OG Minggu ke 9 dan Minggu ke 14 Sem,Ganjil 2020 - 2021

BAB XII
TIPE BALING-BALING DAN BALING-BALING GANDA

A. TIPE BALING-BALING

(Yang digunakan umumnya pada kapal-kapal kecil)

Shaft/poros

Gambar 12.1.
Gambar 12.2

Sumber : sunting google

 Gambar 12.3

Gambar 12.4

2. Azimuth Thrusters.

Azimuth thruster digunakan untuk mempermudah kapal dalam meneuver, namun alat penggerak
dengan posisi berada di bagian atas sehingga memberi tempat yang lebih lapang untuk
menempatkan penggerak utamanya, baik berupa motor diesel atau motor listrik.
 Gambar 12.5.

AZIMUTH THRUSTERS.

3. Electric Pods.

Penggunaan propeller motor listrik mulai dari 5 Mw sampai dengan 25 Mwatts,

menggantikan penggunaan propeller dengan poros (shaft) dan rudder konvensional.

Teknologi Pod memungkinkan untuk menempatkan propeller pada daerah aliran air yang
optimal (hydro-dynamically optimised). Pod propeller diadopsi dari Azimuth Propeller
dengan menempatkan elektro motor di dalam pod di luar badan kapal.

Gambar 12.6.

Gambar 12.7.
Gambar 82a

Gambar 12.8.

Gambar 12.9
B. BALING-BALING GANDA :

Baling-baling yang ‘berputar kanan’ dalam hal ini, artinya satu baling-baling sebelah kanan dan satu
lagi baling-baling sebelah kiri. Baling-baling ganda banyak memberi keuntungan pada waktu kapal
berputar di ruangan yang sempit.

Gambar 12.10

Buritan kapal dengan twin screws dan kemudi.

Keuntungannya :
1) Laju/speed dan daya olah gerak adalah lebih besar.
2) Kepastian bekerja lebih besar.
3) Bagian mesin, poros baling-baling dan sebagainya adalah lebih /ringan (kemungkinan rusak
adalah kecil sekali).
4) Dapat digunakan oleh kapal dengan draft/sarat kecil atau terbatas. Disini poros-poros dapat
dipasang rendah, sehingga pada sarat kecil baling-baling tersebut masih cukup membenam di
bawah air.
5) Dengan hanya satu mesin, kapal dapat dikemudikan dengan ¾ x laju semula.
6) Apabila daun kemudi hilang, kapal dapat dikemudikan dengan bantuan mesin-mesinnya.

Kerugiannya :
1) Lebih mahal biayanya (pembangunan dan perawatannya).
2) Kehilangan ruang muatan (adanya dua buah terowongan poros baling-baling/shaft tunnel).
3) Lebih banyak personil dan pemeliharaannya.
4) Lebih banyak kemungkinan baling-baling rusak atau tali tros masuk ke dalam / membelit baling-
baling pada waktu olah gerak di dalam bandar.

 A. Memutar kapal berbaling-baling ganda yang sedang melaju :

a) Apabila ada ruangan cukup, kapal dapat diputar dengan bantuan kemudi, seperti halnya pada
kapal berbaling-baling tunggal.
b) Kapal dapat diputar dengan cepat(dalam ruangan sempit), dengan menjalankan satu
mesin(baling-baling) “mundur”. Kapal ini akan berputar ke sisi mesin yang bekerja mundur.
Putaran kapal dapat lebih diperkuat dengan jalan manaruh kemudi pada sisi yang
bersangkutan(sisi baling-baling yang mundur).

 B. Memutar kapal berbaling-baling ganda yang sedang duduk diam.

Berputar ke kiri :
1. Mesin kanan “maju penuh” dan mesin kiri “mundur pelan”.
2. Setelah kapal mempunyai laju, maka mesin kanan “maju pelan” dan mesin kiri “mundur
penuh”.
Dengan cara demikian kapal diberi laju ke muka dan ke belakang, tergantung dari luasnya
ruangan, serta kemudi pun dapat digunakan pula.
  BALING-BALING GANDA BERPUTAR KELUAR DAN KE DALAM, WAKTU MEMBELOK.
Membuktikan bahwa : kapal berbaling-baling ganda putar keluar LEBIH MUDAH MEMBELOK
daripada kapal berbaling-baling ganda putar ke dalam.

1. Baling-baling ganda berputar keluar :

- Lebih mudah membelok dengan mesin kiri
maju pelan dan mesin kanan mundur
setengah.
- Besarnya tekanan normal di B lebih besar
dari di A karena B jauh dari permukaan air.
- Karena adanya pengaruh langsung,
maka buritan kapal akan ke kiri dan
haluan ke kanan.
- Kopel yang ada bekerja sama dengan
pengaruh langsung baling-baling, akibatnya
kapal berputar cepat.
Gambar 12.11a.

NA
NB’
maju mundur
NA’
NB

1. Baling-baling ganda berputar ke dalam :

- Sulit berputar dengan mesin kiri maju pelan, mesin kanan
mundur setengah.
- Adanya pengaruh langsung baling-baling buritan kapal NA
terdesak ke kanan.
- Kopel yang ada berlawanan dengan pengaruh langsung N
baling-balingnya.
NB’
- Akibatnya sulit berbelok dengan mesin, bahkan tidak maju mundur

memungkinkan berputar. NB
Gambar 12.11b.

SOAL-JAWAB O.G. Minggu ke 9, SEM.GANJIL 2020-2021:

ASSESSMENT/TEST: Rigging and Slinging
1. At which of the following situations is the winch capacity at its highest?
a. When the winch drum is full b. When the winch drum is at first layer
c. When the winch drum is half full d. When the winch drum is 36% full.

2. What is the maximum stroke you should use on a hydraulic jack?

a. 70% of usable stroke b. 80% of usable stroke
c. 90% of usable stroke d. 100% of usable stroke.
3. What is the maximum angle you can apply on a side loading on a beam trolley?
a. 20o b. 45o c. 60o
d. You must never apply side loadings on a beam trolley.

4. Which of the below statements are true?

a. An easy and good way of shortening a chain is to tie a knot on it
b. You must never weld on grade 80 chains
c. You must never more than 60o angle between the slings in a multi leg configuration.

5. What must you check before you are applying an angular load to a beam clamp?
a. That the lifting beam is designed for side load
b. That the beam clamp is designed for angular lifts and that correct de-rating is used
c. That the weight of the load is not more than 2 tons
d. That local lifting height doesn’t exceed more than 75% of the distance between deck and beam
clamp.

6. The following items must be checked before you use a chain hoist. Decide which statement is
wrong.
a.The SWL of the hoist and the weight of the load
b. The type of slings to be used c. That there are no knots on any of the chains
d. That there are safety catches fitted on the hooks.

7. In which position should the ram be when you are refilling oil on the jack?
a. At full stroke b. At 80% of full stroke c. Half retracted d. Fully retracted

8. Which of the following requirements for the beam must be fullfiled in order to use a beam
trolley on it?
a. It can be fitted with end stoppers
b. It must have a SWL of two times the weight of the load
c. It must be levelled, so that the trolley will not run away by gravity
d. It must be higher than 2 metres above the deck.

9. What is the maximum side angle allowable for standard two pair set of horizontal plate clamps?
a. 10o b. 20o c. 30o d. 45o.

10. How often shall a personnel basket undergo a thorough examination?

a. Every month b. At least once every year
c. Minimum every three months d. Minimum every 6 months.

11. What is the maximum face-to-face angle allowable for a pair of standard horizontal plate
clamps?
a. 45o b. 60o c. 90o d. 120o.

12. What is the purpose of the stabiliser on a personnel basket?

a. It serves as a secondary safety sling in case the main sling falls
b. To keep the basket balanced (horizontal) during the transfer.
c. To prevent the basket from capsizing if it falls into the water
d. To prevent the basket collapsing when it surges up and down on the boat deck.

13. At which of the following situations will the pulling speed of the wire be at its highest?
a. When the winch drum is full b. When the winch drum is at first layer
c. When the winch drum is half full d. When the winch drum is 36% full.

14. Why should you use a saddle on the hydraulic jack?

a. It increases the lifting capacity b. It prevents the jack from retracting unintentionally.
c. It distributes the load evenly on the ram d. It increases the maximum lifting height.

15. What kind of special requirements exists for the tag line on a personnel basket?
a. It must be minimum two metres long b. It must be snag free and have no knots on it.
c. It must be of a bright visible colour d. It must not be more than three metres long.

16. If all of the slings are of equal strength, which of the following configuration is the strongest?

A 30o 45o
B C
D

a. A b. B c. C d. D

17. Which of the following pictures shows the correct way of winding a new wire onto a winch?

a. A

A B b. B

c. C

d. D
C D

18. Please decide which is the correct SWL at the correct sling configuration. All individual slings
have the same SWL.

a. 4.0 ton 5.2 ton 3.4 ton 1.6 ton

b. 1.6 ton 5.2 ton 3.4 ton 4.0 ton
c. 1.6 ton 4.0 ton 3.4 ton 5.2 ton
d. 3.4 ton 5.2 ton 4.0 ton 1.6 ton.

2.0 tons
 30o a 45o
c d
b

19. How do you take a running fix ?

1. By measure the angle between to fixed landmark and find the sine of the angle.
2. By taking bearing from a landmark at time in intervals and finding the sine of the angle.
3. By taking bearing from a landmark at time intervals and measuring distance covered in the intervals.
4. By taking the relative bearing from 2 sets of landmarks and plotting and the difference.

20. Who has the right of way in a Traffic Separation Scheme ?

1. The inbound vessel. 2. The outbound vessel.
3. The vessel coming from the starboard side. 4. The vessel coming from the port side.

21. A semi-balanced rudder has some of the rudder area after of the rudder axis. About how much
area shoud this to be call it a semi balanced rudder?
A. It should be about 20 %
% area ? B. It should be about 50 %
C. It should be about 80 %
D. It should be about 55 %

22. You are in a 360o turn with engine full ahead. If you reduce speed while in the turn, how will
the turning diameter change ?
A. The turning diameter will become smaller.
B. The turning diameter will increase.
C. The turning diameter will not change.
D. The change will depend on rudder angle.

23. You are meeting another ship in the confined water. What can happen as the ships approach
each other ?
A. There will be no effect.
B. Initially the bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other.
C. Initially the bows of the ships will be pulled together.
D. Both vessels will be affected by squat.

24. You made a turning circle at full speed in deep water. If you repeat this in shallow water,
what will the turning diameter be ?
A. The turning diameter will be increased in shallow water.
B. The turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water.
C. The turning diameter will be the same.
D. It will be the same provided the underkeel clearance is between 25% and 50%.

25. How shoud you minimize the squat effect ?

 A. Decrease the speed. B. Do a zig-zag manoeuvre and reduce the speed.
C. Increase the speed. D. Transfer ballast to change the ship’s trim.

26. In relation to the squat effect, which of the following statement is incorrect ?
A. Squat results in a decrease in underkeel clearance.
B. Squat can be a serious problem for deep draft ships.
C. Squat results in an increase in ship’s draft.
D. Squat results in a decrease in ship’s draft.

27. You are transiting a narrow channel. What can happen in this situation?
A. The stern could be pushed away from the bank.
B. The bow could be pulled toward the bank.
C. The stern could be pulled toward the river bank.
D. The bow could be pushed away from the bank.

28. A vessel proceeding along the bank of channel or canal has the tendency to:
A. Sheer away from the bank. B. Continue in line with the bank.
C. Hug the bank D. Increase speed.

29. A vessel’s position is best plotted by bearings from…….

A. fixed known object on the shore. B. the radar of the nearest land.
C. the radio direction finder. D. buoys close at hand.

30. How can the effect of squat be minimized, when a ship is proceeding in shallow water ?
A. Maintain a slow speed just sufficient to maintain steerage.
B. Maintain a speed of about six (6) knots and use minimal rudder when manoeuvring.
C. Decrease the speed and keep the ship to the centre of the channel where the water is
probably deepest.
D. Enter the shallow water with a stern trim and proceed at a moderate speed.

31. The ship is starting to slow down after steaming at full ahead speed. What will happen to the
position of the “pivot point” ?
A. It will be move aft as the ship slows down.
B. Same position as when the ship is steaming at full speed ahead.
C. The “pivot point” will move towards the bow of the ship.
D. It will move to the side of the centre line.

32. When a single screw ship with a right handed propeller is stopped in the water and the
engine put half ahead, transverse thrust effect will :
A. Swing the stern to starboard and the bow to port.
B. Swing the stern to port and the bow to starboard.
C. Have no noticeable effect.
D. Swing the bow and stern to starboard

33. You are performing an overtaking manoeuvre in confined waters. What should you watch out
for ?
A. The stern may be pulled towards and the bow may be pushed away from the other ship
as you pass.
B. The change in speed of the other ship.
C. The bow may be pulled towards and the stern may be pushed away from the other ship
as you pass.
 D. The change in your underkeel clearance.

34. You search the man over board (on starboad side) with by method of Williamson Turn, if your first
heading is 040o True , what the final ship’s course/heading (then rudder turn to be midship and engine
to be stop)?
A. 230o B. 220o C. 180o D. 290o.

35. You search the man over board (on starboard side) with by method of Scharnow Turn, if your first
heading is 010o and “over shoot angle” is 25o, what the final ship’s course/heading (then rudder turn
to be midship and engine to be stop)?
A. 215o B. 220o C. 250o D. 270o.

Minggu ke 14 (Lanjutan Bab XI, MUSIBAH MUSIBAH DI KAPAL).

ASSESSMENT:
1. What is the most common cause of engine room fires?
a.Overload on the engine b. Cigarettes coming in contact with flammable waste.
c. Faulty electrial equipment d. Oil leak and hot surfaces.

2. What is the first phase of onboard fire fighting tactics?

a. Extinguish b. Evaluate c. Rescue d. Alert.

3. Which one of the following should installed in areas with a high risk of fire?
a. A fire locker containing protective cloting b. A PA system
c. A fixed extinguishing installation d. A fire pump.

4. In the event of a fire investigation what should the crew do?

a. Aid in the collection of evidence
b. Make sure all equipment that was used is put back in the proper place.
c. Clean away debris from the site.
d. Make sure that any problem that could have caused the fire is already fixed.

5. Which extinguishing agent must you absolutely not use in the event of a fire involving magnesium?
a. Powder b. Halon c. CO2 d. Water.

6. Who will usually carry out statutory surveys and certifications?

a. The ship’s company inspectors b. The ship’s home port authorities
c. The IMO d. The ship’s Classification Society.

7. If someone does not report to the mustering station during a fire what should be done?
a. Conduct a search
b. Advise the fire fighting teams to keep an eye out for this persons but continue extinguishing
operation
c. Use the PA system to ask this person to report to the mustering station immediately.
d. Find someone to take over the duties at that station.

8. When writing a report, which one of the following questions should be asked when interviewing
witnesses?
a. Were routines carried out properly b. Was equipment working properly
c. Was the area maintained d. All of the above.

9. What should fire fighters always be equiped with?

a. Communications equipment. b. Reflective metallic suits c. Axes d. GMDSS

10. It is important that messages to smoke divers are made …..

a. through hand signals in noisy environment b. before they enter the fire zone
c. on VHF channel 16 d. short and precise.

11. In the event of a fire involving dangerous goods onboard, where can you find information on the
chemical reactions taking place?
a. On stikers placed on the cargo’s container b. In the cargo manifest
c. In the hazardous materials catalogue d. On its data card.

12. What is the safest and most effective way to apply water in a fire fighting operation onboard
vessel?
a. Flooding b. Direct spray c. Sprinkle d. Fog.

13. What is the first thing that should be done upon detecting a fire?
a. Send a distress call b. Meet up at your muster station
c. Notify the bridge d. Initiate the fixed fire figthing system.

14. When discovering an injured person what is the first thing you should check for?
a. Hazards b. Person’s pulse
c. Person’s breathing d. Look for broken bones.

15. Which of the following will the local authorities take care of?
a. Requisitioning the necessary resources b. Contacting the company’s main office
c. Informing the media d. All of the above.

16. One litre of water equals approximately how many litres of steam or mist?
a. 1200 b. 1400 c. 1700 d. 1900

17. Who bears the overall responsibility for a fire fighting operation onboard a vessel until help
arrives?
a. The chief engineer b. The first officer c. The Master d. The local Harbour Master.

18. Which one of the following should not be done when cooling down a fire?
a. Cooling down bulkheads b. Open the ventilation
c. Removing gas bottles from the area d. Shutting down electrical power.
19. Dry distilation can cause which of the following?
a. Structural failure b. Flash bones
c. Breathing equipment d. Fire gases.

20. Why is it important to report fires?

a. It is required by the IMO b. In order to prevent future fires.
c. It is needed for insurance claims d. Local fire authorities involved in the operation require it.

21. What kind of fires should be reported?

a. Any fires involving damage to equipment b. Any fires involving death or injury
c. Large fires requiring aid from local authorities d. All types of fire.

PLUS: FIRE FIGHTING

1. A solid stream of water is used to put out a fire rated as Class:

a. A b. B c. C d. D.

2. The type of extinguisher which should be used for an electric fire is:
a. Carbon dioxide or foam b. Foam or soda acid
c. Dry chemical or foam d. Carbon dioxide or dry chemical.

3. Spare fire fighting equipment that is not required but is on board:

a. Shall be removed from the vessel
b. Need not be maitained according to Coast Guard specifications
c. Need not be inspected for re-certification of the vessel
d. Must comply with all Coast Guard specifications.

4. The major use of water in fighting fires is to:

a. Suffocate the fire b. Absorb the oxygen supporting the fire
c. Act as a cooling agent d.Wash the fire away.

5. Of all the extinguishing agents listed below, which one has the greatest capacity for heat
absorption?
a. Water fog b. Carbon dioxide c. Dry chemical d. Solid stream of water.

6. All shipboard fire fighting equipment must be thoroughly checked out and inspected every:
a. Three months b. Six months c. Year d. Two years.

7. The discharge piping of a fire pump must be fitted with:

a. A pressure gauge only b. A pressure gauge and safety valve.
c. A relief valve only d. A pressure gauge and relief valve.

8.What factor contributes most to the prevention of fire aboard your vessel?
a. Location and amount of fire fighting equipment
b. Cleanliness and ventilation of all compartments
c. Training and ability of crew in firefighting
d. Type and quality of ship construction.

9. The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to:

a. Allow for cutting out branch circuits b. Prevent overloading the circuits
c. Reduce voltage to the branch circuits
d. Permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits.

10. Battery rooms are ventilated to rid them of:

a. Water vapor b. Carbon dioxide c. Flammable gas d. Sulfur dioxide.

11. CO2 cylinders must be pressure tested:

I. Every 12 years II. Every 10 years III. Upon transfer to another vessel.
a. I and II only b. II and III only c. I and III only d. I, II and III.

12. In a fixed CO2 system, that amount of CO2 to be carried is:

a. Enough for all spaces b. Enough for the largest space protected.
c. Enough for 50% of the space protected. D. Enough for the engine spaces.

13. CO2 cylinders should NEVER be:

a. Painted a different color b. Left standing upright without support
c. Stored for use in a horizontal d. All of the above.

14. The best extinguishing agent for class “C” fires is:
a. CO2 b. Water-solid stream c. Foam d. Water fog.

15. Which is the “off” position on the all purpose nozzle? A B C

a. A b. B c. C d. None of the above.

16. Foam extinguishing agents should be:

a. Applied at the base of the flames
b. Directed into the burning liquid c. Banked off a vertical surface d. Used sparingly.

17. A solid stream of water should not be used on an oil fire because:
a. It is difficult to direct b. It requires too much pressure
c. In can damage surrounding equipment d. It will stir up and spread the fire.

18. Foam extinguishes oil fires by:

a. Smothering b. Retarding vapor formation c. Cooling d. All of the above.

19. Low velocity water fog may be used in conjuction with foam to fight an oil fire in order to:
I. Beat down the heat of the fire and permit closer approach with foam equipment
II. Lower the temperature of the burning liquid and hasten the formation of a protective foam
blanket.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II.

20. The most likely location for a cargo fire on board a tanker is:
a. At the location of blank flanges b. In the pumproom
c. At the manifold d. At the open end of the cargo line in the tank.

21. While low velocity fog has the higher degree of diffusion, high velocity fog:
a. Has higher force and range b. Is easier to control
c.Requires less pressure d. Requires less water.

22. To extinguish a magnesium fire (i.e. a flare), you should:

a. Place a metal container over it b. Use foam only
c. Get it over the side by any mean d. Use sand or any other dry extinguishing agent.

23. The first step in operating a portable foam fire extinguisher is to:
a. Pull the lock pin b.Turn it bottom up
c. Pierce the safety disc d. Open the valve.

24. A fire in the linen locker on a tank vessel would be considered a:

a. Class A fire b. Class B fire c. Class C fire d. Class D fire.

25. In some situations it is better not to extinguish a LNG fire if:

a. It is in a remote area b. It is not endangering personnel
c. It is from a small leak d. The escaping gas cannot be shut off.

26. You are proceeding down river and a bad bilge fire has broken out in the engine room. Which of
the following shouls you do?
I. Stop your vessel and secure all ventilation to the engine room
II. Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 fixed system.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II.

27. The accumulated nitrogen should be purged from an oxygen-breathing apparatus at least every:
a. 10 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 25 minutes.

28. What is the MOST effective means for fighting an oil fire on the water surrounding a vessel?
a. High velocity fog over the fire b. Solid stream of water at the edge of the fire.
c. Dry chemical over the fire d. Foam directed against the side of the vessel.

29. Which of the following is a true statement concerning gas masks used aboard ship?
a. Bottled gas is used as a breathing mixture in some types of gas masks.
b. Protection against smoke and limited quantities of poisonous gases is provided by gas masks.
c. Gas masks provide enough oxygen to prevent suffocation in any atmosphere.
d. Chemical reaction in the canister of a gas masks produces oxygen for breathing.
30. The MOST important requisite of fire fighting is:
a. The method used to extinguish the fire b. Determining how extensive the fire is.
c. Rapidly determining a course of action and applying it. d. A well trained fire fighter.

31. To determine if a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully charged, you would:

a. Operate the trigger valve b. Weigh the extinguisher
c. Test with a pressure gauge d. Read the date of last test.

32. If a fire develops in the generator end of a running auxiliary generator, you should:
I. Let the generator run and extinguish with dry chemical
II. Secure the generator and extinguish fire with CO2.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II.

33. Which of the following items must be used in cojunction with the portable, in line, foam
proportioner in order to produce foam?
a. Plain or common nozzle b. All purpose nozzle
c. Mechanical foam nozzle d. Low velocity applicator.

34. What is the minimum oxygen content of the atmosphere in a compartmet in which a canister-
type gas mask ay be safety used?
a. 16% b. 14% c. 11% d. 0%.

35. If Coast Guard Regulations require a vessel to have fourteen B-II CO2 fire extinguishers, how
many spare extinguisher must be carried?
a. One b. Two c. Four d. Seven.

36. Which of the following statements regarding low expansion foam and its application is incorrect?
a. Foam should not be used on electrical fires.
b. One gallon of low expansion foam solution produces 8 to 10 gallons of foam.
c. Foam is only efficient when it covers the top of burning combustibles.
d. A stream of foam should be deflected off the deck in order to best agitate the fire.

37. If, aboard ship, you assume that it is impossible to remove the fuel fro the heat of a fire and to
remove the oxygen in order to put the fire out, then the task of the fire fighter will be to:
I. Reduce the temperature of the fire by cooling
II. Isolate the fire from its supply of oxygen by smothering the fire
III. Interrupt the chain reaction.
a. I and II only b. II and III only c. I and III only d. I, II and III.

38. Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding a dry chemical extinguisher?
I. It is effective on Class C fires and leaves no residue that may render electrical contacts or relays
inoperative
II. It offers residual protection against a burn-back or flash back a fire.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II.
39. How many spare charges shall be carried on board your cargo vessel for each gas mask is used to
protect against a cargo space refrigerant?
a. 3 c. 2 c. 1 d. No spare charges.

40. Which of the following is(are) an advantage of dry chemical extignuisher over a carbon dioxide
extinguisher? The dry chemical extinguisher.
I. Has a greater range II. Provides a heat shield for the operator.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II.

41. Which of the following statement is(are) correct regarding the use of a canister gas mask?
I. It is to be used when there is a deficiency of oxygen in the compartment atmosphere
II. The life of a new canister is 2 hours
III. A canister that has had the seal removed should not be kept in service for more than one year,
regardless of the amount of time that it has been used.
a. I and II only b. II and III only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III.

42. Which of the following is(are) required on your cargo vessel when it has a refrigerated cargo
space?
I. A gas mask using a suitable canister to protect against the refrigerant.
II. A self-contained breathing apparatus.
a. I only b. II only c. Either I or II d. Neither I nor II.

43. The combustible gas indicator operates on the principle that the gas burned by a hot platinum
wire filament:
a. Increases the heat of the filament thus increasing its electrical resistance which is measured.
b. Decreases the heat of the filament thus increasing its electrical resistance which is measured.
c. Increases the heat of the filament thus decreasing its electrical resistance which is measured.
d. Decreases the heat of the filament thus decreasing its electrical resistance which is measured.

44. The combustible gas indicator operates on a power supply of:

a. AC current b. Dry cell batteries
c. Air pressure created by squeezing the bulb d. Conduction.

45. Which of the following statements regarding the oxygen bottle self-contained breathing
apparatus is(are) correct?
I. Before attaching a new bottle, you shoud check for moisture in the bottle by holding the bottle by
holding the bottle in a vertical position and opening and closing the main valve quickly.
II. The safety whistle should sound when pressure in the apparatus exceed 7 psi above atmospheric
pressure.
III. Whenever the by-pass valve is being used the main valve should be open.
a. I and II only b. II and III only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III.

46. Every cargo vessel required to carry a fireman’s outfit shall have at least how many complete
outfits?
a. 1 b. 2 c.3 d. 4.

47. How does the canister OBA produce oxygen for the wearer of the apparatus?
I. Cleaning the inhaled air drawn thru the bottom of the canister
II. By a chemical reaction of the moisture in your breath liberating oxygen from the potassium
superoxide in the canister.
a. I only b. II only c. Either I or II d. Neither I nor II.

48. The fireman’s outfit, when required on cargo vessels, must contain a:
a. Canister type gas mask b. Fresh air breathing apparatus
c. Self-contained breathing apparatus d. Combustible gas indicator.

49. Which of the following emergency equipment is required on board tank vessels of over 1000
gross tons for use I cargo spaces?
a. Fresh air breathing apparatus b. Self-contained breathing apparatus
c. Oxygen breathing apparatus d. Canister type gas mask.

50. To prevent a fire from spreading by “convection” you should:

I. Cool down bulkheads in the vicinity of the fire
II. Secure all ventilations
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II.

51. Which of the following statements is(are) correct regarding a tank vessel’s fireman outfit?
I. At least one approved fresh air breathing apparatus is required
II. The flame afety lamp is not permitted
III. A self-contained breathing apparatus may not be provided in addition to the fireman’s outfit.
a. I and II only b. II and III only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III.

52. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the reinspection for certfication?
a. The inspector shall not be limited to making such tests or inspection to assure the seaworthiness
of the vessel.
b. No reinspection is required at the end of one year for a vessel holding a certificate of inspection
that is valid for 2 years.
c. The reinspection must be made between the eleventh and thirteenth month when possible.
d. A written application for reinspection will be required.

53. Internal combustion engine driven emergency generators on cargo vessels shall be tested under
load, at least once in each month that the vessel is navigated, for a minimum of how many hours?
a. 8 b. 6 c. 4 d. 2.

54. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding a fire and boat drill on board your cargo
vessel?
a. At least one fire and boat drill shall be held within 24 hours of leaving a port where more than 25
percent of the crew has been replaced.
b. The Master is responsible in seeing that each lifeboat is lowered to the water at least once in each
6 months.
c. Lifeboat equipment shall be examined at least once each month to insure that it is complete.
d. An entry shall be made in the vessel’s Official Logbook relative to each fire and boat drill.

55. A tak vessel containing carbon tetrachloride is dangerous because the cargo reacts when
explosed to fire by:
a. Exploding b. Burning so hot that it will melt most metal
c. Forming poisonous phosgene gas when in contact with hot metal.
d. Forming an acid which would cause extensive damage to the environment if it leaked into the
water.

56. You are the operator of a vessel and you are purchasing an additional portable dry chemical
extinguisher to be installed on board. Which of the following is(are) correct? The extinguisher must
be:
I. Fitted with a pressure gauge or other indicating device
II. Labeled with a marine type label.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II.

MEDICAL TREATMENTS.

ASSESSMENT:

1. Any major bleeding must be stopped before treating a wound. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

2. It is the increased pressure in the head that is fatal, not the bleeding itself. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

3. When performing C-P-R it is advisable to elevate the patient’s legs to secure sufficient blood to the
chest and head. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know.

4. A fractured spine will always imply unconsciousness. This statement is …..

a. True b. False c. I don’t know

5. Some of the symptoms of concussion are: headache, amnesia, brief unconsciousness, sickness and
vomiting. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

6. If there are signs of tendon damage, the tendon must be sutured by a surgeon before closing the
wound. If so, put on a dressing until qualified treatment can be done. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know
7. The mail goal by splinting is to render a pulling strain on the fractured bone ends to prevent them
from touching each other. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know.

8. None of the tissue cells will die, only be damaged when the casualty has a crush injury. This
statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

9. When measuring the blood pressure, what should you concentrate on?
a. The distal blood pressure b. Rate of pulse
c. The development of the blood pressure d. I don’t know

10. All fires will burn easier and faster in oxygen rich environment. Therefore, do not use oxygen
bottles near open fire. Smoking is not allowed. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

11. Breathing is controlled by the respiratory centre in the brain. This statement is ….
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

12. A person suffering from a moderate to hard blow to the head should always be under close
observation in the early hours after the accident, considering possible development of edeme in the
head. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

13. A fractured spine will always imply unconsciousness. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

14. . An internal abdominal bleeding is not dangerous as it will stop bleeding by itself due to the
increased pressure in the abdomen. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know.
15. Is a person is bitten by snake, you should ask the person to hold the bitten body part in as hot
water as possible (without getting scalded), since the snake poison contains a lot of albumin and then
will coagulate. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

16. If you are unable to give a patient with an increased circulation failure due to bleeding, intravenous
treatment, he should promptly be given plenty to drink to replace lost fluid. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

17. When performing C-P-R it is advisable to elevate the patient’s legs to secure sufficient blood to the
chest and head. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know.

18. When we deal with a food poisoning your aims are to encourage the casualty to rest, to seek
medical advice or aid and to give the casualty plenty of bland fluids to drink. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

19. A chemical burn from fluid must be bandaged firmly to prevent fluid from covering greater parts
of the skin. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

20. Cardiac arrest will always lead to unconsciousness. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know.

21. Oxygen is transported to the body blood vessels called veins. This statement is ….
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

22. Moderate and deep hypothermia causes very unstable condition, and the patient must be
inactivated and treated very carefully. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

23. The motor function and circulation distal to the fracture should always be controlled. This
statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know.

24. The brain of hypothermic patients will consume less oxygen than usual. This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

25. Symptoms of serious head injury are unconsciousness, low pulse rate and high blood pressure.
This statement is …..
a. True b. False c. I don’t know

GOOD LUCK !!!

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