Plan and Conduct A Passage and Determine Position
Plan and Conduct A Passage and Determine Position
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4: Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs
and shoals?
a. Approach charts
b. General charts
c. Sailing charts
d. Coastal charts
5: Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in the
North Atlantic Ocean?
a. Pilot chart
b. Coast Pilot
c. Current Table
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d. Climatological Atlas
6: Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the __________.
a. latitude scale near the middle of the track line
b. longitude scale near the middle of the track line
c. latitude scale at the mid-latitude of the chart
d. latitude or longitude scale at the middle of the scale
7: You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06". The charted depth
of an obstruction in the channel near Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet
of keel clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the obstruction is 01h 05m. What
is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet these requirements?
a. 1610
b. 1728
c. 1821
d. 2350
8: In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT approximately
the same as the great circle distance?
a. The two points are in low latitudes in the same hemisphere.
b. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
c. The two points are near the equator, but in different hemispheres.
d. One point is near the equator, one point is in a high latitude, and both are near
the 180th meridian.
9: You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides information
about channel depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine facilities available
in that port?
a. American Practical Navigator
b. Notice to Mariners
c. Coast Pilot
d. Sailing Directions
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10: The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the __________.
a. position and area of the current
b. speed and direction toward which the current flows
c. type and characteristic of the current's flow
d. None of the above
11: You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship
would require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all of the
following EXCEPT the __________.
a. Coast Pilot
b. harbor and coastal charts for ports of refuge enroute
c. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
d. Light List
12: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course
233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to
intercept vessel A?
a. 249°
b. 256°
c. 262°
d. 268°
13: Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to
navigation by means of __________.
a. marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
b. Weekly Notices to Mariners
c. corrected editions of charts
d. Light Lists
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15: You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System in
__________.
a. the Philippines
b. Australia
c. Republic of Korea
d. Chile
17: In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-B
Buoyage System?
a. Poland
b. Morocco
c. Peru
d. Saudi Arabia
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19: The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine
information. Which NAVAREAS include the Indonesian?
a. XI
b. IV and XII
c. V and X
d. VI and VII
20: In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area?
a. Chart No. 1
b. Catalog of Charts
c. Guidance for Practical Navigator
d. Coast Guard Light List
21: What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage entry to
port ?
a. World Port Index
b. Coast Pilot
c. Nautical Index
d. Sailing Directions
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b. port facilities
c. coastal anchorages
d. offshore traffic separation schemes
24: On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white
with a red sector. The red sector __________.
a. indicates the limits of the navigable channel
b. indicates a danger area
c. is used to identify the characteristics of the light
d. serves no significant purpose
26. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were 320, 300, 310 and
330 nautical miles respectively. Find the average daily run speed if each day is 24
hours long
a. 330 naut. miles
b. 300 naut. miles
c. 320 naut. miles
d. 315 naut. Miles
27. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if
the ship is in open waters ?
a. Just before the change of watch
b. Twice a watch
c. At least every 30 minutes
d. Only when the visibility drops
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33. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an Indian
Embassy. Which of these publications would you consult?
a. Port approach chart
b. Admiralty Sailing Directions
c. Admiralty list of Radio Signals
d. Guide to Port Entry
34. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration when
planning a passage in coastal waters?
a. Under keel clearance
b. Clearing bearings and clearing ranges
c. No - Go areas
d. Choice of ocean route
36: Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical
letters. This indicates the __________.
a. rock is visible at low water springs only
b. rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only
c. rock is dry at high water
d. exact position of the rock is doubtful
37. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains constant,the ships
are on:
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a) parallel courses
b) opposite courses
c) diverging courses
d) collision courses
38. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912,
the ratio of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is
39. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on
hydrographic maps ?
a. An artificial barrier which makes the enclosed area safe for anchorage of ships,
is known as break water
b. The length of the quay wall is governed by the length of the largest vessel
likely to be berthed.
c. The break water whose inside is used as a plateform for loading and unloading
is called a mole
41. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the
chart. By 2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility is very good. What action
would you take?
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42. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
a) At a speed and heading that will cause the least encounters with vessels
within the lane
b) On a heading that will cause her to spend the LEAST TIME in the lane
c) On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of
traffic flow
d) On heading so that her TRACK will be as nearly as practicable at right
angles to the direction of traffic flow
43: A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International
Date Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at
Greenwich when the vessel crosses the line?
a. 0900, 24 January
b. 2100, 24 January
c. 2100, 25 January
d. 0900, 26 January
44: The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the
water is called the __________.
a. range of the tide
b. plane of the tide
c. stand of the tide
d. reversing of the tide
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46: Mean high water is the reference plane used for __________.
a. all vertical measurements
b. heights above water of land features such as lights
c. soundings on the East and West Coasts
d. water depths on the East Coast only
48: The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most
charts is __________.
a. mean sea level
b. mean high water
c. mean low water
d. half-tide level
50: The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables
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is __________.
a. mean low water
b. the same as that used for the charts of the locality
c. the highest possible level
d. given in table three of the tide tables
1. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic
compass. How should an error of 5 degrees WEST be applied to the compass
bearings?
a. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings
b. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings
c. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore it can be ignored
d. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is
required.
2. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by
other means, when possible. Which of the following suggested methods would be
the most accurate?
a. The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the radar.
b. Compass bearings of three shore objects
c. Bearing and distance from a navigational Buoy
d. Bearing using the Radio Direction Finding of three radio beacons
3. What is important to check when transferring a position from the GPS output to a
paper chart?
a. Any necessary corrections are applied to convert between the GPS datum
and the chart datum
b. It is important to ensure that the GPS is setup on 2 dimensional and not 3
dimensional position fixes.
c. Ensure that the GPS is setup on the same datum as the chart
d. Ensure that the chart has been corrected up to date.
4. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the
accuracy of the displayed position is reduced?
a. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
b. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed on the screen
c. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm
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d. The GPS display is always very accurate and does not give any indication
of lack of accuracy.
5. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for
an observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude 15°00' West, when
observing the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South?
a. Figure 4 is correct.
b. Figure 1 is correct.
c. Figure 2 is correct.
d. Figure 3 is correct.
6. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the
latitude of the observer when the sun is on the meridian?
a. Calculation 3 is correct.
b. Calculation 1 is correct.
c. Calculation 2 is correct.
d. Calculation 4 is correct.
7. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the
following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT.
Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept
correction: 00°02' Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude).
a. Figure 2 is correct.
b. Figure 1 is correct.
c. Figure 3 is correct.
d. Figure 4 is correct.
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10: When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered?
a. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location.
b. If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the charted location.
c. The buoy may not be in the charted position.
d. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been freshly painted.
11: When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible horizon when
__________.
a. in high latitudes
b. the Sun is near or at a solstice
c. the declination is of a different name from the latitude
d. the Sun's declination is at or near 0°
12: When navigating a vessel, you __________.
a. can always rely on a buoy to be on station
b. can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics
c. should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck
d. should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position
13: Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR position at that time is LAT
22°16'N, LONG 150°06'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for evening sights is
TRUE?
a. Venus will have a westerly meridian angle.
b. Mars will set about one hour after the Sun sets.
c. Mars, Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn will be above the horizon.
d. Sights of Saturn, Jupiter, and Venus will yield a good three-line-of-position fix.
14: When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
a. During calm weather only
b. During daylight only
c. Only when inside a harbor
d. Only when fixed aids are not available
15: While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check. What
would the azimuth have to be?
a. 000°T
b. 090°T
c. 150°T
d. 240°T
16: For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of __________.
a. 3,600 miles
b. 5,400 miles
c. 12,500 miles
d. 21,600 miles
17: The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time would you use to enter the
Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
a. 1842
b. 1652
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c. 0728
d. 0652
18: A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times and
advancing them to a common time is a(n) __________.
a. dead-reckoning position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. running fix
19: The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for __________.
a. Venus
b. Jupiter
c. Saturn
d. Polaris
20: The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What time would you use to enter
the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
a. 0659
b. 0652
c. 1859
d. 1852
21: A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n) __________.
a. assumed position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. running fix
22: The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for __________.
a. the Sun
b. the Moon
c. Mars
d. Mercury
23: All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium frequency standards which
permit __________.
a. every station in one chain to transmit at the same time
b. each station to transmit without reference to another station
c. on-line transmission of single-line transmitters at the same time
d. each station to only depend on the master for synchronization and signal ratio
24: Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day of the
month. Six minutes later your position is 179°59'E longitude. Your LMT and date is now
__________.
a. 00h 02m on the 4th
b. 00h 02m on the 5th
c. 23h 50m on the 5th
d. 00h 02m on the 6th
25: Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
a. Dead reckoning position
b. Leeway position
c. Estimated position
d. Set position
26: The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet is 150°. What is the right
ascension of the planet?
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a. 7 hours
b. 11 hours
c. 19 hours
d. 23 hours
27: The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C stations is very
closely controlled and operates with __________.
a. an atomic time standard
b. Daylight Savings Time
c. Eastern Standard Time
d. Greenwich Mean Time
28: The difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and one on 119°W is
__________.
a. 1.25 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 75 minutes
29: A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's course
and speed is a(n) __________.
a. dead reckoning position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. None of the above
30: A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at nearly
the same time, is a(n) __________.
a. dead-reckoning position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. running fix
31: The date is the same all over the world at __________.
a. 0000 GMT
b. 1200 GMT
c. 0000 LMT for an observer at 90°E longitude
d. no time
32: What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
a. Dead-reckoning position
b. Estimated position
c. Fix
d. Running fix
33: If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum skywave
distance, there is an area in which no signal is received. This is called the __________.
a. skip zone
b. blackout zone
c. diffraction zone
d. shadow zone
34: How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. Three
35: The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the __________.
a. index mirror
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b. horizon glass
c. micrometer drum
d. telescope
36: On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westward. What is
your local time?
a. It is 1000, 5 July.
b. It is 1000, 6 July.
c. It is 2200, 7 July.
d. It is 1000, 7 July.
37: The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.
a. silvered on its half nearer the frame
b. mounted on the index arm
c. between the horizon and the shade glasses
d. All of the above
38: Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR position at that time is
LAT 15°02'N, LONG 46°02'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for morning
sights is TRUE?
a. At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation.
b. Venus, Jupiter, and Mars sights will yield a good three line fix.
c. Saturn will be near the prime vertical.
d. Venus will be visible low in the western sky.
39: When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that your
receiver is locked onto?
a. Horizontal Dilution of Precision
b. Selective Availability
c. Doppler Shifting
d. Precision Coding
40: Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60° on the limb,
the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60° reading is __________.
a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 40°
d. 60°
41: The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is indicated by
the __________.
a. equation of time
b. difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time units
c. longitude in time units
d. zone description
42: Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?
a. Radar station
b. Radar transponder beacon
c. Radio beacon
d. Aero light
43: When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a two-dimensional fix?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
44: A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a __________.
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a. positive correction
b. dip error
c. negative correction
d. semidiameter error
45: The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you are
on the central meridian of your time zone, at what zone time will the apparent Sun cross the
meridian?
a. 1148
b. 1200
c. 1212
d. It cannot be determined from the information given.
46: At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix your position
and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
a. The current is westerly at 0.5 knot.
b. You must increase speed to compensate for the current.
c. The current cannot be determined.
d. The drift is 0.25 knot.
47: A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________.
a. positive correction
b. dip error
c. negative correction
d. semidiameter error
48: The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you are on the
central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at __________.
a. 11-51-20 ZT
b. 12-00-00 ZT
c. 12-04-20 ZT
d. 12-08-40 ZT
49: When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a three-dimensional
fix that takes into account altitude?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
49: Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index error?
a. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
b. Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel
c. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
d. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
50: It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which statement is TRUE?
a. It is afternoon at Greenwich.
b. It is midnight at 126°E longitude.
c. The observer is in time zone -4.
d. All of the above are true.
51: Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
a. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
b. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
c. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
d. Elliptical centering error
52: The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may be
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58: In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the __________.
a. index mirror to make it parallel to the horizon glass with the index set at zero
b. horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at zero
c. horizon glass to make it parallel to the sextant frame
d. telescope to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame
59: Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the
__________.
a. distance to the next port
b. speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
c. time of the next navigational satellite pass
d. None of the above
60: The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the transmitting
stations as __________.
a. gains are made over the signal path
b. a result of variation in propagation conditions
c. the frequency of the pulses increases
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71. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when _______.
a. three bearing position lines are available of different objects
b. only one bearing line is available
c. two bearing lines from two different objects are available
d. a bearing and distance off a navigational mark is available
72. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is _________.
a. 1863.07
b. 634.77
c. 1248.92
d. 614.15
75. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38?12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on the
arc; Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8. What is
the true altitude of the Sun's Lower limb?
a. 38?30.8'
b. 38?17.6'
c. 37?45.8'
d. 38?23.6'
76. What will be the d?long for departure of 66.5? when the ship is on m?lat of 29
degrees N.
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a. 137?
b. 76?
c. 36.8?
d. 77.0?
80. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship?s
position?
a. Doubling angle on the bow.
b. One bearing and distance of one object.
c. Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees.
d. A three point bearing.
1. A ship is navigating in the Caribbean in August when it receives the warning of a
Hurricane. To determine the centre of the storm the Master uses "Buys Ballot's
Law" and faces the wind. On what side of the Master would the low pressure area
be located?
a. On the right side
b. On the left side
c. Straight ahead
d. This is not a suitable method to use with a Hurricane.
2. If the strength of the wind is related to the pressure gradient and the space
between the isobars, which of the following statements is correct?
a. The closer the isobars are together the stronger will be the predicted wind.
b. Strong winds are found in areas where the isobars are not close together
c. The pressure gradient is a measurement of the distance between the high
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5. What is the correct understanding of the term "Lapse Rate" when used in
Meteorology?
a. The change of the temperature in the atmosphere with height above sea
level.
b. The rate of increase of the wind associated with a Tropical Revolving
Storm.
c. The delay in temperature reduction associated with the wet bulb
thermometer of a hygrometer
d. The change in the temperature associated with the passing of the warm
front of a frontal depression.
6. What is the depth of an iceberg below the surface of the sea?
a. The draught of an iceberg varies with the type of berg and its age.
b. The depth of an iceberg below the surface is always about one sixth of its
total depth.
c. The draught of an iceberg is about the same as the visible part of the
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chart
b. By using any of the methods in the suggested answers
c. By comparing the course readout on the GPS with the gyro course steered.
d. By taking the radar bearing of an object when the radar is on a compass
stabilised mode and comparing it with the bearing on the chart of the same
object
2. Is the location of the Compass Binnacle critical?
a. Yes, for the reasons stated in all of the suggested answers
b. Yes, it should be on the fore and aft centreline of the ship
c. Yes, it should be away from all electrical power cables
d. Yes, it should be sited on a non-metallic base if possible.
3. The compass binnacle on the ship has various specific functions, which of the
following answers reflect its most important functions.
a. All of the answers provided
b. Houses the corrective magnets
c. Houses the soft iron correctors
d. Provides a non-magnetic housing for the compass
4. The gyro compass can suffer from a compass error and may need to be allowed
for, when steering a course in a dangerous navigational area. What is the probable
cause of the error?
a. An uncorrected course and speed error.
b. Variation
c. Compass Deviation
d. Fluctuations in the electrical supply to the compass.
5. What are the main components causing the magnetic compass to require a regular
evaluation and compass correction?
a. Permanent and induced magnetism in the ships structure
b. The change in the position of the magnetic pole causing annual changes in
the variation
c. Deviation and Variation
d. The continual changes of courses steered by the ship
6. What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses to reduce any possible
compass error?
a. Latitude and Speed
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ships true vector passes through the middle of the entrance to the channel.
b. Acquire the buoy at the entrance to the channel and on relative vector
display alter course to make the vector of the buoy pass directly through
the centre of the screen.
c. Select True ground stabilised vectors and make the vectors from both
buoys at the entrance to the channel pass either side of the centre of the
screen.
d. Select Relative motion display and make Own Ship vector pass through
the middle of the entrance to the channel.
2. If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an echo of a
target with no trail indicate? Note this the trail of the echo and not a vector.
a. The target is on the same course and speed as own ship.
b. The target is stopped and making no way through the water
c. The target is on a collision course with own ship.
d. The target is on a constant bearing and getting closer to own ship.
3. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The
Arpa radar is set on a range 12 miles on a course of 314 degrees and own ship has
a vector as shown. What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa?
a. True vectors
b. Relative vectors, sea stabilized
c. Relative vectors, ground stabilized
d. Relative vectors.
4. What corrections must be applied to the echo sounder reading to compare the
depth of water with the depth printed on the chart?
a. Draught of the ship
b. Allowance for the ships speed
c. Shallow water effects
d. The distance between the pulse Transmitter and Receiver
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a. Loran C
b. GPS
c. Radio Direction Finder
d. All of the suggested systems
11. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using
the Arpa for anti-collision purposes
a. The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water.
b. True motion does not provide the collision risk of other ships
c. The Relative Motion display and relative vectors is the only display to use
for anti-collision purposes.
d. The true vector can never give an indication of collision risk with another
ship
1. What action should the Officer of the Watch (OOW) take if he is forced to make a
major deviation from the voyage plan?
a. Inform the Master
b. Make an appropriate entry in the Log Book
c. There is no special action necessary
d. Check that the deviation will not lead into danger
2. What are the limits of a passage or voyage plan?
a. From berth to berth
b. From pilot to pilot
c. From Full Away On Passage (FAOP) to End Of Passage (EOP)
d. It is dependant on the voyage and if there are any river or canal transits
3. What is the shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth?
a. Great Circle
b. Composite great circle
c. Rhumb line
d. Small circle
4. What methods could be introduced into a passage plan for continuous monitoring
of the ships position when navigating along a coastline?
a. Parallel Index lines
b. Conspicuous headlands and navigational marks for taking positions
c. The radar ranges of the coastline at all course alteration points
d. All of the suggested answers
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h. Figure 3 is correct.
13. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the
latitude of the observer when the sun is on the meridian?
e. Calculation 3 is correct.
f. Calculation 1 is correct.
g. Calculation 2 is correct.
h. Calculation 4 is correct.
14. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the
following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT.
Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept
correction: 00°02' Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude).
e. Figure 2 is correct.
f. Figure 1 is correct.
g. Figure 3 is correct.
h. Figure 4 is correct.
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