cotton on all three. After making a loss in the first year, he
leased yet more land in an attempt to recover. Confronted with falling prices, mounting debts and
pest attacks, he committed harakiri. ‘Cotton has given us shattered dreams,’ said one old farmer
in Nagara village.
(D) As many as 60,000 small farmers in the region of Andhra Pradesh, southern India, have taken
to farming cotton instead of food crops. Some 20 of them have recently committed suicide by
eating lethal doses of pesticide.
(E) Whitefly, boll weevils and caterpillars multiplied and destroyed their crops, despite the
constant application of pesticides. The average yield of cotton fields in Andhra Pradesh fell by
more than half in just one year. Now the farmers are in no position to repay the loans or feed their
families.
(F) Nearly half the pesticides used in India go into protecting cotton, the most important
commercial crop in the country. However, pests have shown increased immunity to a range of
pesticides. Last year there were heavy crop losses due to leaf-curl, which is caused by the dreaded
whitefly. This nondescript, milky-white fly sucks sap from the cotton leaves, making them curl
and dry up. The fly struck first in Pakistan and north-western India. Then it turned south.
As many as 60,000 small farmers in the region of Andhra Pradesh, southern India, have taken to
farming cotton instead of food crops. Some 20 of them have recently committed suicide by eating
lethal doses of pesticide.
Most of the farmers are extremely poor. Attracted by cheap loans from pesticides traders and the
prospect of a quick buck, they borrowed heavily to raise cotton on small plots of land.
Whitefly, boll weevils and caterpillars multiplied and destroyed their crops, despite the constant
application of pesticides. The average yield of cotton fields in Andhra Pradesh fell by more than
half in just one year. Now the farmers are in no position to repay the loans or feed their families.
The suicide of Samala Mallaiah in Nagara village grabbed media headlines. He owned one acre of
land, leased two more and grew cotton on all three. After making a loss in the first year, he leased
yet more land in an attempt to recover. Confronted with falling prices, mounting debts and pest
attacks, he committed harakiri. ‘Cotton has given us shattered dreams,’ said one old farmer in
Nagara village.
Nearly half the pesticides used in India go into protecting cotton, the most important commercial
crop in the country. However, pests have shown increased immunity to a range of pesticides. Last
year there were heavy crop losses due to leaf-curl, which is caused by the dreaded whitefly. This
nondescript, milky-white fly sucks sap from the cotton leaves, making them curl and dry up. The
fly struck first in Pakistan and north-western India. Then it turned south.
According to the Ministry of Agriculture, the crop losses and destruction in Andhra Padresh arose
from the repeated application of excessive amounts of chemicals – a practice actively encouraged
by pesticides traders.
Catatan:
Untuk memastikan urutan cerita yang tepat, silahkan kunjungi website tersebut untuk mengetahui
teks aslinya.
Tes AcEPT: Part III Grammar and Structure (Cloze Test)
Posted on Agustus 26, 2011 by Mr Frans Cleophas
Untuk soal nomor 16 – 25, pilihlah kata atau frasa pada pilihan A, B, C, dan D yang secara tepat
melengkapi bagian-bagian yang kosong dalam teks bacaan.
A cloze test (also cloze deletion test) is an exercise, test, or assessment consisting of a portion of
text with certain words removed (cloze text), where the participant is asked to replace the missing
words. Cloze tests require the ability to understand context and vocabulary in order to identify the
correct words or type of words that belong in the deleted passages of a text. This exercise is
commonly administered for the assessment of native and second language learning and instruction.
Site activity information. We keep {1}______ of some of the actions {2}______ take on Facebook,
such as {3}______ connections (including joining a group {4}______ adding a friend), creating a
{5}______ album, sending a gift, poking {6}______ user, indicating you “like” a {7}______,
attending an event, or connecting {8}______ an application. In some cases {9}______ are also
taking an action {10}______ you provide information or content {11}______ us. For example, if
you {12}______ a video, in addition to {13}______ the actual content you uploaded, {14}______
might log the fact that {15}______ shared it.
{1} track
{2} you
{3} adding
{4} or
{5} photo
{6} another
{7} post
{8} with
{9} you
{10} when
{11} to
{12} share
{13} storing
{14} we
{15} you
Exercise:
The strict version of the test requires that students provide the correct term for each blank, while a
looser version has also been used that accepts “partially correct” answers, such as those that are
the correct part of speech (verb, noun, pronoun, etc.). These answers indicate that students are
learning the syntactic rules of language, but are as yet unable to translate these into a semantic
comprehension of the text.
To jump to a scene, click __on__ Henry’s shirt pocket. The note pad appears. Then, click on the
options tab. The options page appears. Then, click on the arrows on the right and left side of the
scene pictured near the bottom of the page to flip through the scenes. When you find the scene
you want, click the picture to go there.
Henry’s friend Ginger has a useful item that will help you pinpoint the number of jellybeans in
Mr. Sherman’s jar. It is called the solution tester, and Ginger will let you use it whenever you
would like. You have to find some clues to put into the solution tester before you use it. Ginger
hangs out in Henry’s tree house, where she works on her own guesses for the Jellybean Contest.
You can get to the tree house using Henry’s note pad. Go to the options page and click on the tree
house.
From the marked areas A, B, C and D, identify the one that is wrong, correct it.
1. (A) Their most favorite hotel is the Hotel Regent. (B) It is near the beach and (C) is a very
cozy hotel. It is (D) not too expensive, too.
2. I like (A) these kind (B) of hotels too. I don’t (C) go for the big, noisy and (D) expensive
sort.
3. The Amelia Hotel (A) is good as the Radan Hotel, (B) in fact. Actually, I (C) would rather go
to the Amelia. (D) It’s closer to the town.
4. (A) He prefers the (B) Radan Hotel because (C) he feels the service (D) is more better.
5. The Weather Bureau (A) is announced that the rain (B) will continue for (C) another 36
hours. People (D) are advised to stay indoors.
6. Visibility (A) on the roads (B) are very poor. Thus, drivers are advised (C) to be careful,
especially when (D) driving at night.
7. She was (A) kind enough (B) to give me (C) a lot of advices (D) about how to pass the
driving test.
8. (A) I told him, “(B) I have not (C) been told (D) these news”
9. (A) The man was hung as punishment (B) for murdering (C) his five children (D) and his
wife.
10. (A) I made him (B) to confess that (C) he copied your answer (D) during the test.
Answers 1. A 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B
Error identification – Extra practice exercises. Decide which part of the sentence is
grammatically incorrect. Then look at the answers below.
1. I enjoyed study geography at school and now I’ve enrolled at the Economics Faculty.
2. I used to be keen of all scientific subjects but now I would prefer to study art.
3. I want meet your sister when she comes to see you – she sounds very nice.
4. My friends tell the English exam is quite difficult but I’m not worried.
5. The tickets, which are extremely good value, can be buy from large supermarkets.
6. The number of people which asked for the discount was low but grew during the summer
period.
7. He wanted always to be a doctor and after doing medicine he now works in a hospital.
8. The informations they gave us was not very helpful so I consulted the website instead.
9. There isn’t many time, do you think we should get a taxi to the exhibition centre?
10. He graduated in languages in June and is now thinking of do a second degree in
psychology.
11. The policeman showed us an identikit picture of the man who steal the car.
12. How long does it take to get the station on foot from your house
13. I was so angry that I took the watch broken to the jewellers to get my money back.
14. He rang me this morning for tell me that he had passed his driving test.
15. I won’t be able to go on holiday this year unless I will get a part-time job.
16. It was so nice day that they decided to have a picnic in the field.
17. I haven’t never seen anybody who rides a horse so well before.
18. My boyfriend always takes me to see horror films, but I don’t like very much.
19. We went to Guatemala last year so we were tired of the usual beach holiday.
20. I’ve gone to Marbella. I remember it well. A busy town with a nice modern promenade
and picturesque ‘piazze’.
Berikut adalah contoh soal AcEPT, Part III Grammar and Structure (Sentence Completion).
Bentuk soal seperti ini artinya peserta disuruh/diminta untuk melengkapi kalimat selanjutnya yang
sesuai atau cocok dengan konteks kalimat yang berada pada soal. Atau denga kata lain, peserta
diminta untuk melengkapi kalimat pada soal tes dengan pilihan kata atau frasa (A,B,C,D) yang
nyambung dengan kalimat asli pada soal. Bentuk soal seperti ini pada umumnya sulit karena
peserta harus mempunyai perbendaharaan kata/vocabulary yang cukup banyak. Namun peserta
bisa menebak kata atau frasa (yang paling relevan maknanya) yang berada pada pilihan A, B, C,
D.
Misalnya:
A person who feels persecuted in his/her home country may apply for political_________ .
A. appellation
B. appraisal
C. asylum
D. ascendance
Artinya: Seseorang yang merasa dianiaya dinegara asalnya dapat meminta/mengajukan …….
politik
A. panggilan
B. penilaian
C. suaka
D. kenaikan
Jawaban yang tepat adalah “C” yakni “asylum” atau “suaka“. Kata asylum memiliki makna yag
sangat relevan dengan kalimat pada soal yaitu political asylum (suaka politik).
Mudah – mudahan penjelasan ini dapat bermanfaat bagi pembaca. Saya akan memberikan tips
mengerjakan soal AcEPT pada lain kesempatan.