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I. BIDANG KEAHLIAN NAUTIKA (ANT-III) TINGKAT OPERASIONAL

1. Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan posisi.

(Plan and conduct a passage and determine position )
2. Memelihara tugas jaga navigasi secara aman (Maintain a safe navigational
watch )
3. Penggunaan radar dan ARPA untuk menjaga keselamatan navigasi (Use
of radar and ARPA to maintain safety of navigation )
4. Menggunakan ECDIS untuk menjaga keselamatan navigasi (Use of ECDIS
to maintain the safety of navigation)
5. Respon terhadap keadaan darurat. (Respond to emergencies)
6. Merespon tanda marabahaya di laut.( Respond to a distress signal at sea)
7. Menggunakan Kalimat Komunikasi Maritim Standar IMO (IMO Standard
Marine Communication Phrases) dan menggunakan bahasa Inggris dalam
bentuk tulisan dan ucapan (Use the IMO Standard Marine Communication
Phrases and use English in written and oral form)
8. Mengirim dan menerima informasi dengan isyarat visual. (Transmit and
receive information by visual signaling )
9. Mengolah gerak kapal (Manoeuvre the ship )
10. Memantau kegiatan pemuatan, penyusunan, pengikatan dan
pemeliharaan muatan selama pelayaran, dan pembongkaran muatan.
(Monitor the loading, stowage, securing, care during the voyage and the
unloading)
11. Memeriksa dan melaporkan cacat, kerusakan pada ruang muat, tutup
palka dan tangki tolak bara. (Inspect and report defects and damage to
cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks)
12. Menjamin pemenuhan persyaratan pencegahan pencemaran (Ensure
compliance with pollution prevention requirements )
13. Menjaga kelaiklautan kapal (Maintain seaworthiness of the ship)
14. Pencegahan, pengendalian dan pemadaman kebakaran di atas kapal
(Prevent, control and fight fires on board)
15. Mengoperasikan alat-alat keselamatan (Operate life-saving appliances)
16. Memberikan pertolongan pertama medis di kapal (Apply medical first aid
on board ship)
17. Memantau sesuai dengan persyaratan-persyaratan peraturan yang
berlaku (Monitor compliance with legislative requirements)
18. Melaksanakan keterampilan tentang kepemimpinan dan kerjasama
(Application of leadership and teamworking skills)
19. Keterlibatan dengan keselamatan pelayar dan kapal (Contribute to the
safety of personnel and ship)

II. BIDANG KEAHLIAN TEKNIKA (ATT-III) TINGKAT OPERASIONAL

1. Melaksanakan tugas jaga permesinan dengan aman (Maintain a safe
engineering watch)
2. Menggunakan bahasa Inggris dalam bentuk tulisan dan ucapan. (Use
English in written and oral form)
3. Menggunakan sistem komunikasi internal (Use internal communication
systems)
4. Mengoperasikan mesin induk dan mesin bantu dan sistem kontrol yang
terkait (Operate main and auxiliary machinery and associated control
systems)
5. Mengoperasikan pompa bahan bakar, pelumas, tolak bara (ballast) dan
sistem pompa-pompa lainnya dan sistem-sistem kontrol yang terkait.
(Operate fuel, lubrication, ballast and other pumping systems and associated
control systems)

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6. Mengoperasikan sistem listrik, sistem elektronik dan sistem kontrol

(Operate electrical, electronic and control systems)
7. Perawatan dan perbaikan peralatan listrik dan elektronik (Maintenance
and repair of electrical and electronic equipment)
8. Menggunakan secara tepat, peralatan tenaga tangan, peralatan tenaga
mesin alat-alat ukur untuk fabrikasi dan perbaikan di atas kapal.
(Appropriate use of hand tools, machine tools and measuring instruments for
fabrication and repair on board)
9. Perawatan dan perbaikan permesinan dan peralatan kapal (Maintenance
and repair of shipboard machinery and equipment)
10. Menjamin dipenuhinya persyaratan-persyaratan pencegahan
pencemaran. (Ensure compliance with pollution prevention requirements)
11. Menjaga kelaik-lautan kapal (Maintain seaworthiness of the ship)
12. Memantau kepatuhan terhadap persyaratan-persyaratan ketentuan.
(Monitor compliance with legislative requirements)
13. Menerapkan keterampilan kepemimpinan dan kerja sama kelompok
(Application of leadership and teamworking skills)

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1. Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan

posisi. (Plan and conduct a passage and determine position )

1. When must a passage plan be prepared ?

A. At the start of the sea voyage.
B. Before the voyage commences.
C. When requested by a pilot.
D. After the pilot has disembarked.

2. What should a passage plan include ?

A. The plan should include the first 72 hours of the sea voyage.
B. The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to berth.
C. The plan should cover the first half of the sea voyage.
D. The master decides what to include in the passage plan
3: The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn
from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the __________.
a. DR plot
b. track line
c. heading
d. estimated course

4: Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying
reefs and shoals?
a. Approach charts
b. General charts
c. Sailing charts
d. Coastal charts

5: Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in
the North Atlantic Ocean?
a. Pilot chart
b. Coast Pilot
c. Current Table

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d. Climatological Atlas

6: Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the

__________.
a. latitude scale near the middle of the track line
b. longitude scale near the middle of the track line
c. latitude scale at the mid-latitude of the chart
d. latitude or longitude scale at the middle of the scale

7: You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06". The charted
depth of an obstruction in the channel near Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to
have 3 feet of keel clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the obstruction is
01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet these
requirements?
a. 1610
b. 1728
c. 1821
d. 2350

8: In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT
approximately the same as the great circle distance?
a. The two points are in low latitudes in the same hemisphere.
b. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
c. The two points are near the equator, but in different hemispheres.
d. One point is near the equator, one point is in a high latitude, and both are
near the 180th meridian.

9: You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides

information about channel depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine
facilities available in that port?
a. American Practical Navigator
b. Notice to Mariners

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c. Coast Pilot
d. Sailing Directions

10: The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the __________.
a. position and area of the current
b. speed and direction toward which the current flows
c. type and characteristic of the current's flow
d. None of the above

11: You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good
seamanship would require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all
of the following EXCEPT the __________.
a. Coast Pilot
b. harbor and coastal charts for ports of refuge enroute
c. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
d. Light List

12: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course
233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots
to intercept vessel A?
a. 249°
b. 256°
c. 262°
d. 268°

13: Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to
navigation by means of __________.
a. marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
b. Weekly Notices to Mariners
c. corrected editions of charts
d. Light Lists

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14: You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by __________.

a. Local Notice to Mariners
b. Weekly Notice to Mariners
c. marine broadcasts
d. All of the above

15: You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System in
__________.
a. the Philippines
b. Australia
c. Republic of Korea
d. Chile

16: Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?

a. The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS, and
NAVAREA warnings are the same.
b. NAVAREA warnings concern only coastal navigation and inland navigation in
large bays or sounds such as Puget Sound.
c. The United States is responsible for NAVAREA warnings in the North Atlantic
north of 7°N, and west of 15°W.
d. Long range radio navigational warnings are usually broadcast by
radiotelephone, radiotelegraph, and radio-teletypewriter.

17: In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-B
Buoyage System?
a. Poland
b. Morocco
c. Peru
d. Saudi Arabia

18: What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?

a. Supplements to new editions are issued monthly by the U.S. Coast Guard.

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b. New editions are published by the National Ocean Service.

c. New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title page.
d. None of the above

19: The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine
information. Which NAVAREAS include the Indonesian?
a. XI
b. IV and XII
c. V and X
d. VI and VII

20: In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic
area?
a. Chart No. 1
b. Catalog of Charts
c. Guidance for Practical Navigator
d. Coast Guard Light List

21: What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage entry
to port ?
a. World Port Index
b. Coast Pilot
c. Nautical Index
d. Sailing Directions

22: The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is __________.

a. unpredictable
b. generally too weak to be of concern
c. predicted in Tidal Current Tables
d. generally constant

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23: The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________.

a. well-charted inner dangers
b. port facilities
c. coastal anchorages
d. offshore traffic separation schemes

24: On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing

white with a red sector. The red sector __________.
a. indicates the limits of the navigable channel
b. indicates a danger area
c. is used to identify the characteristics of the light
d. serves no significant purpose

25. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?

a. Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization
b. Those set up by local authorities
c. Those defined on navigational charts
d. All of the above

26. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were 320, 300, 310 and
330 nautical miles respectively. Find the average daily run speed if each day is
24 hours long
a. 330 naut. miles
b. 300 naut. miles
c. 320 naut. miles
d. 315 naut. Miles

27. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if
the ship is in open waters ?
a. Just before the change of watch
b. Twice a watch

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c. At least every 30 minutes

d. Only when the visibility drops

28. What chart should be used when navigating ?

a. The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected
b. Any chart which shows the area which the vessel is passing through as
long as it is connected
c. The largest scale chart on board for the concerned area
d. The chart which covers the largest part of the passage

29. Define the required interval between position fixes.

a. Before the vessel is due to alter course
b. When the weather changes
c. Such as the vessel cannot be set into danger if the last two fixes were
incorrect
d. Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or into
danger by the effects of wind, tide or current

30. The latest edition of a chart can be found from _______.

a. the chart catalogue
b. the Annual Notice to Mariners
c. the latest cumulative notices to mariners
d. the Guide to Port Entry

31. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published _____ a year.

a. three times
b. once
c. four times
d. twice

32. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out _______.

a. every day at noon when at sea

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b. on completion of maneuvering in port

c. one to two hours prior sailing
d. whenever an item of navigation equipment is not functioning

33. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an Indian
Embassy. Which of these publications would you consult?
a. Port approach chart
b. Admiralty Sailing Directions
c. Admiralty list of Radio Signals
d. Guide to Port Entry

34. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration when
planning a passage in coastal waters?
a. Under keel clearance
b. Clearing bearings and clearing ranges
c. No - Go areas
d. Choice of ocean route

35. A voyage passage plan is made from _____.

a. pilot station to pilot station
b. fairway buoy to fairway buoy
c. berth to berth
d. berth to drop of pilot of that particular port and from arrival pilot
station to the berth

36: Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using
vertical letters. This indicates the __________.
a. rock is visible at low water springs only
b. rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only
c. rock is dry at high water
d. exact position of the rock is doubtful

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37. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains constant,the ships
are on:
a) parallel courses
b) opposite courses
c) diverging courses
d) collision courses
38. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912,
the ratio of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is

a.   5.5 and 6.0 to 1

b.   6.2 and 6.8 to 1

c.   7.4 and 7.8 to 1

d.   8.2 and 8.5 to 1

39. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on
hydrographic maps ?

a.   light houses

b.   church spires

c.   shore line

d.   all the above

40. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

a.   An artificial barrier which makes the enclosed area safe for anchorage of
ships, is known as break water

b.   The length of the quay wall is governed by the length of the largest vessel
likely to be berthed.

c.   The break water whose inside is used as a plateform for loading and
unloading is called a mole

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d.   All the above

41. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the
chart. By 2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility is very good. What action
would you take?
a. Keep looking out.
b. Call Master.
c. Stop engines.
d. Alter course.

42. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
a) At a speed and heading that will cause the least encounters with
vessels within the lane
b) On a heading that will cause her to spend the LEAST TIME in the lane
c) On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of
traffic flow
d) On heading so that her TRACK will be as nearly as practicable at right
angles to the direction of traffic flow
43: A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International
Date Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at
Greenwich when the vessel crosses the line?
a. 0900, 24 January
b. 2100, 24 January
c. 2100, 25 January
d. 0900, 26 January

44: The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the
water is called the __________.
a. range of the tide
b. plane of the tide
c. stand of the tide

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d. reversing of the tide

45: Spring tides are tides that __________.

a. have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
b. have lows higher than normal and highs lower than normal
c. are unpredictable
d. occur in the spring of the year

46: Mean high water is the reference plane used for __________.
a. all vertical measurements
b. heights above water of land features such as lights
c. soundings on the East and West Coasts
d. water depths on the East Coast only

47: The range of tide is the __________.

a. distance the tide moves out from the shore
b. duration of time between high and low tide
c. difference between the heights of high and low tide
d. maximum depth of the water at high tide

48: The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most
charts is __________.
a. mean sea level
b. mean high water
c. mean low water
d. half-tide level

49: Charted depth is the __________.

a. vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom, plus

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the height of tide

b. vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
c. average height of water over a specified period of time
d. average height of all low waters at a place

50: The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide
tables is __________.
a. mean low water
b. the same as that used for the charts of the locality
c. the highest possible level
d. given in table three of the tide tables
1. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic
compass. How should an error of 5 degrees WEST be applied to the compass
bearings?
a. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings
b. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings
c. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore it can be ignored
d. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is
required.
2. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by
other means, when possible. Which of the following suggested methods would
be the most accurate?
a. The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the radar.
b. Compass bearings of three shore objects
c. Bearing and distance from a navigational Buoy
d. Bearing using the Radio Direction Finding of three radio beacons
3. What is important to check when transferring a position from the GPS output to
a paper chart?
a. Any necessary corrections are applied to convert between the GPS
datum and the chart datum
b. It is important to ensure that the GPS is setup on 2 dimensional and not
3 dimensional position fixes.
c. Ensure that the GPS is setup on the same datum as the chart

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d. Ensure that the chart has been corrected up to date.

4. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the
accuracy of the displayed position is reduced?
a. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
b. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed on the screen
c. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm
d. The GPS display is always very accurate and does not give any
indication of lack of accuracy.
5. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for
an observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude 15°00' West, when
observing the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South?
a. Figure 4 is correct.
b. Figure 1 is correct.
c. Figure 2 is correct.
d. Figure 3 is correct.
6. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the
latitude of the observer when the sun is on the meridian?
a. Calculation 3 is correct.
b. Calculation 1 is correct.
c. Calculation 2 is correct.
d. Calculation 4 is correct.
7. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the
following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT.
Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept
correction: 00°02' Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude).
a. Figure 2 is correct.
b. Figure 1 is correct.
c. Figure 3 is correct.
d. Figure 4 is correct.

8: A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________.

a. buoys close at hand
b. fixed known objects on shore
c. buoys at a distance
d. All of the above

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9: If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because

__________.
a. signals begin to blink
b. signals begin to shift
c. stations discontinue transmission
d. stations transmit grass

10: When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered?
a. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location.
b. If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the charted location.
c. The buoy may not be in the charted position.
d. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been freshly painted.

11: When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible horizon
when __________.
a. in high latitudes
b. the Sun is near or at a solstice
c. the declination is of a different name from the latitude
d. the Sun's declination is at or near 0°
12: When navigating a vessel, you __________.
a. can always rely on a buoy to be on station
b. can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics
c. should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck
d. should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position

13: Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR position at that time is LAT
22°16'N, LONG 150°06'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for evening
sights is TRUE?
a. Venus will have a westerly meridian angle.
b. Mars will set about one hour after the Sun sets.
c. Mars, Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn will be above the horizon.
d. Sights of Saturn, Jupiter, and Venus will yield a good three-line-of-position fix

14: When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
a. During calm weather only
b. During daylight only
c. Only when inside a harbor
d. Only when fixed aids are not available
15: While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check. What
would the azimuth have to be?
a. 000°T
b. 090°T
c. 150°T
d. 240°T
16: For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of __________.
a. 3,600 miles

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b. 5,400 miles
c. 12,500 miles
d. 21,600 miles

17: The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time would you use to enter the
Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
a. 1842
b. 1652
c. 0728
d. 0652
18: A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times and
advancing them to a common time is a(n) __________.
a. dead-reckoning position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. running fix
19: The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for __________.
a. Venus
b. Jupiter
c. Saturn
d. Polaris
20: The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What time would you use to enter
the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
a. 0659
b. 0652
c. 1859
d. 1852
21: A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n)
__________.
a. assumed position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. running fix
22: The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for __________.
a. the Sun
b. the Moon
c. Mars
d. Mercury
23: All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium frequency standards which
permit __________.
a. every station in one chain to transmit at the same time
b. each station to transmit without reference to another station
c. on-line transmission of single-line transmitters at the same time
d. each station to only depend on the master for synchronization and signal ratio

24: Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day of the
month. Six minutes later your position is 179°59'E longitude. Your LMT and date is now
__________.

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a. 00h 02m on the 4th

b. 00h 02m on the 5th
c. 23h 50m on the 5th
d. 00h 02m on the 6th
25: Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
a. Dead reckoning position
b. Leeway position
c. Estimated position
d. Set position
26: The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet is 150°. What is the right
ascension of the planet?
a. 7 hours
b. 11 hours
c. 19 hours
d. 23 hours
27: The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C stations is
very closely controlled and operates with __________.
a. an atomic time standard
b. Daylight Savings Time
c. Eastern Standard Time
d. Greenwich Mean Time
28: The difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and one on 119°W is
__________.
a. 1.25 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 75 minutes
29: A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's course
and speed is a(n) __________.
a. dead reckoning position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. None of the above
30: A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at
nearly the same time, is a(n) __________.
a. dead-reckoning position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. running fix
31: The date is the same all over the world at __________.
a. 0000 GMT
b. 1200 GMT
c. 0000 LMT for an observer at 90°E longitude
d. no time
32: What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
a. Dead-reckoning position
b. Estimated position
c. Fix
d. Running fix
33: If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum skywave
distance, there is an area in which no signal is received. This is called the __________.

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a. skip zone
b. blackout zone
c. diffraction zone
d. shadow zone
34: How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. Three
35: The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the __________.
a. index mirror
b. horizon glass
c. micrometer drum
d. telescope
36: On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westward.
What is your local time?
a. It is 1000, 5 July.
b. It is 1000, 6 July.
c. It is 2200, 7 July.
d. It is 1000, 7 July.
37: The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.
a. silvered on its half nearer the frame
b. mounted on the index arm
c. between the horizon and the shade glasses
d. All of the above

38: Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR position at that time
is LAT 15°02'N, LONG 46°02'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for morning
sights is TRUE?
a. At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation.
b. Venus, Jupiter, and Mars sights will yield a good three line fix.
c. Saturn will be near the prime vertical.
d. Venus will be visible low in the western sky.
39: When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that your
receiver is locked onto?
a. Horizontal Dilution of Precision
b. Selective Availability
c. Doppler Shifting
d. Precision Coding
40: Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60° on the
limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60° reading is __________.
a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 40°
d. 60°
41: The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is indicated
by the __________.
a. equation of time
b. difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time units
c. longitude in time units
d. zone description

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42: Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?

a. Radar station
b. Radar transponder beacon
c. Radio beacon
d. Aero light
43: When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a two-dimensional
fix?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
44: A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a __________.
a. positive correction
b. dip error
c. negative correction
d. semidiameter error
45: The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you are
on the central meridian of your time zone, at what zone time will the apparent Sun cross the
meridian?
a. 1148
b. 1200
c. 1212
d. It cannot be determined from the information given.
46: At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix your
position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
a. The current is westerly at 0.5 knot.
b. You must increase speed to compensate for the current.
c. The current cannot be determined.
d. The drift is 0.25 knot.
47: A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________.
a. positive correction
b. dip error
c. negative correction
d. semidiameter error
48: The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you are on
the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at
__________.
a. 11-51-20 ZT
b. 12-00-00 ZT
c. 12-04-20 ZT
d. 12-08-40 ZT
49: When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a three-dimensional
fix that takes into account altitude?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
49: Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index error?
a. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
b. Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel
c. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame

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d. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame

50: It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which statement is TRUE?
a. It is afternoon at Greenwich.
b. It is midnight at 126°E longitude.
c. The observer is in time zone -4.
d. All of the above are true.

51: Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
a. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
b. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
c. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
d. Elliptical centering error
52: The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may be
corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is __________.
a. index error
b. prismatic error
c. perpendicularity of the horizon glass
d. perpendicularity of the index mirror
53: When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from
__________.
a. center bearings
b. tangent bearings
c. ranges
d. objects that are close aboard
54: A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and advanced to
a common time is a(n) __________.
a. running fix
b. dead-reckoning position
c. fix
d. estimated position
55: The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent wind to be 30 knots
from 10° on your port bow. To what course and speed must you change?
a. Cn 240°, 28.0 knots
b. Cn 270°, 28.0 knots
c. Cn 180°, 30.0 knots
d. Cn 090°, 32.5 knots
56: What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?
a. Prismatic error
b. Index error
c. Side error
d. Error of collimation
57: The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the longitude of
the observer is the __________.
a. right ascension
b. meridian angle
c. SHA of the observer
d. zenith distance

58: In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the __________.
a. index mirror to make it parallel to the horizon glass with the index set at zero
b. horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at zero

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c. horizon glass to make it parallel to the sextant frame

d. telescope to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame
59: Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate
the __________.
a. distance to the next port
b. speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
c. time of the next navigational satellite pass
d. None of the above
60: The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the transmitting
stations as __________.
a. gains are made over the signal path
b. a result of variation in propagation conditions
c. the frequency of the pulses increases
d. the stations shift pulses
61: The index error is determined by adjusting the __________.
a. sextant frame
b. horizon glass
c. index mirror
d. micrometer drum
62: What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?
a. 127°33'E
b. 52°27'E
c. 61°52'W
d. 61°52'E
63: A polyconic projection is based on a __________.
a. plane tangent at one point
b. cylinder tangent at one parallel
c. cone tangent at one parallel
d. series of cones tangent at selected parallels
64: A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the horizon
forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated about the line of
sight the images separate. The sextant has __________.
a. error of perpendicularity
b. side error
c. prismatic error
d. centering error

65: A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.

a. should never use radar bearings
b. should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the distance to the horizon
c. can use radar information from one object to fix the position
d. must use information from targets forward of the beam

66: During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________.

a. north and increasing
b. north and decreasing
c. south and increasing
d. south and decreasing
67. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck of the
other during transfer operations, which type of radar would pose a greater danger of
the induced ignition ?

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E. A 3 cm radar.
F. A 10cm radar.
G. Neither a 10 cm or a 3 cm radar.
H. Both a 10 cm and 3 cm radar.

68. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________.

a. the radar of the nearest land
b. the radio direction finder
c. buoys close at hand
d. fixed known objects on the shore

69. In Loran C ___________.

a. the master and secondary stations transmits 8 pulses each
b. the master station transmits one long pulse and the secondary stations
transmit 8 short pulses each
c. the master station transmits 9 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 8
pulses each
d. the master station transmits 8 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 9
pulses each

70. In Mercator sailing ________---.

a. D'long / DMP = Tan course
b. Dep / D'long = Cos Course
c. DMP = D'long x Secant Course
d. DMP = D'lat x Secant Course

71. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when _______.
a. three bearing position lines are available of different objects
b. only one bearing line is available
c. two bearing lines from two different objects are available
d. a bearing and distance off a navigational mark is available

72. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is _________.
a. 1863.07
b. 634.77
c. 1248.92
d. 614.15

73. The Decca green zone has ________.

a. 18 lanes
b. 24 lanes
c. 30 lanes
d. 72 lanes

74. A vertical sextant angle gives _________.

a. the height of a bridge above sea level
b. a position line
c. a position circle
d. the ullage of a tank

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75. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38?12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on
the arc; Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8.
What is the true altitude of the Sun's Lower limb?
a. 38?30.8'
b. 38?17.6'
c. 37?45.8'
d. 38?23.6'

76. What will be the d?long for departure of 66.5? when the ship is on m?lat of 29
degrees N.
a. 137?
b. 76?
c. 36.8?
d. 77.0?

77. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is _______.

a. 137?18'
b. 96?37'
c. 80?47'
d. 90?52'

78. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _____.

a. by port and harbour authorities within their respective limits
b. by the meteorological department of that country
c. by the mercantile marine department of that country
d. by national broadcasting corporations

79. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? will be _____.

a. westerly
b. easterly
c. northerly
d. southerly

80. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship?s
position?
a. Doubling angle on the bow.
b. One bearing and distance of one object.
c. Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees.
d. A three point bearing.
1. A ship is navigating in the Caribbean in August when it receives the warning of
a Hurricane. To determine the centre of the storm the Master uses "Buys
Ballot's Law" and faces the wind. On what side of the Master would the low
pressure area be located?
a. On the right side

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b. On the left side

c. Straight ahead
d. This is not a suitable method to use with a Hurricane.
2. If the strength of the wind is related to the pressure gradient and the space
between the isobars, which of the following statements is correct?
a. The closer the isobars are together the stronger will be the predicted
wind.
b. Strong winds are found in areas where the isobars are not close together
c. The pressure gradient is a measurement of the distance between the high
and the low pressures and is not associated with isobars.
d. The wind force is related to the difference in pressures and blows
directly between the centres of high and the low pressure
3. In the Beaufort Scale of Wind Force, what is the Beaufort number associated
with the wind force known as a "Gale"? This should not be confused with a
"Near Gale" or "Strong Gale"
a. Eight (8)
b. Nine (9)
c. Seven (7)
d. Ten (10)
4. What is the correct understanding of the term "Isobar"?
a. An "Isobar" is a line joining places of equal pressure.
b. An "Isobar" is a line joining places of equal temperature
c. An "Isobar" is the line showing the direction of the predicted path of a
hurricane.
d. An "Isobar" is the line of the cold front in a frontal depression

5. What is the correct understanding of the term "Lapse Rate" when used in
Meteorology?
a. The change of the temperature in the atmosphere with height above sea
level.
b. The rate of increase of the wind associated with a Tropical Revolving
Storm.

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c. The delay in temperature reduction associated with the wet bulb

thermometer of a hygrometer
d. The change in the temperature associated with the passing of the warm
front of a frontal depression.
6. What is the depth of an iceberg below the surface of the sea?
a. The draught of an iceberg varies with the type of berg and its age.
b. The depth of an iceberg below the surface is always about one sixth of
its total depth.
c. The draught of an iceberg is about the same as the visible part of the
iceberg above the water.
d. The draught of an iceberg is normally about 3/4 of its total depth.
7. What is the direction of wind associated with an anticyclone (area of high
pressure) in the Northern Hemisphere?
a. Clockwise around the high pressure
b. Anticlockwise around the high pressure
c. Straight towards the centre of the anticyclone
d. Directly away from the centre of the anticyclone towards the nearest
Low pressure.
8. What is the weather associated with being in the centre of an Anticyclone (a
region of High Pressure)?
a. Light winds and fair weather, sometimes fog.
b. Strong winds but with very little rain
c. Strong winds and heavy rain
d. Persistent rain and very humid weather
9. What is understood by the term "Dew point" of the air?
a. The temperature at which condensation in the air forms into water
droplets.
b. The temperature of the water vapour in a cloud.
c. The "Dew Point" is the point at the centre of an Anticyclone
d. All of the suggested answers
10. When the temperature of the air increases with height it is known as a
"Temperature Inversion" and may influence the performance of some
instruments on the ship. What should the bridge Officer of the Watch be

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prepared to happen?
a. Abnormal ranges of VHF RT and Second Trace Returns on the radar
b. The GPS may give errors of position because of interference of
incoming signals from the satellites
c. The radar will be show abnormal sea clutter as the pulse is trapped by
the inversion.
d. The bearings obtained from the Directional Finder (DF) will not be as
accurate as normal
1. How can the error of the Gyro compass be determined?
a. By taking a transit bearing with the gyro compass of two prominent
fixed shore objects and comparing it with the bearing of the same
objects on the chart
b. By using any of the methods in the suggested answers
c. By comparing the course readout on the GPS with the gyro course
steered.
d. By taking the radar bearing of an object when the radar is on a compass
stabilised mode and comparing it with the bearing on the chart of the
same object
2. Is the location of the Compass Binnacle critical?
a. Yes, for the reasons stated in all of the suggested answers
b. Yes, it should be on the fore and aft centreline of the ship
c. Yes, it should be away from all electrical power cables
d. Yes, it should be sited on a non-metallic base if possible.
3. The compass binnacle on the ship has various specific functions, which of the
following answers reflect its most important functions.
a. All of the answers provided
b. Houses the corrective magnets
c. Houses the soft iron correctors
d. Provides a non-magnetic housing for the compass
4. The gyro compass can suffer from a compass error and may need to be allowed
for, when steering a course in a dangerous navigational area. What is the
probable cause of the error?
a. An uncorrected course and speed error.
b. Variation
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c. Compass Deviation
d. Fluctuations in the electrical supply to the compass.
5. What are the main components causing the magnetic compass to require a
regular evaluation and compass correction?
a. Permanent and induced magnetism in the ships structure
b. The change in the position of the magnetic pole causing annual changes
in the variation
c. Deviation and Variation
d. The continual changes of courses steered by the ship
6. What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses to reduce any
possible compass error?
a. Latitude and Speed
b. Deviation and Variation
c. Maximum helm angle and rolling period
d. All of the data in the suggested answers
7. What are the two parts of the magnetic compass error?
a. Variation and Deviation
b. Permanent and induced magnetism
c. The latitude and longitude
d. West and East errors
8. What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large
angles when the ship is rolling in a seaway?
a. The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct
position.
b. The error due to deviation is large for that ships heading
c. The induced magnetism from the earth's magnetic field is very strong in
that area
d. The Coefficient B determined by the Compass Corrector at the last dry-
dock was not correctly calculated.
9. Where can the size of the Magnetic Compass Error be found?
a. By taking a transit bearing of two fixed geographical positions and
comparing it with the bearing of the same points on the chart
b. On the chart in the centre of the compass rose or by reference to the
Variation chart, taking into account the annual changes
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c. By reference to the last entry in the Compass Error Log Book

d. By taking the error from the Deviation Table on the bridge
10. Which part of the magnetic compass error changes with a change in the course
steered?
a. Deviation
b. Variation
c. Induced magnetism
d. All of the suggested answers
1. How can an ARPA assist the ship to steer a suitable course to make good the
entrance to a channel?
a. Select ground stabilised true motion display and alter course so that own
ships true vector passes through the middle of the entrance to the
channel.
b. Acquire the buoy at the entrance to the channel and on relative vector
display alter course to make the vector of the buoy pass directly through
the centre of the screen.
c. Select True ground stabilised vectors and make the vectors from both
buoys at the entrance to the channel pass either side of the centre of the
screen.
d. Select Relative motion display and make Own Ship vector pass through
the middle of the entrance to the channel.
2. If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an echo of a
target with no trail indicate? Note this the trail of the echo and not a vector.
a. The target is on the same course and speed as own ship.
b. The target is stopped and making no way through the water
c. The target is on a collision course with own ship.
d. The target is on a constant bearing and getting closer to own ship.
3. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile.
The Arpa radar is set on a range 12 miles on a course of 314 degrees and own
ship has a vector as shown. What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa?
a. True vectors
b. Relative vectors, sea stabilized
c. Relative vectors, ground stabilized

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d. Relative vectors.
4. What corrections must be applied to the echo sounder reading to compare the
depth of water with the depth printed on the chart?
a. Draught of the ship
b. Allowance for the ships speed
c. Shallow water effects
d. The distance between the pulse Transmitter and Receiver

5. What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other

navigational aids?
a. The GPS system gives information about position, speed and time
continuously world wide.
b. The GPS system is based on hyperbola navigation.
c. The GPS system has a built-in group of six radio-beacons called a Decca
chain.
d. The GPS system gives information about weather and waveconditions in
the area.
6. What is the correct setting of the "Anti sea clutter" control on the radar?
a. A few sea returns remaining on the screen.
b. No sea returns left on the screen which may confuse with small target
echoes near the ship.
c. A removal of all the sea returns down to about a mile from own ship.
d. All of the suggested answers
7. What is the probable cause of an error in position of the ship obtained from the
GPS system?
a. Incorrect height of the antenna.
b. A three dimensional instead of a two dimensional position output
c. All of the suggested answers
d. Abnormal sun spot activity causing unusual radiation effects.
8. What possible reason could there be for the identification mark associated with
a Racon not being visible on the radar screen?
a. All of the suggested answers.

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b. The racon may not be transmitting a pulse.

c. The transmitted radar frequency may not trigger the Racon transmitter.
d. The radar may be suppressing the mark with application of the
Interference Rejection control.
9. When using the echo sounder in a river the soundings indicated may be
incorrect, what would be the most probable cause of the error?
a. The density of the water
b. The strength of the tide and current in the river
c. Shallow water effects
d. There should be no error with a properly working echo sounder
10. Which of the suggested navigational systems is a "Hyperbolic" navigational
system and has hyperbolae as position lines?
a. Loran C
b. GPS
c. Radio Direction Finder
d. All of the suggested systems
11. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when
using the Arpa for anti-collision purposes
a. The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water.
b. True motion does not provide the collision risk of other ships
c. The Relative Motion display and relative vectors is the only display to
use for anti-collision purposes.
d. The true vector can never give an indication of collision risk with
another ship
1. What action should the Officer of the Watch (OOW) take if he is forced to
make a major deviation from the voyage plan?
a. Inform the Master
b. Make an appropriate entry in the Log Book
c. There is no special action necessary
d. Check that the deviation will not lead into danger
2. What are the limits of a passage or voyage plan?
a. From berth to berth
b. From pilot to pilot

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c. From Full Away On Passage (FAOP) to End Of Passage (EOP)

d. It is dependant on the voyage and if there are any river or canal transits
3. What is the shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth?
a. Great Circle
b. Composite great circle
c. Rhumb line
d. Small circle
4. What methods could be introduced into a passage plan for continuous
monitoring of the ships position when navigating along a coastline?
a. Parallel Index lines
b. Conspicuous headlands and navigational marks for taking positions
c. The radar ranges of the coastline at all course alteration points
d. All of the suggested answers
5. When a ship is steaming along a course line, what is the importance of
determining the set and rate of drift due to wind and current?
a. All of the suggested answers
b. To determine the time required to reach the next alteration of course
point.
c. To determine the correction required to the course steered to maintain
the planned passage.
d. To appreciate the possible extent of drift and dangers in the event of
engine failure
6. When should voyage planning be done?
a. During the pilotage when leaving the berth
b. Prior to leaving the berth
c. Before the vessel completes the previous passage.
d. Before the pilot is leaves the vessel at the departure port.
7. Where can a ship expect an act of piracy to take place?
a. All over the world
b. In Far East waters
c. At the south end of the Red Sea
d. In American waters
8. Which of the answers best summarises the information which should be
provided for the bridge Officers of the Watch within an effective Voyage plan.
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a. All of the suggested answers

b. Courses to steer; distance off dangers; parallel index lines; expected
currents; prevailing winds; distance between alteration points.
c. Contingency arrangements in case of problems
d. Expected prevailing wind and weather
9. Who is ultimately responsible for the voyage plan?
a. The Master
b. The Second Officer as the official Navigation officer.
c. The Officer of the Watch (OOW) on duty
d. The ship owner will provide overall parameters within which the ship
must follow.
8. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic
compass. How should an error of 5 degrees WEST be applied to the compass
bearings?
e. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings
f. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings
g. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore it can be ignored
h. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is
required.
9. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by
other means, when possible. Which of the following suggested methods would
be the most accurate?
e. The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the radar.
f. Compass bearings of three shore objects
g. Bearing and distance from a navigational Buoy
h. Bearing using the Radio Direction Finding of three radio beacons
10. What is important to check when transferring a position from the GPS output to
a paper chart?
e. Any necessary corrections are applied to convert between the GPS
datum and the chart datum
f. It is important to ensure that the GPS is setup on 2 dimensional and not
3 dimensional position fixes.
g. Ensure that the GPS is setup on the same datum as the chart

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h. Ensure that the chart has been corrected up to date.

11. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the
accuracy of the displayed position is reduced?
e. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
f. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed on the screen
g. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm
h. The GPS display is always very accurate and does not give any
indication of lack of accuracy.
12. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for
an observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude 15°00' West, when
observing the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South?
e. Figure 4 is correct.
f. Figure 1 is correct.
g. Figure 2 is correct.
h. Figure 3 is correct.
13. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the
latitude of the observer when the sun is on the meridian?
e. Calculation 3 is correct.
f. Calculation 1 is correct.
g. Calculation 2 is correct.
h. Calculation 4 is correct.
14. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the
following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT.
Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept
correction: 00°02' Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude).
e. Figure 2 is correct.
f. Figure 1 is correct.
g. Figure 3 is correct.
h. Figure 4 is correct.

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